Public Act 0331 95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB0223 Enrolled LRB095 03911 NHT 23944 b

Public Act 095-0331

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2007 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 92-520 through 94-1068 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of these combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.17, 4.22, 4.23, 4.24, 4.26, and 4.27 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.17)

Sec. 4.17. Acts repealed on January 1, 2007. The following are repealed on January 1, 2007:

Articles II, III, IV, V, V 1/2, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI, XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

The Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-754, eff. 5-10-06; 94-787, eff. 5-19-06; 94-870, eff. 6-16-06; 94-956, eff. 6-27-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.22)

Sec. 4.22. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2012. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2012:

The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.

The Home Inspector License Act.

The Interior Design Title Act.

The Massage Licensing Act.

The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.

The Professional Boxing Act.

The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002.

The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-104, eff. 7-20-01; 92-180, eff. 7-1-02; 92-239, eff. 8-3-01; 92-453, eff. 8-21-01; 92-499, eff. 1-1-02; 92-500, eff. 12-18-01; 92-618, eff. 7-11-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-860, eff. 6-1-03; revised 1-18-03.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.23)

Sec. 4.23. Acts and Sections Act Section repealed on January 1, 2013. The following Acts and Sections of Acts are Act Section is repealed on January 1, 2013:

The Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act.

The Elevator Safety and Regulation Act.

The Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code.

The Naprapathic Practice Act.

The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing Act.

The Wholesale Drug Distribution Licensing Act.

Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-586, eff. 6-26-02; 92-641, eff. 7-11-02; 92-642, eff. 7-11-02; 92-655, eff. 7-16-02; 92-719, eff. 7-25-02; 92-778, eff. 8-6-02; 92-873, eff. 6-1-03; revised 1-18-03.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.24)

Sec. 4.24. Acts repealed on January 1, 2014. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2014:

The Electrologist Licensing Act.

The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984.

The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

The Illinois Public Accounting Act.

The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act.

The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 92-457, eff. 8-21-01; 92-750, eff. 1-1-03; 93-280, eff. 7-1-04; 93-281, eff. 12-31-03; 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; 93-460, eff. 8-8-03; 93-461, eff. 8-8-03; revised 10-29-04.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.26)

Sec. 4.26. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2016. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2016:

The Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act.

The Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act.

The Illinois Dental Practice Act.

The Collection Agency Act.

The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, and Nail Technology Act of 1985.

The Respiratory Care Practice Act.

The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act.

The Illinois Physical Therapy Act.

The Professional Geologist Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-246, eff. 1-1-06; 94-254, eff. 7-19-05; 94-409, eff. 12-31-05; 94-414, eff. 12-31-05; 94-451, eff. 12-31-05; 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 94-527, eff. 12-31-05; 94-651, eff. 1-1-06; 94-708, eff. 12-5-05; revised 12-8-05.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.27)

Sec. 4.27. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2017. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2017:

The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987.

The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-787, eff. 5-19-06; 94-870, eff. 6-16-06; 94-956, eff. 6-27-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.13 rep.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.14 rep.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.16 rep.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.19a rep.)

Section 7. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Sections 4.13, 4.14, 4.16, and 4.19a.

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 1-20, 5-45, and 10-65 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/1-5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1001-5)

Sec. 1-5. Applicability.

(a) This Act applies to every agency as defined in this Act. Beginning January 1, 1978, in case of conflict between the provisions of this Act and the Act creating or conferring power on an agency, this Act shall control. If, however, an agency (or its predecessor in the case of an agency that has been consolidated or reorganized) has existing procedures on July 1, 1977, specifically for contested cases or licensing, those existing provisions control, except that this exception respecting contested cases and licensing does not apply if the Act creating or conferring power on the agency adopts by express reference the provisions of this Act. Where the Act creating or conferring power on an agency establishes administrative procedures not covered by this Act, those procedures shall remain in effect.

(b) The provisions of this Act do not apply to (i) preliminary hearings, investigations, or practices where no final determinations affecting State funding are made by the State Board of Education, (ii) legal opinions issued under Section 2-3.7 of the School Code, (iii) as to State colleges and universities, their disciplinary and grievance proceedings, academic irregularity and capricious grading proceedings, and admission standards and procedures, and (iv) the class specifications for positions and individual position descriptions prepared and maintained under the Personnel Code. Those class specifications shall, however, be made reasonably available to the public for inspection and copying. The provisions of this Act do not apply to hearings under Section 20 of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(c) Section 5-35 of this Act relating to procedures for rulemaking does not apply to the following:

(1) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that, in accordance with Section 7.2 of the Environmental Protection Act, are identical in substance to federal regulations or amendments to those regulations implementing the following: Sections 3001, 3002, 3003, 3004, 3005, and 9003 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act; Section 105 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980; Sections 307(b), 307(c), 307(d), 402(b)(8), and 402(b)(9) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act; and Sections 1412(b), 1414(c), 1417(a), 1421, and 1445(a) of the Safe Drinking Water Act.

(2) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that establish or amend standards for the emission of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide from gasoline powered motor vehicles subject to inspection under Section 13A-105 of the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law and rules adopted under Section 13B-20 of the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law of 1995.

(3) Procedural rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board governing requests for exceptions under Section 14.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(4) The Pollution Control Board's grant, pursuant to an adjudicatory determination, of an adjusted standard for persons who can justify an adjustment consistent with subsection (a) of Section 27 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(5) Rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board that are identical in substance to the regulations adopted by the Office of the State Fire Marshal under clause (ii) of paragraph (b) of subsection (3) of Section 2 of the Gasoline Storage Act.

(d) Pay rates established under Section 8a of the Personnel Code shall be amended or repealed pursuant to the process set forth in Section 5-50 within 30 days after it becomes necessary to do so due to a conflict between the rates and the terms of a collective bargaining agreement covering the compensation of an employee subject to that Code.

(e) Section 10-45 of this Act shall not apply to any hearing, proceeding, or investigation conducted under Section 13-515 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) Article 10 of this Act does not apply to any hearing, proceeding, or investigation conducted by the State Council for the State of Illinois created under Section 3-3-11.05 of the Unified Code of Corrections or by the Interstate Commission Commision for Adult Offender Supervision created under the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision.

(Source: P.A. 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; revised 7-25-02.)

(5 ILCS 100/1-20) (from Ch. 127, par. 1001-20)

Sec. 1-20. "Agency" means each officer, board, commission, and agency created by the Constitution, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of State government, but other than the circuit court; each officer, department, board, commission, agency, institution, authority, university, and body politic and corporate of the State; each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the State government that is created by or pursuant to statute, other than units of local government and their officers, school districts, and boards of election commissioners; and each administrative unit or corporate outgrowth of the above and as may be created by executive order of the Governor. "Agency", however, does not include the following:

(1) The House of Representatives and Senate and their respective standing and service committees, including without limitation the Board of the Office of the Architect of the Capitol and the Architect of the Capitol established under the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(2) The Governor.

(3) The justices and judges of the Supreme and Appellate Courts.

(4) The Legislative Ethics Commission.

(Source: P.A. 93-617, eff. 12-9-03; 93-632, eff. 2-1-04; revised 1-9-04.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-45)

Sec. 5-45. Emergency rulemaking.

(a) "Emergency" means the existence of any situation that any agency finds reasonably constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, or welfare.

(b) If any agency finds that an emergency exists that requires adoption of a rule upon fewer days than is required by Section 5-40 and states in writing its reasons for that finding, the agency may adopt an emergency rule without prior notice or hearing upon filing a notice of emergency rulemaking with the Secretary of State under Section 5-70. The notice shall include the text of the emergency rule and shall be published in the Illinois Register. Consent orders or other court orders adopting settlements negotiated by an agency may be adopted under this Section. Subject to applicable constitutional or statutory provisions, an emergency rule becomes effective immediately upon filing under Section 5-65 or at a stated date less than 10 days thereafter. The agency's finding and a statement of the specific reasons for the finding shall be filed with the rule. The agency shall take reasonable and appropriate measures to make emergency rules known to the persons who may be affected by them.

(c) An emergency rule may be effective for a period of not longer than 150 days, but the agency's authority to adopt an identical rule under Section 5-40 is not precluded. No emergency rule may be adopted more than once in any 24 month period, except that this limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24 month period does not apply to (i) emergency rules that make additions to and deletions from the Drug Manual under Section 5-5.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the generic drug formulary under Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, (ii) emergency rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board before July 1, 1997 to implement portions of the Livestock Management Facilities Act, or (iii) emergency rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Public Health under subsections (a) through (i) of Section 2 of the Department of Public Health Act when necessary to protect the public's health. Two or more emergency rules having substantially the same purpose and effect shall be deemed to be a single rule for purposes of this Section.

(d) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 1999 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 90-587 or 90-588 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 1999 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (d). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (d) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(e) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2000 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2000 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (e). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (e) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(f) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2001 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2001 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (f). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (f) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(g) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2002 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2002 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(h) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2003 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2003 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (h). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (h) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(i) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2004 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2004 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (i). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (i) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(j) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2005 budget as provided under the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (j). The Department of Public Aid may also adopt rules under this subsection (j) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (j) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(k) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2006 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2006 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (k). The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may also adopt rules under this subsection (k) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act (now the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act), and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(l) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2007 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2007, including rules effective July 1, 2007, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (l) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 93-20, eff. 6-20-03; 93-829, eff. 7-28-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; 94-48, eff. 7-1-05; 94-838, eff. 6-6-06; revised 10-19-06.)

(5 ILCS 100/10-65) (from Ch. 127, par. 1010-65)

Sec. 10-65. Licenses.

(a) When any licensing is required by law to be preceded by notice and an opportunity for a hearing, the provisions of this Act concerning contested cases shall apply.

(b) When a licensee has made timely and sufficient application for the renewal of a license or a new license with reference to any activity of a continuing nature, the existing license shall continue in full force and effect until the final agency decision on the application has been made unless a later date is fixed by order of a reviewing court.

(c) Except as provided in Section 1-27 of the Department of Natural Resources Act, an application for the renewal of a license or a new license shall include the applicant's social security number. Each agency shall require the licensee to certify on the application form, under penalty of perjury, that he or she is not more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order. Every application shall state that failure to so certify shall result in disciplinary action, and that making a false statement may subject the licensee to contempt of court. The agency shall notify each applicant or licensee who acknowledges a delinquency or who, contrary to his or her certification, is found to be delinquent or who after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or a child support proceeding, that the agency intends to take disciplinary action. Accordingly, the agency shall provide written notice of the facts or conduct upon which the agency will rely to support its proposed action and the applicant or licensee shall be given an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with the provisions of the Act concerning contested cases. Any delinquency in complying with a child support order can be remedied by arranging for payment of past due and current support. Any failure to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding can be remedied by complying with the subpoena or warrant. Upon a final finding of delinquency or failure to comply with a subpoena or warrant, the agency shall suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license. In cases in which the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that an applicant or a licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the licensing agency, and in cases in which a court has previously determined that an applicant or licensee has been in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days, the licensing agency shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the certification of violation made by the court. Further process, hearings, or redetermination of the delinquency or violation by the licensing agency shall not be required. The licensing agency may issue or renew a license if the licensee has arranged for payment of past and current child support obligations in a manner satisfactory to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the court. The licensing agency may impose conditions, restrictions, or disciplinary action upon that license.

(d) Except as provided in subsection (c), no agency shall revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, amend materially, or refuse to renew any valid license without first giving written notice to the licensee of the facts or conduct upon which the agency will rely to support its proposed action and an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with the provisions of this Act concerning contested cases. At the hearing, the licensee shall have the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for the retention, continuation, or renewal of the license. If, however, the agency finds that the public interest, safety, or welfare imperatively requires emergency action, and if the agency incorporates a finding to that effect in its order, summary suspension of a license may be ordered pending proceedings for revocation or other action. Those proceedings shall be promptly instituted and determined.

(e) Any application for renewal of a license that contains required and relevant information, data, material, or circumstances that were not contained in an application for the existing license shall be subject to the provisions of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 94-40, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 7.1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) The following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations adopted under federal or State law.

(b) Information that, if disclosed, would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy. Information exempted under this subsection (b) shall include but is not limited to:

(i) files and personal information maintained with respect to clients, patients, residents, students or other individuals receiving social, medical, educational, vocational, financial, supervisory or custodial care or services directly or indirectly from federal agencies or public bodies;

(ii) personnel files and personal information maintained with respect to employees, appointees or elected officials of any public body or applicants for those positions;

(iii) files and personal information maintained with respect to any applicant, registrant or licensee by any public body cooperating with or engaged in professional or occupational registration, licensure or discipline;

(iv) information required of any taxpayer in connection with the assessment or collection of any tax unless disclosure is otherwise required by State statute;

(v) information revealing the identity of persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement or penal agencies; provided, however, that identification of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports may be provided by agencies of local government, except in a case for which a criminal investigation is ongoing, without constituting a clearly unwarranted per se invasion of personal privacy under this subsection; and

(vi) the names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in park district, forest preserve district, and conservation district programs.

(c) Records compiled by any public body for administrative enforcement proceedings and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes or for internal matters of a public body, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency;

(ii) interfere with pending administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by any public body;

(iii) deprive a person of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source or confidential information furnished only by the confidential source;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct;

(vi) constitute an invasion of personal privacy under subsection (b) of this Section;

(vii) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(viii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation.

(d) Criminal history record information maintained by State or local criminal justice agencies, except the following which shall be open for public inspection and copying:

(i) chronologically maintained arrest information, such as traditional arrest logs or blotters;

(ii) the name of a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency and the charges for which that person is being held;

(iii) court records that are public;

(iv) records that are otherwise available under State or local law; or

(v) records in which the requesting party is the individual identified, except as provided under part (vii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this Section.

"Criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or information are proprietary, privileged or confidential, or where disclosure of the trade secrets or information may cause competitive harm, including:

(i) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(ii) All trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) Test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination or determined the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security, including but not limited to water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings.

(l) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials.

(m) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(n) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(o) Information received by a primary or secondary school, college or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers.

(p) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(q) Documents or materials relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(r) Drafts, notes, recommendations and memoranda pertaining to the financing and marketing transactions of the public body. The records of ownership, registration, transfer, and exchange of municipal debt obligations, and of persons to whom payment with respect to these obligations is made.

(s) The records, documents and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(t) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool.

(u) Information concerning a university's adjudication of student or employee grievance or disciplinary cases, to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of the student or employee and information concerning any public body's adjudication of student or employee grievances or disciplinary cases, except for the final outcome of the cases.

(v) Course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(w) Information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of a public body.

(x) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(y) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(z) Manuals or instruction to staff that relate to establishment or collection of liability for any State tax or that relate to investigations by a public body to determine violation of any criminal law.

(aa) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(bb) Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(cc) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(dd) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(ee) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(ff) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(gg) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(hh) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(ii) Beginning July 1, 1999, information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(jj) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(kk) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(ll) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(mm) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of a utility's generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities.

(nn) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(oo) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(pp) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(qq) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (qq) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(2) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-43, eff. 7-1-03; 93-209, eff. 7-18-03; 93-237, eff. 7-22-03; 93-325, eff. 7-23-03, 93-422, eff. 8-5-03; 93-577, eff. 8-21-03; 93-617, eff. 12-9-03; 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-508, eff. 1-1-06; 94-664, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06; 94-953, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.1) (from Ch. 116, par. 207.1)

Sec. 7.1. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit publication and dissemination by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services of the names and addresses of entities which have had receipt of benefits or payments under the Illinois Public Aid Code suspended or terminated or future receipt barred, pursuant to Section 11-26 of that Code.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 20. The State Records Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 160/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.10)

Sec. 7. Powers and duties of the Secretary. :

(1) The Secretary, whenever it appears to him to be in the public interest, may accept for deposit in the State Archives the records of any agency or of the Legislative or Judicial branches of the State government that are determined by him to have sufficient historical or other value to warrant the permanent preservation of such records by the State of Illinois. ;

(2) The Secretary may accept for deposit in the State Archives official papers, photographs, microfilm, electronic and digital records, drawings, maps, writings, and records of every description of counties, municipal corporations, political subdivisions and courts of this State, and records of the federal government pertaining to Illinois, when such materials are deemed by the Secretary to have sufficient historical or other value to warrant their continued preservation by the State of Illinois.

(3) The Secretary, whenever he deems it in the public interest, may accept for deposit in the State Archives motion picture films, still pictures, and sound recordings that are appropriate for preservation by the State government as evidence of its organization, functions and policies.

(4) The Secretary shall be responsible for the custody, use, servicing and withdrawal of records transferred for deposit in the State Archives. The Secretary shall observe any rights, limitations, or restrictions imposed by law relating to the use of records, including the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act which limit access to certain records or which permit access to certain records only after the removal of all personally identifiable data. Access to restricted records shall be at the direction of the depositing State agency or, in the case of records deposited by the legislative or judicial branches of State government at the direction of the branch which deposited them, but no limitation on access to such records shall extend more than 75 years after the creation of the records, except as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act. The Secretary shall not impose restrictions on the use of records that are defined by law as public records or as records open to public inspection. ;

(5) The Secretary shall make provision for the preservation, arrangement, repair, and rehabilitation, duplication and reproduction, description, and exhibition of records deposited in the State Archives as may be needed or appropriate. ;

(6) The Secretary shall make or reproduce and furnish upon demand authenticated or unauthenticated copies of any of the documents, photographic material or other records deposited in the State Archives, the public examination of which is not prohibited by statutory limitations or restrictions or protected by copyright. The Secretary shall charge a fee therefor in accordance with the schedule of fees in Section 5.5 of the Secretary of State Act 10 of "An Act concerning fees and salaries, and to classify the several counties of this state with reference thereto," approved March 29, 1872, as amended, except that there shall be no charge for making or authentication of such copies or reproductions furnished to any department or agency of the State for official use. When any such copy or reproduction is authenticated by the Great Seal of the State of Illinois and is certified by the Secretary, or in his name by his authorized representative, such copy or reproduction shall be admitted in evidence as if it were the original.

(7) Any official of the State of Illinois may turn over to the Secretary of State, with his consent, for permanent preservation in the State Archives, any official books, records, documents, original papers, or files, not in current use in his office, taking a receipt therefor.

(8) (Blank).

(9) The Secretary may cooperate with the Illinois State Genealogical Society, or its successor organization, for the mutual benefit of the Society and the Illinois State Archives, with the State Archives furnishing necessary space for the society to carry on its functions and keep its records, to receive publications of the Illinois State Genealogical Society, to use members of the Illinois State Genealogical Society as volunteers in various archival projects and to store the Illinois State Genealogical Society's film collections.

(Source: P.A. 92-866, eff. 1-3-03; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 25. The Intergovernmental Cooperation Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(5 ILCS 220/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 743)

Sec. 3. Intergovernmental cooperation. Any power or powers, privileges, functions, or authority exercised or which may be exercised by a public agency of this State may be exercised, combined, transferred, and enjoyed jointly with any other public agency of this State and jointly with any public agency of any other state or of the United States to the extent that laws of such other state or of the United States do not prohibit joint exercise or enjoyment and except where specifically and expressly prohibited by law. This includes, but is not limited to, (i) arrangements between the Illinois Student Assistance Commission and agencies in other states which issue professional licenses and (ii) agreements between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) and public agencies for the establishment and enforcement of child support orders and for the exchange of information that may be necessary for the enforcement of those child support orders.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-298, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 30. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 9, and 15 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Board" means the Illinois Labor Relations Board or, with respect to a matter over which the jurisdiction of the Board is assigned to the State Panel or the Local Panel under Section 5, the panel having jurisdiction over the matter.

(b) "Collective bargaining" means bargaining over terms and conditions of employment, including hours, wages, and other conditions of employment, as detailed in Section 7 and which are not excluded by Section 4.

(c) "Confidential employee" means an employee who, in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine, and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who, in the regular course of his or her duties, has authorized access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies.

(d) "Craft employees" means skilled journeymen, crafts persons, and their apprentices and helpers.

(e) "Essential services employees" means those public employees performing functions so essential that the interruption or termination of the function will constitute a clear and present danger to the health and safety of the persons in the affected community.

(f) "Exclusive representative", except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of public employees in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, (iii) after July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iv) recognized as the exclusive representative of personal care attendants or personal assistants under Executive Order 2003-8 prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the personal care attendants or personal assistants as defined in this Section; or (v) recognized as the exclusive representative of child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt providers, pursuant to an election held under Executive Order 2005-1 prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the child and day care home providers as defined in this Section.

With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, "exclusive representative" means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit, or (iii) after January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit.

(g) "Fair share agreement" means an agreement between the employer and an employee organization under which all or any of the employees in a collective bargaining unit are required to pay their proportionate share of the costs of the collective bargaining process, contract administration, and pursuing matters affecting wages, hours, and other conditions of employment, but not to exceed the amount of dues uniformly required of members. The amount certified by the exclusive representative shall not include any fees for contributions related to the election or support of any candidate for political office. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall preclude an employee from making voluntary political contributions in conjunction with his or her fair share payment.

(g-1) "Fire fighter" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any person who has been or is hereafter appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a state university and sworn or commissioned to perform fire fighter duties or paramedic duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time fire fighters, auxiliary, reserve or voluntary fire fighters, including paid on-call fire fighters, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform fire fighter duties, or elected officials.

(g-2) "General Assembly of the State of Illinois" means the legislative branch of the government of the State of Illinois, as provided for under Article IV of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and includes but is not limited to the House of Representatives, the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services and any legislative support services agency listed in the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(h) "Governing body" means, in the case of the State, the State Panel of the Illinois Labor Relations Board, the Director of the Department of Central Management Services, and the Director of the Department of Labor; the county board in the case of a county; the corporate authorities in the case of a municipality; and the appropriate body authorized to provide for expenditures of its funds in the case of any other unit of government.

(i) "Labor organization" means any organization in which public employees participate and that exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with a public employer concerning wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, including the settlement of grievances.

(j) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of management policies and practices.

(k) "Peace officer" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any persons who have been or are hereafter appointed to a police force, department, or agency and sworn or commissioned to perform police duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time police officers, special police officers, auxiliary police as defined by Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code, night watchmen, "merchant police", court security officers as defined by Section 3-6012.1 of the Counties Code, temporary employees, traffic guards or wardens, civilian parking meter and parking facilities personnel or other individuals specially appointed to aid or direct traffic at or near schools or public functions or to aid in civil defense or disaster, parking enforcement employees who are not commissioned as peace officers and who are not armed and who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, parking lot attendants, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a police department who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, or elected officials.

(l) "Person" includes one or more individuals, labor organizations, public employees, associations, corporations, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, or the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State or governing body, but does not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or any individual employed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois.

(m) "Professional employee" means any employee engaged in work predominantly intellectual and varied in character rather than routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work; involving the consistent exercise of discretion and adjustment in its performance; of such a character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and requiring advanced knowledge in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or any employee who has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study prescribed in this subsection (m) and is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify to become a professional employee as defined in this subsection (m).

(n) "Public employee" or "employee", for the purposes of this Act, means any individual employed by a public employer, including (i) interns and residents at public hospitals, (ii) as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before, personal care attendants and personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, and (iii) as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, but not before, child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, but excluding all of the following: employees of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois; elected officials; executive heads of a department; members of boards or commissions; the Executive Inspectors General; any special Executive Inspectors General; employees of each Office of an Executive Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Executive Ethics Commission; the Auditor General's Inspector General; employees of the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General; the Legislative Inspector General; any special Legislative Inspectors General; employees of the Office of the Legislative Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Legislative Ethics Commission; employees of any agency, board or commission created by this Act; employees appointed to State positions of a temporary or emergency nature; all employees of school districts and higher education institutions except firefighters and peace officers employed by a state university; managerial employees; short-term employees; confidential employees; independent contractors; and supervisors except as provided in this Act.

Personal care attendants and personal assistants shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in the amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Personal care attendants and personal assistants shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 (5 ILCS 375/).

Child and day care home providers shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Notwithstanding Section 9, subsection (c), or any other provisions of this Act, all peace officers above the rank of captain in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall be excluded from this Act.

(o) Except as otherwise in subsection (o-5), "public employer" or "employer" means the State of Illinois; any political subdivision of the State, unit of local government or school district; authorities including departments, divisions, bureaus, boards, commissions, or other agencies of the foregoing entities; and any person acting within the scope of his or her authority, express or implied, on behalf of those entities in dealing with its employees. As of the effective date of the amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the personal care attendants and personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of personal care attendants and personal assistants for any purposes not specifically provided for in this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Personal care attendants and personal assistants shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 (5 ILCS 375/). As of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the day and child care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided for in this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

"Public employer" or "employer" as used in this Act, however, does not mean and shall not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois, the Executive Ethics Commission, the Offices of the Executive Inspectors General, the Legislative Ethics Commission, the Office of the Legislative Inspector General, the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General, and educational employers or employers as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, except with respect to a state university in its employment of firefighters and peace officers. County boards and county sheriffs shall be designated as joint or co-employers of county peace officers appointed under the authority of a county sheriff. Nothing in this subsection (o) shall be construed to prevent the State Panel or the Local Panel from determining that employers are joint or co-employers.

(o-5) With respect to wages, fringe benefits, hours, holidays, vacations, proficiency examinations, sick leave, and other conditions of employment, the public employer of public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be determined as follows:

(1) For court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit, the chief judge of the Cook County Circuit Court is the public employer and employer representative.

(2) For court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(3) For court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(p) "Security employee" means an employee who is responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities. The term also includes other non-security employees in bargaining units having the majority of employees being responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities.

(q) "Short-term employee" means an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable assurance that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year.

(r) "Supervisor" is an employee whose principal work is substantially different from that of his or her subordinates and who has authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, to adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend any of those actions, if the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of independent judgment. Except with respect to police employment, the term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to exercising that authority, State supervisors notwithstanding. In addition, in determining supervisory status in police employment, rank shall not be determinative. The Board shall consider, as evidence of bargaining unit inclusion or exclusion, the common law enforcement policies and relationships between police officer ranks and certification under applicable civil service law, ordinances, personnel codes, or Division 2.1 of Article 10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, but these factors shall not be the sole or predominant factors considered by the Board in determining police supervisory status.

Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, in determining supervisory status in fire fighter employment, no fire fighter shall be excluded as a supervisor who has established representation rights under Section 9 of this Act. Further, in new fire fighter units, employees shall consist of fire fighters of the rank of company officer and below. If a company officer otherwise qualifies as a supervisor under the preceding paragraph, however, he or she shall not be included in the fire fighter unit. If there is no rank between that of chief and the highest company officer, the employer may designate a position on each shift as a Shift Commander, and the persons occupying those positions shall be supervisors. All other ranks above that of company officer shall be supervisors.

(s) (1) "Unit" means a class of jobs or positions that are held by employees whose collective interests may suitably be represented by a labor organization for collective bargaining. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both employees and supervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act). With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985). A bargaining unit determined by the Board to contain peace officers shall contain no employees other than peace officers unless otherwise agreed to by the employer and the labor organization or labor organizations involved. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a bargaining unit, including a historical bargaining unit, containing sworn peace officers of the Department of Natural Resources (formerly designated the Department of Conservation) shall contain no employees other than such sworn peace officers upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 or upon the expiration date of any collective bargaining agreement in effect upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 covering both such sworn peace officers and other employees.

(2) Notwithstanding the exclusion of supervisors from bargaining units as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (s), a public employer may agree to permit its supervisory employees to form bargaining units and may bargain with those units. This Act shall apply if the public employer chooses to bargain under this subsection.

(3) Public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be divided into 3 units for collective bargaining purposes. One unit shall be court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit; one unit shall be court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits; and one unit shall be court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits.

(Source: P.A. 93-204, eff. 7-16-03; 93-617, eff. 12-9-03; 94-98, eff. 7-1-05; 94-320, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(5 ILCS 315/9) (from Ch. 48, par. 1609)

Sec. 9. Elections; recognition.

(a) Whenever in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by the Board a petition has been filed:

(1) by a public employee or group of public employees or any labor organization acting in their behalf demonstrating that 30% of the public employees in an appropriate unit (A) wish to be represented for the purposes of collective bargaining by a labor organization as exclusive representative, or (B) asserting that the labor organization which has been certified or is currently recognized by the public employer as bargaining representative is no longer the representative of the majority of public employees in the unit; or

(2) by a public employer alleging that one or more labor organizations have presented to it a claim that they be recognized as the representative of a majority of the public employees in an appropriate unit,

the Board shall investigate such petition, and if it has reasonable cause to believe that a question of representation exists, shall provide for an appropriate hearing upon due notice. Such hearing shall be held at the offices of the Board or such other location as the Board deems appropriate. If it finds upon the record of the hearing that a question of representation exists, it shall direct an election in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section, which election shall be held not later than 120 days after the date the petition was filed regardless of whether that petition was filed before or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987; provided, however, the Board may extend the time for holding an election by an additional 60 days if, upon motion by a person who has filed a petition under this Section or is the subject of a petition filed under this Section and is a party to such hearing, or upon the Board's own motion, the Board finds that good cause has been shown for extending the election date; provided further, that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Board, in its discretion, from extending the time for holding an election for so long as may be necessary under the circumstances, where the purpose for such extension is to permit resolution by the Board of an unfair labor practice charge filed by one of the parties to a representational proceeding against the other based upon conduct which may either affect the existence of a question concerning representation or have a tendency to interfere with a fair and free election, where the party filing the charge has not filed a request to proceed with the election; and provided further that prior to the expiration of the total time allotted for holding an election, a person who has filed a petition under this Section or is the subject of a petition filed under this Section and is a party to such hearing or the Board, may move for and obtain the entry of an order in the circuit court of the county in which the majority of the public employees sought to be represented by such person reside, such order extending the date upon which the election shall be held. Such order shall be issued by the circuit court only upon a judicial finding that there has been a sufficient showing that there is good cause to extend the election date beyond such period and shall require the Board to hold the election as soon as is feasible given the totality of the circumstances. Such 120 day period may be extended one or more times by the agreement of all parties to the hearing to a date certain without the necessity of obtaining a court order. Nothing in this Section prohibits the waiving of hearings by stipulation for the purpose of a consent election in conformity with the rules and regulations of the Board or an election in a unit agreed upon by the parties. Other interested employee organizations may intervene in the proceedings in the manner and within the time period specified by rules and regulations of the Board. Interested parties who are necessary to the proceedings may also intervene in the proceedings in the manner and within the time period specified by the rules and regulations of the Board.

(a-5) The Board shall designate an exclusive representative for purposes of collective bargaining when the representative demonstrates a showing of majority interest by employees in the unit. If the parties to a dispute are without agreement on the means to ascertain the choice, if any, of employee organization as their representative, the Board shall ascertain the employees' choice of employee organization, on the basis of dues deduction authorization and other evidence, or, if necessary, by conducting an election. If either party provides to the Board, before the designation of a representative, clear and convincing evidence that the dues deduction authorizations, and other evidence upon which the Board would otherwise rely to ascertain the employees' choice of representative, are fraudulent or were obtained through coercion, the Board shall promptly thereafter conduct an election. The Board shall also investigate and consider a party's allegations that the dues deduction authorizations and other evidence submitted in support of a designation of representative without an election were subsequently changed, altered, withdrawn, or withheld as a result of employer fraud, coercion, or any other unfair labor practice by the employer. If the Board determines that a labor organization would have had a majority interest but for an employer's fraud, coercion, or unfair labor practice, it shall designate the labor organization as an exclusive representative without conducting an election.

(b) The Board shall decide in each case, in order to assure public employees the fullest freedom in exercising the rights guaranteed by this Act, a unit appropriate for the purpose of collective bargaining, based upon but not limited to such factors as: historical pattern of recognition; community of interest including employee skills and functions; degree of functional integration; interchangeability and contact among employees; fragmentation of employee groups; common supervision, wages, hours and other working conditions of the employees involved; and the desires of the employees. For purposes of this subsection, fragmentation shall not be the sole or predominant factor used by the Board in determining an appropriate bargaining unit. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers and peace officers in the State Department of State Police, a single bargaining unit determined by the Board may not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, except for bargaining units in existence on the effective date of this Act. With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers and peace officers in the State Department of State Police, a single bargaining unit determined by the Board may not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, except for bargaining units in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985.

In cases involving an historical pattern of recognition, and in cases where the employer has recognized the union as the sole and exclusive bargaining agent for a specified existing unit, the Board shall find the employees in the unit then represented by the union pursuant to the recognition to be the appropriate unit.

Notwithstanding the above factors, where the majority of public employees of a craft so decide, the Board shall designate such craft as a unit appropriate for the purposes of collective bargaining.

The Board shall not decide that any unit is appropriate if such unit includes both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority of each group votes for inclusion in such unit.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall interfere with or negate the current representation rights or patterns and practices of labor organizations which have historically represented public employees for the purpose of collective bargaining, including but not limited to the negotiations of wages, hours and working conditions, discussions of employees' grievances, resolution of jurisdictional disputes, or the establishment and maintenance of prevailing wage rates, unless a majority of employees so represented express a contrary desire pursuant to the procedures set forth in this Act.

(d) In instances where the employer does not voluntarily recognize a labor organization as the exclusive bargaining representative for a unit of employees, the Board shall determine the majority representative of the public employees in an appropriate collective bargaining unit by conducting a secret ballot election, except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5). Within 7 days after the Board issues its bargaining unit determination and direction of election or the execution of a stipulation for the purpose of a consent election, the public employer shall submit to the labor organization the complete names and addresses of those employees who are determined by the Board to be eligible to participate in the election. When the Board has determined that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate unit, it shall certify such organization as the exclusive representative. If the Board determines that a majority of employees in an appropriate unit has fairly and freely chosen not to be represented by a labor organization, it shall so certify. The Board may also revoke the certification of the public employee organizations as exclusive bargaining representatives which have been found by a secret ballot election to be no longer the majority representative.

(e) The Board shall not conduct an election in any bargaining unit or any subdivision thereof within which a valid election has been held in the preceding 12-month period. The Board shall determine who is eligible to vote in an election and shall establish rules governing the conduct of the election or conduct affecting the results of the election. The Board shall include on a ballot in a representation election a choice of "no representation". A labor organization currently representing the bargaining unit of employees shall be placed on the ballot in any representation election. In any election where none of the choices on the ballot receives a majority, a runoff election shall be conducted between the 2 choices receiving the largest number of valid votes cast in the election. A labor organization which receives a majority of the votes cast in an election shall be certified by the Board as exclusive representative of all public employees in the unit.

(f) A labor organization shall be designated as the exclusive representative by a public employer, provided that the labor organization represents a majority of the public employees in an appropriate unit. Any employee organization which is designated or selected by the majority of public employees, in a unit of the public employer having no other recognized or certified representative, as their representative for purposes of collective bargaining may request recognition by the public employer in writing. The public employer shall post such request for a period of at least 20 days following its receipt thereof on bulletin boards or other places used or reserved for employee notices.

(g) Within the 20-day period any other interested employee organization may petition the Board in the manner specified by rules and regulations of the Board, provided that such interested employee organization has been designated by at least 10% of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit which includes all or some of the employees in the unit recognized by the employer. In such event, the Board shall proceed with the petition in the same manner as provided by paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(h) No election shall be directed by the Board in any bargaining unit where there is in force a valid collective bargaining agreement. The Board, however, may process an election petition filed between 90 and 60 days prior to the expiration of the date of an agreement, and may further refine, by rule or decision, the implementation of this provision. Where more than 4 years have elapsed since the effective date of the agreement, the agreement shall continue to bar an election, except that the Board may process an election petition filed between 90 and 60 days prior to the end of the fifth year of such an agreement, and between 90 and 60 days prior to the end of each successive year of such agreement.

(i) An order of the Board dismissing a representation petition, determining and certifying that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, determining and certifying that a labor organization has not been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in the bargaining unit or certifying a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit because of a determination by the Board that the labor organization is the historical bargaining representative of employees in the bargaining unit, is a final order. Any person aggrieved by any such order issued on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987 may apply for and obtain judicial review in accordance with provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, except that such review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court for the district in which the aggrieved party resides or transacts business. Any direct appeal to the Appellate Court shall be filed within 35 days from the date that a copy of the decision sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the decision.

(Source: P.A. 93-427, eff. 8-5-03; 93-444, eff. 8-5-03; revised 9-10-03.)

(5 ILCS 315/15) (from Ch. 48, par. 1615)

Sec. 15. Act Takes Precedence.

(a) In case of any conflict between the provisions of this Act and any other law (other than Section 5 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971), executive order or administrative regulation relating to wages, hours and conditions of employment and employment relations, the provisions of this Act or any collective bargaining agreement negotiated thereunder shall prevail and control. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to replace or diminish the rights of employees established by Sections 28 and 28a of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, Sections 2.15 through 2.19 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act. The provisions of this Act are subject to Section 5 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to replace the necessity of complaints against a sworn peace officer, as defined in Section 2(a) of the Uniform Peace Officer Disciplinary Act, from having a complaint supported by a sworn affidavit.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (a) above, any collective bargaining contract between a public employer and a labor organization executed pursuant to this Act shall supersede any contrary statutes, charters, ordinances, rules or regulations relating to wages, hours and conditions of employment and employment relations adopted by the public employer or its agents. Any collective bargaining agreement entered into prior to the effective date of this Act shall remain in full force during its duration.

(c) It is the public policy of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that the provisions of this Act are the exclusive exercise by the State of powers and functions which might otherwise be exercised by home rule units. Such powers and functions may not be exercised concurrently, either directly or indirectly, by any unit of local government, including any home rule unit, except as otherwise authorized by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 93-1006, eff. 8-24-04; revised 10-25-04.)

Section 35. The Military Leave of Absence Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 1.1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 325/1) (from Ch. 129, par. 501)

Sec. 1. Leave of absence.

(a) Any full-time employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, other than an independent contractor, who is a member of any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or of any reserve component of the Illinois State Militia, shall be granted leave from his or her public employment for any period actively spent in military service, including:

(1) basic training;

(2) special or advanced training, whether or not within the State, and whether or not voluntary; and

(3) annual training.

During these leaves, the employee's seniority and other benefits shall continue to accrue.

During leaves for annual training, the employee shall continue to receive his or her regular compensation as a public employee. During leaves for basic training and up to 60 days of special or advanced training, if the employee's compensation for military activities is less than his or her compensation as a public employee, he or she shall receive his or her regular compensation as a public employee minus the amount of his or her base pay for military activities.

(b) Any full-time employee of the State of Illinois, other than an independent contractor, who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or a reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the Illinois State Militia and who is mobilized to active duty shall continue during the period of active duty to receive his or her benefits and regular compensation as a State employee, minus an amount equal to his or her military active duty base pay. The Department of Central Management Services and the State Comptroller shall coordinate in the development of procedures for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-409, eff. 8-4-03; 93-537, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

(5 ILCS 325/1.1)

Sec. 1.1. Home rule. A home rule unit may not regulate its employees in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6, of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 93-409, eff. 8-4-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 40. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Sections 3, 8, and 10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 523)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases as used in this Act shall have the following meanings. The Department may define these and other words and phrases separately for the purpose of implementing specific programs providing benefits under this Act.

(a) "Administrative service organization" means any person, firm or corporation experienced in the handling of claims which is fully qualified, financially sound and capable of meeting the service requirements of a contract of administration executed with the Department.

(b) "Annuitant" means (1) an employee who retires, or has retired, on or after January 1, 1966 on an immediate annuity under the provisions of Articles 2, 14 (including an employee who has elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of an annuity), 15 (including an employee who has retired under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) any person who was receiving group insurance coverage under this Act as of March 31, 1978 by reason of his status as an annuitant, even though the annuity in relation to which such coverage was provided is a proportional annuity based on less than the minimum period of service required for a retirement annuity in the system involved; (3) any person not otherwise covered by this Act who has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code; (4) the spouse of any person who is receiving a retirement annuity under Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code and who is covered under a group health insurance program sponsored by a governmental employer other than the State of Illinois and who has irrevocably elected to waive his or her coverage under this Act and to have his or her spouse considered as the "annuitant" under this Act and not as a "dependent"; or (5) an employee who retires, or has retired, from a qualified position, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director, under a qualified local government, a qualified rehabilitation facility, a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or a qualified child advocacy center. (For definition of "retired employee", see (p) post).

(b-5) "New SERS annuitant" means a person who, on or after January 1, 1998, becomes an annuitant, as defined in subsection (b), by virtue of beginning to receive a retirement annuity under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code (including an employee who has elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of that Code in lieu of an annuity), and is eligible to participate in the basic program of group health benefits provided for annuitants under this Act.

(b-6) "New SURS annuitant" means a person who (1) on or after January 1, 1998, becomes an annuitant, as defined in subsection (b), by virtue of beginning to receive a retirement annuity under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code, (2) has not made the election authorized under Section 15-135.1 of the Illinois Pension Code, and (3) is eligible to participate in the basic program of group health benefits provided for annuitants under this Act.

(b-7) "New TRS State annuitant" means a person who, on or after July 1, 1998, becomes an annuitant, as defined in subsection (b), by virtue of beginning to receive a retirement annuity under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code based on service as a teacher as defined in paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106 of that Code, and is eligible to participate in the basic program of group health benefits provided for annuitants under this Act.

(c) "Carrier" means (1) an insurance company, a corporation organized under the Limited Health Service Organization Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plan Act, a partnership, or other nongovernmental organization, which is authorized to do group life or group health insurance business in Illinois, or (2) the State of Illinois as a self-insurer.

(d) "Compensation" means salary or wages payable on a regular payroll by the State Treasurer on a warrant of the State Comptroller out of any State, trust or federal fund, or by the Governor of the State through a disbursing officer of the State out of a trust or out of federal funds, or by any Department out of State, trust, federal or other funds held by the State Treasurer or the Department, to any person for personal services currently performed, and ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, or benefits payable under the Workers' Compensation or Occupational Diseases Act or benefits payable under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Compensation" also means salary or wages paid to an employee of any qualified local government, qualified rehabilitation facility, qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or qualified child advocacy center.

(e) "Commission" means the State Employees Group Insurance Advisory Commission authorized by this Act. Commencing July 1, 1984, "Commission" as used in this Act means the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability as established by the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(f) "Contributory", when referred to as contributory coverage, shall mean optional coverages or benefits elected by the member toward the cost of which such member makes contribution, or which are funded in whole or in part through the acceptance of a reduction in earnings or the foregoing of an increase in earnings by an employee, as distinguished from noncontributory coverage or benefits which are paid entirely by the State of Illinois without reduction of the member's salary.

(g) "Department" means any department, institution, board, commission, officer, court or any agency of the State government receiving appropriations and having power to certify payrolls to the Comptroller authorizing payments of salary and wages against such appropriations as are made by the General Assembly from any State fund, or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer and includes boards of trustees of the retirement systems created by Articles 2, 14, 15, 16 and 18 of the Illinois Pension Code. "Department" also includes the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, the Board of Examiners established under the Illinois Public Accounting Act, and the Illinois Finance Authority.

(h) "Dependent", when the term is used in the context of the health and life plan, means a member's spouse and any unmarried child (1) from birth to age 19 including an adopted child, a child who lives with the member from the time of the filing of a petition for adoption until entry of an order of adoption, a stepchild or recognized child who lives with the member in a parent-child relationship, or a child who lives with the member if such member is a court appointed guardian of the child, or (2) age 19 to 23 enrolled as a full-time student in any accredited school, financially dependent upon the member, and eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes, or (3) age 19 or over who is mentally or physically handicapped. For the purposes of item (2), an unmarried child age 19 to 23 who is a member of the United States Armed Services, including the Illinois National Guard, and is mobilized to active duty shall qualify as a dependent beyond the age of 23 and until the age of 25 and while a full-time student for the amount of time spent on active duty between the ages of 19 and 23. The individual attempting to qualify for this additional time must submit written documentation of active duty service to the Director. The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly apply only to individuals mobilized to active duty in the United States Armed Services, including the Illinois National Guard, on or after January 1, 2002. For the health plan only, the term "dependent" also includes any person enrolled prior to the effective date of this Section who is dependent upon the member to the extent that the member may claim such person as a dependent for income tax deduction purposes; no other such person may be enrolled. For the health plan only, the term "dependent" also includes any person who has received after June 30, 2000 an organ transplant and who is financially dependent upon the member and eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes.

(i) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Central Management Services.

(j) "Eligibility period" means the period of time a member has to elect enrollment in programs or to select benefits without regard to age, sex or health.

(k) "Employee" means and includes each officer or employee in the service of a department who (1) receives his compensation for service rendered to the department on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a department or on a warrant or check issued and drawn by a department upon a trust, federal or other fund or on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by an elected or duly appointed officer of the State or who receives payment of the performance of personal services on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a Department and drawn by the Comptroller upon the State Treasurer against appropriations made by the General Assembly from any fund or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer, and (2) is employed full-time or part-time in a position normally requiring actual performance of duty during not less than 1/2 of a normal work period, as established by the Director in cooperation with each department, except that persons elected by popular vote will be considered employees during the entire term for which they are elected regardless of hours devoted to the service of the State, and (3) except that "employee" does not include any person who is not eligible by reason of such person's employment to participate in one of the State retirement systems under Articles 2, 14, 15 (either the regular Article 15 system or the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2) or 18, or under paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, of the Illinois Pension Code, but such term does include persons who are employed during the 6 month qualifying period under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code. Such term also includes any person who (1) after January 1, 1966, is receiving ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, (2) receives total permanent or total temporary disability under the Workers' Compensation Act or Occupational Disease Act as a result of injuries sustained or illness contracted in the course of employment with the State of Illinois, or (3) is not otherwise covered under this Act and has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code. However, a person who satisfies the criteria of the foregoing definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code is also an "employee" for the purposes of this Act. "Employee" also includes any person receiving or eligible for benefits under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Employee" also includes (i) each officer or employee in the service of a qualified local government, including persons appointed as trustees of sanitary districts regardless of hours devoted to the service of the sanitary district, (ii) each employee in the service of a qualified rehabilitation facility, (iii) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, and (iv) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified child advocacy center, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director.

(l) "Member" means an employee, annuitant, retired employee or survivor.

(m) "Optional coverages or benefits" means those coverages or benefits available to the member on his or her voluntary election, and at his or her own expense.

(n) "Program" means the group life insurance, health benefits and other employee benefits designed and contracted for by the Director under this Act.

(o) "Health plan" means a health benefits program offered by the State of Illinois for persons eligible for the plan.

(p) "Retired employee" means any person who would be an annuitant as that term is defined herein but for the fact that such person retired prior to January 1, 1966. Such term also includes any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant but for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q) "Survivor" means a person receiving an annuity as a survivor of an employee or of an annuitant. "Survivor" also includes: (1) the surviving dependent of a person who satisfies the definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) the surviving dependent of any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant except for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (3) the surviving dependent of a person who was an annuitant under this Act by virtue of receiving an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-2) "SERS" means the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, created under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-3) "SURS" means the State Universities Retirement System, created under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-4) "TRS" means the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, created under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-5) "New SERS survivor" means a survivor, as defined in subsection (q), whose annuity is paid under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code and is based on the death of (i) an employee whose death occurs on or after January 1, 1998, or (ii) a new SERS annuitant as defined in subsection (b-5). "New SERS survivor" includes the surviving dependent of a person who was an annuitant under this Act by virtue of receiving an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-6) "New SURS survivor" means a survivor, as defined in subsection (q), whose annuity is paid under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code and is based on the death of (i) an employee whose death occurs on or after January 1, 1998, or (ii) a new SURS annuitant as defined in subsection (b-6).

(q-7) "New TRS State survivor" means a survivor, as defined in subsection (q), whose annuity is paid under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code and is based on the death of (i) an employee who is a teacher as defined in paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106 of that Code and whose death occurs on or after July 1, 1998, or (ii) a new TRS State annuitant as defined in subsection (b-7).

(r) "Medical services" means the services provided within the scope of their licenses by practitioners in all categories licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(s) "Unit of local government" means any county, municipality, township, school district (including a combination of school districts under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act), special district or other unit, designated as a unit of local government by law, which exercises limited governmental powers or powers in respect to limited governmental subjects, any not-for-profit association with a membership that primarily includes townships and township officials, that has duties that include provision of research service, dissemination of information, and other acts for the purpose of improving township government, and that is funded wholly or partly in accordance with Section 85-15 of the Township Code; any not-for-profit corporation or association, with a membership consisting primarily of municipalities, that operates its own utility system, and provides research, training, dissemination of information, or other acts to promote cooperation between and among municipalities that provide utility services and for the advancement of the goals and purposes of its membership; the Southern Illinois Collegiate Common Market, which is a consortium of higher education institutions in Southern Illinois; the Illinois Association of Park Districts; and any hospital provider that is owned by a county that has 100 or fewer hospital beds and has not already joined the program. "Qualified local government" means a unit of local government approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (i) of Section 10 of this Act.

(t) "Qualified rehabilitation facility" means any not-for-profit organization that is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services to persons with disabilities and which receives funds from the State of Illinois for providing those services, approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (j) of Section 10 of this Act.

(u) "Qualified domestic violence shelter or service" means any Illinois domestic violence shelter or service and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (k) of Section 10.

(v) "TRS benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly benefit or retirement annuity under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(3) either (i) has at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (ii) was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on January 1, 1996, or (iii) is the survivor of a benefit recipient who had at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, or (iv) is a recipient or survivor of a recipient of a disability benefit under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(w) "TRS dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a TRS benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the TRS benefit recipient, or (C) unmarried natural or adopted child who is (i) under age 19, or (ii) enrolled as a full-time student in an accredited school, financially dependent upon the TRS benefit recipient, eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes, and either is under age 24 or was, on January 1, 1996, participating as a dependent beneficiary in the health insurance program offered under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (iii) age 19 or over who is mentally or physically handicapped.

(x) "Military leave with pay and benefits" refers to individuals in basic training for reserves, special/advanced training, annual training, emergency call up, or activation by the President of the United States with approved pay and benefits.

(y) "Military leave without pay and benefits" refers to individuals who enlist for active duty in a regular component of the U.S. Armed Forces or other duty not specified or authorized under military leave with pay and benefits.

(z) "Community college benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly survivor's annuity or retirement annuity under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(3) either (i) was a full-time employee of a community college district or an association of community college boards created under the Public Community College Act (other than an employee whose last employer under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code was a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) and was eligible to participate in a group health benefit plan as an employee during the time of employment with a community college district (other than a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) or an association of community college boards, or (ii) is the survivor of a person described in item (i).

(aa) "Community college dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a community college benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the community college benefit recipient, or (C) unmarried natural or adopted child who is (i) under age 19, or (ii) enrolled as a full-time student in an accredited school, financially dependent upon the community college benefit recipient, eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes and under age 23, or (iii) age 19 or over and mentally or physically handicapped.

(bb) "Qualified child advocacy center" means any Illinois child advocacy center and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Children and Family Services, as defined by the Children's Advocacy Center Act (55 ILCS 80/), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (n) of Section 10.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 93-1067, eff. 1-15-05; 94-32, eff. 6-15-05; 94-82, eff. 1-1-06; 94-860, eff. 6-16-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(5 ILCS 375/8) (from Ch. 127, par. 528)

Sec. 8. Eligibility.

(a) Each member eligible under the provisions of this Act and any rules and regulations promulgated and adopted hereunder by the Director shall become immediately eligible and covered for all benefits available under the programs. Members electing coverage for eligible dependents shall have the coverage effective immediately, provided that the election is properly filed in accordance with required filing dates and procedures specified by the Director.

(1) Every member originally eligible to elect dependent coverage, but not electing it during the original eligibility period, may subsequently obtain dependent coverage only in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual Benefit Choice Period.

(2) Members described above being transferred from previous coverage towards which the State has been contributing shall be transferred regardless of preexisting conditions, waiting periods, or other requirements that might jeopardize claim payments to which they would otherwise have been entitled.

(3) Eligible and covered members that are eligible for coverage as dependents except for the fact of being members shall be transferred to, and covered under, dependent status regardless of preexisting conditions, waiting periods, or other requirements that might jeopardize claim payments to which they would otherwise have been entitled upon cessation of member status and the election of dependent coverage by a member eligible to elect that coverage.

(b) New employees shall be immediately insured for the basic group life insurance and covered by the program of health benefits on the first day of active State service. Optional life insurance coverage one to 4 times the basic amount, if elected during the relevant eligibility period, will become effective on the date of employment. Optional life insurance coverage exceeding 4 times the basic amount and all life insurance amounts applied for after the eligibility period will be effective, subject to satisfactory evidence of insurability when applicable, or other necessary qualifications, pursuant to the requirements of the applicable benefit program, unless there is a change in status that would confer new eligibility for change of enrollment under rules established supplementing this Act, in which event application must be made within the new eligibility period.

(c) As to the group health benefits program contracted to begin or continue after June 30, 1973, each retired employee shall become immediately eligible and covered for all benefits available under that program. Retired employees may elect coverage for eligible dependents and shall have the coverage effective immediately, provided that the election is properly filed in accordance with required filing dates and procedures specified by the Director.

Except as otherwise provided in this Act, where husband and wife are both eligible members, each shall be enrolled as a member and coverage on their eligible dependent children, if any, may be under the enrollment and election of either.

Regardless of other provisions herein regarding late enrollment or other qualifications, as appropriate, the Director may periodically authorize open enrollment periods for each of the benefit programs at which time each member may elect enrollment or change of enrollment without regard to age, sex, health, or other qualification under the conditions as may be prescribed in rules and regulations supplementing this Act. Special open enrollment periods may be declared by the Director for certain members only when special circumstances occur that affect only those members.

(d) Beginning with fiscal year 2003 and for all subsequent years, eligible members may elect not to participate in the program of health benefits as defined in this Act. The election must be made during the annual benefit choice period, subject to the conditions in this subsection.

(1) Members must furnish proof of health benefit coverage, either comprehensive major medical coverage or comprehensive managed care plan, from a source other than the Department of Central Management Services in order to elect not to participate in the program.

(2) Members may re-enroll in the Department of Central Management Services program of health benefits upon showing a qualifying change in status, as defined in the U.S. Internal Revenue Code, without evidence of insurability and with no limitations on coverage for pre-existing conditions, provided that there was not a break in coverage of more than 63 days.

(3) Members may also re-enroll in the program of health benefits during any annual benefit choice period, without evidence of insurability.

(4) Members who elect not to participate in the program of health benefits shall be furnished a written explanation of the requirements and limitations for the election not to participate in the program and for re-enrolling in the program. The explanation shall also be included in the annual benefit choice options booklets furnished to members.

(d-5) Beginning July 1, 2005, the Director may establish a program of financial incentives to encourage annuitants receiving a retirement annuity from the State Employees Retirement System, but who are not eligible for benefits under the federal Medicare health insurance program (Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, as added by Public Law 89-97) to elect not to participate in the program of health benefits provided under this Act. The election by an annuitant not to participate under this program must be made in accordance with the requirements set forth under subsection (d). The financial incentives provided to these annuitants under the program may not exceed $150 per month for each annuitant electing not to participate in the program of health benefits provided under this Act.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act, if a person participating in the program of health benefits as the dependent spouse of an eligible member becomes an annuitant, the person may elect, at the time of becoming an annuitant or during any subsequent annual benefit choice period, to continue participation as a dependent rather than as an eligible member for as long as the person continues to be an eligible dependent.

An eligible member who has elected to participate as a dependent may re-enroll in the program of health benefits as an eligible member (i) during any subsequent annual benefit choice period or (ii) upon showing a qualifying change in status, as defined in the U.S. Internal Revenue Code, without evidence of insurability and with no limitations on coverage for pre-existing conditions.

A person who elects to participate in the program of health benefits as a dependent rather than as an eligible member shall be furnished a written explanation of the consequences of electing to participate as a dependent and the conditions and procedures for re-enrolling as an eligible member. The explanation shall also be included in the annual benefit choice options booklet furnished to members.

(Source: P.A. 93-553, eff. 8-20-03; 94-95, eff. 7-1-05; 94-109, eff. 7-1-05; revised 8-9-05.)

(5 ILCS 375/10) (from Ch. 127, par. 530)

Sec. 10. Payments by State; premiums.

(a) The State shall pay the cost of basic non-contributory group life insurance and, subject to member paid contributions set by the Department or required by this Section, the basic program of group health benefits on each eligible member, except a member, not otherwise covered by this Act, who has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code, and part of each eligible member's and retired member's premiums for health insurance coverage for enrolled dependents as provided by Section 9. The State shall pay the cost of the basic program of group health benefits only after benefits are reduced by the amount of benefits covered by Medicare for all members and dependents who are eligible for benefits under Social Security or the Railroad Retirement system or who had sufficient Medicare-covered government employment, except that such reduction in benefits shall apply only to those members and dependents who (1) first become eligible for such Medicare coverage on or after July 1, 1992; or (2) are Medicare-eligible members or dependents of a local government unit which began participation in the program on or after July 1, 1992; or (3) remain eligible for, but no longer receive Medicare coverage which they had been receiving on or after July 1, 1992. The Department may determine the aggregate level of the State's contribution on the basis of actual cost of medical services adjusted for age, sex or geographic or other demographic characteristics which affect the costs of such programs.

The cost of participation in the basic program of group health benefits for the dependent or survivor of a living or deceased retired employee who was formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service and would be an annuitant but for the fact that he or she was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code shall not be greater than the cost of participation that would otherwise apply to that dependent or survivor if he or she were the dependent or survivor of an annuitant under the State Universities Retirement System.

(a-1) Beginning January 1, 1998, for each person who becomes a new SERS annuitant and participates in the basic program of group health benefits, the State shall contribute toward the cost of the annuitant's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits an amount equal to 5% of that cost for each full year of creditable service upon which the annuitant's retirement annuity is based, up to a maximum of 100% for an annuitant with 20 or more years of creditable service. The remainder of the cost of a new SERS annuitant's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits shall be the responsibility of the annuitant. In the case of a new SERS annuitant who has elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of an annuity, for the purposes of this subsection the annuitant shall be deemed to be receiving a retirement annuity based on the number of years of creditable service that the annuitant had established at the time of his or her termination of service under SERS.

(a-2) Beginning January 1, 1998, for each person who becomes a new SERS survivor and participates in the basic program of group health benefits, the State shall contribute toward the cost of the survivor's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits an amount equal to 5% of that cost for each full year of the deceased employee's or deceased annuitant's creditable service in the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois on the date of death, up to a maximum of 100% for a survivor of an employee or annuitant with 20 or more years of creditable service. The remainder of the cost of the new SERS survivor's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits shall be the responsibility of the survivor. In the case of a new SERS survivor who was the dependent of an annuitant who elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of an annuity, for the purposes of this subsection the deceased annuitant's creditable service shall be determined as of the date of termination of service rather than the date of death.

(a-3) Beginning January 1, 1998, for each person who becomes a new SURS annuitant and participates in the basic program of group health benefits, the State shall contribute toward the cost of the annuitant's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits an amount equal to 5% of that cost for each full year of creditable service upon which the annuitant's retirement annuity is based, up to a maximum of 100% for an annuitant with 20 or more years of creditable service. The remainder of the cost of a new SURS annuitant's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits shall be the responsibility of the annuitant.

(a-4) (Blank).

(a-5) Beginning January 1, 1998, for each person who becomes a new SURS survivor and participates in the basic program of group health benefits, the State shall contribute toward the cost of the survivor's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits an amount equal to 5% of that cost for each full year of the deceased employee's or deceased annuitant's creditable service in the State Universities Retirement System on the date of death, up to a maximum of 100% for a survivor of an employee or annuitant with 20 or more years of creditable service. The remainder of the cost of the new SURS survivor's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits shall be the responsibility of the survivor.

(a-6) Beginning July 1, 1998, for each person who becomes a new TRS State annuitant and participates in the basic program of group health benefits, the State shall contribute toward the cost of the annuitant's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits an amount equal to 5% of that cost for each full year of creditable service as a teacher as defined in paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106 of the Illinois Pension Code upon which the annuitant's retirement annuity is based, up to a maximum of 100%; except that the State contribution shall be 12.5% per year (rather than 5%) for each full year of creditable service as a regional superintendent or assistant regional superintendent of schools. The remainder of the cost of a new TRS State annuitant's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits shall be the responsibility of the annuitant.

(a-7) Beginning July 1, 1998, for each person who becomes a new TRS State survivor and participates in the basic program of group health benefits, the State shall contribute toward the cost of the survivor's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits an amount equal to 5% of that cost for each full year of the deceased employee's or deceased annuitant's creditable service as a teacher as defined in paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106 of the Illinois Pension Code on the date of death, up to a maximum of 100%; except that the State contribution shall be 12.5% per year (rather than 5%) for each full year of the deceased employee's or deceased annuitant's creditable service as a regional superintendent or assistant regional superintendent of schools. The remainder of the cost of the new TRS State survivor's coverage under the basic program of group health benefits shall be the responsibility of the survivor.

(a-8) A new SERS annuitant, new SERS survivor, new SURS annuitant, new SURS survivor, new TRS State annuitant, or new TRS State survivor may waive or terminate coverage in the program of group health benefits. Any such annuitant or survivor who has waived or terminated coverage may enroll or re-enroll in the program of group health benefits only during the annual benefit choice period, as determined by the Director; except that in the event of termination of coverage due to nonpayment of premiums, the annuitant or survivor may not re-enroll in the program.

(a-9) No later than May 1 of each calendar year, the Director of Central Management Services shall certify in writing to the Executive Secretary of the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois the amounts of the Medicare supplement health care premiums and the amounts of the health care premiums for all other retirees who are not Medicare eligible.

A separate calculation of the premiums based upon the actual cost of each health care plan shall be so certified.

The Director of Central Management Services shall provide to the Executive Secretary of the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois such information, statistics, and other data as he or she may require to review the premium amounts certified by the Director of Central Management Services.

(b) State employees who become eligible for this program on or after January 1, 1980 in positions normally requiring actual performance of duty not less than 1/2 of a normal work period but not equal to that of a normal work period, shall be given the option of participating in the available program. If the employee elects coverage, the State shall contribute on behalf of such employee to the cost of the employee's benefit and any applicable dependent supplement, that sum which bears the same percentage as that percentage of time the employee regularly works when compared to normal work period.

(c) The basic non-contributory coverage from the basic program of group health benefits shall be continued for each employee not in pay status or on active service by reason of (1) leave of absence due to illness or injury, (2) authorized educational leave of absence or sabbatical leave, or (3) military leave with pay and benefits. This coverage shall continue until expiration of authorized leave and return to active service, but not to exceed 24 months for leaves under item (1) or (2). This 24-month limitation and the requirement of returning to active service shall not apply to persons receiving ordinary or accidental disability benefits or retirement benefits through the appropriate State retirement system or benefits under the Workers' Compensation or Occupational Disease Act.

(d) The basic group life insurance coverage shall continue, with full State contribution, where such person is (1) absent from active service by reason of disability arising from any cause other than self-inflicted, (2) on authorized educational leave of absence or sabbatical leave, or (3) on military leave with pay and benefits.

(e) Where the person is in non-pay status for a period in excess of 30 days or on leave of absence, other than by reason of disability, educational or sabbatical leave, or military leave with pay and benefits, such person may continue coverage only by making personal payment equal to the amount normally contributed by the State on such person's behalf. Such payments and coverage may be continued: (1) until such time as the person returns to a status eligible for coverage at State expense, but not to exceed 24 months, (2) until such person's employment or annuitant status with the State is terminated, or (3) for a maximum period of 4 years for members on military leave with pay and benefits and military leave without pay and benefits (exclusive of any additional service imposed pursuant to law).

(f) The Department shall establish by rule the extent to which other employee benefits will continue for persons in non-pay status or who are not in active service.

(g) The State shall not pay the cost of the basic non-contributory group life insurance, program of health benefits and other employee benefits for members who are survivors as defined by paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (q) of Section 3 of this Act. The costs of benefits for these survivors shall be paid by the survivors or by the University of Illinois Cooperative Extension Service, or any combination thereof. However, the State shall pay the amount of the reduction in the cost of participation, if any, resulting from the amendment to subsection (a) made by this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(h) Those persons occupying positions with any department as a result of emergency appointments pursuant to Section 8b.8 of the Personnel Code who are not considered employees under this Act shall be given the option of participating in the programs of group life insurance, health benefits and other employee benefits. Such persons electing coverage may participate only by making payment equal to the amount normally contributed by the State for similarly situated employees. Such amounts shall be determined by the Director. Such payments and coverage may be continued until such time as the person becomes an employee pursuant to this Act or such person's appointment is terminated.

(i) Any unit of local government within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a unit of local government must agree to enroll all of its employees, who may select coverage under either the State group health benefits plan or a health maintenance organization that has contracted with the State to be available as a health care provider for employees as defined in this Act. A unit of local government must remit the entire cost of providing coverage under the State group health benefits plan or, for coverage under a health maintenance organization, an amount determined by the Director based on an analysis of the sex, age, geographic location, or other relevant demographic variables for its employees, except that the unit of local government shall not be required to enroll those of its employees who are covered spouses or dependents under this plan or another group policy or plan providing health benefits as long as (1) an appropriate official from the unit of local government attests that each employee not enrolled is a covered spouse or dependent under this plan or another group policy or plan, and (2) at least 85% of the employees are enrolled and the unit of local government remits the entire cost of providing coverage to those employees, except that a participating school district must have enrolled at least 85% of its full-time employees who have not waived coverage under the district's group health plan by participating in a component of the district's cafeteria plan. A participating school district is not required to enroll a full-time employee who has waived coverage under the district's health plan, provided that an appropriate official from the participating school district attests that the full-time employee has waived coverage by participating in a component of the district's cafeteria plan. For the purposes of this subsection, "participating school district" includes a unit of local government whose primary purpose is education as defined by the Department's rules.

Employees of a participating unit of local government who are not enrolled due to coverage under another group health policy or plan may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual Benefit Choice Period. A participating unit of local government may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with the costs paid by the unit of local government, its employees, or some combination of the two as determined by the unit of local government. The unit of local government shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine monthly rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages, or contributed by the State for basic insurance coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the local government in age, sex, geographic location or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the unit of local government and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the unit of local government.

In the case of coverage of local government employees under a health maintenance organization, the Director shall annually determine for each participating unit of local government the maximum monthly amount the unit may contribute toward that coverage, based on an analysis of (i) the age, sex, geographic location, and other relevant demographic variables of the unit's employees and (ii) the cost to cover those employees under the State group health benefits plan. The Director may similarly determine the maximum monthly amount each unit of local government may contribute toward coverage of its employees' dependents under a health maintenance organization.

Monthly payments by the unit of local government or its employees for group health benefits plan or health maintenance organization coverage shall be deposited in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

The Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund shall be a continuing fund not subject to fiscal year limitations. All revenues arising from the administration of the health benefits program established under this Section shall be deposited into the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund. All expenditures from this Fund shall be used for payments for health care benefits for local government and rehabilitation facility employees, annuitants, and dependents, and to reimburse the Department or its administrative service organization for all expenses incurred in the administration of benefits. No other State funds may be used for these purposes.

A local government employer's participation or desire to participate in a program created under this subsection shall not limit that employer's duty to bargain with the representative of any collective bargaining unit of its employees.

(j) Any rehabilitation facility within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their eligible dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a rehabilitation facility must agree to enroll all of its employees and remit the entire cost of providing such coverage for its employees, except that the rehabilitation facility shall not be required to enroll those of its employees who are covered spouses or dependents under this plan or another group policy or plan providing health benefits as long as (1) an appropriate official from the rehabilitation facility attests that each employee not enrolled is a covered spouse or dependent under this plan or another group policy or plan, and (2) at least 85% of the employees are enrolled and the rehabilitation facility remits the entire cost of providing coverage to those employees. Employees of a participating rehabilitation facility who are not enrolled due to coverage under another group health policy or plan may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual Benefit Choice Period. A participating rehabilitation facility may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with the costs paid by the rehabilitation facility, its employees, or some combination of the 2 as determined by the rehabilitation facility. The rehabilitation facility shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine quarterly rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the rehabilitation facility in age, sex, geographic location or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the rehabilitation facility and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the rehabilitation facility.

