Public Act 099-0173
 
HB0421 EnrolledLRB099 05828 HAF 25872 b

    AN ACT concerning regulation.
 
    Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
represented in the General Assembly:
 
    Section 5. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended
by changing Section 4 as follows:
 
    (15 ILCS 335/4)  (from Ch. 124, par. 24)
    Sec. 4. Identification Card.
    (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois
Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of
the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal
thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification
Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory
supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or
pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of
Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by
the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice
under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of
Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No
identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a
valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit
unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State
the valid foreign state identification card, license, or
permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the
Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature
or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may
provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification
Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide
religious objection to being photographed or to the display of
his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be
used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only
by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act,
"photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced
and captured image of an applicant for an identification card.
As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as
written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to
the Secretary of State.
    (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a
current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the
Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to
utilize the same residence address and name on the
identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit
records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may
promulgate rules to implement this provision.
    (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in
Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer,
the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work
address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence
or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to
implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection
(a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his
or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty
to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of
any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to
all violations or is limited to specific violations.
    (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person
with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person
who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person
with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who
applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person
with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any
person who holds a valid foreign state identification card,
license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the
Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card,
license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee
to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by
the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and
signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating
that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible
designation of the type and classification of the applicant's
disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the
Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of
Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without
photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious
objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her
photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
include a description of the applicant's disability and any
information about the applicant's disability or medical
history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the
applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used
in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card
in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity
of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in
any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
    The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of
a physician's determination of disability, a determination of
disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated
the authority to make this determination by his or her
supervising physician, a determination of disability from an
advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any
other documentation of disability whenever any State law
requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of
disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to
participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is
not available to all persons with like disabilities.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person
with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the
Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a
Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person
other than the person named on such card to prove that the
person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other
purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person
named on such card, and the person named on such card consents
to such use at the time the card is so used.
    An optometrist's determination of a visual disability
under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for
the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Card.
    When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person
with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the
Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken
based upon that medical information.
    (c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original
or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with
a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the
age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois
Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or
older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards
or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for
persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the
Secretary of State.
    (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification
Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date
upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon
which the person becomes 21 years of age.
    (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify
military veterans living in this State for the purpose of
ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to
which they are legally entitled, including healthcare,
education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in
identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services
and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue
Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a
Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran"
appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is
predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may
not issue any other identification card which identifies an
occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique
characteristics of the identification card holder which is
unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
    (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of
State shall designate a space on each original or renewal
identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the
word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall
be available to a person identified as a veteran under
subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or
separated under honorable conditions.
    (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the
State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who
applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of
State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be
issued in every county and applications shall be made available
at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers
and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed
thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
    (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may
designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the
card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the
Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may
specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the
card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card
or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.
(Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847,
eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463,
eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
    Section 10. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:
 
    (20 ILCS 301/5-23)
    Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.
    (a) Reports of drug overdose.
        (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and
    Substance Abuse may publish annually a report on drug
    overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates
    from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or
    rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding
    period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also
    provide information on interventions that would be
    effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug
    overdose.
        (2) The report may include:
            (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.
            (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related
        to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room
        utilization.
            (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and
        emergency services and the cost impact of emergency
        services utilization.
            (D) Suggested improvements in data collection.
            (E) A description of other interventions effective
        in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug
        overdose.
    (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.
        (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for
    the production and publication, in electronic and other
    formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and
    response literature. The Director may develop and
    disseminate curricula for use by professionals,
    organizations, individuals, or committees interested in
    the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose,
    including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison
    personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment
    professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital
    staff, families and associates of drug users, peace
    officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle
    exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to
    information regarding drug overdose prevention,
    recognition, and response, literature produced by the
    Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and
    highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal
    drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall
    provide information and resources for substance abuse
    treatment.
        The Director may establish or authorize programs for
    prescribing, dispensing, or distributing naloxone
    hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally
    safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration
    for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may
    include the prescribing of naloxone hydrochloride or any
    other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by
    the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of
    drug overdose to and education about administration by
    individuals who are not personally at risk of opioid
    overdose.
        (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local
    officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including
    the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, trends in drug
    overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose
    crisis.
    (c) Grants.
        (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with
    this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose
    prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local
    health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals,
    universities, community-based organizations, and
    faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a
    grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner
    the Director prescribes.
        (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the
    necessity for overdose prevention projects in various
    settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to
    develop interventions that will be effective and viable in
    their local areas.
        (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to
    proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving
    interventions and responses, provide information to drug
    users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies
    for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give
    preference to proposals that include one or more of the
    following elements:
            (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons,
        including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a
        potentially fatal drug overdose.
            (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and
        response education projects in drug treatment centers,
        outreach programs, and other organizations that work
        with, or have access to, drug users and their families
        and communities.
            (C) Drug overdose recognition and response
        training, including rescue breathing, in drug
        treatment centers and for other organizations that
        work with, or have access to, drug users and their
        families and communities.
            (D) The production and distribution of targeted or
        mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and
        response.
            (E) Prescription and distribution of naloxone
        hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and
        equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
        Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.
            (F) The institution of education and training
        projects on drug overdose response and treatment for
        emergency services and law enforcement personnel.
            (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor
        education and mutual support groups.
        (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General
    Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private
    foundations, the federal government, and other sources to
    fund the grants under this Section and to fund an
    evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.
    (d) Health care professional prescription of drug overdose
treatment medication.
        (1) A health care professional who, acting in good
    faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or
    dispenses an opioid antidote to a patient who, in the
    judgment of the health care professional, is capable of
    administering the drug in an emergency, shall not, as a
    result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to
    disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical
    Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act
    of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act,
    or any other professional licensing statute.
        (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to
    administer an opioid antidote may in an emergency
    administer without fee an opioid antidote if the person has
    received the patient information specified in paragraph
    (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that
    another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person
    shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be
    liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of
    1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the
    Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other
    professional licensing statute, or subject to any criminal
    prosecution arising from or related to the unauthorized
    practice of medicine or the possession of an opioid
    antidote.
        (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid
    antidote to a patient shall ensure that the patient
    receives the patient information specified in paragraph
    (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided
    by the health care professional or a community-based
    organization, substance abuse program, or other
    organization with which the health care professional
    establishes a written agreement that includes a
    description of how the organization will provide patient
    information, how employees or volunteers providing
    information will be trained, and standards for documenting
    the provision of patient information to patients.
    Provision of patient information shall be documented in the
    patient's medical record or through similar means as
    determined by agreement between the health care
    professional and the organization. The Director of the
    Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in
    consultation with statewide organizations representing
    physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician
    assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested
    groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care
    professionals, community-based organizations, substance
    abuse programs, and other organizations training materials
    in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the
    provision of such patient information.
        (4) For the purposes of this subsection:
        "Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any
    other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by
    the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of
    drug overdose.
        "Health care professional" means a physician licensed
    to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed
    physician assistant who has been delegated the
    prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote by his
    or her supervising physician, a licensed an advanced
    practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative
    agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes
    the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote, or
    an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or
    ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses
    appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the
    Nurse Practice Act.
        "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of
    opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician,
    may be in a position to assist another individual during an
    overdose and who has received patient information as
    required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the
    indications for and administration of an opioid antidote.
        "Patient information" includes information provided to
    the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition;
    how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid
    antidote dosage and administration; the importance of
    calling 911; care for the overdose victim after
    administration of the overdose antidote; and other issues
    as necessary.
(Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
    Section 15. The School Code is amended by changing Sections
22-30, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:
 
    (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
    Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma
medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of
undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.
    (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following
terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
    "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.
    "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used
for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of
epinephrine into the human body.
    "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
(ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the
authority to prescribe asthma medications by his or her
supervising physician, or (iii) a licensed an advanced practice
nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that delegates the authority to
prescribe asthma medications, for a pupil that pertains to the
pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.
    "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school
with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.
    "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of
his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine
auto-injector.
    "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her
prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.
    "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a
licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the
authority to prescribe asthma medications or epinephrine
auto-injectors by his or her supervising physician, or (iii) a
licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative
agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates
authority to issue a standing protocol for asthma medications
or epinephrine auto-injectors.
    "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer
personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and
10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under
subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to
anaphylaxis.
    "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an
epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school
district, public school, or nonpublic school.
    (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a
pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of
an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
        (1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to
    the school (i) written authorization from the parents or
    guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry
    of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma
    medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and
    self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the
    self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written
    authorization from the pupil's physician, physician
    assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
        (2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to
    the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain
    the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage,
    and the time at which or circumstances under which the
    asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the
    self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine
    auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's
    physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse
    containing the following information:
            (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine
        auto-injector;
            (B) the prescribed dosage; and
            (C) the time or times at which or the special
        circumstances under which the epinephrine
        auto-injector is to be administered.
The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of
the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the
school's administrator.
    (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school
may authorize the provision of a student-specific or
undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any
personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care
Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and
Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504
of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an
epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the
student's prescription on file.
    (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic
school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do
the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine
auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any
personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care
Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and
Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504
of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the
student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii)
administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that
meets the prescription on file to any student who has an
Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy
Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan
pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of
1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector;
and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector
to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in
good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction.
    (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school
must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing,
that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school
and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician
assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing
protocol or prescription for school epinephrine
auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional
discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
of any injury arising from the administration of asthma
medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of
whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or
guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or
advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil
must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district,
public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents
are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton
conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the
administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine
auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by
the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,
physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the
parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the
school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its
employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based
on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the
administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine
auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by
the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,
physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
    (c-5) Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained personnel
administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a
person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith
believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, notwithstanding
the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or
the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement
acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton
conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic
school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a
physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing
standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine
auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional
discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated
epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization
was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's
physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
    (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry
of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry
of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school
year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of
this Section.
    (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are
fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and
self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may
self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector
(i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity,
(iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv)
before or after normal school activities, such as while in
before-school or after-school care on school-operated
property.
    (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are
fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer
an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom
the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to
be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii)
while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the
supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal
school activities, such as while in before-school or
after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse
or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine
auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a
school-sponsored activity.
    (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school
may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine
auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person
is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and
lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been
delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or
epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of
the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced
practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority
for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in
accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may
prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name
of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to
be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine
auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the
manufacturer's instructions.
    (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine
auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic
school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the
student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.
    (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an
undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district,
public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician,
physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the
standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated
epinephrine auto-injector of its use.
    (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated
epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to
his or her school's administration proof of completion of a
training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis
that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section.
Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must
also submit to his or her school's administration proof of
cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external
defibrillator certification. The school district, public
school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to
the training curriculum and trained personnel.
    (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to
anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated
epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in
person. It must include, but is not limited to:
        (1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;
        (2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and
    its related facilities;
        (3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;
        (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an
    allergic reaction;
        (5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;
        (6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as
    well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;
        (7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge
    required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an
    epinephrine auto-injector; and
        (8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted
    pursuant to this Section.
    In consultation with statewide professional organizations
representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of
its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the Board
shall make available resource materials consistent with
criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel
to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The Board may take
into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by
other states, as well as any other curricular materials
suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on
life-threatening allergy issues. The Board is not required to
create new resource materials. The Board shall make these
resource materials available on its Internet website.
    (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an
undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse,
trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored
activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and
manner prescribed by the Board the following information:
        (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine
    (student, staff, visitor);
        (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;
        (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;
        (4) location where symptoms developed;
        (5) number of doses administered;
        (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school
    nurse, trained personnel, student); and
        (7) any other information required by the Board.
    (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board
shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the
frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration
during the preceding academic year. This report shall be
published on the Board's Internet website on the date the
report is delivered to the General Assembly.
    (k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this
Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)
 
