Public Act 096-0189
Public Act 0189 96TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
|
Public Act 096-0189 |
HB1014 Enrolled |
LRB096 04500 ASK 14555 b |
|
| AN ACT concerning regulation.
| Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
| represented in the General Assembly:
| Section 5. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing | Sections 65-5 and 65-40 as follows:
| (225 ILCS 65/65-5)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-10)
| (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
| Sec. 65-5. Qualifications for APN licensure.
| (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements | of this Section shall be entitled to licensure as an advanced | practice nurse. | (b) An applicant for licensure to practice as an advanced | practice nurse must do each of the following:
| (1) Submit a completed application and any fees as | established by the Department.
| (2) Hold a current license to practice as a
registered | professional nurse under this Act.
| (3) Have successfully completed requirements to | practice as, and holds a
current, national certification | as, a nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist,
nurse | practitioner, or certified registered nurse anesthetist | from the
appropriate national certifying body as | determined by rule of the Department.
|
| (4) Have obtained a graduate degree appropriate for | national certification in a clinical advanced practice | nursing specialty or a graduate degree or post-master's | certificate from a graduate level program in a clinical | advanced practice nursing specialty.
| (5) Have not violated the provisions of this Act | concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The | Department may take into consideration any felony | conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction may not | operate as an absolute bar to licensure. | (6) Submit to the criminal history records check | required under Section 50-35 of this Act.
| (b-5) A registered professional nurse seeking licensure as | an advanced practice nurse in the category of certified | registered nurse anesthetist who does not have a graduate | degree as described in subsection (b) of this Section shall be | qualified for licensure if that person: | (1) submits evidence of having successfully completed | a nurse anesthesia program described in item (4) of | subsection (b) of this Section prior to January 1, 1999; | (2) submits evidence of certification as a registered | nurse anesthetist by an appropriate national certifying | body; and | (3) has continually maintained active, up-to-date | recertification status as a certified registered nurse | anesthetist by an appropriate national recertifying body. |
| (b-10) The Department shall issue a certified registered | nurse anesthetist license to an APN who (i) does not have a | graduate degree, (ii) applies for licensure before July 1, | 2018, and (iii) submits all of the following to the Department: | (1) His or her current State registered nurse license | number. | (2) Proof of current national certification, which | includes the completion of an examination from either of | the following: | (A) the Council on Certification of the American | Association of Nurse Anesthetists; or | (B) the Council on Recertification of the American | Association of Nurse Anesthetists. | (3) Proof of the successful completion of a post-basic | advanced practice formal education program in the area of | nurse anesthesia prior to January 1, 1999. | (4) His or her complete work history for the 5-year | period immediately preceding the date of his or her | application. | (5) Verification of licensure as an advanced practice | nurse from the state in which he or she was originally | licensed, current state of licensure, and any other state | in which he or she has been actively practicing as an | advanced practice nurse within the 5-year period | immediately preceding the date of his or her application. | If applicable, this verification must state: |
| (A) the time during which he or she was licensed in | each state, including the date of the original issuance | of each license; and | (B) any disciplinary action taken or pending | concerning any nursing license held, currently or in | the past, by the applicant. | (6) The required fee. | (c) Those applicants seeking licensure in more than one | advanced practice nursing specialty need not possess multiple | graduate degrees. Applicants may be eligible for licenses for | multiple advanced practice nurse licensure specialties, | provided that the applicant (i) has met the requirements for at | least one advanced practice nursing specialty under paragraphs | (3) and (5) of subsection (a) of this Section, (ii) possesses | an additional graduate education that results in a certificate | for another clinical advanced practice nurse specialty and that | meets the requirements for the national certification from the | appropriate nursing specialty, and (iii) holds a current | national certification from the appropriate national | certifying body for that additional advanced practice nursing | specialty.
| (d) Any person who holds a valid license as an advanced | practice nurse issued under this Act as this Act existed before | the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General | Assembly shall be subject only to the advanced practice nurse | license renewal requirements of this Act as this Act exists on |
| and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th | General Assembly upon the expiration of that license.
| (Source: P.A. 94-348, eff. 7-28-05; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
| (225 ILCS 65/65-40)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-20)
| (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
| Sec. 65-40. Prescriptive authority.
| (a) A collaborating
physician or podiatrist may, but is not | required to, delegate
prescriptive authority to an advanced | practice
nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement. | This authority may, but is
not required to, include
| prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, | storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over the | counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and | controlled
substances categorized as
any Schedule III through , | III-N, IV,
or V controlled substances, as defined in Article II | of the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other | preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and | herbal remedies. The collaborating physician or podiatrist | must have a valid current Illinois controlled substance license | and federal registration to delegate authority to prescribe | delegated controlled substances.
| (b) To prescribe controlled
substances under this Section, | an advanced practice
nurse must obtain a mid-level practitioner | controlled substance license.