Monthly payments by the rehabilitation facility or its employees for group health benefits shall be deposited in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

(k) Any domestic violence shelter or service within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a domestic violence shelter or service must agree to enroll all of its employees and pay the entire cost of providing such coverage for its employees. A participating domestic violence shelter may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with employees, or some combination of the 2 as determined by the domestic violence shelter or service. The domestic violence shelter or service shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the domestic violence shelter or service in age, sex, geographic location or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the domestic violence shelter or service and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the domestic violence shelter or service.

Monthly payments by the domestic violence shelter or service or its employees for group health insurance shall be deposited in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

(l) A public community college or entity organized pursuant to the Public Community College Act may apply to the Director initially to have only annuitants not covered prior to July 1, 1992 by the district's health plan provided health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. The community college must execute a 2-year contract to participate in the Local Government Health Plan. Any annuitant may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual Benefit Choice Period.

The Director shall annually determine monthly rates of payment subject to the following constraints: for those community colleges with annuitants only enrolled, first year rates shall be equal to the average cost to cover claims for a State member adjusted for demographics, Medicare participation, and other factors; and in the second year, a further adjustment of rates shall be made to reflect the actual first year's claims experience of the covered annuitants.

(l-5) The provisions of subsection (l) become inoperative on July 1, 1999.

(m) The Director shall adopt any rules deemed necessary for implementation of this amendatory Act of 1989 (Public Act 86-978).

(n) Any child advocacy center within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their dependants provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a child advocacy center must agree to enroll all of its employees and pay the entire cost of providing coverage for its employees. A participating child advocacy center may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with the costs paid by the child advocacy center, its employees, or some combination of the 2 as determined by the child advocacy center. The child advocacy center shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the child advocacy center in age, sex, geographic location, or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the child advocacy center and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the child advocacy center.

Monthly payments by the child advocacy center or its employees for group health insurance shall be deposited into the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 94-860, eff. 6-16-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 45. The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 5-50 and by adding Section 99-10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 430/5-50)

Sec. 5-50. Ex parte communications; special government agents.

(a) This Section applies to ex parte communications made to any agency listed in subsection (e).

(b) "Ex parte communication" means any written or oral communication by any person that imparts or requests material information or makes a material argument regarding potential action concerning regulatory, quasi-adjudicatory, investment, or licensing matters pending before or under consideration by the agency. "Ex parte communication" does not include the following: (i) statements by a person publicly made in a public forum; (ii) statements regarding matters of procedure and practice, such as format, the number of copies required, the manner of filing, and the status of a matter; and (iii) statements made by a State employee of the agency to the agency head or other employees of that agency.

(b-5) An ex parte communication received by an agency, agency head, or other agency employee from an interested party or his or her official representative or attorney shall promptly be memorialized and made a part of the record.

(c) An ex parte communication received by any agency, agency head, or other agency employee, other than an ex parte communication described in subsection (b-5), shall immediately be reported to that agency's ethics officer by the recipient of the communication and by any other employee of that agency who responds to the communication. The ethics officer shall require that the ex parte communication be promptly made a part of the record. The ethics officer shall promptly file the ex parte communication with the Executive Ethics Commission, including all written communications, all written responses to the communications, and a memorandum prepared by the ethics officer stating the nature and substance of all oral communications, the identity and job title of the person to whom each communication was made, all responses made, the identity and job title of the person making each response, the identity of each person from whom the written or oral ex parte communication was received, the individual or entity represented by that person, any action the person requested or recommended, and any other pertinent information. The disclosure shall also contain the date of any ex parte communication.

(d) "Interested party" means a person or entity whose rights, privileges, or interests are the subject of or are directly affected by a regulatory, quasi-adjudicatory, investment, or licensing matter.

(e) This Section applies to the following agencies:

Executive Ethics Commission

Illinois Commerce Commission

Educational Labor Relations Board

State Board of Elections

Illinois Gaming Board

Health Facilities Planning Board

Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Industrial Commission Illinois Labor Relations Board

Illinois Liquor Control Commission

Pollution Control Board

Property Tax Appeal Board

Illinois Racing Board

Illinois Purchased Care Review Board

Department of State Police Merit Board

Motor Vehicle Review Board

Prisoner Review Board

Civil Service Commission

Personnel Review Board for the Treasurer

Merit Commission for the Secretary of State

Merit Commission for the Office of the Comptroller

Court of Claims Board of Review of the Department of Employment Security Department of Insurance

Department of Professional Regulation and licensing boards under the Department

Department of Public Health and licensing boards under the Department Office of Banks and Real Estate and licensing boards under the Office

State Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees Judges Retirement System Board of Trustees General Assembly Retirement System Board of Trustees Illinois Board of Investment State Universities Retirement System Board of Trustees Teachers Retirement System Officers Board of Trustees

(f) Any person who fails to (i) report an ex parte communication to an ethics officer, (ii) make information part of the record, or (iii) make a filing with the Executive Ethics Commission as required by this Section or as required by Section 5-165 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act violates this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-617, eff. 12-9-03; revised 10-11-05.)

(5 ILCS 430/99-10) (was Sec. 995 of PA 93-617)

(This Section was enacted as Section 995 of P.A. 93-617; it is being added to the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, amended, and renumbered for codification purposes.)

Sec. 99-10. 995. Closed sessions; vote requirement. Public Act 93-617 This Act authorizes the ethics commissions of the executive branch and legislative branch to conduct closed sessions, hearings, and meetings in certain circumstances. In order to meet the requirements of subsection (c) of Section 5 of Article IV of the Illinois Constitution, the General Assembly determines that closed sessions, hearings, and meetings of the ethics commissions, including the ethics commission for the legislative branch, are required by the public interest. Thus, Public Act 93-617 was this Act is enacted by the affirmative vote of two-thirds of the members elected to each house of the General Assembly.

(P.A. 93-617, eff. 12-9-03; revised 1-10-04.)

Section 50. The Fort Sheridan Retrocession Law of 1992 is amended by changing Section 20-20 as follows:

(5 ILCS 541/20-20) (from Ch. 1, par. 7220)

Sec. 20-20. Exclusive jurisdiction. The exclusive jurisdiction hereby retroceded and the concurrent jurisdiction hereby ceded with the State of Illinois shall continue no longer than the United States State of America owns the land described in Section 20-5.

(Source: P.A. 87-866; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 55. The Savanna Army Depot Retrocession Law is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 571/5)

Sec. 5. Authorization to accept retrocession.

(a) Under the provisions of Section 2683 of Title 10 of the United States Code, the State of Illinois authorizes acceptance of retrocession by the United States of America of concurrent legislative jurisdiction over lands consisting of the U.S. Army Depot Activity Savanna Military Reservation, Jo Daviess County and Carroll County, Illinois, being more particularly described as follows:

Situate in the State of Illinois, Jo Daviess County and Carroll County, in sections 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 10, 11, and 12 of Township 25 north, Range 2 east and sections 18, 19, 20, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34 of Township 26 north, Range 2 east and Sections 3, 4, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 35, and 36 of Township 26 north, Range 1 east, and section 6 of Township 25 north, Range 3 east, all of the Fourth Principal Meridian, and more particularly described as follows.

Beginning at a concrete monument at the intersection of the east bank of the Mississippi River and the north line of section 5, Township 26 north, Range 1 east; thence with said north line

Easterly 3,141 feet to a buggy axle at the northeast corner of section 5; thence with the north line of section 4

Easterly 2,640 feet to a 2 inch shafting at the north quarter corner of Section 4; thence

Easterly 1,002 feet to a monument on the westerly right-of-way line of the Burlington Northern Santa Fe Railroad; thence crossing section 4 with said right-of-way line as it generally follows a southeasterly direction

Southeasterly 2,335 feet, more or less, to point on the west line of Section 3, said point being located South 1,588 feet from the northwest corner of section 3; thence crossing a portion of section 3

Southeasterly 2,845 feet, more or less, to a monument on the boundary of the village of Blanding; thence with the common boundary of the U.S. Army Depot Activity Savanna and village of Blanding

South 43° 50' West 372 feet to a monument

South 46° 10' East 131 feet to a monument

North 60° 30' East 387 feet to a monument on said westerly railroad right-of-way line; thence crossing section 3 with said right-of-way line as it generally follows a southeasterly direction

Southeasterly 2,430 feet, more or less to a point on the north line of Section 10, said point being located West 1,332 feet from a monument at the northeast corner of Section 10; thence crossing Section 10 and a portion of Section 11

Southeasterly 5,010 feet, more or less, to a monument on the north and south quarter line through Section 11, said point being located North 3,102 feet from a stone on the south line of Section 11; thence crossing Section 11

Southeasterly 3,000 feet, more or less, to a monument on the east line of Section 11, said monument being located North 2,277 feet from the southeast corner of said Section 11; thence crossing Section 12

Southeasterly 3,880 feet, more or less, to a point on the north line of Section 13, said point being located East 393 feet from a stone at the north quarter corner of Section 13; thence crossing Section 13 and a portion of Section 18

Southeasterly 3,950 feet, more or less, to a monument on the east and west quarter line in Section 18, Township 26 north, Range 2 east, said monument being located East 452 feet from a stone at the west quarter corner of Section 18; thence crossing Section 18

Southeasterly 3,585 feet, more or less, to a monument on the north line of Section 19, said monument being located West 2 feet from the north quarter corner of Section 19; thence crossing Section 19

Southeasterly 4,320 feet, more or less, to a monument on the west line of Section 20; thence crossing Section 20

Southeasterly 2,787 feet, more or less, to a monument on the north line of Section 29; thence crossing Sections 29 and 28

Southeasterly 7,180 feet, more or less, to a point on the north line of Section 33, said point being located North 86° 45' East 731.3 feet from a stone at the northwest corner of Section 33; thence crossing a portion of Section 33

Southeasterly 4,170 feet, more or less, to a point on the east and west quarter line through said Section 33, said point being located East 1,141 feet from the center of said Section 33; thence crossing Sections 33 and 34

Southeasterly 4,740 feet, more or less, to a point on the north line of Section 3, Township 25 north, Range 2 east; thence crossing said right-of-way with said north line of Section 3

Easterly 305 feet to a monument on the north quarter corner of Section 3; thence continuing with said north line of Section 3

Easterly 2,678 feet to the northwest corner of Section 2; thence with the north line of Section 2

Easterly 2,181.5 feet to a monument on the westerly bank of the Apple River; thence with said westerly bank

Southerly to a point 100 feet north of and parallel to the east and west quarter line of Section 2; thence with a line 100 feet north of and parallel to the east and west quarter line of Section 2

Easterly 80 feet, more or less, to a point on the centerline of the Apple River, said point being the northwest corner of U.S. Tract No. S-10; thence with the north boundary of U.S. Tract No. S-10 (north line of the access road to the U.S. Army Depot Activity Savanna)

Easterly 824.7 feet, more or less, to a point on the west line of Section 1; thence crossing Section 1 with a line 100 feet north of and parallel to the east and west quarter line of Section one

Easterly along a line comprising the northern boundaries of U.S. Tract Nos. S-7, S-6, S-5, S-4, S-3, and S-2, respectively, passing the east line of Section 1, to the southwest right-of-way line Illinois Highway No. 84; thence with said right-of-way line

Southeasterly 115 feet, more or less, to a point on the extended east and west quarter line of Section 1, Township 25 north, Range 2 east; thence with said extended line

Westerly to the east quarter corner of Section 1, Township 25 north, Range 2 east; thence along the east and west quarter line of said Section 1

Westerly to a point at the center of Section 1; thence continuing along the said east and west quarter line

Westerly 1,942.1 feet (passing a point at 1925.4 feet on the centerline of the old access road, hereafter referred to as Point "A") to a point on the west right-of-way line of the old access road to the U.S. Army Depot Activity Savanna; thence with said west right-of-way

Southwesterly to a point 20 feet south of and parallel to the east and west quarter line of Section 1, said point also being the southeast corner of U.S. Tract No. S-9A; thence along the south boundary of said U.S. Tract No. S-9A

Westerly to a point on the west line of Section 1, thence along a line 20.0 south of and parallel to the east and west quarter line of Section 2, Township 25 north, Range 2 east

Westerly 855 feet, more or less, to a point on the westerly bank of the Apple River; thence along the westerly bank of the Apple River

Southeasterly to the Mississippi River; thence along the meanders of the Mississippi River

Northwesterly to the Southeast corner of a tract of land transferred to Mississippi Lock and Dam No.12; thence with the common boundary of Lock and Dam No.12 and said Army Depot

North 73° 05' East 1,251.4 feet, more or less, to a point; thence

North 61° 58' East 5,524.0 feet, to a point on the south line of Section 4, Township 26 north, Range 1 east; thence with said south line

North 88° 53' East 333.3 feet to the southwest corner of Section 3; thence with the south line of Section 3

South 88° 40' East 780.6 feet; thence

North 28° 29' West 1,466.1 feet to a point on the north line of the southwest quarter of the southwest quarter of said Section 3; thence along said north line

North 88° 21' West 75.0 feet to the northwest corner of the southwest quarter of the southwest quarter of said Section 3; thence

South 46° 48' West 839.1 feet

South 61° 58' West 5,541.0 feet

South 73° 05' West 1287.6 feet, more or less, to the Mississippi River; thence with the meanders of the Mississippi River

Northwesterly to the point of beginning, inclusive of Apple River island in Section 10 and 11, sand bars in Sections 3, 4, and 5, all in Township 25 north, Range 2 east, Island No. 9 in Section 31, Township 26 north, Range 2 east, and in Section 25, Township 26 north, Range 1 east, Island No. 7 in Sections 25 and 26, Township 26 north, Range 1 east, and Section 31, Township 26 North, Range 2 east, Island No. 4 in Section 22 and 27; Island No. 2 in Section 8, 9 and 16; and Island No. 1, in Section 5; all in Township 26 north, Range 1 east, excepting that portion of the railroad right-of-way in Sections 2, 3, and 11, Township 25 north, Range 2 east, and also the following, lying 15 feet on both sides of the following described centerline:

Beginning at the aforesaid Point "A" said point being on the centerline of a strip of land 30 feet in width, thence with said centerline and an angle of 116° 07' to the right with said east and west quarter line of Section 1

Southwesterly 387.8 feet; thence with a deflection angle to the right of 04°

Southwesterly 190 feet; thence with a deflection angle to the right of 37°

Southwesterly 145 feet; thence with a deflection angle to the right of 20° 47'

Westerly 371.6 feet, more or less, to a point on the east line of Section 2, Township 25 north, Range 2 east, being located South 591 feet from the west quarter corner of said Section 2; thence with an angle to the left of 94° 33' with said west line of Section 2

Westerly 578.4 feet to a point on the centerline of a strip of land 100 feet in width, lying 50 feet on both sides of the following described centerline; thence with a deflection angle to the right of 12° 34'

Westerly 499.3 feet to the east bank of the Apple River, containing a total of 13,060.94 acres, more or less, for all of the above described lands.

Further, the State of Illinois accepts retrocession of and authorizes acceptance of retrocession of concurrent legislative jurisdiction over all those lands owned by the United States that may subsequently be identified by the Department of the Army as part of the U.S. Army Depot Activity Savanna Military Reservation, Jo Daviess Davies County and Carroll County, Illinois, although not included within the legal description contained in this subsection, to the extent concurrent jurisdiction has not previously been retroceded to the State of Illinois. Any additional land over which the State accepts retrocession of concurrent jurisdiction shall be identified in a notice filed by the Governor as provided in subsection (d).

(b) Pursuant to concurrent legislative jurisdiction, both State and federal laws are applicable. Since most major crimes violate both federal and State laws, both may punish an offender for an offense committed in the area. The State of Illinois, subject to the exemption of the federal government, has the right to tax. The regulatory powers of the State of Illinois may be exercised in the area, but not in such a manner as to interfere with federal functions. Persons residing on the area under concurrent legislative jurisdiction are ensured important rights and privileges of citizenship, such as the right to vote and access to the Illinois courts.

(c) Subject to subsection (b), the State of Illinois accepts cession of concurrent legislative jurisdiction from the United States.

(d) The Governor of the State of Illinois is authorized to accept the retrocession of concurrent legislative jurisdiction over the subject lands by filing a notice of acceptance with the Illinois Secretary of State.

(e) Upon transfer by deed of the subject lands, or any portion thereof, by the United States of America, the concurrent jurisdiction retained by the United States shall expire as to the particular property transferred.

(Source: P.A. 92-150, eff. 7-24-01; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 60. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 1A-15, 1A-16, 1A-17, 1A-25, 4-6.2, 5-16.2, 6-50.2, 7-56, 22-1, 22-8, 22-9, 22-15, 22-17, 24A-2, and 24B-9.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/1A-15) (from Ch. 46, par. 1A-15)

Sec. 1A-15. On the request of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Illinois Department of Public Aid, the State Board of Elections shall provide the Department with tapes, discs, other electronic data or compilations thereof which only provide the name, address and, when available, the Social Security number of registered voters for the purpose of tracing absent parents and the collection of child support. Such information shall be provided at reasonable cost, which shall include the cost of duplication plus 15% for administration. The confidentiality of all information contained on such tapes, discs and other electronic data or combination thereof shall be protected as provided in Section 11-9 of "The Illinois Public Aid Code".

(Source: P.A. 85-114; revised 12-15-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-16)

Sec. 1A-16. Voter registration information; internet posting; processing of voter registration forms; content of such forms. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the following provisions shall apply to voter registration under this Code.

(a) Voter registration information; Internet posting of voter registration form. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the State Board of Elections shall post on its World Wide Web site the following information:

(1) A comprehensive list of the names, addresses, phone numbers, and websites, if applicable, of all county clerks and boards of election commissioners in Illinois.

(2) A schedule of upcoming elections and the deadline for voter registration.

(3) A downloadable, printable voter registration form, in at least English and in Spanish versions, that a person may complete and mail or submit to the State Board of Elections or the appropriate county clerk or board of election commissioners.

Any forms described under paragraph (3) must state the following:

If you do not have a driver's license or social security number, and this form is submitted by mail, and you have never registered to vote in the jurisdiction you are now registering in, then you must send, with this application, either (i) a copy of a current and valid photo identification, or (ii) a copy of a current utility bill, bank statement, government check, paycheck, or other government document that shows the name and address of the voter. If you do not provide the information required above, then you will be required to provide election officials with either (i) or (ii) described above the first time you vote at a voting place or by absentee ballot.

(b) Acceptance of registration forms by the State Board of Elections and county clerks and board of election commissioners. The State Board of Elections, county clerks, and board of election commissioners shall accept all completed voter registration forms described in subsection (a)(3) of this Section and Sections Section 1A-17 and Section 1A-30 that are:

(1) postmarked on or before the day that voter registration is closed under the Election Code;

(2) not postmarked, but arrives no later than 5 days after the close of registration;

(3) submitted in person by a person using the form on or before the day that voter registration is closed under the Election Code; or

(4) submitted in person by a person who submits one or more forms on behalf of one or more persons who used the form on or before the day that voter registration is closed under the Election Code.

Upon the receipt of a registration form, the State Board of Elections shall mark the date on which the form was received and send the form via first class mail to the appropriate county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, within 2 business days based upon the home address of the person submitting the registration form. The county clerk and board of election commissioners shall accept and process any form received from the State Board of Elections.

(c) Processing of registration forms by county clerks and boards of election commissioners. The county clerk or board of election commissioners shall promulgate procedures for processing the voter registration form.

(d) Contents of the voter registration form. The State Board shall create a voter registration form, which must contain the following content:

(1) Instructions for completing the form.

(2) A summary of the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois.

(3) Instructions for mailing in or submitting the form in person.

(4) The phone number for the State Board of Elections should a person submitting the form have questions.

(5) A box for the person to check that explains one of 3 reasons for submitting the form:

(a) new registration;

(b) change of address; or

(c) change of name.

(6) a box for the person to check yes or no that asks, "Are you a citizen of the United States?", a box for the person to check yes or no that asks, "Will you be 18 years of age on or before election day?", and a statement of "If you checked 'no' in response to either of these questions, then do not complete this form.".

(7) A space for the person to fill in his or her home telephone number.

(8) Spaces for the person to fill in his or her first, middle, and last names, street address (principal place of residence), county, city, state, and zip code.

(9) Spaces for the person to fill in his or her mailing address, city, state, and zip code if different from his or her principal place of residence.

(10) A space for the person to fill in his or her Illinois driver's license number if the person has a driver's license.

(11) A space for a person without a driver's license to fill in the last four digits of his or her social security number if the person has a social security number.

(12) A space for a person without an Illinois driver's license to fill in his or her identification number from his or her State Identification card issued by the Secretary of State.

(13) A space for the person to fill the name appearing on his or her last voter registration, the street address of his or her last registration, including the city, county, state, and zip code.

(14) A space where the person swears or affirms the following under penalty of perjury with his or her signature:

(a) "I am a citizen of the United States.";

(b) "I will be at least 18 years old on or before the next election.";

(c) "I will have lived in the State of Illinois and in my election precinct at least 30 days as of the date of the next election."; and

"The information I have provided is true to the best of my knowledge under penalty of perjury. If I have provided false information, then I may be fined, imprisoned, or if I am not a U.S. citizen, deported from or refused entry into the United States."

(d-5) (d) Compliance with federal law; rulemaking authority. The voter registration form described in this Section shall be consistent with the form prescribed by the Federal Election Commission under the National Voter Registration Act of 1993, P.L. 103-31, as amended from time to time, and the Help America Vote Act of 2002, P.L. 107-252, in all relevant respects. The State Board of Elections shall periodically update the form based on changes to federal or State law. The State Board of Elections shall promulgate any rules necessary for the implementation of this Section; provided that the rules comport with the letter and spirit of the National Voter Registration Act of 1993 and Help America Vote Act of 2002 and maximize the opportunity for a person to register to vote.

(e) Forms available in paper form. The State Board of Elections shall make the voter registration form available in regular paper stock and form in sufficient quantities for the general public. The State Board of Elections may provide the voter registration form to the Secretary of State, county clerks, boards of election commissioners, designated agencies of the State of Illinois, and any other person or entity designated to have these forms by the Election Code in regular paper stock and form or some other format deemed suitable by the Board. Each county clerk or board of election commissioners has the authority to design and print its own voter registration form so long as the form complies with the requirements of this Section. The State Board of Elections, county clerks, boards of election commissioners, or other designated agencies of the State of Illinois required to have these forms under the Election Code shall provide a member of the public with any reasonable number of forms that he or she may request. Nothing in this Section shall permit the State Board of Elections, county clerk, board of election commissioners, or other appropriate election official who may accept a voter registration form to refuse to accept a voter registration form because the form is printed on photocopier or regular paper stock and form.

(f) Internet voter registration study. The State Board of Elections shall investigate the feasibility of offering voter registration on its website and consider voter registration methods of other states in an effort to maximize the opportunity for all Illinois citizens to register to vote. The State Board of Elections shall assemble its findings in a report and submit it to the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2006. The report shall contain legislative recommendations to the General Assembly on improving voter registration in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 94-492, eff. 1-1-06; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 8-29-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-17)

Sec. 1A-17. Voter registration outreach.

(a) The Secretary of State, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Public Aid, the Department of Employment Security, and each public institution of higher learning in Illinois must make available on its World Wide Web site a downloadable, printable voter registration form that complies with the requirements in subsection (d) of Section 1A-16 for the State Board of Elections' voter registration form.

(b) Each public institution of higher learning in Illinois must include voter registration information and a voter registration form supplied by the State Board of Elections under subsection (e) of Section 1A-16 in any mailing of student registration materials to an address located in Illinois. Each public institution of higher learning must provide voter registration information and a voter registration form supplied by the State Board of Elections under subsection (e) of Section 1A-16 to each person with whom the institution conducts in-person student registration.

(c) As used in this Section, a public institution of higher learning means a public university, college, or community college in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; incorporates P.A. 94-492, eff. 1-1-06.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-25)

Sec. 1A-25. Centralized statewide voter registration list. The centralized statewide voter registration list required by Title III, Subtitle A, Section 303 of the Help America Vote Act of 2002 shall be created and maintained by the State Board of Elections as provided in this Section.

(1) The centralized statewide voter registration list shall be compiled from the voter registration data bases of each election authority in this State.

(2) All new voter registration forms and applications to register to vote, including those reviewed by the Secretary of State at a driver services facility, shall be transmitted only to the appropriate election authority as required by Articles 4, 5, and 6 of this Code and not to the State Board of Elections. The election authority shall process and verify each voter registration form and electronically enter verified registrations on an expedited basis onto the statewide voter registration list. All original registration cards shall remain permanently in the office of the election authority as required by this Code.

(3) The centralized statewide voter registration list shall:

(i) Be designed to allow election authorities to utilize the registration data on the statewide voter registration list pertinent to voters registered in their election jurisdiction on locally maintained software programs that are unique to each jurisdiction.

(ii) Allow each election authority to perform essential election management functions, including but not limited to production of voter lists, processing of absentee voters, production of individual, pre-printed applications to vote, administration of election judges, and polling place administration, but shall not prevent any election authority from using information from that election authority's own systems.

(4) The registration information maintained by each election authority shall be synchronized with that authority's information on the statewide list at least once every 24 hours.

To protect the privacy and confidentiality of voter registration information, the disclosure of any portion of the centralized statewide voter registration list to any person or entity other than to a State or local political committee and other than to a governmental entity for a governmental purpose is specifically prohibited except as follows: subject to security measures adopted by the State Board of Elections which, at a minimum, shall include the keeping of a catalog or database, available for public view, including the name, address, and telephone number of the person viewing the list as well as the time of that viewing, any person may view the list on a computer screen at the Springfield office of the State Board of Elections, during normal business hours other than during the 27 days before an election, but the person viewing the list under this exception may not print, duplicate, transmit, or alter the list.

(Source: P.A. 93-1071, eff. 1-18-05; 94-136, eff. 7-7-05; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 8-29-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-6.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-6.2)

Sec. 4-6.2. (a) The county clerk shall appoint all municipal and township or road district clerks or their duly authorized deputies as deputy registrars who may accept the registration of all qualified residents of the State.

The county clerk shall appoint all precinct committeepersons in the county as deputy registrars who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the State, except during the 27 days preceding an election.

The election authority shall appoint as deputy registrars a reasonable number of employees of the Secretary of State located at driver's license examination stations and designated to the election authority by the Secretary of State who may accept the registration of any qualified residents of the State at any such driver's license examination stations. The appointment of employees of the Secretary of State as deputy registrars shall be made in the manner provided in Section 2-105 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The county clerk shall appoint each of the following named persons as deputy registrars upon the written request of such persons:

1. The chief librarian, or a qualified person designated by the chief librarian, of any public library situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State, at such library.

2. The principal, or a qualified person designated by the principal, of any high school, elementary school, or vocational school situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State, at such school. The county clerk shall notify every principal and vice-principal of each high school, elementary school, and vocational school situated within the election jurisdiction of their eligibility to serve as deputy registrars and offer training courses for service as deputy registrars at conveniently located facilities at least 4 months prior to every election.

3. The president, or a qualified person designated by the president, of any university, college, community college, academy or other institution of learning situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any resident of the State, at such university, college, community college, academy or institution.

4. A duly elected or appointed official of a bona fide labor organization, or a reasonable number of qualified members designated by such official, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State.

5. A duly elected or appointed official of a bonafide State civic organization, as defined and determined by rule of the State Board of Elections, or qualified members designated by such official, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the State. In determining the number of deputy registrars that shall be appointed, the county clerk shall consider the population of the jurisdiction, the size of the organization, the geographic size of the jurisdiction, convenience for the public, the existing number of deputy registrars in the jurisdiction and their location, the registration activities of the organization and the need to appoint deputy registrars to assist and facilitate the registration of non-English speaking individuals. In no event shall a county clerk fix an arbitrary number applicable to every civic organization requesting appointment of its members as deputy registrars. The State Board of Elections shall by rule provide for certification of bonafide State civic organizations. Such appointments shall be made for a period not to exceed 2 years, terminating on the first business day of the month following the month of the general election, and shall be valid for all periods of voter registration as provided by this Code during the terms of such appointments.

6. The Director of Healthcare and Family Services the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or a reasonable number of employees designated by the Director and located at public aid offices, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the county at any such public aid office.

7. The Director of the Illinois Department of Employment Security, or a reasonable number of employees designated by the Director and located at unemployment offices, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the county at any such unemployment office.

8. The president of any corporation as defined by the Business Corporation Act of 1983, or a reasonable number of employees designated by such president, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State.

If the request to be appointed as deputy registrar is denied, the county clerk shall, within 10 days after the date the request is submitted, provide the affected individual or organization with written notice setting forth the specific reasons or criteria relied upon to deny the request to be appointed as deputy registrar.

The county clerk may appoint as many additional deputy registrars as he considers necessary. The county clerk shall appoint such additional deputy registrars in such manner that the convenience of the public is served, giving due consideration to both population concentration and area. Some of the additional deputy registrars shall be selected so that there are an equal number from each of the 2 major political parties in the election jurisdiction. The county clerk, in appointing an additional deputy registrar, shall make the appointment from a list of applicants submitted by the Chairman of the County Central Committee of the applicant's political party. A Chairman of a County Central Committee shall submit a list of applicants to the county clerk by November 30 of each year. The county clerk may require a Chairman of a County Central Committee to furnish a supplemental list of applicants.

Deputy registrars may accept registrations at any time other than the 27 day period preceding an election. All persons appointed as deputy registrars shall be registered voters within the county and shall take and subscribe to the following oath or affirmation:

"I do solemnly swear (or affirm, as the case may be) that I will support the Constitution of the United States, and the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and that I will faithfully discharge the duties of the office of deputy registrar to the best of my ability and that I will register no person nor cause the registration of any person except upon his personal application before me.

............................

(Signature Deputy Registrar)"

This oath shall be administered by the county clerk, or by one of his deputies, or by any person qualified to take acknowledgement of deeds and shall immediately thereafter be filed with the county clerk.

Appointments of deputy registrars under this Section, except precinct committeemen, shall be for 2-year terms, commencing on December 1 following the general election of each even-numbered year; except that the terms of the initial appointments shall be until December 1st following the next general election. Appointments of precinct committeemen shall be for 2-year terms commencing on the date of the county convention following the general primary at which they were elected. The county clerk shall issue a certificate of appointment to each deputy registrar, and shall maintain in his office for public inspection a list of the names of all appointees.

(b) The county clerk shall be responsible for training all deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a), at times and locations reasonably convenient for both the county clerk and such appointees. The county clerk shall be responsible for certifying and supervising all deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a). Deputy registrars appointed under subsection (a) shall be subject to removal for cause.

(c) Completed registration materials under the control of deputy registrars, appointed pursuant to subsection (a), shall be returned to the appointing election authority within 7 days, except that completed registration materials received by the deputy registrars during the period between the 35th and 28th day preceding an election shall be returned by the deputy registrars to the appointing election authority within 48 hours after receipt thereof. The completed registration materials received by the deputy registrars on the 28th day preceding an election shall be returned by the deputy registrars within 24 hours after receipt thereof. Unused materials shall be returned by deputy registrars appointed pursuant to paragraph 4 of subsection (a), not later than the next working day following the close of registration.

(d) The county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, must provide any additional forms requested by any deputy registrar regardless of the number of unaccounted registration forms the deputy registrar may have in his or her possession.

(e) No deputy registrar shall engage in any electioneering or the promotion of any cause during the performance of his or her duties.

(f) The county clerk shall not be criminally or civilly liable for the acts or omissions of any deputy registrar. Such deputy registrars shall not be deemed to be employees of the county clerk.

(g) Completed registration materials returned by deputy registrars for persons residing outside the county shall be transmitted by the county clerk within 2 days after receipt to the election authority of the person's election jurisdiction of residence.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-16.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-16.2)

Sec. 5-16.2. (a) The county clerk shall appoint all municipal and township clerks or their duly authorized deputies as deputy registrars who may accept the registration of all qualified residents of the State.

The county clerk shall appoint all precinct committeepersons in the county as deputy registrars who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the State, except during the 27 days preceding an election.

The election authority shall appoint as deputy registrars a reasonable number of employees of the Secretary of State located at driver's license examination stations and designated to the election authority by the Secretary of State who may accept the registration of any qualified residents of the State at any such driver's license examination stations. The appointment of employees of the Secretary of State as deputy registrars shall be made in the manner provided in Section 2-105 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The county clerk shall appoint each of the following named persons as deputy registrars upon the written request of such persons:

1. The chief librarian, or a qualified person designated by the chief librarian, of any public library situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State, at such library.

2. The principal, or a qualified person designated by the principal, of any high school, elementary school, or vocational school situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any resident of the State, at such school. The county clerk shall notify every principal and vice-principal of each high school, elementary school, and vocational school situated within the election jurisdiction of their eligibility to serve as deputy registrars and offer training courses for service as deputy registrars at conveniently located facilities at least 4 months prior to every election.

3. The president, or a qualified person designated by the president, of any university, college, community college, academy or other institution of learning situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any resident of the State, at such university, college, community college, academy or institution.

4. A duly elected or appointed official of a bona fide labor organization, or a reasonable number of qualified members designated by such official, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State.

5. A duly elected or appointed official of a bona fide State civic organization, as defined and determined by rule of the State Board of Elections, or qualified members designated by such official, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the State. In determining the number of deputy registrars that shall be appointed, the county clerk shall consider the population of the jurisdiction, the size of the organization, the geographic size of the jurisdiction, convenience for the public, the existing number of deputy registrars in the jurisdiction and their location, the registration activities of the organization and the need to appoint deputy registrars to assist and facilitate the registration of non-English speaking individuals. In no event shall a county clerk fix an arbitrary number applicable to every civic organization requesting appointment of its members as deputy registrars. The State Board of Elections shall by rule provide for certification of bona fide State civic organizations. Such appointments shall be made for a period not to exceed 2 years, terminating on the first business day of the month following the month of the general election, and shall be valid for all periods of voter registration as provided by this Code during the terms of such appointments.

6. The Director of Healthcare and Family Services the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or a reasonable number of employees designated by the Director and located at public aid offices, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the county at any such public aid office.

7. The Director of the Illinois Department of Employment Security, or a reasonable number of employees designated by the Director and located at unemployment offices, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the county at any such unemployment office.

8. The president of any corporation as defined by the Business Corporation Act of 1983, or a reasonable number of employees designated by such president, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State.

If the request to be appointed as deputy registrar is denied, the county clerk shall, within 10 days after the date the request is submitted, provide the affected individual or organization with written notice setting forth the specific reasons or criteria relied upon to deny the request to be appointed as deputy registrar.

The county clerk may appoint as many additional deputy registrars as he considers necessary. The county clerk shall appoint such additional deputy registrars in such manner that the convenience of the public is served, giving due consideration to both population concentration and area. Some of the additional deputy registrars shall be selected so that there are an equal number from each of the 2 major political parties in the election jurisdiction. The county clerk, in appointing an additional deputy registrar, shall make the appointment from a list of applicants submitted by the Chairman of the County Central Committee of the applicant's political party. A Chairman of a County Central Committee shall submit a list of applicants to the county clerk by November 30 of each year. The county clerk may require a Chairman of a County Central Committee to furnish a supplemental list of applicants.

Deputy registrars may accept registrations at any time other than the 27 day period preceding an election. All persons appointed as deputy registrars shall be registered voters within the county and shall take and subscribe to the following oath or affirmation:

"I do solemnly swear (or affirm, as the case may be) that I will support the Constitution of the United States, and the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and that I will faithfully discharge the duties of the office of deputy registrar to the best of my ability and that I will register no person nor cause the registration of any person except upon his personal application before me.

...............................

(Signature of Deputy Registrar)"

This oath shall be administered by the county clerk, or by one of his deputies, or by any person qualified to take acknowledgement of deeds and shall immediately thereafter be filed with the county clerk.

Appointments of deputy registrars under this Section, except precinct committeemen, shall be for 2-year terms, commencing on December 1 following the general election of each even-numbered year, except that the terms of the initial appointments shall be until December 1st following the next general election. Appointments of precinct committeemen shall be for 2-year terms commencing on the date of the county convention following the general primary at which they were elected. The county clerk shall issue a certificate of appointment to each deputy registrar, and shall maintain in his office for public inspection a list of the names of all appointees.

(b) The county clerk shall be responsible for training all deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a), at times and locations reasonably convenient for both the county clerk and such appointees. The county clerk shall be responsible for certifying and supervising all deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a). Deputy registrars appointed under subsection (a) shall be subject to removal for cause.

(c) Completed registration materials under the control of deputy registrars, appointed pursuant to subsection (a), shall be returned to the appointing election authority within 7 days, except that completed registration materials received by the deputy registrars during the period between the 35th and 28th day preceding an election shall be returned by the deputy registrars to the appointing election authority within 48 hours after receipt thereof. The completed registration materials received by the deputy registrars on the 28th day preceding an election shall be returned by the deputy registrars within 24 hours after receipt thereof. Unused materials shall be returned by deputy registrars appointed pursuant to paragraph 4 of subsection (a), not later than the next working day following the close of registration.

(d) The county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, must provide any additional forms requested by any deputy registrar regardless of the number of unaccounted registration forms the deputy registrar may have in his or her possession.

(e) No deputy registrar shall engage in any electioneering or the promotion of any cause during the performance of his or her duties.

(f) The county clerk shall not be criminally or civilly liable for the acts or omissions of any deputy registrar. Such deputy registers shall not be deemed to be employees of the county clerk.

(g) Completed registration materials returned by deputy registrars for persons residing outside the county shall be transmitted by the county clerk within 2 days after receipt to the election authority of the person's election jurisdiction of residence.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-50.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-50.2)

Sec. 6-50.2. (a) The board of election commissioners shall appoint all precinct committeepersons in the election jurisdiction as deputy registrars who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the State, except during the 27 days preceding an election.

The election authority shall appoint as deputy registrars a reasonable number of employees of the Secretary of State located at driver's license examination stations and designated to the election authority by the Secretary of State who may accept the registration of any qualified residents of the State at any such driver's license examination stations. The appointment of employees of the Secretary of State as deputy registrars shall be made in the manner provided in Section 2-105 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The board of election commissioners shall appoint each of the following named persons as deputy registrars upon the written request of such persons:

1. The chief librarian, or a qualified person designated by the chief librarian, of any public library situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State, at such library.

2. The principal, or a qualified person designated by the principal, of any high school, elementary school, or vocational school situated within the election jurisdiction, who may accept the registrations of any resident of the State, at such school. The board of election commissioners shall notify every principal and vice-principal of each high school, elementary school, and vocational school situated in the election jurisdiction of their eligibility to serve as deputy registrars and offer training courses for service as deputy registrars at conveniently located facilities at least 4 months prior to every election.

3. The president, or a qualified person designated by the president, of any university, college, community college, academy or other institution of learning situated within the State, who may accept the registrations of any resident of the election jurisdiction, at such university, college, community college, academy or institution.

4. A duly elected or appointed official of a bona fide labor organization, or a reasonable number of qualified members designated by such official, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State.

5. A duly elected or appointed official of a bona fide State civic organization, as defined and determined by rule of the State Board of Elections, or qualified members designated by such official, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the State. In determining the number of deputy registrars that shall be appointed, the board of election commissioners shall consider the population of the jurisdiction, the size of the organization, the geographic size of the jurisdiction, convenience for the public, the existing number of deputy registrars in the jurisdiction and their location, the registration activities of the organization and the need to appoint deputy registrars to assist and facilitate the registration of non-English speaking individuals. In no event shall a board of election commissioners fix an arbitrary number applicable to every civic organization requesting appointment of its members as deputy registrars. The State Board of Elections shall by rule provide for certification of bona fide State civic organizations. Such appointments shall be made for a period not to exceed 2 years, terminating on the first business day of the month following the month of the general election, and shall be valid for all periods of voter registration as provided by this Code during the terms of such appointments.

6. The Director of Healthcare and Family Services the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or a reasonable number of employees designated by the Director and located at public aid offices, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the election jurisdiction at any such public aid office.

7. The Director of the Illinois Department of Employment Security, or a reasonable number of employees designated by the Director and located at unemployment offices, who may accept the registration of any qualified resident of the election jurisdiction at any such unemployment office. If the request to be appointed as deputy registrar is denied, the board of election commissioners shall, within 10 days after the date the request is submitted, provide the affected individual or organization with written notice setting forth the specific reasons or criteria relied upon to deny the request to be appointed as deputy registrar.

8. The president of any corporation, as defined by the Business Corporation Act of 1983, or a reasonable number of employees designated by such president, who may accept the registrations of any qualified resident of the State.

The board of election commissioners may appoint as many additional deputy registrars as it considers necessary. The board of election commissioners shall appoint such additional deputy registrars in such manner that the convenience of the public is served, giving due consideration to both population concentration and area. Some of the additional deputy registrars shall be selected so that there are an equal number from each of the 2 major political parties in the election jurisdiction. The board of election commissioners, in appointing an additional deputy registrar, shall make the appointment from a list of applicants submitted by the Chairman of the County Central Committee of the applicant's political party. A Chairman of a County Central Committee shall submit a list of applicants to the board by November 30 of each year. The board may require a Chairman of a County Central Committee to furnish a supplemental list of applicants.

Deputy registrars may accept registrations at any time other than the 27 day period preceding an election. All persons appointed as deputy registrars shall be registered voters within the election jurisdiction and shall take and subscribe to the following oath or affirmation:

"I do solemnly swear (or affirm, as the case may be) that I will support the Constitution of the United States, and the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and that I will faithfully discharge the duties of the office of registration officer to the best of my ability and that I will register no person nor cause the registration of any person except upon his personal application before me.

....................................

(Signature of Registration Officer)"

This oath shall be administered and certified to by one of the commissioners or by the executive director or by some person designated by the board of election commissioners, and shall immediately thereafter be filed with the board of election commissioners. The members of the board of election commissioners and all persons authorized by them under the provisions of this Article to take registrations, after themselves taking and subscribing to the above oath, are authorized to take or administer such oaths and execute such affidavits as are required by this Article.

Appointments of deputy registrars under this Section, except precinct committeemen, shall be for 2-year terms, commencing on December 1 following the general election of each even-numbered year, except that the terms of the initial appointments shall be until December 1st following the next general election. Appointments of precinct committeemen shall be for 2-year terms commencing on the date of the county convention following the general primary at which they were elected. The county clerk shall issue a certificate of appointment to each deputy registrar, and shall maintain in his office for public inspection a list of the names of all appointees.

(b) The board of election commissioners shall be responsible for training all deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a), at times and locations reasonably convenient for both the board of election commissioners and such appointees. The board of election commissioners shall be responsible for certifying and supervising all deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a). Deputy registrars appointed under subsection (a) shall be subject to removal for cause.

(c) Completed registration materials under the control of deputy registrars appointed pursuant to subsection (a) shall be returned to the appointing election authority within 7 days, except that completed registration materials received by the deputy registrars during the period between the 35th and 28th day preceding an election shall be returned by the deputy registrars to the appointing election authority within 48 hours after receipt thereof. The completed registration materials received by the deputy registrars on the 28th day preceding an election shall be returned by the deputy registrars within 24 hours after receipt thereof. Unused materials shall be returned by deputy registrars appointed pursuant to paragraph 4 of subsection (a), not later than the next working day following the close of registration.

(d) The county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, must provide any additional forms requested by any deputy registrar regardless of the number of unaccounted registration forms the deputy registrar may have in his or her possession.

(e) No deputy registrar shall engage in any electioneering or the promotion of any cause during the performance of his or her duties.

(f) The board of election commissioners shall not be criminally or civilly liable for the acts or omissions of any deputy registrar. Such deputy registrars shall not be deemed to be employees of the board of election commissioners.

(g) Completed registration materials returned by deputy registrars for persons residing outside the election jurisdiction shall be transmitted by the board of election commissioners within 2 days after receipt to the election authority of the person's election jurisdiction of residence.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-56) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-56)

Sec. 7-56. As soon as complete returns are delivered to the proper election authority, the returns shall be canvassed for all primary elections as follows. The election authority acting as the canvassing board pursuant to Section 1-8 of this Code shall also open and canvass the returns of a primary. Upon the completion of the canvass of the returns by the election authority, the election authority shall make a tabulated statement of the returns for each political party separately, stating in appropriate columns and under proper headings, the total number of votes cast in said county for each candidate for nomination or election by said party, including candidates for President of the United States and for State central committeemen, and for delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions, and for precinct committeemen, township committeemen, and for ward committeemen. Within 2 days after the completion of said canvass by the election authority, the county clerk shall mail to the State Board of Elections a certified copy of such tabulated statement of returns. The election authority said officers shall also determine and set down as to each precinct the number of ballots voted by the primary electors of each party at the primary.

In the case of the nomination or election of candidates for offices, including President of the United States and the State central committeemen, and delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions, certified tabulated statement of returns for which are filed with the State Board of Elections, said returns shall be canvassed by the election authority. And, provided, further, that within 5 days after said returns shall be canvassed by the said Board, the Board shall cause to be published in one daily newspaper of general circulation at the seat of the State government in Springfield a certified statement of the returns filed in its office, showing the total vote cast in the State for each candidate of each political party for President of the United States, and showing the total vote for each candidate of each political party for President of the United States, cast in each of the several congressional districts in the State.

Within 48 hours of conducting a canvass, as required by this Code, of the consolidated primary, the election authority shall deliver an original certificate of results to each local election official, with respect to whose political subdivisions nominations were made at such primary, for each precinct in his jurisdiction in which such nominations were on the ballot. Such original certificate of results need not include any offices or nominations for any other political subdivisions. 21

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-647, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/22-1) (from Ch. 46, par. 22-1)

Sec. 22-1. Abstracts of votes. Within 21 days after the close of the election at which candidates for offices hereinafter named in this Section are voted upon, the election authorities of the respective counties shall open the returns and make abstracts of the votes on a separate sheet for each of the following:

A. For Governor and Lieutenant Governor;

B. For State officers;

C. For presidential electors;

D. For United States Senators and Representatives to Congress;

E. For judges of the Supreme Court;

F. For judges of the Appellate Court;

G. For judges of the circuit court;

H. For Senators and Representatives to the General Assembly;

I. For State's Attorneys elected from 2 or more counties;

J. For amendments to the Constitution, and for other propositions submitted to the electors of the entire State;

K. For county officers and for propositions submitted to the electors of the county only;

L. For Regional Superintendent of Schools;

M. For trustees of Sanitary Districts; and

N. For Trustee of a Regional Board of School Trustees.

Each sheet shall report the returns by precinct or ward.

Multiple originals of each of the sheets shall be prepared and one of each shall be turned over to the chairman of the county central committee of each of the then existing established political parties, as defined in Section 10-2, or his duly authorized representative immediately after the completion of the entries on the sheets and before the totals have been compiled.

The foregoing abstracts shall be preserved by the election authority in its office.

Whenever any county clerk is unable to canvass the vote, the deputy county clerk or a designee of the county clerk shall serve in his or her place.

The powers and duties of the election authority canvassing the votes are limited to those specified in this Section.

No person who is shown by the election authority's canvassing board's proclamation to have been elected at the consolidated election or general election as a write-in candidate shall take office unless that person has first filed with the certifying office or board a statement of candidacy pursuant to Section 7-10 or Section 10-5, a statement pursuant to Section 7-10.1, and a receipt for filing a statement of economic interests in relation to the unit of government to which he or she has been elected. For officers elected at the consolidated election, the certifying officer shall notify the election authority of the receipt of those documents, and the county clerk shall issue the certification of election under the provisions of Section 22-18.

(Source: P.A. 93-847, eff. 7-30-04; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-647, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-4-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/22-8) (from Ch. 46, par. 22-8)

Sec. 22-8. In municipalities operating under Article 6 of this Act, within 21 days after the close of such election, the board of election commissioners shall open all returns and shall make abstracts or statements of the votes for all offices and questions voted on at the election.

Each abstract or statement sheet shall report the returns by precinct or ward.

Multiple originals of each of the abstracts or statements shall be prepared and one of each shall be turned over to the chairman of the county central committee of each of the then existing established political parties, as defined in Section 10-2.

(Source: P.A. 93-847, eff. 7-30-04; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-647, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-4-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/22-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 22-9)

Sec. 22-9. It shall be the duty of the election authority to canvass and add up and declare the result of every election hereafter held within the boundaries of such city, village or incorporated town operating under Article 6 of this Act. The election authority shall file by precinct or ward a certified copy of the record with the County Clerk of the county; and such abstracts or results shall be treated, by the County Clerk in all respects, as if made by the election authority now provided by the foregoing sections of this law, and he shall transmit the same, by facsimile, e-mail, or other electronic means, to the State Board of Elections, or other proper officer, as required hereinabove. The county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, shall also send the abstract by precinct or ward and result in a sealed envelope addressed to the State Board of Elections via overnight mail so it arrives at the address the following calendar day. And such abstracts or results so declared, and a certified copy thereof, shall be treated everywhere within the state, and by all public officers, with the same binding force and effect as the abstract of votes now authorized by the foregoing provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-647, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-15-06.)

(10 ILCS 5/22-15) (from Ch. 46, par. 22-15)

Sec. 22-15. The election authority shall, upon request, and by mail if so requested, furnish free of charge to any candidate for any office, whose name appeared upon the ballot within the jurisdiction of the election authority, a copy of the abstract of votes by precinct or ward for all candidates for the office for which such person was a candidate. Such abstract shall be furnished no later than 2 days after the receipt of the request or 8 days after the completing of the canvass, whichever is later.

Within one calendar day following the canvass and proclamation of each general primary election and general election, each election authority shall transmit to the principal office of the State Board of Elections copies of the abstracts of votes by precinct or ward for the offices of ward, township, and precinct committeeman via overnight mail so that the abstract of votes arrives at the address the following calendar day. Each election authority shall also transmit to the principal office of the State Board of Elections copies of current precinct poll lists.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-647, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/22-17) (from Ch. 46, par. 22-17)

Sec. 22-17. (a) Except as provided in subsection (b), the canvass of votes cast at the consolidated election shall be conducted by the election authority within 21 days after the close of such elections.

(b) The board of election commissioners as provided in Section 22-8 shall canvass the votes cast at the consolidated election for offices of any political subdivision entirely within the jurisdiction of a municipal board of election commissioners.

(c) The canvass of votes cast upon any public questions submitted to the voters of any political subdivision, or any precinct or combination of precincts within a political subdivision, at any regular election or at any emergency referendum election, including votes cast by voters outside of the political subdivision where the question is for annexation thereto, shall be canvassed by the same election authority as for the canvass of votes of the officers of such political subdivision. However, referenda conducted throughout a county and referenda of sanitary districts whose officers are elected at general elections shall be canvassed by the county clerk. The votes cast on a public question for the formation of a political subdivision shall be canvassed by the relevant election authority and filed with the circuit court that ordered the question submitted.

(c-5) No person who is shown by the election authority's canvassing board's proclamation to have been elected at the consolidated election or general election as a write-in candidate shall take office unless that person has first filed with the certifying office or board a statement of candidacy pursuant to Section 7-10 or Section 10-5, a statement pursuant to Section 7-10.1, and a receipt for filing a statement of economic interests in relation to the unit of government to which he or she has been elected. For officers elected at the consolidated election, the certifying officer shall notify the election authority of the receipt of those documents, and the county clerk shall issue the certification of election under the provisions of Section 22-18.

(d) The canvass of votes for offices of political subdivisions cast at special elections to fill vacancies held on the day of any regular election shall be conducted by the election authority which is responsible for canvassing the votes at the regularly scheduled election for such office.

(e) Abstracts of votes prepared pursuant to canvasses under this Section shall report returns by precinct or ward.

(Source: P.A. 93-847, eff. 7-30-04; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-647, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-4-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/24A-2) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-2)

Sec. 24A-2. As used in this Article: "Computer", "Automatic tabulating equipment" or "equipment" includes apparatus necessary to automatically examine and count votes as designated on ballots, and data processing machines which can be used for counting ballots and tabulating results.

"Ballot card" means a ballot which is voted by the process of punching.

"Ballot configuration" means the particular combination of political subdivision ballots including, for each political subdivision, the particular combination of offices, candidate names and ballot position numbers for each candidate and question as it appears for each group of voters who may cast the same ballot.

"Ballot labels" means the cards, papers, booklet, pages or other material containing the names of officers and candidates and statements of measures to be voted on.

"Ballot sheet" means a paper ballot printed on one or both sides which is (1) designed and prepared so that the voter may indicate his or her votes in designated areas, which must be enclosed areas clearly printed or otherwise delineated for such purpose, and (2) capable of having votes marked in the designated areas automatically examined, counted, and tabulated by an electronic scanning process.

"Ballot" may include ballot cards, ballot labels and paper ballots.

"Separate ballot", with respect to ballot sheets, means a separate portion of the ballot sheet in which the color of the ink used in printing that portion of the ballot sheet is distinct from the color of the ink used in printing any other portion of the ballot sheet.

"Column" in an electronic voting system which utilizes a ballot card means a space on a ballot card for punching the voter's vote arranged in a row running lengthwise on the ballot card.

"Central Counting" means the counting of ballots in one or more locations selected by the election authority for the processing or counting, or both, of ballots. A location for central counting shall be within the territorial jurisdiction of such election authority unless there is no suitable tabulating equipment available within his territorial jurisdiction. However, in any event a counting location shall be within this State.

"In-precinct counting" means the counting of ballots on automatic tabulating equipment provided by the election authority in the same precinct polling place in which those ballots have been cast.

"Computer operator" means any person or persons designated by the election authority to operate the automatic tabulating equipment during any portion of the vote tallying process in an election, but shall not include judges of election operating vote tabulating equipment in the precinct.

"Computer program" or "program" means the set of operating instructions for the automatic tabulating equipment by which it examines, counts, tabulates, canvasses and prints votes recorded by a voter on a ballot card or other medium.

"Edit listing" means a computer generated listing of the names and ballot position numbers for each candidate and proposition as they appear in the program for each precinct.

"Voting System" or "Electronic Voting System" means that combination of equipment and programs used in the casting, examination and tabulation of ballots and the cumulation and reporting of results by electronic means.

"Header card" means a data processing card which is coded to indicate to the computer the precinct identity of the ballot cards that will follow immediately and may indicate to the computer how such ballot cards are to be tabulated.

"Marking device" means either an apparatus in which ballots or ballot cards are inserted and used in connection with a punch apparatus for the piercing of ballots by the voter, or any approved device for marking a paper ballot with ink or other substance which will enable the ballot to be tabulated by means of automatic tabulating equipment or by an electronic scanning process.

"Redundant count" means a verification of the original computer count by another count using compatible equipment or by hand as part of a discovery recount.

"Security punch" means a punch placed on a ballot card to identify to the computer program the offices and propositions for which votes may be cast and to indicate the manner in which votes cast should be tabulated while negating any inadmissible inadmissable votes.

(Source: P.A. 86-867; revised 10-12-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/24B-9.1)

Sec. 24B-9.1. Examination of Votes by Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process or other authorized electronic process; definition of a vote.

(a) Examination of Votes by Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process. Whenever a Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology process is used to automatically examine and count the votes on ballot sheets, the provisions of this Section shall apply. A voter shall cast a proper vote on a ballot sheet by making a mark, or causing a mark to be made, in the designated area for the casting of a vote for any party or candidate or for or against any proposition. For this purpose, a mark is an intentional darkening of the designated area on the ballot, and not an identifying mark.

(b) For any ballot sheet that does not register a vote for one or more ballot positions on the ballot sheet on a Electronic Precinct Tabulation Optical Scan Technology Scanning Process, the following shall constitute a vote on the ballot sheet:

(1) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is fully darkened or shaded in;

(2) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is partially darkened or shaded in;

(3) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet contains a dot or ".", a check, or a plus or "+"; or

(4) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet contains some other type of mark that indicates the clearly ascertainable intent of the voter to vote based on the totality of the circumstances, including but not limited to any pattern or frequency of marks on other ballot positions from the same ballot sheet; or .

(5) the designated area for casting a vote for a particular ballot position on the ballot sheet is not marked, but the ballot sheet contains other markings associated with a particular ballot position, such as circling a candidate's name, that indicates the clearly ascertainable intent of the voter to vote, based on the totality of the circumstances, including but not limited to, any pattern or frequency of markings on other ballot positions from the same ballot sheet.

(c) For other electronic voting systems that use a computer as the marking device to mark a ballot sheet, the bar code found on the ballot sheet shall constitute the votes found on the ballot. If, however, the county clerk or board of election commissioners determines that the votes represented by the tally on the bar code for one or more ballot positions is inconsistent with the votes represented by numerical ballot positions identified on the ballot sheet produced using a computer as the marking device, then the numerical ballot positions identified on the ballot sheet shall constitute the votes for purposes of any official canvass or recount proceeding. An electronic voting system that uses a computer as the marking device to mark a ballot sheet shall be capable of producing a ballot sheet that contains all numerical ballot positions selected by the voter, and provides a place for the voter to cast a write-in vote for a candidate for a particular numerical ballot position.

(d) The election authority shall provide an envelope, sleeve or other device to each voter so the voter can deliver the voted ballot sheet to the counting equipment and ballot box without the votes indicated on the ballot sheet being visible to other persons in the polling place.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-30 rep.)

Section 62. The Election Code is amended by repealing Section 1A-30.

Section 65. The Attorney General Act is amended by changing Section 4a as follows:

(15 ILCS 205/4a) (from Ch. 14, par. 4a)

Sec. 4a. Attorneys and investigators appointed by the attorney general, and on his payroll, when authorized by the attorney general or his designee, may expend such sums as the attorney general or his designee deems necessary for the purchase of items for evidence, the advancement of fees in cases before United States State courts or other State courts, and in the payment of witness or subpoena fees.

Funds for making expenditures authorized in this Section shall be advanced from funds appropriated or made available by law for the support or use of the office of attorney general or vouchers therefor signed by the attorney general or his designee. Sums so advanced may be paid to the attorney or investigator authorized to receive the advancement, or may be made payable to the ultimate recipient. Any expenditures under this Section shall be audited by the auditor general as part of any mandated audit conducted in compliance with Section 3-2 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

(Source: P.A. 84-438; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 70. The Secretary of State Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(15 ILCS 305/10) (from Ch. 124, par. 10)

Sec. 10. Whenever any bill which has passed both houses of the General Assembly, and is not approved, or vetoed and returned by the Governor, or filed with his objection in the office of the Secretary of State, as required by Section 9, of Article IV, of the Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Secretary of State to authenticate the same by a certificate thereon, to the following effect, as the case may be:

"This bill having remained with the Governor 60 calendar days after it was presented to him, the General Assembly being in session, (or the Governor having failed to return this bill to the General Assembly during its session, and having failed to file it in my office, with his objections, within such 60 calendar days, it has thereby become a law.

Dated .............. 19

Signature ..............., Secretary of State".

(Source: P.A. 84-550; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 75. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10b.1) (from Ch. 124, par. 110b.1)

Sec. 10b.1. (a) Competitive examinations.

(a) For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Secretary of State and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8 and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Personnel and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Personnel for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(b) The Director of Personnel may require that each person seeking employment with the Secretary of State, as part of the application process, authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization, the Director of Personnel may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. The investigation shall be undertaken after the fingerprinting of an applicant in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The investigation shall consist of a criminal history records check performed by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or some other entity that has the ability to check the applicant's fingerprints against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. If the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation conduct an investigation directly for the Secretary of State's Office, then the Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant or prospective employee of the Secretary of State upon request of the Department of Personnel when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. The information derived from this investigation, including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Director of Personnel shall be provided to the applicant or prospective employee, or his designee, upon request to the Director of Personnel prior to any final action by the Director of Personnel on the application. No information obtained from such investigation may be placed in any automated information system. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Director of Personnel shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the application. The only physical identity materials which the applicant or prospective employee can be required to provide the Director of Personnel are photographs or fingerprints; these shall be returned to the applicant or prospective employee upon request to the Director of Personnel, after the investigation has been completed and no copy of these materials may be kept by the Director of Personnel or any agency to which such identity materials were transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of an employee shall be used by the Director of Personnel. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules and regulations for the administration of this Section. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions and their disposition of an applicant or prospective employee shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-418, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 80. The State Comptroller Act is amended by changing Section 10.05a as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/10.05a) (from Ch. 15, par. 210.05a)

Sec. 10.05a. Deductions from Warrants and Payments for Satisfaction of Past Due Child Support. At the direction of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Comptroller shall deduct from a warrant or other payment described in Section 10.05 of this Act, in accordance with the procedures provided therein, and pay over to the Department or the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, at the direction of the Department, that amount certified as necessary to satisfy, in whole or in part, past due support owed by a person on account of support action being taken by the Department under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, whether or not such support is owed to the State. Such deduction shall have priority over any garnishment except that for payment of state or federal taxes. In the case of joint payees, the Comptroller shall deduct and pay over to the Department or the State Disbursement Unit, as directed by the Department, the entire amount certified. The Comptroller shall provide the Department with the address to which the warrant or other payment was to be mailed and the social security number of each person from whom a deduction is made pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 91-712, eff. 7-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 85. The Deposit of State Moneys Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(15 ILCS 520/11) (from Ch. 130, par. 30)

Sec. 11. Protection of public deposits; eligible collateral.

(a) For deposits not insured by an agency of the federal government, the State Treasurer, in his or her discretion, may accept as collateral any of the following classes of securities, provided there has been no default in the payment of principal or interest thereon:

(1) Bonds, notes, or other securities constituting direct and general obligations of the United States, the bonds, notes, or other securities constituting the direct and general obligation of any agency or instrumentality of the United States, the interest and principal of which is unconditionally guaranteed by the United States, and bonds, notes, or other securities or evidence of indebtedness constituting the obligation of a U.S. agency or instrumentality.

(2) Direct and general obligation bonds of the State of Illinois or of any other state of the United States.

(3) Revenue bonds of this State or any authority, board, commission, or similar agency thereof.

(4) Direct and general obligation bonds of any city, town, county, school district, or other taxing body of any state, the debt service of which is payable from general ad valorem taxes.

(5) Revenue bonds of any city, town, county, or school district of the State of Illinois.

(6) Obligations issued, assumed, or guaranteed by the International Finance Corporation, the principal of which is not amortized during the life of the obligation, but no such obligation shall be accepted at more than 90% of its market value.

(7) Illinois Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes as defined in and issued pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act.

(8) In an amount equal to at least market value of that amount of funds deposited exceeding the insurance limitation provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the National Credit Union Administration or other approved share insurer: (i) securities, (ii) mortgages, (iii) letters of credit issued by a Federal Home Loan Bank, or (iv) loans covered by a State Guarantee Guaranty under the Illinois Farm Development Act, if that guarantee has been assumed by the Illinois Finance Authority under Section 845-75 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act, and loans covered by a State Guarantee under Article 830 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(b) The State Treasurer may establish a system to aggregate permissible securities received as collateral from financial institutions in a collateral pool to secure State deposits of the institutions that have pledged securities to the pool.

(c) The Treasurer may at any time declare any particular security ineligible to qualify as collateral when, in the Treasurer's judgment, it is deemed desirable to do so.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, as security the State Treasurer may, in his discretion, accept a bond, executed by a company authorized to transact the kinds of business described in clause (g) of Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code, in an amount not less than the amount of the deposits required by this Section to be secured, payable to the State Treasurer for the benefit of the People of the State of Illinois, in a form that is acceptable to the State Treasurer.

(Source: P.A. 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-17-03.)

Section 90. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 5-15, 5-20, 5-165, 5-230, and 5-395 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Articles. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois consists of the following Articles:

Article 1. General Provisions (20 ILCS 5/1-1 and following).

Article 5. Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-1 and following).

Article 50. State Budget Law (15 ILCS 20/).

Article 110. Department on Aging Law (20 ILCS 110/).

Article 205. Department of Agriculture Law (20 ILCS 205/).

Article 250. State Fair Grounds Title Law (5 ILCS 620/).

Article 310. Department of Human Services (Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) Law (20 ILCS 310/).

Article 405. Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/).

Article 510. Department of Children and Family Services Powers Law (20 ILCS 510/).

Article 605. Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law (20 ILCS 605/).

Article 805. Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law (20 ILCS 805/).

Article 1005. Department of Employment Security Law (20 ILCS 1005/).

Article 1405. Department of Insurance Law (20 ILCS 1405/).

Article 1505. Department of Labor Law (20 ILCS 1505/).

Article 1710. Department of Human Services (Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) Law (20 ILCS 1710/).

Article 1905. Department of Natural Resources (Mines and Minerals) Law (20 ILCS 1905/).

Article 2005. Department of Nuclear Safety Law (20 ILCS 2005/).

Article 2105. Department of Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/).

Article 2205. Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid Law (20 ILCS 2205/).

Article 2310. Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law (20 ILCS 2310/).

Article 2505. Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/).

Article 2510. Certified Audit Program Law (20 ILCS 2510/).

Article 2605. Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/).

Article 2705. Department of Transportation Law (20 ILCS 2705/).

Article 3000. University of Illinois Exercise of Functions and Duties Law (110 ILCS 355/).

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-15) (was 20 ILCS 5/3)

Sec. 5-15. Departments of State government. The Departments of State government are created as follows:

The Department on Aging.

The Department of Agriculture.

The Department of Central Management Services.

The Department of Children and Family Services.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

The Department of Corrections.

The Department of Employment Security.

The Emergency Management Agency.

The Department of Financial Institutions.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

The Department of Human Rights.

The Department of Human Services.

The Department of Insurance.

The Department of Juvenile Justice.

The Department of Labor.

The Department of the Lottery.

The Department of Natural Resources.

The Department of Professional Regulation.

The Department of Public Aid.

The Department of Public Health.

The Department of Revenue.

The Department of State Police.

The Department of Transportation.

The Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-1029, eff. 8-25-04; 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-20) (was 20 ILCS 5/4)

Sec. 5-20. Heads of departments. Each department shall have an officer as its head who shall be known as director or secretary and who shall, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, execute the powers and discharge the duties vested by law in his or her respective department.

The following officers are hereby created:

Director of Aging, for the Department on Aging.

Director of Agriculture, for the Department of Agriculture.

Director of Central Management Services, for the Department of Central Management Services.

Director of Children and Family Services, for the Department of Children and Family Services.

Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, for the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

Director of Corrections, for the Department of Corrections.

Director of Emergency Management Agency, for the Emergency Management Agency.

Director of Employment Security, for the Department of Employment Security.

Director of Financial Institutions, for the Department of Financial Institutions.

Director of Healthcare and Family Services, for the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Director of Human Rights, for the Department of Human Rights.

Secretary of Human Services, for the Department of Human Services.

Director of Insurance, for the Department of Insurance.

Director of Juvenile Justice, for the Department of Juvenile Justice.

Director of Labor, for the Department of Labor.

Director of the Lottery, for the Department of the Lottery.

Director of Natural Resources, for the Department of Natural Resources.

Director of Professional Regulation, for the Department of Professional Regulation.

Director of Public Aid, for the Department of Public Aid.

Director of Public Health, for the Department of Public Health.

Director of Revenue, for the Department of Revenue.

Director of State Police, for the Department of State Police.

Secretary of Transportation, for the Department of Transportation.

Director of Veterans' Affairs, for the Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-1029, eff. 8-25-04; 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-165) (was 20 ILCS 5/5.13c)

Sec. 5-165. In the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-230) (was 20 ILCS 5/7.09)

Sec. 5-230. Director and Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall (1) have substantial experience in responsible positions requiring skill in administration and fiscal management and (2) be actively interested in the development of effective programs for the alleviation of poverty and the reduction of dependency and social maladjustment.

The Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall have the same general qualifications as those set forth for the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in clauses (1) and (2) of the preceding paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-395) (was 20 ILCS 5/9.17)

Sec. 5-395. In the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall receive an annual salary as set by the Governor from time to time or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater.

The Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall receive an annual salary as set by the Governor from time to time or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 91-25, eff. 6-9-99; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 95. The Illinois Welfare and Rehabilitation Services Planning Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 10/4) (from Ch. 127, par. 954)

Sec. 4. (a) Plans required by Section 3 shall be prepared by and submitted on behalf of the following State agencies, and may be prepared and submitted by another State Agency designated by the Governor:

(1) the Department of Children and Family Services;

(2) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid;

(3) the Department of Corrections;

(4) the Department of Human Services;

(5) (blank);

(6) the Department on of Aging;

(7) the Department of Public Health;

(8) the Department of Employment Security.

(b) The plans required by Section 3 of this Act shall be co-ordinated with the plan adopted by the Department of Human Services under Sections 48 through 52 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act and any plan adopted, re-adopted or amended by the Department of Human Services under those Sections shall be coordinated with plans required under Section 3 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 100. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Sections 4.04a and 4.06 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 4.12 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.04a)

Sec. 4.04a. Illinois Long-Term Care Council.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of this Section is to ensure that consumers over the age of 60 residing in facilities licensed or regulated under the Nursing Home Care Act, Skilled Nursing and Intermediate Care Facilities Code, Sheltered Care Facilities Code, and the Illinois Veterans' Homes Code receive high quality long-term care through an effective Illinois Long-Term Care Council.

(b) Maintenance and operation of the Illinois Long-Term Care Council.

(1) The Department shall develop a fair and impartial process for recruiting and receiving nominations for members for the Illinois Long-Term Care Council from the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, the area agencies on aging, regional ombudsman programs, provider agencies, and other public agencies, using a nomination form provided by the Department.

(2) The Department shall appoint members to the Illinois Long-Term Care Council in a timely manner.

(3) The Department shall consider and act in good faith regarding the Illinois Long-Term Care Council's annual report and its recommendations.

(4) The Director shall appoint to the Illinois Long-Term Care Council at least 18 but not more than 25 members.

(c) Responsibilities of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, area agencies on aging, regional long-term care ombudsman programs, and provider agencies. The State Long-Term Care Ombudsman and each area agency on aging, regional long-term care ombudsman program, and provider agency shall solicit names and recommend members to the Department for appointment to the Illinois Long-Term Care Council.

(d) Powers and duties. The Illinois Long-Term Care Council shall do the following:

(1) Make recommendations and comment on issues pertaining to long-term care and the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program to the Department.

(2) Advise the Department on matters pertaining to the quality of life and quality of care in the continuum of long-term care.

(3) Evaluate, comment on reports regarding, and make recommendations on, the quality of life and quality of care in long-term care facilities and on the duties and responsibilities of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program.

(4) Prepare and circulate an annual report to the Governor, the General Assembly, and other interested parties concerning the duties and accomplishments of the Illinois Long-Term Care Council and all other related matters pertaining to long-term care and the protection of residents' rights.

(5) Provide an opportunity for public input at each scheduled meeting.

(6) Make recommendations to the Director, upon his or her request, as to individuals who are capable of serving as the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman and who should make appropriate application for that position should it become vacant.

(e) Composition and operation. The Illinois Long-Term Care Council shall be composed of at least 18 but not more than 25 members concerned about the quality of life in long-term care facilities and protecting the rights of residents, including members from long-term care facilities. The State Long-Term Care Ombudsman shall be a permanent member of the Long-Term Care Council. Members shall be appointed for a 4-year term with initial appointments staggered with 2-year, 3-year, and 4-year terms. A lottery will determine the terms of office for the members of the first term. Members may be reappointed to a term but no member may be reappointed to more than 2 consecutive terms. The Illinois Long-Term Care Council shall meet a minimum of 3 times per calendar year.

(f) Member requirements. All members shall be individuals who have demonstrated concern about the quality of life in long-term care facilities. A minimum of 3 members must be current or former residents of long-term care facilities or the family member of a current or former resident of a long-term care facility. A minimum of 2 members shall represent current or former long-term care facility resident councils or family councils. A minimum of 4 members shall be selected from recommendations by organizations whose members consist of long-term care facilities. A representative of long-term care facility employees must also be included as a member. A minimum of 2 members shall be selected from recommendations of membership-based senior advocacy groups or consumer organizations that engage solely in legal representation on behalf of residents and immediate families. There shall be non-voting State agency members on the Long-Term Care Council from the following agencies: (i) the Department of Veterans' Affairs; (ii) the Department of Human Services; (iii) the Department of Public Health; (iv) the Department on Aging; (v) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid; (vi) the Illinois State Police Medicaid Fraud Control Unit; and (vii) others as appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 93-498, eff. 8-11-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.06)

Sec. 4.06. Minority Senior Citizen Program. The Department shall develop a program to identify the special needs and problems of minority senior citizens and evaluate the adequacy and accessibility of existing programs and information for minority senior citizens. The Department shall coordinate services for minority senior citizens through the Department of Public Health, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and the Department of Human Services.

The Department shall develop procedures to enhance and identify availability of services and shall promulgate administrative rules to establish the responsibilities of the Department.

The Department on Aging, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and the Department of Human Services shall cooperate in the development and submission of an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. The joint report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before September 30 of each year.

(Source: P.A. 88-254; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.12)

Sec. 4.12. Assistance to nursing home residents.

(a) The Department on Aging shall assist eligible nursing home residents and their families to select long-term care options that meet their needs and reflect their preferences. At any time during the process, the resident or his or her representative may decline further assistance.

(b) To provide assistance, the Department shall develop a program of transition services with follow-up in selected areas of the State, to be expanded statewide as funding becomes available. The program shall be developed in consultation with nursing homes, case managers, Area Agencies on Aging, and others interested in the well-being of frail elderly Illinois residents. The Department shall establish administrative rules pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act with respect to resident eligibility, assessment of the resident's health, cognitive, social, and financial needs, development of comprehensive service transition plans, and the level of services that must be available prior to transition of a resident into the community.

(Source: P.A. 93-902, eff. 8-10-04.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.13)

Sec. 4.13 4.12. Older Adult Services Act. The Department shall implement the Older Adult Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; revised 11-03-04.)

Section 105. The State Fair Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 210/7) (from Ch. 127, par. 1707)

Sec. 7. During the period when each State Fairgrounds is not used for the annual State Fair, the Department shall make all efforts to promote its use by the public for purposes that the facilities can accommodate. The Department may charge and collect for the use of each State Fairgrounds and its facilities. The Department may negotiate and enter into contracts for activities and use of facilities. The criteria for such contracts shall be established by rule.

The Department also shall have the authority to arrange, organize, and hold events on each State Fairgrounds and in any facilities on each State Fairgrounds for any purpose that the facilities and State Fairgrounds can accommodate accomodate. The Department may charge and collect fees associated with the events.

(Source: P.A. 93-267, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 110. The Rural Rehabilitation Corporation Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 220/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 42a3)

Sec. 1. The Director of Agriculture of the State of Illinois is hereby designated as the state official of Illinois to make application to and receive from the Secretary of Agriculture of the United States Sates or any other proper federal official, pursuant and subject to the provisions of Public Law 499, 81st Congress, approved May 3, 1950, the trust assets, either funds or property, held by the United States as trustee in behalf of the Illinois Rural Rehabilitation Corporation.

(Source: Laws 1951, p. 25; revised 9-15-06.)

Section 115. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Sections 5-10 and 10-45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-10)

Sec. 5-10. Functions of the Department.

(a) In addition to the powers, duties and functions vested in the Department by this Act, or by other laws of this State, the Department shall carry out the following activities:

(1) Design, coordinate and fund a comprehensive and coordinated community-based and culturally and gender-appropriate array of services throughout the State for the prevention, intervention, treatment and rehabilitation of alcohol and other drug abuse and dependency that is accessible and addresses the needs of at-risk or addicted individuals and their families.

(2) Act as the exclusive State agency to accept, receive and expend, pursuant to appropriation, any public or private monies, grants or services, including those received from the federal government or from other State agencies, for the purpose of providing an array of services for the prevention, intervention, treatment and rehabilitation of alcoholism or other drug abuse or dependency. Monies received by the Department shall be deposited into appropriate funds as may be created by State law or administrative action.

(3) Coordinate a statewide strategy among State agencies for the prevention, intervention, treatment and rehabilitation of alcohol and other drug abuse and dependency. This strategy shall include the development of an annual comprehensive State plan for the provision of an array of services for education, prevention, intervention, treatment, relapse prevention and other services and activities to alleviate alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency. The plan shall be based on local community-based needs and upon data including, but not limited to, that which defines the prevalence of and costs associated with the abuse of and dependency upon alcohol and other drugs. This comprehensive State plan shall include identification of problems, needs, priorities, services and other pertinent information, including the needs of minorities and other specific populations in the State, and shall describe how the identified problems and needs will be addressed. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "minorities and other specific populations" may include, but shall not be limited to, groups such as women, children, intravenous drug users, persons with AIDS or who are HIV infected, African-Americans, Puerto Ricans, Hispanics, Asian Americans, the elderly, persons in the criminal justice system, persons who are clients of services provided by other State agencies, persons with disabilities and such other specific populations as the Department may from time to time identify. In developing the plan, the Department shall seek input from providers, parent groups, associations and interested citizens.

Beginning with State fiscal year 1996, the annual comprehensive State plan developed under this Section shall include an explanation of the rationale to be used in ensuring that funding shall be based upon local community needs, including, but not limited to, the incidence and prevalence of, and costs associated with, the abuse of and dependency upon alcohol and other drugs, as well as upon demonstrated program performance.

The annual comprehensive State plan developed under this Section shall contain a report detailing the activities of and progress made by the programs for the care and treatment of addicted pregnant women, addicted mothers and their children established under subsection (j) of Section 35-5 of this Act.

Each State agency which provides or funds alcohol or drug prevention, intervention and treatment services shall annually prepare an agency plan for providing such services, and these shall be used by the Department in preparing the annual comprehensive statewide plan. Each agency's annual plan for alcohol and drug abuse services shall contain a report on the activities and progress of such services in the prior year. The Department may provide technical assistance to other State agencies, as required, in the development of their agency plans.

(4) Lead, foster and develop cooperation, coordination and agreements among federal and State governmental agencies and local providers that provide assistance, services, funding or other functions, peripheral or direct, in the prevention, intervention, treatment or rehabilitation of alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency. This shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(A) Cooperate with and assist the Department of Corrections and the Department on Aging in establishing and conducting programs relating to alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency among those populations which they respectively serve.

(B) Cooperate with and assist the Illinois Department of Public Health in the establishment, funding and support of programs and services for the promotion of maternal and child health and the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases, including but not limited to HIV infection, especially with respect to those persons who may abuse drugs by intravenous injection, or may have been sexual partners of drug abusers, or may have abused substances so that their immune systems are impaired, causing them to be at high risk.

(C) Supply to the Department of Public Health and prenatal care providers a list of all alcohol and other drug abuse service providers for addicted pregnant women in this State.

(D) Assist in the placement of child abuse or neglect perpetrators (identified by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services) who have been determined to be in need of alcohol or other drug abuse services pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(E) Cooperate with and assist the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services in carrying out its mandates to:

(i) identify alcohol and other drug abuse issues among its clients and their families; and

(ii) develop programs and services to deal with such problems.

These programs and services may include, but shall not be limited to, programs to prevent the abuse of alcohol or other drugs by DCFS clients and their families, rehabilitation services, identifying child care needs within the array of alcohol and other drug abuse services, and assistance with other issues as required.

(F) Cooperate with and assist the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority with respect to statistical and other information concerning drug abuse incidence and prevalence.

(G) Cooperate with and assist the State Superintendent of Education, boards of education, schools, police departments, the Illinois Department of State Police, courts and other public and private agencies and individuals in establishing prevention programs statewide and preparing curriculum materials for use at all levels of education. An agreement shall be entered into with the State Superintendent of Education to assist in the establishment of such programs.

(H) Cooperate with and assist the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in the development and provision of services offered to recipients of public assistance for the treatment and prevention of alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency.

(I) Provide training recommendations to other State agencies funding alcohol or other drug abuse prevention, intervention, treatment or rehabilitation services.

(5) From monies appropriated to the Department from the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund, make grants to reimburse DUI evaluation and remedial education programs licensed by the Department for the costs of providing indigent persons with free or reduced-cost services relating to a charge of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drugs.

(6) Promulgate regulations to provide appropriate standards for publicly and privately funded programs as well as for levels of payment to government funded programs which provide an array of services for prevention, intervention, treatment and rehabilitation for alcoholism and other drug abuse or dependency.

(7) In consultation with local service providers, specify a uniform statistical methodology for use by agencies, organizations, individuals and the Department for collection and dissemination of statistical information regarding services related to alcoholism and other drug use and abuse. This shall include prevention services delivered, the number of persons treated, frequency of admission and readmission, and duration of treatment.

(8) Receive data and assistance from federal, State and local governmental agencies, and obtain copies of identification and arrest data from all federal, State and local law enforcement agencies for use in carrying out the purposes and functions of the Department.

(9) Designate and license providers to conduct screening, assessment, referral and tracking of clients identified by the criminal justice system as having indications of alcoholism or other drug abuse or dependency and being eligible to make an election for treatment under Section 40-5 of this Act, and assist in the placement of individuals who are under court order to participate in treatment.

(10) Designate medical examination and other programs for determining alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency.

(11) Encourage service providers who receive financial assistance in any form from the State to assess and collect fees for services rendered.

(12) Make grants with funds appropriated from the Drug Treatment Fund in accordance with Section 7 of the Controlled Substance and Cannabis Nuisance Act, or in accordance with Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or in accordance with subsections (h) and (i) of Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(13) Encourage all health and disability insurance programs to include alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency as a covered illness.

(14) Make such agreements, grants-in-aid and purchase-care arrangements with any other department, authority or commission of this State, or any other state or the federal government or with any public or private agency, including the disbursement of funds and furnishing of staff, to effectuate the purposes of this Act.

(15) Conduct a public information campaign to inform the State's Hispanic residents regarding the prevention and treatment of alcoholism.

(b) In addition to the powers, duties and functions vested in it by this Act, or by other laws of this State, the Department may undertake, but shall not be limited to, the following activities:

(1) Require all programs funded by the Department to include an education component to inform participants regarding the causes and means of transmission and methods of reducing the risk of acquiring or transmitting HIV infection, and to include funding for such education component in its support of the program.

(2) Review all State agency applications for federal funds which include provisions relating to the prevention, early intervention and treatment of alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency in order to ensure consistency with the comprehensive statewide plan developed pursuant to this Act.

(3) Prepare, publish, evaluate, disseminate and serve as a central repository for educational materials dealing with the nature and effects of alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency. Such materials may deal with the educational needs of the citizens of Illinois, and may include at least pamphlets which describe the causes and effects of fetal alcohol syndrome, which the Department may distribute free of charge to each county clerk in sufficient quantities that the county clerk may provide a pamphlet to the recipients of all marriage licenses issued in the county.

(4) Develop and coordinate, with regional and local agencies, education and training programs for persons engaged in providing the array of services for persons having alcoholism or other drug abuse and dependency problems, which programs may include specific HIV education and training for program personnel.

(5) Cooperate with and assist in the development of education, prevention and treatment programs for employees of State and local governments and businesses in the State.

(6) Utilize the support and assistance of interested persons in the community, including recovering addicts and alcoholics, to assist individuals and communities in understanding the dynamics of addiction, and to encourage individuals with alcohol or other drug abuse or dependency problems to voluntarily undergo treatment.

(7) Promote, conduct, assist or sponsor basic clinical, epidemiological and statistical research into alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency, and research into the prevention of those problems either solely or in conjunction with any public or private agency.

(8) Cooperate with public and private agencies, organizations and individuals in the development of programs, and to provide technical assistance and consultation services for this purpose.

(9) Publish or provide for the publishing of a manual to assist medical and social service providers in identifying alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency and coordinating the multidisciplinary delivery of services to addicted pregnant women, addicted mothers and their children. The manual may be used only to provide information and may not be used by the Department to establish practice standards. The Department may not require recipients to use specific providers nor may they require providers to refer recipients to specific providers. The manual may include, but need not be limited to, the following:

(A) Information concerning risk assessments of women seeking prenatal, natal, and postnatal medical care.

(B) Information concerning risk assessments of infants who may be substance-affected.

(C) Protocols that have been adopted by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services for the reporting and investigation of allegations of child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(D) Summary of procedures utilized in juvenile court in cases of children alleged or found to be abused or neglected as a result of being born to addicted women.

(E) Information concerning referral of addicted pregnant women, addicted mothers and their children by medical, social service, and substance abuse treatment providers, by the Departments of Children and Family Services, Public Aid, Public Health, and Human Services.

(F) Effects of substance abuse on infants and guidelines on the symptoms, care, and comfort of drug-withdrawing infants.

(G) Responsibilities of the Illinois Department of Public Health to maintain statistics on the number of children in Illinois addicted at birth.

(10) To the extent permitted by federal law or regulation, establish and maintain a clearinghouse and central repository for the development and maintenance of a centralized data collection and dissemination system and a management information system for all alcoholism and other drug abuse prevention, early intervention and treatment services.

(11) Fund, promote or assist programs, services, demonstrations or research dealing with addictive or habituating behaviors detrimental to the health of Illinois citizens.

(12) With monies appropriated from the Group Home Loan Revolving Fund, make loans, directly or through subcontract, to assist in underwriting the costs of housing in which individuals recovering from alcohol or other drug abuse or dependency may reside in groups of not less than 6 persons, pursuant to Section 50-40 of this Act.

(13) Promulgate such regulations as may be necessary for the administration of grants or to otherwise carry out the purposes and enforce the provisions of this Act.

(14) Fund programs to help parents be effective in preventing substance abuse by building an awareness of drugs and alcohol and the family's role in preventing abuse through adjusting expectations, developing new skills, and setting positive family goals. The programs shall include, but not be limited to, the following subjects: healthy family communication; establishing rules and limits; how to reduce family conflict; how to build self-esteem, competency, and responsibility in children; how to improve motivation and achievement; effective discipline; problem solving techniques; and how to talk about drugs and alcohol. The programs shall be open to all parents.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 301/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2007)

Sec. 10-45. Membership. The Board shall consist of 15 16 members:

(a) The Director of Aging.

(b) The State Superintendent of Education.

(c) The Director of Corrections.

(d) The Director of State Police.

(e) The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation Director of Professional Regulation.

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Director of Children and Family Services.

(h) (Blank).

(i) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(j) The Director of Public Health.

(k) The Secretary of State.

(l) The Secretary of Transportation.

(m) (Blank). The Director of Insurance.

(n) The Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts.

(o) The Chairman of the Board of Higher Education.

(p) The Director of Revenue.

(q) The Executive Director of the Criminal Justice Information Authority.

(r) A chairman who shall be appointed by the Governor for a term of 3 years.

Each member may designate a representative to serve in his or her place by written notice to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01. Repealed by P.A. 94-1033, eff. 7-1-07; revised 8-21-06.)

Section 120. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 405-270 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-270) (was 20 ILCS 405/67.18)

Sec. 405-270. Communications services. To provide for and co-ordinate communications services for State agencies and, when requested and when in the best interests of the State, for units of federal or local governments and public and not-for-profit institutions of primary, secondary, and higher education. The Department may make use of its satellite uplink available to interested parties not associated with State government provided that State government usage shall have first priority. For this purpose the Department shall have the power and duty to do all of the following:

(1) Provide for and control the procurement, retention, installation, and maintenance of communications equipment or services used by State agencies in the interest of efficiency and economy.

(2) Establish standards by January 1, 1989 for communications services for State agencies which shall include a minimum of one telecommunication device for the deaf installed and operational within each State agency, to provide public access to agency information for those persons who are hearing or speech impaired. The Department shall consult the Department of Human Services to develop standards and implementation for this equipment.

(3) Establish charges (i) for communication services for State agencies and, when requested, for units of federal or local government and public and not-for-profit institutions of primary, secondary, or higher education and (ii) for use of the Department's satellite uplink by parties not associated with State government. Entities charged for these services shall reimburse the Department.

(4) Instruct all State agencies to report their usage of communication services regularly to the Department in the manner the Director may prescribe.

(5) Analyze the present and future aims and needs of all State agencies in the area of communications services and plan to serve those aims and needs in the most effective and efficient manner.

(6) Provide services, including, but not limited to, telecommunications, video recording, satellite uplink, public information, and other communications services.

(7) Establish the administrative organization within the Department that is required to accomplish the purpose of this Section.

The Department is authorized to conduct a study for the purpose of determining technical, engineering, and management specifications for the networking, compatible connection, or shared use of existing and future public and private owned television broadcast and reception facilities, including but not limited to terrestrial microwave, fiber optic, and satellite, for broadcast and reception of educational, governmental, and business programs, and to implement those specifications.

However, the Department may not control or interfere with the input of content into the telecommunications systems by the several State agencies or units of federal or local government, or public or not-for-profit institutions of primary, secondary, and higher education, or users of the Department's satellite uplink.

As used in this Section, the term "State agencies" means all departments, officers, commissions, boards, institutions, and bodies politic and corporate of the State except (i) the judicial branch, including, without limitation, the several courts of the State, the offices of the clerk of the supreme court and the clerks of the appellate court, and the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts and (ii) the General Assembly, legislative service agencies, and all officers of the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-295, eff. 7-21-05; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 125. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Sections 8a, 8b.1, and 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/8a) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108a)

Sec. 8a. Jurisdiction A - Classification and pay. For positions in the State service subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of Central Management Services with respect to the classification and pay:

(1) For the preparation, maintenance, and revision by the Director, subject to approval by the Commission, of a position classification plan for all positions subject to this Act, based upon similarity of duties performed, responsibilities assigned, and conditions of employment so that the same schedule of pay may be equitably applied to all positions in the same class. However, the pay of an employee whose position is reduced in rank or grade by reallocation because of a loss of duties or responsibilities after his appointment to such position shall not be required to be lowered for a period of one year after the reallocation of his position. Conditions of employment shall not be used as a factor in the classification of any position heretofore paid under the provisions of Section 1.22 of "An Act to standardize position titles and salary rates", approved June 30, 1943, as amended. Unless the Commission disapproves such classification plan within 60 days, or any revision thereof within 30 days, the Director shall allocate every such position to one of the classes in the plan. Any employee affected by the allocation of a position to a class shall, after filing with the Director of Central Management Services a written request for reconsideration thereof in such manner and form as the Director may prescribe, be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard by the Director. If the employee does not accept the allocation of the position, he shall then have the right of appeal to the Civil Service Commission.

(2) For a pay plan to be prepared by the Director for all employees subject to this Act after consultation with operating agency heads and the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Such pay plan may include provisions for uniformity of starting pay, an increment plan, area differentials, a delay not to exceed one year prior to the reduction of the pay of employees whose positions are reduced in rank or grade by reallocation because of a loss of duties or responsibilities after their appointments to such positions, prevailing rates of wages in those classifications in which employers are now paying or may hereafter pay such rates of wage and other provisions. Such pay plan shall become effective only after it has been approved by the Governor. Amendments to the pay plan shall be made in the same manner. Such pay plan shall provide that each employee shall be paid at one of the rates set forth in the pay plan for the class of position in which he is employed, subject to delay in the reduction of pay of employees whose positions are reduced in rank or grade by allocation as above set forth in this Section. Such pay plan shall provide for a fair and reasonable compensation for services rendered.

This Section is inapplicable to the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The salary for this position shall be as established in "The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois", approved March 7, 1917, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-21-06.)

(20 ILCS 415/8b.1) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.1)

Sec. 8b.1. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions.

Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into or promotion within the service, and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education; investigation of experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical fitness; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8 and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. The eligibility conditions specified for the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in Section 5-230 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-230) shall be applied to that position in addition to other standards, tests or criteria established by the Director. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of the examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio and other media. The Director may, however, in his discretion, continue to receive applications and examine candidates long enough to assure a sufficient number of eligibles to meet the needs of the service and may add the names of successful candidates to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings.

The Director may, in his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Central Management Services and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Central Management Services for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 415/10) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b110)

Sec. 10. Duties and powers of the Commission. The Civil Service Commission shall have duties and powers as follows:

(1) Upon written recommendations by the Director of the Department of Central Management Services to exempt from jurisdiction B of this Act positions which, in the judgment of the Commission, involve either principal administrative responsibility for the determination of policy or principal administrative responsibility for the way in which policies are carried out. This authority may not be exercised, however, with respect to the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(2) To require such special reports from the Director as it may consider desirable.

(3) To disapprove original rules or any part thereof within 90 days and any amendment thereof within 30 days after the submission of such rules to the Civil Service Commission by the Director, and to disapprove any amendments thereto in the same manner.

(4) To approve or disapprove within 60 days from date of submission the position classification P.A. submitted by the Director as provided in the rules, and any revisions thereof within 30 days from the date of submission.

(5) To hear appeals of employees who do not accept the allocation of their positions under the position classification plan.

(6) To hear and determine written charges filed seeking the discharge, demotion of employees and suspension totaling more than thirty days in any 12-month period, as provided in Section 11 hereof, and appeals from transfers from one geographical area in the State to another, and in connection therewith to administer oaths, subpoena witnesses, and compel the production of books and papers.

(7) The fees of subpoenaed witnesses under this Act for attendance and travel shall be the same as fees of witnesses before the circuit courts of the State, such fees to be paid when the witness is excused from further attendance. Whenever a subpoena is issued the Commission may require that the cost of service and the fee of the witness shall be borne by the party at whose insistence the witness is summoned. The Commission has the power, at its discretion, to require a deposit from such party to cover the cost of service and witness fees and the payment of the legal witness fee and mileage to the witness served with the subpoena. A subpoena issued under this Act shall be served in the same manner as a subpoena issued out of a court.

Upon the failure or refusal to obey a subpoena, a petition shall be prepared by the party serving the subpoena for enforcement in the circuit court of the county in which the person to whom the subpoena was directed either resides or has his or her principal place of business.

Not less than five days before the petition is filed in the appropriate court, it shall be served on the person along with a notice of the time and place the petition is to be presented.

Following a hearing on the petition, the circuit court shall have jurisdiction to enforce subpoenas issued pursuant to this Section.

On motion and for good cause shown the Commission may quash or modify any subpoena.

(8) To make an annual report regarding the work of the Commission to the Governor, such report to be a public report.

(9) If any violation of this Act is found, the Commission shall direct compliance in writing.

(10) To appoint a full-time executive secretary and such other employees, experts, and special assistants as may be necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the Commission under this Act and employees, experts, and special assistants so appointed by the Commission shall be subject to the provisions of jurisdictions A, B and C of this Act. These powers and duties supersede any contrary provisions herein contained.

(11) To make rules to carry out and implement their powers and duties under this Act, with authority to amend such rules from time to time.

(12) To hear or conduct investigations as it deems necessary of appeals of layoff filed by employees appointed under Jurisdiction B after examination provided that such appeals are filed within 15 calendar days following the effective date of such layoff and are made on the basis that the provisions of the Personnel Code or of the Rules of the Department of Central Management Services relating to layoff have been violated or have not been complied with.

All hearings shall be public. A decision shall be rendered within 60 days after receipt of the transcript of the proceedings. The Commission shall order the reinstatement of the employee if it is proven that the provisions of the Personnel Code or of the Rules of the Department of Central Management Services relating to layoff have been violated or have not been complied with. In connection therewith the Commission may administer oaths, subpoena witnesses, and compel the production of books and papers.

(13) Whenever the Civil Service Commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, such information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 130. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 9.1, 23, and 35.3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/9.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5009.1)

Sec. 9.1. The parents or guardians of the estates of children accepted for care and training under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or through a voluntary placement agreement with the parents or guardians shall be liable for the payment to the Department, or to a licensed or approved child care facility designated by the Department of sums representing charges for the care and training of those children at a rate to be determined by the Department. The Department shall establish a standard by which shall be measured the ability of parents or guardians to pay for the care and training of their children, and shall implement the standard by rules governing its application. The standard and the rules shall take into account ability to pay as measured by annual income and family size. Medical or other treatment provided on behalf of the family may also be taken into account in determining ability to pay if the Department concludes that such treatment is appropriate.

In addition, the Department may provide by rule for referral of Title IV-E foster care maintenance cases to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for child support enforcement services under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act. The Department shall consider "good cause" as defined in regulations promulgated under Title IV-A of the Social Security Act, among other criteria, when determining whether to refer a case and, upon referral, the parent or guardian of the estate of a child who is receiving Title IV-E foster care maintenance payments shall be deemed to have made an assignment to the Department of any and all rights, title and interest in any support obligation on behalf of a child. The rights to support assigned to the Department shall constitute an obligation owed the State by the person who is responsible for providing the support, and shall be collectible under all applicable processes.

The acceptance of children for services or care shall not be limited or conditioned in any manner on the financial status or ability of parents or guardians to make such payments.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 505/23) (from Ch. 23, par. 5023)

Sec. 23. To make agreements with any other department, authority or commission of this State, any State university or public or private agency, to make and receive payment for services provided to or by such bodies, and with written approval by the Governor to make agreements with other states.

The Department may enter into agreements with any public or private agency determined appropriate and qualified by the Department that will participate in the cost and operation of programs, in at least 4 different communities, that provide a comprehensive array of child and family services, including but not limited to prenatal care to pregnant women, parenting education, and early childhood education services, nutrition services, and basic health services to children of preschool age and their parents who reside in service areas of the State identified by the Illinois Department of Public Health as having the highest rates of infant mortality under the Infant Mortality Reduction Act (now repealed). The Department may assume primary or full financial and administrative responsibility for any such program that has demonstrated effectiveness.

(Source: P.A. 85-502; revised 11-21-05.)

(20 ILCS 505/35.3)

Sec. 35.3. Confidentiality of foster parent identifying information.

(a) Because foster parents accept placements into their residences, it is the policy of the State of Illinois to protect foster parents' addresses and telephone numbers from disclosure. The Department shall adopt rules to effectuate this policy and provide sufficient prior notice of any authorized disclosure for foster parents to seek an order of protection under Section 2-25 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) A person to whom disclosure of a foster parent's name, address, or telephone number is made under this Section shall not redisclose that information except as provided in this Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Any person who knowingly and willfully rediscloses a foster parent's name, address, or telephone number in violation of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) The Department shall provide written notice of the provisions of subsection (b), including the penalty for a Class A misdemeanor, to anyone to whom the Department discloses a foster parent's name, address, or telephone number.

(Source: P.A. 90-15, eff. 6-13-97; 90-629, eff. 7-24-98; revised 9-25-06.)

Section 135. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 605-430 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-430)

Sec. 605-430. Funding; study. To ensure the availability of a quality health care workforce to meet present and future health care needs within the State, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity may, subject to appropriation, conduct a study of the current and projected academic training capacity in the State of Illinois specific to the nursing profession. The study shall address the current supply and demand for masters-prepared nurses as nursing school faculty and set specific goals for recruiting and training new nursing faculty throughout the region. The study shall also determine the feasibility of the State engaging in the following activities: (i) the establishment of scholarship funds and work-study programs to help recruit potential new nursing school faculty, (ii) the creation of a system to regularly review and increase nurse faculty salary and benefits to make academic practice competitive with clinical practice, and (iii) the development of career track programs for academia that offer advancement and rewards for nursing school faculty comparable to those in clinical management. The study shall include the collaborative input of hospital and other health care provider associations and public and private educational institutions from throughout the State.

Subject to the availability of State funds, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall complete the study by July 1, 2007 and shall present its findings to the General Assembly for consideration.

(Source: P.A. 94-970, eff. 6-30-06.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-435)

Sec. 605-435 605-430. Lifelong learning accounts; pilot program.

(a) The Department may establish and maintain a pilot program to provide for and test the use of lifelong learning accounts for workers in the State's healthcare sector. For the purposes of this Section, "lifelong learning account" means an individual asset account held by a trustee, custodian, or fiduciary approved by the Department on behalf of a healthcare employee, the moneys in which may be used only to pay education expenses incurred by or on behalf of the account owner.

(b) The Department, if administering a program under this Section:

(1) may serve up to 500 healthcare workers;

(2) must encourage the participation, in the program, of lower-income and lower-skilled healthcare workers;

(3) must implement the program in diverse geographic and economic areas and include healthcare workers in urban, suburban, and rural areas of the State;

(4) must include, in the program, healthcare employers of different sizes that choose to participate in the program;

(5) must provide matching grants in an amount, not to exceed $500 annually for each grant, equal to 50% of the annual aggregate contribution made by an employer and employee to the employee's lifelong learning account;

(6) must make technical assistance available to companies and educational and career advising available to individual participants.

(c) The establishment of program under this Section is discretionary on the part of the Department and is subject to appropriation.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-1006, eff. 7-3-06; revised 8-29-06.)

Section 140. The Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act is amended by renumbering Section 905 as follows:

(20 ILCS 689/95) (was 20 ILCS 689/905)

Sec. 95. 905. (Amendatory provisions; text omitted).

(Source: P.A. 93-15, eff. 6-11-03; text omitted; revised 8-1-03.)

Section 145. The Rural Diversification Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 690/2) (from Ch. 5, par. 2252)

Sec. 2. Findings and declaration of policy. The General Assembly hereby finds, determines and declares:

(a) That Illinois is a state of diversified economic strength and that an important economic strength in Illinois is derived from rural business production and the agribusiness industry;

(b) That the Illinois rural economy is in a state of transition, which presents a unique opportunity for the State to act on its growth and development;

(c) That full and continued growth and development of Illinois' rural economy, especially in the small towns and farm communities, is vital for Illinois;

(d) That by encouraging the development of diversified rural business and agricultural production, nonproduction and processing activities in Illinois, the State creates a beneficial climate for new and improved job opportunities for its citizens and expands jobs and job training opportunities;

(e) That in order to cultivate strong rural economic growth and development in Illinois, it is necessary to proceed with a plan which encourages Illinois rural businesses and agribusinesses to expand business employment opportunities through diversification of business and industries, offers managerial, technical and financial assistance to or on behalf of rural businesses and agribusiness, and works in a cooperative venture and spirit with Illinois' business, labor, local government, educational and scientific communities;

(f) That dedication of State resources over a multi-year period targeted to promoting the growth and development of one or more classes of diversified rural products, particularly new agricultural products, is an effective use of State funds;

(g) That the United States Congress, having identified similar needs and purposes has enacted legislation creating the United States Department of Agriculture/Farmers Home Administration Non-profit National Finance Corporations Loan and Grant Program and made funding available to the states consistent with the purposes of this Act.

(h) That the Illinois General Assembly has enacted "Rural Revival" and a series of "Harvest the Heartland" initiatives which create within the Illinois Finance Authority a "Seed Capital Fund" to provide venture capital for emerging new agribusinesses, and to help coordinate cooperative research and development on new agriculture technologies in conjunction with the Agricultural Research and Development Consortium in Peoria, the United States State Department of Agriculture Northern Regional Research Laboratory in Peoria, the institutions of higher learning in Illinois, and the agribusiness community of this State, identify the need for enhanced efforts by the State to promote the use of fuels utilizing ethanol made from Illinois grain, and promote forestry development in this State; and

(i) That there is a need to coordinate the many programs offered by the State of Illinois Departments of Agriculture, Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs, and Natural Resources, and the Illinois Finance Authority that are targeted to agriculture and the rural community with those offered by the federal government. Therefore it is desirable that the fullest measure of coordination and integration of the programs offered by the various state agencies and the federal government be achieved.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 150. The Department of Natural Resources Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 801/1-30)

Sec. 1-30. Badges. The Director must authorize to each Conservation Police Officer and to any other employee of the Department exercising the powers of a peace officer a distinct badge that, on its face, (i) clearly states that the badge is authorized by the Department and (ii) contains a unique identifying number. No other badge shall be authorized by the Department. Nothing in this Section prohibits the Director from issuing shields or other distinctive identification to employees not exercising the powers of a peace officer if the Director determines that a shield or distinctive identification is needed by the employee to carry out his or her responsibilities.

(Source: P.A. 93-423, eff. 8-5-03.)

(20 ILCS 801/1-35)

Sec. 1-35. 1-30. Aquifer study. The Department shall conduct a study to (i) develop an understanding of the geology of each aquifer in the State; (ii) determine the groundwater flow through the geologic units and the interaction of the groundwater with surface waters; (iii) analyze current groundwater withdrawals; and (iv) determine the chemistry of the geologic units and the groundwater in those units. Based upon information obtained from the study, the Department shall develop geologic and groundwater flow models for each underground aquifer in the State showing the impact of adding future wells or of future groundwater withdrawals.

(Source: P.A. 93-608, eff. 11-20-03; revised 1-10-04.)

Section 155. The Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-265 as follows:

(20 ILCS 805/805-265) (was 20 ILCS 805/63a39)

Sec. 805-265. Public utility easement on Tunnel Hill Bicycle Trail. The Department has the power to grant a public utility easement in the Saline Valley Conservancy Conservance District on the Tunnel Hill Bicycle Trail for construction and maintenance of a waterline, subject to terms and conditions determined by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 160. The Department of Employment Security Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1005-130 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1005/1005-130) (was 20 ILCS 1005/43a.14)

Sec. 1005-130. Exchange of information for child support enforcement.

(a) The Department has the power to exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to the contrary, the Department of Employment Security shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 165. The New Hire Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1020/35)

Sec. 35. Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid duties. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall establish a community advisory committee for oversight of the implementation process, toll-free telephone lines for employers with child support questions, an expedited hearing process for non-custodial parents who contest an employer's execution of an order for withholding and brochures and public service announcements that inform the general public about the New Hire Directory and how to utilize it, within the federal and State confidentiality laws, in pursuit of child support.

(Source: P.A. 90-425, eff. 8-15-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 170. The Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1105/15) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7415)

Sec. 15. (a) The Department, in cooperation with the Illinois Finance Authority, shall establish a program to assist units of local government, as defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act, to identify and arrange financing for energy conservation projects for buildings and facilities owned or leased by those units of local government.

(b) The Department, in cooperation with the Illinois Finance Authority, shall establish a program to assist health facilities to identify and arrange financing for energy conservation projects for buildings and facilities owned or leased by those health facilities.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-4 and 890-39), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

Section 175. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 10-8 and 10-35 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/10-8)

Sec. 10-8. The Autism Research Fund; grants; scientific review committee. The Autism Research Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. From appropriations to the Department from the Fund, the Department must make grants to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding research concerning the disorder of autism. For purposes of this Section, the term "research" includes, without limitation, expenditures to develop and advance the understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in the detection, prevention, screening, and treatment of autism and may include clinical trials. No more than 20% of the grant funds may be used for institutional overhead costs, indirect costs, other organizational levies, or costs of community-based support services.

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, income tax checkoff receipts and gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

Each year, grantees of the grants provided under this Section must submit a written report to the Department that sets forth the types of research that is conducted with the grant moneys and the status of that research.

The Department shall promulgate rules for the creation of a scientific review committee to review and assess applications for the grants authorized under this Section. The Committee shall serve without compensation.

(Source: P.A. 94-442, eff. 8-4-05.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-9)

Sec. 10-9 10-8. The Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund; grants. The Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. From appropriations to the Department from the Fund, the Department must make grants to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding research concerning the disease of diabetes. At least 50% of the grants made from the Fund by the Department must be made to entities that conduct research for juvenile diabetes. For purposes of this Section, the term "research" includes, without limitation, expenditures to develop and advance the understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in the detection, prevention, screening, and treatment of diabetes and may include clinical trials.

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, income tax checkoff receipts and gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; revised 9-27-05.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-35)

Sec. 10-35. Folic acid; public information campaign. The Department, in consultation with the Department of Public Health, shall conduct a public information campaign to (i) educate women about the benefits of consuming folic acid before and during pregnancy to improve their chances of having a healthy baby and (ii) increase the consumption of folic acid by women of child-bearing age. The campaign must include information about the sources of folic acid.

(Source: P.A. 93-84, eff. 1-1-04.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-40)

Sec. 10-40 10-35. Recreational programs; handicapped; grants. The Department of Human Services, subject to appropriation, may make grants to special recreation associations for the operation of recreational programs for the handicapped, including both physically and mentally handicapped, and transportation to and from those programs. The grants should target unserved or underserved populations, such as persons with brain injuries, persons who are medically fragile, and adults who have acquired disabling conditions. The Department must adopt rules to implement the grant program.

(Source: P.A. 93-107, eff. 7-8-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-45)

Sec. 10-45 10-35. Hispanic/Latino Teen Pregnancy Prevention and Intervention Initiative.

(a) The Department is authorized to establish a Hispanic/Latino Teen Pregnancy Prevention and Intervention Initiative program.

(b) As a part of the program established under subsection (a), the Department is authorized to award a grant to a qualified entity for the purpose of conducting research, education, and prevention activities to reduce pregnancy among Hispanic teenagers.

(Source: P.A. 93-515, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

Section 180. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by changing Sections 2, 13, 20, and 21.6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1605/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 1152)

Sec. 2. This Act is enacted to implement and establish within the State a lottery to be operated by the State, the entire net proceeds of which are to be used for the support of the State's Common School Fund, except as provided in Sections 21.2, and 21.5, and 21.6.

(Source: P.A. 94-120, eff. 7-6-05; 94-585, eff. 8-15-05; revised 8-23-05.)

(20 ILCS 1605/13) (from Ch. 120, par. 1163)

Sec. 13. Except as otherwise provided in Section 13.1, no prize, nor any portion of a prize, nor any right of any person to a prize awarded shall be assignable. Any prize, or portion thereof remaining unpaid at the death of a prize winner, may be paid to the estate of such deceased prize winner, or to the trustee under a revocable living trust established by the deceased prize winner as settlor, provided that a copy of such a trust has been filed with the Department along with a notarized letter of direction from the settlor and no written notice of revocation has been received by the Division prior to the settlor's death. Following such a settlor's death and prior to any payment to such a successor trustee, the Superintendent shall obtain from the trustee a written agreement to indemnify and hold the Department and the Division harmless with respect to any claims that may be asserted against the Department or the Division arising from payment to or through the trust. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any person pursuant to an appropriate judicial order may be paid the prize to which a winner is entitled, and all or part of any prize otherwise payable by State warrant under this Section shall be withheld upon certification to the State Comptroller from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid as provided in Section 10-17.5 of The Illinois Public Aid Code. The Director and the Superintendent shall be discharged of all further liability upon payment of a prize pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-465, eff. 1-1-04; 94-776, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-21-06.)

(20 ILCS 1605/20) (from Ch. 120, par. 1170)

Sec. 20. State Lottery Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the "State Lottery Fund". Such fund shall consist of all revenues received from (1) the sale of lottery tickets or shares, (net of commissions, fees representing those expenses that are directly proportionate to the sale of tickets or shares at the agent location, and prizes of less than $600 which have been validly paid at the agent level), (2) application fees, and (3) all other sources including moneys credited or transferred thereto from any other fund or source pursuant to law. Interest earnings of the State Lottery Fund shall be credited to the Common School Fund.

(b) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.5 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.5.

(c) (b) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.6 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.6.

(Source: P.A. 94-120, eff. 7-6-05; 94-585, eff. 8-15-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(20 ILCS 1605/21.6)

Sec. 21.6. Scratch-off for Illinois veterans.

(a) The Department shall offer a special instant scratch-off game for the benefit of Illinois veterans. The game shall commence on January 1, 2006 or as soon thereafter, at the discretion of the Director, as is reasonably practical. The operation of the game shall be governed by this Act and any rules adopted by the Department. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with any other provision of this Act, then this Section governs.

(b) The Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The net revenue from the Illinois veterans scratch-off game shall be deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly solely to the Department of Veterans Affairs for making grants, funding additional services, or conducting additional research projects relating to:

(i) veterans' post traumatic stress disorder;

(ii) veterans' homelessness;

(iii) the health insurance costs of veterans;

(iv) veterans' disability benefits, including but not limited to, disability benefits provided by veterans service organizations and veterans assistance commissions or centers; and

(v) the long-term care of veterans.

Moneys collected from the special instant scratch-off game shall be used only as a supplemental financial resource and shall not supplant existing moneys that the Department of Veterans Affairs may currently expend for the purposes set forth in items (i) through (v) (i-v).

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, net revenue from the special instant scratch-off game and from gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

For purposes of this subsection, "net revenue" means the total amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid out in the prizes and the actual administrative expenses of the Department solely related to the scratch-off game under this Section.

(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the Illinois veterans scratch-off game, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off lottery game.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-585, eff. 8-15-05; revised 9-6-05.)

Section 185. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Sections 15.2, 15.3, 18, 33.3, and 57 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/15.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15.2)

Sec. 15.2. Quality Assurance for Adult Developmental Training Services. Whenever the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services pays the cost, directly or indirectly, in whole or part, for adult developmental training day services for persons with developmental disabilities, the provider of such services shall meet minimum standards established by the Department. Such minimum standards shall become effective July 1, 1986. Interim program guidelines, established by the Department, shall be utilized for programs operational prior to July 1, 1985.

The Department shall annually certify that adult developmental training day services providers meet minimum standards. The Department may determine that providers accredited under nationally recognized accreditation programs are deemed to have met the standards established by the Department under this Section. The Department shall, at least quarterly, review the services being provided to assure compliance with the standards. The Department may suspend, refuse to renew or deny certification to any provider who fails to meet any or all such standards, as provided by rule.

For purposes of this Section, "adult developmental training day service" means services designed to help persons with developmental disabilities to develop functional skills for living in such areas as motoric development, dressing and grooming, toileting, eating, language, reading and writing, quantitative skills development, independent living and reduction of maladaptive behavior. Such programs may include services designed to improve an individual's ability to engage in productive work as defined for work activity centers in the federal Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended.

For purposes of this Section, "providers of adult developmental training day services" means any person, agency or organization that provides such services for persons with developmental disabilities as defined by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 1705/15.3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15.3)

Sec. 15.3. Quality assurance for community mental health services. Whenever the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services pays the cost, directly or indirectly, in whole or part, for community mental health services and programs provided under the Medicaid Clinic Option authorized by Title XIX of the Social Security Act, the provider of such services shall meet minimum standards established by the Department.

The Department shall annually certify that providers of community mental health services under the Medicaid Clinic Option meet minimum standards. The Department may suspend, refuse to renew or deny certification to any provider who fails to meet any or all such standards, as provided by rule.

For purposes of this Section, "community mental health services and programs" means services designed to help persons with mental illness develop skills for living, including but not limited to the following:

(1) Mental health assessment;

(2) Psychological evaluation;

(3) Interdisciplinary treatment planning;

(4) Medication monitoring and training;

(5) Individual therapy;

(6) Group therapy;

(7) Family therapy;

(8) Crisis intervention;

(9) Case management;

(10) Intensive stabilization; and

(11) Extended treatment and rehabilitation.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 1705/18) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-18)

Sec. 18. To receive, hold, distribute and use for indicated purposes and the benefit of recipients, monies and materials made available by the federal government or other agency. The Department specifically may claim federal reimbursement through the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under the "Medicaid Waiver" provisions of Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act, as amended, for providing community services to recipients of medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Department shall maintain a separate line item in its budget, entitled "Developmental Disability Community Initiative", to account for the expenditure of such monies.

(Source: P.A. 85-1209; revised 12-5-05.)

(20 ILCS 1705/33.3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-33.3)

Sec. 33.3. (a) The Department may develop an annual plan for staff training. The plan shall establish minimum training objectives and time frames and shall be based on the assessment of needs of direct treatment staff. The plan shall be developed using comments from employee representative organizations and State and national professional and advocacy groups. The training plan shall be available for public review and comment.

(b) A centralized pre-service training curriculum shall be developed for classifications of employees of State-operated facilities who have responsibility for direct patient care and whose professional training and experience does not substantially include the minimum training required under this Section, as determined by the Department. The plan shall address, at a minimum, the following areas:

(1) Crisis intervention;

(2) Communication (interpersonal theory, active listening and observing);

(3) Group process and group dynamics;

(4) Diagnosis, management, treatment and discharge planning;

(5) Psychotherapeutic and psychopharmacological psychosocial approaches;

(6) Community resources;

(7) Specialized skills for: long-term treatment, teaching activities of daily living skills (e.g., grooming), psychosocial rehabilitation, and schizophrenia and the aged, dual-diagnosed, young, and chronic;

(8) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(9) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act;

(10) Physical intervention techniques;

(11) Aggression management;

(12) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(13) Social assessment training;

(14) Suicide prevention and intervention;

(15) Tardive dyskinesia dyskensia;

(16) Fire safety;

(17) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS);

(18) Toxic substances;

(19) The detection and reporting of suspected recipient abuse and neglect; and

(20) Methods of avoiding or reducing injuries in connection with delivery of services.

(c) Each program shall establish a unit-specific orientation which details the types of patients served, rules, treatment strategies, response to medical emergencies, policies and procedures, seclusion, restraint for special need recipients, and community resources.

(d) The plan shall provide for in-service and any other necessary training for direct service staff and shall include a system for verification of completion. Pre-service training shall be completed within 6 months after beginning employment, as a condition of continued employment and as a prerequisite to contact with recipients of services, except in the course of supervised on-the-job training that may be a component of the training plan. The plan may also require additional training in relation to changes in employee work assignments and job classifications of professional and direct service staff.

Direct care staff shall be trained in methods of communicating with recipients who are not verbal, including discerning signs of discomfort or medical problems experienced by a recipient. Facility administrators also shall receive such training, to ensure that facility operations are adapted to the needs of mentally disabled recipients.

(e) To facilitate training, the Department may develop at least 2 training offices, one serving State-operated facilities located in the Chicago metropolitan area and the second serving other facilities operated by the Department. These offices shall develop and conduct the pre-service and in-service training programs required by this Section and coordinate other training required by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 86-1013; revised 10-11-05.)

(20 ILCS 1705/57) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-57)

Sec. 57. The Department of Human Services shall periodically convene a special task force of representatives of the various State agencies with related programs and services together with other interested parties and stakeholders to study and assess service needs of persons with autism. The Secretary of Human Services shall submit a report of the task force's findings and recommendations and the Secretary's priorities to the Governor and the General Assembly by September 1, 2005. The Secretary shall provide annual progress reports to the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1 of each year, beginning on January 1, 2006. The reports shall include an analysis of progress made in the following areas:

a. Early intervention services for children with autism and their parents;

b. Enhancement of family support mechanisms to enable persons with autism to remain in a home-based or community environment in the least-restrictive setting possible, including progress on the implementation of plans to provide assistance to individuals and families; the plan shall include, but not be limited to, (i) identification of the services required, (ii) the availability of services, especially those within the home community of the person with autism, (iii) the number of persons requiring the services, (iv) the cost of the services, (v) the capacity of the person with autism and his or her family to independently provide the services and the extent to which the State may support the individual and family effort, (vi) the extent of existing and planned State support, (vii) the availability and utilization of federal financial participation in the cost of services, and (viii) the outcomes and impact of services being provided;

c. Services for adequate transition for people with autism from public school programs to adult work and day programs; and

d. Plans, programs, and services under the Disabilities Services Act of 2003.

The Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall determine the availability of federal financial participation in the cost of developing a family support program, which would include medical assistance coverage for children diagnosed with autism who would otherwise qualify for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code except for family income. The program would include services to support persons with autism in their homes and communities that are not provided through local school systems, early intervention programs, or the medical assistance program under the Illinois Public Aid Code. The departments shall determine the feasibility of obtaining federal financial participation and may apply for any applicable waiver under Section 1915(c) of the federal Social Security Act.

For the purpose of this service needs review, autism means a severely incapacitating life-long developmental disability which:

a. may be manifested before a person is 30 months of age,

b. may be caused by physical disorders of the brain, and

c. is characterized by uneven intellectual development and a combination of disturbances in the rates and sequences of cognitive, affective, psychomotor, language and speech development. This syndrome is further evidenced by abnormal responses to sensory stimuli, problems in developing social relationships, and ritualistic and compulsive behavior.

(Source: P.A. 93-773, eff. 7-21-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 190. The Military Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 28.6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1805/28.6)

Sec. 28.6. Policy.

(a) A member of the Army National Guard or the Air National Guard may be ordered to funeral honors duty in accordance with this Article. That member shall receive an allowance of $100 for any day on which a minimum of 2 hours of funeral honors duty is performed. Members of the Illinois National Guard ordered to funeral honors duty in accordance with this Article are considered to be in the active service of the State for all purposes except for pay, and the provisions of Sections 52, 53, 54, 55, and 56 of the Military Code of Illinois apply if a member of the Illinois National Guard is injured or disabled in the course of those duties.

(b) The Adjutant General may provide support for other authorized providers who volunteer to participate in a funeral honors detail conducted on behalf of the Governor. This support is limited to transportation, reimbursement for transportation, expenses, materials, and training.

(c) On or after July 1, 2006, if the Adjutant General determines that Illinois National Guard personnel are not available to perform military funeral honors in accordance with this Article, the Adjutant General may authorize another appropriate organization to provide one or more of its members to perform those honors and, subject to appropriations for that purpose, shall authorize the payment of a $100 stipend to the organization.

(Source: P.A. 94-251, eff. 1-1-06; 94-359, eff. 7-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

Section 195. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2105-15 and 2105-155 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15) (was 20 ILCS 2105/60)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities. The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report. The Department shall deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other appropriate governmental agency of this State. Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by the Department may be suspended or revoked if the Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule. The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(b) The Department may, when a fee is payable to the Department for a wall certificate of registration provided by the Department of Central Management Services, require that portion of the payment for printing and distribution costs be made directly or through the Department to the Department of Central Management Services for deposit into the Paper and Printing Revolving Fund. The remainder shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 1 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act.

(f) Beginning July 1, 1995, this Section does not apply to those professions, trades, and occupations licensed under the Real Estate License Act of 2000, nor does it apply to any permits, certificates, or other authorizations to do business provided for in the Land Sales Registration Act of 1989 or the Illinois Real Estate Time-Share Act.

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facia evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order by certified and regular mail to the licensee's last known address as registered with the Department. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department shall promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) (g) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(Source: P.A. 94-452, eff. 1-1-06; 94-462, eff. 8-4-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-155) (was 20 ILCS 2105/60n)

Sec. 2105-155. Suspension or termination of medical services provider under the Public Aid Code. When the Department receives notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, as required by Section 2205-10 of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid Law (20 ILCS 2205/2205-10), that the authorization to provide medical services under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code has been suspended or terminated with respect to any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity licensed under any Act administered by the Department of Professional Regulation, the Department of Professional Regulation shall determine whether there are reasonable grounds to investigate the circumstances that resulted in the suspension or termination. If reasonable grounds are found, the Department of Professional Regulation shall conduct an investigation and take the disciplinary action against the licensee that the Department determines to be required under the appropriate licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 200. The Department of Public Aid Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing the heading of Article 2205 and Sections 2205-1, 2205-5, and 2205-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2205/Art. 2205 heading)

ARTICLE 2205. DEPARTMENT OF HEALTHCARE AND FAMILY SERVICES

PUBLIC AID

(20 ILCS 2205/2205-1)

Sec. 2205-1. Article short title. This Article 2205 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois may be cited as the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid Law.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2205/2205-5) (was 20 ILCS 2205/48a)

Sec. 2205-5. Public Aid Code. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall administer the Illinois Public Aid Code as provided in that Code.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2205/2205-10) (was 20 ILCS 2205/48b)

Sec. 2205-10. Suspension or termination of authorization to provide medical services. Whenever the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) suspends or terminates the authorization of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to provide medical services under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code and the practice of providing those services or the maintenance of facilities for those services is licensed under a licensing Act administered by the Department of Public Health or the Department of Professional Regulation, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall, within 30 days of the suspension or termination, give written notice of the suspension or termination and transmit a record of the evidence and specify the grounds on which the suspension or termination is based to the Department that administers the licensing Act under which that person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity is licensed, subject to any confidentiality requirements imposed by applicable federal or State law. The cost of any such record shall be borne by the Department to which it is transmitted.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 205. The Illinois Health Finance Reform Act is amended by changing Section 5-1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2215/5-1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6505-1)

Sec. 5-1. Mandatory Utilization Review.

(a) Except as prohibited by Federal law or regulations, any third party payor shall have the option to require utilization review for hospital admissions and continued hospital stays, except for the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for payment of hospital services for recipients of assistance under Articles V, VI, and VII of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The payor shall have the option to contract with a medical peer review organization, provided that the organization is at minimum, composed of 10% of area physicians, or the hospital to perform utilization review or to conduct its own utilization review. A medical peer review organization, as defined, may also contract with hospitals to perform reviews on a delegated basis. The utilization review process shall provide for the timely notification of patients by the third party payor or review organization that further services are deemed inappropriate or medically unnecessary. Such notification shall inform the patient that his third party payor will cease coverage after a stated period from the date of the notification. No third party payor shall be liable for charges for health care services rendered by a hospital subsequent to the end of the notification period.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as authorizing any person or third party payor, other than through the use of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or other licensed health care professionals under the supervision of said physicians, to conduct utilization review.

(b) All costs associated with utilization review under this section shall be billed to and paid by the third party payor ordering the review.

(c) Any third party payor for hospital services may contract with a hospital for a program of utilization review different than that required by this subsection, which contract may provide for the withholding and denial of payment for hospital services to a beneficiary, when such treatment is found in the course of utilization review to have been inappropriate and unwarranted in the case of that beneficiary.

(d) All records and reports arising as a result of this subsection shall be strictly privileged and confidential, as provided under Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 210. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-135, 2310-215, 2310-330, 2310-338, 2310-345, 2310-353, 2310-395, and 2310-445, by renumbering Section 371, and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2310-610 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-135) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.37)

Sec. 2310-135. Notice of suspension or termination of medical services provider under Public Aid Code. When the Department receives notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), as required by Section 2205-10 of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid Law (20 ILCS 2205/2205-10), that the authorization to provide medical services under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code has been suspended or terminated with respect to any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity licensed under any Act administered by the Department of Public Health, the Department of Public Health shall determine whether there are reasonable grounds to investigate the circumstances that resulted in the suspension or termination. If such reasonable grounds are found, the Department of Public Health shall conduct an investigation and take disciplinary action against the licensee that the Department determines to be required under the appropriate licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-215) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.62)

Sec. 2310-215. Center for Minority Health Services.

(a) The Department shall establish a Center for Minority Health Services to advise the Department on matters pertaining to the health needs of minority populations within the State.

(b) The Center shall have the following duties:

(1) To assist in the assessment of the health needs of minority populations in the State.

(2) To recommend treatment methods and programs that are sensitive and relevant to the unique linguistic, cultural, and ethnic characteristics of minority populations.

(3) To provide consultation, technical assistance, training programs, and reference materials to service providers, organizations, and other agencies.

(4) To promote awareness of minority health concerns, and encourage, promote, and aid in the establishment of minority services.

(5) To disseminate information on available minority services.

(6) To provide adequate and effective opportunities for minority populations to express their views on Departmental policy development and program implementation.

(7) To coordinate with the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to coordinate services designed to meet the needs of minority senior citizens.

(8) To promote awareness of the incidence of Alzheimer's disease and related dementias among minority populations and to encourage, promote, and aid in the establishment of prevention and treatment programs and services relating to this health problem.

(c) For the purpose of this Section, "minority" shall mean and include any person or group of persons who are:

(1) African-American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups in Africa);

(2) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of race);

(3) Asian American (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands); or

(4) American Indian or Alaskan Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America).

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-330) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.46)

Sec. 2310-330. Sperm and tissue bank registry; AIDS test for donors; penalties.

(a) The Department shall establish a registry of all sperm banks and tissue banks operating in this State. All sperm banks and tissue banks operating in this State shall register with the Department by May 1 of each year. Any person, hospital, clinic, corporation, partnership, or other legal entity that operates a sperm bank or tissue bank in this State and fails to register with the Department pursuant to this Section commits a business offense and shall be subject to a fine of $5000.

(b) All donors of semen for purposes of artificial insemination, or donors of corneas, bones, organs, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them in the human body, shall be tested for evidence of exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) at the time of or after the donation but prior to the semen, corneas, bones, organs, or other human tissue being made available for that use. However, when in the opinion of the attending physician the life of a recipient of a bone, organ, or other human tissue donation would be jeopardized by delays caused by testing for evidence of exposure to HIV and any other causative agent of AIDS, testing shall not be required.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c-5), no person may intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or negligently use the semen, corneas, bones, organs, or other human tissue of a donor unless the requirements of subsection (b) have been met. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c-5), no person may intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or negligently use the semen, corneas, bones, organs, or other human tissue of a donor who has tested positive for exposure to HIV or any other identified causative agent of AIDS. Violation of this subsection (c) shall be a Class 4 felony.

(c-5) It is not a violation of this Section for a person to perform a solid organ transplant of an organ from an HIV infected donor to a person who has tested positive for exposure to HIV or any other identified causative agent of AIDS and who is in immediate threat of death unless the transplant is performed. A tissue bank that provides an organ from an HIV infected donor under this subsection (c-5) may not be criminally or civilly liable for the furnishing of that organ under this subsection (c-5).

(d) For the purposes of this Section:

"Human tissue" shall not be construed to mean organs or whole blood or its component parts.

"Tissue bank" has the same meaning as set forth in the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act.

"Solid organ transplant" means the surgical transplantation of internal organs including, but not limited to, the liver, kidney, pancreas, lungs, or heart. "Solid organ transplant" does not mean a bone marrow based transplant or a blood transfusion.

"HIV infected donor" means a deceased donor who was infected with HIV or a living donor known to be infected with HIV and who is willing to donate a part or all of one or more of his or her organs. A determination of the donor's HIV infection is made by the donor's medical history or by specific tests that document HIV infection, such as HIV RNA or DNA, or by antibodies to HIV.

(Source: P.A. 93-737, eff. 7-15-04; 93-794, eff. 7-22-04; revised 10-25-04.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-338)

Sec. 2310-338. Asthma prevention and control program.

(a) Subject to appropriations for this purpose, the Department shall establish an asthma prevention and control program to provide leadership in Illinois for and coordination of asthma prevention and intervention activities. The program may include, but need not be limited to, the following features:

(1) Monitoring of asthma prevalence in the State.

(2) Education and training of health care professionals concerning the current methods of diagnosing and treating asthma.

(3) Patient and family education concerning the management of asthma.

(4) Dissemination of information on programs shown to reduce hospitalization, emergency room visits, and absenteeism due to asthma.

(5) Consultation with and support of community-based asthma prevention and control programs.

(6) Monitoring of environmental hazards or exposures, or both, that may increase the incidence of asthma.

(b) In implementing the program established under subsection (a), the Department shall consult with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the State Board of Education. In addition, the Department shall seek advice from other organizations and public and private entities concerned about the prevention and treatment of asthma.

(c) The Department may accept federal funding and grants, and may contract for work with outside vendors or individuals, for the purpose of implementing the program established under subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 93-1015, eff. 8-24-0; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-345) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.49)

Sec. 2310-345. Breast cancer; written summary regarding early detection and treatment.

(a) From funds made available for this purpose, the Department shall publish, in layman's language, a standardized written summary outlining methods for the early detection and diagnosis of breast cancer. The summary shall include recommended guidelines for screening and detection of breast cancer through the use of techniques that shall include but not be limited to self-examination and diagnostic radiology.

(b) The summary shall also suggest that women seek mammography services from facilities that are certified to perform mammography as required by the federal Mammography Quality Standards Act of 1992.

(c) The summary shall also include the medically viable alternative methods for the treatment of breast cancer, including, but not limited to, hormonal, radiological, chemotherapeutic, or surgical treatments or combinations thereof. The summary shall contain information on breast reconstructive surgery, including, but not limited to, the use of breast implants and their side effects. The summary shall inform the patient of the advantages, disadvantages, risks, and dangers of the various procedures. The summary shall include (i) a statement that mammography is the most accurate method for making an early detection of breast cancer, however, no diagnostic tool is 100% effective and (ii) instructions for instructions for performing breast self-examination and a statement that it is important to perform a breast self-examination monthly.

(d) In developing the summary, the Department shall consult with the Advisory Board of Cancer Control, the Illinois State Medical Society and consumer groups. The summary shall be updated by the Department every 2 years.

(e) The summaries shall additionally be translated into Spanish, and the Department shall conduct a public information campaign to distribute the summaries to the Hispanic women of this State in order to inform them of the importance of early detection and mammograms.

(f) The Department shall distribute the summary to hospitals, public health centers, and physicians who are likely to perform or order diagnostic tests for breast disease or treat breast cancer by surgical or other medical methods. Those hospitals, public health centers, and physicians shall make the summaries available to the public. The Department shall also distribute the summaries to any person, organization, or other interested parties upon request. The summaries may be duplicated by any person, provided the copies are identical to the current summary prepared by the Department.

(g) The summary shall display, on the inside of its cover, printed in capital letters, in bold face type, the following paragraph:

"The information contained in this brochure regarding recommendations for early detection and diagnosis of breast disease and alternative breast disease treatments is only for the purpose of assisting you, the patient, in understanding the medical information and advice offered by your physician. This brochure cannot serve as a substitute for the sound professional advice of your physician. The availability of this brochure or the information contained within is not intended to alter, in any way, the existing physician-patient relationship, nor the existing professional obligations of your physician in the delivery of medical services to you, the patient."

(h) The summary shall be updated when necessary.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-19-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-353)

Sec. 2310-353. Cervical Cancer Elimination Task Force.

(a) A standing Task Force on Cervical Cancer Elimination ("Task Force") is established within the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(b) The Task Force shall have 12 members appointed by the Director of Public Health as follows:

(1) A representative of an organization relating to women and cancer.

(2) A representative of an organization providing health care to women.

(3) A health educator.

(4) A representative of a national organization relating to cancer treatment who is an oncologist.

(5) A representative of the health insurance industry.

(6) A representative of a national organization of obstetricians and gynecologists.

(7) A representative of a national organization of family physicians.

(8) The State Epidemiologist.

(9) A member at-large with an interest in women's health.

(10) A social marketing expert on health issues.

(11) A licensed registered nurse.

(12) A member of the Illinois Breast and Cervical Cancer Medical Advisory Committee.

The directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and the Secretary of Human Services, or their designees, and the Chair and Vice-Chair of the Conference of Women Legislators in Illinois, or their designees, shall be ex officio members of the Task Force. The Director of Public Health shall also consult with the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate in the designation of members of the Illinois General Assembly as ex-officio members.

Appointments to the Task Force should reflect the composition of the Illinois population with regard to ethnic, racial, age, and religious composition.

(c) The Director of Public Health shall appoint a Chair from among the members of the Task Force. The Task Force shall elect a Vice-Chair from its members. Initial appointments to the Task Force shall be made not later than 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. A majority of the Task Force shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of its business. The Task Force shall meet at least quarterly. The Task Force Chair may establish sub-committees for the purpose of making special studies; such sub-committees may include non-Task-Force members as resource persons.

(d) Members of the Task Force shall be reimbursed for their necessary expenses incurred in performing their duties. The Department of Public Health shall provide staff and technical assistance to the Task Force to the extent possible within annual appropriations for its ordinary and contingent expenses.

(e) The Task Force shall have the following duties:

(1) To obtain from the Department of Public Health, if available, data and analyses regarding the prevalence and burden of cervical cancer. The Task Force may conduct or arrange for independent studies and analyses.

(2) To coordinate the efforts of the Task Force with existing State committees and programs providing cervical cancer screening, education, and case management.

(3) To raise public awareness on the causes and nature of cervical cancer, personal risk factors, the value of prevention, early detection, options for testing, treatment costs, new technology, medical care reimbursement, and physician education.

(4) To identify priority strategies, new technologies, and newly introduced vaccines that are effective in preventing and controlling the risk of cervical cancer.

(5) To identify and examine the limitations of existing laws, regulations, programs, and services with regard to coverage and awareness issues for cervical cancer, including requiring insurance or other coverage for PAP smears and mammograms in accordance with the most recently published American Cancer Society guidelines.