    (105 ILCS 5/24-5)  (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)
    Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.
    (a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a
school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor
that provides services to students or in schools, or any other
individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or
34-18.5 of this Code.
    (b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence
of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from
communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical
examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other
state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a
licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health
examinations, or a licensed physician assistant who has been
delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his
or her supervising physician not more than 90 days preceding
time of presentation to the board, and the cost of such
examination shall rest with the employee. A new or existing
employee may be subject to additional health examinations,
including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules
adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a
local public health official. The board may from time to time
require an examination of any employee by a physician licensed
in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its
branches, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health
examinations, or a licensed physician assistant who has been
delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his
or her supervising physician and shall pay the expenses thereof
from school funds.
    (c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to
furnish from time to time evidence of continued professional
growth.
(Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
    (105 ILCS 5/24-6)
    Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school
districts, including special charter districts, but not
including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or
more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall
grant such of their other employees as are eligible to
participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the
"600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other
eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be
established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter
promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of
the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick
leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in
each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use
the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount
shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of
180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year.
Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness,
quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate
family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for
adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a
physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery
in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under
the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed an advanced
practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice
nurse to perform health examinations, a licensed physician
assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform
health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or, if
the treatment is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual
adviser or practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as
a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for
personal illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board
may deem necessary in other cases. If the school board does
require a certificate as a basis for pay during leave of less
than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay,
from school funds, the expenses incurred by the teachers or
other employees in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave
for adoption or placement for adoption, the school board may
require that the teacher or other employee provide evidence
that the formal adoption process is underway, and such leave is
limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated
with the exclusive bargaining representative.
    If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school
districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school
district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new
or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher
is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or
different district.
    For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall
include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children,
grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law,
sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.
(Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09;
96-367, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
    (105 ILCS 5/26-1)  (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)
    Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has
custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and
17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high
school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or
(ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17
years (unless the child has already graduated from high school)
beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child
to attend some public school in the district wherein the child
resides the entire time it is in session during the regular
school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during
a required summer school program established under Section
10-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be
required to attend the public schools:
        1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school
    where children are taught the branches of education taught
    to children of corresponding age and grade in the public
    schools, and where the instruction of the child in the
    branches of education is in the English language;
        2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to
    attend school, such disability being certified to the
    county or district truant officer by a competent physician
    licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in
    all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under
    the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed an advanced
    practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement
    with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
    advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, a
    licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the
    authority to perform health examinations by his or her
    supervising physician, or a Christian Science practitioner
    residing in this State and listed in the Christian Science
    Journal; or who is excused for temporary absence for cause
    by the principal or teacher of the school which the child
    attends; the exemptions in this paragraph (2) do not apply
    to any female who is pregnant or the mother of one or more
    children, except where a female is unable to attend school
    due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the
    existence of such complication is certified to the county
    or district truant officer by a competent physician;
        3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed
    according to the provisions of the law regulating child
    labor may be excused from attendance at school by the
    county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of
    the public school which the child should be attending, on
    certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the
    school board of the public school district in which the
    child resides. In districts having part time continuation
    schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at
    least 8 hours each week;
        4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in
    attendance at confirmation classes;
        5. Any child absent from a public school on a
    particular day or days or at a particular time of day for
    the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to
    participate in any examination, study or work requirements
    on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day,
    because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity
    on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day.
    Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations
    relative to absences for religious holidays including, but
    not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it
    shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this
    paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any
    school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on
    any other day by reason of the observance of a religious
    holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian
    of a child who is to be excused from attending school due
    to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice,
    not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school
    principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from
    attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be
    required to submit a written excuse for such absence after
    returning to school; and
        6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits
    to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful
    employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii)
    is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to
    Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning
    opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B
    of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14.)
 
    (105 ILCS 5/27-8.1)  (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)
    Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.
    (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the
Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as
hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a
health examination as follows: within one year prior to
entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public,
private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the
sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial
school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or
parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade,
immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private,
or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present
proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section
and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child
who received a health examination within one year prior to
entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not
required to receive an additional health examination in order
to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or
she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the
child is attending school for the first time as provided in
this paragraph.
    A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a
required part of each health examination included under this
Section if the child resides in an area designated by the
Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of
tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils,
including eye examinations, may be required when deemed
necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have
their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in
time required for health examinations.
    (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of
Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section,
all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of
any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental
examination. Each of these children shall present proof of
having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this
Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of
the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails
to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's
report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child
presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the
child presents proof that a dental examination will take place
within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health
shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an
undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public,
private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental
examination requirement to the parents and guardians of
students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
    (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all
children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or
parochial school on or after the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student
enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial
school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each
of these children shall present proof of having been examined
by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its
branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in
accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this
Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child
fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the
child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the
child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the
child presents proof that an eye examination will take place
within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public
Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show
an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye
examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public,
private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye
examination requirement to the parents and guardians of
students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public
Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a
school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's
or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the
child.
    (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules
and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures
that constitute a health examination, which shall include the
collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum,
date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date
of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule
that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules
and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall
specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be
included as a required part of each health examination included
under this Section if the child resides in an area designated
by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify
that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included
as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing
is not required.
    Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its
branches, licensed advanced practice nurses who have a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which
authorizes them to perform health examinations, or licensed
physician assistants who have been delegated the performance of
health examinations by their supervising physician shall be
responsible for the performance of the health examinations,
other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision
and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required
by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those
portions of the health examination for which the physician,
advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is
responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a
health examination, then a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all
required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all
dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by
subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental
examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all
its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye
examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report
forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain
to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye
examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity,
subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far,
internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation,
as well as any other tests or observations that in the
professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered
examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be
conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the
Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and
regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that
individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
parent or guardian written notification, before the vision
screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a
substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye
doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision
screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed
and signed a report form indicating that an examination has
been administered within the previous 12 months."
    (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or
she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of
this Section, present to the local school proof of having
received such immunizations against preventable communicable
diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by
rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and
the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.
    (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of
having conducted the examination, and such additional
information as required, including for a health examination
data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of
birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of
exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health
and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide
use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any
condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special
services, including for a health examination factors relating
to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of
required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form
that the immunizations were administered.
    (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either
the health examination or the immunization as required, then
the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the
case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current
school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year
established by a school district. To establish a date before
October 15 of the current school year for the health
examination or immunization as required, a school district must
give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior
to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or
more of the required immunizations must be given after October
15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established
date of the current school year, then the child shall present,
by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule
for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of
the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and
the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice
nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health
department that will be responsible for administration of the
remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by
October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current
school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the
local school authority shall exclude that child from school
until such time as the child presents proof of having had the
health examination as required and presents proof of having
received those required immunizations which are medically
possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion
from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's
parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of
Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section
26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental
examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an
out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof
required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the
current year or whatever date is set by the school district,
then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has
proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has
been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the
required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required
under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after
the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is
not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the
vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or
employee of a school district shall be held liable for any
injury or illness to another person that results from admitting
an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an
appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).
    (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of
Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall
require, the number of children who have received the necessary
immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental
examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of
those who have not received the immunizations and examination
as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
examination and immunization requirements on religious or
medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before
December 1 of each year, every public school district and
registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the
immunization data they are required to submit to the State
Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made
publicly available must be identical to the data the school
district or school has reported to the State Board of
Education.
    Every school shall report to the State Board of Education
by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the
number of children who have received the required dental
examination, indicating, of those who have not received the
required dental examination, the number of children who are
exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as
provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of
children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of
this Section.
    Every school shall report to the State Board of Education
by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the
number of children who have received the required eye
examination, indicating, of those who have not received the
required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt
from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this
Section, the number of children who have received a waiver
under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number
of children in noncompliance with the eye examination
requirement.
    The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be
provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board
of Education.
    (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are
required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this
Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the
school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to
Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be
withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of
students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable
specified percentage or higher.
    (8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health,
dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, or to
immunizations, on religious grounds shall not be required to
submit their children or wards to the examinations or
immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal
guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a
signed statement of objection, detailing the grounds for the
objection. If the physical condition of the child is such that
any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be
administered, the examining physician, advanced practice
nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance
of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the
health examination form. Exempting a child from the health,
dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from
participation in the program of physical education training
provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.
    (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools"
means those nursery schools operated by elementary school
systems or secondary level school units or institutions of
higher learning.
(Source: P.A. 97-216, eff. 1-1-12; 97-910, eff. 1-1-13; 98-673,
eff. 6-30-14.)
 
    Section 20. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank
Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
 
    (210 ILCS 25/7-101)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
    Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical
laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a
licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed
podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a
licensed physician assistant in accordance with the written
supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or when authorized
under Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
1987, (v-A) a licensed an advanced practice nurse in accordance
with the written collaborative agreement required under
Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act or when authorized
under Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (vi) an
authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood
alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is
to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1
of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with
the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests
pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic
Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory is
oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a
written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the
laboratory does not receive the written request within that
period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of
this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax
constitutes a written request.
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14;
98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff.
1-1-15.)
 
    Section 25. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home
Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section
2.05 as follows:
 
    (210 ILCS 55/2.05)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)
    Sec. 2.05. "Home health services" means services provided
to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment
for illness or infirmity prescribed by a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician
assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe
home health services by his or her supervising physician, or a
licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
delegates the authority to prescribe home health services. Such
services include part time and intermittent nursing services
and other therapeutic services such as physical therapy,
occupational therapy, speech therapy, medical social services,
or services provided by a home health aide.
(Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
    Section 30. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by
changing Sections 356g.5 and 356z.1 as follows:
 
    (215 ILCS 5/356g.5)
    Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam.
    (a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast
examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of
breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and
potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of
clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to
reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois.
    (b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or
individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or
health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are
residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough
clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of
practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced practice
nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician that authorizes breast examinations, or a licensed
physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide
breast examinations, to check for lumps and other changes for
the purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer
as follows:
        (1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years
    of age but less than 40 years of age; and
        (2) annually for women 40 years of age or older.
    (c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and
distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all
State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and
private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical
breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.
(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07.)
 
    (215 ILCS 5/356z.1)
    Sec. 356z.1. Prenatal HIV testing. An individual or group
policy of accident and health insurance that provides maternity
coverage and is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after
the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General
Assembly must provide coverage for prenatal HIV testing ordered
by an attending physician licensed to practice medicine in all
its branches, or by a physician assistant or advanced practice
registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with
a collaborating physician that authorizes these services,
including but not limited to orders consistent with the
recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists or the American Academy of Pediatrics.
(Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01.)
 
