SB2358 95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB095 19778 KBJ 46156 b

95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2007 and 2008
SB2358

Introduced 2/14/2008, by Sen. William R. Haine

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

New Act
5 ILCS 140/7	from Ch. 116, par. 207
815 ILCS 505/2Z	from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 262Z
215 ILCS 158/Act rep.

Creates the Life Settlements Act. Provides for the regulation of providers and brokers who enter into life settlement contracts with insureds. Provides license requirements and establishes grounds for the suspension, denial, nonrenewal, or revocation of a license. Sets forth certain requirements and guidelines for life settlement contracts. Requires that providers submit an annual statement to the Director of Insurance. Requires certain documents to be produced by licensees for examination by the Director and sets guidelines for examination by the Director. Provides standards for the advertisement of life settlement contracts by licensees. Requires certain disclosures to be made in connection with life settlement contracts. Sets forth prohibited practices and exceptions. Grants the Director the authority to adopt rules. Sets forth violations and penalties for violations. Amends the Freedom of Information Act to exempt from disclosure certain documents required under the Life Settlements Act. Provides that violations of the Act constitute unfair trade practices subject to penalty under the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act and amends the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act to include the violations. Repeals the Viatical Settlements Act. Effective immediately.

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Life Settlements Act.

Section 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Advertisement" means any written, electronic, or printed communication or any communication by means of recorded telephone messages or transmitted on radio, television, the Internet, or similar communications media, including film strips, motion pictures, and videos, published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public, directly or indirectly, for the purpose of creating an interest in or inducing a person to purchase or sell, assign, devise, bequest, or transfer the death benefit or ownership of a life insurance policy or an interest in a life insurance policy pursuant to a life settlement contract.

"Broker" means a person who, on behalf of an owner and for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, offers, or attempts to negotiate life settlement contracts between an owner and providers. A "broker" represents only the owner and owes a fiduciary duty to the owner to act according to the owner's instructions, and in the best interest of the owner, notwithstanding the manner in which the broker is compensated. "Broker" does not include an attorney, certified public accountant, or financial planner retained in the type of practice customarily performed in their professional capacity to represent the owner whose compensation is not paid directly or indirectly by the provider or any other person, except the owner.

"Business of life settlements" means an activity involved in, but not limited to, offering to enter into, soliciting, negotiating, procuring, effectuating, monitoring, or tracking, of life settlement contracts.

"Chronically ill" means: (i) being unable to perform at least 2 activities of daily living, such as eating, toileting, transferring, bathing, dressing, or continence; (ii) requiring substantial supervision to protect the individual from threats to health and safety due to severe cognitive impairment; or (iii) having a level of disability similar to that described in this definition as determined by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services.

"Director" means the Director of the Division of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Division" means the Division of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Financing entity" means an underwriter, placement agent, lender, purchaser of securities, purchaser of a policy or certificate from a provider, credit enhancer, or any entity that has a direct ownership in a policy or certificate that is the subject of a life settlement contract, but: (i) whose principal activity related to the transaction is providing funds to effect the life settlement contract or purchase of one or more policies; and (ii) who has an agreement in writing with one or more providers to finance the acquisition of life settlement contracts. "Financing entity" does not include a non-accredited investor or purchaser.

"Financing transaction" means a transaction in which a licensed provider obtains financing from a financing entity including, without limitation, any secured or unsecured financing, any securitization transaction, or any securities offering that either is registered or exempt from registration under federal and State securities law.

"Fraudulent life settlement act" includes:

(a) acts or omissions committed by any person who, knowingly and with intent to defraud, for the purpose of depriving another of property or for pecuniary gain, commits or permits its employees or its agents to engage in acts including, but not limited to:

(1) presenting, causing to be presented, or preparing with knowledge and belief that it will be presented to or by a provider, premium finance lender, broker, insurer, insurance producer, or any other person, false material information, or concealing material information, as part of, in support of, or concerning a fact material to one or more of the following:

(A) an application for the issuance of a life settlement contract or insurance policy;

(B) the underwriting of a life settlement contract or insurance policy;

(C) a claim for payment or benefit pursuant to a life settlement contract or insurance policy;

(D) premiums paid on an insurance policy;

(E) payments and changes in ownership or beneficiary made in accordance with the terms of a life settlement contract or insurance policy;

(F) the reinstatement or conversion of an insurance policy;

(G) in the solicitation, offer to enter into, or effectuation of a life settlement contract, or insurance policy;

(H) the issuance of written evidence of life settlement contracts or insurance;

(I) any application for or the existence of or any payments related to a loan secured directly or indirectly by any interest in a life insurance policy; or

(G) enter into any practice or plan that involves Stranger-Originated Life Insurance; or

(2) failing to disclose to the insurer where the request for such disclosure has been asked for by the insurer that the prospective insured has undergone a life expectancy evaluation by any person or entity other than the insurer or its authorized representatives in connection with the issuance of the policy;

(3) employing any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud in the business of life settlements; and

(4) in the solicitation, application or issuance of a life insurance policy, employing any device, scheme or artifice in violation of State insurable interest laws; or

(b) in the furtherance of a fraud or to prevent the detection of a fraud any person commits or permits its employees or its agents to:

(1) remove, conceal, alter, destroy, or sequester from the Director the assets or records of a licensee or other person engaged in the business of life settlements;

(2) misrepresent or conceal the financial condition of a licensee, financing entity, insurer, or other person;

(3) transact the business of life settlements in violation of laws requiring a license, certificate of authority, or other legal authority for the transaction of the business of life settlements;

(4) file with the Director or the chief insurance regulatory official of another jurisdiction a document containing false information or otherwise concealing information about a material fact from the Director;

(5) engage in embezzlement, theft, misappropriation, or conversion of monies, funds, premiums, credits, or other property of a provider, insurer, insured, owner, insurance, policy owner, or any other person engaged in the business of life settlements or insurance;

(6) knowingly and with intent to defraud, enter into, broker, or otherwise deal in a life settlement contract, the subject of which is a life insurance policy that was obtained by presenting false information concerning any fact material to the policy or by concealing, for the purpose of misleading another, information concerning any fact material to the policy, where the owner or the owner's agent intended to defraud the policy's issuer;

(7) attempt to commit, assist, aid, or abet in the commission of, or conspiracy to commit the acts or omissions specified in this subsection; or

(8) misrepresent the state of residence of an owner to be a state or jurisdiction that does not have a law substantially similar to this Act for the purpose of evading or avoiding the provisions of this Act.

"Insured" means the person covered under the policy being considered for sale in a life settlement contract.

"Life expectancy" means the arithmetic mean of the number of months the insured under the life insurance policy to be settled can be expected to live as determined by a life expectancy company considering medical records and appropriate experiential data.

"Life insurance producer" means any person licensed in this State as a resident or nonresident insurance producer who has received qualification or authority for life insurance coverage or a life line of coverage pursuant to the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Life settlement contract" means a written agreement entered into between a provider and an owner, establishing the terms under which compensation or any thing of value will be paid, which compensation or thing of value is less than the expected death benefit of the insurance policy or certificate, in return for the owner's assignment, transfer, sale, devise, or bequest of the death benefit or any portion of an insurance policy or certificate of insurance for compensation, provided that the minimum value for a life settlement contract shall be greater than a cash surrender value or accelerated death benefit available at the time of an application for a life settlement contract. "Life settlement contract" also includes the transfer for compensation or value of ownership or beneficial interest in a trust or other entity that owns such policy if the trust or other entity was formed or availed of for the principal purpose of acquiring one or more life insurance contracts, which life insurance contract insures the life of a person residing in this State. "Life settlement contract" also includes:

(a) a written agreement for a loan or other lending transaction, secured primarily by an individual or group life insurance policy; or

(b) a premium finance loan made for a policy on or before the date of issuance of the policy where:

(1) the loan proceeds are not used solely to pay premiums for the policy and any costs or expenses incurred by the lender or the borrower in connection with the financing;

(2) the owner receives on the date of the premium finance loan a guarantee of the future life settlement value of the policy; or

(3) the owner agrees on the date of the premium finance loan to sell the policy or any portion of its death benefit on any date following the issuance of the policy.