(6) To develop a statewide comprehensive Cervical Cancer Prevention Plan and strategies for implementing the Plan and for promoting the Plan to the general public, State and local elected officials, and various public and private organizations, associations, businesses, industries, and agencies.

(7) To receive and to consider reports and testimony from individuals, local health departments, community-based organizations, voluntary health organizations, and other public and private organizations statewide to learn more about their contributions to cervical cancer diagnosis, prevention, and treatment and more about their ideas for improving cervical cancer prevention, diagnosis, and treatment in Illinois.

(f) The Task Force shall submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly by April 1, 2005 and by April 1 of each year thereafter. The report shall include (i) information regarding the progress being made in fulfilling the duties of the Task Force and in developing the Cervical Cancer Prevention Plan and (ii) recommended strategies or actions to reduce the occurrence of cervical cancer and the burdens from cervical cancer suffered by citizens of this State.

(g) The Task Force shall expire on April 1, 2009, or upon submission of the Task Force's final report to the Governor and the General Assembly, whichever occurs earlier.

(Source: P.A. 93-956, eff. 8-19-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-371.5) (was 20 ILCS 2310/371)

Sec. 2310-371.5 371. Heartsaver AED Fund; grants. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Public Health has the power to make matching grants from the Heartsaver AED Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury, to any public school, public park district, public college, or public university required to have an Automated External Defibrillator pursuant to the Physical Fitness Facility Medical Emergency Preparedness Act (Colleen O'Sullivan Law). Applicants for AED grants must demonstrate that they have funds to pay 50% of the cost of the AED's for which matching grant moneys are sought. Matching grants authorized under this Section shall be limited to one AED per eligible physical fitness facility. The State Treasurer shall accept and deposit into the Fund all gifts, grants, transfers, appropriations, and other amounts from any legal source, public or private, that are designated for deposit into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-1085, eff. 2-14-05; revised 4-9-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-395) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.72)

Sec. 2310-395. Task Force on Organ Transplantation.

(a) There is established within the Department a Task Force on Organ Transplantation ("the Task Force"). The Task Force shall have the following 21 members:

(1) The Director, ex officio, or his or her designee.

(2) The Secretary of State, ex officio, or his or her designee.

(3) Four members, appointed one each by the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(4) Fifteen members appointed by the Director as follows: 2 physicians (at least one of whom shall have experience in organ transplantation); one representative of medical schools; one representative of hospitals; one representative of insurers or self-insurers; one representative of an organization devoted to organ donation or the coordination of organ donations; one representative of an organization that deals with tissue donation or the coordination of tissue donations; one representative from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid; one representative from the Illinois Eye Bank Community; one representative from the Illinois Hospital and Health Systems Association; one representative from the Illinois State Coroners Association; one representative from the Illinois State Medical Society; one representative from Mid-America Transplantation Services; and 2 members of the general public who are knowledgeable in areas of the Task Force's work.

(b) The Task Force shall conduct a comprehensive examination of the medical, legal, ethical, economic, and social issues presented by human organ procurement and transplantation.

(c) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly on or before January 1, of each year, and the Task Force's final report shall be filed on or before January 1, 1999. The report shall include, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) An assessment of public and private efforts to procure human organs for transplantation and an identification of factors that diminish the number of organs available for transplantation.

(2) An assessment of problems in coordinating the procurement of viable human organs and tissue including skin and bones.

(3) Recommendations for the education and training of health professionals, including physicians, nurses, and hospital and emergency care personnel, with respect to organ procurement.

(4) Recommendations for the education of the general public, the clergy, law enforcement officers, members of local fire departments, and other agencies and individuals that may be instrumental in affecting organ procurement.

(5) Recommendations for ensuring equitable access by patients to organ transplantation and for ensuring the equitable allocation of donated organs among transplant centers and among patients medically qualified for an organ transplant.

(6) An identification of barriers to the donation of organs to patients (with special emphasis on pediatric patients), including an assessment of each of the following:

(A) Barriers to the improved identification of organ donors and their families and organ recipients.

(B) The number of potential organ donors and their geographical distribution.

(C) Current health care services provided for patients who need organ transplantation and organ procurement procedures, systems, and programs that affect those patients.

(D) Cultural factors affecting the facility with respect to the donation of the organs.

(E) Ethical and economic issues relating to organ transplantation needed by chronically ill patients.

(7) An analysis of the factors involved in insurance reimbursement for transplant procedures by private insurers and the public sector.

(8) An analysis of the manner in which organ transplantation technology is diffused among and adopted by qualified medical centers, including a specification of the number and geographical distribution of qualified medical centers using that technology and an assessment of whether the number of centers using that technology is sufficient or excessive and whether the public has sufficient access to medical procedures using that technology.

(9) Recommendations for legislative changes necessary to make organ transplants more readily available to Illinois citizens.

(d) The Director of Public Health shall review the progress of the Task Force to determine the need for its continuance, and the Director shall report this determination to the Governor and the General Assembly on or before January 1, 1999.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-445) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.71)

Sec. 2310-445. Interagency council on health care for pregnant women and infants.

(a) On or before January 1, 1994, the Director, in cooperation with the Director of Public Aid (now Director of Healthcare and Family Services), the Director of Children and Family Services, the Director of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, and the Director of Insurance, shall develop and submit to the Governor a proposal for consolidating all existing health programs required by law for pregnant women and infants into one comprehensive plan to be implemented by one or several agencies. The proposal shall:

(1) include a time schedule for implementing the plan;

(2) provide a cost estimate of the plan;

(3) identify federal waivers necessary to implement the plan;

(4) examine innovative programs; and

(5) identify sources of funding for the plan.

(b) The plan developed under subsection (a) shall provide the following services statewide:

(1) Comprehensive prenatal services for all pregnant women who qualify for existing programs through the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services) or the Department of Public Health or any other government-funded programs.

(2) Comprehensive medical care for all infants under 1 year of age.

(3) A case management system under which each family with a child under the plan is assigned a case manager and under which every reasonable effort is made to assure continuity of case management and access to other appropriate social services.

(4) Services regardless of and fees for services based on clients' ability to pay.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-610)

Sec. 2310-610. Rules; public health preparedness. The Department shall adopt and implement rules, contact lists, and response plans governing public health preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 93-829, eff. 7-28-04.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-630)

Sec. 2310-630 2310-610. Influenza vaccinations.

(a) As used in this Section, "eligible individual" means a resident of Illinois who: (1) is not entitled to receive an influenza vaccination at no cost as a benefit under a plan of health insurance, a managed care plan, or a plan provided by a health maintenance organization, a health services plan corporation, or a similar entity; and (2) meets the requirements established by the Department of Public Health by rule.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Public Health shall establish and administer a program under which any eligible individual shall, upon the eligible individual's request, receive an influenza vaccination once each year at no cost to the eligible individual.

(c) The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules for the administration and operation of the program, including but not limited to: determination of the influenza vaccine formulation to be administered and the method of administration; eligibility requirements and eligibility determinations; and standards and criteria for acquisition and distribution of influenza vaccine and related supplies. The Department may enter into contracts or agreements with public or private entities for the performance of such duties under the program as the Department may deem appropriate to carry out this Section and its rules adopted under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-943, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-5-04.)

Section 215. The Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2405/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 3434)

Sec. 3. Powers and duties. The Department shall have the powers and duties enumerated herein:

(a) To co-operate with the federal government in the administration of the provisions of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, and of the federal Social Security Act to the extent and in the manner provided in these Acts.

(b) To prescribe and supervise such courses of vocational training and provide such other services as may be necessary for the habilitation and rehabilitation of persons with one or more disabilities, including the administrative activities under subsection (e) of this Section, and to co-operate with State and local school authorities and other recognized agencies engaged in habilitation, rehabilitation and comprehensive rehabilitation services; and to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services regarding the care and education of children with one or more disabilities.

(c) (Blank).

(d) To report in writing, to the Governor, annually on or before the first day of December, and at such other times and in such manner and upon such subjects as the Governor may require. The annual report shall contain (1) a statement of the existing condition of comprehensive rehabilitation services, habilitation and rehabilitation in the State; (2) a statement of suggestions and recommendations with reference to the development of comprehensive rehabilitation services, habilitation and rehabilitation in the State; and (3) an itemized statement of the amounts of money received from federal, State and other sources, and of the objects and purposes to which the respective items of these several amounts have been devoted.

(e) (Blank).

(f) To establish a program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization of persons with Alzheimer's disease and related disorders or persons in need of long term care who are established as blind or disabled as defined by the Social Security Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes or other living arrangements. Such preventive services may include, but are not limited to, any or all of the following:

(1) home health services;

(2) home nursing services;

(3) homemaker services;

(4) chore and housekeeping services;

(5) day care services;

(6) home-delivered meals;

(7) education in self-care;

(8) personal care services;

(9) adult day health services;

(10) habilitation services;

(11) respite care; or

(12) other nonmedical social services that may enable the person to become self-supporting.

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services taking into consideration the unique economic and social needs of the population for whom they are to be provided. Such eligibility standards may be based on the recipient's ability to pay for services; provided, however, that any portion of a person's income that is equal to or less than the "protected income" level shall not be considered by the Department in determining eligibility. The "protected income" level shall be determined by the Department, shall never be less than the federal poverty standard, and shall be adjusted each year to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index For All Urban Consumers as determined by the United States Department of Labor. The standards must provide that a person may have not more than $10,000 in assets to be eligible for the services, and the Department may increase the asset limitation by rule. Additionally, in determining the amount and nature of services for which a person may qualify, consideration shall not be given to the value of cash, property or other assets held in the name of the person's spouse pursuant to a written agreement dividing marital property into equal but separate shares or pursuant to a transfer of the person's interest in a home to his spouse, provided that the spouse's share of the marital property is not made available to the person seeking such services.

The services shall be provided to eligible persons to prevent unnecessary or premature institutionalization, to the extent that the cost of the services, together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons, are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to their condition. These non-institutional services, pilot projects or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Illinois Department on Aging.

Personal care attendants shall be paid:

(i) A $5 per hour minimum rate beginning July 1, 1995.

(ii) A $5.30 per hour minimum rate beginning July 1, 1997.

(iii) A $5.40 per hour minimum rate beginning July 1, 1998.

Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act (5 ILCS 315/), personal care attendants and personal assistants providing services under the Department's Home Services Program shall be considered to be public employees and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be their employer as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before. The State shall engage in collective bargaining with an exclusive representative of personal care attendants and personal assistants working under the Home Services Program concerning their terms and conditions of employment that are within the State's control. Nothing in this paragraph shall be understood to limit the right of the persons receiving services defined in this Section to hire and fire personal care attendants and personal assistants or supervise them within the limitations set by the Home Services Program. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of personal care attendants and personal assistants for any purposes not specifically provided in this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Personal care attendants and personal assistants shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 (5 ILCS 375/).

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, as authorized by Section 4.03 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, written inter-agency agreements with the Department on Aging and the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services), to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 18 through 59 years of age shall be conducted by the Department.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient cost-sharing for services provided under this Section. The cost-sharing shall be based upon the recipient's ability to pay for services, but in no case shall the recipient's share exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Protected income shall not be considered by the Department in its determination of the recipient's ability to pay a share of the cost of services. The level of cost-sharing shall be adjusted each year to reflect changes in the "protected income" level. The Department shall deduct from the recipient's share of the cost of services any money expended by the recipient for disability-related expenses.

The Department, or the Department's authorized representative, shall recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21, blind, or permanently and totally disabled. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department and the Department on Aging shall cooperate in the development and submission of an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. Such joint report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before March 30 each year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(g) To establish such subdivisions of the Department as shall be desirable and assign to the various subdivisions the responsibilities and duties placed upon the Department by law.

(h) To cooperate and enter into any necessary agreements with the Department of Employment Security for the provision of job placement and job referral services to clients of the Department, including job service registration of such clients with Illinois Employment Security offices and making job listings maintained by the Department of Employment Security available to such clients.

(i) To possess all powers reasonable and necessary for the exercise and administration of the powers, duties and responsibilities of the Department which are provided for by law.

(j) To establish a procedure whereby new providers of personal care attendant services shall submit vouchers to the State for payment two times during their first month of employment and one time per month thereafter. In no case shall the Department pay personal care attendants an hourly wage that is less than the federal minimum wage.

(k) To provide adequate notice to providers of chore and housekeeping services informing them that they are entitled to an interest payment on bills which are not promptly paid pursuant to Section 3 of the State Prompt Payment Act.

(l) To establish, operate and maintain a Statewide Housing Clearinghouse of information on available, government subsidized housing accessible to disabled persons and available privately owned housing accessible to disabled persons. The information shall include but not be limited to the location, rental requirements, access features and proximity to public transportation of available housing. The Clearinghouse shall consist of at least a computerized database for the storage and retrieval of information and a separate or shared toll free telephone number for use by those seeking information from the Clearinghouse. Department offices and personnel throughout the State shall also assist in the operation of the Statewide Housing Clearinghouse. Cooperation with local, State and federal housing managers shall be sought and extended in order to frequently and promptly update the Clearinghouse's information.

(m) To assure that the names and case records of persons who received or are receiving services from the Department, including persons receiving vocational rehabilitation, home services, or other services, and those attending one of the Department's schools or other supervised facility shall be confidential and not be open to the general public. Those case records and reports or the information contained in those records and reports shall be disclosed by the Director only to proper law enforcement officials, individuals authorized by a court, the General Assembly or any committee or commission of the General Assembly, and other persons and for reasons as the Director designates by rule. Disclosure by the Director may be only in accordance with other applicable law.

(Source: P.A. 93-204, eff. 7-16-03; 94-252, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 220. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing Sections 10 and 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/10)

Sec. 10. Application of Act; definitions.

(a) This Act applies to persons with disabilities. The disabilities included are defined for purposes of this Act as follows:

"Disability" means a disability as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 that is attributable to a developmental disability, a mental illness, or a physical disability, or combination of those.

"Developmental disability" means a disability that is attributable to mental retardation or a related condition. A related condition must meet all of the following conditions:

(1) It must be attributable to cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other condition (other than mental illness) found to be closely related to mental retardation because that condition results in impairment of general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior similar to that of individuals with mental retardation, and requires treatment or services similar to those required for those individuals. For purposes of this Section, autism is considered a related condition.

(2) It must be manifested before the individual reaches age 22.

(3) It must be likely to continue indefinitely.

(4) It must result in substantial functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity: self-care, language, learning, mobility, self-direction, and capacity for independent living.

"Mental Illness" means a mental or emotional disorder verified by a diagnosis contained in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders-Fourth Edition, published by the American Psychiatric Association (DSM-IV), or its successor, or International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM), or its successor, that substantially impairs a person's cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning, or any combination of those, excluding (i) conditions that may be the focus of clinical attention but are not of sufficient duration or severity to be categorized as a mental illness, such as parent-child relational problems, partner-relational problems, sexual abuse of a child, bereavement, academic problems, phase-of-life problems, and occupational problems (collectively, "V codes"), (ii) organic disorders such as substance intoxication dementia, substance withdrawal dementia, Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, dementia due to HIV infection, and dementia due to Creutzfeld-Jakob disease and disorders associated with known or unknown physical conditions such as hallucinosis hallucinasis, amnestic disorders and delirium, and psychoactive substance-induced organic disorders, and (iii) mental retardation or psychoactive substance use disorders.

"Mental retardation" means significantly sub-average general intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested before the age of 22 years.

"Physical disability" means a disability as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 that meets the following criteria:

(1) It is attributable to a physical impairment.

(2) It results in a substantial functional limitation in any of the following areas of major life activity: (i) self-care, (ii) receptive and expressive language, (iii) learning, (iv) mobility, (v) self-direction, (vi) capacity for independent living, and (vii) economic sufficiency.

(3) It reflects the person's need for a combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or general care, treatment, or other services that are of lifelong or of extended duration and must be individually planned and coordinated.

(b) In this Act:

"Chronological age-appropriate services" means services, activities, and strategies for persons with disabilities that are representative of the lifestyle activities of nondisabled peers of similar age in the community.

"Comprehensive evaluation" means procedures used by qualified professionals selectively with an individual to determine whether a person has a disability and the nature and extent of the services that the person with a disability needs.

"Department" means the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Public Aid (now Department Healthcare and Family Services), the University of Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children, the Department of Children and Family Services, and the Illinois State Board of Education, where appropriate, as designated in the implementation plan developed under Section 20.

"Family" means a natural, adoptive, or foster parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the care of an individual with a disability in a family setting.

"Family or individual support" means those resources and services that are necessary to maintain an individual with a disability within the family home or his or her own home. These services may include, but are not limited to, cash subsidy, respite care, and counseling services.

"Independent service coordination" means a social service that enables persons with developmental disabilities and their families to locate, use, and coordinate resources and opportunities in their communities on the basis of individual need. Independent service coordination is independent of providers of services and funding sources and is designed to ensure accessibility, continuity of care, and accountability and to maximize the potential of persons with developmental disabilities for independence, productivity, and integration into the community. Independent service coordination includes, at a minimum: (i) outreach to identify eligible individuals; (ii) assessment and periodic reassessment to determine each individual's strengths, functional limitations, and need for specific services; (iii) participation in the development of a comprehensive individual service or treatment plan; (iv) referral to and linkage with needed services and supports; (v) monitoring to ensure the delivery of appropriate services and to determine individual progress in meeting goals and objectives; and (vi) advocacy to assist the person in obtaining all services for which he or she is eligible or entitled.

"Individual service or treatment plan" means a recorded assessment of the needs of a person with a disability, a description of the services recommended, the goals of each type of element of service, an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and a designation of the qualified professionals responsible for the implementation of the plan.

"Least restrictive environment" means an environment that represents the least departure from the normal patterns of living and that effectively meets the needs of the person receiving the service.

(Source: P.A. 93-638, eff. 12-31-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2407/20)

Sec. 20. Implementation.

(a) The Governor shall appoint an advisory committee to assist in the development and implementation of a Disabilities Services Implementation Plan that will ensure compliance by the State of Illinois with the Americans with Disabilities Act and the decision in Olmstead v. L.C., 119 S.Ct. 2176 (1999). The advisory committee shall be known as the Illinois Disabilities Services Advisory Committee and shall be composed of no more than 33 members, including: persons who have a physical disability, a developmental disability, or a mental illness; senior citizens; advocates for persons with physical disabilities; advocates for persons with developmental disabilities; advocates for persons with mental illness; advocates for senior citizens; representatives of providers of services to persons with physical disabilities, developmental disabilities, and mental illness; representatives of providers of services to senior citizens; and representatives of organized labor.

In addition, the following State officials shall serve on the committee as ex-officio non-voting members: the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee; the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; the Director of Aging or his or her designee; the Executive Director of the Illinois Housing Development Authority or his or her designee; the Director of Public Aid (now Director of Healthcare and Family Services) or his or her designee; and the Director of Employment Security or his or her designee.

The advisory committee shall select officers, including a chair and a vice-chair.

The advisory committee shall meet at least quarterly and shall keep official meeting minutes. Committee members shall not be compensated but shall be paid for their expenses related to attendance at meetings.

(b) The implementation plan must include, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) Establishing procedures for completing comprehensive evaluations, including provisions for Department review and approval of need determinations. The Department may utilize independent evaluators and targeted or sample reviews during this review and approval process, as it deems appropriate.

(2) Establishing procedures for the development of an individual service or treatment plan for each person with a disability, including provisions for Department review and authorization.

(3) Identifying core services to be provided by agencies of the State of Illinois or other agencies.

(4) Establishing minimum standards for individualized services.

(5) Establishing minimum standards for residential services in the least restrictive environment.

(6) Establishing minimum standards for vocational services.

(7) Establishing due process hearing procedures.

(8) Establishing minimum standards for family support services.

(9) Securing financial resources necessary to fulfill the purposes and requirements of this Act, including but not limited to obtaining approval and implementing waivers or demonstrations authorized under federal law.

(c) The Governor, with the assistance of the Illinois Disabilities Services Advisory Committee and the Secretary of Human Services, is responsible for the completion of the implementation plan. The Governor must submit a report to the General Assembly by November 1, 2004, which must include the following:

(1) The implementation plan.

(2) A description of current and planned programs and services necessary to meet the requirements of the individual service or treatment plans required by this Act, together with the actions to be taken by the State of Illinois to ensure that those plans will be implemented. This description shall include a report of related program and service improvements or expansions implemented by the Department since the effective date of this Act.

(3) The estimated costs of current and planned programs and services to be provided under the implementation plan.

(4) A report on the number of persons with disabilities who may be eligible to receive services under this Act, together with a report on the number of persons who are currently receiving those services.

(5) Any proposed changes in State policies, laws, or regulations necessary to fulfill the purposes and requirements of this Act.

(d) The Governor, with the assistance of the Secretary of Human Services, shall annually update the implementation plan and report changes to the General Assembly by July 1 of each year. Initial implementation of the plan is required by July 1, 2005. The requirement of annual updates and reports expires in 2008, unless otherwise extended by the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 93-638, eff. 12-31-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 225. The Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2505-65 and 2505-650 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2505/2505-65) (was 20 ILCS 2505/39b12)

Sec. 2505-65. Exchange of information.

(a) The Department has the power to exchange with any state, with any local subdivisions of any state, or with the federal government, except when specifically prohibited by law, any information that may be necessary to efficient tax administration and that may be acquired as a result of the administration of the laws set forth in the Sections following Section 95-10 and preceding Section 2505-60.

(b) The Department has the power to exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Revenue shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this subsection (b) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 2505/2505-650) (was 20 ILCS 2505/39b52)

Sec. 2505-650. Collection of past due support. Upon certification of past due child support amounts from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), the Department of Revenue may collect the delinquency in any manner authorized for the collection of any tax administered by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall notify the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid when the delinquency or any portion of the delinquency has been collected under this Section. Any child support delinquency collected by the Department of Revenue, including those amounts that result in overpayment of a child support delinquency, shall be deposited into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund or paid to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, at the direction of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The Department of Revenue may implement this Section through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this Section shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 90-491, eff. 1-1-98; 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-712, eff. 7-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 230. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-377 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-377) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

Sec. 2605-377. Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid; LEADS access.

(a) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is an authorized entity under this Law for the purpose of exchanging information, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, to facilitate the location of individuals for establishing paternity, and establishing, modifying, and enforcing child support obligations, pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code and Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is an authorized entity under this Section for the purpose of obtaining access to various data repositories available through LEADS, to facilitate the location of individuals for establishing paternity, and establishing, modifying, and enforcing child support obligations, pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code and Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act. The Department shall enter into an agreement with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid consistent with these purposes.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-130, eff. 1-1-98; 90-372, eff. 7-1-98; 90-590, eff. 1-1-00; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 90-793, eff. 8-14-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-760, eff. 1-1-01; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 235. The State Police Act is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/23) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.18d)

Sec. 23. The Director may appoint auxiliary State policemen in such number as he deems necessary. Such auxiliary policemen shall not be regular State policemen. Such auxiliary State policemen shall not supplement members of the regular State police in the performance of their assigned and normal duties, except as otherwise provided herein. Such auxiliary State policemen shall only be assigned to perform the following duties: to aid or direct traffic, to aid in control of natural or man made disasters, or to aid in case of civil disorder as directed by the commanding officers. Identification symbols worn by such auxiliary State policemen shall be different and distinct from those used by State policemen. Such auxiliary State policemen shall at all times during the performance of their duties be subject to the direction and control of the commanding officer. Such auxiliary State policemen shall not carry firearms.

Auxiliary State policemen, prior to entering upon any of their duties, shall receive a course of training in such police procedures as shall be appropriate in the exercise of the powers conferred upon them, which training and course of study shall be determined and provided by the Department of State Police. Prior to the appointment of any auxiliary State policeman his fingerprints shall be taken and no person shall be appointed as such auxiliary State policeman if he has been convicted of a felony or other crime involving moral turpitude.

All auxiliary State policemen shall be between the age of 21 and 60 years, and shall serve without compensation.

The Line of Duty Compensation Act "Law Enforcement Officers, Civil Defense Workers, Civil Air Patrol Members, Paramedics and Firemen Compensation Act", approved September 30, 1969, as now or hereafter amended, shall be applicable to auxiliary State policemen upon their death in the line of duty described herein.

(Source: P.A. 85-1042; revised 11-15-04.)

Section 240. The Department of Veterans Affairs Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2e and by changing Section 2.07 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/2e)

Sec. 2e. The World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund. There is created in the State treasury the World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund. The Department must make grants from the Fund for the construction of a World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial in Springfield, Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-131, eff. 7-10-03.)

(20 ILCS 2805/2f)

Sec. 2f 2e. LaSalle Veterans Home capacity.

(a) The Department finds that the Illinois Veterans Home at LaSalle requires an increase in capacity to better serve the north central region of Illinois and to accommodate the increasing number of Illinois veterans eligible for care.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall increase by at least 80 beds the capacity of the Illinois Veterans Home at LaSalle and shall request and expend federal grants for this Veterans Home addition.

(Source: P.A. 93-142, eff. 7-10-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(20 ILCS 2805/2.07) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 67.07)

Sec. 2.07. The Department shall employ and maintain sufficient and qualified staff at the veterans' homes to fulfill the requirements of this Act. The Department shall report to the General Assembly, by January 1 and July 1 of each year, the number of staff employed in providing direct patient care at their veterans' homes, the compliance or noncompliance with staffing standards established by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs for such care, and in the event of noncompliance with such standards, the number of staff required for compliance. For purposes of this Section, a nurse who has a license application pending with the State shall not be deemed unqualified by the Department if the nurse is in compliance with 225 ILCS 65/5-15(g) or 225 ILCS 65/5-15(i) 5-15(i) of the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

All contracts between the State and outside contractors to provide workers to staff and service the Anna Veterans Home shall be canceled in accordance with the terms of those contracts. Upon cancellation, each worker or staff member shall be offered certified employment status under the Illinois Personnel Code with the State of Illinois. To the extent it is reasonably practicable, the position offered to each person shall be at the same facility and shall consist of the same duties and hours as previously existed under the canceled contract or contracts.

(Source: P.A. 93-597, eff. 8-26-03; 94-703, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-15-06.)

Section 245. The Nuclear Safety Law of 2004 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3310/5)

Sec. 5. Cross references. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall exercise, administer, and enforce all rights, powers, and duties vested in Department of Nuclear Safety by the following named Acts or Sections of those Acts:

(1) The Radiation Protection Act of 1990.

(2) The Radioactive Waste Storage Act.

(3) (Blank) The Personnel Radiation Monitoring Act.

(4) The Laser System Act of 1997.

(5) The Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(6) The Radioactive Waste Compact Enforcement Act.

(7) Illinois Low-Level Radioactive Waste Management Act.

(8) Illinois Nuclear Facility Safety Act.

(9) Radioactive Waste Tracking and Permitting Act.

(10) Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(11) Uranium and Thorium Mill Tailings Control Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-1029, eff. 8-25-04; revised 11-21-05.)

Section 250. The Human Skeletal Remains Protection Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3440/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 2662)

Sec. 2. Legislative finding and intentions. The General Assembly finds that existing laws do not provide equal or adequate protection for all human graves. There is a real and growing threat to the safety and sanctity of unregistered and unmarked graves. Numerous incidents in Illinois have resulted in the desecration of human remains and vandalism to grave markers. Similar incidents have occurred in neighboring states and as a result those states have increased their criminal penalties for such conduct. There is a strong likelihood that persons engaged for personal or financial gain in the mining of prehistoric and historic Indian, pioneer, and Civil War veteran's graves will move their operations to Illinois to avoid the increased penalties being imposed in neighboring states. There is an immediate need for legislation to protect the graves of these earlier Illinoisans Illinoians from such desecration. The General Assembly intends to assure with this Act that all human burials be accorded equal treatment and respect for human dignity without reference to ethnic origins, cultural backgrounds or religious affiliations.

The General Assembly also finds that those persons engaged in the scientific study or collecting of artifacts which have not been acquired in violation of law are engaged in legitimate and worthy scientific, educational and recreational activities. This Act is not intended to interfere with the continued legitimate collecting activities or studies of such persons; nor is it intended to interfere with the normal enjoyment of private property owners, farmers, or those engaged in the development, mining or improvement of real property.

(Source: P.A. 86-151; revised 10-12-05.)

Section 255. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 801-1 and 815-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/801-1)

Sec. 801-1. Short Title. Articles 801 80 through 845 of this Act may be cited as the Illinois Finance Authority Act. References to "this Act" in Articles 801 through 845 are references to the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-16-03.)

(20 ILCS 3501/815-10)

Sec. 815-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Article, shall have the following meanings ascribed to them, except where the context clearly requires otherwise:

(a) "Property" means land, parcels or combination of parcels, structures, and all improvements, easements and franchises. ;

(b) "Redevelopment area" means any property which is a contiguous area of at least 2 acres but less than 160 acres in the aggregate located within one and one-half miles of the corporate limits of a municipality and not included within any municipality, where, (1) if improved, a substantial proportion of the industrial, commercial and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare because of a combination of any of the following factors: age; physical configuration; dilapidation; structural or economic obsolescence; deterioration; illegal use of individual structures; presence of structures below minimum code standards; excessive and sustained vacancies; overcrowding of structures and community facilities; inadequate ventilation, light, sewer, water, transportation and other infrastructure facilities; inadequate utilities; excessive land coverage; deleterious land use or layout; depreciation or lack of physical maintenance; and lack of community planning; or (2) if vacant, the sound utilization of land for industrial projects is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors: obsolete platting of the vacant land; diversity of ownership of such land; tax and special assessment delinquencies on such land; and deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas to the vacant land, or the area immediately prior to becoming vacant qualified as a redevelopment improved area; or (3) if an improved area within the boundaries of a development project is located within the corporate limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more, such area does not qualify under clause (1) but is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such area may become a redevelopment area pursuant to clause (1) because of a combination of 3 or more of the factors specified in clause (1).

(c) "Enterprise" means an individual, corporation, partnership, joint venture, trust, estate, or unincorporated association. ;

(d) "Development plan" means the comprehensive program of the Authority and the participating entity to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the project area as a redevelopment area. Each development plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish such objectives and shall include, without limitation, estimated development project costs, the sources of funds to pay costs, the nature and term of any obligations to be issued, the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the project area, an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after development and the general land uses to apply in the project area.

(e) "Development project" means any project in furtherance of the objectives of a development plan, including any building or buildings or building addition or other structures to be newly constructed, renovated or improved and suitable for use by an enterprise as an industrial project, and includes the sites and other rights in the property on which such buildings or structures are located.

(f) "Participating entity" means a municipality, a local industrial development agency or an enterprise or any combination thereof.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 260. The Illinois African-American Family Commission Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 20, and 25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3903/15)

Sec. 15. Purpose and objectives.

(a) The purpose of the Illinois African-American Family Commission is to guide the efforts of and collaborate with the Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Transportation, and others to improve and expand existing human services and educational and community development programs for African-Americans. This will be achieved by:

(1) Monitoring existing legislation and programs designed to address the needs of African-Americans in Illinois;

(2) Assisting State agencies in developing programs, services, public policies, and research strategies that will expand and enhance the social and economic well-being of African-American children and families; and

(3) Facilitating the participation of African-Americans in the development, implementation, and planning of community-based services.

The work of the Illinois African-American Family Commission shall include the use of existing reports, research and planning efforts, procedures, and programs.

(Source: P.A. 93-867, eff. 8-5-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 3903/20)

Sec. 20. Appointment; terms. The Illinois African-American Family Commission shall be comprised of 15 members who shall be appointed by the Governor. Each member shall have a working knowledge of human services, community development, and economic public policies in Illinois. The Governor shall appoint the chairperson or chairpersons.

The members shall reflect regional representation to ensure that the needs of African-American families and children throughout the State of Illinois are met. The members shall be selected from a variety of disciplines. They shall be representative of a partnership and collaborative effort between public and private agencies, the business sector, and community-based human services organizations.

Members shall serve 3-year terms, except in the case of initial appointments. One-third of initially appointed members, as determined by lot, shall be appointed to 1-year terms; 1/3 shall be appointed to 2-year terms; and 1/3 shall be appointed to 3-year terms, so that the terms are staggered. Members will serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for Commission-related expenses.

The Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Public Health, and the Department of Transportation shall each appoint a liaison to serve ex-officio on the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 93-867, eff. 8-5-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(20 ILCS 3903/25)

Sec. 25. Funding. The African-American Family Commission shall receive funding through appropriations available for its purposes made to the Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), the Department of Public Health, and the Department of Transportation.

(Source: P.A. 93-867, eff. 8-5-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 265. The Illinois Early Learning Council Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3933/10)

Sec. 10. Membership. The Illinois Early Learning Council shall include representation from both public and private organizations, and its membership shall reflect regional, racial, and cultural diversity to ensure representation of the needs of all Illinois children. One member shall be appointed by the President of the Senate, one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and other members appointed by the Governor. The Governor's appointments shall include without limitation the following:

(1) A leader of stature from the Governor's office, to serve as co-chairperson of the Council.

(2) The chief administrators of the following State agencies: State Board of Education; Department of Human Services; Department of Children and Family Services; Department of Public Health; Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid; Board of Higher Education; and Illinois Community College Board.

(3) Local government stakeholders and nongovernment stakeholders with an interest in early childhood care and education, including representation from the following private-sector fields and constituencies: early childhood education and development; child care; child advocacy; parenting support; local community collaborations among early care and education programs and services; maternal and child health; children with special needs; business; labor; and law enforcement. The Governor shall designate one of the members who is a nongovernment stakeholder to serve as co-chairperson.

In addition, the Governor shall request that the Region V office of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' Administration for Children and Families appoint a member to the Council to represent federal children's programs and services.

Members appointed by General Assembly members and members appointed by the Governor who are local government or nongovernment stakeholders shall serve 3-year terms, except that of the initial appointments, half of these members, as determined by lot, shall be appointed to 2-year terms so that terms are staggered. Members shall serve on a voluntary, unpaid basis.

(Source: P.A. 93-380, eff. 7-24-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 270. The Human Services 211 Collaboration Board Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3956/10)

Sec. 10. Human Services 211 Collaboration Board.

(a) The Human Services 211 Collaboration Board is established to implement a non-emergency telephone number that will provide human services information concerning the availability of governmental and non-profit services and provide referrals to human services agencies, which may include referral to an appropriate web site. The Board shall consist of 9 members appointed by the Governor. The Governor shall appoint one representative of each of the following Offices and Departments as a member of the Board: the Office of the Governor, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department on Aging, the Department of Employment Security, the Department of Human Rights, and the Illinois Commerce Commission. The Governor shall designate one of the members as Chairperson. Members of the Board shall serve 3-year terms and may be reappointed to serve additional terms.

(b) The Board shall establish standards consistent with the standards established by the National 211 Collaborative and the Alliance of Information and Referral Systems for providing information about and referrals to human services agencies to 211 callers. The standards shall prescribe the technology or manner of delivering 211 calls and shall not exceed any requirements for 211 systems set by the Federal Communications Commission. The standards shall be consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act, ensuring accessibility for users of Teletypewriters for the Deaf (TTY).

(Source: P.A. 93-613, eff. 11-18-03; 94-427, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 275. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 4.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 1, 2007)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities and organizations:

1. An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

2. An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act;

3. Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;

3. Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;

4. Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof;

5. Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act; and

6. An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility.

No federally owned facility shall be subject to the provisions of this Act, nor facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

No facility licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

A facility designated as a supportive living facility that is in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall not be subject to the provisions of this Act.

This Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act. However, if a demonstration project under that Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis. This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home. The Board, however, may require these dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

This Act shall not apply to the closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act that elects to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" means the Health Facilities Planning Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $6,000,000, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures; provided, however, that when a capital expenditure is for the construction or modification of a health and fitness center, "capital expenditure minimum" means the capital expenditure minimum for all other capital expenditures in effect on March 1, 2000, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Areawide health planning organization" or "Comprehensive health planning organization" means the health systems agency designated by the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services or any successor agency.

"Local health planning organization" means those local health planning organizations that are designated as such by the areawide health planning organization of the appropriate area.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Comprehensive health planning" means health planning concerned with the total population and all health and associated problems that affect the well-being of people and that encompasses health services, health manpower, and health facilities; and the coordination among these and with those social, economic, and environmental factors that affect health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

(Source: P.A. 93-41, eff. 6-27-03; 93-766, eff. 7-20-04; 93-935, eff. 1-1-05; 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; 94-342, eff. 7-26-05; revised 8-21-06.)

(20 ILCS 3960/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1154)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 1, 2007)

Sec. 4. Health Facilities Planning Board; membership; appointment; term; compensation; quorum. There is created the Health Facilities Planning Board, which shall perform the functions described in this Act.

The State Board shall consist of 5 voting members. Each member shall have a reasonable knowledge of health planning, health finance, or health care at the time of his or her appointment. No person shall be appointed or continue to serve as a member of the State Board who is, or whose spouse, parent, or child is, a member of the Board of Directors of, has a financial interest in, or has a business relationship with a health care facility.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, the term of office of each member of the State Board is abolished on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and those members no longer hold office.

The State Board shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate. Not more than 3 of the appointments shall be of the same political party at the time of the appointment. No person shall be appointed as a State Board member if that person has served, after the effective date of Public Act 93-41, 2 3-year terms as a State Board member, except for ex officio non-voting members.

The Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and the Director of Public Health, or their designated representatives, shall serve as ex-officio, non-voting members of the State Board.

Of those members initially appointed by the Governor under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, 2 shall serve for terms expiring July 1, 2005, 2 shall serve for terms expiring July 1, 2006, and 1 shall serve for a term expiring July 1, 2007. Thereafter, each appointed member shall hold office for a term of 3 years, provided that any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term and the term of office of each successor shall commence on July 1 of the year in which his predecessor's term expires. Each member appointed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall hold office until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

State Board members, while serving on business of the State Board, shall receive actual and necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence. A member of the State Board who experiences a significant financial hardship due to the loss of income on days of attendance at meetings or while otherwise engaged in the business of the State Board may be paid a hardship allowance, as determined by and subject to the approval of the Governor's Travel Control Board.

The Governor shall designate one of the members to serve as Chairman and shall name as full-time Executive Secretary of the State Board, a person qualified in health care facility planning and in administration. The Agency shall provide administrative and staff support for the State Board. The State Board shall advise the Director of its budgetary and staff needs and consult with the Director on annual budget preparation.

The State Board shall meet at least once each quarter, or as often as the Chairman of the State Board deems necessary, or upon the request of a majority of the members.

Three members of the State Board shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of 3 of the members of the State Board shall be necessary for any action requiring a vote to be taken by the State Board. A vacancy in the membership of the State Board shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the State Board as provided by this Act.

A State Board member shall disqualify himself or herself from the consideration of any application for a permit or exemption in which the State Board member or the State Board member's spouse, parent, or child: (i) has an economic interest in the matter; or (ii) is employed by, serves as a consultant for, or is a member of the governing board of the applicant or a party opposing the application.

(Source: P.A. 93-41, eff. 6-27-03; 93-889, eff. 8-9-04; revised 8-21-06.)

(20 ILCS 3960/4.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 1, 2007)

Sec. 4.1. Ethics laws.

(a) All State Board meetings are subject to the Open Meetings Act.

(b) The State Board is subject to the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act State Gift Ban Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-782, eff. 6-9-00; revised 8-21-06.)

Section 280. The Illinois Economic Development Board Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3965/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 3953)

Sec. 3. The board shall be composed of citizens from both the private and public sectors who are actively engaged in organizations and businesses that support economic expansion, industry enhancement and job creation. The board shall be composed of the following persons:

(a) the Governor or his or her designee;

(b) four members of the General Assembly, one each appointed by the President of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the minority leaders of the Senate and House of Representatives;

(c) 20 members appointed by the Governor including representatives of small business, minority owned companies, women owned companies, manufacturing, economic development professionals, and citizens at large.

(d) (blank);

(e) (blank);

(f) (blank);

(g) (blank);

(h) (blank);

(i) (blank);

(j) (blank);

(k) (blank);

(l) (blank);

(m) (blank).

The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall serve as an ex officio member of the board.

The Governor shall appoint the members of the board specified in subsection subsections (c) through (m) of this Section, subject to the advice and consent of the Senate, within 30 days after the effective date of this Act. The first meeting of the board shall occur within 60 days after the effective date of this Act.

The Governor shall appoint a chairperson and a vice chairperson of the board. Members shall serve 2-year terms. The position of a legislative member shall become vacant if the member ceases to be a member of the General Assembly. A vacancy in a board position shall be filled by the original appointing authority.

The board shall include representation from each of the State's geographic areas.

The board shall meet quarterly or at the call of the chair and shall create subcommittees as needed to deal with specific issues and concerns. Members shall serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for expenses.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 285. The Interagency Coordinating Committee on Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3968/15)

Sec. 15. Committee. The Illinois Coordinating Committee on Transportation is created and shall consist of the following members:

(1) The Governor or his or her designee.

(2) The Secretary of Transportation or his or her designee.

(3) The Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee.

(4) The Director of Aging or his or her designee.

(5) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or his or her designee.

(6) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or his or her designee.

(7) A representative of the Illinois Rural Transit Assistance Center.

(8) A person who is a member of a recognized statewide organization representing older residents of Illinois.

(9) A representative of centers for independent living.

(10) A representative of the Illinois Public Transportation Association.

(11) A representative of an existing transportation system that coordinates and provides transit services in a multi-county area for the Department of Transportation, Department of Human Services, Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or Department on Aging.

(12) A representative of a statewide organization of rehabilitation facilities or other providers of services for persons with one or more disabilities.

(13) A representative of a community-based organization.

(14) A representative of the Department of Public Health.

(15) A representative of the Rural Partners.

(16) The Director of Employment Security or his or her designee.

(17) A representative of a statewide business association.

(18) A representative of the Illinois Council on Developmental Disabilities.

The Governor shall appoint the members of the Committee other than those named in paragraphs (1) through (6) and paragraph (16) of this Section. The Governor or his or her designee shall serve as chairperson of the Committee and shall convene the meetings of the Committee. The Secretary of Transportation and a representative of a community-based organization involved in transportation or their designees, shall serve as co-vice-chairpersons and shall be responsible for staff support for the committee.

(Source: P.A. 93-185, eff. 7-11-03; 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-21-06.)

Section 290. The Interagency Coordinating Council Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3970/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 3832)

Sec. 2. Interagency Coordinating Council. There is hereby created an Interagency Coordinating Council which shall be composed of the Directors, or their designees, of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, Illinois Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, Illinois Department of Corrections, Illinois Department of Employment Security, and Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid; the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee; the Executive Director, or a designee, of the Illinois Community College Board, the Board of Higher Education, and the Illinois Planning Council on Developmental Disabilities; the State Superintendent of Education, or a designee; and a designee representing the University of Illinois - Division of Specialized Care for Children. The Secretary of Human Services (or the member who is the designee for the Secretary of Human Services) and the State Superintendent of Education (or the member who is the designee for the State Superintendent of Education) shall be co-chairs of the Council. The co-chairs shall be responsible for ensuring that the functions described in Section 3 of this Act are carried out.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-21-06.)

Section 295. The Illinois Council on Developmental Disabilities Law is amended by changing Section 2004.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4010/2004.5)

Sec. 2004.5. Council membership. The General Assembly intends that the reduction in the membership of the Council shall occur through attrition between the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly and January 1, 2001. In the event that the terms of 10 voting members have not expired by January 1, 2001, members of the Council serving on that date shall continue to serve until their terms expire.

(a) The membership of the Council must reasonably represent the diversity of this State. Not less than 60% of the Council's membership must be individuals with developmental disabilities, parents or guardians of children with developmental disabilities, or immediate relatives or guardians of adults with developmental disabilities who cannot advocate for themselves.

The Council must also include representatives of State agencies that administer moneys under federal laws that relate to individuals with developmental disabilities; the State University Center for Excellence in Developmental Disabilities Education, Research, and Service; the State protection and advocacy system; and representatives of local and non-governmental agencies and private non-profit groups concerned with services for individuals with developmental disabilities. The members described in this paragraph must have sufficient authority to engage in policy-making, planning, and implementation on behalf of the department, agency, or program that they represent. Those members may not take part in any discussion of grants or contracts for which their departments, agencies, or programs are grantees, contractors, or applicants and must comply with any other relevant conflict of interest provisions in the Council's policies or bylaws.

(b) Seventeen voting members, appointed by the Governor, must be persons with developmental disabilities, parents or guardians of persons with developmental disabilities, or immediate relatives or guardians of persons with mentally-impairing developmental disabilities. None of these members may be employees of a State agency that receives funds or provides services under the federal Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 1996 (42 U.S.C. 6000 et seq.), as now or hereafter amended, managing employees of any other entity that receives moneys or provides services under the federal Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 1996 (42 U.S.C. 6000 et seq.), as now or hereafter amended, or persons with an ownership interest in or a controlling interest in such an entity. Of the members appointed under this subsection (b):

(1) at least 6 must be persons with developmental disabilities;

(2) at least 6 must be parents, immediate relatives, or guardians of children and adults with developmental disabilities, including individuals with mentally-impairing developmental disabilities who cannot advocate for themselves; and

(3) 5 members must be a combination of persons described in paragraphs (1) and (2); at least one of whom must be (i) an immediate relative or guardian of an individual with a developmental disability who resides or who previously resided in an institution or (ii) an individual with a developmental disability who resides or who previously resided in an institution.

(c) Two voting members, appointed by the Governor, must be representatives of local and non-governmental agencies and private non-profit groups concerned with services for individuals with developmental disabilities.

(d) Nine voting members shall be the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, or his or her designee; the Director of Aging, or his or her designee; the Director of Children and Family Services, or his or her designee; a representative of the State Board of Education; a representative of the State protection and advocacy system; a representative of the State University Center for Excellence in Developmental Disabilities Education, Research, and Service; representatives of the Office of Developmental Disabilities and the Office of Community Health and Prevention of the Department of Human Services (as the State's lead agency for Title V of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 701 et seq.) designated by the Secretary of Human Services; and a representative of the State entity that administers federal moneys under the federal Rehabilitation Act.

(e) The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, or his or her designee, shall be a non-voting member of the Council.

(f) The Governor must provide for the timely rotation of members.

Appointments to the Council shall be for terms of 3 years. Appointments to fill vacancies occurring before the expiration of a term shall be for the remainder of the term. Members shall serve until their successors are appointed.

The Council, at the discretion of the Governor, may coordinate and provide recommendations for new members to the Governor based upon their review of the Council's composition and on input received from other organizations and individuals representing persons with developmental disabilities, including the non-State agency members of the Council. The Council must, at least once each year, advise the Governor on the Council's membership requirements and vacancies, including rotation requirements.

No member may serve for more than 2 successive terms.

(g) Members may not receive compensation for their services, but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable expenses plus up to $50 per day for any loss of wages incurred in the performance of their duties.

(h) The total membership of the Council consists of the number of voting members, as defined in this Section, excluding any vacant positions. A quorum is a simple majority of the total membership and is sufficient to constitute the transaction of the business of the Council unless otherwise stipulated in the bylaws of the Council.

(i) The Council must meet at least quarterly.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-21-06.)

Section 300. The Social Security Number Protection Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4040/10)

Sec. 10. Social Security Number Protection Task Force.

(a) The Social Security Number Protection Task Force is created. The Task Force shall consist of the following members:

(1) One member representing the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(2) One member representing the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(3) One member representing the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(4) One member representing the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(5) One member representing the Office of the Attorney General, appointed by the Attorney General;

(6) One member representing the Office of the Secretary of State, appointed by the Secretary of State;

(7) One member representing the Office of the Governor, appointed by the Governor;

(8) One member representing the Department of Natural Resources, appointed by the Director of Natural Resources;

(9) One member representing the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, appointed by the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid;

(10) One member representing the Department of Revenue, appointed by the Director of Revenue;

(11) One member representing the Department of State Police, appointed by the Director of State Police;

(12) One member representing the Department of Employment Security, appointed by the Director of Employment Security;

(13) One member representing the Illinois Courts, appointed by the Director of the Administrative Office of Illinois Courts; and

(14) One member representing the Department on Aging, appointed by the Director of the Department on Aging.

(b) The Task Force shall examine the procedures used by the State to protect an individual against the unauthorized disclosure of his or her social security number when the State requires the individual to provide his or her social security number to an officer or agency of the State.

(c) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor, the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, and the General Assembly no later than March 1, 2006.

(Source: P.A. 93-813, eff. 7-27-04; 94-611, eff. 8-18-05; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 305. The Health Care Justice Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4045/20)

Sec. 20. Adequate Health Care Task Force. There is created an Adequate Health Care Task Force. The Task Force shall consist of 29 voting members appointed as follows: 5 shall be appointed by the Governor; 6 shall be appointed by the President of the Senate, 6 shall be appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, 6 shall be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and 6 shall be appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives. The Task Force shall have a chairman and a vice-chairman who shall be elected by the voting members at the first meeting of the Task Force. The Director of Public Health or his or her designee, the Director of Aging or his or her designee, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or his or her designee, the Director of Insurance or his or her designee, and the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee shall represent their respective departments and shall be invited to attend Task Force meetings, but shall not be members of the Task Force. The members of the Task Force shall be appointed within 30 days after the effective date of this Act. The departments of State government represented on the Task Force shall work cooperatively to provide administrative support for the Task Force; the Department of Public Health shall be the primary agency in providing that administrative support.

(Source: P.A. 93-973, eff. 8-20-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 310. The Illinois State Auditing Act is amended by changing Section 3-1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 5/3-1) (from Ch. 15, par. 303-1)

Sec. 3-1. Jurisdiction of Auditor General. The Auditor General has jurisdiction over all State agencies to make post audits and investigations authorized by or under this Act or the Constitution.

The Auditor General has jurisdiction over local government agencies and private agencies only:

(a) to make such post audits authorized by or under this Act as are necessary and incidental to a post audit of a State agency or of a program administered by a State agency involving public funds of the State, but this jurisdiction does not include any authority to review local governmental agencies in the obligation, receipt, expenditure or use of public funds of the State that are granted without limitation or condition imposed by law, other than the general limitation that such funds be used for public purposes;

(b) to make investigations authorized by or under this Act or the Constitution; and

(c) to make audits of the records of local government agencies to verify actual costs of state-mandated programs when directed to do so by the Legislative Audit Commission at the request of the State Board of Appeals under the State Mandates Act.

In addition to the foregoing, the Auditor General may conduct an audit of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority, the Regional Transportation Authority, the Suburban Bus Division, the Commuter Rail Division and the Chicago Transit Authority and any other subsidized carrier when authorized by the Legislative Audit Commission. Such audit may be a financial, management or program audit, or any combination thereof.

The audit shall determine whether they are operating in accordance with all applicable laws and regulations. Subject to the limitations of this Act, the Legislative Audit Commission may by resolution specify additional determinations to be included in the scope of the audit.

In addition to the foregoing, the Auditor General must also conduct a financial audit of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority's expenditures of public funds in connection with the reconstruction, renovation, remodeling, extension, or improvement of all or substantially all of any existing "facility", as that term is defined in the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act.

The Auditor General may also conduct an audit, when authorized by the Legislative Audit Commission, of any hospital which receives 10% or more of its gross revenues from payments from the State of Illinois, Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), Medical Assistance Program.

The Auditor General is authorized to conduct financial and compliance audits of the Illinois Distance Learning Foundation and the Illinois Conservation Foundation.

As soon as practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, the Auditor General shall conduct a compliance and management audit of the City of Chicago and any other entity with regard to the operation of Chicago O'Hare International Airport, Chicago Midway Airport and Merrill C. Meigs Field. The audit shall include, but not be limited to, an examination of revenues, expenses, and transfers of funds; purchasing and contracting policies and practices; staffing levels; and hiring practices and procedures. When completed, the audit required by this paragraph shall be distributed in accordance with Section 3-14.

The Auditor General shall conduct a financial and compliance and program audit of distributions from the Municipal Economic Development Fund during the immediately preceding calendar year pursuant to Section 8-403.1 of the Public Utilities Act at no cost to the city, village, or incorporated town that received the distributions.

The Auditor General must conduct an audit of the Health Facilities Planning Board pursuant to Section 19.5 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

The Auditor General of the State of Illinois shall annually conduct or cause to be conducted a financial and compliance audit of the books and records of any county water commission organized pursuant to the Water Commission Act of 1985 and shall file a copy of the report of that audit with the Governor and the Legislative Audit Commission. The filed audit shall be open to the public for inspection. The cost of the audit shall be charged to the county water commission in accordance with Section 6z-27 of the State Finance Act. The county water commission shall make available to the Auditor General its books and records and any other documentation, whether in the possession of its trustees or other parties, necessary to conduct the audit required. These audit requirements apply only through July 1, 2007.

The Auditor General must conduct audits of the Rend Lake Conservancy District as provided in Section 25.5 of the River Conservancy Districts Act.

The Auditor General must conduct financial audits of the Southeastern Illinois Economic Development Authority as provided in Section 70 of the Southeastern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-226, eff. 7-22-03; 93-259, eff. 7-22-03; 93-275, eff. 7-22-03; 93-968, eff. 8-20-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 315. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5.545, 5.552, 5.567, 5.570, 5.571, 5.595, 5.596, 5.620, 5.625, 5.640, 5.663, and 8h and by changing Sections 6b, 6z-24, 6z-30, 6z-43, 6z-52, 6z-53, 6z-56, 6z-58, 8.42, 8.44, 8g, and 25 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.545)

Sec. 5.545. The Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-22, eff. 6-30-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.552)

Sec. 5.552. The ICCB Adult Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-49, eff. 7-9-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.567)

Sec. 5.567. The Secretary of State Police Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-501, eff. 12-19-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.570)

Sec. 5.570. The Illinois Student Assistance Commission Contracts and Grants Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-597, eff. 6-28-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.571)

Sec. 5.571. The Career and Technical Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-597, eff. 6-28-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.572)

Sec. 5.572 5.570. The Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.573)

Sec. 5.573 5.571. The Family Care Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.574)

Sec. 5.574 5.570. The Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-619, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.575)

Sec. 5.575 5.570. The McKinley Bridge Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-679, eff. 7-16-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.576)

Sec. 5.576 5.570. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 92-691, eff. 7-18-02. Repealed by P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 8-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.577)

Sec. 5.577 5.545. The Hospice Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-693, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.578)

Sec. 5.578 5.552. Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-694, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.579)

Sec. 5.579 5.570. The Public Broadcasting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-695, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.580)

Sec. 5.580 5.570. The Park District Youth Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-697, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.581)

Sec. 5.581 5.570. The Professional Sports Teams Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.582)

Sec. 5.582 5.570. The Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-702, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.583)

Sec. 5.583 5.567. The September 11th Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-704, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.584)

Sec. 5.584 5.570. The Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-706, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.585)

Sec. 5.585 5.570. The Stop Neuroblastoma Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-711, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.586)

Sec. 5.586 5.570. The Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-747, eff. 7-31-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.587)

Sec. 5.587 5.570. The Local Planning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-768, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.588)

Sec. 5.588 5.570. The Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-772, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.589)

Sec. 5.589 5.570. The Innovations in Long-term Care Quality Demonstration Grants Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-784, eff. 8-6-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.590)

Sec. 5.590 5.570. The End Stage Renal Disease Facility Licensing Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-794, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-27-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.591)

Sec. 5.591 5.570. The Restricted Call Registry Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-795, eff. 8-9-02; revised 8-27-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.592)

Sec. 5.592 5.570. The Illinois Military Family Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-886, eff. 2-7-03; revised 2-17-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.593)

Sec. 5.593 5.595. The Illinois Medical District at Springfield Income Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-870, eff. 1-3-03; revised 4-14-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.594)

Sec. 5.594 5.595. The Pension Contribution Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-2, eff. 4-7-03; revised 4-14-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.595)

Sec. 5.595. The Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-18, eff. 7-1-03; 94-86, eff. 1-1-06; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.596)

Sec. 5.596 5.595. The Emergency Public Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.597)

Sec. 5.597 5.596. The Illinois Clean Water Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.598)

Sec. 5.598 5.595. The Fire Truck Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-35, eff. 6-24-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.599)

Sec. 5.599 5.595. The Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.600)

Sec. 5.600 5.595. The Emergency Public Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-52, eff. 6-30-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.601)

Sec. 5.601 5.595. The Obesity Study and Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-60, eff. 7-1-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.602)

Sec. 5.602 5.595. The World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-131, eff. 7-10-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.603)

Sec. 5.603 5.595. The Oil Spill Response Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-152, eff. 7-10-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.604)

Sec. 5.604 5.595. The Community Senior Services and Resources Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-246, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.605)

Sec. 5.605 5.595. The Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-285, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.606)

Sec. 5.606 5.595. The Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.607)

Sec. 5.607 5.595. The State Library Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-397, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.608)

Sec. 5.608 5.595. The Responsible Fatherhood Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-437, eff. 8-5-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.609)

Sec. 5.609 5.595. The Corporate Crime Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.610)

Sec. 5.610 5.595. The TOMA Consumer Protection Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-535, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.611)

Sec. 5.611 5.595. The Debt Collection Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-570, eff. 8-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.612)

Sec. 5.612 5.595. The Help Illinois Vote Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.613)

Sec. 5.613 5.595. The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-584, eff. 8-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.614)

Sec. 5.614 5.595. The I-FLY Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-585, eff. 8-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.615)

Sec. 5.615 5.596. The Efficiency Initiatives Revolving Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.616)

Sec. 5.616 5.596. ICCB Federal Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-153, eff. 7-10-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.617)

Sec. 5.617. 5.595. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board Costs and Attorney Fees Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 1-10-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.618)

Sec. 5.618 5.595. The Tax Recovery Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-658, eff. 1-22-04; revised 1-22-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.619)

Sec. 5.619 5.620. The Capitol Restoration Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-632, eff. 2-1-04; revised 2-3-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.620)

Sec. 5.620. The Health Care Services Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-659, eff. 2-3-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.622)

Sec. 5.622 5.625. The Medicaid Provider Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-674, eff. 6-10-04; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.623)

Sec. 5.623 5.625. The Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-776, eff. 7-21-04; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.624)

Sec. 5.624 5.625. The Illinois Laboratory Advisory Committee Act Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-784, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.625)

Sec. 5.625. The Alzheimer's Disease Center Clinical Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.628)

Sec. 5.628 5.625. The Downtown Development and Improvement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-790, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.629)

Sec. 5.629 5.625. The Accessible Electronic Information Service Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-797, eff. 7-22-04, revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.630)

Sec. 5.630 5.625. The Reviewing Court Alternative Dispute Resolution Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-801, eff. 7-22-04, revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.631)

Sec. 5.631 5.625. The Professional Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.632)

Sec. 5.632 5.625. The Safe Bottled Water Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-866, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.633)

Sec. 5.633 5.625. The Food Animal Institute Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-883, eff. 8-6-04; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.634)

Sec. 5.634 5.625. The Fire Sprinkler Dormitory Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-887, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.635)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 31, 2007)

Sec. 5.635 5.625. The Technology Immersion Pilot Project Fund. This Section is repealed on August 31, 2007.

(Source: P.A. 93-901, eff. 8-10-04; 93-904, eff. 8-10-04; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.636)

Sec. 5.636 5.625. The Physical Fitness Facility Medical Emergency Preparedness Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-910, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.637)

Sec. 5.637 5.625. The Arsonist Registration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-949, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.638)

Sec. 5.638 5.625. The Mental Health Transportation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-1034, eff. 9-3-04; revised 11-8-04.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.639)

Sec. 5.639 5.625. The Vince Demuzio Memorial Colon Cancer Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-142, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-22-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.640)

Sec. 5.640. The Heartsaver AED Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-1085, eff. 2-14-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.641)

Sec. 5.641 5.640. The Fund for Child Care for Deployed Military Personnel.

(Source: P.A. 94-35, eff. 6-15-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.642)

Sec. 5.642 5.640. The State Board of Education Special Purpose Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-69, eff. 7-1-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.643)

Sec. 5.643 5.640. The Epilepsy Treatment and Education Grants-in-Aid Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-73, eff. 6-23-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.644)

Sec. 5.644 5.640. The Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.645)

Sec. 5.645 5.640. The Rental Housing Support Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-118, eff. 7-5-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.646)

Sec. 5.646 5.640. The Ticket For The Cure Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-120, eff. 7-6-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.647)

Sec. 5.647 5.640. The Sarcoidosis Research Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-141, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.648)

Sec. 5.648 5.640. The Illinois AgrAbility Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-216, eff. 7-14-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.649)

Sec. 5.649 5.640. The Computer Investment Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-262, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.651)

Sec. 5.651 5.640. The Traffic Control Signal Preemption Devices for Ambulances Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-373, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.652)

Sec. 5.652 5.640. The ICCB Instructional Development and Enhancement Applications Revolving Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-436, eff. 8-2-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.653)

Sec. 5.653 5.640. The Autism Research Checkoff Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.654)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2010)

Sec. 5.654 5.640. The Parental Participation Pilot Project Fund. This Section is repealed on December 31, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 94-507, eff. 8-8-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.655)

Sec. 5.655 5.640. The Intercity Passenger Rail Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-535, eff. 8-10-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.656)

Sec. 5.656 5.640. The Methamphetamine Law Enforcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-550, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.657)

Sec. 5.657 5.640. The Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-585, eff. 8-15-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.658)

Sec. 5.658 5.640. The Blindness Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-602, eff. 8-16-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.659)

Sec. 5.659 5.640. The Hospital Basic Services Preservation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-648, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.660)

Sec. 5.660 5.640. The Illinois Brain Tumor Research Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-649, eff. 8-22-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.661)

Sec. 5.661 5.640. The Sorry Works! Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-677, eff. 8-25-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.662)

Sec. 5.662 5.640. The Demutualization Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-686, eff. 11-2-05; revised 11-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.663)

Sec. 5.663. The Pension Stabilization Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-839, eff. 6-6-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.665)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.665 5.663. The Cigarette Fire Safety Standard Act Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-775, eff. 1-1-08; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.666)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)

Sec. 5.666 5.663. The African-American HIV/AIDS Response Fund. This Section is repealed on July 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 94-797, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.667)

Sec. 5.667 5.663. The Ambulance Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-829, eff. 6-5-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.668)

Sec. 5.668 5.663. The Financial Literacy Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-929, eff. 6-26-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.669)

Sec. 5.669 5.663. The Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-945, eff. 6-27-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.670)

Sec. 5.670 5.663. Law Enforcement Camera Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-987, eff. 6-30-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.671)

Sec. 5.671 5.663. The Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-1009, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.672)

Sec. 5.672 5.663. The Mid-America Medical District Income Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-1036, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.673)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.673 5.663. The Tattoo and Body Piercing Establishment Registration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-1040, eff. 7-1-07; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.674)

Sec. 5.674 5.663. The Gaining Early Awareness and Readiness for Undergraduate Programs Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-1043, eff. 7-24-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/6b) (from Ch. 127, par. 142b)

Sec. 6b. The gross or total proceeds, receipts and income of all the several State institutions, clinics, rehabilitation centers and services, except the Illinois Veterans Home at Quincy, derived from the Veterans' Administration for the care and treatment of veterans of World War I or World War II or those who served during the national emergency between June 25, 1950 and January 31, 1955, who are patients or residents in the State institutions, clinics, rehabilitation centers and services, shall be covered into the State treasury into the Mental Health Fund. Of the money in the United States Veterans' Bureau Fund on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, $199,800 shall be transferred to the Quincy Veterans' Home Fund and the balance shall be transferred to the Mental Health Fund.

The gross receipts of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities that are obtained for services, commodities, equipment and personnel provided to other agencies and branches of State government, to units of local government, to the government of other states or to the federal government shall be deposited with the State Treasurer for deposit into the Mental Health Fund.

The gross receipts of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities that are obtained in connection with the retention, receipt, assignment, license, sale or transfer of interests in, rights to, or income from discoveries, inventions, patents, or copyrightable works to governmental, public or private agencies or persons including units, branches, or agencies of local, State, federal and foreign governments shall be deposited with the State Treasurer for deposit into the Mental Health Fund.

Remittances from or on behalf of licensed long-term care facilities through Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) reimbursement and monies from other funds for Day Training Programs for clients with a developmental disability shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and placed in the Mental Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 88-380; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-24) (from Ch. 127, par. 142z-24)

Sec. 6z-24. There is created in the State Treasury the Special Education Medicaid Matching Fund. All monies received from the federal government due to expenditures by local education agencies for services authorized under Section 1903 of the Social Security Act, as amended, and for the administrative costs related thereto shall be deposited in the Special Education Medicaid Matching Fund. All monies received from the federal government due to expenditures by local education agencies for services authorized under Section 2105 of the Social Security Act, as amended, shall be deposited in the Special Education Medicaid Matching Fund.

The monies in the Special Education Medicaid Matching Fund shall be held subject to appropriation by the General Assembly to the State Board of Education or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for distribution to school districts, pursuant to an interagency agreement between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) and the State Board of Education or intergovernmental agreements between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) and individual local education agencies for eligible claims under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-24, eff. 7-1-99; 91-266, eff. 7-23-99; 92-10, eff. 6-11-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-30)

Sec. 6z-30. University of Illinois Hospital Services Fund.

(a) The University of Illinois Hospital Services Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The following moneys shall be deposited into the Fund:

(1) As soon as possible after the beginning of each fiscal year (starting in fiscal year 1995), and in no event later than July 30, the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall automatically transfer $44,700,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the University of Illinois Hospital Services Fund.

(2) All intergovernmental transfer payments to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by the University of Illinois made pursuant to an intergovernmental agreement under subsection (b) or (c) of Section 5A-3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(3) All federal matching funds received by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys that were deposited in the Fund.

(b) Moneys in the fund may be used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), subject to appropriation, to reimburse the University of Illinois Hospital for hospital and pharmacy services. The fund may also be used to make monthly transfers to the General Revenue Fund as provided in subsection (c).

(c) The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall automatically transfer on the last day of each month except June, beginning August 31, 1994, from the University of Illinois Hospital Services Fund to the General Revenue Fund, an amount determined and certified to the State Comptroller by the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), equal to the amount by which the balance in the Fund exceeds the amount necessary to ensure timely payments to the University of Illinois Hospital.

On June 30, 1995 and each June 30 thereafter, the State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall automatically transfer the entire balance in the University of Illinois Hospital Services Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-20, eff. 6-20-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-43)

Sec. 6z-43. Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, into which shall be deposited all monies paid to the State pursuant to (1) the Master Settlement Agreement entered in the case of People of the State of Illinois v. Philip Morris, et al. (Circuit Court of Cook County, No. 96-L13146) and (2) any settlement with or judgment against any tobacco product manufacturer other than one participating in the Master Settlement Agreement in satisfaction of any released claim as defined in the Master Settlement Agreement, as well as any other monies as provided by law. All earnings on Fund investments shall be deposited into the Fund. Upon the creation of the Fund, the State Comptroller shall order the State Treasurer to transfer into the Fund any monies paid to the State as described in item (1) or (2) of this Section before the creation of the Fund plus any interest earned on the investment of those monies. The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the Fund in the same manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the investment of pension funds other than those established under Article 3 or 4 of the Code.

(b) As soon as may be practical after June 30, 2001, upon notification from and at the direction of the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the unencumbered balance in the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund as of June 30, 2001, as determined by the Governor, into the Budget Stabilization Fund. The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the Budget Stabilization Fund in the same manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the investment of pension funds other than those established under Article 3 or 4 of the Code.

(c) In addition to any other deposits authorized by law, after any delivery of any bonds as authorized by Section 7.5 of the General Obligation Bond Act for deposits to the General Revenue Fund and the Budget Stabilization Fund (referred to as "tobacco securitization general obligation bonds"), the Governor shall certify, on or before June 30, 2003 and June 30 of each year thereafter, to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer the total amount of principal of, interest on, and premium, if any, due on those bonds in the next fiscal year beginning with amounts due in fiscal year 2004. As soon as practical after the annual payment of tobacco settlement moneys to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund as described in item (1) of subsection (a), the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund the amount certified by the Governor, plus any cumulative deficiency in those transfers for prior years.