    Section 33. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by
changing Section 54.5 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)
    Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician
assistants, advanced practice nurses, and prescribing
psychologists.
    (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. A
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may
enter into supervising physician agreements with no more than 5
physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section
7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
    (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an
advanced practice nurse in accordance with the requirements of
the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for the purpose of
providing medical consultation, and no employment relationship
is required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to
the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.
The written collaborative agreement shall be for services in
the same area of practice or specialty as the collaborating
physician generally provides or may provide in his or her
clinical medical practice. A written collaborative agreement
shall be adequate with respect to collaboration with advanced
practice nurses if all of the following apply:
        (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of
    professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse
    commensurate with his or her education and experience. The
    agreement need not describe the exact steps that an
    advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each
    specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify
    those procedures that require a physician's presence as the
    procedures are being performed.
        (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and
    approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and
    collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice
    of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the
    patient services provided thereunder are periodically
    reviewed by the collaborating physician.
        (2) (3) The advance practice nurse provides services
    based upon a written collaborative agreement with the
    collaborating physician generally provides or may provide
    in his or her clinical medical practice, except as set
    forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to
    labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must
    provide delivery services in order to participate with a
    certified nurse midwife.
        (4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice
    nurse consult at least once a month to provide
    collaboration and consultation.
        (3) (5) Methods of communication are available with the
    collaborating physician in person or through
    telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and
    referral as needed to address patient care needs.
        (6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice
    for termination or change of status involving a written
    collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given
    for just cause.
    (b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a
certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with
Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of
anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of
anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or
physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of
anesthesia services consistent with Department rules.
Collaboration shall be adequate if:
        (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in
    the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
    guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the
    services provided patients under such orders; and
        (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or
    physician participates through discussion of and agreement
    with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and
    available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia
    services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of
    emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia services in a
    hospital shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.7
    of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
    treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the
    Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.
    (b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must
agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of
services.
    (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
medical records of all patients attended by a physician
assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to the
medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced
practice nurse.
    (d) (Blank).
    (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant,
or advanced practice nurse solely on the basis of having signed
a supervision agreement or guidelines or a collaborative
agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a standing
delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing a
prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced
practice nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has reason
to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant,
or advanced practice nurse lacked the competency to perform the
act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
    (f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to,
delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse
as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the
delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the
requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
    (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to,
delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as
part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of
prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
    (h) (Blank). For the purposes of this Section, "generally
provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical
practice" means categories of care or treatment, not specific
tasks or duties, that the physician provides individually or
through delegation to other persons so that the physician has
the experience and ability to provide collaboration and
consultation. This definition shall not be construed to
prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing primary
health treatment or care within the scope of his or her
training and experience, including, but not limited to, health
screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's
health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided
as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse
or on a volunteer basis.
    (i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive
authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written
collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive
authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of
the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12;
98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14.)
 
    Section 35. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing
Sections 50-10, 65-35, and 65-45 and by adding Section 65-35.1
as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 65/50-10)   (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
    Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when
used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this
Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of
courses at a college, university, or approved school,
customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from
the calendar year.
    "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has
met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM);
(ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified
registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse
specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All
advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State
of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty
credentials CNM, CNP, CRNA, or CNS after their name. All
advanced practice nurses may only practice in accordance with
national certification and this Act.
    "Approved program of professional nursing education" and
"approved program of practical nursing education" are programs
of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved
by the Department under the provisions of this Act.
    "Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the
Secretary.
    "Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health
care professionals working together, each contributing one's
respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive
patient care.
    "Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced
practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health
care professional.
    "Credentialed" means the process of assessing and
validating the qualifications of a health care professional.
    "Current nursing practice update course" means a planned
nursing education curriculum approved by the Department
consisting of activities that have educational objectives,
instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical
practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and
updating content and specifically planned for those nurses
previously licensed in the United States or its territories and
preparing for reentry into nursing practice.
    "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry
under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
    "Department" means the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation.
    "Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who
is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because
of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written
determination or written consent based on clinical evidence,
including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a
psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or
her ability to deliver competent patient care.
    "License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a
registered professional nurse who has completed all
requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except
the certification examination and has applied to take the next
available certification exam and received a temporary license
from the Department.
    "License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has
passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam
and has applied for a license from the Department. A
license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic
pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.
    "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in
all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
    "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice
podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
    "Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a
person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and
practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a
practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation
"L.P.N.".
    "Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts
requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment judgement, and
skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical
nursing education program. Practical nursing includes
assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered
professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical
nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician,
dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care
professional determined by the Department.
    "Privileged" means the authorization granted by the
governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or
organization to provide specific patient care services within
well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the
credentialing process.
    "Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse"
means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under
this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a
registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse"
and the abbreviation, "R.N.".
    "Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific
process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a
learned profession based on the understanding of the human
condition across the life span and environment and includes all
nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing
act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills
acquired by means of completion of an approved professional
nursing education program. A registered professional nurse
provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to
individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes
but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs,
nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing
evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of
health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education,
and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and
treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed
podiatric physician, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed
by a physician assistant in accordance with written guidelines
required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or
by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of
this Act; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing
plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of
individuals who assist the registered professional nurse
implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing
students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those
acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or
corrective measures.
    "Professional assistance program for nurses" means a
professional assistance program that meets criteria
established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the
Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment
approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to
practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance
addiction.
    "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
Professional Regulation.
    "Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good
standing.
    "Written collaborative agreement" means a written
agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a
collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician
pursuant to Section 65-35.
(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
    (225 ILCS 65/65-35)   (was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
    Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative agreements.
    (a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all
advanced practice nurses engaged in clinical practice, except
for advanced practice nurses who are authorized to practice in
a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical
treatment center.
    (a-5) If an advanced practice nurse engages in clinical
practice outside of a hospital, hospital affiliate, or
ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is
authorized to practice, the advanced practice nurse must have a
written collaborative agreement.
    (b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the
working relationship of the advanced practice nurse with the
collaborating physician or podiatric physician and shall
describe authorize the categories of care, treatment, or
procedures to be provided performed by the advanced practice
nurse. A collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in
accordance with subsection (c-10) of this Section.
Collaboration does not require an employment relationship
between the collaborating physician or podiatric physician and
advanced practice nurse. Collaboration means the relationship
under which an advanced practice nurse works with a
collaborating physician or podiatric physician in an active
clinical practice to deliver health care services in accordance
with (i) the advanced practice nurse's training, education, and
experience and (ii) collaboration and consultation as
documented in a jointly developed written collaborative
agreement.
    The agreement shall promote the exercise of professional
judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his
or her education and experience. The services to be provided by
the advanced practice nurse shall be services that the
collaborating physician or podiatric physician is authorized
to and generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical
medical or podiatric practice, except as set forth in
subsection (b-5) or (c-5) of this Section. The agreement need
not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice nurse
must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or
symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require
the presence of the collaborating physician or podiatric
physician as the procedures are being performed. The
collaborative relationship under an agreement shall not be
construed to require the personal presence of a physician or
podiatric physician at the place where services are rendered.
Methods of communication shall be available for consultation
with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician in
person or by telecommunications or electronic communications
in accordance with established written guidelines as set forth
in the written agreement.
    (b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written
collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of
patients of an advanced practice nurse within the scope of the
advanced practice nurses training and experience, (2) limit
third party payors or government health programs, such as the
medical assistance program or Medicare with which the advanced
practice nurse contracts, or (3) limit the geographic area or
practice location of the advanced practice nurse in this State.
    (c) Collaboration and consultation under all collaboration
agreements shall be adequate if a collaborating physician or
podiatric physician does each of the following:
        (1) Participates in the joint formulation and joint
    approval of orders or guidelines with the advanced practice
    nurse and he or she periodically reviews such orders and
    the services provided patients under such orders in
    accordance with accepted standards of medical practice or
    podiatric practice and advanced practice nursing practice.
        (2) Provides collaboration and consultation with the
    advanced practice nurse at least once a month. In the case
    of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered
    nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a
    dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through
    discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and
    remain physically present and available on the premises
    during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
    consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
    conditions.
        (3) Is available through telecommunications for
    consultation on medical problems, complications, or
    emergencies or patient referral. In the case of anesthesia
    services provided by a certified registered nurse
    anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist,
    or a podiatric physician must participate through
    discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and
    remain physically present and available on the premises
    during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
    consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
    conditions.
    The agreement must contain provisions detailing notice for
termination or change of status involving a written
collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for
just cause.
    (c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who
provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or
ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written
collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or
the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a
hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the
certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those
services that the collaborating podiatric physician is
authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical
Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified
registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer
medication, including controlled substances, and apply
appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia
services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the
anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating
podiatric physician.
    (c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who
provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter
into a written collaborative agreement with an
anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist
performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the
working relationship of the certified registered nurse
anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of
care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified
registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's
office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only
provide those services that the operating dentist with the
appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the
Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For
anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or
operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and
agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically
present and be available on the premises during the delivery of
anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment
of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse
anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication,
including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical
devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the
anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist.
    (d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement
must be available to the Department upon request from both the
advanced practice nurse and the collaborating physician,
dentist, or podiatric physician.
    (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the
delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed
practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other
persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice
Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit
the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means,
including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic,
standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.
Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an advanced
practice nurse to provide health care services required by law
or rule to be performed by a physician.
    (f) An advanced practice nurse shall inform each
collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of
all collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a
copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or
podiatric physician upon request.
    (g) (Blank). For the purposes of this Act, "generally
provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical
practice" means categories of care or treatment, not specific
tasks or duties, the physician provides individually or through
delegation to other persons so that the physician has the
experience and ability to provide collaboration and
consultation. This definition shall not be construed to
prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing primary
health treatment or care within the scope of his or her
training and experience, including, but not limited to, health
screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's
health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided
as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse
or on a volunteer basis.
    For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides or may
provide in his or her clinical podiatric practice" means
services, not specific tasks or duties, that the podiatric
physician routinely provides individually or through
delegation to other persons so that the podiatric physician has
the experience and ability to provide collaboration and
consultation.
(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-192, eff. 1-1-14;
98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
    (225 ILCS 65/65-35.1 new)
    Sec. 65-35.1. Written collaborative agreement; temporary
practice. Any advanced practice nurse required to enter into a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
or collaborating podiatrist is authorized to continue to
practice for up to 90 days after the termination of a
collaborative agreement provided the advanced practice nurse
seeks any needed collaboration at a local hospital and refers
patients who require services beyond the training and
experience of the advanced practice nurse to a physician or
other health care provider.
 