"Life settlement contract" does not include:

(a) a policy loan by a life insurance company pursuant to the terms of the life insurance policy or accelerated death provisions contained in the life insurance policy, whether issued with the original policy or as a rider;

(b) a premium finance loan or any loan made by a bank or other licensed financial institution, provided that neither default on such loan, nor the transfer of the policy in connection with such default is pursuant to an agreement or understanding with any other person for the purpose of evading regulation under this Act;

(c) a collateral assignment of a life insurance policy by an owner;

(d) a loan made by a lender, provided that such loan is not a written agreement for a loan or other lending transaction, secured primarily by an individual or group life insurance policy, and is not otherwise within the definition of life settlement contract;

(e) an agreement where all the parties (i) are closely related to the insured by blood or law or (ii) have a lawful substantial economic interest in the continued life, health, and bodily safety of the person insured, or are trusts established primarily for the benefit of such parties;

(f) any designation, consent, or agreement by an insured who is an employee of an employer in connection with the purchase by the employer, or trust established by the employer, of life insurance on the life of the employee;

(g) a bona fide business succession planning arrangement: (i) between one or more shareholders in a corporation or between a corporation and one or more of its shareholders or one or more trust established by its shareholders; (ii) between one or more partners in a partnership or between a partnership and one or more of its partners or one or more trust established by its partners; or (iii) between one or more members in a limited liability company or between a limited liability company and one or more of its members or one or more trust established by its members;

(h) an agreement entered into by a service recipient or a trust established by the service recipient, and a service provider, or a trust established by the service provider, who performs significant services for the service recipient's trade or business; or

(i) any other contract, transaction, or arrangement from the definition of life settlement contract that the Director determines is not of the type intended to be regulated by this Act.

"Net death benefit" means the amount of the life insurance policy or certificate to be settled less any outstanding debts or liens.

"Owner" means the owner of a life insurance policy or a certificate holder under a group policy, with or without a terminal illness, who enters or seeks to enter into a life settlement contract. For the purposes of this Act, "owner" shall not be limited to an owner of a life insurance policy or a certificate holder under a group policy that insures the life of an individual with a terminal or chronic illness or condition except where specifically addressed. "Owner" does not include:

(a) any provider or other licensee under this Act;

(b) a qualified institutional buyer as defined in Rule 144A of the federal Securities Act of 1933, as amended;

(c) a financing entity;

(d) a special purpose entity; or 5.a related provider trust.

"Patient identifying information" means an insured's address, telephone number, facsimile number, electronic mail address, photograph or likeness, employer, employment status, social security number, or any other information that is likely to lead to the identification of the insured.

"Policy" means an individual or group policy, group certificate, contract, or arrangement of life insurance owned by a resident of this State, regardless of whether delivered or issued for delivery in this State.

"Premium finance loan" is a loan made primarily for the purposes of making premium payments on a life insurance policy, which loan is secured by an interest in such life insurance policy.

"Person" means any natural person or legal entity, including but not limited to, a partnership, limited liability company, association, trust, or corporation.

"Provider" means a person, other than an owner, who enters into or effectuates a life settlement contract with an owner. "Provider" does not include:

(1) any bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, or credit union;

(2) a licensed lending institution or creditor or secured party pursuant to a premium finance loan agreement that takes an assignment of a life insurance policy or certificate issued pursuant to a group life insurance policy as collateral for a loan;

(3) the insurer of a life insurance policy or rider to the extent of providing accelerated death benefits or riders or cash surrender value;

(4) any natural person who enters into or effectuates no more than one agreement in a calendar year for the transfer of a life insurance policy or certificate issued pursuant to a group life insurance policy, for compensation or anything of value less than the expected death benefit payable under the policy;

(5) a purchaser;

(6) any authorized or eligible insurer that provides stop loss coverage to a provider; purchaser, financing entity, special purpose entity, or related provider trust;

(7) a financing entity;

(8) a special purpose entity;

(9) a related provider trust;

(10) a broker; or

(11) an accredited investor or qualified institutional buyer as defined in respectively in regulation D, rule 501 or Rule 144A of the federal Securities Act of 1933, as amended, who purchases a life settlement policy from a provider.

"Purchased policy" means a policy or group certificate that has been acquired by a provider pursuant to a life settlement contract.

"Purchaser" means a person who pays compensation or anything of value as consideration for a beneficial interest in a trust which is vested with, or for the assignment, transfer or sale of, an ownership or other interest in a life insurance policy or a certificate issued pursuant to a group life insurance policy which has been the subject of a life settlement contract.

"Related provider trust" means a titling trust or other trust established by a licensed provider or a financing entity for the sole purpose of holding the ownership or beneficial interest in purchased policies in connection with a financing transaction. A "related provider trust" must have a written agreement with the licensed provider under which the licensed provider is responsible for ensuring compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements and under which the trust agrees to make all records and files relating to life settlement transactions available to the Division as if those records and files were maintained directly by the licensed provider.

"Settled policy" means a life insurance policy or certificate that has been acquired by a provider pursuant to a life settlement contract.

"Special Purpose Entity" means a corporation, partnership, trust, limited liability company, or other legal entity formed solely to provide either directly or indirectly access to institutional capital markets:

(a) for a financing entity or provider;

(b) in connection with a transaction in which the securities in the special purpose entity are acquired by the owner or by a "qualified institutional buyer" as defined in Rule 144 of the federal Securities Act of 1933, as amended; or

(c) the securities pay a fixed rate of return commensurate with established asset-backed institutional capital markets.

"Stranger-Originated Life Insurance" or "STOLI" is the is a practice or plan to initiate a life insurance policy for the benefit of a third party investor who, at the time of policy origination, has no insurable interest in the insured. "STOLI" practices include, but are not limited to, cases where life insurance is purchased with resources or guarantees from or through a person or entity that, at the time of policy inception, could not lawfully initiate the policy himself or itself, and where, at the time of inception, there is an arrangement or agreement, whether verbal or written, to directly or indirectly transfer the ownership of the policy or the policy benefits to a third party. Trusts that are created to give the appearance of insurable interest and are used to initiate policies for investors, violate insurable interest laws and the prohibition against wagering on life. "STOLI" arrangements do not include:

(a) a policy loan by a life insurance company pursuant to the terms of the life insurance policy or accelerated death provisions contained in the life insurance policy, whether issued with the original policy or as a rider;

(b) a premium finance loan or any loan made by a bank or other licensed financial institution, provided that neither default on such loan, nor the transfer of the policy in connection with such default is pursuant to an agreement or understanding with any other person for the purpose of evading regulation under this Act;

(c) a collateral assignment of a life insurance policy by an owner;

(d) a loan made by a lender, provided that such loan is not a written agreement for a loan or other lending transaction, secured primarily by an individual or group life insurance policy, and is not otherwise within the definition of life settlement contract;

(e) an agreement where all the parties (i) are closely related to the insured by blood or law or (ii) have a lawful substantial economic interest in the continued life, health, and bodily safety of the person insured, or are trusts established primarily for the benefit of such parties;

(f) any designation, consent, or agreement by an insured who is an employee of an employer in connection with the purchase by the employer, or trust established by the employer, of life insurance on the life of the employee;

(g) a bona fide business succession planning arrangement: (i) between one or more shareholders in a corporation or between a corporation and one or more of its shareholders or one or more trust established by its shareholders; (ii) between one or more partners in a partnership or between a partnership and one or more of its partners or one or more trust established by its partners; or (iii) between one or more members in a limited liability company or between a limited liability company and one or more of its members or one or more trust established by its members;

(h) an agreement entered into by a service recipient or a trust established by the service recipient, and a service provider, or a trust established by the service provider, who performs significant services for the service recipient's trade or business; or

(i) any other contract, transaction, or arrangement from the definition of life settlement contract that the Director determines is not of the type intended to be regulated by this Act.