(d) (c) All federal financial participation moneys received pursuant to expenditures from the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 91-646, eff. 11-19-99; 91-704, eff. 7-1-00; 91-797, eff. 6-9-00; 92-11, eff. 6-11-01; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-596, eff. 6-28-02; 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; revised 9-3-02.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-52)

Sec. 6z-52. Drug Rebate Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Drug Rebate Fund.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving and disbursing moneys in accordance with this Section. Disbursements from the Fund shall be made, subject to appropriation, only as follows:

(1) For payments to pharmacies for reimbursement for prescription drugs provided to a recipient of aid under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(2) For reimbursement of moneys collected by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) through error or mistake.

(3) For payments of any amounts that are reimbursable to the federal government resulting from a payment into this Fund.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) Upon notification from the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Comptroller shall direct and the Treasurer shall transfer the net State share of all moneys received by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) from drug rebate agreements with pharmaceutical manufacturers pursuant to Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, including any portion of the balance in the Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund on July 1, 2001 that is attributable to such receipts.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any premium collected by the Illinois Department from participants under a waiver approved by the federal government relating to provision of pharmaceutical services.

(4) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(Source: P.A. 92-10, eff. 6-11-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-53)

Sec. 6z-53. Downstate Emergency Response Fund.

(a) In this Section:

"Downstate county" means any county with a population of less than 250,000 with a level I trauma center.

"Trauma center" has the same meaning as in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(b) The Downstate Emergency Response Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(c) The following moneys shall be deposited into the Fund:

(1) Moneys appropriated by the General Assembly.

(2) Fees or other amounts paid to the Department of Transportation for the use of an emergency helicopter for the transportation of an individual to a trauma center located in a downstate county or for any other medical emergency response. The Department may adopt rules establishing reasonable fees and other amounts to be paid for the use of such helicopters and may collect those fees and other amounts.

(3) Gifts, grants, other appropriations, or any other moneys designated for deposit into the Fund.

(d) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Fund shall be used for the following purposes:

(1) By the Department of Transportation to purchase, lease, maintain, and operate helicopters, including payment of any costs associated with personnel or other expenses necessary for the maintenance or operation of such helicopters, (A) for emergency response transportation of individuals to trauma centers located in downstate counties and (B) to support law enforcement, disaster response, and other medical emergency response. Moneys appropriated from the Fund for these purposes shall be in addition to any other moneys used for these purposes.

(2) By the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-10, eff. 6-11-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-56)

Sec. 6z-56. The Health Care Services Trust Fund. The Health Care Services Trust Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury.

The Fund shall consist of moneys deposited, transferred, or appropriated into the Fund from units of local government other than a county with a population greater than 3,000,000, from the State, from federal matching funds, or from any other legal source.

Subject to appropriation, the moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to make payments to providers of services covered under the Medicaid or State Children's Health Insurance programs. Payments may be made out of the Fund only to providers located within the geographic jurisdiction of units of local government that make deposits, transfers, or appropriations into the Fund.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall adopt rules concerning application for and disbursement of the moneys in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-58)

Sec. 6z-58. The Family Care Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury the Family Care Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund.

(b) The Fund is created for the purposes of receiving, investing, and distributing moneys in accordance with (i) an approved waiver under the Social Security Act resulting from the Family Care waiver request submitted by the Illinois Department of Public Aid on February 15, 2002 and (ii) an interagency agreement between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) and another agency of State government. The Fund shall consist of:

(1) All federal financial participation moneys received pursuant to the approved waiver, except for moneys received pursuant to expenditures for medical services by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) from any other fund; and

(2) All other moneys received by the Fund from any source, including interest thereon.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the moneys in the Fund shall be disbursed for reimbursement of medical services and other costs associated with persons receiving such services:

(1) under programs administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid); and

(2) pursuant to an interagency agreement, under programs administered by another agency of State government.

(Source: P.A. 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; 93-20, eff. 6-20-03; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.42)

Sec. 8.42. Interfund transfers. In order to address the fiscal emergency resulting from shortfalls in revenue, the following transfers are authorized from the designated funds into the General Revenue Fund:

All such transfers shall be made on July 1, 2003, or as soon thereafter as practical. These transfers may be made notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 10-11-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.44)

Sec. 8.44. Special fund transfers.

(a) In order to maintain the integrity of special funds and improve stability in the General Revenue Fund, the following transfers are authorized from the designated funds into the General Revenue Fund: Aeronautics Fund......................................$2,186 Aggregate Operations Regulatory Fund.................$32,750 Agrichemical Incident Response Trust Fund...........$419,830 Agricultural Master Fund.............................$17,827 Air Transportation Revolving Fund...................$181,478 Airport Land Loan Revolving Fund..................$1,669,970 Alternate Fuels Fund..............................$1,056,833 Alternative Compliance Market Account Fund...........$53,120 Appraisal Administration Fund.......................$250,000 Armory Rental Fund..................................$111,538 Assisted Living and Shared Housing Regulatory Fund...$24,493 Bank and Trust Company Fund.......................$3,800,000 Capital Development Board Revolving Fund............$453,054 Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability...................$2,378,270 Charter Schools Revolving Loan Fund.................$650,721 Child Support Administrative Fund.................$1,117,266 Coal Mining Regulatory Fund.........................$127,583 Communications Revolving Fund....................$12,999,839 Community Health Center Care Fund...................$104,480 Community Water Supply Laboratory Fund..............$716,232 Continuing Legal Education Trust Fund................$23,419 Corporate Franchise Tax Refund Fund.................$500,000 Court of Claims Administration and Grant Fund........$24,949 Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund...........$18,212 DCFS Special Purposes Trust Fund.....................$77,835 Death Certificate Surcharge Fund..................$1,134,341 Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund...........................$2,000,000 Department of Children and Family Services Training Fund.....................................$1,408,106 Department of Corrections Reimbursement and Education Fund..................$2,208,323 Department of Insurance State Trust Fund.............$18,009 Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund........$359,895 Department on Aging State Projects Fund..............$10,059 Design Professionals Administration and Investigation Fund...............................$51,701 DHS Recoveries Trust Fund.........................$1,591,834 DHS State Projects Fund..............................$89,917 Division of Corporations Registered Limited Liability Partnership Fund.......$150,000 DNR Special Projects Fund...........................$301,649 Dram Shop Fund......................................$110,554 Drivers Education Fund...............................$30,152 Drug Rebate Fund.................................$17,315,821 Drug Traffic Prevention Fund.........................$22,123 Drug Treatment Fund.................................$160,030 Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund............$51,220 Drycleaner Environmental Response Trust Fund......$1,137,971 DuQuoin State Fair Harness Racing Trust Fund..........$3,368 Early Intervention Services Revolving Fund........$1,044,935 Economic Research and Information Fund...............$49,005 Educational Labor Relations Board Fair Share Trust Fund................................$40,933 Efficiency Initiatives Revolving Fund.............$6,178,298 Emergency Planning and Training Fund.................$28,845 Emergency Public Health Fund........................$139,997 Emergency Response Reimbursement Fund................$15,873 EMS Assistance Fund..................................$40,923 Energy Assistance Contribution Fund..................$89,692 Energy Efficiency Trust Fund......................$1,300,938 Environmental Laboratory Certification Fund..........$62,039 Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.$180,571 Environmental Protection Trust Fund...............$2,228,031 EPA Court Trust Fund................................$338,646 EPA Special State Projects Trust Fund...............$284,263 Explosives Regulatory Fund...........................$23,125 Facilities Management Revolving Fund..............$4,803,971 Facility Licensing Fund..............................$22,958 Family Care Fund.....................................$22,585 Federal Asset Forfeiture Fund.........................$1,871 Feed Control Fund...................................$478,234 Fertilizer Control Fund.............................$207,398 Financial Institution Fund........................$2,448,690 Firearm Owner's Notification Fund.....................$3,960 Food and Drug Safety Fund...........................$421,401 General Professions Dedicated Fund................$3,975,808 Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund......................$7,191 Governor's Grant Fund.................................$1,592 Group Workers' Compensation Pool Insolvency Fund....$136,547 Guardianship and Advocacy Fund.......................$27,289 Hazardous Waste Occupational Licensing Fund..........$14,939 Hazardous Waste Research Fund.......................$125,209 Health Facility Plan Review Fund....................$165,972 Hearing Instrument Dispenser Examining and Disciplinary Fund.....................$102,842 Home Inspector Administration Fund..................$244,503 IEMA State Projects Fund.................................$13 Illinois Beach Marina Fund (now known as the Adeline Jay Geo-Karis Illinois Beach Marina Fund)...............$177,801 Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund..............$4,024,106 Illinois Clean Water Fund.........................$1,835,796 Illinois Community College Board Contracts and Grants Fund.................................$9 Illinois Department of Agriculture Laboratory Services Revolving Fund..................$174,795 Illinois Equity Fund................................$119,193 Illinois Executive Mansion Trust Fund................$56,154 Illinois Forestry Development Fund................$1,389,096 Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund........$4,836 Illinois Gaming Law Enforcement Fund................$650,646 Illinois Habitat Endowment Trust Fund.............$3,641,262 Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.............$23,066 Illinois Historic Sites Fund........................$134,366 Illinois National Guard Armory Construction Fund.....$31,469 Illinois Rural Rehabilitation Fund....................$8,190 Illinois School Asbestos Abatement Fund.............$183,191 Illinois State Fair Fund.............................$50,176 Illinois State Podiatric Disciplinary Fund..........$317,239 Illinois Student Assistance Commission Contracts and Grants Fund.............................$5,589 Illinois Tourism Tax Fund...........................$647,749 Illinois Underground Utility Facilities Damage Prevention Fund................................$2,175 Illinois Veterans' Rehabilitation Fund..............$218,940 Industrial Hygiene Regulatory and Enforcement Fund....$3,564 Innovations in Long-Term Care Quality Demonstration Grants Fund...................$565,494 Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.................$800,000 ISAC Accounts Receivable Fund........................$26,374 ISBE GED Testing Fund...............................$146,196 ISBE Teacher Certificate Institute Fund.............$122,117 J.J. Wolf Memorial for Conservation Investigation Fund.$8,137 Kaskaskia Commons Permanent Fund.....................$79,813 Land Reclamation Fund................................$30,582 Large Business Attraction Fund......................$340,777 Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund....................$198,207 LEADS Maintenance Fund...............................$76,981 Lieutenant Governor's Grant Fund........................$188 Livestock Management Facilities Fund.................$47,800 Local Initiative Fund.............................$1,940,646 Local Tourism Fund..................................$132,876 Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund................$427,850 Monetary Award Program Reserve Fund.................$879,700 McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund....................$0 Medicaid Buy-In Program Revolving Fund..............$318,894 Medicaid Fraud and Abuse Prevention Fund.............$60,306 Medical Special Purposes Trust Fund.................$930,668 Military Affairs Trust Fund..........................$68,468 Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund................$147,477 Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Fund..............$19,673 Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund.....................$250,000 Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Trust Fund.........$1,415,361 Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund.....................$39,379 Natural Heritage Endowment Trust Fund...............$557,264 Natural Heritage Fund.................................$3,336 Natural Resources Information Fund...................$64,596 Natural Resources Restoration Trust Fund.............$63,002 Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.....................$244,815 Oil Spill Response Fund.............................$167,547 Paper and Printing Revolving Fund....................$48,476 Park and Conservation Fund........................$3,050,154 Pawnbroker Regulation Fund...........................$94,131 Pesticide Control Fund..............................$420,223 Petroleum Resources Revolving Fund...................$85,540 Police Training Board Services Fund...................$1,540 Pollution Control Board Fund.........................$23,004 Pollution Control Board Trust Fund..................$410,651 Post Transplant Maintenance and Retention Fund.......$75,100 Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund......$727,250 Professional Regulation Evidence Fund.................$2,817 Professional Services Fund...........................$46,222 Provider Inquiry Trust Fund.........................$207,098 Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund..................$7,610,631 Public Health Laboratory Services Revolving Fund.....$92,276 Public Health Special State Projects Fund...........$816,202 Public Health Water Permit Fund......................$17,624 Public Infrastructure Construction Loan Revolving Fund..................................$63,802 Public Pension Regulation Fund......................$222,433 Racing Board Fingerprint License Fund................$16,835 Radiation Protection Fund...........................$212,010 Real Estate License Administration Fund...........$1,500,000 Regulatory Evaluation and Basic Enforcement Fund.....$64,221 Regulatory Fund......................................$55,246 Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund................$14,033 Response Contractors Indemnification Fund...............$126 Rural/Downstate Health Access Fund....................$4,644 Savings and Residential Finance Regulatory Fund...$5,200,000 School District Emergency Financial Assistance Fund.$2,130,848 School Technology Revolving Loan Fund................$19,158 Second Injury Fund..................................$151,493 Secretary of State Interagency Grant Fund............$40,900 Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.......$520,200 Secretary of State Special Services Fund..........$2,500,000 Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund.............$3,400,000 Securities Investors Education Fund.................$100,000 Self-Insurers Administration Fund...................$286,964 Sex Offender Registration Fund........................$7,647 Sexual Assault Services Fund.........................$12,210 Small Business Environmental Assistance Fund.........$13,686 Snowmobile Trail Establishment Fund...................$3,124 Solid Waste Management Fund.......................$6,587,173 Sports Facilities Tax Trust Fund..................$1,112,590 State Appellate Defender Special State Projects Fund.$23,820 State Asset Forfeiture Fund..........................$71,988 State Boating Act Fund..............................$401,824 State College and University Trust Fund.............$139,439 State Crime Laboratory Fund..........................$44,965 State Fair Promotional Activities Fund................$8,734 State Garage Revolving Fund.........................$639,662 State Offender DNA Identification System Fund........$81,740 State Off-Set Claims Fund.........................$1,487,926 State Parks Fund..................................$1,045,889 State Police Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Fund....$164,843 State Police Vehicle Fund............................$22,899 State Police Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund.$199,699 State Rail Freight Loan Repayment Fund............$1,147,727 State Surplus Property Revolving Fund...............$388,284 State Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund........$1,592 State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's County Fund.$70,101 Statewide Grand Jury Prosecution Fund.................$7,645 Statistical Services Revolving Fund...............$4,847,783 Subtitle D Management Fund..........................$169,744 Tanning Facility Permit Fund.........................$64,571 Tax Compliance and Administration Fund..............$429,377 Tax Recovery Fund...................................$113,591 Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund..............$982,399 Toxic Pollution Prevention Fund......................$28,534 Underground Resources Conservation Enforcement Fund.$294,251 University Grant Fund................................$23,881 Used Tire Management Fund.........................$1,918,500 Watershed Park Fund..................................$19,786 Weights and Measures Fund.........................$1,078,121 Workers' Compensation Benefit Trust Fund............$266,574 Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund................$520,285 Working Capital Revolving Fund....................$1,404,868 Youth Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Prevention Fund.$29,995 Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund.......................$4,091

All of these transfers shall be made in equal quarterly installments with the first made on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, and with the remaining transfers to be made on October 1, January 1, and April 1, or as soon thereafter as practical. These transfers shall be made notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary.

The Governor may direct the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer to reverse the transfers previously authorized by statute to the General Revenue Fund and retransfer from the General Revenue Fund, if applicable, all or a portion of the transfers made pursuant to this subsection (a) to the following funds:

(1) the Drycleaner Environmental Response Trust Fund;

(2) the Educational Labor Relations Board Fair Share Trust Fund;

(3) the Environmental Protection Trust Fund;

(4) the Facilities Management Revolving Fund;

(5) the Illinois Forestry Development Fund;

(6) the Illinois Habitat Endowment Trust Fund;

(7) the Innovations in Long-Term Care Quality Demonstration Grants Fund;

(8) the Kaskaskia Commons Permanent Fund;

(9) the Land Reclamation Fund;

(10) the Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund;

(11) the Local Initiative Fund;

(12) the Petroleum Resources Revolving Fund;

(13) the Sports Facilities Tax Trust Fund;

(14) the State Garage Revolving Fund;

(15) the State Off-Set Claims Fund; and

(16) the DCFS Special Purposes Trust Fund.

(b) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly through June 30, 2006, when any of the funds listed in subsection (a) have insufficient cash from which the State Comptroller may make expenditures properly supported by appropriations from the fund, then the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the fund only such amount as is immediately necessary to satisfy outstanding expenditure obligations on a timely basis, subject to the provisions of the State Prompt Payment Act. All or a portion of the amounts transferred from the General Revenue Fund to a fund pursuant to this subsection (b) from time to time may be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the receiving fund into the General Revenue Fund as soon as and to the extent that deposits are made into or receipts are collected by the receiving fund.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall transfer $5,000,000 from the Communications Revolving Fund to the Hospital Basic Services Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 94-1042, eff. 7-24-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/8g)

Sec. 8g. Fund transfers.

(a) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $10,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund created by Senate Bill 1028 of the 91st General Assembly.

(b) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $25,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future created by Senate Bill 1066 of the 91st General Assembly.

(c) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on August 30 of each fiscal year's license period, the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall direct and the State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Youth Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Prevention Fund an amount equal to the number of retail liquor licenses issued for that fiscal year multiplied by $50.

(d) The payments to programs required under subsection (d) of Section 28.1 of the Horse Racing Act of 1975 shall be made, pursuant to appropriation, from the special funds referred to in the statutes cited in that subsection, rather than directly from the General Revenue Fund.

Beginning January 1, 2000, on the first day of each month, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to each of the special funds from which payments are to be made under Section 28.1(d) of the Horse Racing Act of 1975 an amount equal to 1/12 of the annual amount required for those payments from that special fund, which annual amount shall not exceed the annual amount for those payments from that special fund for the calendar year 1998. The special funds to which transfers shall be made under this subsection (d) include, but are not necessarily limited to, the Agricultural Premium Fund; the Metropolitan Exposition Auditorium and Office Building Fund; the Fair and Exposition Fund; the Standardbred Breeders Fund; the Thoroughbred Breeders Fund; and the Illinois Veterans' Rehabilitation Fund.

(e) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, but in no event later than June 30, 2000, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $15,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future.

(f) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, but in no event later than June 30, 2000, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $70,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

(f-1) In fiscal year 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $160,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

(g) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2001, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(h) In each of fiscal years 2002 through 2004, but not thereafter, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tourism Promotion Fund.

(i) On or after July 1, 2001 and until May 1, 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2002.

(i-1) On or after July 1, 2002 and until May 1, 2003, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2003.

(j) On or after July 1, 2001 and no later than June 30, 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund:

(k) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-1) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-2) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-3) On or after July 1, 2002 and no later than June 30, 2003, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund:

(l) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(m) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002 and on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(n) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,800,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund.

(o) On or after July 1, 2003, and no later than June 30, 2004, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Vehicle Inspection Fund:

(p) On or after July 1, 2003 and until May 1, 2004, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2004.

(q) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund.

(r) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,922,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(s) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2003, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,800,000 from the Statewide Economic Development Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(t) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2003, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $50,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Budget Stabilization Fund.

(u) On or after July 1, 2004 and until May 1, 2005, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2005.

(v) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2004, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(w) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2004, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,445,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(x) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on January 15, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer to the General Revenue Fund the following sums:

From the State Crime Laboratory Fund, $200,000;

From the State Police Wireless Service Emergency Fund, $200,000;

From the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund, $800,000; and

From the State Police Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund, $500,000.

(y) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law on June 30, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the designated funds into the General Revenue Fund and any future deposits that would otherwise be made into these funds must instead be made into the General Revenue Fund:

(1) the Keep Illinois Beautiful Fund;

(2) the Metropolitan Fair and Exposition Authority Reconstruction Fund;

(3) the New Technology Recovery Fund;

(4) the Illinois Rural Bond Bank Trust Fund;

(5) the ISBE School Bus Driver Permit Fund;

(6) the Solid Waste Management Revolving Loan Fund;

(7) the State Postsecondary Review Program Fund;

(8) the Tourism Attraction Development Matching Grant Fund;

(9) the Patent and Copyright Fund;

(10) the Credit Enhancement Development Fund;

(11) the Community Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Services Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund;

(12) the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Fund;

(13) the By-product Material Safety Fund;

(14) the Illinois Student Assistance Commission Higher EdNet Fund;

(15) the DORS State Project Fund;

(16) the School Technology Revolving Fund;

(17) the Energy Assistance Contribution Fund;

(18) the Illinois Building Commission Revolving Fund;

(19) the Illinois Aquaculture Development Fund;

(20) the Homelessness Prevention Fund;

(21) the DCFS Refugee Assistance Fund;

(22) the Illinois Century Network Special Purposes Fund; and

(23) the Build Illinois Purposes Fund.

(z) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(aa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $9,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(bb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,803,600 from the General Revenue Fund to the Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund.

(cc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2005 and until May 1, 2006, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2006.

(dd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on April 1, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, at the direction of the Director of Public Aid (now Director of Healthcare and Family Services), the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund amounts not to exceed $14,000,000 to the Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund.

(ee) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the Illinois Civic Center Bond Fund to the Illinois Civic Center Bond Retirement and Interest Fund.

(ff) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $1,900,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(gg) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until May 1, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2007.

(hh) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.................$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ii) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or before August 31, 2006, the Governor and the State Comptroller may agree to transfer the surplus cash balance from the General Revenue Fund to the Budget Stabilization Fund and the Pension Stabilization Fund in equal proportions. The determination of the amount of the surplus cash balance shall be made by the Governor, with the concurrence of the State Comptroller, after taking into account the June 30, 2006 balances in the general funds and the actual or estimated spending from the general funds during the lapse period. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the maximum amount that may be transferred under this subsection (ii) is $50,000,000.

(jj) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,250,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(kk) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(ll) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on the first day of each calendar quarter of the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund amounts equal to one-fourth of $20,000,000 to the Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund.

(mm) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,320,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the I-FLY Fund.

(nn) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the African-American HIV/AIDS Response Fund.

(oo) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts identified as net receipts from the sale of all or part of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission loan portfolio from the Student Loan Operating Fund to the General Revenue Fund. The maximum amount that may be transferred pursuant to this Section is $38,800,000. In addition, no transfer may be made pursuant to this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the Student Loan Operating Fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriations from the Fund estimated to be expended for the fiscal year. The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practical after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(pp) (ee) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-648, eff. 1-8-04; 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 93-1067, eff. 1-15-05; 94-58, eff. 6-17-05; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-816, eff. 5-30-06; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/8h)

Sec. 8h. Transfers to General Revenue Fund.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section and Section 8n of this Act, and (c), (d), or (e), notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, the Governor may, through June 30, 2007, from time to time direct the State Treasurer and Comptroller to transfer a specified sum from any fund held by the State Treasurer to the General Revenue Fund in order to help defray the State's operating costs for the fiscal year. The total transfer under this Section from any fund in any fiscal year shall not exceed the lesser of (i) 8% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that fiscal year or (ii) an amount that leaves a remaining fund balance of 25% of the July 1 fund balance of that fiscal year. In fiscal year 2005 only, prior to calculating the July 1, 2004 final balances, the Governor may calculate and direct the State Treasurer with the Comptroller to transfer additional amounts determined by applying the formula authorized in Public Act 93-839 to the funds balances on July 1, 2003. No transfer may be made from a fund under this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriation from that fund estimated to be expended for that fiscal year. This Section does not apply to any funds that are restricted by federal law to a specific use, to any funds in the Motor Fuel Tax Fund, the Intercity Passenger Rail Fund, the Hospital Provider Fund, the Medicaid Provider Relief Fund, the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund, the Reviewing Court Alternative Dispute Resolution Fund, the Voters' Guide Fund, the Foreign Language Interpreter Fund, the Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund, the Supreme Court Federal Projects Fund, the Supreme Court Special State Projects Fund, the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund, the Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund, the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Facility Development and Operation Fund, the Horse Racing Equity Trust Fund, or the Hospital Basic Services Preservation Fund, or to any funds to which subsection (f) of Section 20-40 of the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act applies. No transfers may be made under this Section from the Pet Population Control Fund. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for fiscal year 2004, the total transfer under this Section from the Road Fund or the State Construction Account Fund shall not exceed the lesser of (i) 5% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that fiscal year or (ii) 25% of the beginning balance in the fund. For fiscal year 2005 through fiscal year 2007, no amounts may be transferred under this Section from the Road Fund, the State Construction Account Fund, the Criminal Justice Information Systems Trust Fund, the Wireless Service Emergency Fund, or the Mandatory Arbitration Fund.

In determining the available balance in a fund, the Governor may include receipts, transfers into the fund, and other resources anticipated to be available in the fund in that fiscal year.

The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practicable after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(a-5) Transfers directed to be made under this Section on or before February 28, 2006 that are still pending on May 19, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-774) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be redirected as provided in Section 8n of this Act.

(b) This Section does not apply to: (i) the Ticket For The Cure Fund; (ii) any fund established under the Community Senior Services and Resources Act; or (iii) on or after January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-511), the Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Enforcement Fund.

(c) This Section does not apply to the Demutualization Trust Fund established under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(d) This Section does not apply to moneys set aside in the Illinois State Podiatric Disciplinary Fund for podiatric scholarships and residency programs under the Podiatric Scholarship and Residency Act.

(e) Subsection (a) does not apply to, and no transfer may be made under this Section from, the Pension Stabilization Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; 93-674, eff. 6-10-04; 93-714, eff. 7-12-04; 93-801, eff. 7-22-04; 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 93-1054, eff. 11-18-04; 93-1067, eff. 1-15-05; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-120, eff. 7-6-05; 94-511, eff. 1-1-06; 94-535, eff. 8-10-05; 94-639, eff. 8-22-05; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-648, eff. 1-1-06; 94-686, eff. 11-2-05; 94-691, eff. 11-2-05; 94-726, eff. 1-20-06; 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; 94-774, eff. 5-19-06; 94-804, eff. 5-26-06; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; revised 6-19-06.)

(30 ILCS 105/8i)

Sec. 8i 8h. Transfers between the Communications Revolving Fund and the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund. The State Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer, on March 31, 2003 or as soon as practicable thereafter, the amount of $300,000 from the Communications Revolving Fund to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund. Beginning on July 1, 2004, the State Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer, on the last day of each month, an amount equal to 50% of that day's beginning balance in the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund from the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund. These transfers shall continue until the cumulative total of transfers executed from the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund equals $300,000.

(Source: P.A. 93-506, eff. 8-11-03; revised 8-21-03.)

(30 ILCS 105/25) (from Ch. 127, par. 161)

Sec. 25. Fiscal year limitations.

(a) All appropriations shall be available for expenditure for the fiscal year or for a lesser period if the Act making that appropriation so specifies. A deficiency or emergency appropriation shall be available for expenditure only through June 30 of the year when the Act making that appropriation is enacted unless that Act otherwise provides.

(b) Outstanding liabilities as of June 30, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 2-month period ending at the close of business on August 31. Any service involving professional or artistic skills or any personal services by an employee whose compensation is subject to income tax withholding must be performed as of June 30 of the fiscal year in order to be considered an "outstanding liability as of June 30" that is thereby eligible for payment out of the expiring appropriation.

However, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code may be made by the State Board of Education from its appropriations for those respective purposes for any fiscal year, even though the claims reimbursed by the payment may be claims attributable to a prior fiscal year, and payments may be made at the direction of the State Superintendent of Education from the fund from which the appropriation is made without regard to any fiscal year limitations.

Medical payments may be made by the Department of Veterans' Affairs from its appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year.

Medical payments may be made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and medical payments and child care payments may be made by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical or child care services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year; and payments may be made at the direction of the Department of Central Management Services from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund and the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund without regard to any fiscal year limitations.

Medical payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations relating to substance abuse treatment services for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, provided the payments are made on a fee-for-service basis consistent with requirements established for Medicaid reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

Additionally, payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations, or any other State agency from its appropriations with the approval of the Department of Human Services, from the Immigration Reform and Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, without regard to any fiscal year limitations.

Further, with respect to costs incurred in fiscal years 2002 and 2003 only, payments may be made by the State Treasurer from its appropriations from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund without regard to any fiscal year limitations.

Lease payments may be made by the Department of Central Management Services under the sale and leaseback provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act with respect to the James R. Thompson Center and the Elgin Mental Health Center and surrounding land from appropriations for that purpose without regard to any fiscal year limitations.

Lease payments may be made under the sale and leaseback provisions of Section 7.5 of the State Property Control Act with respect to the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority headquarters building and surrounding land without regard to any fiscal year limitations.

(c) Further, payments may be made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of persons suffering from chronic renal disease, persons suffering from hemophilia, rape victims, and premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program, for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year.

(d) The Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(e) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid), and the Department of Human Services making fee-for-service payments relating to substance abuse treatment services provided during a previous fiscal year shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before November 30, a report that shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for (i) services provided in prior fiscal years and (ii) services for which claims were received in prior fiscal years.

(f) The Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) shall annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services (other than medical care) provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(g) In addition, each annual report required to be submitted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under subsection (e) shall include the following information with respect to the State's Medicaid program:

(1) Explanations of the exact causes of the variance between the previous year's estimated and actual liabilities.

(2) Factors affecting the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's liabilities, including but not limited to numbers of aid recipients, levels of medical service utilization by aid recipients, and inflation in the cost of medical services.

(3) The results of the Department's efforts to combat fraud and abuse.

(h) As provided in Section 4 of the General Assembly Compensation Act, any utility bill for service provided to a General Assembly member's district office for a period including portions of 2 consecutive fiscal years may be paid from funds appropriated for such expenditure in either fiscal year.

(i) An agency which administers a fund classified by the Comptroller as an internal service fund may issue rules for:

(1) billing user agencies in advance for payments or authorized inter-fund transfers based on estimated charges for goods or services;

(2) issuing credits, refunding through inter-fund transfers, or reducing future inter-fund transfers during the subsequent fiscal year for all user agency payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received during the prior fiscal year which were in excess of the final amounts owed by the user agency for that period; and

(3) issuing catch-up billings to user agencies during the subsequent fiscal year for amounts remaining due when payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received from the user agency during the prior fiscal year were less than the total amount owed for that period.

User agencies are authorized to reimburse internal service funds for catch-up billings by vouchers drawn against their respective appropriations for the fiscal year in which the catch-up billing was issued or by increasing an authorized inter-fund transfer during the current fiscal year. For the purposes of this Act, "inter-fund transfers" means transfers without the use of the voucher-warrant process, as authorized by Section 9.01 of the State Comptroller Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-885, eff. 1-13-03; 93-19, eff. 6-20-03; 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.05 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.06 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.35 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.37 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.47 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.51 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.59 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.60 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.69 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.75 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.76 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.90 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.113 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.178 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.190 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.191 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.193 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.197 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.205 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.210 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.218 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.220 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.228 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.245 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.246 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.264 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.271 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.283 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.285 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.294 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.299 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.300 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.301 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.304 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.308 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.309 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.311 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.314 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.327 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.330 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.335 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.336 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.360 (from P.A. 87-1249) rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.361 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.363 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.388 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.389 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.390 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.393 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.396 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.398 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.399 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.400 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.401 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.402 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.403 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.404 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.405 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.406 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.407 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.417 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.432 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.433 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.434 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.439 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.447 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.467 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.483 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.486 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.488 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.507 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.519 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.522 rep.)

Section 316. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Sections 5.05, 5.06, 5.35, 5.37, 5.47, 5.51, 5.59, 5.60, 5.69, 5.75, 5.76, 5.90, 5.113, 5.178, 5.190, 5.191, 5.193, 5.197, 5.205, 5.210, 5.218, 5.220, 5.228, 5.245, 5.246, 5.264, 5.271, 5.283, 5.285, 5.294, 5.299, 5.300, 5.301, 5.304, 5.308, 5.309, 5.311, 5.314, 5.327, 5.330, 5.335, 5.336, 5.360 as added by Public Act 87-1249, 5.361, 5.363, 5.388, 5.389, 5.390, 5.393, 5.396, 5.398, 5.399, 5.400, 5.401, 5.402, 5.403, 5.404, 5.405, 5.406, 5.407, 5.417, 5.432, 5.433, 5.434, 5.439, 5.447, 5.467, 5.483, 5.486, 5.488, 5.507, 5.519, and 5.522.

(30 ILCS 105/5.230 rep.)

Section 317. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Section 5.230.

Section 320. The Illinois State Collection Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 5 and 10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 210/5) (from Ch. 15, par. 155)

Sec. 5. Rules; payment plans; offsets.

(a) Until July 1, 2004 for the Department of Public Aid and July 1, 2005 for Universities and all other State agencies, State agencies shall adopt rules establishing formal due dates for amounts owing to the State and for the referral of seriously past due accounts to private collection agencies, unless otherwise expressly provided by law or rule, except that on and after July 1, 2005, the Department of Employment Security may continue to refer to private collection agencies past due amounts that are exempt from subsection (g). Such procedures shall be established in accord with sound business practices.

(b) Until July 1, 2004 for the Department of Public Aid and July 1, 2005 for Universities and all other State agencies, agencies may enter deferred payment plans for debtors of the agency and documentation of this fact retained by the agency, where the deferred payment plan is likely to increase the net amount collected by the State, except that, on and after July 1, 2005, the Department of Employment Security may continue to enter deferred payment plans for debts that are exempt from subsection (g).

(c) Until July 1, 2004 for the Department of Public Aid and July 1, 2005 for Universities and all other State agencies, State agencies may use the Comptroller's Offset System provided in Section 10.05 of the State Comptroller Act for the collection of debts owed to the agency, except that, on and after July 1, 2005, the Department of Employment Security may continue to use the Comptroller's offset system to collect amounts that are exempt from subsection (g). All debts that exceed $1,000 and are more than 90 days past due shall be placed in the Comptroller's Offset System, unless the State agency shall have entered into a deferred payment plan or demonstrates to the Comptroller's satisfaction that referral for offset is not cost effective.

(d) State agencies shall develop internal procedures whereby agency initiated payments to its debtors may be offset without referral to the Comptroller's Offset System.

(e) State agencies or the Comptroller may remove claims from the Comptroller's Offset System, where such claims have been inactive for more than one year.

(f) State agencies may use the Comptroller's Offset System to determine if any State agency is attempting to collect debt from a contractor, bidder, or other proposed contracting party.

(g) Beginning July 1, 2004 for the Departments of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) and Employment Security and July 1, 2005 for Universities and other State agencies, State agencies shall refer to the Department of Revenue Debt Collection Bureau (the Bureau) all debt to the State, provided that the debt satisfies the requirements for referral of delinquent debt as established by rule by the Department of Revenue.

(h) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section with regard to child support debts, the collection of which is governed by the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may refer child support debts to the Bureau, provided that the debt satisfies the requirements for referral of delinquent debt as established by rule by the Department of Revenue. The Bureau shall use all legal means available to collect child support debt, including those authorizing the Department of Revenue to collect debt and those authorizing the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to collect debt. All such referred debt shall remain an obligation under the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's Child Support Enforcement Program subject to the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act, including the continued use of federally mandated enforcement remedies and techniques by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(h-1) The Department of Employment Security is exempt from subsection (g) with regard to debts to any federal account, including but not limited to the Unemployment Trust Fund, and penalties and interest assessed under the Unemployment Insurance Act. The Department of Employment Security may refer those debts to the Bureau, provided the debt satisfies the requirements for referral of delinquent debt as established by rule by the Department of Revenue. The Bureau shall use all legal means available to collect the debts, including those authorizing the Department of Revenue to collect debt and those authorizing the Department of Employment Security to collect debt. All referred debt shall remain an obligation to the account to which it is owed.

(i) All debt referred to the Bureau for collection shall remain the property of the referring agency. The Bureau shall collect debt on behalf of the referring agency using all legal means available, including those authorizing the Department of Revenue to collect debt and those authorizing the referring agency to collect debt.

(j) No debt secured by an interest in real property granted by the debtor in exchange for the creation of the debt shall be referred to the Bureau. The Bureau shall have no obligation to collect debts secured by an interest in real property.

(k) Beginning July 1, 2003, each agency shall collect and provide the Bureau information regarding the nature and details of its debt in such form and manner as the Department of Revenue shall require.

(l) For all debt accruing after July 1, 2003, each agency shall collect and transmit such debtor identification information as the Department of Revenue shall require.

(Source: P.A. 92-404, eff. 7-1-02; 93-570, eff. 8-20-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 210/10)

Sec. 10. Department of Revenue Debt Collection Bureau to assume collection duties.

(a) The Department of Revenue's Debt Collection Bureau shall serve as the primary debt collecting entity for the State and in that role shall collect debts on behalf of agencies of the State. All debts owed the State of Illinois shall be referred to the Bureau, subject to such limitations as the Department of Revenue shall by rule establish. The Bureau shall utilize the Comptroller's offset system and private collection agencies, as well as its own collections personnel. The Bureau shall collect debt using all legal authority available to the Department of Revenue to collect debt and all legal authority available to the referring agency.

(b) The Bureau shall have the sole authority to let contracts with persons specializing in debt collection for the collection of debt referred to and accepted by the Bureau. Any contract with the debt collector shall specify that the collector's fee shall be on a contingency basis and that the debt collector shall not be entitled to collect a contingency fee for any debt collected through the efforts of any State offset system.

(c) The Department of Revenue shall adopt rules for the certification of debt from referring agencies and shall adopt rules for the certification of collection specialists to be employed by the Bureau.

(d) The Department of Revenue shall adopt rules for determining when a debt referred by an agency shall be deemed by the Bureau to be uncollectible.

(e) Once an agency's debt is deemed by the Bureau to be uncollectible, the Bureau shall return the debt to the referring agency which shall then write the debt off as uncollectible or return the debt to the Bureau for additional collection efforts. The Bureau shall refuse to accept debt that has been deemed uncollectible absent factual assertions from the referring agency that due to circumstances not known at the time the debt was deemed uncollectible that the debt is worthy of additional collection efforts.

(f) For each debt referred, the State agency shall retain all documents and records relating to or supporting the debt. In the event a debtor shall raise a reasonable doubt as to the validity of the debt, the Bureau may in its discretion refer the debt back to the referring agency for further review and recommendation.

(g) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section with regard to child support debts, the collection of which is governed by the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may refer child support debts to the Bureau, provided that the debt satisfies the requirements for referral of delinquent debt as established by rule by the Department of Revenue. The Bureau shall use all legal means available to collect child support debt, including those authorizing the Department of Revenue to collect debt and those authorizing the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to collect debt. All such referred debt shall remain an obligation under the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's Child Support Enforcement Program subject to the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act, including the continued use of federally mandated enforcement remedies and techniques by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(g-1) The Department of Employment Security is exempt from subsection (a) with regard to debts to any federal account, including but not limited to the Unemployment Trust Fund, and penalties and interest assessed under the Unemployment Insurance Act. The Department of Employment Security may refer those debts to the Bureau, provided the debt satisfies the requirements for referral of delinquent debt as established by rule by the Department of Revenue. The Bureau shall use all legal means available to collect the debts, including those authorizing the Department of Revenue to collect debt and those authorizing the Department of Employment Security to collect debt. All referred debt shall remain an obligation to the account to which it is owed.

(h) The Debt Collection Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Debt collection contractors under this Act shall receive a contingency fee as provided by the terms of their contracts with the Department of Revenue. Thereafter, 20% of all amounts collected by the Bureau, excluding amounts collected on behalf of the Departments of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Public Aid) and Revenue, shall be deposited into the Debt Collection Fund. All remaining amounts collected shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund unless the funds are owed to any State fund or funds other than the General Revenue Fund. Moneys in the Debt Collection Fund shall be appropriated only for the administrative costs of the Bureau. On the last day of each fiscal year, unappropriated moneys and moneys otherwise deemed unneeded for the next fiscal year remaining in the Debt Collection Fund may be transferred into the General Revenue Fund at the Governor's reasonable discretion. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to debt that is exempt from subsection (a) pursuant to subsection (g-1) or child support debt referred to the Bureau by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. Collections arising from referrals from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) shall be deposited into such fund or funds as the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall direct, in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act, applicable provisions of State law, and the rules of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. Collections arising from referrals from the Department of Employment Security shall be deposited into the fund or funds that the Department of Employment Security shall direct, in accordance with the requirements of Section 3304(a)(3) of the federal Unemployment Tax Act, Section 303(a)(4) of the federal Social Security Act, and the Unemployment Insurance Act.

(i) The Attorney General and the State Comptroller may assist in the debt collection efforts of the Bureau, as requested by the Department of Revenue.

(j) The Director of Revenue shall report annually to the General Assembly and State Comptroller upon the debt collection efforts of the Bureau. Each report shall include an analysis of the overdue debts owed to the State.

(k) The Department of Revenue shall adopt rules and procedures for the administration of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. The rules shall be adopted under the Department of Revenue's emergency rulemaking authority within 90 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly due to the budget crisis threatening the public interest.

(l) The Department of Revenue's Debt Collection Bureau's obligations under this Section 10 shall be subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 93-570, eff. 8-20-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 325. The Public Funds Investment Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(30 ILCS 235/6) (from Ch. 85, par. 906)

Sec. 6. Report of financial institutions.

(a) No bank shall receive any public funds unless it has furnished the corporate authorities of a public agency submitting a deposit with copies of the last two sworn statements of resources and liabilities which the bank is required to furnish to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or to the Comptroller of the Currency. Each bank designated as a depository for public funds shall, while acting as such depository, furnish the corporate authorities of a public agency with a copy of all statements of resources and liabilities which it is required to furnish to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or to the Comptroller of the Currency; provided, that if such funds or moneys are deposited in a bank, the amount of all such deposits not collateralized or insured by an agency of the federal government shall not exceed 75% of the capital stock and surplus of such bank, and the corporate authorities of a public agency submitting a deposit shall not be discharged from responsibility for any funds or moneys deposited in any bank in excess of such limitation.

(b) No savings bank or savings and loan association shall receive public funds unless it has furnished the corporate authorities of a public agency submitting a deposit with copies of the last 2 sworn statements of resources and liabilities which the savings bank or savings and loan association is required to furnish to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. Each savings bank or savings and loan association designated as a depository for public funds shall, while acting as such depository, furnish the corporate authorities of a public agency with a copy of all statements of resources and liabilities which it is required to furnish to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; provided, that if such funds or moneys are deposited in a savings bank or savings and loan association, the amount of all such deposits not collateralized or insured by an agency of the federal government shall not exceed 75% of the net worth of such savings bank or savings and loan association as defined by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the corporate authorities of a public agency submitting a deposit shall not be discharged from responsibility for any funds or moneys deposited in any savings bank or savings and loan association in excess of such limitation.

(c) No credit union shall receive public funds unless it has furnished the corporate authorities of a public agency submitting a share deposit with copies of the last two reports of examination prepared by or submitted to the Illinois Department of Financial Institutions or the National Credit Union Administration. Each credit union designated as a depository for public funds shall, while acting as such depository, furnish the corporate authorities of a public agency with a copy of all reports of examination prepared by or furnished to the Illinois Department of Financial Institutions or the National Credit Union Administration; provided that if such funds or moneys are invested in a credit union account, the amount of all such investments not collateralized or insured by an agency of the federal government or other approved share insurer shall not exceed 50% of the unimpaired capital and surplus of such credit union, which shall include shares, reserves and undivided earnings and the corporate authorities of a public agency making an investment shall not be discharged from responsibility for any funds or moneys invested in a credit union in excess of such limitation.

(d) Whenever a public agency deposits any public funds in a financial institution, the public agency may enter into an agreement with the financial institution requiring any funds not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the National Credit Union Administration or other approved share insurer to be collateralized by any of the following classes of securities, provided there has been no default in the payment of principal or interest thereon:

(1) Bonds, notes, or other securities constituting direct and general obligations of the United States, the bonds, notes, or other securities constituting the direct and general obligation of any agency or instrumentality of the United States, the interest and principal of which is unconditionally guaranteed by the United States, and bonds, notes, or other securities or evidence of indebtedness constituting the obligation of a U.S. agency or instrumentality.

(2) Direct and general obligation bonds of the State of Illinois or of any other state of the United States.

(3) Revenue bonds of this State or any authority, board, commission, or similar agency thereof.

(4) Direct and general obligation bonds of any city, town, county, school district, or other taxing body of any state, the debt service of which is payable from general ad valorem taxes.

(5) Revenue bonds of any city, town, county, or school district of the State of Illinois.

(6) Obligations issued, assumed, or guaranteed by the International Finance Corporation, the principal of which is not amortized during the life of the obligation, but no such obligation shall be accepted at more than 90% of its market value.

(7) Illinois Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes as defined in and issued pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act.

(8) In an amount equal to at least market value of that amount of funds deposited exceeding the insurance limitation provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the National Credit Union Administration or other approved share insurer: (i) securities, (ii) mortgages, (iii) letters of credit issued by a Federal Home Loan Bank, or (iv) loans covered by a State Guarantee Guaranty under the Illinois Farm Development Act, if that guarantee has been assumed by the Illinois Finance Authority under Section 845-75 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act, and loans covered by a State Guarantee under Article 830 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(9) Certificates of deposit or share certificates issued to the depository institution pledging them as security. The public agency may require security in the amount of 125% of the value of the public agency deposit. Such certificate of deposit or share certificate shall:

(i) be fully insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation, or the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or issued by a depository institution which is rated within the 3 highest classifications established by at least one of the 2 standard rating services;

(ii) be issued by a financial institution having assets of $15,000,000 or more; and

(iii) be issued by either a savings and loan association having a capital to asset ratio of at least 2%, by a bank having a capital to asset ratio of at least 6% or by a credit union having a capital to asset ratio of at least 4%.

The depository institution shall effect the assignment of the certificate of deposit or share certificate to the public agency and shall agree that, in the event the issuer of the certificate fails to maintain the capital to asset ratio required by this Section, such certificate of deposit or share certificate shall be replaced by additional suitable security.

(e) The public agency may accept a system established by the State Treasurer to aggregate permissible securities received as collateral from financial institutions in a collateral pool to secure public deposits of the institutions that have pledged securities to the pool.

(f) The public agency may at any time declare any particular security ineligible to qualify as collateral when, in the public agency's judgment, it is deemed desirable to do so.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, as security a public agency may, at its discretion, accept a bond, executed by a company authorized to transact the kinds of business described in clause (g) of Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code, in an amount not less than the amount of the deposits required by this Section to be secured, payable to the public agency for the benefit of the People of the unit of government, in a form that is acceptable to the public agency Finance Authority.

(h) Paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this Section do not apply to the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the Cooperative Computer Center and public community colleges.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 1-14-04.)

Section 330. The State Employee Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Awards Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 260/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 181a)

Sec. 5. Federal funds for compensation of certain State employees. The State Treasurer, ex officio, may receive from the State Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) any moneys which either Department has received or shall receive from the federal government for the payment of compensation awards for injuries or death suffered by any person during the course of his or her employment by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly the State Department of Public Aid) or the County Department of Public Aid or the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid) or upon any project entered into between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly the State Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid) and any other department or agency of the State. Such moneys, or any part thereof may be paid over from time to time by the Department, to be held in trust by the Treasurer, ex officio, and disbursed by the Treasurer to the beneficiaries as directed by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 335. The Local Government Debt Offering Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 375/2) (from Ch. 85, par. 842)

Sec. 2.

(a) "Local government" means a county, city, village, town, township, school district, and other special-purpose district, authority, or public corporation within the state and authorized by the state to issue bonds and other long-term obligations.

(b) "Governing body" means the body or board charged with exercising the legislative authority of a local government.

(c) "Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Local Governmental Affairs.

(d) "Chief financial officer" means the comptroller, treasurer, director of finance or other local government official charged with managing the fiscal affairs of a local government official charged with managing the fiscal affairs of a local government.

(e) "Bonds" means debt payable more than one year after date of issue or incurrence, issued pursuant to the laws authorizing local government borrowing.

(Source: P.A. 77-1504; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 340. The Human Services Provider Bond Reserve Payment Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 435/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:

(a) "Service provider" means any nongovernmental entity, either for-profit or not-for-profit, that enters into a contract with a State agency under which the entity is paid or reimbursed by the State for providing human services to persons in Illinois.

(b) "State agency" means the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), the Department of Public Health, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and any other department or agency of State government that enters into contracts with service providers under which the provider is paid or reimbursed by the State for providing human services to persons in Illinois.

(c) "Covered bond issue" means revenue bonds (i) that are issued by any agency of State or local government within this State, including without limitation bonds issued by the Illinois Finance Authority, (ii) that are to be directly or indirectly paid, in whole or in part, from payments due to a service provider under a human services contract with a State agency, and (iii) for which a debt service reserve or other reserve fund has been established, under the control of a named trustee, that the service provider is required to replenish in the event that moneys from the reserve fund are used to make payments of principal or interest on the bonds.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 345. The Illinois Unemployment Insurance Trust Fund Financing Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(30 ILCS 440/8)

Sec. 8. Continuing appropriation. This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation of all amounts necessary in respect to use of Fund Building Receipts Reciepts and Bond Proceeds for purposes specified in this Act, including, without limitation, for the provision for payment of principal and interest on the Bonds and other amounts due in connection with the issuance of the Bonds pursuant to this Act, to the fullest extent such appropriation is required.

(Source: P.A. 93-634, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-14-05.)

Section 350. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 35-30, 50-13, and 50-35 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/35-30)

Sec. 35-30. Awards.

(a) All State contracts for professional and artistic services, except as provided in this Section, shall be awarded using the competitive request for proposal process outlined in this Section.

(b) For each contract offered, the chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, or his or her designee shall use the appropriate standard solicitation forms available from the Department of Central Management Services or the higher education chief procurement officer.

(c) Prepared forms shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, for publication in its Illinois Procurement Bulletin and circulation to the Department of Central Management Services' or the higher education chief procurement officer's list of prequalified vendors. Notice of the offer or request for proposal shall appear at least 14 days before the response to the offer is due.

(d) All interested respondents shall return their responses to the Department of Central Management Services or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, which shall open and record them. The Department or higher education chief procurement officer then shall forward the responses, together with any information it has available about the qualifications and other State work of the respondents.

(e) After evaluation, ranking, and selection, the responsible chief procurement officer, State purchasing officer, or his or her designee shall notify the Department of Central Management Services or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate, of the successful respondent and shall forward a copy of the signed contract for the Department's or higher education chief procurement officer's file. The Department or higher education chief procurement officer shall publish the names of the responsible procurement decision-maker, the agency letting the contract, the successful respondent, a contract reference, and value of the let contract in the next appropriate volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin.

(f) For all professional and artistic contracts with annualized value that exceeds $25,000, evaluation and ranking by price are required. Any chief procurement officer or State purchasing officer, but not their designees, may select an offeror other than the lowest bidder by price. In any case, when the contract exceeds the $25,000 threshold threshhold and the lowest bidder is not selected, the chief procurement officer or the State purchasing officer shall forward together with the contract notice of who the low bidder was and a written decision as to why another was selected to the Department of Central Management Services or the higher education chief procurement officer, whichever is appropriate. The Department or higher education chief procurement officer shall publish as provided in subsection (e) of Section 35-30, but shall include notice of the chief procurement officer's or State purchasing officer's written decision.

(g) The Department of Central Management Services and higher education chief procurement officer may each refine, but not contradict, this Section by promulgating rules for submission to the Procurement Policy Board and then to the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules. Any refinement shall be based on the principles and procedures of the federal Architect-Engineer Selection Law, Public Law 92-582 Brooks Act, and the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act; except that pricing shall be an integral part of the selection process.

(Source: P.A. 90-572, eff. date - See Sec. 99-5; revised 10-19-05.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-13)

Sec. 50-13. Conflicts of interest.

(a) Prohibition. It is unlawful for any person holding an elective office in this State, holding a seat in the General Assembly, or appointed to or employed in any of the offices or agencies of State government and who receives compensation for such employment in excess of 60% of the salary of the Governor of the State of Illinois, or who is an officer or employee of the Capital Development Board or the Illinois Toll Highway Authority, or who is the spouse or minor child of any such person to have or acquire any contract, or any direct pecuniary interest in any contract therein, whether for stationery, printing, paper, or any services, materials, or supplies, that will be wholly or partially satisfied by the payment of funds appropriated by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or in any contract of the Capital Development Board or the Illinois Toll Highway Authority.

(b) Interests. It is unlawful for any firm, partnership, association, or corporation, in which any person listed in subsection (a) is entitled to receive (i) more than 7 1/2% of the total distributable income or (ii) an amount in excess of the salary of the Governor, to have or acquire any such contract or direct pecuniary interest therein.

(c) Combined interests. It is unlawful for any firm, partnership, association, or corporation, in which any person listed in subsection (a) together with his or her spouse or minor children is entitled to receive (i) more than 15%, in the aggregate, of the total distributable income or (ii) an amount in excess of 2 times the salary of the Governor, to have or acquire any such contract or direct pecuniary interest therein.

(c-5) Appointees and firms. In addition to any provisions of this Code, the interests of certain appointees and their firms are subject to Section 3A-35 of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act.

(d) Securities. Nothing in this Section invalidates the provisions of any bond or other security previously offered or to be offered for sale or sold by or for the State of Illinois.

(e) Prior interests. This Section does not affect the validity of any contract made between the State and an officer or employee of the State or member of the General Assembly, his or her spouse, minor child, or other immediate family member living in his or her residence or any combination of those persons if that contract was in existence before his or her election or employment as an officer, member, or employee. The contract is voidable, however, if it cannot be completed within 365 days after the officer, member, or employee takes office or is employed.

(f) Exceptions.

(1) Public aid payments. This Section does not apply to payments made for a public aid recipient.

(2) Teaching. This Section does not apply to a contract for personal services as a teacher or school administrator between a member of the General Assembly or his or her spouse, or a State officer or employee or his or her spouse, and any school district, public community college district, the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Illinois State University, Eastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, Chicago State University, Governor State University, or Northeastern Illinois University.

(3) Ministerial duties. This Section does not apply to a contract for personal services of a wholly ministerial character, including but not limited to services as a laborer, clerk, typist, stenographer, page, bookkeeper, receptionist, or telephone switchboard operator, made by a spouse or minor child of an elective or appointive State officer or employee or of a member of the General Assembly.

(4) Child and family services. This Section does not apply to payments made to a member of the General Assembly, a State officer or employee, his or her spouse or minor child acting as a foster parent, homemaker, advocate, or volunteer for or in behalf of a child or family served by the Department of Children and Family Services.

(5) Licensed professionals. Contracts with licensed professionals, provided they are competitively bid or part of a reimbursement program for specific, customary goods and services through the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Public Health, or the Department on Aging.

(g) Penalty. A person convicted of a violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 93-615, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-35)

Sec. 50-35. Disclosure and potential conflicts of interest.

(a) All offers from responsive bidders or offerors with an annual value of more than $10,000 shall be accompanied by disclosure of the financial interests of the contractor, bidder, or proposer. The financial disclosure of each successful bidder or offeror shall become part of the publicly available contract or procurement file maintained by the appropriate chief procurement officer.

(b) Disclosure by the responsive bidders or offerors shall include any ownership or distributive income share that is in excess of 5%, or an amount greater than 60% of the annual salary of the Governor, of the bidding entity or its parent entity, whichever is less, unless the contractor or bidder (i) is a publicly traded entity subject to Federal 10K reporting, in which case it may submit its 10K disclosure in place of the prescribed disclosure, or (ii) is a privately held entity that is exempt from Federal 10k reporting but has more than 400 shareholders, in which case it may submit the information that Federal 10k reporting companies are required to report under 17 CFR 229.401 and list the names of any person or entity holding any ownership share that is in excess of 5% in place of the prescribed disclosure. The form of disclosure shall be prescribed by the applicable chief procurement officer and must include at least the names, addresses, and dollar or proportionate share of ownership of each person identified in this Section, their instrument of ownership or beneficial relationship, and notice of any potential conflict of interest resulting from the current ownership or beneficial relationship of each person identified in this Section having in addition any of the following relationships:

(1) State employment, currently or in the previous 3 years, including contractual employment of services.

(2) State employment of spouse, father, mother, son, or daughter, including contractual employment for services in the previous 2 years.

(3) Elective status; the holding of elective office of the State of Illinois, the government of the United States, any unit of local government authorized by the Constitution of the State of Illinois or the statutes of the State of Illinois currently or in the previous 3 years.

(4) Relationship to anyone holding elective office currently or in the previous 2 years; spouse, father, mother, son, or daughter.

(5) Appointive office; the holding of any appointive government office of the State of Illinois, the United States of America, or any unit of local government authorized by the Constitution of the State of Illinois or the statutes of the State of Illinois, which office entitles the holder to compensation in excess of expenses incurred in the discharge of that office currently or in the previous 3 years.

(6) Relationship to anyone holding appointive office currently or in the previous 2 years; spouse, father, mother, son, or daughter.

(7) Employment, currently or in the previous 3 years, as or by any registered lobbyist of the State government.

(8) Relationship to anyone who is or was a registered lobbyist in the previous 2 years; spouse, father, mother, son, or daughter.

(9) Compensated employment, currently or in the previous 3 years, by any registered election or re-election committee registered with the Secretary of State or any county clerk in the State of Illinois, or any political action committee registered with either the Secretary of State or the Federal Board of Elections.

(10) Relationship to anyone; spouse, father, mother, son, or daughter; who is or was a compensated employee in the last 2 years of any registered election or re-election committee registered with the Secretary of State or any county clerk in the State of Illinois, or any political action committee registered with either the Secretary of State or the Federal Board of Elections.

(c) The disclosure in subsection (b) is not intended to prohibit or prevent any contract. The disclosure is meant to fully and publicly disclose any potential conflict to the chief procurement officers, State purchasing officers, their designees, and executive officers so they may adequately discharge their duty to protect the State.

(d) In the case of any contract for personal services in excess of $50,000; any contract competitively bid in excess of $250,000; any other contract in excess of $50,000; when a potential for a conflict of interest is identified, discovered, or reasonably suspected it shall be reviewed and commented on in writing by the Governor of the State of Illinois, or by an executive ethics board or commission he or she might designate. The comment shall be returned to the responsible chief procurement officer who must rule in writing whether to void or allow the contract, bid, offer, or proposal weighing the best interest of the State of Illinois. The comment and determination shall become a publicly available part of the contract, bid, or proposal file.

(e) These thresholds threshholds and disclosure do not relieve the chief procurement officer, the State purchasing officer, or their designees from reasonable care and diligence for any contract, bid, offer, or proposal. The chief procurement officer, the State purchasing officer, or their designees shall be responsible for using any reasonably known and publicly available information to discover any undisclosed potential conflict of interest and act to protect the best interest of the State of Illinois.

(f) Inadvertent or accidental failure to fully disclose shall render the contract, bid, proposal, or relationship voidable by the chief procurement officer if he or she deems it in the best interest of the State of Illinois and, at his or her discretion, may be cause for barring from future contracts, bids, proposals, or relationships with the State for a period of up to 2 years.

(g) Intentional, willful, or material failure to disclose shall render the contract, bid, proposal, or relationship voidable by the chief procurement officer if he or she deems it in the best interest of the State of Illinois and shall result in debarment from future contracts, bids, proposals, or relationships for a period of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. Reinstatement after 2 years and before 10 years must be reviewed and commented on in writing by the Governor of the State of Illinois, or by an executive ethics board or commission he or she might designate. The comment shall be returned to the responsible chief procurement officer who must rule in writing whether and when to reinstate.

(h) In addition, all disclosures shall note any other current or pending contracts, proposals, leases, or other ongoing procurement relationships the bidding, proposing, or offering entity has with any other unit of State government and shall clearly identify the unit and the contract, proposal, lease, or other relationship.

(Source: P.A. 90-572, eff. 2-6-98; 91-146, eff. 7-16-99; revised 10-19-05.)

Section 355. The State Property Control Act is amended by changing Section 1.02 as follows:

(30 ILCS 605/1.02) (from Ch. 127, par. 133b3)

Sec. 1.02. "Property" means State owned property and includes all real estate, with the exception of rights of way for State water resource and highway improvements, traffic signs and traffic signals, and with the exception of common school property; and all tangible personal property with the exception of properties specifically exempted by the administrator, provided that any property originally classified as real property which has been detached from its structure shall be classified as personal property.

"Property" does not include property owned by the Illinois Medical District Commission and leased or occupied by others for purposes permitted under the Illinois Medical District Act. "Property" also does not include property owned and held by the Illinois Medical District Commission for redevelopment.

"Property" does not include property described under Section 5 of Public Act 92-371 with respect to depositing the net proceeds from the sale or exchange of the property as provided in Section 10 of that Act.

"Property" does not include that property described under Section 5 of Public Act 94-405 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 94-405, eff. 8-2-05; revised 8-31-05.)

Section 360. The State Facilities Closure Act is amended by changing Section 5-1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 608/5-1)

Sec. 5-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the State Facilities Closure Act. All references in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; revised 11-5-04.)

Section 365. The Build Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 9-4.2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 750/9-4.2) (from Ch. 127, par. 2709-4.2)

Sec. 9-4.2. Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(a) There is hereby created the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund, hereafter referred to in this Article as the "Capital Fund" to be held as a separate fund within the State Treasury.

The purpose of the Capital Fund is to finance intermediary agreements, administration, technical assistance agreements, loans, grants, or investments in Illinois. In addition, funds may be used for a one time transfer in fiscal year 1994, not to exceed the amounts appropriated, to the Public Infrastructure Construction Loan Revolving Fund for grants and loans pursuant to the Public Infrastructure Loan and Grant Program Act. Investments, administration, grants, and financial aid shall be used for the purposes set for in this Article. Loan financing will be in the form of loan agreements pursuant to the terms and conditions set forth in this Article. All loans shall be conditioned on the project receiving financing from participating lenders or other investors. Loan proceeds shall be available for project costs, except for debt refinancing.

(b) There shall be deposited in the Capital Fund such amounts, including but not limited to:

(i) All receipts, including dividends, principal and interest payments and royalties, from any applicable loan, intermediary, or technical assistance agreement made from the Capital Fund or from direct appropriations from the Build Illinois Bond Fund or the Build Illinois Purposes Fund (now abolished) or the General Revenue Fund by the General Assembly entered into by the Department;

(ii) All proceeds of assets of whatever nature received by the Department as a result of default or delinquency with respect to loan agreements made from the Capital Fund or from direct appropriations by the General Assembly, including proceeds from the sale, disposal, lease or rental of real or personal property which the Department may receive as a result thereof;

(iii) Any appropriations, grants or gifts made to the Capital Fund;

(iv) Any income received from interest on investments of moneys in the Capital Fund;

(v) All moneys resulting from the collection of premiums, fees, charges, costs, and expenses described in subsection (e) of Section 9-3.

(c) The Treasurer may invest moneys in the Capital Fund in securities constituting obligations of the United States Government, or in obligations the principal of and interest on which are guaranteed by the United States Government, in obligations the principal of and interest on which are guaranteed by the United States Government, or in certificates of deposit of any State or national bank which are fully secured by obligations guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States Government.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-392, eff. 8-1-05; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 370. The Excellence in Academic Medicine Act is amended by changing Sections 65 and 74 as follows:

(30 ILCS 775/65)

Sec. 65. Reporting requirements. On or before May 1 of each year, the chief executive officer of each Qualified Academic Medical Center Hospital shall submit a report to the Comptroller regarding the effects of the programs authorized by this Act. The report shall also report the total amount of grants from and contracts with the National Institutes of Health in the preceding calendar year. It shall assess whether the programs funded are likely to be successful, require further study, or no longer appear to be promising avenues of research. It shall discuss the probable use of the developmental program in mainstream medicine including both cost impact and medical effect. The report shall address the effects the programs may have on containing Title XIX and Title XXI costs in Illinois. The Comptroller shall immediately forward the report to the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Director of Public Health who shall evaluate the contents in a letter submitted to the President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(Source: P.A. 92-10, eff. 6-11-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(30 ILCS 775/74)

Sec. 74. Reimbursement methodology. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may develop a reimbursement methodology consistent with this Act for distribution of moneys from the funds in a manner that would allow distributions from these funds to be matchable under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department may promulgate rules necessary to make these distributions matchable.

(Source: P.A. 89-506, eff. 7-3-96; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 375. The State Mandates Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 8.25 and by changing Sections 8.27, 8.28, 8.29, and 8.30 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.25)

Sec. 8.25. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 92-36, 92-50, 92-52, 92-53, 92-166, 92-281, 92-382, 92-388, 92-416, 92-424, or 92-465.

(Source: P.A. 92-36, eff. 6-28-01; 92-50, eff. 7-12-01; 92-52, eff. 7-12-01; 92-53, eff. 7-12-01; 92-166, eff. 1-1-02; 92-281, eff. 8-7-01; 92-382, eff. 8-16-01; 92-388, eff. 1-1-02; 92-416, eff. 8-17-01; 92-424, eff. 8-17-01; 92-465, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.26)

Sec. 8.26 8.25. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 92-505, 92-533, 92-599, 92-602, 92-609, 92-616, 92-631, 92-705, 92-733, 92-767, 92-779, 92-844, or 92-846. this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 92-505, eff. 12-20-01; 92-533, eff. 3-14-02; 92-599, eff. 6-28-02; 92-602, eff. 7-1-02; 92-609, eff. 7-1-02; 92-616, eff. 7-8-02; 92-631, eff. 7-11-02; 92-705, eff. 7-19-02; 92-733, eff. 7-25-02; 92-767, eff. 8-6-02; 92-779, eff. 8-6-02; 92-844, eff. 8-23-02; 92-846, eff. 8-23-02; revised 10-25-02.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.27)

Sec. 8.27. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 93-3, 93-19, 93-42, 93-119, 93-123, 93-146, 93-206, 93-209, 93-226, 93-282, 93-314, 93-334, 93-377, 93-378, 93-409, 93-411, 93-517, 93-538, 93-574, or 93-633. this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Section 25.5 of the River Conservancy Districts Act.

(c) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Public Works Contract Change Order Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-3, eff. 4-16-03; 93-19, eff. 6-20-03; 93-42, eff. 7-1-03; 93-119, eff. 7-10-03; 93-123, eff. 7-10-03; 93-146, eff. 7-10-03; 93-206, eff. 7-18-03; 93-209, eff. 7-18-03; 93-226, eff. 7-22-03; 93-275, eff. 7-22-03; 93-282, eff. 7-22-03; 93-314, eff. 1-1-04; 93-334, eff. 7-24-03; 93-377, eff. 1-1-04; 93-378, eff. 7-24-03; 93-409, eff. 8-4-03; 93-411, eff. 8-4-03; 93-517, eff. 8-6-03; 93-538, eff. 1-1-04; 93-574, eff. 8-21-03; 93-633; eff. 12-23-03; 93-656, eff. 6-1-04; revised 1-22-04.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.28)

Sec. 8.28. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 93-654, 93-677, 93-679, 93-689, 93-734, 93-753, 93-910, 93-917, 93-1036, 93-1038, 93-1079, or 93-1090 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption under Section 15-172 of the Property Tax Code, the General Homestead Exemption under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code, the alternative General Homestead Exemption under Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code, the Homestead Improvements Exemption under Section 15-180 of the Property Tax Code, and by Public Act 93-715 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 93-654, eff. 1-16-04; 93-677, eff. 6-28-04; 93-679, eff. 6-30-04; 93-689, eff. 7-1-04; 93-715, eff. 7-12-04; 93-734, eff. 7-14-04; 93-753, eff. 7-16-04; 93-910, eff. 1-1-05; 93-917, eff. 8-12-04; 93-1036, eff. 9-14-04; 93-1038, eff. 6-1-05; 93-1079, eff. 1-21-05; 93-1090, eff. 3-11-05; revised 12-1-05.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.29)

Sec. 8.29. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 94-4, 94-210, 94-234, 94-354, 94-478, 94-576, 94-600, 94-612, 94-621, 94-624, 94-639, 94-645, 94-712, 94-714, 94-719, or 94-724 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 94-4, eff. 6-1-05; 94-210, eff. 7-14-05; 94-234, eff. 7-1-06; 94-354, eff. 1-1-06; 94-478, eff. 8-5-05; 94-576, eff. 8-12-05; 94-600, eff. 8-16-05; 94-612, eff. 8-18-05; 94-621, eff. 8-18-05; 94-624, eff. 8-18-05; 94-639, eff. 8-22-05; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-712, eff. 6-1-06; 94-714, eff. 7-1-06; 94-719, eff. 1-6-06; 94-724, eff. 1-20-06; revised 1-23-06.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.30)

Sec. 8.30. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 94-750, 94-792, 94-794, 94-806, 94-823, 94-834, 94-856, 94-875, 94-933, or 94-1055 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Volunteer Emergency Worker Higher Education Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-750, eff. 5-9-06; 94-792, eff. 5-19-06; 94-794, eff. 5-22-06; 94-806, eff. 1-1-07; 94-823, eff. 1-1-07; 94-834, eff. 6-6-06; 94-856, eff. 6-15-06; 94-875, eff. 7-1-06; 94-933, eff. 6-26-06; 94-957, eff. 7-1-06; 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-22-06.)