Medication orders shall be
| reviewed
periodically by the collaborating physician or |
| podiatrist.
| (c) The collaborating physician or podiatrist shall file | with the
Department notice of delegation of prescriptive | authority
and
termination of such delegation, in accordance | with rules of the Department.
Upon receipt of this notice | delegating authority to prescribe any Schedule III through ,
| III-N, IV, or V controlled substances, the licensed advanced | practice nurse shall be
eligible to register for a mid-level | practitioner controlled substance license
under Section 303.05 | of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
| (d) In addition to the requirements of subsections (a), | (b), and (c) of this Section, a collaborating physician may, | but is not required to, delegate authority to an advanced | practice nurse to prescribe any Schedule II or II-N controlled | substances, if all of the following conditions apply: | (1) No more than 5 Schedule II or II-N controlled | substances by oral dosage may be delegated. | (2) Any delegation must be controlled substances that | the collaborating physician prescribes. | (3) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a | 30-day oral dosage, with any continuation authorized only | after prior approval of the collaborating physician. | (4) The advanced practice nurse must discuss the | condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance | is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician.
| (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
| delegation of tasks
or duties by a physician to a licensed | practical nurse, a registered
professional nurse, or other | persons.
| (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
| Section 10. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by | changing Section 4 as follows:
| (225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)
| (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
| Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of | this Act shall
apply
to, or in any manner interfere with:
| (a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to | practice medicine in
all of its branches, dentist, podiatrist,
| veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified | optometrist within
the limits of
his or her license, or prevent | him or her from
supplying to his
or her
bona fide patients
such | drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;
| (b) the sale of compressed gases;
| (c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and | household remedies
when sold in original and unbroken packages | only, if such patent or
proprietary medicines and household | remedies be properly and adequately
labeled as to content and | usage and generally considered and accepted
as harmless and | nonpoisonous when used according to the directions
on the | label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any
|
| compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, | according
to the latest editions of the following authoritative | pharmaceutical
treatises and standards, namely, The United | States Pharmacopoeia/National
Formulary (USP/NF), the United | States Dispensatory, and the Accepted
Dental Remedies of the | Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American
Dental | Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective
| date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of | the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the | Department of Health
and Human Services, Food and Drug | Administration, promulgated thereunder
now in effect, is | designated, described or considered as a narcotic,
hypnotic, | habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;
| (d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original | and unbroken
packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock | medication;
| (e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of | poisonous substances,
in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal | use in the arts or industries
or for insecticide purposes; | provided, they are properly and adequately
labeled as to | content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity
with the | provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws
and | regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating | thereto
and governing the same, and those which are required | under such applicable
laws and regulations to be labeled with | the word "Poison", are also labeled
with the word "Poison" |
| printed
thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily | obtainable antidote
with directions for its administration;
| (f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a | physician
licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches to | a physician assistant
under Section 7.5 of the Physician | Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This
delegated authority under | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 may | but is not required to include prescription of
controlled | substances, as defined in Article II of the
Illinois Controlled | Substances Act, in accordance with written guidelines; and
| (g) The delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician
| licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed | podiatrist to an advanced practice
nurse in accordance with a | written collaborative
agreement under Sections Section 65-35 | and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. This authority, which is | delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, may | but is not required to
include the prescription of Schedule | III, IV, or V controlled substances as
defined
in Article II of | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
| (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07 .)
| Section 15. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is | amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows: | (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) | Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
| context
otherwise requires:
| (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self | control with reference to his addiction.
| (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
| (1) a practitioner (or, in his presence, by his | authorized agent),
| (2) the patient or research subject at the lawful | direction of the
practitioner, or
| (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane | Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
| (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or | dispenser. It does not
include a common or contract carrier, | public warehouseman or employee of
the carrier or warehouseman.