"Terminally ill" means having an illness or sickness that can reasonably be expected to result in death in 24 months or less.

Section 10. Licensing requirements.

(a) No person, wherever located, shall act as a provider or broker with an owner or multiple owners who is a resident of this State, without first having obtained a license from the Director. If there is more than one owner on a single policy and the owners are residents of different states, the life settlement contract shall be governed by the law of the state where the owner having the largest percentage ownership resides or, if the owners hold equal ownership, the state of residence of one owner agreed upon in writing by all owners.

(b) Application for a provider or broker license shall be made to the Director by the applicant on a form prescribed by the Director, and the application shall be accompanied by a fee in an amount established by the Director, provided that the license and renewal fees for a provider license shall be reasonable and that the license and renewal fees for a broker license shall not exceed those established for an insurance producer, as such fees are otherwise provided for in this Act.

(c) A life insurance producer who has been duly licensed as a resident insurance producer with a life line of authority in this State or his or her home state for at least one year and is licensed as a nonresident producer in this State shall be deemed to meet the licensing requirements of this Section and shall be permitted to operate as a broker.

(d) Not later than 30 days from the first day of operating as a broker, the life insurance producer shall notify the Director that he or she is acting as a broker on a form prescribed by the Director, and shall pay any applicable fee to be determined by the Director. Notification shall include an acknowledgement by the life insurance producer that he or she will operate as a broker in accordance with this Act.

(e) The insurer that issued the policy that is the subject of a life settlement contract shall not be responsible for any act or omission of a broker, provider, or purchaser arising out of or in connection with the life settlement transaction, unless the insurer receives compensation for the placement of a life settlement contract from the provider, purchaser, or broker in connection with the life settlement contract.

(f) A person licensed as an attorney, certified public accountant, or financial planner accredited by a nationally recognized accreditation agency, who is retained to represent the owner and whose compensation is not paid directly or indirectly by the provider or purchaser may negotiate life settlement contracts on behalf of the owner without having to obtain a license as a broker.

(g) Licenses may be renewed every 2 years on the anniversary date upon payment of the periodic renewal fee. As specified by subsection (b) of this Section, the renewal fee for a provider shall not exceed a reasonable fee. Failure to pay the fee within the terms prescribed shall result in the automatic revocation of the license requiring periodic renewal.

(h) The term of a provider license shall be equal to that of a domestic stock life insurance company and the term of a broker license shall be equal to that of an insurance producer license. Licenses requiring periodic renewal may be renewed on their anniversary date upon payment of the periodic renewal fee as specified in subsection (b) of this Section. Failure to pay the fees on or before the renewal date shall result in expiration of the license.

(i) The applicant shall provide such information as the Director may require on forms prepared by the Director. The Director shall have authority, at any time, to require such applicant to fully disclose the identity of its stockholders (except stockholders owning fewer than 10% of the shares of an applicant whose shares are publicly traded), partners, officers, and employees, and the Director may, in the exercise of the Director's sole discretion, refuse to issue such a license in the name of any person if not satisfied that any officer, employee, stockholder, or partner thereof who may materially influence the applicant's conduct meets the standards of this Act.

(j) A license issued to a partnership, corporation, or other entity authorizes all members, officers and designated employees to act as a licensee under the license, if those persons are named in the application and any supplements to the application.

(k) Upon the filing of an application and the payment of the license fee, the Director shall make an investigation of each applicant and may issue a license if the Director finds that the applicant:

(1) if a provider, has provided a detailed plan of operation;

(2) is competent, trustworthy, and intends to transact its business in good faith;

(3) has a good business reputation and has had experience, training or education so as to be qualified in the business for which the license is applied;

(4) if the applicant is a legal entity, is formed or organized pursuant to the laws of this State or is a foreign legal entity authorized to transact business in this State, or provides a certificate of good standing from the state of its domicile; and

(5) has provided to the Director an anti-fraud plan that meets the requirements of Section 60 of this Act and includes:

(A) a description of the procedures for detecting and investigating possible fraudulent acts and procedures for resolving material inconsistencies between medical records and insurance applications;

(B) a description of the procedures for reporting fraudulent insurance acts to the Director;

(C) a description of the plan for anti-fraud education and training of its underwriters and other personnel; and

(D) a written description or chart outlining the arrangement of the anti-fraud personnel who are responsible for the investigation and reporting of possible fraudulent insurance acts and investigating unresolved material inconsistencies between medical records and insurance applications.

(l) The Director shall not issue any license to any nonresident applicant, unless a written designation of an agent for service of process is filed and maintained with the Director or unless the applicant has filed with the Director the applicant's written irrevocable consent that any action against the applicant may be commenced against the applicant by service of process on the Director.

(m) Each licensee shall file with the Director on or before the first day of March of each year an annual statement containing information as the Director by rule may prescribe.

(n) A provider may not use any person to perform the functions of a broker as defined in this Act unless the person holds a current, valid license as a broker, and as provided in this Section.

(o) A broker may not use any person to perform the functions of a provider as defined in this Act unless such person holds a current, valid license as a provider, and as provided in this Section.

(p) A provider, or broker shall provide to the Director new or revised information about officers, 10% or more stockholders, partners, directors, members, or designated employees within 30 days of the change.

(q) An individual licensed as a broker shall complete on a biennial basis 15 hours of training related to life settlements and life settlement transactions, as required by the Director; provided, however, that a life insurance producer who is operating as a broker pursuant to this Section shall not be subject to the requirements of this subsection (q). Any person failing to meet the requirements of this subsection (q) shall be subject to the penalties imposed by the Director.

Section 15. License suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew.

(a) The Director may suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of any licensee if the Director finds that:

(1) there was any material misrepresentation in the application for the license;

(2) the licensee or any officer, partner, member, or director has been guilty of fraudulent or dishonest practices, is subject to a final administrative action or is otherwise shown to be untrustworthy or incompetent to act as a licensee;

(3) the provider demonstrates a pattern of unreasonably withholding payments to policy owners;

(4) the licensee no longer meets the requirements for initial licensure;

(5) the licensee or any officer, partner, member or director has been convicted of a felony, or of any misdemeanor of which criminal fraud is an element; or the licensee has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere with respect to any felony or any misdemeanor of which criminal fraud or moral turpitude is an element, regardless whether a judgment of conviction has been entered by the court;

(6) the provider has entered into any life settlement contract that has not been approved pursuant to the Act;

(7) the provider has failed to honor contractual obligations set out in a life settlement contract;

(8) the provider has assigned, transferred, or pledged a settled policy to a person other than a Provider licensed in this State, a purchaser, an accredited investor, or qualified institutional buyer as defined respectively in Regulation D, Rule 501, or Rule 144A of the federal Securities Act of 1933, as amended, financing entity, special purpose entity, or related provider trust; or

(9) the licensee or any officer, partner, member or key management personnel has violated any of the provisions of this Act.

(b) Before the Director denies a license application or suspends, revokes, or refuses to renew the license of any licensee under this Act, the Director shall conduct a hearing in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

Section 20. Contract requirements.

(a) No person may use any form of life settlement contract in this State unless it has been filed with and approved, if required, by the Director in a manner that conforms with the filing procedures and any time restrictions or deeming provisions, if any, for life insurance forms, policies and contracts.

(b) No insurer may, as a condition of responding to a request for verification of coverage or in connection with the transfer of a policy pursuant to a life settlement contract, require that the owner, insured, provider, or broker sign any form, disclosure, consent, waiver, or acknowledgment that has not been expressly approved by the Director for use in connection with life settlement contracts in this State.

(c) A person shall not use a life settlement contract form or provide to an owner a disclosure statement form in this State unless first filed with and approved by the Director. The Director shall not approve a life settlement contract form or disclosure statement form if, in the Director's opinion, the contract or provisions contained therein fail to meet the requirements of Sections 35, 40, 50, and subsection (b) of Section 70 of this Act or are unreasonable, contrary to the interests of the public, or otherwise misleading or unfair to the owner. At the Director's discretion, the Director may require the submission of advertising material.

Section 25. Reporting requirements and privacy.