Section 380. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 203, 205, 509, 510, and 917 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 507X, 507Y, and 507EE as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/203) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B);

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard. The provisions of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2), and 265(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person; and

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b) (5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2), and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit or the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the Illinois River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504 (b) (3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person; and

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person.

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2) (A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or Zones or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person; and

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person.

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the foreign person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the foreign person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a foreign person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348 (b) (1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2), and 265(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, enacted by the 82nd General Assembly, or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or Zones or from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person; and

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person.

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b) (3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b) (2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a) (2) (G), (c) (2) (I) and (d)(2) (E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a) (2) (F) or (c) (2) (H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 93-812, eff. 7-26-04; 93-840, eff. 7-30-04; 94-776, eff. 5-19-06; 94-789, eff. 5-19-06; 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06; revised 7-14-06.)

(35 ILCS 5/205) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-205)

Sec. 205. Exempt organizations.

(a) Charitable, etc. organizations. The base income of an organization which is exempt from the federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be determined under section 203 of this Act, but shall be its unrelated business taxable income as determined under section 512 of the Internal Revenue Code, without any deduction for the tax imposed by this Act. The standard exemption provided by section 204 of this Act shall not be allowed in determining the net income of an organization to which this subsection applies.

(b) Partnerships. A partnership as such shall not be subject to the tax imposed by subsection 201 (a) and (b) of this Act, but shall be subject to the replacement tax imposed by subsection 201 (c) and (d) of this Act and shall compute its base income as described in subsection (d) of Section 203 of this Act. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, an investment partnership, as defined in Section 1501(a)(11.5) of this Act, shall not be subject to the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act. A partnership shall file such returns and other information at such time and in such manner as may be required under Article 5 of this Act. The partners in a partnership shall be liable for the replacement tax imposed by subsection 201 (c) and (d) of this Act on such partnership, to the extent such tax is not paid by the partnership, as provided under the laws of Illinois governing the liability of partners for the obligations of a partnership. Persons carrying on business as partners shall be liable for the tax imposed by subsection 201 (a) and (b) of this Act only in their separate or individual capacities.

(c) Subchapter S corporations. A Subchapter S corporation shall not be subject to the tax imposed by subsection 201 (a) and (b) of this Act but shall be subject to the replacement tax imposed by subsection 201 (c) and (d) of this Act and shall file such returns and other information at such time and in such manner as may be required under Article 5 of this Act.

(d) Combat zone death. An individual relieved from the federal income tax for any taxable year by reason of section 692 of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be subject to the tax imposed by this Act for such taxable year.

(e) Certain trusts. A common trust fund described in Section 584 of the Internal Revenue Code, and any other trust to the extent that the grantor is treated as the owner thereof under sections 671 through 678 of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be subject to the tax imposed by this Act.

(f) Certain business activities. A person not otherwise subject to the tax imposed by this Act shall not become subject to the tax imposed by this Act by reason of:

(1) that person's ownership of tangible personal property located at the premises of a printer in this State with which the person has contracted for printing, or

(2) activities of the person's employees or agents located solely at the premises of a printer and related to quality control, distribution, or printing services performed by a printer in the State with which the person has contracted for printing.

(g) A nonprofit risk organization that holds a certificate of authority under Article VIID of the Illinois Insurance Code is exempt from the tax imposed under this Act with respect to its activities or operations in furtherance of the powers conferred upon it under that Article VIID of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-840, eff. 7-30-04; 93-918, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-25-04.)

(35 ILCS 5/507X)

Sec. 507X. The Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund checkoff. Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2002, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 92-772, eff. 8-6-02.)

(35 ILCS 5/507Y)

Sec. 507Y 507X. The Illinois Military Family Relief checkoff. Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 92-886, eff. 2-7-03; revised 3-11-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507AA)

Sec. 507AA 507Y. The Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund checkoff. Beginning with the taxable year ending on December 31, 2003, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507BB)

Sec. 507BB 507Y. Asthma and Lung Research checkoff. The Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Asthma and Lung Research Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to an amended return.

(Source: P.A. 93-292, eff. 7-22-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507CC)

Sec. 507CC 507Y. The Leukemia Treatment and Education checkoff. The Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, he or she may do so be stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(35 ILCS 5/507EE)

Sec. 507EE. Pet Population Control Fund checkoff. The Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Pet Population Control Fund, as established in the Illinois Public Health and Safety Animal Population Control Act, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

The Department of Revenue shall determine annually the total amount contributed to the Fund pursuant to this Section and shall notify the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer of the amount to be transferred to the Pet Population Control Fund, and upon receipt of the notification the State Comptroller shall transfer the amount.

(Source: P.A. 94-639, eff. 8-22-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507FF)

Sec. 507FF 507EE. Epilepsy Treatment and Education Grants-in-Aid Fund checkoff. The Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Epilepsy Treatment and Education Grants-in-Aid Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-73 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-73, eff. 6-23-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507GG)

Sec. 507GG 507EE. Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund, as authorized by Public 94-107 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507HH)

Sec. 507HH 507EE. Sarcoidosis Research Fund checkoff. The Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Sarcoidosis Research Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-141 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-141, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507II)

Sec. 507II 507EE. The Vince Demuzio Memorial Colon Cancer Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Vince Demuzio Memorial Colon Cancer Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-142 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-142, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507JJ)

Sec. 507JJ 507EE. The Autism Research Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Autism Research Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-442 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507KK)

Sec. 507KK 507EE. Blindness Prevention Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Blindness Prevention Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-602 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-602, eff. 8-16-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507LL)

Sec. 507LL 507EE. The Illinois Brain Tumor Research checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Illinois Brain Tumor Research Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-649 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-649, eff. 8-22-05; revised 9-26-05.)

(35 ILCS 5/507NN)

Sec. 507NN 507EE. The Heartsaver AED Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Heartsaver AED Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-876, eff. 6-19-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(35 ILCS 5/509) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-509)

Sec. 509. Tax checkoff explanations. All individual income tax return forms shall contain appropriate explanations and spaces to enable the taxpayers to designate contributions to the following funds: the Child Abuse Prevention Fund, the Illinois Wildlife Preservation Fund (as required by the Illinois Non-Game Wildlife Protection Act), the Alzheimer's Disease Research Fund (as required by the Alzheimer's Disease Research Act), the Assistance to the Homeless Fund (as required by this Act), the Penny Severns Breast and Cervical Cancer Research Fund, the National World War II Memorial Fund, the Prostate Cancer Research Fund, the Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund, the Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund, the Sarcoidosis Research Fund, the Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund, the World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund, the Korean War Veterans National Museum and Library Fund, the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund, the Blindness Prevention Fund, the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund, the Epilepsy Treatment and Education Grants-in-Aid Fund, the Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund, the Vince Demuzio Memorial Colon Cancer Fund, the Autism Research Fund, the Heartsaver AED Fund, the Asthma and Lung Research Fund, and the Illinois Brain Tumor Research Fund.

Each form shall contain a statement that the contributions will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly.

If, on October 1 of any year, the total contributions to any one of the funds made under this Section do not equal $100,000 or more, the explanations and spaces for designating contributions to the fund shall be removed from the individual income tax return forms for the following and all subsequent years and all subsequent contributions to the fund shall be refunded to the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; 93-131, eff. 7-10-03; 93-292, eff. 7-22-03; 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; 93-776, eff. 7-21-04; 94-73, eff. 6-23-05; 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; 94-141, eff. 1-1-06; 94-142, eff. 1-1-06; 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; 94-602, eff. 8-16-05; 94-649, eff. 8-22-05; 94-876, eff. 6-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(35 ILCS 5/510) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-510)

Sec. 510. Determination of amounts contributed. The Department shall determine the total amount contributed to each of the following: the Child Abuse Prevention Fund, the Illinois Wildlife Preservation Fund, the Assistance to the Homeless Fund, the Alzheimer's Disease Research Fund, the Penny Severns Breast and Cervical Cancer Research Fund, the National World War II Memorial Fund, the Prostate Cancer Research Fund, the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund, the Lou Gehrig's Disease (ALS) Research Fund, the Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund, the Sarcoidosis Research Fund, the Leukemia Treatment and Education Fund, the World War II Illinois Veterans Memorial Fund, the Korean War Veterans National Museum and Library Fund, the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund, the Epilepsy Treatment and Education Grants-in-Aid Fund, the Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund, the Vince Demuzio Memorial Colon Cancer Fund, the Autism Research Fund, the Blindness Prevention Fund, the Heartsaver AED Fund, the Asthma and Lung Research Fund, and the Illinois Brain Tumor Research Fund; and shall notify the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer of the amounts to be transferred from the General Revenue Fund to each fund, and upon receipt of such notification the State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts.

(Source: P.A. 93-36, eff. 6-24-03; 93-131, eff. 7-10-03; 93-292, eff. 7-22-03; 93-324, eff. 7-23-03; 93-776, eff. 7-21-04; 94-73, eff. 6-23-05; 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; 94-141, eff. 1-1-06; 94-142, eff. 1-1-06; 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; 94-602, eff. 8-16-05; 94-649, eff. 8-22-05; 94-876, eff. 6-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(35 ILCS 5/917) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-917)

Sec. 917. Confidentiality and information sharing.

(a) Confidentiality. Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the Department from returns filed under this Act, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Act, shall be confidential, except for official purposes within the Department or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State tax or pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by another statute imposing a State tax, and any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except for such purposes and pursuant to order of the Director or in accordance with a proper judicial order, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, the provisions of this paragraph are not applicable to information furnished to (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), State's Attorneys, and the Attorney General for child support enforcement purposes and (ii) a licensed attorney representing the taxpayer where an appeal or a protest has been filed on behalf of the taxpayer. If it is necessary to file information obtained pursuant to this Act in a child support enforcement proceeding, the information shall be filed under seal.

(b) Public information. Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from publishing or making available to the public the names and addresses of persons filing returns under this Act, or from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the tax wherein the contents of returns are grouped into aggregates in such a way that the information contained in any individual return shall not be disclosed.

(c) Governmental agencies. The Director may make available to the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States or his delegate, or the proper officer or his delegate of any other state imposing a tax upon or measured by income, for exclusively official purposes, information received by the Department in the administration of this Act, but such permission shall be granted only if the United States or such other state, as the case may be, grants the Department substantially similar privileges. The Director may exchange information with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act and the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Director may exchange information with the Director of the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act and Acts administered by the Department of Employment Security. The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. The Director may exchange information with the Illinois Department on Aging for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income for purposes directly related to confirming eligibility for participation in the programs of benefits authorized by the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, which licenses persons to engage in any occupation, information that a person licensed by such agency has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, information regarding whether a bidder, contractor, or an affiliate of a bidder or contractor has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty, and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest due under this Act, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, units of local government, and school districts, information regarding whether a bidder or contractor is an affiliate of a person who is not collecting and remitting Illinois Use taxes, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications.

The Director may also make available to the Secretary of State information that a corporation which has been issued a certificate of incorporation by the Secretary of State has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. An assessment is final when all proceedings in court for review of such assessment have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the Director may make available to the Director or principal officer of any Department of the State of Illinois, information that a person employed by such Department has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein. For purposes of this paragraph, the word "Department" shall have the same meaning as provided in Section 3 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

(d) The Director shall make available for public inspection in the Department's principal office and for publication, at cost, administrative decisions issued on or after January 1, 1995. These decisions are to be made available in a manner so that the following taxpayer information is not disclosed:

(1) The names, addresses, and identification numbers of the taxpayer, related entities, and employees.

(2) At the sole discretion of the Director, trade secrets or other confidential information identified as such by the taxpayer, no later than 30 days after receipt of an administrative decision, by such means as the Department shall provide by rule.

The Director shall determine the appropriate extent of the deletions allowed in paragraph (2). In the event the taxpayer does not submit deletions, the Director shall make only the deletions specified in paragraph (1).

The Director shall make available for public inspection and publication an administrative decision within 180 days after the issuance of the administrative decision. The term "administrative decision" has the same meaning as defined in Section 3-101 of Article III of the Code of Civil Procedure. Costs collected under this Section shall be paid into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from divulging information to any person pursuant to a request or authorization made by the taxpayer, by an authorized representative of the taxpayer, or, in the case of information related to a joint return, by the spouse filing the joint return with the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-721, eff. 1-1-05; 93-835; eff. 7-29-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 385. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.12)

Sec. 12. Applicability of Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Uniform Penalty and Interest Act. All of the provisions of Sections 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1j.1, 1k, 1m, 1n, 1o, 2-6, 2-54, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3, 4 (except that the time limitation provisions shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received), 5 (except that the time limitation provisions on the issuance of notices of tax liability shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received and except that in the case of a failure to file a return required by this Act, no notice of tax liability shall be issued on and after each July 1 and January 1 covering tax due with that return during any month or period more than 6 years before that July 1 or January 1, respectively), 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5j, 5k, 5l, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, which are not inconsistent with this Act, shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Act to the same extent as if such provisions were included herein.

(Source: P.A. 94-781, eff. 5-19-06; 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06; revised 8-03-06.)

Section 390. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.42)

Sec. 12. Applicability of Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Uniform Penalty and Interest Act. All of the provisions of Sections 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1j.1, 1k, 1m, 1n, 1o, 2-6, 2-54, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition by the Department of the money collected under this Act), 4 (except that the time limitation provisions shall run from the date when gross receipts are received), 5 (except that the time limitation provisions on the issuance of notices of tax liability shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received and except that in the case of a failure to file a return required by this Act, no notice of tax liability shall be issued on and after July 1 and January 1 covering tax due with that return during any month or period more than 6 years before that July 1 or January 1, respectively), 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5j, 5k, 5l, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act which are not inconsistent with this Act, and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Act to the same extent as if such provisions were included herein.

(Source: P.A. 94-781, eff. 5-19-06; 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06; revised 8-03-06.)

Section 395. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.112)

Sec. 12. All of the provisions of Sections 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1j.1, 1k, 1m, 1n, 1o, 2-6, 2-54, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition by the Department of the tax collected under this Act), 4 (except that the time limitation provisions shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received), 5 (except that the time limitation provisions on the issuance of notices of tax liability shall run from the date when the tax is due rather than from the date when gross receipts are received), 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5j, 5k, 5l, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12 of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" which are not inconsistent with this Act, and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Act to the same extent as if such provisions were included herein.

(Source: P.A. 94-781, eff. 5-19-06; 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06; revised 8-03-06.)

Section 400. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchaser Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993:

and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-12, eff. 7-1-01; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-208, eff. 8-2-01; 92-484, eff. 8-23-01; 92-492, eff. 1-1-02; 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-22, eff. 6-20-03; 93-24, eff. 6-20-03; 93-840, eff. 7-30-04; 93-926, eff. 8-12-04; 93-1057, eff. 12-2-04; revised 12-6-04.)

Section 405. The Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(35 ILCS 145/6) (from Ch. 120, par. 481b.36)

Sec. 6. Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the last day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of renting, leasing or letting rooms in a hotel in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the operator;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of renting, leasing or letting rooms in a hotel in this State;

3. Total amount of rental receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from renting, leasing or letting rooms during such preceding calendar month;

4. Total amount of rental receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from renting, leasing or letting rooms to permanent residents during such preceding calendar month;

5. Total amount of other exclusions from gross rental receipts allowed by this Act;

6. Gross rental receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of tax due;

8. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If the operator's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 30 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 31 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 31 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 31 of the following year.

If the operator's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 31 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which an operator may file his return, in the case of any operator who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such operator shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than 1 business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person shall not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In his return, the operator shall determine the value of any consideration other than money received by him in connection with the renting, leasing or letting of rooms in the course of his business and he shall include such value in his return. Such determination shall be subject to review and revision by the Department in the manner hereinafter provided for the correction of returns.

Where the operator is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

The person filing the return herein provided for shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax herein imposed. The operator filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% or $25 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the operator for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request.

There shall be deposited in the Build Illinois Fund in the State Treasury for each State fiscal year 40% of the amount of total net proceeds from the tax imposed by subsection (a) of Section 3. Of the remaining 60%, $5,000,000 shall be deposited in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Subsidy Account each fiscal year by making monthly deposits in the amount of 1/8 of $5,000,000 plus cumulative deficiencies in such deposits for prior months, and an additional $8,000,000 shall be deposited in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Advance Account each fiscal year by making monthly deposits in the amount of 1/8 of $8,000,000 plus any cumulative deficiencies in such deposits for prior months; provided, that for fiscal years ending after June 30, 2001, the amount to be so deposited into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Advance Account each fiscal year shall be increased from $8,000,000 to the then applicable Advance Amount and the required monthly deposits beginning with July 2001 shall be in the amount of 1/8 of the then applicable Advance Amount plus any cumulative deficiencies in those deposits for prior months. (The deposits of the additional $8,000,000 or the then applicable Advance Amount, as applicable, during each fiscal year shall be treated as advances of funds to the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority for its corporate purposes to the extent paid to the Authority or its trustee and shall be repaid into the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury by the State Treasurer on behalf of the Authority pursuant to Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, as amended. If in any fiscal year the full amount of the then applicable Advance Amount is not repaid into the General Revenue Fund, then the deficiency shall be paid from the amount in the Local Government Distributive Fund that would otherwise be allocated to the City of Chicago under the State Revenue Sharing Act.)

For purposes of the foregoing paragraph, the term "Advance Amount" means, for fiscal year 2002, $22,179,000, and for subsequent fiscal years through fiscal year 2032, 105.615% of the Advance Amount for the immediately preceding fiscal year, rounded up to the nearest $1,000.

Of the remaining 60% of the amount of total net proceeds from the tax imposed by subsection (a) of Section 3 after all required deposits in the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund, the amount equal to 8% of the net revenue realized from the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act plus an amount equal to 8% of the net revenue realized from any tax imposed under Section 4.05 of the Chicago World's Fair-1992 Authority Act during the preceding month shall be deposited in the Local Tourism Fund each month for purposes authorized by Section 605-705 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs Law (20 ILCS 605/605-705) in the Local Tourism Fund, and beginning August 1, 1999, the amount equal to 4.5% of the net revenue realized from the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act during the preceding month shall be deposited into the International Tourism Fund for the purposes authorized in Section 605-707 605-725 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs Law. "Net revenue realized for a month" means the revenue collected by the State under that Act during the previous month less the amount paid out during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under that Act.

After making all these deposits, all other proceeds of the tax imposed under subsection (a) of Section 3 shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury. All moneys received by the Department from the additional tax imposed under subsection (b) of Section 3 shall be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund in the State Treasury.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the operator's last State income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the State income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department for the same period, the operator shall attach to his annual information return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The operator's annual information return to the Department shall also disclose pay roll information of the operator's business during the year covered by such return and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual tax returns by such operator as hereinbefore provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return shall not apply to an operator who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; revised 10-15-03.)

Section 410. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-25, 15-55, 16-190, 18-185, and 21-310 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 18-92 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-25)

Sec. 15-25. Removal of exemptions. If the Department determines that any property has been unlawfully exempted from taxation, or is no longer entitled to exemption, the Department shall, before January 1 of any year, direct the chief county assessment officer to assess the property and return it to the assessment rolls for the next assessment year. The Department shall give notice of its decision to the owner of the property by certified mail. The decision shall be subject to review and hearing under Section 8-35, upon application by the owner filed within 60 days after the notice of decision is mailed. However, the extension of taxes on the assessment shall not be delayed by any proceedings under this Section. If the property is determined to be exempt, any taxes extended upon the assessment shall be abated or, if already paid, be refunded.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-658, eff. 7-16-02; revised 7-26-02.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-55)

Sec. 15-55. State property.

(a) All property belonging to the State of Illinois is exempt. However, the State agency holding title shall file the certificate of ownership and use required by Section 15-10, together with a copy of any written lease or agreement, in effect on March 30 of the assessment year, concerning parcels of 1 acre or more, or an explanation of the terms of any oral agreement under which the property is leased, subleased or rented.

The leased property shall be assessed to the lessee and the taxes thereon extended and billed to the lessee, and collected in the same manner as for property which is not exempt. The lessee shall be liable for the taxes and no lien shall attach to the property of the State.

For the purposes of this Section, the word "leases" includes licenses, franchises, operating agreements and other arrangements under which private individuals, associations or corporations are granted the right to use property of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority and includes all property of the Authority used by others without regard to the size of the leased parcel.

(b) However, all property of every kind belonging to the State of Illinois, which is or may hereafter be leased to the Illinois Prairie Path Corporation, shall be exempt from all assessments, taxation or collection, despite the making of any such lease, if it is used for:

(1) conservation, nature trail or any other charitable, scientific, educational or recreational purposes with public benefit, including the preserving and aiding in the preservation of natural areas, objects, flora, fauna or biotic communities;

(2) the establishment of footpaths, trails and other protected areas;

(3) the conservation of the proper use of natural resources or the promotion of the study of plant and animal communities and of other phases of ecology, natural history and conservation;

(4) the promotion of education in the fields of nature, preservation and conservation; or

(5) similar public recreational activities conducted by the Illinois Prairie Path Corporation.

No lien shall attach to the property of the State. No tax liability shall become the obligation of or be enforceable against Illinois Prairie Path Corporation.

(c) If the State sells the James R. Thompson Center or the Elgin Mental Health Center and surrounding land located at 750 S. State Street, Elgin, Illinois, as provided in subdivision (a)(2) of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, to another entity whose property is not exempt and immediately thereafter enters into a leaseback or other agreement that directly or indirectly gives the State a right to use, control, and possess the property, that portion of the property leased and occupied exclusively by the State shall remain exempt under this Section. For the property to remain exempt under this subsection (c), the State must retain an option to purchase the property at a future date or, within the limitations period for reverters, the property must revert back to the State.

If the property has been conveyed as described in this subsection (c), the property is no longer exempt pursuant to this Section as of the date when:

(1) the right of the State to use, control, and possess the property has been terminated; or

(2) the State no longer has an option to purchase or otherwise acquire the property and there is no provision for a reverter of the property to the State within the limitations period for reverters.

Pursuant to Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code, the State shall notify the chief county assessment officer of any transaction under this subsection (c). The chief county assessment officer shall determine initial and continuing compliance with the requirements of this Section for tax exemption. Failure to notify the chief county assessment officer of a transaction under this subsection (c) or to otherwise comply with the requirements of Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code shall, in the discretion of the chief county assessment officer, constitute cause to terminate the exemption, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code.

(c-1) If the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority sells the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority headquarters building and surrounding land, located at 2700 Ogden Avenue, Downers Grove, Illinois as provided in subdivision (a)(2) of Section 7.5 of the State Property Control Act, to another entity whose property is not exempt and immediately thereafter enters into a leaseback or other agreement that directly or indirectly gives the State or the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority a right to use, control, and possess the property, that portion of the property leased and occupied exclusively by the State or the Authority shall remain exempt under this Section. For the property to remain exempt under this subsection (c), the Authority must retain an option to purchase the property at a future date or, within the limitations period for reverters, the property must revert back to the Authority.

If the property has been conveyed as described in this subsection (c), the property is no longer exempt pursuant to this Section as of the date when:

(1) the right of the State or the Authority to use, control, and possess the property has been terminated; or

(2) the Authority no longer has an option to purchase or otherwise acquire the property and there is no provision for a reverter of the property to the Authority within the limitations period for reverters.

Pursuant to Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code, the Authority shall notify the chief county assessment officer of any transaction under this subsection (c). The chief county assessment officer shall determine initial and continuing compliance with the requirements of this Section for tax exemption. Failure to notify the chief county assessment officer of a transaction under this subsection (c) or to otherwise comply with the requirements of Sections 15-15 and 15-20 of this Code shall, in the discretion of the chief county assessment officer, constitute cause to terminate the exemption, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code.

(d) However, The fair market rent of each parcel of real property in Will County owned by the State of Illinois for the purpose of developing an airport by the Department of Transportation shall include the assessed value of leasehold tax. The lessee of each parcel of real property in Will County owned by the State of Illinois for the purpose of developing an airport by the Department of Transportation shall not be liable for the taxes thereon. In order for the State to compensate taxing districts for the leasehold tax under this paragraph the Will County Supervisor of Assessments shall certify, in writing, to the Department of Transportation, the amount of leasehold taxes extended for the 2002 property tax year for each such exempt parcel. The Department of Transportation shall pay to the Will County Treasurer, from the Tax Recovery Fund, on or before July 1 of each year, the amount of leasehold taxes for each such exempt parcel as certified by the Will County Supervisor of Assessments. The tax compensation shall terminate on December 31, 2010. It is the duty of the Department of Transportation to file with the Office of the Will County Supervisor of Assessments an affidavit stating the termination date for rental of each such parcel due to airport construction. The affidavit shall include the property identification number for each such parcel. In no instance shall tax compensation for property owned by the State be deemed delinquent or bear interest. In no instance shall a lien attach to the property of the State. In no instance shall the State be required to pay leasehold tax compensation in excess of the Tax Recovery Fund's balance.

(e) (d) Public Act 81-1026 applies to all leases or agreements entered into or renewed on or after September 24, 1979.

(Source: P.A. 93-19, eff. 6-20-03; 93-658, eff. 1-22-04; revised 1-22-04.)

(35 ILCS 200/16-190)

Sec. 16-190. Record of proceedings and orders.

(a) The Property Tax Appeal Board shall keep a record of its proceedings and orders and the record shall be a public record. In all cases where the contesting party is seeking a change of $100,000 or more in assessed valuation, the contesting party must provide a court reporter at his or her own expense. The original certified transcript of such hearing shall be forwarded to the Springfield office of the Property Tax Appeal Board and shall become part of the Board's official record of the proceeding on appeal. Each year the Property Tax Appeal Board shall publish a volume containing a synopsis of representative cases decided by the Board during that year. The publication shall be organized by or cross-referenced by the issue presented before the Board in each case contained in the publication. The publication shall be available for inspection by the public at the Property Tax Appeal Board offices and copies shall be available for a reasonable cost, except as provided in Section 16-191.

(b) The Property Tax Appeal Board shall provide annually, no later than February 1, to the Governor and the General Assembly a report that contains for each county the following:

(1) the total number of cases for commercial and industrial property requesting a reduction in assessed value of $100,000 or more for each of the last 5 years;

(2) the total number of cases for commercial and industrial property decided by the Property Tax Appeal Board for each of the last 5 years; and

(3) the total change in assessed value based on the Property Tax Appeal Board decisions for commercial property and industrial property for each of the last 5 years.

(c) The requirement for providing a report to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the following:

(1) the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(2) the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(3) the Clerk of the House of Representatives;

(4) the President of the Senate;

(5) the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(6) the Secretary of the Senate;

(7) the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act; and

(8) the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly, as required by subsection (t) of Section 7 320 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-248, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-92)

Sec. 18-92. Downstate School Finance Authority for Elementary Districts Law. The provisions of the Truth in Taxation Law are subject to the Downstate School Finance Authority for Elementary Districts Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-855, eff. 12-6-02.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-93)

Sec. 18-93 18-92. Maywood Public Library District Tax Levy Validation (2002) Law. The provisions of the Truth in Taxation Law are subject to the Maywood Public Library District Tax Levy Validation (2002) Law.

(Source: P.A. 92-884, eff. 1-13-03; revised 1-18-03.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (m) made for temporary relocation loan repayment purposes pursuant to Sections 2-3.77 and 17-2.2d of the School Code; (n) made for payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.2d of the School Code; and (o) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (h-4) made for stormwater management purposes by the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago under Section 12 of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsection (h) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for the handicapped under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act; and (p) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 if the bonds were approved by referendum after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-215 through 18-230.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, including the assessed value, upon final stabilization of occupancy after new construction is complete, of any real property located within the boundaries of an otherwise or previously exempt military reservation that is intended for residential use and owned by or leased to a private corporation or other entity, and (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property or the recovered tax increment value. If a new rate, a rate decrease, or a limiting rate increase has been approved at an election held after March 21, 2006, then (i) the otherwise applicable limiting rate shall be increased by the amount of the new rate or shall be reduced by the amount of the rate decrease, as the case may be, or (ii) in the case of a limiting rate increase, the limiting rate shall be equal to the rate set forth in the proposition approved by the voters for each of the years specified in the proposition, after which the limiting rate of the taxing district shall be calculated as otherwise provided.

(Source: P.A. 93-601, eff. 1-1-04; 93-606, eff. 11-18-03; 93-612, eff. 11-18-03; 93-689, eff. 7-1-04; 93-690, eff. 7-1-04; 93-1049, eff. 11-17-04; 94-974, eff. 6-30-06; 94-976, eff. 6-30-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-310)

Sec. 21-310. Sales in error.

(a) When, upon application of the county collector, the owner of the certificate of purchase, or a municipality which owns or has owned the property ordered sold, it appears to the satisfaction of the court which ordered the property sold that any of the following subsections are applicable, the court shall declare the sale to be a sale in error:

(1) the property was not subject to taxation, or all or any part of the lien of taxes sold has become null and void pursuant to Section 21-95 or unenforceable pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 18-250 or subsection (b) of Section 22-40,

(2) the taxes or special assessments had been paid prior to the sale of the property,

(3) there is a double assessment,

(4) the description is void for uncertainty,

(5) the assessor, chief county assessment officer, board of review, board of appeals, or other county official has made an error (other than an error of judgment as to the value of any property),

(5.5) the owner of the homestead property had tendered timely and full payment to the county collector that the owner reasonably believed was due and owing on the homestead property, and the county collector did not apply the payment to the homestead property; provided that this provision applies only to homeowners, not their agents or third-party payors,

(6) prior to the tax sale a voluntary or involuntary petition has been filed by or against the legal or beneficial owner of the property requesting relief under the provisions of 11 U.S.C. Chapter 7, 11, 12, or 13,

(7) the property is owned by the United States, the State of Illinois, a municipality, or a taxing district, or

(8) the owner of the property is a reservist or guardsperson who is granted an extension of his or her due date under Sections 21-15, 21-20, and 21-25 of this Act.

(b) When, upon application of the owner of the certificate of purchase only, it appears to the satisfaction of the court which ordered the property sold that any of the following subsections are applicable, the court shall declare the sale to be a sale in error:

(1) A voluntary or involuntary petition under the provisions of 11 U.S.C. Chapter 7, 11, 12, or 13 has been filed subsequent to the tax sale and prior to the issuance of the tax deed.

(2) The improvements upon the property sold have been substantially destroyed or rendered uninhabitable or otherwise unfit for occupancy subsequent to the tax sale and prior to the issuance of the tax deed.

(3) There is an interest held by the United States in the property sold which could not be extinguished by the tax deed.

(4) The real property contains a hazardous substance, hazardous waste, or underground storage tank that would require cleanup or other removal under any federal, State, or local law, ordinance, or regulation, only if the tax purchaser purchased the property without actual knowledge of the hazardous substance, hazardous waste, or underground storage tank. This paragraph (4) applies only if the owner of the certificate of purchase has made application for a sale in error at any time before the issuance of a tax deed.

(c) When the county collector discovers, prior to the expiration of the period of redemption, that a tax sale should not have occurred for one or more of the reasons set forth in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(6), or (a)(7) of this Section, the county collector shall notify the last known owner of the certificate of purchase by certified and regular mail, or other means reasonably calculated to provide actual notice, that the county collector intends to declare an administrative sale in error and of the reasons therefor, including documentation sufficient to establish the reason why the sale should not have occurred. The owner of the certificate of purchase may object in writing within 28 days after the date of the mailing by the county collector. If an objection is filed, the county collector shall not administratively declare a sale in error, but may apply to the circuit court for a sale in error as provided in subsection (a) of this Section. Thirty days following the receipt of notice by the last known owner of the certificate of purchase, or within a reasonable time thereafter, the county collector shall make a written declaration, based upon clear and convincing evidence, that the taxes were sold in error and shall deliver a copy thereof to the county clerk within 30 days after the date the declaration is made for entry in the tax judgment, sale, redemption, and forfeiture record pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. The county collector shall promptly notify the last known owner of the certificate of purchase of the declaration by regular mail and shall promptly pay the amount of the tax sale, together with interest and costs as provided in Section 21-315, upon surrender of the original certificate of purchase.

(d) If a sale is declared to be a sale in error, the county clerk shall make entry in the tax judgment, sale, redemption and forfeiture record, that the property was erroneously sold, and the county collector shall, on demand of the owner of the certificate of purchase, refund the amount paid, pay any interest and costs as may be ordered under Sections 21-315 through 21-335, and cancel the certificate so far as it relates to the property. The county collector shall deduct from the accounts of the appropriate taxing bodies their pro rata amounts paid.

(Source: P.A. 94-312, eff. 7-25-05; 94-662, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-101.47 rep.)

Section 412. The Property Tax Code is amended by repealing Section 18-101.47 as added by Public Acts 92-855 and 92-884.

Section 415. The Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act is amended by changing Section 5-50 as follows:

(35 ILCS 636/5-50)

Sec. 5-50. Returns to the Department.

(a) Commencing on February 1, 2003, for the tax imposed under subsection (a) of Section 5-20 of this Act, every retailer maintaining a place of business in this State shall, on or before the last day of each month make a return to the Department for the preceding calendar month, stating:

(1) Its name;

(2) The address of its principal place of business or the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which it engages in the business of transmitting telecommunications;

(3) Total amount of gross charges billed by it during the preceding calendar month for providing telecommunications during the calendar month;

(4) Total amount received by it during the preceding calendar month on credit extended;

(5) Deductions allowed by law;

(6) Gross charges that were billed by it during the preceding calendar month and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

(7) Amount of tax (computed upon Item 6);

(8) The municipalities to which the Department shall remit the taxes and the amount of such remittances;

(9) Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

(b) Any retailer required to make payments under this Section may make the payments by electronic funds transfer. The Department shall adopt rules necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer. Any retailer who has average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act that exceed $1,000 shall make all payments by electronic funds transfer as required by rules of the Department.

(c) If the retailer's average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act do not exceed $1,000, the Department may authorize such retailer's returns to be filed on a quarter-annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 30th of that year; with the return for April, May, and June of a given year being due by July 31st of that year; with the return for July, August, and September of a given year being due by October 31st of that year; and with the return for October, November, and December of a given year being due by January 31st of the following year.

(d) If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act do not exceed $400, the Department may authorize such retailer's return to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 31st of the following year.

(e) Each retailer whose average monthly remittance to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act was $25,000 or more during the preceding calendar year, excluding the month of highest remittance and the month of lowest remittance in such calendar year, and who is not operated by a unit of local government, shall make estimated payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd, and last day of the month during which the tax remittance is owed to the Department in an amount not less than the lower of either 22.5% of the retailer's actual tax collections for the month or 25% of the retailer's actual tax collections for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter-monthly payments shall be credited against the final remittance of the retailer's return for that month. Any outstanding credit, approved by the Department, arising from the retailer's overpayment of its final remittance for any month may be applied to reduce the amount of any subsequent quarter-monthly payment or credited against the final remittance of the retailer's return for any subsequent month. If any quarter-monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, the retailer shall be liable for penalty and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the retailer has previously made payments for that month to the Department or received credits in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section containing the time within which a retailer may file his or her return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business that makes him or her responsible for filing returns under this Section, the retailer shall file a final return under this Section with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

(g) In making such return, the retailer shall determine the value of any consideration other than money received by it and such retailer shall include the value in its return. Such determination shall be subject to review and revision by the Department in the manner hereinafter provided for the correction of returns.

(h) Any retailer who has average monthly tax billings due to the Department under this Act and the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act that exceed $1,000 shall file the return required by this Section by electronic means as required by rules of the Department.

(i) The retailer filing the return herein provided for shall, at the time of filing the return, pay to the Department the amounts due pursuant to this Act. The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, 99.5% of all taxes, penalties, and interest collected hereunder for deposit into the Municipal Telecommunications Fund, which is hereby created. The remaining 0.5% received by the Department pursuant to this Act shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to be paid to named municipalities from the Municipal Telecommunications Fund for amounts collected during the second preceding calendar month. The named municipalities shall be those municipalities identified by a retailer in such retailer's return as having imposed the tax authorized by the Act. The amount of money to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously erronenously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amount that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification from the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification. When certifying to the Comptroller the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

(j) For municipalities with populations of less than 500,000, whenever the Department determines that a refund shall be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Municipal Telecommunications Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-526, eff. 7-1-02; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 420. The Uniform Penalty and Interest Act is amended by changing Section 3-2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 735/3-2) (from Ch. 120, par. 2603-2)

Sec. 3-2. Interest.

(a) Interest paid by the Department to taxpayers and interest charged to taxpayers by the Department shall be paid at the annual rate determined by the Department. For periods prior to January 1, 2004, that rate shall be the underpayment rate established under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code. For periods after December 31, 2003, that rate shall be:

(1) for the one-year period beginning with the date of underpayment or overpayment, the short-term federal rate established under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) for any period beginning the day after the one-year period described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a), the underpayment rate established under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) The interest rate shall be adjusted on a semiannual basis, on January 1 and July 1, based upon the underpayment rate or short-term federal rate going into effect on that January 1 or July 1 under Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) This subsection (c) is applicable to returns due on and before December 31, 2000. Interest shall be simple interest calculated on a daily basis. Interest shall accrue upon tax and penalty due. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of such notice and demand, interest under this Section on the amount so paid shall not be imposed for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(c-5) This subsection (c-5) is applicable to returns due on and after January 1, 2001. Interest shall be simple interest calculated on a daily basis. Interest shall accrue upon tax due. If notice and demand is made for the payment of any amount of tax due and if the amount due is paid within 30 days after the date of the notice and demand, interest under this Section on the amount so paid shall not be imposed for the period after the date of the notice and demand.

(d) No interest shall be paid upon any overpayment of tax if the overpayment is refunded or a credit approved within 90 days after the last date prescribed for filing the original return, or within 90 days of the receipt of the processable return, or within 90 days after the date of overpayment, whichever date is latest, as determined without regard to processing time by the Comptroller or without regard to the date on which the credit is applied to the taxpayer's account. In order for an original return to be processable for purposes of this Section, it must be in the form prescribed or approved by the Department, signed by the person authorized by law, and contain all information, schedules, and support documents necessary to determine the tax due and to make allocations of tax as prescribed by law. For the purposes of computing interest, a return shall be deemed to be processable unless the Department notifies the taxpayer that the return is not processable within 90 days after the receipt of the return; however, interest shall not accumulate for the period following this date of notice. Interest on amounts refunded or credited pursuant to the filing of an amended return or claim for refund shall be determined from the due date of the original return or the date of overpayment, whichever is later, to the date of payment by the Department without regard to processing time by the Comptroller or the date of credit by the Department or without regard to the date on which the credit is applied to the taxpayer's account. If a claim for refund relates to an overpayment attributable to a net loss carryback as provided by Section 207 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the date of overpayment shall be the last day of the taxable year in which the loss was incurred.

(e) Interest on erroneous refunds. Any portion of the tax imposed by an Act to which this Act is applicable or any interest or penalty which has been erroneously refunded and which is recoverable by the Department shall bear interest from the date of payment of the refund. However, no interest will be charged if the erroneous refund is for an amount less than $500 and is due to a mistake of the Department.

(f) If a taxpayer has a tax liability that is eligible for amnesty under the Tax Delinquency Amnesty Act and the taxpayer fails to satisfy the tax liability during the amnesty period provided for in that Act, then the interest charged by the Department under this Section shall be imposed at a rate that is 200% of the rate that would otherwise be imposed under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-26, eff. 6-20-03; 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; revised 8-1-03.)

Section 425. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 2-134 and 8-138 and the heading of Article 9 and Section 11-134 and the heading of Article 13 and Sections 14-103.04, 15-155, 16-150, 16-158, 16-165, and 16-182 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/2-134) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 2-134)

Sec. 2-134. To certify required State contributions and submit vouchers.

(a) The Board shall certify to the Governor on or before December 15 of each year the amount of the required State contribution to the System for the next fiscal year. The certification shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based.

On or before May 1, 2004, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2005, taking into account the amounts appropriated to and received by the System under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

On or before July 1, 2005, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(b) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, on or as soon as possible after the 15th day of each month the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the required annual State contribution certified under subsection (a). From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through June 30, 2004, the Board shall not submit vouchers for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 in excess of the fiscal year 2004 certified contribution amount determined under this Section after taking into consideration the transfer to the System under subsection (d) of Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. These vouchers shall be paid by the State Comptroller and Treasurer by warrants drawn on the funds appropriated to the System for that fiscal year. If in any month the amount remaining unexpended from all other appropriations to the System for the applicable fiscal year (including the appropriations to the System under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act) is less than the amount lawfully vouchered under this Section, the difference shall be paid from the General Revenue Fund under the continuing appropriation authority provided in Section 1.1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act.

(c) The full amount of any annual appropriation for the System for State fiscal year 1995 shall be transferred and made available to the System at the beginning of that fiscal year at the request of the Board. Any excess funds remaining at the end of any fiscal year from appropriations shall be retained by the System as a general reserve to meet the System's accrued liabilities.

(Source: P.A. 93-2, eff. 4-7-03; 93-665, eff. 3-5-04; 94-4, eff. 6-1-05; 94-536, eff. 8-10-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(40 ILCS 5/8-138) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-138)

Sec. 8-138. Minimum annuities - Additional provisions.

(a) An employee who withdraws after age 65 or more with at least 20 years of service, for whom the amount of age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than the amount stated in this Section, shall from the date of withdrawal, instead of all annuities otherwise provided, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of $150 a year, plus 1 1/2% for each year of service, to and including 20 years, and 1 2/3% for each year of service over 20 years, of his highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after 20 or more years of service, before age 65, shall be entitled to such annuity, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years if under such age at withdrawal, reduced by 2% for each full year or fractional part thereof that his attained age is less than 65, plus an additional 2% reduction for each full year or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 so that the total reduction at age 55 shall be 30%.

(b) An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957, at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, for whom the age and service and prior service annuity combined, is less than the amount stated in this paragraph, shall, from the date of withdrawal, instead of such annuities, be entitled to receive an annuity for life equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age 60 years is entitled to annuity, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 if the employee was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% for each such month if the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936.

Any employee born before January 1, 1936, who withdraws with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject under this subsection (b) to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.

Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with 20 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service, if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30 years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

The maximum annuity payable under part (a) and (b) of this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and prior to January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 80% if withdrawal takes place on or after January 1, 2002 is 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later. For the purpose of the minimum annuity provided in this Section $1,500 is considered the minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual salary for the computation of such annuity is $4,800 for any year before 1953, $6000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.

To preserve rights existing on December 31, 1959, for participants and contributors on that date to the fund created by the Court and Law Department Employees' Annuity Act, who became participants in the fund provided for on January 1, 1960, the maximum annual salary to be considered for such persons for the years 1955 and 1956 is $7,500.

(c) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his salary for annuity purposes under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Section, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, is the amount on which his disability benefit was based.

(d) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose entire disability benefit credit period expires before attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, is entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum annuity provided above, assuming he is then age 55, and reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent as of his attained age on such date or (2) the annuity provided from his age and service and prior service annuity credits.

(e) The minimum annuity provisions do not apply to any former municipal employee receiving an annuity from the fund who re-enters service as a municipal employee, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(f) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a contributor after July 1, 1947 and before attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65, with less than 20 years of service for whom the annuity has been fixed under this Article shall, instead of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:

Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount that it would have contributed had he been under age 65, after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity thereunder.

(g) Instead of the annuity provided in this Article, an employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided under this paragraph, is entitled to a minimum annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average annual salary, as salary is defined and limited in this Section for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service for each year of service, plus the sum of $25 for each year of service. The annuity shall not exceed 60% of such highest average annual salary.

(g-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or 2.4% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of final average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in the last 10 years of service.

(h) The minimum annuities provided under this Section shall be paid in equal monthly installments.

(i) The amendatory provisions of part (b) and (g) of this Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1, 1971.

(j) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 (P.A. 84-23) relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement prior to attainment of age 60, and to the retirement formula, for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after July 18, 1985.

(j-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly (increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective date of that this amendatory Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a retirement annuity before July 1, 2002 the effective date of this amendatory Act, the annuity shall be recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public this amendatory Act 92-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.

(k) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998:

(1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5 years;

(4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, with at least 10 years of service in this fund.

The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection (k) shall not be limited by any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-599, eff. 6-28-02; 92-609, eff. 7-1-02; revised 9-11-02.)

(40 ILCS 5/Art. 9 heading)

ARTICLE 9. COUNTY EMPLOYEES' AND OFFICERS'

ANNUITY AND BENEFIT FUND - COUNTIES OVER

3,000,000 500,000 INHABITANTS

(40 ILCS 5/11-134) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-134)

Sec. 11-134. Minimum annuities.

(a) An employee whose withdrawal occurs after July 1, 1957 at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, (as service is defined or computed in Section 11-216), for whom the age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than the amount stated in this Section, shall, from and after the date of withdrawal, in lieu of all annuities otherwise provided in this Article, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of an amount equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall be entitled to instead receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age 60, shall be entitled to an annuity, to begin not earlier than age 55, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% if the employee was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% if the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936, for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when such annuity is to begin is less than 60.

Any employee born before January 1, 1936 who withdraws with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in excess of 20, but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject under this subsection (a) to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.

Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with 20 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30 years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below age 60.

The maximum annuity payable under this paragraph (a) of this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and prior to January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later. For the purpose of the minimum annuity provided in said paragraphs $1,500 shall be considered the minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual salary to be considered for the computation of such annuity shall be $4,800 for any year prior to 1953, $6,000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.

(b) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his salary for annuity purposes under this Section shall, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, be the amount on which his disability benefit was based.

(c) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose entire disability benefit credit period expires prior to attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, shall be entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum annuity provided above assuming that he is then age 55, and reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent at his attained age on such date, or (2) the annuity provided from his age and service and prior service annuity credits.

(d) The minimum annuity provisions as aforesaid shall not apply to any former employee receiving an annuity from the fund, and who re-enters service as an employee, unless he renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(e) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a contributor after July 1, 1947 and prior to July 1, 1950, or who shall become a contributor to the fund after July 1, 1950 prior to attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65 with less than 20 years of service, for whom the annuity has been fixed under the foregoing Sections of this Article shall, in lieu of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:

Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount that would have been contributed had he been under age 65, after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity thereunder.

(f) In lieu of the annuity provided in this or in any other Section of this Article, an employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided under this paragraph shall be entitled to receive a minimum annual annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding retirement for each year of his service plus the sum of $25 for each year of service. Such annual annuity shall not exceed the maximum percentages stated under paragraph (a) of this Section of such highest average annual salary.

(f-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or 2.4% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later, of final average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or later. For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in the last 10 years of service.

(g) Any annuity payable under the preceding subsections of this Section 11-134 shall be paid in equal monthly installments.

(h) The amendatory provisions of part (a) and (f) of this Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1, 1971.

(h-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly (increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective date of that this amendatory Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a retirement annuity before July 1, 2002 the effective date of this amendatory Act, the annuity shall be recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public this amendatory Act 92-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.

(i) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement prior to attainment of age 60 and increasing the retirement formula for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after August 16, 1985.

(j) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998:

(1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;

(3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5 years;

(4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, with at least 10 years of service in this fund.

The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection (j) shall not be limited by any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-599, eff. 6-28-02; 92-609, eff. 7-1-02; revised 9-11-02.)

(40 ILCS 5/Art. 13 heading)

ARTICLE 13. METROPOLITAN WATER RECLAMATION

DISTRICT RETIREMENT FUND SANITARY DISTRICT

EMPLOYEE'S AND TRUSTEES' ANNUITY AND BENEFIT FUND

(40 ILCS 5/14-103.04) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 14-103.04)

Sec. 14-103.04. Department. "Department": Any department, institution, board, commission, officer, court, or any agency of the State having power to certify payrolls to the State Comptroller authorizing payments of salary or wages against State appropriations, or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer, except those departments included under the term "employer" in the State Universities Retirement System. "Department" includes the Illinois Finance Authority. "Department" also includes the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board and the Illinois Finance Authority.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-11 and 890-44), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-155) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-155)

Sec. 15-155. Employer contributions.

(a) The State of Illinois shall make contributions by appropriations of amounts which, together with the other employer contributions from trust, federal, and other funds, employee contributions, income from investments, and other income of this System, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (a-1).

(a-1) For State fiscal years 2011 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $166,641,900.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $252,064,100.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 15-165, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(b) If an employee is paid from trust or federal funds, the employer shall pay to the Board contributions from those funds which are sufficient to cover the accruing normal costs on behalf of the employee. However, universities having employees who are compensated out of local auxiliary funds, income funds, or service enterprise funds are not required to pay such contributions on behalf of those employees. The local auxiliary funds, income funds, and service enterprise funds of universities shall not be considered trust funds for the purpose of this Article, but funds of alumni associations, foundations, and athletic associations which are affiliated with the universities included as employers under this Article and other employers which do not receive State appropriations are considered to be trust funds for the purpose of this Article.

(b-1) The City of Urbana and the City of Champaign shall each make employer contributions to this System for their respective firefighter employees who participate in this System pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 15-107. The rate of contributions to be made by those municipalities shall be determined annually by the Board on the basis of the actuarial assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, and shall be expressed as a percentage of salary for each such employee. The Board shall certify the rate to the affected municipalities as soon as may be practical. The employer contributions required under this subsection shall be remitted by the municipality to the System at the same time and in the same manner as employee contributions.

(c) Through State fiscal year 1995: The total employer contribution shall be apportioned among the various funds of the State and other employers, whether trust, federal, or other funds, in accordance with actuarial procedures approved by the Board. State of Illinois contributions for employers receiving State appropriations for personal services shall be payable from appropriations made to the employers or to the System. The contributions for Class I community colleges covering earnings other than those paid from trust and federal funds, shall be payable solely from appropriations to the Illinois Community College Board or the System for employer contributions.

(d) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, the required State contributions to the System shall be appropriated directly to the System and shall be payable through vouchers issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 15-165, except as provided in subsection (g).

(e) The State Comptroller shall draw warrants payable to the System upon proper certification by the System or by the employer in accordance with the appropriation laws and this Code.

(f) Normal costs under this Section means liability for pensions and other benefits which accrues to the System because of the credits earned for service rendered by the participants during the fiscal year and expenses of administering the System, but shall not include the principal of or any redemption premium or interest on any bonds issued by the Board or any expenses incurred or deposits required in connection therewith.

(g) If the amount of a participant's earnings for any academic year used to determine the final rate of earnings, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, exceeds the amount of his or her earnings with the same employer for the previous academic year, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, by more than 6%, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in earnings that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (g), the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (h) or (i) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of subsection (h) or (i). Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(h) This subsection (h) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057) this amendatory Act.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to participants under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to a participant at a time when the participant is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 15-135.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases resulting from overload work, including a contract for summer teaching, or overtime when the employer has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that: (i) in the case of overloads (A) the overload work is for the sole purpose of academic instruction in excess of the standard number of instruction hours for a full-time employee occurring during the academic year that the overload is paid and (B) the earnings increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for academic instruction computed using the participant's current salary rate and work schedule; and (ii) in the case of overtime, the overtime was necessary for the educational mission.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any earnings increase resulting from (i) a promotion for which the employee moves from one classification to a higher classification under the State Universities Civil Service System, (ii) a promotion in academic rank for a tenured or tenure-track faculty position, or (iii) a promotion that the Illinois Community College Board has recommended in accordance with subsection (k) of this Section. These earnings increases shall be excluded only if the promotion is to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the earnings increase as a result of the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the average salary paid for other similar positions.

(i) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (h) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g) of this Section.

(j) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(k) The Illinois Community College Board shall adopt rules for recommending lists of promotional positions submitted to the Board by community colleges and for reviewing the promotional lists on an annual basis. When recommending promotional lists, the Board shall consider the similarity of the positions submitted to those positions recognized for State universities by the State Universities Civil Service System. The Illinois Community College Board shall file a copy of its findings with the System. The System shall consider the findings of the Illinois Community College Board when making determinations under this Section. The System shall not exclude any earnings increases resulting from a promotion when the promotion was not submitted by a community college. Nothing in this subsection (k) shall require any community college to submit any information to the Community College Board.

(Source: P.A. 93-2, eff. 4-7-03; 94-4, eff. 6-1-05; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 94-1057, eff. 7-31-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-150) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-150)

Sec. 16-150. Re-entry.

(a) This Section does not apply to an annuitant who returns to teaching under the program established in Section 16-150.1, for the duration of his or her participation in that program.

(b) If an annuitant under this System is again employed as a teacher for an aggregate period exceeding that permitted by Section 16-118, his or her retirement annuity shall be terminated and the annuitant shall thereupon be regarded as an active member.

Such annuitant is not entitled to a recomputation of his or her retirement annuity unless at least one full year of creditable service is rendered after the latest re-entry into service and the annuitant must have rendered at least 3 years of creditable service after last re-entry into service to qualify for a recomputation of the retirement annuity based on amendments enacted while in receipt of a retirement annuity, except when retirement was due to disability.

However, regardless of age, an annuitant in receipt of a retirement annuity may be given temporary employment by a school board not exceeding that permitted under Section 16-118 and continue to receive the retirement annuity.

(c) Unless retirement was necessitated by disability, a retirement shall be considered cancelled and the retirement allowance must be repaid in full if the annuitant is employed as a teacher within the school year during which service was terminated.

(d) An annuitant's retirement which does not include a period of at least one full and complete school year shall be considered cancelled and the retirement annuity must be repaid in full unless such retirement was necessitated by disability.

(Source: P.A. 93-320, eff. 7-23-03; 93-469, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-158) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-158)

Sec. 16-158. Contributions by State and other employing units.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by means of appropriations from the Common School Fund and other State funds of amounts which, together with other employer contributions, employee contributions, investment income, and other income, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (b-3).

(a-1) Annually, on or before November 15, the Board shall certify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution for the coming fiscal year. The certification shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based.

On or before May 1, 2004, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2005, taking into account the amounts appropriated to and received by the System under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

On or before July 1, 2005, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(b) Through State fiscal year 1995, the State contributions shall be paid to the System in accordance with Section 18-7 of the School Code.

(b-1) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, on the 15th day of each month, or as soon thereafter as may be practicable, the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the required annual State contribution certified under subsection (a-1). From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through June 30, 2004, the Board shall not submit vouchers for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 in excess of the fiscal year 2004 certified contribution amount determined under this Section after taking into consideration the transfer to the System under subsection (a) of Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. These vouchers shall be paid by the State Comptroller and Treasurer by warrants drawn on the funds appropriated to the System for that fiscal year.

If in any month the amount remaining unexpended from all other appropriations to the System for the applicable fiscal year (including the appropriations to the System under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act) is less than the amount lawfully vouchered under this subsection, the difference shall be paid from the Common School Fund under the continuing appropriation authority provided in Section 1.1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act.

(b-2) Allocations from the Common School Fund apportioned to school districts not coming under this System shall not be diminished or affected by the provisions of this Article.

(b-3) For State fiscal years 2011 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section; except that in the following specified State fiscal years, the State contribution to the System shall not be less than the following indicated percentages of the applicable employee payroll, even if the indicated percentage will produce a State contribution in excess of the amount otherwise required under this subsection and subsection (a), and notwithstanding any contrary certification made under subsection (a-1) before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998: 10.02% in FY 1999; 10.77% in FY 2000; 11.47% in FY 2001; 12.16% in FY 2002; 12.86% in FY 2003; and 13.56% in FY 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $534,627,700.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $738,014,500.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under subsection (a-1), shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(c) Payment of the required State contributions and of all pensions, retirement annuities, death benefits, refunds, and other benefits granted under or assumed by this System, and all expenses in connection with the administration and operation thereof, are obligations of the State.

If members are paid from special trust or federal funds which are administered by the employing unit, whether school district or other unit, the employing unit shall pay to the System from such funds the full accruing retirement costs based upon that service, as determined by the System. Employer contributions, based on salary paid to members from federal funds, may be forwarded by the distributing agency of the State of Illinois to the System prior to allocation, in an amount determined in accordance with guidelines established by such agency and the System.

(d) Effective July 1, 1986, any employer of a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 shall pay the employer's normal cost of benefits based upon the teacher's service, in addition to employee contributions, as determined by the System. Such employer contributions shall be forwarded monthly in accordance with guidelines established by the System.

However, with respect to benefits granted under Section 16-133.4 or 16-133.5 to a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106, the employer's contribution shall be 12% (rather than 20%) of the member's highest annual salary rate for each year of creditable service granted, and the employer shall also pay the required employee contribution on behalf of the teacher. For the purposes of Sections 16-133.4 and 16-133.5, a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 who is serving in that capacity while on leave of absence from another employer under this Article shall not be considered an employee of the employer from which the teacher is on leave.

(e) Beginning July 1, 1998, every employer of a teacher shall pay to the System an employer contribution computed as follows:

(1) Beginning July 1, 1998 through June 30, 1999, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.3% of each teacher's salary.

(2) Beginning July 1, 1999 and thereafter, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.58% of each teacher's salary.

The school district or other employing unit may pay these employer contributions out of any source of funding available for that purpose and shall forward the contributions to the System on the schedule established for the payment of member contributions.

These employer contributions are intended to offset a portion of the cost to the System of the increases in retirement benefits resulting from this amendatory Act of 1998.

Each employer of teachers is entitled to a credit against the contributions required under this subsection (e) with respect to salaries paid to teachers for the period January 1, 2002 through June 30, 2003, equal to the amount paid by that employer under subsection (a-5) of Section 6.6 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 with respect to salaries paid to teachers for that period.

The additional 1% employee contribution required under Section 16-152 by this amendatory Act of 1998 is the responsibility of the teacher and not the teacher's employer, unless the employer agrees, through collective bargaining or otherwise, to make the contribution on behalf of the teacher.

If an employer is required by a contract in effect on May 1, 1998 between the employer and an employee organization to pay, on behalf of all its full-time employees covered by this Article, all mandatory employee contributions required under this Article, then the employer shall be excused from paying the employer contribution required under this subsection (e) for the balance of the term of that contract. The employer and the employee organization shall jointly certify to the System the existence of the contractual requirement, in such form as the System may prescribe. This exclusion shall cease upon the termination, extension, or renewal of the contract at any time after May 1, 1998.

(f) If the amount of a teacher's salary for any school year used to determine final average salary exceeds the member's annual full-time salary rate with the same employer for the previous school year by more than 6%, the teacher's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in salary that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. For the purposes of this Section, change in employment under Section 10-21.12 of the School Code shall constitute a change in employer. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (g) or (h) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of that subsection. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(g) This subsection (g) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057) this amendatory Act.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to teachers under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to a teacher at a time when the teacher is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 16-132 or 16-133.2.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from overload work, including summer school, when the school district has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that (i) the overload work is for the sole purpose of classroom instruction in excess of the standard number of classes for a full-time teacher in a school district during a school year and (ii) the salary increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for classroom instruction computed on the teacher's current salary and work schedule.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude a salary increase resulting from a promotion (i) for which the employee is required to hold a certificate or supervisory endorsement issued by the State Teacher Certification Board that is a different certification or supervisory endorsement than is required for the teacher's previous position and (ii) to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the salary increase from the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the lesser of the average salary paid for other similar positions in the district requiring the same certification or the amount stipulated in the collective bargaining agreement for a similar position requiring the same certification.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any payment to the teacher from the State of Illinois or the State Board of Education over which the employer does not have discretion, notwithstanding that the payment is included in the computation of final average salary.

(h) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (g) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f) of this Section.

(i) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 93-2, eff. 4-7-03; 93-665, eff. 3-5-04; 94-4, eff. 6-1-05; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 94-1057, eff. 7-31-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-165) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-165)

Sec. 16-165. Board; elected members; vacancies.

(a) In each odd-numbered year, there shall be elected 2 teachers who shall hold office for a term of 4 years beginning July 15 next following their election, in the manner provided under this Section. An elected teacher member of the board who ceases to be a teacher as defined in Section 16-106 may continue to serve on the board for the remainder of the term to which he or she was elected.

(b) One elected annuitant trustee shall first be elected in 1987, and in every fourth year thereafter, for a term of 4 years beginning July 15 next following his or her election.

(c) The elected annuitant position created by this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly shall be filled as soon as possible in the manner provided for vacancies, for an initial term ending July 15, 2001. One elected annuitant trustee shall be elected in 2001, and in every fourth year thereafter, for a term of 4 years beginning July 15 next following his or her election.

(d) Elections shall be held on May 1, unless May 1 falls on a Saturday or Sunday, in which event the election shall be conducted on the following Monday. Candidates shall be nominated by petitions in writing, signed by not less than 500 teachers or annuitants, as the case may be, with their addresses shown opposite their names. The petitions shall be filed with the board's Secretary not less than 90 nor more than 120 days prior to May 1. The Secretary shall determine their validity not less than 75 days before the election.

(e) If, for either teacher or annuitant members, the number of qualified nominees exceeds the number of available positions, the system shall prepare an appropriate ballot with the names of the candidates in alphabetical order and shall mail one copy thereof, at least 10 days prior to the election day, to each teacher or annuitant of this system as of the latest date practicable, at the latest known address, together with a return envelope addressed to the board and also a smaller envelope marked "For Ballot Only", and a slip for signature. Each voter, upon marking his ballot with a cross mark in the square before the name of the person voted for, shall place the ballot in the envelope marked "For Ballot Only", seal the envelope, write on the slip provided therefor his signature and address, enclose both the slip and sealed envelope containing the marked ballot in the return envelope addressed to the board, and mail it. Whether a person is eligible to vote for the teacher nominees or the annuitant nominees shall be determined from system payroll records as of March 1.

Upon receipt of the return envelopes, the system shall open them and set aside unopened the envelopes marked "For Ballot Only". On election day ballots shall be publicly opened and counted by the trustees or canvassers appointed therefor. Each vote cast for a candidate represents one vote only. No ballot arriving after 10 o'clock a.m. on election day shall be counted. The 2 teacher candidates and the annuitant candidate receiving the highest number of votes shall be elected. The board shall declare the results of the election, keep a record thereof, and notify the candidates of the results thereof within 30 days after the election.

If, for either class of members, there are only as many qualified nominees as there are positions available, the balloting as described in this Section shall not be conducted for those nominees, and the board shall declare them duly elected.

(f) A vacancy occurring in the elective membership of the board shall be filled for the unexpired term by a person qualified for the vacant position, selected by the remaining elected members of the board, if there are no more than 6 months remaining on the term. For a term with more than 6 months remaining, the Director of the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois shall institute an election in accordance with this Act to fill the unexpired term.

(Source: P.A. 94-423, eff. 8-2-05; 94-710, eff. 12-5-05; revised 12-8-05.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-182) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-182)

Sec. 16-182. Members' Contribution Reserve. (a) On July 1, 2003, the Members' Contribution Reserve is abolished and the remaining balance shall be transferred from that Reserve to the Benefit Trust Reserve.

(Source: P.A. 93-469, eff. 8-8-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 430. The Interstate Compact on Adoption Act is amended by changing Sections 5-35 and 5-40 as follows:

(45 ILCS 17/5-35)

Sec. 5-35. Medical assistance.

(a) A child with special needs who resides in this State and who is the subject of an adoption assistance agreement with another state shall be eligible for medical assistance from this State under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code upon the filing of agreed documentation obtained from the assistance state and filed with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The Department of Children and Family Services shall be required at least annually to establish that the agreement is still in force or has been renewed.

(b) If a child (i) is in another state, (ii) is covered by an adoption assistance agreement made by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, and (iii) was eligible for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code at the time he or she resided in this State and would continue to be eligible for that assistance if he or she was currently residing in this State, then that child is eligible for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, but only for those medical assistance benefits under Article V that are not provided by the other state. There shall be no payment or reimbursement by this State for services or benefits covered under any insurance or other third party medical contract or arrangement held by the child or the adoptive parents.

(c) The submission of any claim for payment or reimbursement for services or benefits pursuant to this Section or the making of any statement in connection therewith, which claim or statement the maker knows or should know to be false, misleading, or fraudulent, shall be punishable as perjury and shall also be subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 or imprisonment for not to exceed 2 years, or both.

(d) The provisions of this Section shall apply only to medical assistance for children under adoption assistance agreements from states that have entered into a compact with this State under which the other state provided medical assistance to children with special needs under adoption assistance agreements made by this State.

(e) The Illinois Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Illinois Department of Public Aid may adopt all rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(45 ILCS 17/5-40)

Sec. 5-40. Federal participation. Consistent with federal law, the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Illinois Department of Public Aid or the Illinois Department of Human Services, as the successor agency of the Illinois Department of Public Aid, in connection with the administration of this Act and any compact entered into pursuant to this Act, shall include in any state plan made pursuant to the Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-272), Titles IV (e) and XIX of the Social Security Act, and any other applicable federal laws the provision of adoption assistance and medical assistance for which the federal government pays some or all of the cost. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Illinois Department of Public Aid or the Department of Human Services, as the successor agency of the Illinois Department of Public Aid, shall apply for and administer all relevant federal aid in accordance with law.

(Source: P.A. 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 435. The Bi-State Development Agency Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(45 ILCS 105/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 63s-3)

Sec. 3. Vacancies occurring in the office of any commissioner shall be filled by appointment by the Chairman of the County Board that made the original appointment of that commissioner, with the advice and consent of the respective county board, for the unexpired term. Any vacancies occurring during the transition for the implementation of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that were appointed by the Governor, and not by the respective County Board Chairmen, shall be filled by the appointment by the County Board Chairman of Madison County if occurring in the years 2004, 2006, or 2008 or by the County Board Chairman of St. Clair County if occurring in the years 2005 or 2007, each with the advice and consent of the respective county board..

(Source: P.A. 93-432, eff. 6-1-04; revised 10-29-04.)

Section 440. The Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(45 ILCS 160/5)

Sec. 5. Ratification of Compact. The State of Illinois ratifies and approves the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact and enters into that Compact with all other jurisdictions legally joining in it in substantially the following form:

ARTICLE I. PURPOSES

The purposes of this Compact are, through means of joint and cooperative action among the compacting states:

(1) to promote, develop and facilitate orderly, efficient, cost-effective, and uniform insurer receivership laws and operations;

(2) to coordinate interaction between insurer receivership and Guaranty Association operations;

(3) to create the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission; and

(4) to perform these and such other related functions as may be consistent with the state regulation of the business of insurance pursuant to the McCarran-Ferguson Act.

ARTICLE II. DEFINITIONS

For the purposes of this Compact:

(1) "By-laws" means those by-laws prescribed by the Commission for its governance or for directing or controlling the Commission's actions or conduct.

(2) "Compacting state" means any state which has enacted enabling legislation for this Compact.

(3) "Commission" means the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission established by this Compact.

(4) "Commissioner" means the chief insurance regulatory official of a state.

(5) "Deputy Receiver" means a person appointed or retained by a Receiver and who is the Receiver's duly authorized representative for administering one or more estates.

(6) "Domiciliary state" means the state in which an insurer is incorporated or organized; or, in the case of an alien insurer, its state of entry; or in the case of an unauthorized insurer not incorporated, organized, or entered in any state, a state where the insurer is engaged in or doing business.

(7) "Estate" means the assets and liabilities of any insurer in receivership.