    (225 ILCS 65/65-45)   (was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
    Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals,
hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.
    (a) An advanced practice nurse may provide services in a
hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in
the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois
Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center
without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section
65-35 of this Act. An advanced practice nurse must possess
clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff
and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff
committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to
provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff
committee shall periodically review the services of advanced
practice nurses granted clinical privileges, including any
care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be
granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and
granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting
medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment
center to individual advanced practice nurses to select, order,
and administer medications, including controlled substances,
to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate,
or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending
physician shall determine an advanced practice nurse's role in
providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise
provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee
policies.
    (a-2) An advanced practice nurse granted authority to order
medications including controlled substances may complete
discharge prescriptions provided the prescription is in the
name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending or
discharging physician.
    (a-3) Advanced practice nurses practicing in a hospital or
an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not required to
obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to order
controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act.
    (a-5) For anesthesia services provided by a certified
registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician,
dentist, or podiatric physician shall participate through
discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall
remain physically present and be available on the premises
during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions,
unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of
subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act
or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted
pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the
Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act provides otherwise. A
certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and
administer medication for anesthesia services under the
anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the
physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or
the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed
ambulatory surgical treatment center.
    (b) An advanced practice nurse who provides services in a
hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the
Hospital Licensing Act and, in an ambulatory surgical treatment
center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory
Surgical Treatment Center Act.
    (c) Advanced practice nurses certified as nurse
practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists
practicing in a hospital affiliate may be, but are not required
to be, granted authority to prescribe Schedule II through V
controlled substances when such authority is recommended by the
appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate and
granted by the hospital affiliate. This authority may, but is
not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders
for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of,
and dispensing over-the-counter medications, legend drugs,
medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as
Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in
Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other
preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and
herbal remedies.
    To prescribe controlled substances under this subsection
(c), an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse
practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist must
obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license.
Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the
appropriate hospital affiliate physicians committee or its
physician designee.
    The hospital affiliate shall file with the Department
notice of a grant of prescriptive authority consistent with
this subsection (c) and termination of such a grant of
authority, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon
receipt of this notice of grant of authority to prescribe any
Schedule II through V controlled substances, the licensed
advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner,
nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist may register for a
mid-level practitioner controlled substance license under
Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
    In addition, a hospital affiliate may, but is not required
to, grant authority to an advanced practice nurse certified as
a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse
specialist to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances,
if all of the following conditions apply:
        (1) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral
    dosage or topical or transdermal application may be
    designated, provided that the designated Schedule II
    controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced
    practice nurses in their area of certification; this grant
    of authority must identify the specific Schedule II
    controlled substances by either brand name or generic name;
    authority to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled
    substances to be delivered by injection or other route of
    administration may not be granted;
        (2) any grant of authority must be controlled
    substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice
    nurse;
        (3) any prescription must be limited to no more than a
    30-day supply;
        (4) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the
    condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance
    is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician
    committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician
    designee; and
        (5) the advanced practice nurse must meet the education
    requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled
    Substances Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
    Section 40. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act
is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
    Sec. 3.1. Referrals.
    (a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed
occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate,
evaluate, and monitor services for individuals, groups, and
populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as
indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section,
implementation of direct occupational therapy treatment to
individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be
based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist,
podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational
therapists, physician assistant who has been delegated
authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed
occupational therapists, or optometrist.
    (b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing
consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness,
prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related
ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations.
    (c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider
is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and
youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy
assistant provides services in a school-based or educational
environment, including the child's home.
    (d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed
physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse,
physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose
medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or
treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of
the occupational therapist.
(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13;
98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
    Section 45. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics
Practice Act is amended by changing Section 57 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 84/57)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
    Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A
licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide
care or services only if the care or services are provided
pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a
licensed podiatric physician, (iii) a licensed an advanced
practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician or podiatric physician that
specifically authorizes ordering the services of an orthotist,
prosthetist or pedorthist, or (iv) an advanced practice nurse
who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment
center and possesses clinical privileges to order services of
an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist, or (v) a licensed
physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
order the services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist
by his or her supervising physician. A licensed podiatric
physician or advanced practice nurse collaborating with a
podiatric physician may only order care or services concerning
the foot from a licensed prosthetist.
(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
    Section 50. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by
changing Section 1 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 90/1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
    Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
    (1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:
        (A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who
    may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental
    impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or
    other health and movement-related conditions, classifying
    these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis
    and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the
    on-going effects of the interventions.
        (B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations,
    or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying
    therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not
    limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through
    the use of the effective properties of physical measures
    and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity,
    sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic
    exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures,
    with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of
    preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or
    mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.
        (C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment,
    functional limitation, or disability, including the
    promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and
    wellness.
        (D) Engaging in administration, consultation,
    education, and research.
    Physical therapy includes, but is not limited to: (a)
performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b)
administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c)
interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists,
advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric
physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical
therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical
medication used in generally accepted physical therapy
procedures when such medication is prescribed by the patient's
physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric
medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's
physician assistant, or the patient's dentist, and (f)
supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy
does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic
technique or determination of a differential diagnosis;
provided, however, the limitation on determining a
differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical
therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation
pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a
physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy
techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform.
A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician,
advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or
podiatric physician any patient whose medical condition
should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined
to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.
    (2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices
physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided
in this Act.
    (3) "Department" means the Department of Professional
Regulation.
    (4) "Director" means the Director of Professional
Regulation.
    (5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and
Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.
    (6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for
physical therapy services for a patient by a physician,
dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or
podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the
patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's
condition is such that it may be treated by a physical
therapist.
    (7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the
purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by
signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist,
advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric
physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be
treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which
diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the
physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician
assistant, or podiatric physician.
    (8) "State" includes:
        (a) the states of the United States of America;
        (b) the District of Columbia; and
        (c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
    (9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed
to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements
as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of
a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the
physical therapy treatment program as established by the
licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities
provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include
the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the
planning or major modification of patient programs.
    (10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has
received on the job training, specific to the facility in which
he is employed, but who has not completed an approved physical
therapist assistant program.
    (11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as
an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who has
a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes referrals to physical therapists.
    (12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under
the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been
delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists.
(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
    Section 53. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is
amended by changing Section 20.5 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 100/20.5)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
    Sec. 20.5. Delegation of authority to advanced practice
nurses.
    (a) A podiatric physician in active clinical practice may
collaborate with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with
the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration shall
be for the purpose of providing podiatric care consultation and
no employment relationship shall be required. A written
collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of
Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written
collaborative agreement shall be for services the
collaborating podiatric physician generally provides to his or
her patients in the normal course of clinical podiatric
practice, except as set forth in item (3) of this subsection
(a). A written collaborative agreement and podiatric physician
collaboration and consultation shall be adequate with respect
to advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply:
        (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of
    professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse
    commensurate with his or her education and experience. The
    agreement need not describe the exact steps that an
    advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each
    specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify
    which procedures require a podiatric physician's presence
    as the procedures are being performed.
        (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and
    approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and
    collaborating podiatric physician, as needed, based on the
    practice of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders
    and the patient services provided thereunder are
    periodically reviewed by the collaborating podiatric
    physician.
        (1) (3) The advance practice nurse provides services
    that the collaborating podiatric physician generally
    provides to his or her patients in the normal course of
    clinical practice. With respect to the provision of
    anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse
    anesthetist, the collaborating podiatric physician must
    have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia
    consistent with Department rules.
        (4) The collaborating podiatric physician and the
    advanced practice nurse consult at least once a month to
    provide collaboration and consultation.
        (2) (5) Methods of communication are available with the
    collaborating podiatric physician in person or through
    telecommunications or electronic communications for
    consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to
    address patient care needs.
        (3) (6) With respect to the provision of anesthesia
    services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an
    anesthesiologist, physician, or podiatric physician shall
    participate through discussion of and agreement with the
    anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be
    available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia
    services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of
    emergency medical conditions. The anesthesiologist or
    operating podiatric physician must agree with the
    anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.
        (7) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice
    for termination or change of status involving a written
    collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given
    for just cause.
    (b) The collaborating podiatric physician shall have
access to the records of all patients attended to by an
advanced practice nurse.
    (c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the
delegation of tasks or duties by a podiatric physician to a
licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or
other appropriately trained persons.
    (d) A podiatric physician shall not be liable for the acts
or omissions of an advanced practice nurse solely on the basis
of having signed guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an
order, a standing order, a standing delegation order, or other
order or guideline authorizing an advanced practice nurse to
perform acts, unless the podiatric physician has reason to
believe the advanced practice nurse lacked the competency to
perform the act or acts or commits willful or wanton
misconduct.
    (e) A podiatric physician, may, but is not required to
delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse
as part of a written collaborative agreement and the delegation
of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12;
98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
    Section 55. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by
changing Section 10 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 106/10)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
    "Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse
licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
    "Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the
Director.
    "Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all
of the following activities:
         (1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment
    used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a
    licensed health care professional or other authorized
    licensed personnel.
        (2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of
    respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care
    professional or other authorized licensed personnel.
        (3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through
    non-invasive means, provided that the collection and
    review does not include the individual's interpretation of
    the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and
    reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse
    oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order
    to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health
    care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel
    in a timely manner.
        (4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen
    therapy in the proper position on the patient's face.
        (5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen
    therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use.
        (6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by
    physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the
    oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb
    syringe.
        (7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency
    resuscitation using a manual resuscitator.
        (8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a
    licensed health care professional or other authorized
    licensed personnel who is present and performing routine
    airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of
    a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of
    mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is
    connected to the ventilator.
"Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities
that involve any of the following:
        (1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of
    education or training in respiratory care.
        (2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the
    patient.
        (3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning
    patient care.
        (4) The administration of aerosol medication or
    oxygen.
        (5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial
    airway.
        (6) Mechanical ventilatory support.
        (7) Patient assessment.
        (8) Patient education.
    "Department" means the Department of Professional
Regulation.
    "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.
    "Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself out
as a respiratory care practitioner as defined in this Act.
    "Licensed health care professional" means a physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed
an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
advanced practice nurse to transmit orders to a respiratory
care practitioner, or a licensed physician assistant who has
been delegated the authority to transmit orders to a
respiratory care practitioner by his or her supervising
physician.
    "Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated
authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by
(i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical
supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies
that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by
a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered
nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical
treatment center.
    "Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed
respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or
a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes
the professional to supervise an individual who is not
licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional.
    "Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an
individual is responsible for directing the actions of another
individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be
readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.
    "Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care" mean
preventative services, evaluation and assessment services,
therapeutic services, and rehabilitative services under the
order of a licensed health care professional or a certified
registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital for an
individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the
cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not
limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring
signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general
physical response of individuals to respiratory care services,
including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms,
reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit
abnormal characteristics; the administration of
pharmacological and therapeutic agents related to respiratory
care services; the collection of blood specimens and other
bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of,
cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but
not limited to, blood gas analysis; development,
implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment
plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary
system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a
licensed health care professional; application, operation, and
management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of
life support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under
the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care
practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at
the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond
the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.
    "Respiratory care education program" means a course of
academic study leading to eligibility for registry or
certification in respiratory care. The training is to be
approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and
shall include an evaluation of competence through a
standardized testing mechanism that is determined by the Board
to be both valid and reliable.
    "Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is
licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation and meets
all of the following criteria:
        (1) The person is engaged in the practice of
    cardiorespiratory care and has the knowledge and skill
    necessary to administer respiratory care.
        (2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to
    the licensed health care professional in relation to the
    technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe
    and effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory
    care modalities.
        (3) The person is able to function in situations of
    unsupervised patient contact requiring great individual
    judgment.
(Source: P.A. 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
    Section 60. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended
by changing Sections 10, 20, and 95 as follows:
 