(a) For any policy settled within 5 years of policy issuance, each provider shall file with the Director on or before March 1 of each year an annual statement containing such information as the Director may prescribe by rule. In addition to any other requirements, the annual statement shall specify the total number, aggregate face amount, and life settlement proceeds of policies settled during the immediately preceding calendar year, together with a breakdown of the information by policy issue year. The annual statement shall also include the names of the insurance companies whose policies have been settled and the names of the brokers that have settled the policies.

(1) This information shall be limited to only those transactions where the insured is a resident of this State and shall not include individual transaction data regarding the business of life settlements or information that there is a reasonable basis to believe could be used to identify the owner or the insured.

(2) Every provider that willfully fails to file an annual statement as required in this Section, or willfully fails to reply within 30 days to a written inquiry by the Director, shall, in addition to other penalties provided by this Act, be subject, upon due notice and opportunity to be heard, to a penalty of up to $250 per day of delay, not to exceed $25,000 in the aggregate, for each such failure.

(b) Except as otherwise allowed or required by law, a provider, broker, insurance company, insurance producer, information bureau, rating agency, or company, or any other person with actual knowledge of an insured's identity, shall not disclose the identity of an insured or information that there is a reasonable basis to believe could be used to identify the insured or the insured's financial or medical information to any other person unless the disclosure:

(1) is necessary to effect a life settlement contract between the owner and a provider and the owner and insured have provided prior written consent to the disclosure;

(2) is necessary to effectuate the sale of life settlement contracts, or interests therein, as investments, provided the sale is conducted in accordance with applicable State and federal securities law and provided further that the owner and the insured have both provided prior written consent to the disclosure;

(3) is provided in response to an investigation or examination by the Director or any other governmental officer or agency or pursuant to the requirements of Section 60;

(4) is a term or condition to the transfer of a policy by one provider to another provider, in which case the receiving provider shall be required to comply with the confidentiality requirements of subsection (b) of Section 25;

(5) is necessary to allow the provider or broker or their authorized representatives to make contacts for the purpose of determining health status. For the purposes of this Section, the term "authorized representative" shall not include any person who has or may have any financial interest in the settlement contract other than a provider, licensed broker, financing entity, related provider trust or special purpose entity; further, a provider, or broker shall require its authorized representative to agree in writing to adhere to the privacy provisions of this Act; or

(6) is required to purchase stop loss coverage.

(c) Non-public personal information solicited or obtained in connection with a proposed or actual life settlement contract shall be subject to the provisions applicable to financial institutions under the federal Gramm Leach Bliley Act and all other State and federal laws relating to confidentiality of non-public personal information.

Section 30. Examination.

(a) The Director may, when the Director deems it reasonably necessary to protect the interests of the public, examine the business and affairs of any licensee or applicant for a license. The Director may order any licensee or applicant to produce any records, books, files, or other information reasonably necessary to ascertain whether a licensee or applicant is acting or has acted in violation of the law or otherwise contrary to the interests of the public. The expenses incurred in conducting any examination shall be paid by the licensee or applicant.

(b) In lieu of an examination under this Act of any foreign or alien licensee licensed in this State, the Director may, at the Director's discretion, accept an examination report on the licensee as prepared by the Director for the licensee's state of domicile or port-of-entry state.

(c) Names of and individual identification data, or for all owners and insureds shall be considered private and confidential information and shall not be disclosed by the Director unless required by law.

(d) Records of all consummated transactions and life settlement contracts shall be maintained by the provider for 3 years after the death of the insured and shall be available to the Director for inspection during reasonable business hours.

(e) Upon determining that an examination should be conducted, the Director shall issue an examination warrant appointing one or more examiners to perform the examination and instructing them as to the scope of the examination. In conducting the examination, the examiner shall use methods common to the examination of any life settlement licensee and should use those guidelines and procedures set forth in an examiners' handbook adopted by a national organization.

Every licensee or person from whom information is sought, its officers, directors, and agents shall provide to the examiners timely, convenient, and free access at all reasonable hours at its offices to all books, records, accounts, papers, documents, assets, and computer or other recordings relating to the property, assets, business, and affairs of the licensee being examined. The officers, directors, employees, and agents of the licensee or person shall facilitate the examination and aid in the examination so far as it is in their power to do so. The refusal of a licensee, by its officers, directors, employees, or agents to submit to examination or to comply with any reasonable written request of the Director shall be grounds for suspension or refusal of, or nonrenewal of any license or authority held by the licensee to engage in the life settlement business or other business subject to the Director's jurisdiction. Any proceedings for suspension, revocation, or refusal of any license or authority shall be conducted.

The Director shall have the power to issue subpoenas, to administer oaths, and to examine under oath any person as to any matter pertinent to the examination. Upon the failure or refusal of a person to obey a subpoena, the Director may petition a court of competent jurisdiction, and upon proper showing, the Court may enter an order compelling the witness to appear and testify or produce documentary evidence.

When making an examination under this Act, the Director may retain attorneys, appraisers, independent actuaries, independent certified public accountants, or other professionals and specialists as examiners, the reasonable cost of which shall be borne by the licensee that is the subject of the examination. Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to limit the Director's authority to terminate or suspend an examination in order to pursue other legal or regulatory action pursuant to the insurance laws of this State. Findings of fact and conclusions made pursuant to any examination shall be prima facie evidence in any legal or regulatory action.

Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to limit the Director's authority to use and, if appropriate, to make public any final or preliminary examination report, any examiner or licensee work papers or other documents, or any other information discovered or developed during the course of any examination in the furtherance of any legal or regulatory action that the Director may, in his or her sole discretion, deem appropriate.

(f) Examination reports shall be comprised of only facts appearing upon the books, from the testimony of its officers or agents or other persons examined concerning its affairs, and such conclusions and recommendations as the examiners find reasonably warranted from the facts. No later than 60 days following completion of the examination, the examiner in charge shall file with the Director a verified written report of examination under oath. Upon receipt of the verified report, the Director shall transmit the report to the licensee examined, together with a notice that shall afford the licensee examined a reasonable opportunity of not more than 30 days to make a written submission or rebuttal with respect to any matters contained in the examination report and which shall become part of the report or to request a hearing on any matter in dispute. In the event the Director determines that regulatory action is appropriate as a result of an examination, the Director may initiate any proceedings or actions provided by law.

(g) Names and individual identification data for all owners, purchasers, and insureds shall be considered private and confidential information and shall not be disclosed by the Director, unless the disclosure is to another regulator or is required by law. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, all examination reports, working papers, recorded information, documents, and copies thereof produced by, obtained by or disclosed to the Director or any other person in the course of an examination made under this Act, or in the course of analysis or investigation by the Director of the financial condition or market conduct of a licensee shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to the Freedom of Information Act, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action. The Director is authorized to use the documents, materials, or other information in the furtherance of any regulatory or legal action brought as part of the Director's official duties. The licensee being examined may have access to all documents used to make the report.

(h) An examiner may not be appointed by the Director if the examiner, either directly or indirectly, has a conflict of interest, or is affiliated with the management of or owns a pecuniary interest in any person subject to examination under this Act. This Section shall not be construed to automatically preclude an examiner from being: (i) an owner; (ii) an insured in a life settlement contract or insurance policy; or (iii) a beneficiary in an insurance policy that is proposed for a life settlement contract. Notwithstanding the requirements of this clause, the Director may retain from time to time, on an individual basis, qualified actuaries, certified public accountants, or other similar individuals who are independently practicing their professions, even though these persons may from time to time be similarly employed or retained by persons subject to examination under this Act.

(i) (1) No cause of action shall arise nor shall any liability be imposed against the Director, the Director's authorized representatives, or any examiner appointed by the Director for any statements made or conduct performed in good faith while carrying out the provisions of this Act.

(2) No cause of action shall arise, nor shall any liability be imposed against any person for the act of communicating or delivering information or data to the Director or the Director's authorized representative or examiner pursuant to an examination made under this Act, if the act of communication or delivery was performed in good faith and without fraudulent intent or the intent to deceive. This paragraph does not abrogate or modify in any way any common law or statutory privilege or immunity heretofore enjoyed by any person identified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (i).