(8) "Guaranty Association" means an insurance guaranty fund or association or any similar entity now or hereafter created by statute in a compacting state, other than a receivership, to pay or assume, in whole or in part, the contractual claim obligations of insolvent insurers.

(9) "Insurer" means any person or entity that has done, purports to do, is doing, or is licensed to do any insurance or reinsurance business, or is or has been subject to the authority of, or to liquidation, rehabilitation, supervision, conservation, or ancillary receivership by, any Commissioner.

(10) "Member" means the Commissioner of a compacting state or his or her designee, who shall be a person officially connected with the Commissioner and who is wholly or principally employed by the Commissioner.

(11) "Non-compacting state" means a state which has not enacted enabling legislation for this Compact.

(12) "Operating procedures" means procedures promulgated by the Commission implementing a rule, an existing law in a compacting state, or a provision of this Compact.

(13) "Publication" means the act of publishing in the official state publication in a compacting state or in such other publication as may be established by the Commission.

(14) "Receiver" means receiver, liquidator, rehabilitator, conservator, or ancillary receiver as the context requires.

(15) "Receivership" means any liquidation, rehabilitation, conservation, or ancillary receivership proceeding as the context requires.

(16) "Rules" means acts of the Commission, duly promulgated pursuant to Article VII of this Compact, substantially affecting interested parties in addition to the Commission, which shall have the force and effect of law in the compacting states.

(17) "State" means any state, district or territory of the United States of America.

ARTICLE III. ESTABLISHMENT OF THE COMMISSION AND VENUE

(1) The compacting states hereby create and establish an entity known as the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission.

(2) The Commission is a body corporate of each compacting state.

(3) The Commission is a not-for-profit entity, separate and distinct from the compacting states.

(4) The Commission is solely responsible for its liabilities except as otherwise provided in this Compact.

(5) Except as otherwise specifically provided in state or federal law in the jurisdiction where the Commission's principal office is located or where the Commission is acting as Receiver, venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought in a court of competent jurisdiction where the Commission's principal office is located.

ARTICLE IV. POWERS OF THE COMMISSION

The Commission shall have all of the following powers:

(1) To promulgate rules which shall have the force and effect of statutory law and shall be binding in the compacting states to the extent and in the manner provided in this Compact.

(2) To promulgate operating procedures which shall be binding in the compacting states to the extent and in the manner provided in this Compact.

(3) To oversee, supervise, and coordinate the activities of receivers in compacting states.

(4) To act as Receiver of insurers organized under the laws of, engaged in, or doing the business of insurance in a compacting state upon the request of the Commissioner of such state or when grounds for receivership by the Commission exist under Article IX of this Compact.

(5) To act as Deputy Receiver of insurers organized under the laws of, engaged in, or doing the business of insurance in a non-compacting state in accordance with Article IX of this Compact.

(6) To act as ancillary Receiver in a compacting state of an insurer domiciled in a non-compacting state.

(7) To monitor the activities and functions of Guaranty Associations in the compacting states.

(8) To delegate its operating authority or functions; provided, that its rulemaking authority under Article VII of this Compact shall not be delegated.

(9) To bring or prosecute legal proceedings or actions in its name as the Commission, or in the name of the Commission acting as Receiver.

(10) To bring or prosecute legal proceedings or actions as Receiver on behalf of an estate or its policyholders and creditors; provided, that any Guaranty Association's standing to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected.

(11) To issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence.

(12) To establish and maintain offices.

(13) To purchase and maintain insurance and bonds.

(14) To borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel including, but not limited to, members and their staff.

(15) To elect or appoint such officers, attorneys, employees, or agents, and to fix their compensation, define their duties, and determine their qualifications; and to establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to, among other things, conflicts of interest, rates of compensation, and qualifications of personnel.

(16) To accept any and all donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and to receive, utilize, and dispose of the same.

(17) To lease, purchase, accept gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal, or mixed.

(18) To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property, real, personal, or mixed.

(19) To enforce compliance with Commission rules, operating procedures, and by-laws.

(20) To provide for dispute resolution among compacting states and Receivers.

(21) To represent and advise compacting states on issues relating to insurers domiciled or doing business in non-compacting jurisdictions, consistent with the purposes of this compact.

(22) To provide advice and training to receivership personnel of compacting states, and to be a resource for compacting states by maintaining a reference library of relevant materials.

(23) To establish a budget and make expenditures.

(24) To borrow money.

(25) To appoint committees including, but not limited to, an industry advisory committee and an executive committee of members.

(26) To provide and receive information relating to receiverships and Guaranty Associations and to cooperate with law enforcement agencies.

(27) To adopt and use a corporate seal.

(28) To perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact as may be consistent with the state regulation of the business of insurance pursuant to the McCarran-Ferguson McCarren-Ferguson Act.

ARTICLE V. ORGANIZATION OF THE COMMISSION

Section A. Membership, voting, and by-laws.

(1) A compacting state shall have and be limited to one member. A member shall be qualified to serve in such capacity under or pursuant to the applicable law of the compacting state. A compacting state retains the discretionary right to determine the due election or appointment and qualification of its own Commissioner, and to fill all vacancies of its member.

(2) A member shall be entitled to one vote.

(3) The Commission shall, by a majority of the members, prescribe by-laws to govern its conduct as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of the Compact, including, but not limited to:

(a) establishing the fiscal year of the Commission;

(b) providing reasonable standards and procedures:

(i) for the establishment of committees, and (ii) governing any general or specific delegation of any authority or function of the Commission;

(c) providing reasonable procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the Commission and for ensuring reasonable notice of each such meeting;

(d) establishing the titles and responsibilities of the officers of the Commission;

(e) providing reasonable standards and procedures for the establishment of the personnel policies and programs of the Commission. Notwithstanding any civil service or other similar laws of any compacting state, the by-laws shall exclusively govern the personnel policies and programs of the Commission; and

(f) providing a mechanism for winding up the operations of the Commission and the equitable return of any surplus funds that may exist after the dissolution of the Compact after the payment or reserving of all of its debts and obligations, or both.

Section B. Officers and personnel.

(1) The Commission shall, by a majority of the members, elect annually from among its members a chairperson and a vice chairperson, each of whom shall have such authorities and duties as may be specified in the by-laws. The chairperson or, in his or her absence or disability, a member designated in accordance with the by-laws, shall preside at all meetings of the Commission. The officers so elected shall serve without compensation or remuneration from the Commission; provided, that subject to the availability of budgeted funds, the officers shall be reimbursed for any actual and necessary costs and expenses incurred by them in the performance of their duties and responsibilities as officers of the Commission.

(2) The Commission may, by a majority of the members, appoint or retain an executive director for such period, upon such terms and conditions and for such compensation as the Commission may deem appropriate. The executive director shall serve as secretary to the Commission, but shall not be a member of the Commission. The executive director shall hire and supervise such other staff as may be authorized by the Commission.

Section C. Corporate records of the Commission. The Commission shall maintain its corporate books and records in accordance with the by-laws.

Section D. Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification.

(1) The members, officers, executive director, and employees of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused or arising out of or relating to any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability, or both, for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful and wanton misconduct of any such person, or to protect the Commission acting as Receiver under Article IX of this Compact.

(2) The Commission shall defend any Commissioner of a compacting state, his or her representatives or employees, or the Commission's representatives or employees in any civil action seeking to impose liability against such person arising out of or relating to any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from gross negligence or intentional wrongdoing on the part of such person.

(3) The Commission shall indemnify and hold the Commissioner of a compacting state, his or her representatives or employees, or the Commission's representatives or employees harmless in the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against such person arising out of or relating to any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from gross negligence or intentional wrongdoing on the part of such person.

(4) The costs and expenses of defense and indemnification of the Commission acting as Receiver of an estate shall be paid as administrative expenses from the assets of that estate unless such costs and expenses are covered by insurance maintained by the Commission.

ARTICLE VI. MEETINGS AND ACTS OF THE COMMISSION

(1) The Commission shall meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this Compact and unless a greater percentage is required by the by-laws, in order to constitute an act of the Commission, such act shall have been taken at a meeting of the Commission and shall have received an affirmative vote of a majority of the members.

(3) Each member of the Commission shall have the right and power to cast a vote to which that compacting state is entitled and to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission. A member shall vote in person and shall not delegate his or her vote to another member. The by-laws may provide for members' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of telecommunication.

(4) The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. The chairperson of the Commission may call additional meetings at any time and, upon the request of a majority of the members, shall call additional meetings.

(5) The Commission's rules shall establish conditions and procedures under which the Commission shall make its information and official records available to the public for inspection or copying. The Commission may exempt from disclosure any information or official records to the extent disclosure would adversely affect personal privacy rights or proprietary interests. In promulgating such rules, the Commission may consider any special circumstances pertaining to insurer insolvencies, but shall be guided by the principles embodied in state and federal freedom of information laws. The Commission may promulgate additional rules under which it may make available to law enforcement agencies records and information otherwise exempt from disclosure and may enter into agreements with law enforcement agencies to receive or exchange information or records subject to nondisclosure and confidentiality provisions.

(6) Public notice shall be given of all meetings, and all meetings shall be open to the public, except as set forth in the rules or as otherwise provided in this Compact. The Commission shall promulgate rules consistent with the principles contained in the federal Government in Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. Section 552b, as may be amended. The Commission and any of its committees may close a meeting to the public where it determines by two-thirds vote that an open meeting would be likely to:

(a) relate solely to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

(b) disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute;

(c) disclose trade secrets or commercial or financial information which is privileged or confidential;

(d) involve accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

(e) disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(f) disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes;

(g) disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Commission with respect to a regulated entity for the purpose of regulation or supervision of such entity;

(h) disclose information, the premature disclosure of which would significantly endanger the stability of a regulated entity;

(i) specifically relate to the Commission's issuance of a subpoena or its participation in a civil action or proceeding.

(7) For every meeting closed pursuant to paragraph (6), the Commission's chief legal officer shall publicly certify that, in his or her opinion, the meeting may be closed to the public and shall reference each relevant exemptive provision. The Commission shall keep minutes which shall fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in any meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote (reflected in the vote of each member on the question). All documents considered in connection with any action shall be identified in such minutes.

ARTICLE VII. RULEMAKING FUNCTIONS OF THE COMMISSION

(1) The Commission shall promulgate rules and operating procedures in order to effectively and efficiently achieve the purposes of this Compact; provided, that the Commission shall not promulgate any rules: (i) directly relating to Guaranty Associations including, but not limited to, rules governing coverage, funding, or assessment mechanisms, or (ii) (except pursuant to rules promulgated under Article VII(3) of this Compact) altering the statutory priorities for distributing assets out of an estate.

(2) Rulemaking shall occur pursuant to the criteria set forth in this Article and the rules and operating procedures promulgated pursuant thereto. Such rulemaking shall substantially conform to the principles of the federal Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C.S. Section 551 et seq. and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C.S. app. 2, Section 1 et seq., as may be amended.

(3) Other than the promulgation of such rules as are necessary for the orderly operation of the Commission, the first rule to be considered by the Commission shall be uniform provisions governing insurer receiverships including, but not limited to, provisions requiring compacting states to implement, execute, and administer in a fair, just, effective, and efficient manner rules and operating procedures relating to receiverships. The Commission shall within 3 years of the adoption of this Compact by 2 or more states, promulgate such uniform provisions through the rulemaking process. Such uniform provisions shall become law in all of the compacting states upon legislative enactment in a majority of the compacting states.

(4) All rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment; provided, that if a compacting state expressly rejects such rule or amendment through legislative enactment as of the expiration of the second full calendar year after such rule is promulgated, such rule or amendment shall have no further force or effect in the rejecting compacting state. If a majority of compacting states reject a rule, then such rule shall have no further force or effect in any compacting state.

(5) When promulgating a rule or operating procedure, the Commission shall:

(a) effect publication of the proposed rulemaking, stating with particularity the text of the rule or operating procedure which is proposed and the reason for the proposed rule or operating procedure;

(b) allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions and arguments, which information the Commission shall make publicly available;

(c) provide an opportunity for an informal hearing; and

(d) promulgate a final rule or operating procedure and its effective date, if appropriate, based on the rulemaking record.

(6) Not later than 60 days after a rule or operating procedure is promulgated, any interested person may file a petition in a court of competent jurisdiction where the Commission's principal office is located for judicial review of such rule or operating procedure. If the court finds that the Commission's action is not supported by substantial evidence in the rulemaking record, the court shall hold the rule unlawful and set it aside.

ARTICLE VIII. OVERSIGHT AND

DISPUTE RESOLUTION BY THE COMMISSION

Section A. Oversight.

(1) The Commission shall oversee the administration and operations of receiverships in compacting states and shall monitor receiverships being administered in non-compacting states which may significantly affect compacting states.

(2) To aid its monitoring, oversight, and coordination responsibilities, the Commission shall establish operating procedures requiring each member to submit written reports to the Commission as follows:

(a) An initial report to the Commission upon a finding or other official action by the compacting state that grounds exist for receivership of an insurer doing business in more than one state. Thereafter, reports shall be submitted periodically and as otherwise required pursuant to the Commission's operating procedures. The Commission shall be entitled to receive notice of, and shall have standing to appear in, compacting states' receiverships.

(b) An initial report of the status of an insurer within a reasonable time after the initiation of a receivership.

(3) The Commission shall promulgate operating procedures requiring Receivers to submit to the Commission periodic written reports and such additional information and documentation as the Commission may reasonably request. Each compacting state's Receivers shall establish the capability to obtain and provide all such records, data, and information required by the Commission in accordance with the Commission's operating procedures.

(4) Except as to privileged records, data, and information, the laws of any compacting state pertaining to confidentiality or nondisclosure shall not relieve any compacting state Commissioner of the responsibility to disclose any relevant records, data, or information to the Commission; provided, that disclosure to the Commission shall not be deemed to waive or otherwise affect any confidentiality requirement; and further provided, that the Commission shall be subject to the compacting state's laws pertaining to confidentiality and nondisclosure with respect to all such records, data, and information in its possession.

(5) The courts and executive agencies in each compacting state shall enforce this Compact and shall take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the Compact's purposes and intent. In any receivership or other judicial or administrative proceeding in a compacting state pertaining to the subject matter of this Compact which may affect the powers, responsibilities, or actions of the Commission, the Commission shall be entitled to receive all service of process in any such proceeding and shall have standing to intervene in the receivership or proceeding for all purposes.

(6) The Commission shall analyze and correlate records, data, information, and reports received from Receivers and Guaranty Associations and shall make recommendations for improving their performance to the compacting states. The Commission shall include summary information and data regarding its oversight functions in its annual report.

Section B. Dispute resolution.

(1) The Commission shall attempt, upon the request of a member, to resolve any disputes or other issues which are subject to this Compact and which may arise among compacting states and non-compacting states.

(2) The compacting states shall report to the Commission on issues or activities of concern to them and cooperate with and support the Commission in the discharge of its duties and responsibilities.

(3) The Commission shall promulgate an operating procedure providing for binding dispute resolution for disputes among Receivers.

(4) The Commission shall facilitate voluntary dispute resolution for disputes among Guaranty Associations and Receivers.

ARTICLE IX. RECEIVERSHIP FUNCTIONS OF THE COMMISSION

(1) The Commission has authority to act as Receiver of any insurer domiciled, engaged in, or doing business in a compacting state upon the request of the Commissioner of such compacting state or as otherwise provided in this Compact.

(a) The Commission as Receiver shall have all powers and duties pursuant to the receivership laws of the domiciliary state.

(b) The Commission shall maintain accounts of receipts and disbursements of the estates for which it is acting as Receiver, consistent with the accounting practices and procedures set forth in the by-laws.

(c) The Commission shall cause an annual audit of each estate for which it is acting as Receiver, to be conducted by an independent certified public accountant. The costs and expenses of such audit shall be paid as administrative expenses from the assets of the estate. The Commission shall not cause an audit to be conducted of any estate that lacks sufficient assets to conduct such audit.

(d) The Commission as Receiver is authorized to delegate its receivership duties and functions and to effectuate such delegation through contracts with others.

(2) The Commission shall act as Receiver of any insurer domiciled or doing business in a compacting state in the event that the member acting as Receiver in that compacting state fails to comply with duly promulgated Commission rules or operating procedures. The Commission shall notify such member in writing of noncompliance with Commission rules or operating procedures. If the member acting as Receiver fails to remedy such noncompliance within 10 days after receipt of such notification, the Commission may petition the supervising court before which such receivership is pending for an order substituting and appointing the Commission as Receiver of the estate.

(3) The Commission shall not act as Receiver of an estate which appears to lack sufficient assets to fund such receivership unless the compacting state makes provisions for the payment of the estate's administrative expenses satisfactory to the Commission.

(4) The Commission may act as Deputy Receiver for any insurer domiciled or doing business in a non-compacting state in accordance with such state's laws upon request of that non-compacting state's Commissioner and approval of the Commission.

(5) With respect to receiverships pending in a compacting state on the effective date of the enactment of this Compact by the compacting state:

(a) the Commission may act as Receiver of an insurer upon the request of that compacting state's member and approval of the Commission; and

(b) the Commission shall oversee, monitor, and coordinate the activities of all receiverships pending in that compacting state regardless whether the Commission is acting as Receiver of estates in such state.

ARTICLE X. FINANCE

(1) The Commission shall pay or provide for the payment of the reasonable expenses of its establishment and organization.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this Compact or by act of the Commission, the costs and expenses of each compacting state shall be the sole and exclusive responsibility of the respective compacting state. The Commission may pay or provide for actual and necessary costs and expenses for attendance of its members at official meetings of the Commission or its designated committees.

(3) The Commission shall levy on and collect an annual assessment from each compacting state and each insurer authorized to do business in a compacting state, and writing direct insurance, to cover the cost of the internal operations and activities of the Commission and its staff in a total amount sufficient to cover the Commission's annual budget.

(a) The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated 75% to insurers, hereinafter referred to as the "insurers' portion", and 25% to compacting states, hereinafter referred to as the "compacting states' portion". The insurer portion shall be allocated to each insurer by the percentage derived from a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the gross direct written premium received on that insurer's business in all compacting states and the denominator of which shall be the gross direct written premium received by all insurers on business in all compacting states. The compacting states' portion shall be allocated to each compacting state by the percentage derived from a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the gross direct written premium received by all insurers on business in that compacting state and the denominator shall be the gross direct written premium received on all insurers on business in all compacting states. A compacting state's portion shall be funded as designated by that state's legislature. In no event shall an insurer's assessment be less than $50 or more than $25,000; provided, that affiliated insurers' combined assessments shall not exceed $50,000. Upon the request of an insurer, the Commission may exempt or defer the assessment of any insurer if such assessment would cause the insurer's financial impairment.

(b) These assessments shall not be used to pay any costs or expenses incurred by the Commission and its staff acting as Receiver of estates. Such costs and expenses shall be paid as administrative expenses from the assets of the estates as provided by law, except as otherwise provided in this Compact.

(c) An insurer authorized to do business in a compacting state shall timely pay assessments to the Commission. Failure to pay such assessments shall not be grounds for the revocation, suspension, or denial of an insurer's authority to do business, but shall subject the insurer to suit by the Commission for recovery of any assessment due, attorneys' fees, and costs, together with interest from the date the assessment is due at a rate of 10% per annum, and to civil forfeiture in an amount to be determined by the Commissioner of that compacting state in which the insurer received the greatest premium in the year next preceding the first year for which the insurer shall be delinquent in payment of assessments.

(4) The Commission shall be reimbursed in the following manner for the costs and expenses incurred by the Commission and its staff acting as Receiver of estates to the extent that an insurer's assets may be insufficient for the effective administration of its estate:

(a) if the insurer is domiciled in a compacting state, the estate shall be closed unless that compacting state makes provisions for reimbursing the Commission; and

(b) if the insurer is unauthorized to do business in a compacting state or if the insurer is domiciled in a non-compacting state and subject to ancillary receivership, then the Commission and such state shall make provisions for reimbursing the Commission prior to the Commission becoming Receiver of such insurer.

(5) To fund the cost of the initial operations of the Commission until its first annual budget is adopted and related assessments have been made, contributions from compacting states and others may be accepted and a one time assessment on insurers doing a direct insurance business in the compacting states may be made not to exceed $450 per insurer.

(6) The Commission's adopted budget for a fiscal year shall not be approved until it has been subject to notice and comment as set forth in Article VII of this Compact. The budget shall determine the amount of the annual assessment. The Commission may accumulate a net worth not to exceed 30% of its then annual cost of operation to provide for contingencies and events not contemplated. These accumulated funds shall be held separately and shall not be used for any other purpose. The Commission's budget may include a provision for a contribution to the Commission's net worth.

(7) The Commission shall be exempt from all taxation in and by the compacting states.

(8) The Commission shall not pledge the credit of any compacting state, except by and with the appropriate legal authority of that compacting state.

(9) The Commission shall keep complete and accurate accounts of all its internal receipts (including grants and donations) and disbursements of all funds, other than receivership assets, under its control. The internal financial accounts of the Commission shall be subject to the accounting procedures established under its by-laws. The financial accounts and reports including the system of internal controls and procedures of the Commission shall be audited annually by an independent certified public accountant. Upon the determination of the Commission, but no less frequently than every 3 years, the review of such independent auditor shall include a management and performance audit of the Commission. The report of such independent audit shall be made available to the public and shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission to the Governors and legislatures of the compacting states. The Commission's internal accounts, any workpapers related to any internal audit, and any workpapers related to the independent audit, shall be confidential; provided, that such materials shall be made available: (i) in compliance with the order of any court of competent jurisdiction; (ii) pursuant to such reasonable rules as the Commission shall promulgate; and (iii) to any Commissioner, Governor of a compacting state, or their duly authorized representatives.

(10) No compacting state shall have any claim to or ownership of any property held by or vested in the Commission or the Commission acting as Receiver or to any other Commission funds held pursuant to the provisions of this Compact.

ARTICLE XI. COMPACTING STATES, EFFECTIVE DATE, AND AMENDMENT

(1) Any state is eligible to become a compacting state.

(2) The Compact shall become effective and binding upon legislative enactment of the Compact into law by 2 compacting states. Thereafter, it shall become effective and binding as to any other compacting state upon enactment of the Compact into law by that state.

(3) Amendments to the Compact may be proposed by the Commission for enactment by the compacting states. No amendment shall become effective and binding upon the Commission and the compacting states unless and until it is enacted into law by unanimous consent of the compacting states.

ARTICLE XII. WITHDRAWAL, DEFAULT, AND TERMINATION

Section A. Withdrawal.

(1) Once effective, the Compact shall continue in force and remain binding upon each and every compacting state; provided, that a compacting state may withdraw from the Compact ("withdrawing state") by enacting a statute specifically repealing the statute which enacted the Compact into law.

(2) The effective date of withdrawal is the effective date of the repeal; provided, that the repeal shall not apply to any receiverships, for which the Commission is acting as Receiver, pending on the date of the repeal except by mutual agreement of the Commission and the withdrawing state.

(3) The withdrawing state shall immediately notify the Chairperson of the Commission in writing upon the introduction of legislation repealing this Compact in the withdrawing state.

(4) The Commission shall notify the other compacting states of the withdrawing state's intent to withdraw within 60 days of its receipt thereof.

(5) The withdrawing state is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of withdrawal, including any obligations, the performance of which extend beyond the effective date of withdrawal, except to the extent those obligations may have been released or relinquished by mutual agreement of the Commission and the withdrawing state. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the withdrawing state is responsible for the costs and expenses of its estates subject to this Compact pending on the date of repeal; the Commission and the other estates subject to this Compact shall not bear any costs and expenses related to the withdrawing state's estates unless otherwise mutually agreed upon between the Commission and the withdrawing state.

(6) Reinstatement following withdrawal of any compacting state shall occur upon the withdrawing state reenacting the Compact or upon such later date as determined by the Commission.

Section B. Default.

(1) If the Commission determines that any compacting state has at any time defaulted ("defaulting state") in the performance of any of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact, the by-laws, or duly promulgated rules, all rights, privileges, and benefits conferred by this Compact and any agreements entered into pursuant to this Compact shall be suspended from the effective date of default as fixed by the Commission. The grounds for default include, but are not limited to, failure of a compacting state to perform such obligations or responsibilities and any other grounds designated in Commission rules. The Commission shall immediately notify the defaulting state in writing of the defaulting state's suspension pending a cure of the default. The Commission shall stipulate the conditions and the time period within which the defaulting state must cure its default. If the defaulting state fails to cure the default within the time period specified by the Commission, the defaulting state shall be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the compacting states and all rights, privileges, and benefits conferred by this Compact shall be terminated from the effective date of termination.

(2) Within 60 days of the effective date of termination of a defaulting state, the Commission shall notify the Governor and the Majority and Minority Leaders of the defaulting state's legislature of such termination.

(3) The termination of a defaulting state shall apply to all receiverships, for which the Commission is acting as Receiver, pending on the effective date of termination except by mutual agreement of the Commission and the defaulting state.

(4) The defaulting state is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination and is responsible for the costs and expenses relating to its estates subject to this Compact pending on the date of the termination. The Commission and the other estates subject to this Compact shall not bear any costs or expenses relating the defaulting state's estates unless otherwise mutually agreed upon between the Commission and the defaulting state.

(5) Reinstatement following termination of any compacting state requires both a reenactment of the Compact by the defaulting state and the approval of the Commission pursuant to the rules.

Section C. Dissolution of Compact.

(1) The Compact dissolves effective upon the date of the withdrawal or the termination by default of the compacting state which reduces membership in the Compact to one compacting state.

(2) Upon the dissolution of this Compact, the Compact becomes null and void and shall be of no further force or effect, and the business and affairs of the Commission shall be wound up and any surplus funds shall be distributed in accordance with the by-laws.

ARTICLE XIII. SEVERABILITY AND CONSTRUCTION

(1) The provisions of this Compact shall be severable, and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision is deemed unenforceable, the remaining provisions of the Compact shall be enforceable.

(2) The provisions of this Compact shall be liberally construed to effectuate its purposes.

ARTICLE XIV. BINDING EFFECT OF COMPACT AND OTHER LAWS

Section A. Other laws.

(1) Nothing herein prevents the enforcement of any other law of a compacting state that is not inconsistent with this Compact.

(2) All compacting states' laws conflicting with this Compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict.

Section B. Binding effect of this Compact.

(1) All lawful actions of the Commission, including all rules and operating procedures promulgated by the Commission, are binding upon the compacting states.

(2) All agreements between the Commission and the compacting states are binding in accordance with their terms.

(3) Upon the request of a party to a conflict over meaning or interpretation of Commission actions, and upon a majority vote of the compacting states, the Commission may issue advisory opinions regarding such meaning or interpretation.

(4) In the event any provision of this Compact exceeds the constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any compacting state, the obligations, duties, powers, or jurisdiction sought to be conferred by such provision upon the Commission shall be ineffective and such obligations, duties, powers or jurisdiction shall remain in the compacting state and shall be exercised by the agency thereof to which such obligations, duties, powers, or jurisdiction are delegated by law in effect at the time this Compact becomes effective.

(Source: P.A. 89-247, eff. 1-1-96; revised 10-13-05.)

Section 445. The Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 110 as follows:

(45 ILCS 170/110)

Sec. 110. (Amendatory provisions; text omitted.)

(Source: P.A. 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; text omitted.)

(45 ILCS 170/115)

Sec. 115. 110. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by repealing Section 3-3-11.

(Source: P.A. 92-571, eff. 6-26-02; revised 7-15-02.)

Section 450. The Public Building Commission Act is amended by changing Section 19.1 as follows:

(50 ILCS 20/19.1)

Sec. 19.1. Public Building Commission in municipality over 500,000. On or before December 1, 1995 and on or before the first day of May and first day of December of each subsequent calendar year, the Public Building Commission created and organized under this Act in and for a municipality with over 500,000 population shall prepare and file with the General Assembly, the board of education of the school district located in that municipality, and the local school council of each attendance center in that school district for which there is pending or under construction but not completed a project for the construction, renovation, or rehabilitation of a school building or other school facility that is to be used by that attendance center, a status report that sets forth: (1) the date when work on the project began, (2) whether work on the project at the time the report is filed is progressing ahead of, on, or behind the schedule established for work on the project to be performed, (3) the projected completion date of the project, and (4) whether the labor and materials furnished for the project as of the time the report is filed were furnished at the project cost budgeted for such labor and materials, and if not, the amount by which the labor and materials so furnished exceed or are less than the project cost budgeted for such labor and materials.

(Source: P.A. 89-384, eff. 8-18-95; revised 9-25-06.)

Section 455. The Special Assessment Supplemental Bond and Procedures Act is amended by changing Section 55 as follows:

(50 ILCS 460/55)

Sec. 55. County clerk may collect. Pursuant to the Illinois constitutional and statutory provisions relating to intergovernmental cooperation, the county clerk of any county in which property subject to a special assessment is located may, but shall not be required to, agree to mail bills for a special assessment with the regular tax bills of the county, or otherwise as may be provided by a special assessment law. If the clerk agrees to mail such bills with the regular tax bills, then the annual amount due as of January 2 shall become due instead in even installments with each tax bill made during the year in which such January 2 date occurs, thus deferring to later date in the year the obligation to pay the assessments.

If In the event that the county clerk does not agree to mail the such bills, or if in the event that the municipality declines to request the county clerk to mail the said bills, the municipality still may bill the annual amount due, as of January 2 2nd, in 2 even installments to become due on or about the due dates date for the real estate tax bills issued by the county clerk during the year in which the January 2 2nd date occurs, thus thereby deferring to later dates in said year the obligation to pay the assessment installment to later dates in that year.

If In the event that the county clerk agrees to mail the such bills on behalf of a municipality, the county may charge a fee for such services to be paid from the special assessment. The Such fee shall be considered as a cost of making, levying, and collecting the assessment provided for in Section 9-2-139 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-196, eff. 7-14-03; 93-222, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 460. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 15.3 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/15.3) (from Ch. 134, par. 45.3)

Sec. 15.3. Surcharge.

(a) The corporate authorities of any municipality or any county may, subject to the limitations of subsections (c), (d), and (h), and in addition to any tax levied pursuant to the Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act, impose a monthly surcharge on billed subscribers of network connection provided by telecommunication carriers engaged in the business of transmitting messages by means of electricity originating within the corporate limits of the municipality or county imposing the surcharge at a rate per network connection determined in accordance with subsection (c). Provided, however, that where multiple voice grade communications channels are connected between the subscriber's premises and a public switched network through private branch exchange (PBX) or centrex type service, a municipality imposing a surcharge at a rate per network connection, as determined in accordance with this Act, shall impose 5 such surcharges per network connection, as determined in accordance with subsections (a) and (d) of Section 2.12 of this Act. For mobile telecommunications services, if a surcharge is imposed it shall be imposed based upon the municipality or county that encompasses the customer's place of primary use as defined in the Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Conformity Act. A municipality may enter into an intergovernmental agreement with any county in which it is partially located, when the county has adopted an ordinance to impose a surcharge as provided in subsection (c), to include that portion of the municipality lying outside the county in that county's surcharge referendum. If the county's surcharge referendum is approved, the portion of the municipality identified in the intergovernmental agreement shall automatically be disconnected from the county in which it lies and connected to the county which approved the referendum for purposes of a surcharge on telecommunications carriers.

(b) For purposes of computing the surcharge imposed by subsection (a), the network connections to which the surcharge shall apply shall be those in-service network connections, other than those network connections assigned to the municipality or county, where the service address for each such network connection or connections is located within the corporate limits of the municipality or county levying the surcharge. Except for mobile telecommunication services, the "service address" shall mean the location of the primary use of the network connection or connections. For mobile telecommunication services, "service address" means the customer's place of primary use as defined in the Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Conformity Act. With respect to network connections provided for use with pay telephone services for which there is no billed subscriber, the telecommunications carrier providing the network connection shall be deemed to be its own billed subscriber for purposes of applying the surcharge.

(c) Upon the passage of an ordinance to impose a surcharge under this Section the clerk of the municipality or county shall certify the question of whether the surcharge may be imposed to the proper election authority who shall submit the public question to the electors of the municipality or county in accordance with the general election law; provided that such question shall not be submitted at a consolidated primary election. The public question shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the county (or city, village or incorporated town) of ..... impose YES a surcharge of up to ...¢ per month per network connection, which surcharge will be added to the monthly bill you receive ------------------

for telephone or telecommunications charges, for the purpose of installing (or improving) a 9-1-1 Emergency NO Telephone System?

-------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of the votes cast upon the public question are in favor thereof, the surcharge shall be imposed.

However, if a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board is to be created pursuant to an intergovernmental agreement under Section 15.4, the ordinance to impose the surcharge shall be subject to the approval of a majority of the total number of votes cast upon the public question by the electors of all of the municipalities or counties, or combination thereof, that are parties to the intergovernmental agreement.

The referendum requirement of this subsection (c) shall not apply to any municipality with a population over 500,000 or to any county in which a proposition as to whether a sophisticated 9-1-1 Emergency Telephone System should be installed in the county, at a cost not to exceed a specified monthly amount per network connection, has previously been approved by a majority of the electors of the county voting on the proposition at an election conducted before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987.

(d) A county may not impose a surcharge, unless requested by a municipality, in any incorporated area which has previously approved a surcharge as provided in subsection (c) or in any incorporated area where the corporate authorities of the municipality have previously entered into a binding contract or letter of intent with a telecommunications carrier to provide sophisticated 9-1-1 service through municipal funds.

(e) A municipality or county may at any time by ordinance change the rate of the surcharge imposed under this Section if the new rate does not exceed the rate specified in the referendum held pursuant to subsection (c).

(f) The surcharge authorized by this Section shall be collected from the subscriber by the telecommunications carrier providing the subscriber the network connection as a separately stated item on the subscriber's bill.

(g) The amount of surcharge collected by the telecommunications carrier shall be paid to the particular municipality or county or Joint Emergency Telephone System Board not later than 30 days after the surcharge is collected, net of any network or other 9-1-1 or sophisticated 9-1-1 system charges then due the particular telecommunications carrier, as shown on an itemized bill. The telecommunications carrier collecting the surcharge shall also be entitled to deduct 3% of the gross amount of surcharge collected to reimburse the telecommunications carrier for the expense of accounting and collecting the surcharge.

(h) Except as expressly provided in subsection (a) of this Section, a municipality with a population over 500,000 may not impose a monthly surcharge in excess of $1.25 per network connection.

(i) Any municipality or county or joint emergency telephone system board that has imposed a surcharge pursuant to this Section prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 shall hereafter impose the surcharge in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) The corporate authorities of any municipality or county may issue, in accordance with Illinois law, bonds, notes or other obligations secured in whole or in part by the proceeds of the surcharge described in this Section. Notwithstanding any change in law subsequent to the issuance of any bonds, notes or other obligations secured by the surcharge, every municipality or county issuing such bonds, notes or other obligations shall be authorized to impose the surcharge as though the laws relating to the imposition of the surcharge in effect at the time of issuance of the bonds, notes or other obligations were in full force and effect until the bonds, notes or other obligations are paid in full. The State of Illinois pledges and agrees that it will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in municipalities and counties by this Section to impose the surcharge so as to impair the terms of or affect the security for bonds, notes or other obligations secured in whole or in part with the proceeds of the surcharge described in this Section.

(k) Any surcharge collected by or imposed on a telecommunications carrier pursuant to this Section shall be held to be a special fund in trust for the municipality, county or Joint Emergency Telephone Board imposing the surcharge. Except for the 3% deduction provided in subsection (g) above, the special fund shall not be subject to the claims of creditors of the telecommunication carrier.

(Source: P.A. 92-474, eff. 8-1-02; 92-526, eff. 1-1-03; 92-557, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-2-02.)

Section 465. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-5036.5, 4-2002, 4-2002.1, 4-5001, 5-1022, 5-1101, 5-21009, and 5-37006 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-5036.5)

Sec. 3-5036.5. Exchange of information for child support enforcement.

(a) The Recorder shall exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Recorder shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-2002) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-2002)

Sec. 4-2002. State's attorney fees in counties under 3,000,000 population. This Section applies only to counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants.

(a) State's attorneys shall be entitled to the following fees, however, the fee requirement of this subsection does not apply to county boards:

For each conviction in prosecutions on indictments for first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, kidnapping, arson and forgery, $30. All other cases punishable by imprisonment in the penitentiary, $30.

For each conviction in other cases tried before judges of the circuit court, $15; except that if the conviction is in a case which may be assigned to an associate judge, whether or not it is in fact assigned to an associate judge, the fee shall be $10.

For preliminary examinations for each defendant held to bail or recognizance, $10.

For each examination of a party bound over to keep the peace, $10.

For each defendant held to answer in a circuit court on a charge of paternity, $10.

For each trial on a charge of paternity, $30.

For each case of appeal taken from his county or from the county to which a change of venue is taken to his county to the Supreme or Appellate Court when prosecuted or defended by him, $50.

For each day actually employed in the trial of a case, $25; in which case the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which a per diem shall be allowed.

For each day actually employed in the trial of cases of felony arising in their respective counties and taken by change of venue to another county, $25; and the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which said per diem shall be allowed; and it is hereby made the duty of each State's attorney to prepare and try each case of felony arising when so taken by change of venue.

For assisting in a trial of each case on an indictment for felony brought by change of venue to their respective counties, the same fees they would be entitled to if such indictment had been found for an offense committed in his county, and it shall be the duty of the State's attorney of the county to which such cause is taken by change of venue to assist in the trial thereof.

For each case of forfeited recognizance where the forfeiture is set aside at the instance of the defense, in addition to the ordinary costs, $10 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged mental illness of any person, $10 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged dependency or delinquency of any child, $10.

For each day actually employed in the hearing of a case of habeas corpus in which the people are interested, $25.

All the foregoing fees shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. But in cases of inquiry into the mental illness of any person alleged to be mentally ill, in cases on a charge of paternity and in cases of appeal in the Supreme or Appellate Court, where judgment is in favor of the accused, the fees allowed the State's attorney therein shall be retained out of the fines and forfeitures collected by them in other cases.

Ten per cent of all moneys except revenue, collected by them and paid over to the authorities entitled thereto, which per cent together with the fees provided for herein that are not collected from the parties tried or examined, shall be paid out of any fines and forfeited recognizances collected by them, provided however, that in proceedings to foreclose the lien of delinquent real estate taxes State's attorneys shall receive a fee, to be credited to the earnings of their office, of 10% of the total amount realized from the sale of real estate sold in such proceedings. Such fees shall be paid from the total amount realized from the sale of the real estate sold in such proceedings.

State's attorneys shall have a lien for their fees on all judgments for fines or forfeitures procured by them and on moneys except revenue received by them until such fees and earnings are fully paid.

No fees shall be charged on more than 10 counts in any one indictment or information on trial and conviction; nor on more than 10 counts against any one defendant on pleas of guilty.

The Circuit Court may direct that of all monies received, by restitution or otherwise, which monies are ordered paid to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) as a direct result of the efforts of the State's attorney and which payments arise from Civil or Criminal prosecutions involving the Illinois Public Aid Code or the Criminal Code, the following amounts shall be paid quarterly by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services to the General Corporate Fund of the County in which the prosecution or cause of action took place:

(1) where the monies result from child support obligations, not more than 25% of the federal share of the monies received,

(2) where the monies result from other than child support obligations, not more than 25% of the State's share of the monies received.

(b) A municipality shall be entitled to a $10 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of The Illinois Vehicle Code prosecuted by the municipal attorney pursuant to Section 16-102 of that Code which is tried before a circuit or associate judge and shall be entitled to a $10 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of a municipal vehicle ordinance or nontraffic ordinance prosecuted by the municipal attorney which is tried before a circuit or associate judge. Such fee shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. A municipality shall have a lien for such prosecution fees on all judgments or fines procured by the municipal attorney from prosecutions for violations of The Illinois Vehicle Code and municipal vehicle ordinances or nontraffic ordinances.

For the purposes of this subsection (b), "municipal vehicle ordinance" means any ordinance enacted pursuant to Sections 11-40-1, 11-40-2, 11-40-2a and 11-40-3 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted by a municipality which is similar to a provision of Chapter 11 of The Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 88-572, eff. 8-11-94; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-2002.1) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-2002.1)

Sec. 4-2002.1. State's attorney fees in counties of 3,000,000 or more population. This Section applies only to counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

(a) State's attorneys shall be entitled to the following fees:

For each conviction in prosecutions on indictments for first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, kidnapping, arson and forgery, $60. All other cases punishable by imprisonment in the penitentiary, $60.

For each conviction in other cases tried before judges of the circuit court, $30; except that if the conviction is in a case which may be assigned to an associate judge, whether or not it is in fact assigned to an associate judge, the fee shall be $20.

For preliminary examinations for each defendant held to bail or recognizance, $20.

For each examination of a party bound over to keep the peace, $20.

For each defendant held to answer in a circuit court on a charge of paternity, $20.

For each trial on a charge of paternity, $60.

For each case of appeal taken from his county or from the county to which a change of venue is taken to his county to the Supreme or Appellate Court when prosecuted or defended by him, $100.

For each day actually employed in the trial of a case, $50; in which case the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which a per diem shall be allowed.

For each day actually employed in the trial of cases of felony arising in their respective counties and taken by change of venue to another county, $50; and the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which said per diem shall be allowed; and it is hereby made the duty of each State's attorney to prepare and try each case of felony arising when so taken by change of venue.

For assisting in a trial of each case on an indictment for felony brought by change of venue to their respective counties, the same fees they would be entitled to if such indictment had been found for an offense committed in his county, and it shall be the duty of the State's attorney of the county to which such cause is taken by change of venue to assist in the trial thereof.

For each case of forfeited recognizance where the forfeiture is set aside at the instance of the defense, in addition to the ordinary costs, $20 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged mental illness of any person, $20 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged dependency or delinquency of any child, $20.

For each day actually employed in the hearing of a case of habeas corpus in which the people are interested, $50.

All the foregoing fees shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. But in cases of inquiry into the mental illness of any person alleged to be mentally ill, in cases on a charge of paternity and in cases of appeal in the Supreme or Appellate Court, where judgment is in favor of the accused, the fees allowed the State's attorney therein shall be retained out of the fines and forfeitures collected by them in other cases.

Ten per cent of all moneys except revenue, collected by them and paid over to the authorities entitled thereto, which per cent together with the fees provided for herein that are not collected from the parties tried or examined, shall be paid out of any fines and forfeited recognizances collected by them, provided however, that in proceedings to foreclose the lien of delinquent real estate taxes State's attorneys shall receive a fee, to be credited to the earnings of their office, of 10% of the total amount realized from the sale of real estate sold in such proceedings. Such fees shall be paid from the total amount realized from the sale of the real estate sold in such proceedings.

State's attorneys shall have a lien for their fees on all judgments for fines or forfeitures procured by them and on moneys except revenue received by them until such fees and earnings are fully paid.

No fees shall be charged on more than 10 counts in any one indictment or information on trial and conviction; nor on more than 10 counts against any one defendant on pleas of guilty.

The Circuit Court may direct that of all monies received, by restitution or otherwise, which monies are ordered paid to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) as a direct result of the efforts of the State's attorney and which payments arise from Civil or Criminal prosecutions involving the Illinois Public Aid Code or the Criminal Code, the following amounts shall be paid quarterly by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services to the General Corporate Fund of the County in which the prosecution or cause of action took place:

(1) where the monies result from child support obligations, not less than 25% of the federal share of the monies received,

(2) where the monies result from other than child support obligations, not less than 25% of the State's share of the monies received.

(b) A municipality shall be entitled to a $10 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code prosecuted by the municipal attorney pursuant to Section 16-102 of that Code which is tried before a circuit or associate judge and shall be entitled to a $10 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of a municipal vehicle ordinance prosecuted by the municipal attorney which is tried before a circuit or associate judge. Such fee shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. A municipality shall have a lien for such prosecution fees on all judgments or fines procured by the municipal attorney from prosecutions for violations of the Illinois Vehicle Code and municipal vehicle ordinances.

For the purposes of this subsection (b), "municipal vehicle ordinance" means any ordinance enacted pursuant to Sections 11-40-1, 11-40-2, 11-40-2a and 11-40-3 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted by a municipality which is similar to a provision of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-5001) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-5001)

Sec. 4-5001. Sheriffs; counties of first and second class. The fees of sheriffs in counties of the first and second class, except when increased by county ordinance under this Section, shall be as follows:

For serving or attempting to serve summons on each defendant in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve an order or judgment granting injunctional relief in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve each garnishee in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve an order for replevin in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve an order for attachment on each defendant in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve a warrant of arrest, $8, to be paid upon conviction.

For returning a defendant from outside the State of Illinois, upon conviction, the court shall assess, as court costs, the cost of returning a defendant to the jurisdiction.

For taking special bail, $1 in each county.

For serving or attempting to serve a subpoena on each witness, in each county, $10.

For advertising property for sale, $5.

For returning each process, in each county, $5.

Mileage for each mile of necessary travel to serve any such process as Stated above, calculating from the place of holding court to the place of residence of the defendant, or witness, 50¢ each way.

For summoning each juror, $3 with 30¢ mileage each way in all counties.

For serving or attempting to serve notice of judgments or levying to enforce a judgment, $3 with 50¢ mileage each way in all counties.

For taking possession of and removing property levied on, the officer shall be allowed to tax the actual cost of such possession or removal.

For feeding each prisoner, such compensation to cover the actual cost as may be fixed by the county board, but such compensation shall not be considered a part of the fees of the office.

For attending before a court with prisoner, on an order for habeas corpus, in each county, $10 per day.

For attending before a court with a prisoner in any criminal proceeding, in each county, $10 per day.

For each mile of necessary travel in taking such prisoner before the court as Stated above, 15¢ a mile each way.

For serving or attempting to serve an order or judgment for the possession of real estate in an action of ejectment or in any other action, or for restitution in an action of forcible entry and detainer without aid, $10 and when aid is necessary, the sheriff shall be allowed to tax in addition the actual costs thereof, and for each mile of necessary travel, 50¢ each way.

For executing and acknowledging a deed of sale of real estate, in counties of first class, $4; second class, $4.

For preparing, executing and acknowledging a deed on redemption from a court sale of real estate in counties of first class, $5; second class, $5.

For making certificates of sale, and making and filing duplicate, in counties of first class, $3; in counties of the second class, $3.

For making certificate of redemption, $3.

For certificate of levy and filing, $3, and the fee for recording shall be advanced by the judgment creditor and charged as costs.

For taking all bonds on legal process, civil and criminal, in counties of first class, $1; in second class, $1.

For executing copies in criminal cases, $4 and mileage for each mile of necessary travel, 20¢ each way.

For executing requisitions from other States, $5.

For conveying each prisoner from the prisoner's own county to the jail of another county, or from another county to the jail of the prisoner's county, per mile, for going, only, 30¢.

For conveying persons to the penitentiary, reformatories, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers, the following fees, payable out of the State Treasury. For each person who is conveyed, 35¢ per mile in going only to the penitentiary, reformatory, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers, from the place of conviction.

The fees provided for transporting persons to the penitentiary, reformatories, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers shall be paid for each trip so made. Mileage as used in this Section means the shortest practical route, between the place from which the person is to be transported, to the penitentiary, reformatories, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers and all fees per mile shall be computed on such basis.

For conveying any person to or from any of the charitable institutions of the State, when properly committed by competent authority, when one person is conveyed, 35¢ per mile; when two persons are conveyed at the same time, 35¢ per mile for the first person and 20¢ per mile for the second person; and 10¢ per mile for each additional person.

For conveying a person from the penitentiary to the county jail when required by law, 35¢ per mile.

For attending Supreme Court, $10 per day.

In addition to the above fees there shall be allowed to the sheriff a fee of $600 for the sale of real estate which is made by virtue of any judgment of a court, except that in the case of a sale of unimproved real estate which sells for $10,000 or less, the fee shall be $150. In addition to this fee and all other fees provided by this Section, there shall be allowed to the sheriff a fee in accordance with the following schedule for the sale of personal estate which is made by virtue of any judgment of a court:

For judgments up to $1,000, $75;

For judgments from $1,001 to $15,000, $150;

For judgments over $15,000, $300.

The foregoing fees allowed by this Section are the maximum fees that may be collected from any officer, agency, department or other instrumentality of the State. The county board may, however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this Section and collect those increased fees from all persons and entities other than officers, agencies, departments and other instrumentalities of the State if the increase is justified by an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this Section are not sufficient to cover the costs of providing the service. A statement of the costs of providing each service, program and activity shall be prepared by the county board. All supporting documents shall be public records and subject to public examination and audit. All direct and indirect costs, as defined in the United States Office of Management and Budget Circular A-87, may be included in the determination of the costs of each service, program and activity.

In all cases where the judgment is settled by the parties, replevied, stopped by injunction or paid, or where the property levied upon is not actually sold, the sheriff shall be allowed his fee for levying and mileage, together with half the fee for all money collected by him which he would be entitled to if the same was made by sale to enforce the judgment. In no case shall the fee exceed the amount of money arising from the sale.

The fee requirements of this Section do not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. For the purposes of this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and end to enforce criminal laws.

(Source: P.A. 91-94, eff. 1-1-00; revised 9-15-06.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1022) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1022)

Sec. 5-1022. Competitive bids.

(a) Any purchase by a county with fewer than 2,000,000 inhabitants of services, materials, equipment or supplies in excess of $20,000, other than professional services, shall be contracted for in one of the following ways:

(1) by a contract let to the lowest responsible bidder after advertising for bids in a newspaper published within the county or, if no newspaper is published within the county, then a newspaper having general circulation within the county; or

(2) by a contract let without advertising for bids in the case of an emergency if authorized by the county board.

(b) In determining the lowest responsible bidder, the county board shall take into consideration the qualities of the articles supplied; their conformity with the specifications; their suitability to the requirements of the county, availability of support services; uniqueness of the service, materials, equipment, or supplies as it applies to networked, integrated computer systems; compatibility to existing equipment; and the delivery terms. The county board also may take into consideration whether a bidder is a private enterprise or a State-controlled enterprise and, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or a lower bid by a State-controlled enterprise, may let a contract to the lowest responsible bidder that is a private enterprise.

(c) This Section does not apply to contracts by a county with the federal government or to purchases of used equipment, purchases at auction or similar transactions which by their very nature are not suitable to competitive bids, pursuant to an ordinance adopted by the county board.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, a county may let without advertising for bids in the case of purchases and contracts, when individual orders do not exceed $25,000, for the use, purchase, delivery, movement, or installation of data processing equipment, software, or services and telecommunications and inter-connect equipment, software, and services.

(e) A county may require, as a condition of any contract for goods and services, that persons awarded a contract with the county and all affiliates of the person collect and remit Illinois Use Tax on all sales of tangible personal property into the State of Illinois in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Use Tax Act regardless of whether the person or affiliate is a "retailer maintaining a place of business within this State" as defined in Section 2 of the Use Tax Act. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (e), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (e), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

(f) Bids submitted to, and contracts executed by, the county may require a certification by the bidder or contractor that the bidder or contractor is not barred from bidding for or entering into a contract under this Section and that the bidder or contractor acknowledges that the county may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (f) is false.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-157, eff. 1-1-04; revised 8-12-03.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1101) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1101)

Sec. 5-1101. Additional fees to finance court system. A county board may enact by ordinance or resolution the following fees:

(a) A $5 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision for violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code other than Section 11-501 or violations of similar provisions contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county, and up to a $30 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision for violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a violation of a similar provision contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county.

(b) In the case of a county having a population of 1,000,000 or less, a $5 fee to be collected in all civil cases by the clerk of the circuit court.

(c) A fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as follows:

(1) for a felony, $50;

(2) for a class A misdemeanor, $25;

(3) for a class B or class C misdemeanor, $15;

(4) for a petty offense, $10;

(5) for a business offense, $10.

(d) A $100 fee for the second and subsequent violations of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or violations of similar provisions contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county. The proceeds of this fee shall be placed in the county general fund and used to finance education programs related to driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs.

(d-5) A $10 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections to be placed in the county general fund and used to finance the county mental health court, the county drug court, or both.

(e) In each county in which a teen court, peer court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program has been created, a county may adopt a mandatory fee of up to $5 to be assessed as provided in this subsection. Assessments collected by the clerk of the circuit court pursuant to this subsection must be deposited into an account specifically for the operation and administration of a teen court, peer court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fees established in this subsection and must remit the fees to the teen court, peer court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program monthly, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court. The fees are to be paid as follows:

(1) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or violations of similar provisions contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county;

(2) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections for a felony; for a Class A, Class B, or Class C misdemeanor; for a petty offense; and for a business offense.

(f) In each county in which a drug court has been created, the county may adopt a mandatory fee of up to $5 to be assessed as provided in this subsection. Assessments collected by the clerk of the circuit court pursuant to this subsection must be deposited into an account specifically for the operation and administration of the drug court. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fees established in this subsection and must remit the fees to the drug court, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court. The fees are to be paid as follows:

(1) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a violation of a similar provision contained in a county or municipal ordinance committed in the county; or

(2) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections for a felony; for a Class A, Class B, or Class C misdemeanor; for a petty offense; and for a business offense.

The clerk of the circuit court shall deposit the 5% retained under this subsection into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to defray the costs of collection and disbursement of the drug court fee.

(g) The proceeds of all fees enacted under this Section must, except as provided in subsections (d), (d-5), (e), and (f), be placed in the county general fund and used to finance the court system in the county, unless the fee is subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-892, eff. 1-1-05; 93-992, eff. 1-1-05; 94-862, eff. 6-16-06; 94-980, eff. 6-30-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-21009) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-21009)

Sec. 5-21009. Purchase of care. Any infirm or chronically ill resident of the county, or resident of participating counties in the case of a joint home, who desires to purchase care and maintenance in the county home with his own funds or with a public aid grant awarded to him under "The Illinois Public Aid Code" may be received and cared for in the home.

Upon authorization of the County Board, or the County Boards in the case of a joint home, infirm or chronically ill residents of other counties who desire to purchase care and maintenance in the home from their own funds or from public aid grants may also be admitted to the home.

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, any local Supervisor of General Assistance, and any other State or local agency may also purchase care in the home for persons under their charge by paying the rates established by the County Board.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 12-15-05.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-37006) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-37006)

Sec. 5-37006. Reimbursement for cost of services. In relation to inpatient hospital services provided at any health care facility maintained by the Commission to any person under the legal custody of the Sheriff of Cook County pending trial the Commission may obtain reimbursement from the confined person to whom the services were provided for the cost of such services to the extent that such person is reasonably able to pay for such care, including reimbursement from any insurance program or from other medical benefit programs available to such person. If such person has already been determined eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code at the time the person is initially detained pending trial, the cost of such services, to the extent such cost exceeds $2,500, shall be reimbursed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under that Act. A reimbursement under any public or private program authorized by this Section shall be paid to the Commission to the same extent as would obtain had the services been rendered in a non-custodial environment.

This Section does not apply to services provided to any person who has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to an offense and is held in custody pending sentencing or under sentence of the court.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 470. The Township Code is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 30-166 and 85-50 and by changing Sections 35-50.2 and 235-20 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/30-166)

Sec. 30-166. Civil penalties for false fire alarms. The township board of any township providing fire protection services may impose reasonable civil penalties on individuals who repeatedly cause false fire alarms.

(Source: P.A. 93-302, eff. 1-1-04.)

(60 ILCS 1/30-167)

Sec. 30-167 30-166. Charge against non-residents.

(a) The township board of each township may fix, charge, and collect fees not exceeding the reasonable cost of the service for all services rendered by the township against persons, businesses, and other entities who are not residents of the township.

(b) The charge may not be assessed against residents of the township or persons who request fire protection coverage for an unprotected area and who pay to the township an amount equal to the township's fire protection tax under Article 200 of this Code.

(c) The charge for such services shall be computed at a rate not to exceed $125 per hour per vehicle and not to exceed $35 per hour per firefighter responding to a call for assistance. An additional charge may be levied to reimburse the township for extraordinary expenses of materials used in rendering such services. No charge shall be made for services for which the total charge would be less than $50.

(d) All revenue from the charges assessed pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the general fund of the township.

(Source: P.A. 93-304, eff. 7-23-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(60 ILCS 1/35-50.2)

Sec. 35-50.2. Construction of senior citizens' housing; revenue bonds.

(a) For the purpose of defraying the cost of the construction, purchase, improvement, extension, or equipping from time to time of senior citizens' housing, including feasibility, engineering, legal, and other expenses, together with interest on its revenue bonds, to the fullest extent permitted by the provisions of Section 9 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, the township board, when authorized by a majority of the votes cast on the proposition submitted in accordance with the general election law under Section 35-50.3, may issue and sell revenue bonds of the township payable solely from the net income and revenue derived from the operation of the senior citizens' housing, after payment of the costs of operation and maintenance of the senior citizens' housing and provision for an adequate depreciation fund (if a depreciation fund is deemed necessary by the township board). The township board may also from time to time issue revenue bonds to refund any such revenue bonds, at the redemption price authorized, at maturity or at any time before maturity, all as authorized in the ordinance of the township board authorizing the refunded bonds. The bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates not to exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract for the sale of the bonds, the interest shall be payable semi-annually, and the bonds shall mature within the period of usefulness of the project involved, as determined in the sole discretion of the township board and in any event not more than 40 years from the dated date of the bonds.

(b) The bonds shall be sold in the manner determined by the township board and, whenever the bonds are sold at a price less than par, they shall be sold at a price and bear interest at a rate or rates such that either the true interest cost (yield) or the net interest rate, as selected by the township board, received on the sale of the bonds, does not exceed the maximum rate otherwise authorized by the Bond Authorization Act. If any officer whose signature appears on the bonds or coupons attached to the bonds ceases to be an officer before the delivery of the bonds to the purchaser, his or her signature shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes to the same effect as if he or she had remained in office until the delivery of the bonds.

(c) Notwithstanding the form or tenor of the bonds, and in the absence of expressed recitals on the face of the bonds that the bonds are non-negotiable, all bonds issued under this Section shall have all the qualities of negotiable instruments under the law of this State.

(d) With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6, including, without limitation, revenue bonds of a township, it is the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are supplementary grants of power to issue those instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6 that may appear to be more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6 are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6 within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6 that may appear to be more restrictive than those Acts.

(e) Revenue bonds issued under Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6 shall be payable solely from the net revenue derived from the operation of the senior citizens' housing on account of which the revenue bonds are issued. The revenue bonds shall not in any event constitute an indebtedness of the township within the meaning of any constitutional or statutory limitation, and it shall be so stated on the face of each bond.

(f) Not less than 30 days before the making of a contract for the sale of bonds to be issued under Sections 35-50.1 through 35-50.6, the township board shall give written notice to the Executive Director of the Illinois Housing Development Authority. Within 30 days after receiving the notice the Executive Director of the Illinois Housing Development Authority shall give written notice to the township board stating whether it will finance the senior citizens' housing. If the Illinois Housing Development Authority notifies the township board that it will not finance the senior citizens' housing, the township may finance the senior citizens' housing or seek alternative financing from any other available source.

(Source: P.A. 87-922; 88-62; revised 9-21-06.)

(60 ILCS 1/85-50)

Sec. 85-50. Demolition, repair, or enclosure of buildings.

(a) The township board of any township may formally request the county board to commence specified proceedings with respect to property located within the township but outside the territory of any municipality as provided in Section 5-1121 of the Counties Code. If the county board declines the request as provided in Section 5-1121 of the Counties Code, the township may exercise its powers under this Section.

(b) The township board of each township may demolish, repair, or enclose or cause the demolition, repair, or enclosure of dangerous and unsafe buildings or uncompleted and abandoned buildings within the territory of the township and may remove or cause the removal of garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from those buildings.

The township board shall apply to the circuit court of the county in which the building is located (i) for an order authorizing action to be taken with respect to a building if the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, after at least 15 days' written notice by mail to do so, have failed to commence proceedings to put the building in a safe condition or to demolish it or (ii) for an order requiring the owner or owners of record to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or to remove garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from the building. It is not a defense to the cause of action that the building is boarded up or otherwise enclosed, although the court may order the defendant to have the building boarded up or otherwise enclosed. Where, upon diligent search, the identity or whereabouts of the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, is not ascertainable, notice mailed to the person or persons in whose name the real estate was last assessed and the posting of the notice upon the premises sought to be demolished or repaired is sufficient notice under this Section.

The hearing upon the application to the circuit court shall be expedited by the court and shall be given precedence over all other suits.

The cost of the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal incurred by the township, by an intervenor, or by a lien holder of record, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this Section, is recoverable from the owner or owners of the real estate or the previous owner or both if the property was transferred during the 15-day notice period and is a lien on the real estate if, within 180 days after the repair, demolition, enclosure, or removal, the township, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor who incurred the cost and expense shall file a notice of lien for the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act. The lien becomes effective at the time of filing.

The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out (1) a description of the real estate sufficient for its identification, (2) the amount of money representing the cost and expense incurred, and (3) the date or dates when the cost and expense was incurred by the township, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor. Upon payment of the cost and expense by the owner of or persons interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, the lien shall be released by the township, the person in whose name the lien has been filed, or the assignee of the lien, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing notice of lien. Unless the lien is enforced under subsection (c), the lien may be enforced by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the township, including court costs, reasonable attorney's fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the township from the owner or owners of the real estate.

All liens arising under this subsection (b) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

(c) In any case where a township has obtained a lien under subsection (b), the township may enforce the lien under this subsection (c) in the same proceeding in which the lien is authorized.

A township desiring to enforce a lien under this subsection (c) shall petition the court to retain jurisdiction for foreclosure proceedings under this subsection. Notice of the petition shall be served, by certified or registered mail, on all persons who were served notice under subsection (b). The court shall conduct a hearing on the petition not less than 15 days after the notice is served. If the court determines that the requirements of this subsection (c) have been satisfied, it shall grant the petition and retain jurisdiction over the matter until the foreclosure proceeding is completed. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the township, including court costs, reasonable attorneys' fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the township from the owner or owners of the real estate. If the court denies the petition, the township may enforce the lien in a separate action as provided in subsection (b).

All persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as necessary parties in a mortgage foreclosure action shall be joined as parties before issuance of an order of foreclosure. Persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as permissible parties may also be joined as parties in the action.

The provisions of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure applicable to mortgage foreclosures shall apply to the foreclosure of a lien under this subsection (c), except to the extent that those provisions are inconsistent with this subsection. For purposes of foreclosures of liens under this subsection, however, the redemption period described in subsection (c) of Section 15-1603 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall end 60 days after the date of entry of the order of foreclosure.

(d) In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the township board of any township may petition the circuit court to have property declared abandoned under this subsection (d) if:

(1) the property has been tax delinquent for 2 or more years or bills for water service for the property have been outstanding for 2 or more years;

(2) the property is unoccupied by persons legally in possession; and

(3) the property contains a dangerous or unsafe building.

All persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, shall be named as defendants in the petition and shall be served with process. In addition, service shall be had under Section 2-206 of the Code of Civil Procedure as in other cases affecting property.

The township, however, may proceed under this subsection in a proceeding brought under subsection (b). Notice of the petition shall be served by certified or registered mail on all persons who were served notice under subsection (b).

If the township proves that the conditions described in this subsection exist and the owner of record of the property does not enter an appearance in the action, or, if title to the property is held by an Illinois land trust, if neither the owner of record nor the owner of the beneficial interest of the trust enters an appearance, the court shall declare the property abandoned.

If that determination is made, notice shall be sent by certified or registered mail to all persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, stating that title to the property will be transferred to the township unless, within 30 days of the notice, the owner of record enters an appearance in the action, or unless any other person having an interest in the property files with the court a request to demolish the dangerous or unsafe building or to put the building in safe condition.

If the owner of record enters an appearance in the action within the 30-day period, the court shall vacate its order declaring the property abandoned. In that case, the township may amend its complaint in order to initiate proceedings under subsection (b).

If a request to demolish or repair the building is filed within the 30-day period, the court shall grant permission to the requesting party to demolish the building within 30 days or to restore the building to safe condition within 60 days after the request is granted. An extension of that period for up to 60 additional days may be given for good cause. If more than one person with an interest in the property files a timely request, preference shall be given to the person with the lien or other interest of the highest priority.

If the requesting party proves to the court that the building has been demolished or put in a safe condition within the period of time granted by the court, the court shall issue a quitclaim judicial deed for the property to the requesting party, conveying only the interest of the owner of record, upon proof of payment to the township of all costs incurred by the township in connection with the action, including but not limited to court costs, attorney's fees, administrative costs, the costs, if any, associated with building enclosure or removal, and receiver's certificates. The interest in the property so conveyed shall be subject to all liens and encumbrances on the property. In addition, if the interest is conveyed to a person holding a certificate of purchase for the property under the Property Tax Code, the conveyance shall be subject to the rights of redemption of all persons entitled to redeem under that Act, including the original owner of record.

If no person with an interest in the property files a timely request or if the requesting party fails to demolish the building or put the building in safe condition within the time specified by the court, the township may petition the court to issue a judicial deed for the property to the county. A conveyance by judicial deed shall operate to extinguish all existing ownership interests in, liens on, and other interest in the property, including tax liens.

(Source: P.A. 94-841, eff. 6-7-06.)

(60 ILCS 1/85-55)

Sec. 85-55 85-50. Horse-drawn vehicles. The township board may, by ordinance, license and regulate horse-drawn vehicles operating within the township. The ordinance may also (i) prescribe regulations for the safe operation of horse-drawn vehicles and (ii) require the examination of persons operating a horse-drawn vehicle. Any annual fee charged for a license to operate a horse-drawn vehicle may not exceed $50. Any fees charged for a license to operate a horse-drawn vehicle within the township must be used for the improvement of township roads.

For the purposes of this Section, "horse-drawn vehicle" means any vehicle powered by any animal of the equine family.

(Source: P.A. 92-613, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-26-02.)

(60 ILCS 1/235-20)

Sec. 235-20. General assistance tax.

(a) The township board may raise money by taxation deemed necessary to be expended to provide general assistance in the township to persons needing that assistance as provided in the Illinois Public Aid Code, including persons eligible for assistance under the Military Veterans Assistance Act, where that duty is provided by law. The tax for each fiscal year shall not be more than 0.10% of value, or more than an amount approved at a referendum held under this Section, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, and shall in no case exceed the amount needed in the township for general assistance. The board may decrease the maximum tax rate by ordinance.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, if the board desires to increase the maximum tax rate, it shall order a referendum on that proposition to be held at an election in accordance with the general election law. The board shall certify the proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters at an election in accordance with the general election law. If a majority of the votes cast on the proposition is in favor of the proposition, the board may annually levy the tax at a rate not exceeding the higher rate approved by the voters at the election. If, however, the board has decreased the maximum tax rate under subsection (a), then it may, at any time after the decrease, increase the maximum tax rate, by ordinance, to a rate less than or equal to the maximum tax rate immediately prior to the board's ordinance to decrease the rate.

(c) If a city, village, or incorporated town having a population of more than 500,000 is located within or partially within a township, then the entire amount of the tax levied by the township for the purpose of providing general assistance under this Section on property lying within that city, village, or incorporated town, less the amount allowed for collecting the tax, shall be paid over by the treasurer of the township to the treasurer of the city, village, or incorporated town to be appropriated and used by the city, village, or incorporated town for the relief and support of persons needing general assistance residing in that portion of the city, village, or incorporated town located within the township in accordance with the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(d) Any taxes levied for general assistance before or after this Section takes effect may also be used for the payment of warrants issued against and in anticipation of those taxes and accrued interest on those warrants and may also be used to pay the cost of administering that assistance.