    (225 ILCS 135/10)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)
    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
    "ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling.
    "ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics.
    "Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have
received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their
respective certification examinations.
    "Address of record" means the designated address recorded
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application
file or license file as maintained by the Department's
licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or
licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and
those changes must be made either through the Department's
website or by contacting the Department.
    "Department" means the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation.
    "Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA
that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease
or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes
a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic
anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition
or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who
is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced
condition.
    "Genetic counseling" means the provision of services,
which may include the ordering of genetic tests, pursuant to a
referral, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and
organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals
to address the physical and psychological issues associated
with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a
genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially
inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual
or a family. "Genetic counseling" consists of the following:
        (A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or
    recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially
    inherited or genetically influenced condition. This
    assessment may involve:
            (i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health
        history of the person and his or her family;
            (ii) reviewing pertinent medical records;
            (iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to
        possible mutagens or teratogens;
            (iv) recommending genetic testing or other
        evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the
        carrier status of one or more family members;
        (B) Helping the individual, family, health care
    provider, or health care professional (i) appreciate the
    medical, psychological and social implications of a
    disorder, including its features, variability, usual
    course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic
    factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance
    for recurrence of the condition in other family members,
    and (iii) understand available options for coping with,
    preventing, or reducing the chance of occurrence or
    recurrence of a condition.
        (C) Facilitating an individual's or family's (i)
    exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated
    with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the
    condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for
    psychological, social, and medical support.
    "Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act
to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.
    "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or
analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes,
proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations,
chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including
carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental
disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to
illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether
physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal
damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and
"genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements;
chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and
in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for
the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of
proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes,
mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or
deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are
directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or
pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a
health care professional with appropriate training and
expertise in the field of medicine involved.
    "Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or
corporation.
    "Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed
genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed
to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified
supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or
may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The
qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with the
Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of
a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or
assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor.
    "Referral" means a written or telecommunicated
authorization for genetic counseling services from a physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed
an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement
with a collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a
genetic counselor, or a licensed physician assistant who has a
supervision agreement with a supervising physician that
authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor.
    "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
Professional Regulation.
    "Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic
counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the
person under supervision.
(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
    (225 ILCS 135/20)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)
    Sec. 20. Restrictions and limitations.
    (a) Except as provided in Section 15, no person shall,
without a valid license as a genetic counselor issued by the
Department (i) in any manner hold himself or herself out to the
public as a genetic counselor under this Act; (ii) use in
connection with his or her name or place of business the title
"genetic counselor", "licensed genetic counselor", "gene
counselor", "genetic consultant", or "genetic associate" or
any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or
implying a person has met the qualifications for or has the
license issued under this Act; or (iii) offer to render or
render to individuals, corporations, or the public genetic
counseling services if the words "genetic counselor" or
"licensed genetic counselor" are used to describe the person
offering to render or rendering them, or "genetic counseling"
is used to describe the services rendered or offered to be
rendered.
    (b) No licensed genetic counselor may provide genetic
counseling to individuals, couples, groups, or families
without a referral from a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced practice
nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor, or
a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated authority
to make referrals to genetic counselors. The physician,
advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant shall maintain
supervision of the patient and be provided timely written
reports on the services, including genetic testing results,
provided by the licensed genetic counselor. Genetic testing
shall be ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine
in all its branches or a genetic counselor pursuant to a
referral that gives the specific authority to order genetic
tests. Genetic test results and reports shall be provided to
the referring physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
assistant. General seminars or talks to groups or organizations
on genetic counseling that do not include individual, couple,
or family specific counseling may be conducted without a
referral. In clinical settings, genetic counselors who serve as
a liaison between family members of a patient and a genetic
research project, may, with the consent of the patient, provide
information to family members for the purpose of gathering
additional information, as it relates to the patient, without a
referral. In non-clinical settings where no patient is being
treated, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between a
genetic research project and participants in that genetic
research project may provide information to the participants,
without a referral.
    (c) No association or partnership shall practice genetic
counseling unless every member, partner, and employee of the
association or partnership who practices genetic counseling or
who renders genetic counseling services holds a valid license
issued under this Act. No license shall be issued to a
corporation, the stated purpose of which includes or which
practices or which holds itself out as available to practice
genetic counseling, unless it is organized under the
Professional Service Corporation Act.
    (d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as permitting
persons licensed as genetic counselors to engage in any manner
in the practice of medicine in all its branches as defined by
law in this State.
    (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a
licensed genetic counselor to diagnose, test (unless
authorized in a referral), or treat any genetic or other
disease or condition.
    (f) When, in the course of providing genetic counseling
services to any person, a genetic counselor licensed under this
Act finds any indication of a disease or condition that in his
or her professional judgment requires professional service
outside the scope of practice as defined in this Act, he or she
shall refer that person to a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of its branches.
(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
    (225 ILCS 135/95)
    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)
    Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
    (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may
revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department
deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to
exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license
for any one or more of the following:
        (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
    the Department or to any other State agency.
        (2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard
    of this Act, or any of its rules.
        (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
    finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or
    sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions,
    preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge,
    or first offender probation, under the laws of any
    jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or
    (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which
    is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice
    of genetic counseling.
        (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
    obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act
    or its rules.
        (5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling
    services.
        (6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any
    requested information to a referring physician licensed to
    practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice
    nurse, or physician assistant.
        (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
    provision of this Act or any rules.
        (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in
    response to a written request made by the Department.
        (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
    defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of
    professional conduct adopted by the Department.
        (10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any
    information received from a client, unless otherwise
    authorized or required by law.
        (10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services
    provided and provide copies to clients upon request.
        (11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage,
    profit, or interest.
        (12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
    narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
    which results in inability to practice with reasonable
    skill, judgment, or safety.
        (13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit
    of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or
    by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the
    discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
    set forth in this Section.
        (14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
    any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association
    any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation
    for any professional service not actually rendered.
    Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide
    independent contractor or employment arrangements among
    health care professionals, health facilities, health care
    providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
    prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
    provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
    other employment benefits for the provision of services
    within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
    Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to
    require an employment arrangement to receive professional
    fees for services rendered.
        (15) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
    after having the license placed on probationary status has
    violated the terms of probation.
        (16) Failing to refer a client to other health care
    professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to
    adequately support or serve the client.
        (17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a
    licensee's practice, including but not limited to false
    records filed with federal or State agencies or
    departments.
        (18) Willfully failing to report an instance of
    suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused
    and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
        (19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
    pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act,
    and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
    Child Reporting Act.
        (20) Physical or mental disability, including
    deterioration through the aging process or loss of
    abilities and skills which results in the inability to
    practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill,
    or safety.
        (21) Solicitation of professional services by using
    false or misleading advertising.
        (22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax,
    penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any
    final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required
    by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of
    Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue
    Service or any successor agency.
        (23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying
    for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection
    with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
        (24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name
    other than the full name as shown on the license or any
    other legally authorized name.
        (25) Gross overcharging for professional services,
    including filing statements for collection of fees or
    monies for which services are not rendered.
        (26) Providing genetic counseling services to
    individuals, couples, groups, or families without a
    referral from either a physician licensed to practice
    medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced
    practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a
    collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced
    practice nurse to make referrals to a genetic counselor, or
    a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated
    authority to make referrals to genetic counselors.
        (27) Charging for professional services not rendered,
    including filing false statements for the collection of
    fees for which services are not rendered.
        (28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used
    by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
    (b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any
application or renewal for a license under this Act to any
person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by
the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the
Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in
default has established a satisfactory repayment record as
determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.
    (c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject
to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in
the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will
result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The
suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee
is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial
admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging
the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the
licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.
    (d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may
suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to
file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a
filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax,
penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the
payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of
Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in
accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
Administrative Code of Illinois.
    (e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
Services has previously determined that a licensee or a
potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the
payment of child support and has subsequently certified the
delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to
issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license
or may take other disciplinary action against that person based
solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with
item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department
of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code
of Illinois.
    (f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be
paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order
imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set
forth in the order imposing the fine.
(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
    Section 63. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by
changing Section 5-8 as follows:
 
    (305 ILCS 5/5-8)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-8)
    Sec. 5-8. Practitioners. In supplying medical assistance,
the Illinois Department may provide for the legally authorized
services of (i) persons licensed under the Medical Practice Act
of 1987, as amended, except as hereafter in this Section
stated, whether under a general or limited license, (ii)
persons licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as advanced
practice nurses, regardless of whether or not the persons have
written collaborative agreements, (iii) persons licensed or
registered under other laws of this State to provide dental,
medical, pharmaceutical, optometric, podiatric, or nursing
services, or other remedial care recognized under State law,
and (iv) (iii) persons licensed under other laws of this State
as a clinical social worker. The Department may not provide for
legally authorized services of any physician who has been
convicted of having performed an abortion procedure in a wilful
and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time
such abortion procedure was performed. The utilization of the
services of persons engaged in the treatment or care of the
sick, which persons are not required to be licensed or
registered under the laws of this State, is not prohibited by
this Section.
(Source: P.A. 95-518, eff. 8-28-07.)
 
    Section 65. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders
Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10
as follows:
 
    (405 ILCS 95/10)
    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
    "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the
Hospital Licensing Act.
    "Licensed health care professional" means a physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed
an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement
with a collaborating physician that authorizes care, or a
licensed physician physician's assistant who has been
delegated authority to provide care.
    "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health
care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the
infant or mother.
    "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health
care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before
birth.
    "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a
licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental
health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression
Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck
Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or
other validated assessment methods.
(Source: P.A. 95-469, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
    Section 70. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by
changing Section 6.2 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 45/6.2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
    Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.
    (a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6
years of age or younger shall test those children for lead
poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high
risk by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as
low risk by the Department shall be evaluated for risk by the
Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed by the Department
and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in
accordance with rules adopted by the Department.
    (b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care
facility serving children 6 years of age or younger, including,
but not limited to, health departments, hospitals, clinics, and
health maintenance organizations approved, registered, or
licensed by the Department, shall take the appropriate steps to
ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for
risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.
    (c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may
also be tested by physicians or health care providers, in
accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and
health care providers shall also evaluate children for lead
poisoning in conjunction with the school health examination, as
required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment
judgement of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
that authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health
examinations, or physician assistant who has been delegated to
perform health examinations by the supervising physician, the
child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.
    (d) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
 
    Section 75. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency
Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 2.2, 5, and 5.5
as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 70/2.2)
    Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.
    (a) The General Assembly finds:
        (1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse cause
    significant physical, emotional, and psychological trauma
    to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's
    fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result
    of the sexual assault.
        (2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the
    United States as the result of rape and approximately 50%
    of these pregnancies end in abortion.
        (3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug
    Administration (FDA), emergency contraception can
    significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within
    72 hours after the sexual assault.
        (4) By providing emergency contraception to rape
    victims in a timely manner, the trauma of rape can be
    significantly reduced.
    (b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, every hospital
providing services to sexual assault survivors in accordance
with a plan approved under Section 2 must develop a protocol
that ensures that each survivor of sexual assault will receive
medically and factually accurate and written and oral
information about emergency contraception; the indications and
counter-indications and risks associated with the use of
emergency contraception; and a description of how and when
victims may be provided emergency contraception upon the
written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in
all its branches, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has
a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician that authorizes prescription of emergency
contraception, or a licensed physician assistant who has been
delegated authority to prescribe emergency contraception. The
Department shall approve the protocol if it finds that the
implementation of the protocol would provide sufficient
protection for survivors of sexual assault.
    The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by
the Department. The Department shall adopt rules and
regulations establishing one or more safe harbor protocols and
setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that hospitals
may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any
protocol that meets those standards. The Department may provide
a sample acceptable protocol upon request.
(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
    (410 ILCS 70/5)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)
    Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing
hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual
assault survivors.
    (a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services
and forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this
Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide,
with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered
by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse who has
a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician that authorizes provision of emergency services, or a
physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide
hospital emergency services and forensic services, the
following:
        (1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory
    tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of
    a sexual assault survivor or which may be used as evidence
    in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the
    sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such
    examinations and tests shall be maintained by the hospital
    and made available to law enforcement officials upon the
    request of the sexual assault survivor;
        (2) appropriate oral and written information
    concerning the possibility of infection, sexually
    transmitted disease and pregnancy resulting from sexual
    assault;
        (3) appropriate oral and written information
    concerning accepted medical procedures, medication, and
    possible contraindications of such medication available
    for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease
    resulting from sexual assault;
        (4) an amount of medication for treatment at the
    hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by
    the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a
    physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's
    current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;
        (5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk
    of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the
    sexual assault;
        (6) written and oral instructions indicating the need
    for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the
    sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of
    sexually transmitted disease;
        (7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate
    counseling; and
        (8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an
    initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with
    written and oral instructions indicating the importance of
    timely follow-up healthcare.
    (b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks
emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up
healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services
without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian,
surrogate, or agent.
    (c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient
relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital
emergency department.
(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-318, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
    (410 ILCS 70/5.5)
    Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up
healthcare.
    (a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory,
or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual
assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault
survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced
practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician, or physician assistant who has been
delegated authority by a supervising physician shall be
reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided.
Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to,
the following:
        (1) a physical examination;
        (2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or
    absence of sexually transmitted disease; and
        (3) appropriate medications, including HIV
    prophylaxis.
    (b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office
visits with a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital
emergency services.
    (c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health
care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide
follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.
(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
    Section 80. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act
is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, and 3 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 210/1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)
    Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of
a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to
practice medicine and surgery, a licensed an advanced practice
nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services
for minors, or a licensed physician assistant who has been
delegated authority to provide services for minors executed by
a married person who is a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by
a pregnant woman who is a minor, or by any person 18 years of
age or older, is not voidable because of such minority, and,
for such purpose, a married person who is a minor, a parent who
is a minor, a pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18
years of age or older, is deemed to have the same legal
capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has
a person of legal age.
(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
 