| (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, and | corticosteroids) that promotes muscle growth,
and includes:
|
| (i) boldenone,
| (ii) chlorotestosterone,
| (iii) chostebol,
| (iv) dehydrochlormethyltestosterone,
| (v) dihydrotestosterone,
| (vi) drostanolone,
| (vii) ethylestrenol,
| (viii) fluoxymesterone,
| (ix) formebulone,
| (x) mesterolone,
| (xi) methandienone,
| (xii) methandranone,
| (xiii) methandriol,
| (xiv) methandrostenolone,
| (xv) methenolone,
| (xvi) methyltestosterone,
| (xvii) mibolerone,
| (xviii) nandrolone,
| (xix) norethandrolone,
| (xx) oxandrolone,
| (xxi) oxymesterone,
| (xxii) oxymetholone,
| (xxiii) stanolone,
| (xxiv) stanozolol,
| (xxv) testolactone,
| (xxvi) testosterone,
|
| (xxvii) trenbolone, and
| (xxviii) any salt, ester, or isomer of a drug or | substance described
or listed in this paragraph, if | that salt, ester, or isomer promotes muscle
growth.
| Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
| which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services | for such
administration, and which the person intends to | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
| purposes of this Act.
| (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its | successor agency.
| (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule under Article II of this Act | whether by
transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.
| (f) "Controlled Substance" means a drug, substance, or | immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act.
| (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
| which, or
the container or labeling of which, without | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or | dispensed the substance.
| (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an | agency relationship.
| (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
| (j) "Department of State Police" means the Department of | State
Police of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
| (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
| (l) "Department of Professional Regulation" means the | Department
of Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois | or its successor agency.
| (m) "Depressant" or "stimulant substance" means:
| (1) a drug which contains any quantity of (i) | barbituric acid or
any of the salts of barbituric acid | which has been designated as habit
forming under section | 502 (d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act (21 | U.S.C. 352 (d)); or
|
| (2) a drug which contains any quantity of (i) | amphetamine or
methamphetamine and any of their optical | isomers; (ii) any salt of
amphetamine or methamphetamine or | any salt of an optical isomer of
amphetamine; or (iii) any | substance which the Department, after
investigation, has | found to be, and by rule designated as, habit forming
| because of its depressant or stimulant effect on the | central nervous
system; or
| (3) lysergic acid diethylamide; or
| (4) any drug which contains any quantity of a substance | which the
Department, after investigation, has found to | have, and by rule
designated as having, a potential for | abuse because of its depressant or
stimulant effect on the | central nervous system or its hallucinogenic
effect.
| (n) (Blank).
| (o) "Director" means the Director of the Department of | State Police or
the Department of Professional Regulation or | his designated agents.
| (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
| (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
| (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
| (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
| (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
| the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their | components, parts, or
accessories.
| (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the | Department of Professional Regulation for the
purpose of animal | euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or
| animal
shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A | euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, store, possess, | and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
Schedule III | nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.
| (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
| (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his | treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
| individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
| prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to | the following, in making the
judgment:
| (1) lack of consistency of doctor-patient | relationship,
| (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one | prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
| (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
| (4) unusual dosages,
| (5) unusual geographic distances between patient, | pharmacist and
prescriber,
| (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
| (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
| (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
| (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule | designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced | primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
| substance;
| (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or | likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled | substance; and
| (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, | curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled | substance.
| (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
| (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
| (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether | the representations made or the circumstances of the
| distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
| subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be | relevant:
| (a) statements made by the owner or person in control | of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
| (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the | substance may
be resold for profit;
| (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner | normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled | substances;
| (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution | included an
exchange of or demand for money or other | property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the | consideration was substantially greater than the
| reasonable retail market value of the substance.
| Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
| Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances | involved were controlled substances.
|
| Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
| (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is | located in a state
of the United States, other than Illinois, | that delivers, dispenses or
distributes, through the United | States Postal Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois | residents, any substance which requires a prescription.
| (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
| directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term | does not include:
| (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding | of a
controlled substance for his own use; or
| (2) by a practitioner, or his authorized agent under | his
supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, | or labeling of a
controlled substance:
| (a) as an incident to his administering or | dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
| his professional practice; or
| (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or | chemical
analysis and not for sale.
| (z-1) (Blank).