(3) A person identified in this subsection (i) shall be entitled to an award of attorney's fees and costs if he or she is the prevailing party in a civil cause of action for libel, slander, or any other relevant tort arising out of activities in carrying out the provisions of this Act and the party bringing the action was not substantially justified in doing so. For purposes of this Section a proceeding is "substantially justified" if it had a reasonable basis in law or fact at the time that it was initiated.

(j) The Director may investigate suspected fraudulent life settlement acts and persons engaged in the business of life settlements.

Section 35. Advertising.

(a) A broker or provider licensed pursuant to this Act may conduct or participate in advertisements within this State. Such advertisements shall comply with all advertising and marketing laws or rules and regulations promulgated by the Director that are applicable to life insurers or to brokers, and providers licensed pursuant to this Act.

(b) Advertisements shall be accurate, truthful, and not misleading in fact or by implication.

(c) No person or trust shall: (i) directly or indirectly, market, advertise, solicit, or otherwise promote the purchase of a policy for the sole purpose of or with an emphasis on settling the policy; or (ii) use the words "free", "no cost", or words of similar import in the marketing, advertising, soliciting, or otherwise promoting of the purchase of a policy.

Section 40. Disclosures to owners.

(a) The provider shall provide in writing, in a separate document that is signed by the owner and provider, the following information to the owner no later than the date the life settlement contract is signed by all parties:

(1) the fact that possible alternatives to life settlement contracts exist, including, but not limited to, accelerated benefits offered by the issuer of the life insurance policy;

(2) the fact that some or all of the proceeds of a life settlement contract may be taxable and that assistance should be sought from a professional tax advisor;

(3) the fact that the proceeds from a life settlement contract could be subject to the claims of creditors;

(4) the fact that receipt of proceeds from a life settlement contract may adversely affect the recipients' eligibility for public assistance or other government benefits or entitlements and that advice should be obtained from the appropriate agencies;

(5) the fact that the owner has a right to terminate a life settlement contract within 15 days of the date it is executed by all parties and the owner has received the disclosures contained herein. Rescission, if exercised by the owner, is effective only if both notice of the rescission is given, and the owner repays all proceeds and any premiums, loans, and loan interest paid on account of the provider within the rescission period. If the insured dies during the rescission period, the contract shall be deemed to have been rescinded subject to repayment by the owner or the owner's estate of all proceeds and any premiums, loans, and loan interest to the provider;

(6) the fact that proceeds will be sent to the owner within 3 business days after the provider has received the insurer or group administrator's acknowledgement that ownership of the policy or interest in the certificate has been transferred and the beneficiary has been designated in accordance with the terms of the life settlement contract;

(7) the fact that entering into a life settlement contract may cause other rights or benefits, including conversion rights and waiver of premium benefits that may exist under the policy or certificate of a group policy to be forfeited by the owner and that assistance should be sought from a professional financial advisor;

(8) the amount and method of calculating the compensation paid or to be paid to the broker, or any other person acting for the owner in connection with the transaction, wherein the term compensation includes anything of value paid or given;

(9) the date by which the funds will be available to the owner and the transmitter of the funds;

(10) the fact that the Director shall require delivery of a Buyer's Guide or a similar consumer advisory package in the form prescribed by the Director to owners during the solicitation process;

(11) the disclosure document shall contain the following language:

"All medical, financial or personal information solicited or obtained by a provider or broker about an insured, including the insured's identity or the identity of family members, a spouse or a significant other may be disclosed as necessary to effect the life settlement contract between the owner and provider. If you are asked to provide this information, you will be asked to consent to the disclosure. The information may be provided to someone who buys the policy or provides funds for the purchase. You may be asked to renew your permission to share information every 2 years.";

(12) the fact that the Director shall require providers and brokers to print separate signed fraud warnings on their applications and on their life settlement contracts is as follows:

"Any person who knowingly presents false information in an application for insurance or life settlement contract is guilty of a crime and may be subject to fines and confinement in prison.";

(13) the fact that the insured may be contacted by either the provider or broker or its authorized representative for the purpose of determining the insured's health status or to verify the insured's address. This contact is limited to once every 3 months if the insured has a life expectancy of more than one year, and no more than once per month if the insured has a life expectancy of one year or less;

(14) the affiliation, if any, between the provider and the issuer of the insurance policy to be settled;

(15) that a broker represents exclusively the owner, and not the insurer or the provider or any other person, and owes a fiduciary duty to the owner, including a duty to act according to the owner's instructions and in the best interest of the owner;

(16) the document shall include the name, address, and telephone number of the provider;

(17) the name, business address, and telephone number of the independent third party escrow agent, and the fact that the owner may inspect or receive copies of the relevant escrow or trust agreements or documents;

(18) the fact that a change of ownership could in the future limit the insured's ability to purchase future insurance on the insured's life because there is a limit to how much coverage insurers will issue on one life.

(b) The written disclosures shall be conspicuously displayed in any life settlement contract furnished to the owner by a provider, including any affiliations or contractual arrangements between the provider and the broker.

(c) A broker shall provide the owner and the provider with at least the following disclosures no later than the date the life settlement contract is signed by all parties. The disclosures shall be conspicuously displayed in the life settlement contract or in a separate document signed by the owner and provide the following information:

(1) the name, business address, and telephone number of the broker;

(2) a full, complete, and accurate description of all the offers, counter-offers, acceptances, and rejections relating to the proposed life settlement contract;

(3) a written disclosure of any affiliations or contractual arrangements between the broker and any person making an offer in connection with the proposed life settlement contracts;

(4) the name of each broker who receives compensation and the amount of compensation received by that broker, which compensation includes anything of value paid or given to the broker in connection with the life settlement contract;

(5) a complete reconciliation of the gross offer or bid by the provider to the net amount of proceeds or value to be received by the owner. For the purpose of this Section, gross offer or bid shall mean the total amount or value offered by the provider for the purchase of one or more life insurance policies, inclusive of commissions and fees; and

(6) the failure to provide the disclosures or rights described in this Section shall be deemed an unfair trade practice pursuant to Section 80 of this Act.

Section 45. Disclosure to insurer. Without limiting the ability of an insurer from assessing the insurability of a policy applicant and determining whether or not to issue the policy, and in addition to other questions an insurance carrier may lawfully pose to a life insurance applicant, insurance carriers may inquire in the application for insurance whether the proposed owner intends to pay premiums with the assistance of financing from a lender that will use the policy as collateral to support the financing.

(1) If the loan provides funds that can be used for a purpose other than paying for the premiums, costs, and expenses associated with obtaining and maintaining the life insurance policy and loan, the application shall be rejected as a violation of the prohibited practices in Section 60 of this Act.

(2) If the financing does not violate Section 60 in this manner, the insurance carrier:

(A) may make disclosures, including but not limited to such as the following, to the applicant and the insured, either on the application or an amendment to the application to be completed no later than the delivery of the policy:

"If you have entered into a loan arrangement where the policy is used as collateral, and the policy does change ownership at some point in the future in satisfaction of the loan, the following may be true: (i) a change of ownership could lead to a stranger owning an interest in the insured's life; (ii )a change of ownership could in the future limit your ability to purchase future insurance on the insured's life because there is a limit to how much coverage insurers will issue on one life; (iii) should there be a change of ownership and you wish to obtain more insurance coverage on the insured's life in the future, the insured's higher issue age, a change in health status, or other factors may reduce the ability to obtain coverage or may result in significantly higher premiums; and (iv) you should consult a professional advisor, since a change in ownership in satisfaction of the loan may result in tax consequences to the owner, depending on the structure of the loan."; and

(B) may require certifications, such as the following, from the applicant or the insured:

"(i) I have not entered into any agreement or arrangement providing for the future sale of this life insurance policy. (ii) My loan arrangement for this policy provides funds sufficient to pay for some or all of the premiums, costs, and expenses associated with obtaining and maintaining my life insurance policy, but I have not entered into any agreement by which I am to receive consideration in exchange for procuring this policy. (iii) The borrower has an insurable interest in the insured.".