    (410 ILCS 210/1.5)
    Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care
services.
    (a) The consent to the performance of primary care services
by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a licensed
physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide
services for minors executed by a minor seeking care is not
voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, a
minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to
act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of
legal age under the following circumstances:
        (1) the health care professional reasonably believes
    that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and
    risks of any proposed primary care or services; and
        (2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as
    a minor seeking care by:
            (A) an adult relative;
            (B) a representative of a homeless service agency
        that receives federal, State, county, or municipal
        funding to provide those services or that is otherwise
        sanctioned by a local continuum of care;
            (C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this
        State;
            (D) a public school homeless liaison or school
        social worker;
            (E) a social service agency providing services to
        at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or
            (F) a representative of a religious organization.
    (b) A health care professional rendering primary care
services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal
liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional
discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she
relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor
or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection
(a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall
be presumed.
    (c) The confidential nature of any communication between a
health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and
a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the
time of communication, of any additional persons present at the
request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care
professional's disclosure of confidential information to the
additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care,
when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which
the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care
professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under
which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has
coverage for the services provided.
    (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or
expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any
federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be
construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of
1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of
a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or
otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a
minor in their absence.
    (e) For the purposes of this Section:
        "Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years
    of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate
    and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian,
    whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal
    guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the
    residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal
    affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who
    are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or
    guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
    Services.
        "Primary care services" means health care services
    that include screening, counseling, immunizations,
    medication, and treatment of illness and conditions
    customarily provided by licensed health care professionals
    in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not
    include invasive care, beyond standard injections,
    laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.
(Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14.)
 
    (410 ILCS 210/2)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)
    Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may
consent to the performance upon his or her child of a medical
or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice
medicine and surgery, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who
has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or
a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated authority
to provide services for minors or a dental procedure by a
licensed dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall
not be voidable because of such minority, but, for such
purpose, a parent who is a minor shall be deemed to have the
same legal capacity to act and shall have the same powers and
obligations as has a person of legal age.
(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
 
    (410 ILCS 210/3)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)
    Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to
practice medicine or surgery, a licensed an advanced practice
nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services
for minors, or a licensed physician assistant who has been
delegated authority to provide services for minors renders
emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist renders
emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's
parent or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole
opinion of the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician
assistant, dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is
not reasonably feasible under the circumstances without
adversely affecting the condition of such minor's health.
    (b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal
sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault,
criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or
criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through
11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent of the
minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to
authorize a hospital, physician, advanced practice nurse,
physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish
medical care or counseling related to the diagnosis or
treatment of any disease or injury arising from such offense.
The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis or
treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of
majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to
later disaffirmance, because of minority.
(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
 
    Section 85. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended by
changing Section 2 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 225/2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)
    Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context otherwise requires:
    "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means an advanced
practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
that authorizes the provision of prenatal and newborn care.
    "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
Services.
    "Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment
(EPSDT)" means the provision of preventative health care under
42 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq., including medical and dental
services, needed to assess growth and development and detect
and treat health problems.
    "Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital
Licensing Act.
    "Local health authority" means the full-time official
health department or board of health, as recognized by the
Illinois Department of Public Health, having jurisdiction over
a particular area.
    "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
Act.
    "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of its branches.
    "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed
under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been
delegated authority to provide prenatal and newborn care.
    "Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with
reference to the newborn.
    "Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.
    "Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program
established pursuant to this Act.
(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
    Section 90. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by
changing Section 3 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 305/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)
    Sec. 3. When used in this Act:
    (a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
    (b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information
Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health
Information Exchange and Technology Act.
    (c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it
under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    (d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    (e) "De-identified information" means health information
that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA,
as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).
    (f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public
Health or its designated agents.
    (g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    (h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it
under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    (i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed
physician, (ii) a licensed physician assistant to whom the
physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the
provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) a
licensed an advanced practice registered nurse who has a
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
which authorizes the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health
services, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric
physician, or (vi) an individual certified to provide HIV
testing and counseling by a state or local public health
department.
    (j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it
under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    (k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood
bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care
institution, including any "health facility" as that term is
defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.
    (l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health
information exchange or health information organization that
oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health
information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois
Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any
subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules
adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing
arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013,
was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was
represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health
Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation
shall not require the establishment of a data sharing
arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health
Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain
circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a
business associate.
    (m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to
it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    (n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by
the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical
Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent
amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
    (o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus.
    (p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a
person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an
HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription
information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including
such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related
information" does not include information that has been
de-identified in accordance with HIPAA.
    (q) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal agreement
by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized
representative without undue inducement or any element of
force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or
coercion, which entails at least the following pre-test
information:
        (1) a fair explanation of the test, including its
    purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of
    its results;
        (2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be
    followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the
    right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any
    time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law
    with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of
    test results, and the right to confidential treatment of
    information identifying the subject of the test and the
    results of the test, to the extent provided by law; and
        (3) where the person providing informed consent is a
    participant in an HIE, a fair explanation that the results
    of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE
    and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right
    under Section 9.6 of this Act.
    Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally,
or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be
offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and
decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health
care provider or health care professional from combining a form
used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used
to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other
medical test or procedure provided that the forms make it clear
that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or
medical procedures without being required to consent to HIV
testing and clearly explain how the subject may opt out of HIV
testing.
    (r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).
    (s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using,
disclosing, and requesting protected health information found
in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).
    (t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning
ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    (u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to
it under 42 CFR 3.20.
    (v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA,
as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    (w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership,
association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public
or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.
    (x) "Protected health information" has the meaning
ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    (y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA,
as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    (z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of
Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that,
pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an
instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect
the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.
    (aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the
presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV
infection.
    (bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    (cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.
(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
    Section 95. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease
Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 325/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)
    Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context clearly requires otherwise:
    (1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
    (2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official
health department of board of health, as recognized by the
Department, having jurisdiction over a particular area.
    (3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial,
viral, fungal or parasitic disease, determined by rule of the
Department to be sexually transmissible, to be a threat to the
public health and welfare, and to be a disease for which a
legitimate public interest will be served by providing for
regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to
be designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department
shall consider such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea,
granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma venereum, genital herpes
simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), pelvic
inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute Salpingitis, syphilis,
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall
consider the recommendations and classifications of the
Centers for Disease Control and other nationally recognized
medical authorities. Not all diseases that are sexually
transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.
    (4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed
to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician
assistant who has been delegated the provision of sexually
transmissible disease therapy services or expedited partner
therapy services by his or her supervising physician, or a
licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes the provision of sexually transmissible disease
therapy services or expedited partner therapy services, or an
advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or
ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate
clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.
    (5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe,
dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription
antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons
clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible
disease, without physical examination of the partner or
partners.
(Source: P.A. 96-613, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
    (410 ILCS 325/4)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)
    Sec. 4. Reporting required.
    (a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the
Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse
licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act who has
a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician that authorizes the provision of services for a
sexually transmissible disease, or a physician assistant
licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant
Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to
provide services for a sexually transmissible disease who makes
a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually transmissible
disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually
transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result
shall report such facts as may be required by the Department by
rule, within such time period as the Department may require by
rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.
    (b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the
information required in reporting a sexually transmissible
disease, the method of reporting and specifying a minimum time
period for reporting. In adopting such rules, the Department
shall consider the need for information, protections for the
privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the practical
abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable
fashion.
    (c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates
any false information or report concerning the existence of any
sexually transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of
a Class A misdemeanor.
    (d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section
or the rules adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department
up to $500 for each violation. The Department shall report each
violation of this Section to the regulatory agency responsible
for licensing a health care professional or a laboratory to
which these provisions apply.
(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
    Section 100. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by
changing Section 5 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 335/5)
    Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
    "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician
assistant who has been delegated the provision of health
services by his or her supervising physician, or a licensed an
advanced practice registered nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes the provision of health services.
    "Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or
other institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to
deliver health care services.
    "Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or
labor or delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn
infant, including hospitalization.
(Source: P.A. 93-566, eff. 8-20-03; 94-910, eff. 6-23-06.)
 
    Section 105. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended
by changing Section 10 as follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 513/10)
    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
    "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange
Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health
Information Exchange and Technology Act.
    "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "De-identified information" means health information that
is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).
    "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local
government, and any board, commission, department,
institution, or school district, any party to a public
contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee
within the State, and every other person employing employees
within the State.
    "Employment agency" means both public and private
employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or
labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly
undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure
opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place
employees.
    "Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i)
the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the
individual, including a child who is born to or placed for
adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying
as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all
other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or
the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii)
of this definition.
    "Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of
employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic
material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased
occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course
of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the
workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to
effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the
workplace.
    "Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning
ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR
160.103.
    "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it
under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician,
(ii) a licensed physician assistant to whom the physician
assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision
of genetic testing or genetic counseling-related services,
(iii) a licensed an advanced practice registered nurse who has
a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
physician which authorizes the provision of genetic testing or
genetic counseling-related health services, (iv) a licensed
dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic
counselor, or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic
testing by a state or local public health department.
    "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood
center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including
any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois
Finance Authority Act.
    "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health
information exchange or health information organization that
exchanges health information electronically that (i) is
established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information
Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments
thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder;
(ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the
Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by
the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the
Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange
Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the
establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other
participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or
the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance
with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.
    "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it
under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by
the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical
Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent
amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
    "Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the
jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a managed
care plan.
    "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor
union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated
association designed to further the cause of the rights of
union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in
part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers
concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or
apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of
other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment,
including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.
    "Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee,
council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in
this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant,
deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a
license or certificate of registration.
    "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under
HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).
    "Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes,
operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that
have entered into agreements with the plan to provide health
care services to enrollees where the plan has the ultimate and
direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for
the provision of or pay for services through:
        (1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality
    assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute
    resolution; or
        (2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the
    plan to use the participating providers and procedures
    covered by the plan.
    A managed care plan may be established or operated by any
entity including a licensed insurance company, hospital or
medical service plan, health maintenance organization, limited
health service organization, preferred provider organization,
third party administrator, or an employer or employee
organization.
    "Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using,
disclosing, and requesting protected health information found
in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).
    "Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not
intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the
individual whom the information concerns.
    "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning
ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
    "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it
under 42 CFR 3.20.
    "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    "Person" includes any natural person, partnership,
association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public
or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.
    "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to
it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103.
    "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of
Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which
pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an
instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect
the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons.
    "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
    "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.
(Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
    Section 110. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation
and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as
follows:
 
    (410 ILCS 642/10)
    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
    "Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or
advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act,
who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in
this State.
    "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced
practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that authorizes services under this
Act, or a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated
the authority to perform services under this Act by his or her
supervising physician.
    "Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in
Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home
Nursing Agency Licensing Act.
    "Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of
the Hospice Program Licensing Act.
    "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical
Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.
(Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07;
95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
    Section 115. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, and 6-901 as
follows:
 
    (625 ILCS 5/1-159.1)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)
    Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person
who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a licensed
physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
make this determination by his or her supervising physician, or
by a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this
determination: (1) cannot walk without the use of, or
assistance from, a brace, cane, crutch, another person,
prosthetic device, wheelchair, or other assistive device; (2)
is restricted by lung disease to such an extent that his or her
forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one second, when
measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or the arterial
oxygen tension is less than 60 mm/hg on room air at rest; (3)
uses portable oxygen; (4) has a cardiac condition to the extent
that the person's functional limitations are classified in
severity as Class III or Class IV, according to standards set
by the American Heart Association; (5) is severely limited in
the person's ability to walk due to an arthritic, neurological,
oncological, or orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet
without stopping to rest because of one of the above 5
conditions; or (7) is missing a hand or arm or has permanently
lost the use of a hand or arm.
(Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14.)
 