| (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances | of natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical | synthesis:
| (1) opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, | derivative, or
preparation of opium or opiate;
| (2) any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or | preparation thereof
which is chemically equivalent or | identical with any of the substances
referred to in clause | (1), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids
of opium;
| (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
| (4) coca leaves and any salts, compound, isomer, salt | of an isomer,
derivative, or preparation of coca leaves | including cocaine or ecgonine,
and any salt, compound, | isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is
| chemically equivalent or identical with any of these | substances, but not
including decocainized coca leaves or | extractions of coca leaves which do
not contain cocaine or | ecgonine (for the purpose of this paragraph, the
term | "isomer" includes optical, positional and geometric | isomers).
|
| (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
| Nurse Practice Act.
| (cc) (Blank).
| (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
| (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
| somniferum L., except its seeds.
| (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
| (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or | association, or any other entity.
| (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
| (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy | Practice Act.
| (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
| (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
| podiatrist,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, | physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed | practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or | pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise | lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to | distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to, | administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
| controlled substance in the course of professional practice or | research.
| (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated | prior to the time of issuance.
| (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatrist | or
veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician | assistant who
issues a
prescription for a Schedule III, IV, or | V controlled substance
in accordance
with Section 303.05 and | the written guidelines required under Section 7.5
of the
| Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with | Section 303.05 , a written delegation,
and a written
| collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse | Practice Act.
| (nn) "Prescription" means a lawful written, facsimile, or | verbal order
of
a physician licensed to practice medicine in |
| all its branches,
dentist, podiatrist or veterinarian for any | controlled
substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule III, IV, | or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of | the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a physician | assistant for a Schedule III, IV, or V
controlled substance
in | accordance with Section 303.05 and the written guidelines | required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice | Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice
nurse with prescriptive | authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice | Act who issues a prescription for a Schedule III, IV, or V
| controlled substance in accordance
with
Section 303.05 , a | written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement | under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.
| (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled | substance other than methamphetamine.
| (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
| (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the | laws of the United
States and of this State.
| (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United | States of America.
| (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
| a
controlled substance for his own use or for the use of a | member of his
household or for administering to an animal owned | by him or by a member
of his household.
| (Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-242, eff. 1-1-08; | 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-876, eff. | 8-21-08.)
| (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
| Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
| (a) The Department of Professional Regulation shall | register licensed
physician assistants and licensed advanced | practice nurses to prescribe and
dispense Schedule
III, IV, or | V controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia
| agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia | drugs under the
following circumstances:
| (1) with respect to physician assistants or advanced | practice nurses ,
| (A) the physician assistant or advanced practice | nurse has been
delegated
prescriptive authority to | prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled | substances by a physician licensed to practice | medicine in all its
branches in accordance with Section | 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act
of 1987 or | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act ;
and
| (B) the physician assistant or advanced practice | nurse has
completed the
appropriate application forms |
| and has paid the required fees as set by rule;
or
| (2) with respect to advanced practice nurses, | (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
| authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V | controlled substances by a physician licensed to | practice medicine in all its branches or a podiatrist | in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
| Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the
| appropriate application forms and has paid the | required
fees as set by rule; or | (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
| authority by a collaborating physician licensed to | practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or | dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a | written delegation of authority and under the | following conditions: | (i) no more than 5 Schedule II controlled | substances by oral dosage may be delegated; | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled | substances prescribed by the collaborating | physician; | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no | more than a 30-day oral dosage, with any | continuation authorized only after prior approval | of the collaborating physician; | (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss |
| the condition of any patients for whom a controlled | substance is prescribed monthly with the | delegating physician; and | (v) the advanced practice nurse must have | completed the appropriate application forms and | paid the required fees as set by rule; or | (3) (2) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the | euthanasia agency has
obtained a license from the | Department of
Professional Regulation and obtained a | registration number from the
Department.
| (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to | prescribe those
schedules of controlled substances for which a | licensed physician or licensed podiatrist has delegated
| prescriptive authority, except that an animal a euthanasia | agency does not have any
prescriptive authority.
A physician | assistant and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from | prescribing medications and controlled substances not set | forth in the required written delegation of authority.
| (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, | physician
assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal | euthanasia agencies shall be issued a
mid-level practitioner
| controlled substances license for Illinois.
| (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
| Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon | becoming law.
|
Effective Date: 8/10/2009
|