Section 50. General rules.

(a) A provider entering into a life settlement contract with any owner of a policy, wherein the insured is terminally or chronically ill, shall first obtain:

(1) if the owner is the insured, a written statement from a licensed attending physician that the owner is of sound mind and under no constraint or undue influence to enter into a settlement contract; and

(2) a document in which the insured consents to the release of his medical records to a provider, settlement broker, or insurance producer and, if the policy was issued less than 2 years from the date of application for a settlement contract, to the insurance company that issued the policy.

(b) The insurer shall respond to a request for verification of coverage submitted by a provider, settlement broker, or life insurance producer not later than 30 calendar days of the date the request is received. The request for verification of coverage must be made on a form approved by the Director. The insurer shall complete and issue the verification of coverage or indicate in which respects it is unable to respond. In its response, the insurer shall indicate whether, based on the medical evidence and documents provided, the insurer intends to pursue an investigation at this time regarding the validity of the insurance contract.

(c) Before or at the time of execution of the settlement contract, the provider shall obtain a witnessed document in which the owner consents to the settlement contract, represents that the owner has a full and complete understanding of the settlement contract, that the owner has a full and complete understanding of the benefits of the policy, acknowledges that the owner is entering into the settlement contract freely and voluntarily, and, for persons with a terminal or chronic illness or condition, acknowledges that the insured has a terminal or chronic illness and that the terminal or chronic illness or condition was diagnosed after the policy was issued.

(d) The insurer shall not unreasonably delay effecting change of ownership or beneficiary with any life settlement contract lawfully entered into in this State or with a resident of this State.

(e) If a settlement broker or life insurance producer performs any of these activities required of the provider, the provider is deemed to have fulfilled the requirements of this Section.

(f) If a broker performs those verification of coverage activities required of the provider, the provider is deemed to have fulfilled the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 40.

(g) Within 20 days after an owner executes the life settlement contract, the provider shall give written notice to the insurer that issued that insurance policy that the policy has become subject to a life settlement contract. The notice shall be accompanied by the documents required by paragraph (2) of Section 45 of this Act.

(h) All medical information solicited or obtained by any licensee shall be subject to the applicable provision of State law relating to confidentiality of medical information, if not otherwise provided in this Act.

(i) All life settlement contracts entered into in this State shall provide that the owner may rescind the contract on or before 15 days after the date it is executed by all parties to the contract. Rescission, if exercised by the owner, is effective only if both notice of the rescission is given, and the owner repays all proceeds and any premiums, loans, and loan interest paid on account of the provider within the rescission period. If the insured dies during the rescission period, the Contract shall be deemed to have been rescinded subject to repayment by the owner or the owner's estate of all proceeds and any premiums, loans, and loan interest to the provider.

(j) Within 3 business days after receipt from the owner of documents to effect the transfer of the insurance policy, the provider shall pay the proceeds of the settlement to an escrow or trust account managed by a trustee or escrow agent in a state or federally chartered financial institution pending acknowledgement of the transfer by the issuer of the policy. The trustee or escrow agent shall be required to transfer the proceeds due to the owner within 3 business days of acknowledgement of the transfer from the insurer.

(k) Failure to tender the life settlement contract proceeds to the owner by the date disclosed to the owner renders the contract voidable by the owner for lack of consideration until the time the proceeds are tendered to and accepted by the owner. A failure to give written notice of the right of rescission hereunder shall toll the right of rescission until 30 days after the written notice of the right of rescission has been given.

(l) Any fee paid by a provider, party, individual, or an owner to a broker in exchange for services provided to the owner pertaining to a life settlement contract shall be computed as a percentage of the offer obtained, not the face value of the policy. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting a broker from reducing such broker's fee below this percentage if the broker so chooses.

(m) The broker shall disclose to the owner anything of value paid or given to a broker, which relate to a life settlement contract.

(n) No person at any time prior to, or at the time of, the application for, or issuance of, a policy, or during a two-year period commencing with the date of issuance of the policy, shall enter into a Life Settlement regardless of the date the compensation is to be provided and regardless of the date the assignment, transfer, sale, devise, bequest or surrender of the policy is to occur. This prohibition shall not apply if the owner certifies to the provider that:

(1) the policy was issued upon the owner's exercise of conversion rights arising out of a group or individual policy, provided the total of the time covered under the conversion policy plus the time covered under the prior policy is at least 24 months. The time covered under a group policy must be calculated without regard to a change in insurance carriers, provided the coverage has been continuous and under the same group sponsorship;

(2) the owner submits independent evidence to the provider that one or more of the following conditions have been met within the 2 year period:

(A) the owner or insured is terminally or chronically ill;

(B) the owner or insured disposes of his ownership interests in a closely held corporation, pursuant to the terms of a buyout or other similar agreement in effect at the time the insurance policy was initially issued;

(C) the owner's spouse dies;

(D) the owner divorces his or her spouse;

(E) the owner retires from full-time employment;

(F) the owner becomes physically or mentally disabled and a physician determines that the disability prevents the owner from maintaining full-time employment; or

(G) a final order, judgment or decree is entered by a court of competent jurisdiction, on the application of a creditor of the owner, adjudicating the Owner bankrupt or insolvent, or approving a petition seeking reorganization of the Owner or appointing a receiver, trustee or liquidator to all or a substantial part of the Owner's assets;

(3) copies of the independent evidence required by paragraph (2) of subsection (n) of this Section shall be submitted to the insurer when the provider submits a request to the insurer for verification of coverage. The copies shall be accompanied by a letter of attestation from the provider that the copies are true and correct copies of the documents received by the provider. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit an insurer from exercising its right to contest the validity of any policy; and

(4) if the provider submits to the insurer a copy of independent evidence provided for paragraph (A) of subsection (2) of this Section when the provider submits a request to the insurer to effect the transfer of the policy to the provider, the copy is deemed to establish that the settlement contract satisfies the requirements of this Section.

Section 55. Authority to promulgate rules; conflict of laws.

(a) The Director may promulgate rules implementing this Act and regulating the activities and relationships of providers, brokers, insurers, and their agents, subject to statutory limitations on administrative rule making.

(b) If there is more than one owner on a single policy and the owners are residents of different states, the life settlement contract shall be governed by the law of the state in which the owner having the largest percentage ownership resides or, if the owners hold equal ownership, the laws of residence of one owner agreed upon in writing by all of the owners. The law of the state of the insured shall govern in the event that equal owners fail to agree in writing upon a state of residence for jurisdictional purposes. A provider from this State who enters into a life settlement contract with an owner who is a resident of another state that has enacted statutes or adopted regulations governing life settlement contracts, shall be governed in the effectuation of that life settlement contract by the statutes and regulations of the owner's state of residence. If the state in which the owner is a resident has not enacted statutes or regulations governing life settlement contracts, the provider shall give the owner notice that neither state regulates the transaction upon which he or she is entering. For transactions in those states, however, the provider is to maintain all records required if the transactions were executed in the state of residence. The forms used in those states need not be approved by the Division.

(c) If there is a conflict in the laws that apply to an owner and a purchaser in any individual transaction, the laws of the state that apply to the owner shall take precedence and the provider shall comply with those laws.

Section 60. Prohibited practices.