    (625 ILCS 5/3-616)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)
    Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.
    (a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of
registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a
motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than
8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees
required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a
person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State,
if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates
as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with
disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not
be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under
subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further
provided that any person making such a request must submit a
statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a licensed
physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
make this certification by his or her supervising physician, or
by a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this
certification, to the effect that such person is a person with
disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or
alternatively provide adequate documentation that such person
has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four disability under the
provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card
Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a
Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois
Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon
named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such
a disability.
    (b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to
a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the
person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability
as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card
Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section
1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered
in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities
relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for
transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered
under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in
writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person
requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit
such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's,
or advanced practice nurse's statement as is required in
subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances
qualifying for issuance of special plates under this
subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual
Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person
with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.
    (c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a
person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without
regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a
driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person
with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided
such person with disabilities making such a request has been
issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or
Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement
certified by a licensed physician, or by a licensed physician
assistant or a licensed an advanced practice nurse as provided
in subsection (a), to the effect that such person is a person
with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist
may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section
4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the purpose of
qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking decal or
device under this subsection.
    (d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations
procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the
eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than
permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices
issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided
under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates,
decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to
or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person
is certified as meeting the definition of a person with
disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the
requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section
4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of
time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced
practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the
applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months
from the date of certification or recertification.
    (e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section
may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as
provided under Section 3-405.1.
    (f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue
disability registration plates or a parking decal to
corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies,
limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent
homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport
persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by
rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of
organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to
designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall
be placed on qualifying vehicles.
    (g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into
agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign
jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the
extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to
permanently disabled residents of this State who display a
special license plate or parking device that contains the
International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and
to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other
jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking
privileges which are granted to disabled residents of this
State to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in
another state, district, territory or foreign country if such
vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a
distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device
issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state,
district, territory or foreign country.
(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)
 
    (625 ILCS 5/6-103)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)
    Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers
or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue,
renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue
any permit under this Code:
        1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of
    18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except
    that an instruction permit may be issued under Section
    6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if
    the child is enrolled in an approved driver education
    course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
    requires an instruction permit to participate therein,
    except that an instruction permit may be issued under the
    provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years
    and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an
    approved driver education course and except that an
    instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least
    15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets
    the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act,
    and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his
    or her discretion may prescribe;
        1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less
    than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to
    any other requirements of this Code, successfully
    completed an adult driver education course as provided in
    Section 6-107.5 of this Code;
        2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an
    operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle
    unless the person has, in addition to meeting the
    provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully
    completed a motorcycle training course approved by the
    Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully
    completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle
    driver's examination;
        3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license
    or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to
    any person whose driver's license or permit has been
    revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
    6-208;
        4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol
    or any other drug to a degree that renders the person
    incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;
        5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been
    adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental
    or physical disability or disease and who has not at the
    time of application been restored to competency by the
    methods provided by law;
        6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the
    Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation
    or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the
    person has successfully passed the examination and
    submitted any required evaluation;
        7. To any person who is required under the provisions
    of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of
    financial responsibility and who has not deposited the
    security or proof;
        8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good
    cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or
    mental disability would not be able to safely operate a
    motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall
    furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
    statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a
    competent medical specialist, a licensed physician
    assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical
    examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a
    licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written
    collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
    which authorizes him or her to perform medical
    examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor
    vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public
    safety;
        9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age
    or older, unless the person has successfully complied with
    the provisions of Section 6-109;
        10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of
    application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses
    enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section
    6-205;
        11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with
    a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section
    6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years
    with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of
    Section 6-104;
        12. To any person who has been either convicted of or
    adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon
    a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
    Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control
    and Community Protection Act while that person was in
    actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of
    this Section, any person placed on probation under Section
    10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois
    Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the
    Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall
    not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of
    this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor
    vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by
    the judge that this offense did occur while the person was
    in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the
    clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary
    of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a
    new license or permit for a period of one year;
        13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and
    who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle
    without a valid license or permit in violation of Section
    6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
        14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in
    court ordered child support payments or has been
    adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days'
    obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of
    court for failure to pay the support, subject to the
    requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of
    the Illinois Vehicle Code;
        14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois
    Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90
    days or more delinquent in payment of support under an
    order of support entered by a court or administrative body
    of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and
    procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code
    regarding those certifications;
        15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment
    for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
    the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law
    of another state relating to reckless homicide or for
    violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection
    (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated
    driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or
    drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any
    combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate
    cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term
    of imprisonment;
        16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act
    related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit,
    by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the
    owner or employee of any commercial driver training school
    licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual
    authorized by the laws of this State to give driving
    instructions or administer all or part of a driver's
    license examination, promises or tenders to that person any
    property or personal advantage which that person is not
    authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or
    tendering such property or personal advantage shall be
    disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or
    permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State
    shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing
    this period of disqualification and the procedures by which
    persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review
    of the decision to disqualify;
        17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State
    cannot verify the accuracy of any information or
    documentation submitted in application for a driver's
    license; or
        18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the
    Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is
    determined by the court to have been committed in
    furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized
    gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that
    involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use
    of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied
    a license or permit for the period determined by the court.
    The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction
information, if the information is required to be held
confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
(Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
98-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
    (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)
    Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.
    (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver
permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of
the application and screening process under this Section to
insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported
on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants
shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary
of State from their prospective or current employer and submit
the completed application to the prospective or current
employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as
required by the Department of State Police to conduct
fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and
future information available in the state system and current
information available through the Federal Bureau of
Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the
fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the
fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or
submitting proof of successful completion of the annual
refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this
Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been
previously issued by the appropriate Regional School
Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting
provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid
and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all
related application and fingerprinting fees as established by
rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by
the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of
Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background
investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing
services under this Section shall be deposited into the State
Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the
fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All
other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the
Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the
Secretary of State in administering this Section. All
applicants must:
        1. be 21 years of age or older;
        2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's
    license issued by the Secretary of State;
        3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been
    revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately
    prior to the date of application, or have not had his or
    her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges
    disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the
    date of application;
        4. successfully pass a written test, administered by
    the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus
    safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses
    and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by
    the Secretary of State at the time the written test is
    given;
        5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in
    the operation of school buses in accordance with rules
    promulgated by the Secretary of State;
        6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school
    buses by submitting the results of a medical examination,
    including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject
    to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a
    licensed physician, a licensed an advanced practice nurse
    who has a written collaborative agreement with a
    collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to
    perform medical examinations, or a licensed physician
    assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical
    examinations by his or her supervising physician within 90
    days of the date of application according to standards
    promulgated by the Secretary of State;
        7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has
    not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a
    material fact in any application for permit;
        8. have completed an initial classroom course,
    including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety
    as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after
    satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual
    refresher course; such courses and the agency or
    organization conducting such courses shall be approved by
    the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual
    refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the
    permit until such course is completed;
        9. not have been under an order of court supervision
    for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as
    defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of
    application that may endanger the life or safety of any of
    the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit
    period;
        10. not have been under an order of court supervision
    for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless
    driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol,
    other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or
    any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting
    from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the
    date of application;
        11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting
    to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i)
    those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2,
    9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5,
    10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40,
    11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1,
    11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15,
    11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19,
    11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3,
    11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6,
    12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4,
    12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2,
    12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14,
    12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33,
    12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1,
    18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2,
    20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6,
    24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1,
    31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section
    8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1),
    (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and
    in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of
    Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b),
    of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article
    29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
    2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control
    Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and
    (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the
    Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the
    Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses
    defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
    Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in
    any other state or against the laws of the United States,
    which if committed or attempted in this State would be
    punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi)
    the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs
    to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of
    1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses
    defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;
    and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine
    Precursor Control Act;
        12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in
    motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of
    offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the
    movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of
    ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
    safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the
    traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the
    highway;
        13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor
    vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any
    person;
        14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to
    be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability
    or disease; and
        15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of
    reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under
    Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the
    applicant to the Secretary of State.
    (b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period
specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It
shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this
Section.
    (c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's
driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip
code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and
a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a
suitable photograph of the holder.
    (d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a
pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver
candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and
medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting
the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State
Police that are required for the criminal background
investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the
Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been
successfully completed including the successful completion of
an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through
the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary
fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for
criminal history information available through the Federal
Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the
certification to the Secretary of State at the time of
submitting the school bus driver permit application.
    (e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving
certification from the employer that all pre-employment
conditions have been successfully completed, and upon
successful completion of all training and examination
requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be
operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a
School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a
provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau
of Investigation's criminal background investigation based
upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau
of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal
Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to
the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the
bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's
successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's
criminal background investigation.
    (f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the
employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an
order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of
an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit
under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification
shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court
supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to
provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a
first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or
subsequent violation.
    (g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.
        (1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
    driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background
    investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance
    with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.
        (2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
    driver permit when he or she receives notice that the
    permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this
    Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of
    this Section.
        (3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
    driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial
    or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or
    otherwise invalidated.
        (4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus
    driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who
    fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as
    required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or
    under federal law.
        (5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a
    school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon
    receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a
    negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of
    subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.
        (6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus
    driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice
    from the employer that the holder failed to perform the
    inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of
    Section 12-816 of this Code.
        (7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus
    driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice
    from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an
    alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has
    submitted to a test required by that Section which
    disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or
    disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug
    Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set
    forth in 49 CFR 40.87.
    The Secretary of State shall notify the State
Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's
prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has
failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer
eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related
cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver
permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the
outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code.
The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance
criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A
petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the
Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual
feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The
permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the
Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal
of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the
start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing
school board that fails to remove the offending school bus
driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in
Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who
violates a provision of this Section is subject to the
penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.
    All valid school bus driver permits issued under this
Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until
their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.
    (h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service
member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit
holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of
notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has
been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this
subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the
permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as
provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a
permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this
Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State
shall not characterize the permit as invalid.
    (i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service
member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a
permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of
this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of
subsection (b) of this Section.
    (j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this
Section:
    "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive
order of the President of the United States, an act of the
Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.
    "Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or
reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois
National Guard.
(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09;
96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff.
7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551,
Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11;
97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff.
1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150,
eff. 1-25-13.)
 
    (625 ILCS 5/6-901)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)
    Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:
    "Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.
    "Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means:
        (i) any person licensed to practice medicine in all its
    branches in the State of Illinois or any other state;
        (ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been
    delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or
    her supervising physician; or
        (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a
    written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
    physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical
    examinations.
(Source: P.A. 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11.)
 