(a) It is unlawful for any person to:

(1) enter into a life settlement contract if such person knows or reasonably should have known that the life insurance policy was obtained by means of a false, deceptive, or misleading application for such policy;

(2) engage in any transaction, practice, or course of business if such person knows or reasonably should have known that the intent was to avoid the notice requirements of this Section;

(3) engage in any fraudulent act or practice in connection with any transaction relating to any settlement involving an Owner who is a resident of this State;

(4) issue, solicit, market, or otherwise promote the purchase of an insurance policy for the purpose of or with an emphasis on settling the policy;

(5) enter into a premium finance agreement with any person or agency, or any person affiliated with such person or agency, pursuant to which such person shall receive any proceeds, fees, or other consideration, directly or indirectly, from the policy or owner of the policy or any other person with respect to the premium finance agreement or any settlement contract or other transaction related to such policy that are in addition to the amounts required to pay the principal, interest, and service charges related to policy premiums pursuant to the premium finance agreement or subsequent sale of such agreement; provided, further, that any payments, charges, fees, or other amounts in addition to the amounts required to pay the principal, interest, and service charges related to policy premiums paid under the premium finance agreement shall be remitted to the original owner of the policy or to his or her estate if he or she is not living at the time of the determination of the overpayment;

(6) with respect to any settlement contract or insurance policy and a broker, knowingly solicit an offer from, effectuate a life settlement contract with or make a sale to any provider, financing entity, or related provider trust that is controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such broker;

(7) with respect to any life settlement contract or insurance policy and a provider, knowingly enter into a life settlement contract with a owner, if, in connection with such life settlement contract, anything of value will be paid to a broker that is controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such provider or the financing entity or related provider trust that is involved in such settlement contract;

(8) with respect to a provider, enter into a life settlement contract unless the life settlement promotional, advertising and marketing materials, as may be prescribed by regulation, have been filed with the Director. In no event shall any marketing materials expressly reference that the insurance is "free" for any period of time. The inclusion of any reference in the marketing materials that would cause an Owner to reasonably believe that the insurance is free for any period of time shall be considered a violation of this Act; or

(9) with respect to any life insurance producer, insurance company, broker, or provider make any statement or representation to the applicant or policyholder in connection with the sale or financing of a life insurance policy to the effect that the insurance is free or without cost to the policyholder for any period of time unless provided in the policy.

(b) A violation of this Section shall be deemed a fraudulent life settlement act.

Section 65. Fraud prevention and control.

(a) A person shall not commit a fraudulent life settlement act. A person shall not knowingly and intentionally interfere with the enforcement of the provisions of this Act or investigations of suspected or actual violations of this Act. A person in the business of life settlements shall not knowingly or intentionally permit any person convicted of a felony involving dishonesty or breach of trust to participate in the business of life settlements.

(b) Life settlement contracts and applications for life settlement contracts, regardless of the form of transmission, shall contain the following statement or a substantially similar statement:

"Any person who knowingly presents false information in an application for insurance or life settlement contract is guilty of a crime and may be subject to fines and confinement in prison.". The lack of a statement as required in this subsection does not constitute a defense in any prosecution for a fraudulent life settlement act.

(c) Any person engaged in the business of life settlements having knowledge or a reasonable belief that a fraudulent life settlement act is being, will be, or has been committed shall provide to the Director the information required by, and in a manner prescribed by, the Director. Any other person having knowledge or a reasonable belief that a fraudulent life settlement act is being, will be or has been committed may provide to the Director the information required by, and in a manner prescribed by, the Director.

(d) No civil liability shall be imposed on and no cause of action shall arise from a person's furnishing information concerning suspected, anticipated, or completed fraudulent life settlement acts or suspected or completed fraudulent insurance acts, if the information is provided to or received from:

(1) the Director or the Director's employees, agents, or representatives;

(2) federal, State, or local law enforcement or regulatory officials or their employees, agents, or representatives;

(3) a person involved in the prevention and detection of fraudulent life settlement acts or that person's agents, employees, or representatives;

(4) any regulatory body or their employees, agents or representatives, overseeing life insurance, life settlements, securities, or investment fraud;

(5) the life insurer that issued the life insurance policy covering the life of the insured; or

(6) the licensee and any agents, employees, or representatives.

This subsection (d) shall not apply to statements made with actual malice. In an action brought against a person for filing a report or furnishing other information concerning a fraudulent life settlement act or a fraudulent insurance act, the party bringing the action shall plead specifically any allegation that this subsection (d) does not apply because the person filing the report or furnishing the information did so with actual malice. A person identified in subsection (d) shall be entitled to an award of attorney's fees and costs if he or she is the prevailing party in a civil cause of action for libel, slander or any other relevant tort arising out of activities in carrying out the provisions of this Act and the party bringing the action was not substantially justified in doing so. For purposes of this Section, a proceeding is "substantially justified" if it had a reasonable basis in law or fact at the time that it was initiated. This subsection (d) does not abrogate or modify common law or statutory privileges or immunities enjoyed by a person.

(e) The documents and evidence provided pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section or obtained by the Director in an investigation of suspected or actual fraudulent life settlement acts shall be privileged and confidential and shall not be a public record and shall not be subject to discovery or subpoena in a civil or criminal action.

(1) This subsection (e) does not prohibit release by the Director of documents and evidence obtained in an investigation of suspected or actual fraudulent life settlement acts:

(A) in administrative or judicial proceedings to enforce laws administered by the Director;

(B) to federal, State, or local law enforcement or regulatory agencies, to an organization established for the purpose of detecting and preventing fraudulent life settlement acts or to the National Association of Insurance Commissioners; or

(C)at the discretion of the Director, to a person in the business of life settlements that is aggrieved by a fraudulent life settlement act.

Release of documents and evidence under this subsection (e) does not abrogate or modify the privilege granted in paragraph (1) of this subsection (e).

(f) This Act shall not:

(1) preempt the authority or relieve the duty of other law enforcement or regulatory agencies to investigate, examine and prosecute suspected violations of law;

(2) preempt, supersede, or limit any provision of any State securities law or any rule, order, or notice issued thereunder;

(3) prevent or prohibit a person from disclosing voluntarily information concerning life settlement fraud to a law enforcement or regulatory agency other than the Division; or

(4) limit the powers granted elsewhere by the laws of this State to the Director or an insurance fraud unit to investigate and examine possible violations of law and to take appropriate action against wrongdoers.

(g) Providers and brokers shall have in place antifraud initiatives reasonably calculated to detect, prosecute, and prevent fraudulent life settlement acts. At the discretion of the Director, the Director may order, or a licensee may request and the Director may grant, such modifications of the following required initiatives as necessary to ensure an effective antifraud program. The modifications may be more or less restrictive than the required initiatives so long as the modifications may reasonably be expected to accomplish the purpose of this Section. Antifraud initiatives shall include:

(1) fraud investigators, who may be provider or broker employees or independent contractors; and

(2) an antifraud plan, which shall be submitted to the Director. The antifraud plan shall include, but not be limited to:

(A) a description of the procedures for detecting and investigating possible fraudulent life settlement acts and procedures for resolving material inconsistencies between medical records and insurance applications;

(B) a description of the procedures for reporting possible fraudulent life settlement acts to the Director;

(C) a description of the plan for antifraud education and training of underwriters and other personnel; and

(D) a description or chart outlining the organizational arrangement of the antifraud personnel who are responsible for the investigation and reporting of possible fraudulent life settlement acts and investigating unresolved material inconsistencies between medical records and insurance applications.

Antifraud plans submitted to the Director shall be privileged and confidential and shall not be a public record and shall not be subject to discovery or subpoena in a civil or criminal action.

Section 70. Injunctions; civil remedies; cease and desist.

(a) In addition to the penalties and other enforcement provisions of this Act, if any person violates this Act or any rule implementing this Act, the Director may seek an injunction in a court of competent jurisdiction in the county where the person resides or has a principal place of business and may apply for temporary and permanent orders that the Director determines necessary to restrain the person from further committing the violation.

(b) Any person damaged by the acts of another person in violation of this Act or any rule or regulation implementing this Act, may bring a civil action for damages against the person committing the violation in a court of competent jurisdiction.

(c) The Director may issue a cease and desist order upon a person who violates any provision of this part, any rule, or order adopted by the Director, or any written agreement entered into with the Director, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(d) When the Director finds that such an action presents an immediate danger to the public and requires an immediate final order, he may issue an emergency cease and desist order reciting with particularity the facts underlying such findings. The emergency cease and desist order is effective immediately upon service of a copy of the order on the respondent and remains effective for 90 days. If the Division begins non-emergency cease and desist proceedings under subsection (a) of this Section, the emergency cease and desist order remains effective, absent an order by an appellate court of competent jurisdiction pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. In the event of a willful violation of this Act, the trial court may award statutory damages in addition to actual damages in an additional amount up to 3 times the actual damage award. The provisions of this Act may not be waived by agreement. No choice of law provision may be utilized to prevent the application of this Act to any settlement in which a party to the settlement is a resident of this State.