    Section 120. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is
amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:
 
    (720 ILCS 570/102)  (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
    Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context otherwise requires:
    (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug,
chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as
to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who
is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled
substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self
control with reference to his or her addiction.
    (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a
controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,
ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,
research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
        (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his
    or her authorized agent),
        (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
    order, or
        (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
    Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
    (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf
of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,
dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a
common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
the carrier or warehouseman.
    (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal
substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,
corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
    (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, 
    (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (vi) 4-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), 
    (vii) 5-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), 
    (viii) 1-androstenedione  
        ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), 
    (ix) 4-androstenedione  
        (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), 
    (x) 5-androstenedione  
        (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), 
    (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        1,4,-diene-3-one), 
    (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- 
        diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 
        [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        androst-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone 
    (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] 
        -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), 
    (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  
        '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        androstan-3-one), 
    (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- 
        5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), 
    (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) 
    (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- 
        androst-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        [5a]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), 
    (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-5a-androstane), 
    (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy 
        -5a-androstane), 
    (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), 
    (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- 
        methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), 
    (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  
        (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- 
        androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- 
        1-testosterone'), 
    (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  
        (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), 
    (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), 
    (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- 
        secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic 
        acid lactone), 
    (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        4-en-3-one), 
    (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- 
        diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- 
        4,9,11-trien-3-one), 
    (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, 
        11-trien-3-one). 
    Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an
anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,
distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to
deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is
expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services
for such administration, and which the person intends to
administer or have administered through such implants, shall
not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to
unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or
possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
purposes of this Act.
    (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement
Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its
successor agency.
    (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"
means a Department of Human Services administrative employee
licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances
who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human
Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription
Information Library.
    (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the
following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a
timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
compounded.
    (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or
immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from
another Schedule or otherwise.
    (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or
immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act
or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor,
designated as a controlled substance by the Department through
administrative rule. The term does not include distilled
spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the
Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
    (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
        (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
    similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance
    in Schedule I or II;
        (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
    hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is
    substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,
    depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
    nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or
    II; or
        (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
    person represents or intends to have a stimulant,
    depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
    nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater
    than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect
    on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in
    Schedule I or II.
    (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,
which, or the container or labeling of which, without
authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other
identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness
thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other
than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or
dispensed the substance.
    (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive
or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,
with or without consideration, whether or not there is an
agency relationship.
    (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and
Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
    (j) (Blank).
    (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of
Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"
means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall
depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes
impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles
and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs,
barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and
synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar
sedative hypnotics.
    (n) (Blank).
    (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State
Police or his or her designated agents.
    (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to
an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the
lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,
administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary
to prepare the substance for that delivery.
    (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
    (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by
administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
    (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
    (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the
official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic
Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National
Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances
intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or
prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other
than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use
as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or
(3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their
components, parts, or accessories.
    (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control
facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal
Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,
store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal
euthanasia.
    (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III
substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used
by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a
controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of
professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or
her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that
individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or
addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein:
and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the
dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the
pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by
accepted professional standards including, but not limited to
the following, in making the judgment:
        (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
    relationship,
        (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
    prescriber for large numbers of patients,
        (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
        (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
    clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual
    dose may be used legitimately),
        (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
    pharmacist and prescriber,
        (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
    (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly
altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any
type.
    (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a
pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to
a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or
hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,
intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
    (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the
State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
    (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
        (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
    designated as being a principal compound used, or produced
    primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled
    substance;
        (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or
    likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled
    substance; and
        (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
    curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled
    substance.
    (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,
educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled
substances within educational facilities approved by the State
Board of Education or its successor agency.
    (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,
County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
    (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a
controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit
appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack
thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical
characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person
to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2)
is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled
substance or is distributed under circumstances which would
lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a
controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether
the representations made or the circumstances of the
distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the
substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of
subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the
following factors in addition to any other factor that may be
relevant:
        (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
    of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
        (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the
    substance may be resold for profit;
        (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
    normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled
    substances;
        (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution
    included an exchange of or demand for money or other
    property as consideration, and whether the amount of the
    consideration was substantially greater than the
    reasonable retail market value of the substance.
    Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a
noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was
initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial
introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its
finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or
distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized
to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this
Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried
out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances
involved were controlled substances.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the
manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,
processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or
drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
    (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is
located in a state of the United States that delivers,
dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal
Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any
substance which requires a prescription.
    (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,
propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a
controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of
natural origin, or independently by means of chemical
synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the
substance or labeling of its container, except that this term
does not include:
        (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding
    of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
        (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
    under his or her supervision, the preparation,
    compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled
    substance:
            (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
        dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of
        his or her professional practice; or
            (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or
        chemical analysis and not for sale.
    (z-1) (Blank).
    (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited
under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician
assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through
a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987,
(ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated
authority to prescribe through a written delegation of
authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced
practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse
midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted
authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance
with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal
euthanasia agency, or (v) (iv) a prescribing psychologist.
    (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether
produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances
of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical
synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
synthesis:
        (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
    including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts
    of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of
    such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
    the specific chemical designation; however the term
    "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline
    alkaloids of opium;
        (2) (blank);
        (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
        (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
    coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and
    ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have
    been removed;
        (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,
    and salts of isomers;
        (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
    and salts of isomers;
        (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
    contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to
    in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
    (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
Nurse Practice Act.
    (cc) (Blank).
    (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction
forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine
or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction
forming or addiction sustaining liability.
    (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
somniferum L., except its seeds.
    (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or
solution or other liquid form of medication intended for
administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form
of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal
administration.
    (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon
Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or
agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or
association, or any other entity.
    (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or
certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local
registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist
under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in
which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy
Practice Act.
    (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited
under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise
requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all
of its branches.
    (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of
the opium poppy, after mowing.
    (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric
physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,
physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed
practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or
pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise
lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to
distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to,
administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
controlled substance in the course of professional practice or
research.
    (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written
prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated
prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written
prescription that is individually generated by machine or
computer in the prescriber's office.
    (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist,
prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive
authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical
Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant
who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced
practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with
Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written
collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse
Practice Act, or an advanced practice nurse certified as a
nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse
specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a
hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the
Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05.
    (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral
order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable
federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or
veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist
for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in
accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric
Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed
under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act
with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant
for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a
written delegation, and a written supervision agreement
required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice
Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive
authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the
Nurse Practice Act, or of an advanced practice nurse certified
as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse
specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a
hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the
Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when
required by law.
    (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an
electronic library that contains reported controlled substance
data.
    (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the
entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on
controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
    (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,
planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled
substance other than methamphetamine.
    (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to
register under Section 302 of this Act.
    (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each
person authorized to handle controlled substances under the
laws of the United States and of this State.
    (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either
the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the
Secretary's designated agents.
    (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,
district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,
and any area subject to the legal authority of the United
States of America.
    (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an
overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)
causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs,
methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine
and its analogs.
    (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses
a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of
a member of his or her household or for administering to an
animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her
household.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668,
eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14;
revised 10-1-14.)
 
    (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
    Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
    (a) The Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants,
licensed advanced practice nurses, and prescribing
psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical
Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense
controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia
agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia
drugs under the following circumstances:
        (1) with respect to physician assistants,
            (A) the physician assistant has been delegated
        written authority to prescribe any Schedule III
        through V controlled substances by a physician
        licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
        accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant
        Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has
        completed the appropriate application forms and has
        paid the required fees as set by rule; or
            (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
        authority by a supervising physician licensed to
        practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or
        dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a
        written delegation of authority and under the
        following conditions:
                (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances
            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
            application may be delegated, provided that the
            delegated Schedule II controlled substances are
            routinely prescribed by the supervising physician.
            This delegation must identify the specific
            Schedule II controlled substances by either brand
            name or generic name. Schedule II controlled
            substances to be delivered by injection or other
            route of administration may not be delegated;
                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
            substances prescribed by the supervising
            physician;
                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
            more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation
            authorized only after prior approval of the
            supervising physician;
                (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the
            condition of any patients for whom a controlled
            substance is prescribed monthly with the
            delegating physician;
                (v) the physician assistant must have
            completed the appropriate application forms and
            paid the required fees as set by rule;
                (vi) the physician assistant must provide
            evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact
            hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant
            program accredited by the Accreditation Review
            Commission on Education for the Physician
            Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for
            any new license issued with Schedule II authority
            after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
            the 97th General Assembly; and
                (vii) the physician assistant must annually
            complete at least 5 hours of continuing education
            in pharmacology;
        (2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,
            (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
        authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V
        controlled substances by a collaborating physician
        licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a
        collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with
        Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced
        practice nurse has completed the appropriate
        application forms and has paid the required fees as set
        by rule; or
            (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
        authority by a collaborating physician licensed to
        practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating
        podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule
        II controlled substances through a written delegation
        of authority and under the following conditions:
                (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances
            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
            application may be delegated, provided that the
            delegated Schedule II controlled substances are
            routinely prescribed by the collaborating
            physician or podiatric physician. This delegation
            must identify the specific Schedule II controlled
            substances by either brand name or generic name.
            Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered
            by injection or other route of administration may
            not be delegated;
                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
            substances prescribed by the collaborating
            physician or podiatric physician;
                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
            more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation
            authorized only after prior approval of the
            collaborating physician or podiatric physician;
                (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss
            the condition of any patients for whom a controlled
            substance is prescribed monthly with the
            delegating physician or podiatric physician or in
            the course of review as required by Section 65-40
            of the Nurse Practice Act;
                (v) the advanced practice nurse must have
            completed the appropriate application forms and
            paid the required fees as set by rule;
                (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide
            evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45
            graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new
            license issued with Schedule II authority after
            the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
            97th General Assembly; and
                (vii) the advanced practice nurse must
            annually complete 5 hours of continuing education
            in pharmacology;
        (2.5) with respect to advanced practice nurses
    certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or
    clinical nurse specialists practicing in a hospital
    affiliate,
            (A) the advanced practice nurse certified as a
        nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse
        specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any
        Schedule II through V controlled substances by the
        hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the
        appropriate physician committee of the hospital
        affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse
        Practice Act, has completed the appropriate
        application forms, and has paid the required fees as
        set by rule; and
            (B) an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse
        practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse
        specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any
        Schedule II controlled substances by the hospital
        affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate
        physician committee of the hospital affiliate, then
        the following conditions must be met:
                (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances
            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
            application may be designated, provided that the
            designated Schedule II controlled substances are
            routinely prescribed by advanced practice nurses
            in their area of certification; this grant of
            authority must identify the specific Schedule II
            controlled substances by either brand name or
            generic name; authority to prescribe or dispense
            Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered
            by injection or other route of administration may
            not be granted;
                (ii) any grant of authority must be controlled
            substances limited to the practice of the advanced
            practice nurse;
                (iii) any prescription must be limited to no
            more than a 30-day supply;
                (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss
            the condition of any patients for whom a controlled
            substance is prescribed monthly with the
            appropriate physician committee of the hospital
            affiliate or its physician designee; and
                (v) the advanced practice nurse must meet the
            education requirements of this Section;
        (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the
    euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the
    Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and
    obtained a registration number from the Department; or
        (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the
    prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to
    prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V
    controlled substances by a collaborating physician
    licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
    accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist
    Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has
    completed the appropriate application forms and has paid
    the required fees as set by rule.
    (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to
prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a
licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has
delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal
euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A
physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are
prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled
substances not set forth in the required written delegation of
authority.
    (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements,
physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal
euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner
controlled substances license for Illinois.
    (d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may,
but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an
advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative
agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall
conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse
Practice Act.
    (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to,
delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as
part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of
prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
    (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit
generic substitution.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11;
97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff.
6-25-14.)
 
    Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
becoming law.