Section 75. Penalties.

(a) It is a violation of this Act for any person, provider, broker, or any other party related to the business of life settlements, to commit a fraudulent life settlement act.

(b) For criminal liability purposes, a person that commits a fraudulent life settlement act is guilty of committing insurance fraud and shall be subject to additional penalties under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) The Director shall be empowered to levy a civil penalty and the amount of the claim for each violation upon any person, including those persons and their employees licensed pursuant to this Act, who is found to have committed a fraudulent life settlement act or violated any other provision of this Act.

(d) The license of a person licensed under this Act that commits a fraudulent life settlement act shall be revoked for a period of at least 5 years.

Section 80. Unfair or deceptive practices. A violation this Act shall be considered an unfair or deceptive practice pursuant to the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act and subject to the penalties provided by State law.

Section 85. Effective date.

(a) A provider lawfully transacting business in this State prior to the effective date of this Act may continue to do so pending approval or disapproval of that person's application for a license as long as the application is filed with the Director not later than 30 days after publication by the Director of an application form and instructions for licensure of providers. If the publication of the application form and instructions is prior to the effective date of this Act, then the filing of the application shall not be later than 30 days after the effective date of this Act. During the time that such an application is pending with the Director, the applicant may use any form of life settlement contract that has been filed with the Director pending approval thereof, provided that such form is otherwise in compliance with the provisions of this Act. Any person transacting business in this State under this provision shall be obligated to comply with all other requirements of this Act.

(b) A person who has lawfully negotiated life settlement contracts between any owner residing in this State and one or more providers for at least one year immediately prior to the effective date of this Act may continue to do so pending approval or disapproval of that person's application for a license as long as the application is filed with the Director not later than 30 days after publication by the Director of an application form and instructions for licensure of brokers. If the publication of the application form and instructions is prior to the effective date of this Act, then the filing of the application shall not be later than 30 days after the effective date of this Act. Any person transacting business in this State under this provision shall be obligated to comply with all other requirements of this Act.

Section 900. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) The following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations adopted under federal or State law.

(b) Information that, if disclosed, would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy. Information exempted under this subsection (b) shall include but is not limited to:

(i) files and personal information maintained with respect to clients, patients, residents, students or other individuals receiving social, medical, educational, vocational, financial, supervisory or custodial care or services directly or indirectly from federal agencies or public bodies;

(ii) personnel files and personal information maintained with respect to employees, appointees or elected officials of any public body or applicants for those positions;

(iii) files and personal information maintained with respect to any applicant, registrant or licensee by any public body cooperating with or engaged in professional or occupational registration, licensure or discipline;

(iv) information required of any taxpayer in connection with the assessment or collection of any tax unless disclosure is otherwise required by State statute;

(v) information revealing the identity of persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement or penal agencies; provided, however, that identification of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports may be provided by agencies of local government, except in a case for which a criminal investigation is ongoing, without constituting a clearly unwarranted per se invasion of personal privacy under this subsection; and

(vi) the names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in park district, forest preserve district, and conservation district programs.

(c) Records compiled by any public body for administrative enforcement proceedings and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes or for internal matters of a public body, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency;

(ii) interfere with pending administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by any public body;

(iii) deprive a person of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source or confidential information furnished only by the confidential source;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct;

(vi) constitute an invasion of personal privacy under subsection (b) of this Section;

(vii) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(viii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation.

(d) Criminal history record information maintained by State or local criminal justice agencies, except the following which shall be open for public inspection and copying:

(i) chronologically maintained arrest information, such as traditional arrest logs or blotters;

(ii) the name of a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency and the charges for which that person is being held;

(iii) court records that are public;

(iv) records that are otherwise available under State or local law; or

(v) records in which the requesting party is the individual identified, except as provided under part (vii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this Section.

"Criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or information are proprietary, privileged or confidential, or where disclosure of the trade secrets or information may cause competitive harm, including:

(i) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(ii) All trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) Test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination or determined the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security, including but not limited to water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings.

(l) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials.

(m) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(n) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(o) Information received by a primary or secondary school, college or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers.

(p) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(q) Documents or materials relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(r) Drafts, notes, recommendations and memoranda pertaining to the financing and marketing transactions of the public body. The records of ownership, registration, transfer, and exchange of municipal debt obligations, and of persons to whom payment with respect to these obligations is made.

(s) The records, documents and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(t) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool.

(u) Information concerning a university's adjudication of student or employee grievance or disciplinary cases, to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of the student or employee and information concerning any public body's adjudication of student or employee grievances or disciplinary cases, except for the final outcome of the cases.

(v) Course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(w) Information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of a public body.

(x) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(y) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(z) Manuals or instruction to staff that relate to establishment or collection of liability for any State tax or that relate to investigations by a public body to determine violation of any criminal law.

(aa) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(bb) Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(cc) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(dd) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(ee) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(ff) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(gg) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(hh) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(ii) Beginning July 1, 1999, information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(jj) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(kk) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(ll) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(mm) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(nn) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(oo) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(pp) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(qq) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (qq) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(rr) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(ss) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Life Settlements Act.

(2) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-508, eff. 1-1-06; 94-664, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06; 94-953, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07.)

Section 905. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2Z as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2Z) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 262Z)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-562)

Sec. 2Z. Violations of other Acts. Any person who knowingly violates the Automotive Repair Act, the Automotive Collision Repair Act, the Home Repair and Remodeling Act, the Dance Studio Act, the Physical Fitness Services Act, the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, the Illinois Union Label Act, the Job Referral and Job Listing Services Consumer Protection Act, the Travel Promotion Consumer Protection Act, the Credit Services Organizations Act, the Automatic Telephone Dialers Act, the Pay-Per-Call Services Consumer Protection Act, the Telephone Solicitations Act, the Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act, the Cemetery Care Act, the Safe and Hygienic Bed Act, the Pre-Need Cemetery Sales Act, the High Risk Home Loan Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, the Life Settlements Act, the Mortgage Rescue Fraud Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Tax Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act, the Electronic Mail Act, the Internet Caller Identification Act, paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 6-305 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, the Automatic Contract Renewal Act, or the Personal Information Protection Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-13, eff. 12-6-05; 94-36, eff. 1-1-06; 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-292, eff. 1-1-06; 94-822, eff. 1-1-07; 95-413, eff. 1-1-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-562)

Sec. 2Z. Violations of other Acts. Any person who knowingly violates the Automotive Repair Act, the Automotive Collision Repair Act, the Home Repair and Remodeling Act, the Dance Studio Act, the Physical Fitness Services Act, the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, the Illinois Union Label Act, the Job Referral and Job Listing Services Consumer Protection Act, the Travel Promotion Consumer Protection Act, the Credit Services Organizations Act, the Automatic Telephone Dialers Act, the Pay-Per-Call Services Consumer Protection Act, the Telephone Solicitations Act, the Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act, the Cemetery Care Act, the Safe and Hygienic Bed Act, the Pre-Need Cemetery Sales Act, the High Risk Home Loan Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, the Life Settlements Act, the Mortgage Rescue Fraud Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Tax Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act, the Electronic Mail Act, the Internet Caller Identification Act, paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 6-305 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 18d-115, 18d-120, 18d-125, 18d-135, or 18d-150 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, the Automatic Contract Renewal Act, or the Personal Information Protection Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-13, eff. 12-6-05; 94-36, eff. 1-1-06; 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-292, eff. 1-1-06; 94-822, eff. 1-1-07; 95-413, eff. 1-1-08; 95-562, eff. 7-1-08; revised 10-17-07.)

(215 ILCS 158/Act rep.)

Section 910. The Viatical Settlements Act is repealed.

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.