(e) In any township with a population of less than 500,000 that receives no State funding for the general assistance program and that has not issued anticipation warrants or otherwise borrowed monies for the administration of the general assistance program during the township's previous 3 fiscal years of operation, a one time transfer of monies from the township's general assistance fund may be made to the general township fund pursuant to action by the township board. This transfer may occur only to the extent that the amount of monies remaining in the general assistance fund after the transfer is equal to the greater of (i) the amount of the township's expenditures in the previous fiscal year for general assistance or (ii) an amount equal to either 0.10% of the last known total equalized value of all taxable property in the township, or 100% of the highest amount levied for general assistance purposes in any of the three previous fiscal years. The transfer shall be completed no later than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly. No township that has certified a new levy or an increase in the levy under this Section during calendar year 2002 may transfer monies under this subsection. No action on the transfer of monies under this subsection shall be taken by the township board except at a township board meeting. No monies transferred under this subsection shall be considered in determining whether the township qualifies for State funds to supplement local funds for public aid purposes under Section 12-21.13 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-558, eff. 6-24-02; 92-718, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-9-02.)

Section 475. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-11-1.2, 11-31-1, 11-74.4-3, 11-74.4-6, 11-74.4-7, and 11-124-1 and by renumbering Section 19.2-5 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.2) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-1.2)

Sec. 8-11-1.2. Definition. As used in Sections 8-11-1.3, 8-11-1.4 and 8-11-1.5 of this Act:

(a) "Public infrastructure" means municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, and sidewalks; waste disposal systems; and water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities. For purposes of referenda authorizing the imposition of taxes by the City of DuQuoin under Sections 8-11-1.3, 8-11-1.4, and 8-11-1.5 of this Act that are approved in November, 2002, "public infrastructure" shall also include public schools.

(b) "Property tax relief" means the action of a municipality to reduce the levy for real estate taxes or avoid an increase in the levy for real estate taxes that would otherwise have been required. Property tax relief or the avoidance of property tax must uniformly apply to all classes of property.

(Source: P.A. 91-51, eff. 6-30-99; 92-739, eff. 1-1-03; 92-815, eff. 8-21-02; revised 9-10-02.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-19.2-5) (was 65 ILCS 5/19.2-5)

Sec. 11-19.2-5 19.2-5. Subpoenas - Defaults. At any time prior to the hearing date the hearing officer assigned to hear the case may, at the request of the sanitation inspector or the attorney for the municipality, or the respondent or his attorney, issue subpoenas directing witnesses to appear and give testimony at the hearing. If on the date set for hearing the respondent or his attorney fails to appear, the hearing officer may find the respondent in default and shall proceed with the hearing and accept evidence relating to the existence of a code violation.

(Source: P.A. 86-1364; revised 10-19-05.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-31-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-31-1)

Sec. 11-31-1. Demolition, repair, enclosure, or remediation.

(a) The corporate authorities of each municipality may demolish, repair, or enclose or cause the demolition, repair, or enclosure of dangerous and unsafe buildings or uncompleted and abandoned buildings within the territory of the municipality and may remove or cause the removal of garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from those buildings. In any county having adopted by referendum or otherwise a county health department as provided by Division 5-25 of the Counties Code or its predecessor, the county board of that county may exercise those powers with regard to dangerous and unsafe buildings or uncompleted and abandoned buildings within the territory of any city, village, or incorporated town having less than 50,000 population.

The corporate authorities shall apply to the circuit court of the county in which the building is located (i) for an order authorizing action to be taken with respect to a building if the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, after at least 15 days' written notice by mail so to do, have failed to put the building in a safe condition or to demolish it or (ii) for an order requiring the owner or owners of record to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or to remove garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials from the building. It is not a defense to the cause of action that the building is boarded up or otherwise enclosed, although the court may order the defendant to have the building boarded up or otherwise enclosed. Where, upon diligent search, the identity or whereabouts of the owner or owners of the building, including the lien holders of record, is not ascertainable, notice mailed to the person or persons in whose name the real estate was last assessed is sufficient notice under this Section.

The hearing upon the application to the circuit court shall be expedited by the court and shall be given precedence over all other suits. Any person entitled to bring an action under subsection (b) shall have the right to intervene in an action brought under this Section.

The cost of the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal incurred by the municipality, by an intervenor, or by a lien holder of record, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this Section, is recoverable from the owner or owners of the real estate or the previous owner or both if the property was transferred during the 15 day notice period and is a lien on the real estate; the lien is superior to all prior existing liens and encumbrances, except taxes, if, within 180 days after the repair, demolition, enclosure, or removal, the municipality, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor who incurred the cost and expense shall file a notice of lien for the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act.

The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out (1) a description of the real estate sufficient for its identification, (2) the amount of money representing the cost and expense incurred, and (3) the date or dates when the cost and expense was incurred by the municipality, the lien holder of record, or the intervenor. Upon payment of the cost and expense by the owner of or persons interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, the lien shall be released by the municipality, the person in whose name the lien has been filed, or the assignee of the lien, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing notice of lien. Unless the lien is enforced under subsection (c), the lien may be enforced by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorney's fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the municipality from the owner or owners of the real estate.

All liens arising under this subsection (a) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

If the appropriate official of any municipality determines that any dangerous and unsafe building or uncompleted and abandoned building within its territory fulfills the requirements for an action by the municipality under the Abandoned Housing Rehabilitation Act, the municipality may petition under that Act in a proceeding brought under this subsection.

(b) Any owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet in any direction of any dangerous or unsafe building located within the territory of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more may file with the appropriate municipal authority a request that the municipality apply to the circuit court of the county in which the building is located for an order permitting the demolition, removal of garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, or repair or enclosure of the building in the manner prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. If the municipality fails to institute an action in circuit court within 90 days after the filing of the request, the owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet in any direction of the building may institute an action in circuit court seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of record to demolish, remove garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, repair or enclose or to cause to be demolished, have garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials removed from, repaired, or enclosed the building in question. A private owner or tenant who institutes an action under the preceding sentence shall not be required to pay any fee to the clerk of the circuit court. The cost of repair, removal, demolition, or enclosure shall be borne by the owner or owners of record of the building. In the event the owner or owners of record fail to demolish, remove garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, repair, or enclose the building within 90 days of the date the court entered its order, the owner or tenant who instituted the action may request that the court join the municipality as a party to the action. The court may order the municipality to demolish, remove materials from, repair, or enclose the building, or cause that action to be taken upon the request of any owner or tenant who instituted the action or upon the municipality's request. The municipality may file, and the court may approve, a plan for rehabilitating the building in question. A court order authorizing the municipality to demolish, remove materials from, repair, or enclose a building, or cause that action to be taken, shall not preclude the court from adjudging the owner or owners of record of the building in contempt of court due to the failure to comply with the order to demolish, remove garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials from, repair, or enclose the building.

If a municipality or a person or persons other than the owner or owners of record pay the cost of demolition, removal of garbage, debris, and other noxious or unhealthy substances and materials, repair, or enclosure pursuant to a court order, the cost, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, is recoverable from the owner or owners of the real estate and is a lien on the real estate; the lien is superior to all prior existing liens and encumbrances, except taxes, if, within 180 days after the repair, removal, demolition, or enclosure, the municipality or the person or persons who paid the costs of demolition, removal, repair, or enclosure shall file a notice of lien of the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act. The notice shall be in a form as is provided in subsection (a). An owner or tenant who institutes an action in circuit court seeking an order to compel the owner or owners of record to demolish, remove materials from, repair, or enclose any dangerous or unsafe building, or to cause that action to be taken under this subsection may recover court costs and reasonable attorney's fees for instituting the action from the owner or owners of record of the building. Upon payment of the costs and expenses by the owner of or a person interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, the lien shall be released by the municipality or the person in whose name the lien has been filed or his or her assignee, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing a notice of lien. Unless the lien is enforced under subsection (c), the lien may be enforced by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorneys' fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the municipality from the owner or owners of the real estate.

All liens arising under the terms of this subsection (b) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

(c) In any case where a municipality has obtained a lien under subsection (a), (b), or (f), the municipality may enforce the lien under this subsection (c) in the same proceeding in which the lien is authorized.

A municipality desiring to enforce a lien under this subsection (c) shall petition the court to retain jurisdiction for foreclosure proceedings under this subsection. Notice of the petition shall be served, by certified or registered mail, on all persons who were served notice under subsection (a), (b), or (f). The court shall conduct a hearing on the petition not less than 15 days after the notice is served. If the court determines that the requirements of this subsection (c) have been satisfied, it shall grant the petition and retain jurisdiction over the matter until the foreclosure proceeding is completed. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorneys' fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate and are recoverable by the municipality from the owner or owners of the real estate. If the court denies the petition, the municipality may enforce the lien in a separate action as provided in subsection (a), (b), or (f).

All persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as necessary parties in a mortgage foreclosure action shall be joined as parties before issuance of an order of foreclosure. Persons designated in Section 15-1501 of the Code of Civil Procedure as permissible parties may also be joined as parties in the action.

The provisions of Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure applicable to mortgage foreclosures shall apply to the foreclosure of a lien under this subsection (c), except to the extent that those provisions are inconsistent with this subsection. For purposes of foreclosures of liens under this subsection, however, the redemption period described in subsection (b) of Section 15-1603 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall end 60 days after the date of entry of the order of foreclosure.

(d) In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the corporate authorities of any municipality may petition the circuit court to have property declared abandoned under this subsection (d) if:

(1) the property has been tax delinquent for 2 or more years or bills for water service for the property have been outstanding for 2 or more years;

(2) the property is unoccupied by persons legally in possession; and

(3) the property contains a dangerous or unsafe building.

All persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, shall be named as defendants in the petition and shall be served with process. In addition, service shall be had under Section 2-206 of the Code of Civil Procedure as in other cases affecting property.

The municipality, however, may proceed under this subsection in a proceeding brought under subsection (a) or (b). Notice of the petition shall be served by certified or registered mail on all persons who were served notice under subsection (a) or (b).

If the municipality proves that the conditions described in this subsection exist and the owner of record of the property does not enter an appearance in the action, or, if title to the property is held by an Illinois land trust, if neither the owner of record nor the owner of the beneficial interest of the trust enters an appearance, the court shall declare the property abandoned.

If that determination is made, notice shall be sent by certified or registered mail to all persons having an interest of record in the property, including tax purchasers and beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, stating that title to the property will be transferred to the municipality unless, within 30 days of the notice, the owner of record enters an appearance in the action, or unless any other person having an interest in the property files with the court a request to demolish the dangerous or unsafe building or to put the building in safe condition.

If the owner of record enters an appearance in the action within the 30 day period, the court shall vacate its order declaring the property abandoned. In that case, the municipality may amend its complaint in order to initiate proceedings under subsection (a).

If a request to demolish or repair the building is filed within the 30 day period, the court shall grant permission to the requesting party to demolish the building within 30 days or to restore the building to safe condition within 60 days after the request is granted. An extension of that period for up to 60 additional days may be given for good cause. If more than one person with an interest in the property files a timely request, preference shall be given to the person with the lien or other interest of the highest priority.

If the requesting party proves to the court that the building has been demolished or put in a safe condition within the period of time granted by the court, the court shall issue a quitclaim judicial deed for the property to the requesting party, conveying only the interest of the owner of record, upon proof of payment to the municipality of all costs incurred by the municipality in connection with the action, including but not limited to court costs, attorney's fees, administrative costs, the costs, if any, associated with building enclosure or removal, and receiver's certificates. The interest in the property so conveyed shall be subject to all liens and encumbrances on the property. In addition, if the interest is conveyed to a person holding a certificate of purchase for the property under the Property Tax Code, the conveyance shall be subject to the rights of redemption of all persons entitled to redeem under that Act, including the original owner of record.

If no person with an interest in the property files a timely request or if the requesting party fails to demolish the building or put the building in safe condition within the time specified by the court, the municipality may petition the court to issue a judicial deed for the property to the municipality. A conveyance by judicial deed shall operate to extinguish all existing ownership interests in, liens on, and other interest in the property, including tax liens, and shall extinguish the rights and interests of any and all holders of a bona fide certificate of purchase of the property for delinquent taxes. Any such bona fide certificate of purchase holder shall be entitled to a sale in error as prescribed under Section 21-310 of the Property Tax Code.

(e) Each municipality may use the provisions of this subsection to expedite the removal of certain buildings that are a continuing hazard to the community in which they are located.

If a residential or commercial building is 3 stories or less in height as defined by the municipality's building code, and the corporate official designated to be in charge of enforcing the municipality's building code determines that the building is open and vacant and an immediate and continuing hazard to the community in which the building is located, then the official shall be authorized to post a notice not less than 2 feet by 2 feet in size on the front of the building. The notice shall be dated as of the date of the posting and shall state that unless the building is demolished, repaired, or enclosed, and unless any garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials are removed so that an immediate and continuing hazard to the community no longer exists, then the building may be demolished, repaired, or enclosed, or any garbage, debris, and other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials may be removed, by the municipality.

Not later than 30 days following the posting of the notice, the municipality shall do all of the following:

(1) Cause to be sent, by certified mail, return receipt requested, a Notice to Remediate to all owners of record of the property, the beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, and all lienholders of record in the property, stating the intent of the municipality to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials if that action is not taken by the owner or owners.

(2) Cause to be published, in a newspaper published or circulated in the municipality where the building is located, a notice setting forth (i) the permanent tax index number and the address of the building, (ii) a statement that the property is open and vacant and constitutes an immediate and continuing hazard to the community, and (iii) a statement that the municipality intends to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials if the owner or owners or lienholders of record fail to do so. This notice shall be published for 3 consecutive days.

(3) Cause to be recorded the Notice to Remediate mailed under paragraph (1) in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate is registered under the Registered Title (Torrens) Act.

Any person or persons with a current legal or equitable interest in the property objecting to the proposed actions of the corporate authorities may file his or her objection in an appropriate form in a court of competent jurisdiction.

If the building is not demolished, repaired, or enclosed, or the garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials are not removed, within 30 days of mailing the notice to the owners of record, the beneficial owners of any Illinois land trust having title to the property, and all lienholders of record in the property, or within 30 days of the last day of publication of the notice, whichever is later, the corporate authorities shall have the power to demolish, repair, or enclose the building or to remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials.

The municipality may proceed to demolish, repair, or enclose a building or remove any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials under this subsection within a 120-day period following the date of the mailing of the notice if the appropriate official determines that the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal of any garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials is necessary to remedy the immediate and continuing hazard. If, however, before the municipality proceeds with any of the actions authorized by this subsection, any person with a legal or equitable interest in the property has sought a hearing under this subsection before a court and has served a copy of the complaint on the chief executive officer of the municipality, then the municipality shall not proceed with the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal of garbage, debris, or other substances until the court determines that that action is necessary to remedy the hazard and issues an order authorizing the municipality to do so. If the court dismisses the action for want of prosecution, the municipality must send the objector a copy of the dismissal order and a letter stating that the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal of garbage, debris, or other substances will proceed unless, within 30 days after the copy of the order and the letter are mailed, the objector moves to vacate the dismissal and serves a copy of the motion on the chief executive officer of the municipality. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if the objector does not file a motion and give the required notice, if the motion is denied by the court, or if the action is again dismissed for want of prosecution, then the dismissal is with prejudice and the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal may proceed forthwith.

Following the demolition, repair, or enclosure of a building, or the removal of garbage, debris, or other hazardous, noxious, or unhealthy substances or materials under this subsection, the municipality may file a notice of lien against the real estate for the cost of the demolition, repair, enclosure, or removal within 180 days after the repair, demolition, enclosure, or removal occurred, for the cost and expense incurred, in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act; this lien has priority over the interests of those parties named in the Notice to Remediate mailed under paragraph (1), but not over the interests of third party purchasers or encumbrancers for value who obtained their interests in the property before obtaining actual or constructive notice of the lien. The notice of lien shall consist of a sworn statement setting forth (i) a description of the real estate, such as the address or other description of the property, sufficient for its identification; (ii) the expenses incurred by the municipality in undertaking the remedial actions authorized under this subsection; (iii) the date or dates the expenses were incurred by the municipality; (iv) a statement by the corporate official responsible for enforcing the building code that the building was open and vacant and constituted an immediate and continuing hazard to the community; (v) a statement by the corporate official that the required sign was posted on the building, that notice was sent by certified mail to the owners of record, and that notice was published in accordance with this subsection; and (vi) a statement as to when and where the notice was published. The lien authorized by this subsection may thereafter be released or enforced by the municipality as provided in subsection (a).

(f) The corporate authorities of each municipality may remove or cause the removal of, or otherwise environmentally remediate hazardous substances and petroleum products on, in, or under any abandoned and unsafe property within the territory of a municipality. In addition, where preliminary evidence indicates the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product or a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product on, in, or under the property, the corporate authorities of the municipality may inspect the property and test for the presence or release of hazardous substances and petroleum products. In any county having adopted by referendum or otherwise a county health department as provided by Division 5-25 of the Counties Code or its predecessor, the county board of that county may exercise the above-described powers with regard to property within the territory of any city, village, or incorporated town having less than 50,000 population.

For purposes of this subsection (f):

(1) "property" or "real estate" means all real property, whether or not improved by a structure;

(2) "abandoned" means;

(A) the property has been tax delinquent for 2 or more years;

(B) the property is unoccupied by persons legally in possession; and

(3) "unsafe" means property that presents an actual or imminent threat to public health and safety caused by the release of hazardous substances; and

(4) "hazardous substances" means the same as in Section 3.215 of the Environmental Protection Act.

The corporate authorities shall apply to the circuit court of the county in which the property is located (i) for an order allowing the municipality to enter the property and inspect and test substances on, in, or under the property; or (ii) for an order authorizing the corporate authorities to take action with respect to remediation of the property if conditions on the property, based on the inspection and testing authorized in paragraph (i), indicate the presence of hazardous substances or petroleum products. Remediation shall be deemed complete for purposes of paragraph (ii) above when the property satisfies Tier I, II, or III remediation objectives for the property's most recent usage, as established by the Environmental Protection Act, and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder. Where, upon diligent search, the identity or whereabouts of the owner or owners of the property, including the lien holders of record, is not ascertainable, notice mailed to the person or persons in whose name the real estate was last assessed is sufficient notice under this Section.

The court shall grant an order authorizing testing under paragraph (i) above upon a showing of preliminary evidence indicating the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product or a release of or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or a petroleum product on, in, or under abandoned property. The preliminary evidence may include, but is not limited to, evidence of prior use, visual site inspection, or records of prior environmental investigations. The testing authorized by paragraph (i) above shall include any type of investigation which is necessary for an environmental professional to determine the environmental condition of the property, including but not limited to performance of soil borings and groundwater monitoring. The court shall grant a remediation order under paragraph (ii) above where testing of the property indicates that it fails to meet the applicable remediation objectives. The hearing upon the application to the circuit court shall be expedited by the court and shall be given precedence over all other suits.

The cost of the inspection, testing, or remediation incurred by the municipality or by a lien holder of record, including court costs, attorney's fees, and other costs related to the enforcement of this Section, is a lien on the real estate; except that in any instances where a municipality incurs costs of inspection and testing but finds no hazardous substances or petroleum products on the property that present an actual or imminent threat to public health and safety, such costs are not recoverable from the owners nor are such costs a lien on the real estate. The lien is superior to all prior existing liens and encumbrances, except taxes and any lien obtained under subsection (a) or (e), if, within 180 days after the completion of the inspection, testing, or remediation, the municipality or the lien holder of record who incurred the cost and expense shall file a notice of lien for the cost and expense incurred in the office of the recorder in the county in which the real estate is located or in the office of the registrar of titles of the county if the real estate affected is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act.

The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out (i) a description of the real estate sufficient for its identification, (ii) the amount of money representing the cost and expense incurred, and (iii) the date or dates when the cost and expense was incurred by the municipality or the lien holder of record. Upon payment of the lien amount by the owner of or persons interested in the property after the notice of lien has been filed, a release of lien shall be issued by the municipality, the person in whose name the lien has been filed, or the assignee of the lien, and the release may be filed of record as in the case of filing notice of lien.

The lien may be enforced under subsection (c) or by foreclosure proceedings as in the case of mortgage foreclosures under Article XV of the Code of Civil Procedure or mechanics' lien foreclosures; provided that where the lien is enforced by foreclosure under subsection (c) or under either statute, the municipality may not proceed against the other assets of the owner or owners of the real estate for any costs that otherwise would be recoverable under this Section but that remain unsatisfied after foreclosure except where such additional recovery is authorized by separate environmental laws. An action to foreclose this lien may be commenced at any time after the date of filing of the notice of lien. The costs of foreclosure incurred by the municipality, including court costs, reasonable attorney's fees, advances to preserve the property, and other costs related to the enforcement of this subsection, plus statutory interest, are a lien on the real estate.

All liens arising under this subsection (f) shall be assignable. The assignee of the lien shall have the same power to enforce the lien as the assigning party, except that the lien may not be enforced under subsection (c).

(g) In any case where a municipality has obtained a lien under subsection (a), the municipality may also bring an action for a money judgment against the owner or owners of the real estate in the amount of the lien in the same manner as provided for bringing causes of action in Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure and, upon obtaining a judgment, file a judgment lien against all of the real estate of the owner or owners and enforce that lien as provided for in Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 91-162, eff. 7-16-99; 91-177, eff. 1-1-00; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 91-542, eff. 1-1-00; 91-561, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-681, eff. 1-1-03; revised 2-18-03.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-3)

Sec. 11-74.4-3. Definitions. The following terms, wherever used or referred to in this Division 74.4 shall have the following respective meanings, unless in any case a different meaning clearly appears from the context.

(a) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "blighted area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "blighted area" means any improved or vacant area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality where:

(1) If improved, industrial, commercial, and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, or welfare because of a combination of 5 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the improved part of the redevelopment project area:

(A) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(B) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(C) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(D) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(E) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(F) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(G) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(H) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(I) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: (i) the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and (ii) the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(J) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(K) Environmental clean-up. The proposed redevelopment project area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(L) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(M) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(2) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) Obsolete platting of vacant land that results in parcels of limited or narrow size or configurations of parcels of irregular size or shape that would be difficult to develop on a planned basis and in a manner compatible with contemporary standards and requirements, or platting that failed to create rights-of-ways for streets or alleys or that created inadequate right-of-way widths for streets, alleys, or other public rights-of-way or that omitted easements for public utilities.

(B) Diversity of ownership of parcels of vacant land sufficient in number to retard or impede the ability to assemble the land for development.

(C) Tax and special assessment delinquencies exist or the property has been the subject of tax sales under the Property Tax Code within the last 5 years.

(D) Deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas adjacent to the vacant land.

(E) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(F) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(3) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by one of the following factors that (i) is present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) is reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) The area consists of one or more unused quarries, mines, or strip mine ponds.

(B) The area consists of unused rail yards, rail tracks, or railroad rights-of-way.

(C) The area, prior to its designation, is subject to (i) chronic flooding that adversely impacts on real property in the area as certified by a registered professional engineer or appropriate regulatory agency or (ii) surface water that discharges from all or a part of the area and contributes to flooding within the same watershed, but only if the redevelopment project provides for facilities or improvements to contribute to the alleviation of all or part of the flooding.

(D) The area consists of an unused or illegal disposal site containing earth, stone, building debris, or similar materials that were removed from construction, demolition, excavation, or dredge sites.

(E) Prior to November 1, 1999, the area is not less than 50 nor more than 100 acres and 75% of which is vacant (notwithstanding that the area has been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area), and the area meets at least one of the factors itemized in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the area has been designated as a town or village center by ordinance or comprehensive plan adopted prior to January 1, 1982, and the area has not been developed for that designated purpose.

(F) The area qualified as a blighted improved area immediately prior to becoming vacant, unless there has been substantial private investment in the immediately surrounding area.

(b) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "conservation area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "conservation area" means any improved area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more. Such an area is not yet a blighted area but because of a combination of 3 or more of the following factors is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such an area may become a blighted area:

(1) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(2) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(3) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(4) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(5) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(6) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(7) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence or inadequacy of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(8) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(9) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(10) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(11) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(12) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(13) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available.

(c) "Industrial park" means an area in a blighted or conservation area suitable for use by any manufacturing, industrial, research or transportation enterprise, of facilities to include but not be limited to factories, mills, processing plants, assembly plants, packing plants, fabricating plants, industrial distribution centers, warehouses, repair overhaul or service facilities, freight terminals, research facilities, test facilities or railroad facilities.

(d) "Industrial park conservation area" means an area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality or within 1 1/2 miles of the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality if the area is annexed to the municipality; which area is zoned as industrial no later than at the time the municipality by ordinance designates the redevelopment project area, and which area includes both vacant land suitable for use as an industrial park and a blighted area or conservation area contiguous to such vacant land.

(e) "Labor surplus municipality" means a municipality in which, at any time during the 6 months before the municipality by ordinance designates an industrial park conservation area, the unemployment rate was over 6% and was also 100% or more of the national average unemployment rate for that same time as published in the United States Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics publication entitled "The Employment Situation" or its successor publication. For the purpose of this subsection, if unemployment rate statistics for the municipality are not available, the unemployment rate in the municipality shall be deemed to be the same as the unemployment rate in the principal county in which the municipality is located.

(f) "Municipality" shall mean a city, village, incorporated town, or a township that is located in the unincorporated portion of a county with 3 million or more inhabitants, if the county adopted an ordinance that approved the township's redevelopment plan.

(g) "Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located in a State Sales Tax Boundary during the calendar year 1985.

(g-1) "Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located within the State Sales Tax Boundary revised pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8a(9) of this Act.

(h) "Municipal Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid to a municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen within the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, for as long as the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, exist over and above the aggregate amount of taxes as certified by the Illinois Department of Revenue and paid under the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen, on transactions at places of business located in the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall determine the Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts". For purposes of determining the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the amount paid to the municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the redevelopment project area or the State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, to June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending June 30 to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts, as the case may be.

(i) "Net State Sales Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary. If, however, a municipality established a tax increment financing district in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 before January 1, 1986, and the municipality entered into a contract or issued bonds after January 1, 1986, but before December 31, 1986, to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, then the Net State Sales Tax Increment means, for the fiscal years beginning July 1, 1990, and July 1, 1991, 100% of the State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, for those fiscal years the Department of Revenue shall distribute to those municipalities 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment before any distribution to any other municipality and regardless of whether or not those other municipalities will receive 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment. For Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991, or that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988, shall continue to receive their proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund distribution until the date on which the redevelopment project is completed or terminated. If, however, a municipality that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991 retires the bonds prior to June 30, 2007 or a municipality that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988 completes the contracts prior to June 30, 2007, then so long as the redevelopment project is not completed or is not terminated, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated, beginning on the date on which the bonds are retired or the contracts are completed, as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to July 29, 1991, shall not alter the Net State Sales Tax Increment.

(j) "State Utility Tax Increment Amount" means an amount equal to the aggregate increase in State electric and gas tax charges imposed on owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties located within the redevelopment project area under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, over and above the aggregate of such charges as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid by owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties within the redevelopment project area during the base year, which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year of the adoption of the ordinance authorizing tax increment allocation financing.

(k) "Net State Utility Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of the State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area. For the State Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a redevelopment project area, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for the State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issue bonds in connection with the redevelopment project during the period from June 1, 1988 until 3 years after the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1988 shall receive the Net State Utility Tax Increment, subject to appropriation, for 15 State Fiscal Years after the issuance of such bonds. For the 16th through the 20th State Fiscal Years after issuance of the bonds, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in year 16; 80% in year 17; 70% in year 18; 60% in year 19; and 50% in year 20. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to June 1, 1988, shall not alter the revised Net State Utility Tax Increment payments set forth above.

(l) "Obligations" mean bonds, loans, debentures, notes, special certificates or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the municipality to carry out a redevelopment project or to refund outstanding obligations.

(m) "Payment in lieu of taxes" means those estimated tax revenues from real property in a redevelopment project area derived from real property that has been acquired by a municipality which according to the redevelopment project or plan is to be used for a private use which taxing districts would have received had a municipality not acquired the real property and adopted tax increment allocation financing and which would result from levies made after the time of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing to the time the current equalized value of real property in the redevelopment project area exceeds the total initial equalized value of real property in said area.

(n) "Redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the municipality for development or redevelopment intended by the payment of redevelopment project costs to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the redevelopment project area as a "blighted area" or "conservation area" or combination thereof or "industrial park conservation area," and thereby to enhance the tax bases of the taxing districts which extend into the redevelopment project area. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting. Each redevelopment plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish the objectives and shall include but not be limited to:

(A) an itemized list of estimated redevelopment project costs;

(B) evidence indicating that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise;

(C) an assessment of any financial impact of the redevelopment project area on or any increased demand for services from any taxing district affected by the plan and any program to address such financial impact or increased demand;

(D) the sources of funds to pay costs;

(E) the nature and term of the obligations to be issued;

(F) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the redevelopment project area;

(G) an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after redevelopment and the general land uses to apply in the redevelopment project area;

(H) a commitment to fair employment practices and an affirmative action plan;

(I) if it concerns an industrial park conservation area, the plan shall also include a general description of any proposed developer, user and tenant of any property, a description of the type, structure and general character of the facilities to be developed, a description of the type, class and number of new employees to be employed in the operation of the facilities to be developed; and

(J) if property is to be annexed to the municipality, the plan shall include the terms of the annexation agreement.

The provisions of items (B) and (C) of this subsection (n) shall not apply to a municipality that before March 14, 1994 (the effective date of Public Act 88-537) had fixed, either by its corporate authorities or by a commission designated under subsection (k) of Section 11-74.4-4, a time and place for a public hearing as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5. No redevelopment plan shall be adopted unless a municipality complies with all of the following requirements:

(1) The municipality finds that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise and would not reasonably be anticipated to be developed without the adoption of the redevelopment plan.

(2) The municipality finds that the redevelopment plan and project conform to the comprehensive plan for the development of the municipality as a whole, or, for municipalities with a population of 100,000 or more, regardless of when the redevelopment plan and project was adopted, the redevelopment plan and project either: (i) conforms to the strategic economic development or redevelopment plan issued by the designated planning authority of the municipality, or (ii) includes land uses that have been approved by the planning commission of the municipality.

(3) The redevelopment plan establishes the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs. Those dates: shall not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the twenty-third calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area is adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981; shall not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the thirty-third calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling; and shall not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the thirty-fifth calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area is adopted:

(A) if the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981, or

(B) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989, or

(C) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport, or

(D) if the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County, or

(E) if the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law, or

(F) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont, or

(G) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or

(H) if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis, or

(I) if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget, or

(J) if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island, or

(K) if the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline, or

(L) if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village, or

(M) if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village, or

(N) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva, or

(O) if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville, or

(P) if the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis, or

(Q) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo, or

(R) if the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton, or

(S) if the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport, or

(T) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola, or

(U) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta, or

(V) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown, or

(W) if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville, or

(X) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville, or

(Y) if the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton, or

(Z) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington, or

(AA) if the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy, or

(BB) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham, or

(CC) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin, or

(DD) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign, or

(EE) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana, or

(FF) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth, or

(GG) if the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth, or

(HH) if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth, or

(II) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero, or

(JJ) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham, or

(KK) if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton, or

(LL) if the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst, or

(MM) if the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan, or

(NN) if the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan, or

(OO) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan, or

(PP) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan, or

(QQ) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby, or

(RR) if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion, or

(SS) if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion, or

(TT) if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect, or

(UU) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull, or

(VV) if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville, or .

(WW) (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City, or .

(XX) (RR) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard, or

(YY) (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner, or

(ZZ) (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw.

However, for redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by this amendatory Act of 1993 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

A municipality may by municipal ordinance amend an existing redevelopment plan to conform to this paragraph (3) as amended by Public Act 91-478, which municipal ordinance may be adopted without further hearing or notice and without complying with the procedures provided in this Act pertaining to an amendment to or the initial approval of a redevelopment plan and project and designation of a redevelopment project area.

Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(3.5) The municipality finds, in the case of an industrial park conservation area, also that the municipality is a labor surplus municipality and that the implementation of the redevelopment plan will reduce unemployment, create new jobs and by the provision of new facilities enhance the tax base of the taxing districts that extend into the redevelopment project area.

(4) If any incremental revenues are being utilized under Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(2) of this Act in redevelopment project areas approved by ordinance after January 1, 1986, the municipality finds: (a) that the redevelopment project area would not reasonably be developed without the use of such incremental revenues, and (b) that such incremental revenues will be exclusively utilized for the development of the redevelopment project area.

(5) If the redevelopment plan will not result in displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, and the municipality certifies in the plan that such displacement will not result from the plan, a housing impact study need not be performed. If, however, the redevelopment plan would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, or if the redevelopment project area contains 75 or more inhabited residential units and no certification is made, then the municipality shall prepare, as part of the separate feasibility report required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5, a housing impact study.

Part I of the housing impact study shall include (i) data as to whether the residential units are single family or multi-family units, (ii) the number and type of rooms within the units, if that information is available, (iii) whether the units are inhabited or uninhabited, as determined not less than 45 days before the date that the ordinance or resolution required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5 is passed, and (iv) data as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units. The data requirement as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units shall be deemed to be fully satisfied by data from the most recent federal census.

Part II of the housing impact study shall identify the inhabited residential units in the proposed redevelopment project area that are to be or may be removed. If inhabited residential units are to be removed, then the housing impact study shall identify (i) the number and location of those units that will or may be removed, (ii) the municipality's plans for relocation assistance for those residents in the proposed redevelopment project area whose residences are to be removed, (iii) the availability of replacement housing for those residents whose residences are to be removed, and shall identify the type, location, and cost of the housing, and (iv) the type and extent of relocation assistance to be provided.

(6) On and after November 1, 1999, the housing impact study required by paragraph (5) shall be incorporated in the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area.

(7) On and after November 1, 1999, no redevelopment plan shall be adopted, nor an existing plan amended, nor shall residential housing that is occupied by households of low-income and very low-income persons in currently existing redevelopment project areas be removed after November 1, 1999 unless the redevelopment plan provides, with respect to inhabited housing units that are to be removed for households of low-income and very low-income persons, affordable housing and relocation assistance not less than that which would be provided under the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 and the regulations under that Act, including the eligibility criteria. Affordable housing may be either existing or newly constructed housing. For purposes of this paragraph (7), "low-income households", "very low-income households", and "affordable housing" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to ensure that this affordable housing is located in or near the redevelopment project area within the municipality.

(8) On and after November 1, 1999, if, after the adoption of the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area, any municipality desires to amend its redevelopment plan to remove more inhabited residential units than specified in its original redevelopment plan, that change shall be made in accordance with the procedures in subsection (c) of Section 11-74.4-5.

(9) For redevelopment project areas designated prior to November 1, 1999, the redevelopment plan may be amended without further joint review board meeting or hearing, provided that the municipality shall give notice of any such changes by mail to each affected taxing district and registrant on the interested party registry, to authorize the municipality to expend tax increment revenues for redevelopment project costs defined by paragraphs (5) and (7.5), subparagraphs (E) and (F) of paragraph (11), and paragraph (11.5) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3, so long as the changes do not increase the total estimated redevelopment project costs set out in the redevelopment plan by more than 5% after adjustment for inflation from the date the plan was adopted.

(o) "Redevelopment project" means any public and private development project in furtherance of the objectives of a redevelopment plan. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting.

(p) "Redevelopment project area" means an area designated by the municipality, which is not less in the aggregate than 1 1/2 acres and in respect to which the municipality has made a finding that there exist conditions which cause the area to be classified as an industrial park conservation area or a blighted area or a conservation area, or a combination of both blighted areas and conservation areas.

(q) "Redevelopment project costs" mean and include the sum total of all reasonable or necessary costs incurred or estimated to be incurred, and any such costs incidental to a redevelopment plan and a redevelopment project. Such costs include, without limitation, the following:

(1) Costs of studies, surveys, development of plans, and specifications, implementation and administration of the redevelopment plan including but not limited to staff and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, financial, planning or other services, provided however that no charges for professional services may be based on a percentage of the tax increment collected; except that on and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no contracts for professional services, excluding architectural and engineering services, may be entered into if the terms of the contract extend beyond a period of 3 years. In addition, "redevelopment project costs" shall not include lobbying expenses. After consultation with the municipality, each tax increment consultant or advisor to a municipality that plans to designate or has designated a redevelopment project area shall inform the municipality in writing of any contracts that the consultant or advisor has entered into with entities or individuals that have received, or are receiving, payments financed by tax increment revenues produced by the redevelopment project area with respect to which the consultant or advisor has performed, or will be performing, service for the municipality. This requirement shall be satisfied by the consultant or advisor before the commencement of services for the municipality and thereafter whenever any other contracts with those individuals or entities are executed by the consultant or advisor;

(1.5) After July 1, 1999, annual administrative costs shall not include general overhead or administrative costs of the municipality that would still have been incurred by the municipality if the municipality had not designated a redevelopment project area or approved a redevelopment plan;

(1.6) The cost of marketing sites within the redevelopment project area to prospective businesses, developers, and investors;

(2) Property assembly costs, including but not limited to acquisition of land and other property, real or personal, or rights or interests therein, demolition of buildings, site preparation, site improvements that serve as an engineered barrier addressing ground level or below ground environmental contamination, including, but not limited to parking lots and other concrete or asphalt barriers, and the clearing and grading of land;

(3) Costs of rehabilitation, reconstruction or repair or remodeling of existing public or private buildings, fixtures, and leasehold improvements; and the cost of replacing an existing public building if pursuant to the implementation of a redevelopment project the existing public building is to be demolished to use the site for private investment or devoted to a different use requiring private investment;

(4) Costs of the construction of public works or improvements, except that on and after November 1, 1999, redevelopment project costs shall not include the cost of constructing a new municipal public building principally used to provide offices, storage space, or conference facilities or vehicle storage, maintenance, or repair for administrative, public safety, or public works personnel and that is not intended to replace an existing public building as provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3 unless either (i) the construction of the new municipal building implements a redevelopment project that was included in a redevelopment plan that was adopted by the municipality prior to November 1, 1999 or (ii) the municipality makes a reasonable determination in the redevelopment plan, supported by information that provides the basis for that determination, that the new municipal building is required to meet an increase in the need for public safety purposes anticipated to result from the implementation of the redevelopment plan;

(5) Costs of job training and retraining projects, including the cost of "welfare to work" programs implemented by businesses located within the redevelopment project area;

(6) Financing costs, including but not limited to all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations and which may include payment of interest on any obligations issued hereunder including interest accruing during the estimated period of construction of any redevelopment project for which such obligations are issued and for not exceeding 36 months thereafter and including reasonable reserves related thereto;

(7) To the extent the municipality by written agreement accepts and approves the same, all or a portion of a taxing district's capital costs resulting from the redevelopment project necessarily incurred or to be incurred within a taxing district in furtherance of the objectives of the redevelopment plan and project.

(7.5) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after November 1, 1999, an elementary, secondary, or unit school district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act, and which costs shall be paid by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units and shall be calculated annually as follows:

(A) for foundation districts, excluding any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general State aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 25% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 17% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 8% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(B) For alternate method districts, flat grant districts, and foundation districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge equal to or more than $5,900, excluding any school district with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general state aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts, no more than 40% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts, no more than 27% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts, no more than 13% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(C) For any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, the following restrictions shall apply to the reimbursement of increased costs under this paragraph (7.5):

(i) no increased costs shall be reimbursed unless the school district certifies that each of the schools affected by the assisted housing project is at or over its student capacity;

(ii) the amount reimbursable shall be reduced by the value of any land donated to the school district by the municipality or developer, and by the value of any physical improvements made to the schools by the municipality or developer; and

(iii) the amount reimbursed may not affect amounts otherwise obligated by the terms of any bonds, notes, or other funding instruments, or the terms of any redevelopment agreement.

Any school district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.5) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with reasonable evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the school district. If the school district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. School districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.5). By acceptance of this reimbursement the school district waives the right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(7.7) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-961), a public library district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act shall be paid to the library district by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units. This paragraph (7.7) applies only if (i) the library district is located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law or (ii) the library district is not located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law but the district is prohibited by any other law from increasing its tax levy rate without a prior voter referendum.

The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be calculated by multiplying (i) the net increase in the number of persons eligible to obtain a library card in that district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by (ii) the per-patron cost of providing library services so long as it does not exceed $120. The per-patron cost shall be the Total Operating Expenditures Per Capita as stated in the most recent Illinois Public Library Statistics produced by the Library Research Center at the University of Illinois. The municipality may deduct from the amount that it must pay to a library district under this paragraph any amount that it has voluntarily paid to the library district from the tax increment revenue. The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be no more than 2% of the amount produced by the assisted housing units and deposited into the Special Tax Allocation Fund.

A library district is not eligible for any payment under this paragraph (7.7) unless the library district has experienced an increase in the number of patrons from the municipality that created the tax-increment-financing district since the designation of the redevelopment project area.

Any library district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.7) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with convincing evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the library district. If the library district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. Library districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.7). By acceptance of such reimbursement, the library district shall forfeit any right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner whatsoever the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(8) Relocation costs to the extent that a municipality determines that relocation costs shall be paid or is required to make payment of relocation costs by federal or State law or in order to satisfy subparagraph (7) of subsection (n);

(9) Payment in lieu of taxes;

(10) Costs of job training, retraining, advanced vocational education or career education, including but not limited to courses in occupational, semi-technical or technical fields leading directly to employment, incurred by one or more taxing districts, provided that such costs (i) are related to the establishment and maintenance of additional job training, advanced vocational education or career education programs for persons employed or to be employed by employers located in a redevelopment project area; and (ii) when incurred by a taxing district or taxing districts other than the municipality, are set forth in a written agreement by or among the municipality and the taxing district or taxing districts, which agreement describes the program to be undertaken, including but not limited to the number of employees to be trained, a description of the training and services to be provided, the number and type of positions available or to be available, itemized costs of the program and sources of funds to pay for the same, and the term of the agreement. Such costs include, specifically, the payment by community college districts of costs pursuant to Sections 3-37, 3-38, 3-40 and 3-40.1 of the Public Community College Act and by school districts of costs pursuant to Sections 10-22.20a and 10-23.3a of The School Code;

(11) Interest cost incurred by a redeveloper related to the construction, renovation or rehabilitation of a redevelopment project provided that:

(A) such costs are to be paid directly from the special tax allocation fund established pursuant to this Act;

(B) such payments in any one year may not exceed 30% of the annual interest costs incurred by the redeveloper with regard to the redevelopment project during that year;

(C) if there are not sufficient funds available in the special tax allocation fund to make the payment pursuant to this paragraph (11) then the amounts so due shall accrue and be payable when sufficient funds are available in the special tax allocation fund;

(D) the total of such interest payments paid pursuant to this Act may not exceed 30% of the total (i) cost paid or incurred by the redeveloper for the redevelopment project plus (ii) redevelopment project costs excluding any property assembly costs and any relocation costs incurred by a municipality pursuant to this Act; and

(E) the cost limits set forth in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11) shall be modified for the financing of rehabilitated or new housing units for low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The percentage of 75% shall be substituted for 30% in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11).

(F) Instead of the eligible costs provided by subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11), as modified by this subparagraph, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the municipality may pay from tax increment revenues up to 50% of the cost of construction of new housing units to be occupied by low-income households and very low-income households as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The cost of construction of those units may be derived from the proceeds of bonds issued by the municipality under this Act or other constitutional or statutory authority or from other sources of municipal revenue that may be reimbursed from tax increment revenues or the proceeds of bonds issued to finance the construction of that housing.

The eligible costs provided under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be an eligible cost for the construction, renovation, and rehabilitation of all low and very low-income housing units, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, within the redevelopment project area. If the low and very low-income units are part of a residential redevelopment project that includes units not affordable to low and very low-income households, only the low and very low-income units shall be eligible for benefits under subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11). The standards for maintaining the occupancy by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, of those units constructed with eligible costs made available under the provisions of this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be established by guidelines adopted by the municipality. The responsibility for annually documenting the initial occupancy of the units by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, shall be that of the then current owner of the property. For ownership units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for a reasonable recapture of funds, or other appropriate methods designed to preserve the original affordability of the ownership units. For rental units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for the affordability of rent to low and very low-income households. As units become available, they shall be rented to income-eligible tenants. The municipality may modify these guidelines from time to time; the guidelines, however, shall be in effect for as long as tax increment revenue is being used to pay for costs associated with the units or for the retirement of bonds issued to finance the units or for the life of the redevelopment project area, whichever is later.

(11.5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a municipality with a population of more than 100,000, the cost of day care services for children of employees from low-income families working for businesses located within the redevelopment project area and all or a portion of the cost of operation of day care centers established by redevelopment project area businesses to serve employees from low-income families working in businesses located in the redevelopment project area. For the purposes of this paragraph, "low-income families" means families whose annual income does not exceed 80% of the municipal, county, or regional median income, adjusted for family size, as the annual income and municipal, county, or regional median income are determined from time to time by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(12) Unless explicitly stated herein the cost of construction of new privately-owned buildings shall not be an eligible redevelopment project cost.

(13) After November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), none of the redevelopment project costs enumerated in this subsection shall be eligible redevelopment project costs if those costs would provide direct financial support to a retail entity initiating operations in the redevelopment project area while terminating operations at another Illinois location within 10 miles of the redevelopment project area but outside the boundaries of the redevelopment project area municipality. For purposes of this paragraph, termination means a closing of a retail operation that is directly related to the opening of the same operation or like retail entity owned or operated by more than 50% of the original ownership in a redevelopment project area, but it does not mean closing an operation for reasons beyond the control of the retail entity, as documented by the retail entity, subject to a reasonable finding by the municipality that the current location contained inadequate space, had become economically obsolete, or was no longer a viable location for the retailer or serviceman.

If a special service area has been established pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law, then any tax increment revenues derived from the tax imposed pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law may be used within the redevelopment project area for the purposes permitted by that Act or Law as well as the purposes permitted by this Act.

(r) "State Sales Tax Boundary" means the redevelopment project area or the amended redevelopment project area boundaries which are determined pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a of this Act. The Department of Revenue shall certify pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a the appropriate boundaries eligible for the determination of State Sales Tax Increment.

(s) "State Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen, other than retailers and servicemen subject to the Public Utilities Act, on transactions at places of business located within a State Sales Tax Boundary pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act, except such portion of such increase that is paid into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Local Government Distributive Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund, for as long as State participation exists, over and above the Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid under those Acts by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the State Sales Tax Boundary during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing, less 3.0% of such amounts generated under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act and Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which sum shall be appropriated to the Department of Revenue to cover its costs of administering and enforcing this Section. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall compute the Initial Sales Tax Amount for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amount". For purposes of determining the State Sales Tax Increment the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the State Sales Tax Boundary, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989 this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, until June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial State Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending on June 30, to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts. Municipalities intending to receive a distribution of State Sales Tax Increment must report a list of retailers to the Department of Revenue by October 31, 1988 and by July 31, of each year thereafter.

(t) "Taxing districts" means counties, townships, cities and incorporated towns and villages, school, road, park, sanitary, mosquito abatement, forest preserve, public health, fire protection, river conservancy, tuberculosis sanitarium and any other municipal corporations or districts with the power to levy taxes.

(u) "Taxing districts' capital costs" means those costs of taxing districts for capital improvements that are found by the municipal corporate authorities to be necessary and directly result from the redevelopment project.

(v) As used in subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-3 of this Act, "vacant land" means any parcel or combination of parcels of real property without industrial, commercial, and residential buildings which has not been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area, unless the parcel is included in an industrial park conservation area or the parcel has been subdivided; provided that if the parcel was part of a larger tract that has been divided into 3 or more smaller tracts that were accepted for recording during the period from 1950 to 1990, then the parcel shall be deemed to have been subdivided, and all proceedings and actions of the municipality taken in that connection with respect to any previously approved or designated redevelopment project area or amended redevelopment project area are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act. For purposes of this Section and only for land subject to the subdivision requirements of the Plat Act, land is subdivided when the original plat of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly certified, acknowledged, approved, and recorded or filed in accordance with the Plat Act and a preliminary plat, if any, for any subsequent phases of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly approved and filed in accordance with the applicable ordinance of the municipality.

(w) "Annual Total Increment" means the sum of each municipality's annual Net Sales Tax Increment and each municipality's annual Net Utility Tax Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

(Source: P.A. 93-298, eff. 7-23-03; 93-708, eff. 1-1-05; 93-747, eff. 7-15-04; 93-924, eff. 8-12-04; 93-961, eff. 1-1-05; 93-983, eff. 8-23-04; 93-984, eff. 8-23-04; 93-985, eff. 8-23-04; 93-986, eff. 8-23-04; 93-987, eff. 8-23-04; 93-995, eff. 8-23-04; 93-1024, eff. 8-25-04; 93-1076, eff. 1-18-05; 94-260, eff. 7-19-05; 94-268, eff. 7-19-05; 94-297, eff. 7-21-05; 94-302, eff. 7-21-05; 94-702, eff. 6-1-06; 94-704, eff. 12-5-05; 94-711, eff. 6-1-06; 94-778, eff. 5-19-06; 94-782, eff. 5-19-06; 94-783, eff. 5-19-06; 94-810, eff. 5-26-06; 94-903, eff. 6-22-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-6) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-6)

Sec. 11-74.4-6. (a) Except as provided herein, notice of the public hearing shall be given by publication and mailing. Notice by publication shall be given by publication at least twice, the first publication to be not more than 30 nor less than 10 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the taxing districts having property in the proposed redevelopment project area. Notice by mailing shall be given by depositing such notice in the United States mails by certified mail addressed to the person or persons in whose name the general taxes for the last preceding year were paid on each lot, block, tract, or parcel of land lying within the project redevelopment area. Said notice shall be mailed not less than 10 days prior to the date set for the public hearing. In the event taxes for the last preceding year were not paid, the notice shall also be sent to the persons last listed on the tax rolls within the preceding 3 years as the owners of such property. For redevelopment project areas with redevelopment plans or proposed redevelopment plans that would require removal of 10 or more inhabited residential units or that contain 75 or more inhabited residential units, the municipality shall make a good faith effort to notify by mail all residents of the redevelopment project area. At a minimum, the municipality shall mail a notice to each residential address located within the redevelopment project area. The municipality shall endeavor to ensure that all such notices are effectively communicated and shall include (in addition to notice in English) notice in the predominant language other than English when appropriate.

(b) The notices issued pursuant to this Section shall include the following:

(1) The time and place of public hearing. ;

(2) The boundaries of the proposed redevelopment project area by legal description and by street location where possible. ;

(3) A notification that all interested persons will be given an opportunity to be heard at the public hearing. ;

(4) A description of the redevelopment plan or redevelopment project for the proposed redevelopment project area if a plan or project is the subject matter of the hearing.

(5) Such other matters as the municipality may deem appropriate.

(c) Not less than 45 days prior to the date set for hearing, the municipality shall give notice by mail as provided in subsection (a) to all taxing districts of which taxable property is included in the redevelopment project area, project or plan and to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in addition to the other requirements under subsection (b) the notice shall include an invitation to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and each taxing district to submit comments to the municipality concerning the subject matter of the hearing prior to the date of hearing.

(d) In the event that any municipality has by ordinance adopted tax increment financing prior to 1987, and has complied with the notice requirements of this Section, except that the notice has not included the requirements of subsection (b), paragraphs (2), (3) and (4), and within 90 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, that municipality passes an ordinance which contains findings that: (1) all taxing districts prior to the time of the hearing required by Section 11-74.4-5 were furnished with copies of a map incorporated into the redevelopment plan and project substantially showing the legal boundaries of the redevelopment project area; (2) the redevelopment plan and project, or a draft thereof, contained a map substantially showing the legal boundaries of the redevelopment project area and was available to the public at the time of the hearing; and (3) since the adoption of any form of tax increment financing authorized by this Act, and prior to June 1, 1991, no objection or challenge has been made in writing to the municipality in respect to the notices required by this Section, then the municipality shall be deemed to have met the notice requirements of this Act and all actions of the municipality taken in connection with such notices as were given are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act.

(e) If a municipality desires to propose a redevelopment plan for a redevelopment project area that would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units or for a redevelopment project area that contains 75 or more inhabited residential units, the municipality shall hold a public meeting before the mailing of the notices of public hearing as provided in subsection (c) of this Section. The meeting shall be for the purpose of enabling the municipality to advise the public, taxing districts having real property in the redevelopment project area, taxpayers who own property in the proposed redevelopment project area, and residents in the area as to the municipality's possible intent to prepare a redevelopment plan and designate a redevelopment project area and to receive public comment. The time and place for the meeting shall be set by the head of the municipality's Department of Planning or other department official designated by the mayor or city or village manager without the necessity of a resolution or ordinance of the municipality and may be held by a member of the staff of the Department of Planning of the municipality or by any other person, body, or commission designated by the corporate authorities. The meeting shall be held at least 14 business days before the mailing of the notice of public hearing provided for in subsection (c) of this Section.

Notice of the public meeting shall be given by mail. Notice by mail shall be not less than 15 days before the date of the meeting and shall be sent by certified mail to all taxing districts having real property in the proposed redevelopment project area and to all entities requesting that information that have registered with a person and department designated by the municipality in accordance with registration guidelines established by the municipality pursuant to Section 11-74.4-4.2. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to notify all residents and the last known persons who paid property taxes on real estate in a redevelopment project area. This requirement shall be deemed to be satisfied if the municipality mails, by regular mail, a notice to each residential address and the person or persons in whose name property taxes were paid on real property for the last preceding year located within the redevelopment project area. Notice shall be in languages other than English when appropriate. The notices issued under this subsection shall include the following:

(1) The time and place of the meeting.

(2) The boundaries of the area to be studied for possible designation as a redevelopment project area by street and location.

(3) The purpose or purposes of establishing a redevelopment project area.

(4) A brief description of tax increment financing.

(5) The name, telephone number, and address of the person who can be contacted for additional information about the proposed redevelopment project area and who should receive all comments and suggestions regarding the development of the area to be studied.

(6) Notification that all interested persons will be given an opportunity to be heard at the public meeting.

(7) Such other matters as the municipality deems appropriate.

At the public meeting, any interested person or representative of an affected taxing district may be heard orally and may file, with the person conducting the meeting, statements that pertain to the subject matter of the meeting.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-7)

Sec. 11-74.4-7. Obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund set forth in Section 11-74.4-8 for the redevelopment project area may be issued to provide for redevelopment project costs. Such obligations, when so issued, shall be retired in the manner provided in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such obligations by the receipts of taxes levied as specified in Section 11-74.4-9 against the taxable property included in the area, by revenues as specified by Section 11-74.4-8a and other revenue designated by the municipality. A municipality may in the ordinance pledge all or any part of the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund created pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 to the payment of the redevelopment project costs and obligations. Any pledge of funds in the special tax allocation fund shall provide for distribution to the taxing districts and to the Illinois Department of Revenue of moneys not required, pledged, earmarked, or otherwise designated for payment and securing of the obligations and anticipated redevelopment project costs and such excess funds shall be calculated annually and deemed to be "surplus" funds. In the event a municipality only applies or pledges a portion of the funds in the special tax allocation fund for the payment or securing of anticipated redevelopment project costs or of obligations, any such funds remaining in the special tax allocation fund after complying with the requirements of the application or pledge, shall also be calculated annually and deemed "surplus" funds. All surplus funds in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed annually within 180 days after the close of the municipality's fiscal year by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the County Collector, to the Department of Revenue and to the municipality in direct proportion to the tax incremental revenue received as a result of an increase in the equalized assessed value of property in the redevelopment project area, tax incremental revenue received from the State and tax incremental revenue received from the municipality, but not to exceed as to each such source the total incremental revenue received from that source. The County Collector shall thereafter make distribution to the respective taxing districts in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to the affected districts of real property taxes from real property in the redevelopment project area.

Without limiting the foregoing in this Section, the municipality may in addition to obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund pledge for a period not greater than the term of the obligations towards payment of such obligations any part or any combination of the following: (a) net revenues of all or part of any redevelopment project; (b) taxes levied and collected on any or all property in the municipality; (c) the full faith and credit of the municipality; (d) a mortgage on part or all of the redevelopment project; or (e) any other taxes or anticipated receipts that the municipality may lawfully pledge.

Such obligations may be issued in one or more series bearing interest at such rate or rates as the corporate authorities of the municipality shall determine by ordinance. Such obligations shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or times not exceeding 20 years from their respective dates, be in such denomination, carry such registration privileges, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment at such place or places, contain such covenants, terms and conditions, and be subject to redemption as such ordinance shall provide. Obligations issued pursuant to this Act may be sold at public or private sale at such price as shall be determined by the corporate authorities of the municipalities. No referendum approval of the electors shall be required as a condition to the issuance of obligations pursuant to this Division except as provided in this Section.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to the authority of this Division secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, which obligations are other than obligations which may be issued under home rule powers provided by Article VII, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution, or pledges taxes pursuant to (b) or (c) of the second paragraph of this section, the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such obligations or pledging such taxes shall be published within 10 days after such ordinance has been passed in one or more newspapers, with general circulation within such municipality. The publication of the ordinance shall be accompanied by a notice of (1) the specific number of voters required to sign a petition requesting the question of the issuance of such obligations or pledging taxes to be submitted to the electors; (2) the time in which such petition must be filed; and (3) the date of the prospective referendum. The municipal clerk shall provide a petition form to any individual requesting one.

If no petition is filed with the municipal clerk, as hereinafter provided in this Section, within 30 days after the publication of the ordinance, the ordinance shall be in effect. But, if within that 30 day period a petition is filed with the municipal clerk, signed by electors in the municipality numbering 10% or more of the number of registered voters in the municipality, asking that the question of issuing obligations using full faith and credit of the municipality as security for the cost of paying for redevelopment project costs, or of pledging taxes for the payment of such obligations, or both, be submitted to the electors of the municipality, the corporate authorities of the municipality shall call a special election in the manner provided by law to vote upon that question, or, if a general, State or municipal election is to be held within a period of not less than 30 or more than 90 days from the date such petition is filed, shall submit the question at the next general, State or municipal election. If it appears upon the canvass of the election by the corporate authorities that a majority of electors voting upon the question voted in favor thereof, the ordinance shall be in effect, but if a majority of the electors voting upon the question are not in favor thereof, the ordinance shall not take effect.

The ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide that the obligations shall contain a recital that they are issued pursuant to this Division, which recital shall be conclusive evidence of their validity and of the regularity of their issuance.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to this Section secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, the ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all taxable property within the municipality sufficient to pay the principal thereof and interest thereon as it matures, which levy may be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes authorized to be levied by the municipality, which levy, however, shall be abated to the extent that monies from other sources are available for payment of the obligations and the municipality certifies the amount of said monies available to the county clerk.

A certified copy of such ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of each county in which any portion of the municipality is situated, and shall constitute the authority for the extension and collection of the taxes to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund.

A municipality may also issue its obligations to refund in whole or in part, obligations theretofore issued by such municipality under the authority of this Act, whether at or prior to maturity, provided however, that the last maturity of the refunding obligations shall not be expressed to mature later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the twenty-third calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area is adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981, not later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the thirty-third calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling, and not later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the thirty-fifth calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area is adopted (A) if the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981, or (B) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989, or (C) if the ordinance was adopted in December, 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport, or (D) if the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County, or (E) if the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law, or (F) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont, or (G) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or (H) if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or (I) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis, or if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget, or (J) if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island, or (K) if the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline, or (L) if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village, or (M) if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village, or (N) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva, or (O) if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville, or (P) if the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis, or (Q) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo, or (R) if the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton, or (S) if the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport, or (T) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola, or (U) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta, or (V) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown, or (W) if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville, or (X) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville, or (Y) if the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton, or (Z) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington, or (AA) if the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy, or (BB) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham, or (CC) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin, or (DD) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign, or (EE) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana, or (FF) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth, or (GG) if the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth, or (HH) if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth, or (II) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero, or (JJ) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham, or (KK) if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton, or (LL) if the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst, or (MM) if the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan, or (NN) if the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan, or (OO) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan, or (PP) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan, or (QQ) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby, or (RR) if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion, or (SS) if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion, or (TT) if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect, or (UU) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull, or (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville, or (WW) (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City, or (XX) (RR) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard, or (YY) (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner, or (ZZ) (VV) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw and, for redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary and which were extended by municipal ordinance under subsection (n) of Section 11-74.4-3, the last maturity of the refunding obligations shall not be expressed to mature later than the date on which the redevelopment project area is terminated or December 31, 2013, whichever date occurs first.

In the event a municipality issues obligations under home rule powers or other legislative authority the proceeds of which are pledged to pay for redevelopment project costs, the municipality may, if it has followed the procedures in conformance with this division, retire said obligations from funds in the special tax allocation fund in amounts and in such manner as if such obligations had been issued pursuant to the provisions of this division.

All obligations heretofore or hereafter issued pursuant to this Act shall not be regarded as indebtedness of the municipality issuing such obligations or any other taxing district for the purpose of any limitation imposed by law.

(Source: P.A. 93-298, eff. 7-23-03; 93-708, eff. 1-1-05; 93-747, eff. 7-15-04; 93-924, eff. 8-12-04; 93-983, eff. 8-23-04; 93-984, eff. 8-23-04; 93-985, eff. 8-23-04; 93-986, eff. 8-23-04; 93-987, eff. 8-23-04; 93-995, eff. 8-23-04; 93-1024, eff. 8-25-04; 93-1076, eff. 1-18-05; 94-260, eff. 7-19-05; 94-297, eff. 7-21-05; 94-302, eff. 7-21-05; 94-702, eff. 6-1-06; 94-704, eff. 12-5-05; 94-711, eff. 6-1-06; 94-778, eff. 5-19-06; 94-782, eff. 5-19-06; 94-783, eff. 5-19-06; 94-810, eff. 5-26-06; 94-903, eff. 6-22-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-124-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-124-1)

Sec. 11-124-1. Contracts for supply of water.

(a) The corporate authorities of each municipality may contract with any person, corporation, municipal corporation, political subdivision, public water district or any other agency for a supply of water. Any such contract entered into by a municipality shall provide that payments to be made thereunder shall be solely from the revenues to be derived from the operation of the waterworks system of the municipality, and the contract shall be a continuing valid and binding obligation of the municipality payable from the revenues derived from the operation of the waterworks system of the municipality for the period of years, not to exceed 40, as may be provided in such contract. Any such contract shall not be a debt within the meaning of any constitutional or statutory limitation. No prior appropriation shall be required before entering into such a contract and no appropriation shall be required to authorize payments to be made under the terms of any such contract notwithstanding any provision in this Code to the contrary.

(b) (a) Payments to be made under any such contract shall be an operation and maintenance expense of the waterworks system of the municipality. Any such contract made by a municipality for a supply of water may contain provisions whereby the municipality is obligated to pay for such supply of water without setoff or counterclaim and irrespective of whether such supply of water is ever furnished, made available or delivered to the municipality or whether any project for the supply of water contemplated by any such contract is completed, operable or operating and notwithstanding any suspension, interruption, interference, reduction or curtailment of the supply of water from such project. Any such contract may provide that if one or more of the other purchasers of water defaults in the payment of its obligations under such contract or a similar contract made with the supplier of the water, one or more of the remaining purchasers party to such contract or such similar contract shall be required to pay for all or a portion of the obligations of the defaulting purchasers.

(c) (b) Payments to be made under any such contract with a municipal joint action water agency under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act shall be an operation and maintenance expense of the waterworks system of the municipality. Any such contract made by a municipality for a supply of water with a municipal joint action water agency under the provisions of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act may contain provisions whereby the municipality is obligated to pay for such supply of water without setoff or counterclaim and irrespective of whether such supply of water is ever furnished, made available or delivered to the municipality or whether any project for the supply of water contemplated by any such contract is completed, operable or operating and notwithstanding any suspension, interruption, interference, reduction or curtailment of the supply of water from such project. Any such contract with a municipal joint action water agency may provide that if one or more of the other purchasers of water defaults in the payment of its obligations under such contract or a similar contract made with the supplier of the water, one or more of the remaining purchasers party to such contract or such similar contract shall be required to pay for all or a portion of the obligations of the defaulting purchasers.

The changes in this Section made by these amendatory Acts of 1984 are intended to be declarative of existing law.

(d) (b) A municipality with a water supply contract with a county water commission organized pursuant to the Water Commission Act of 1985 shall provide water to unincorporated areas of that home county in accordance with the terms of this subsection. The provision of water by the municipality shall be in accordance with a mandate of the home county as provided in Section 0.01 of the Water Commission Act of 1985. A home rule unit may not provide water in a manner that is inconsistent with the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 93-226, eff. 7-22-03; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 480. The Civic Center Code is amended by changing Sections 2-20 and 280-20 as follows:

(70 ILCS 200/2-20)

Sec. 2-20. Rights and powers, including eminent domain. The Authority shall have the following rights and powers:

(a) To acquire, purchase, own, construct, lease as lessee or in any other way acquire, improve, extend, repair, reconstruct, regulate, operate, equip and maintain exhibition centers, civic auditoriums, cultural facilities and office buildings, including sites and parking areas and commercial facilities therefor located within the metropolitan area;

(b) To plan for such grounds, centers and auditoriums and to plan, sponsor, hold, arrange and finance fairs, industrial, cultural, educational, trade and scientific exhibits, shows and events and to use or allow the use of such grounds, centers, and auditoriums for the holding of fairs, exhibits, shows and events whether conducted by the Authority or some other person or governmental agency;

(c) To exercise the right of eminent domain to acquire sites for such grounds, centers, buildings and auditoriums, and parking areas and facilities in the manner provided for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act;

(d) To fix and collect just, reasonable and nondiscriminatory charges and rents for the use of such parking areas and facilities, grounds, centers, buildings and auditoriums and admission charges to fairs, shows, exhibits and events sponsored or held by the Authority. The charges collected may be made available to defray the reasonable expenses of the Authority and to pay the principal of and the interest on any bonds issued by the Authority;

(e) To enter into contracts treating in any manner with the objects and purposes of this Article.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, any power granted under this Article to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain is subject to, and shall be exercised in accordance with, the Eminent Domain Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 10-6-06.)

(70 ILCS 200/280-20)

Sec. 280-20. Rights and powers. The Authority shall have the following rights and powers:

(a) To purchase, own, construct, lease as lessee or in any other way acquire, improve, extend, repair, reconstruct, regulate, operate, equip and maintain fair and expositions grounds, convention or exhibition centers, civic auditoriums, including sites and parking areas and facilities therefor located within the metropolitan area and office buildings, if such buildings are acquired as part of the main auditorium complex;

(b) To plan for such grounds, centers and auditoriums and to plan, sponsor, hold, arrange and finance fairs, industrial, cultural, educational, theatrical, sports, trade and scientific exhibits, shows and events and to use or allow the use of such grounds, centers and auditoriums for the holding of fairs, exhibits, shows and events whether conducted by the Authority or some other person or governmental agency;

(c) To exercise the right of eminent domain to acquire sites for such grounds, centers and auditoriums, and parking areas and facilities in the manner provided for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act;

(d) To fix and collect just, reasonable and nondiscriminatory charges for the use of such parking areas and facilities, grounds, centers and auditoriums and admission charges to fairs, shows, exhibits and events sponsored or held by the Authority. The charges collected may be made available to defray the reasonable expenses of the Authority and to pay the principal of and the interest on any bonds issued by the Authority;

(d-5) To sell the following real property and retain the proceeds from the sale: the 2 Rialto Square Building at the southeast corner of Chicago Street and Clinton Street, legally described as follows: Lot 1 and Lot 2 in Block 3 in East Juliet (now Joliet) in the City of Joliet in Will County, Illinois; and

(e) To enter into contracts treating any manner with the objects and purposes of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 94-790, eff. 5-19-06; 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 485. The Eastern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(70 ILCS 506/40)

Sec. 40. Bonds and notes; exemption from taxation. The creation of the Authority is in all respects for the benefit of the people of Illinois and for the improvement of their health, safety, welfare, comfort, and security, and its purposes are public purposes. In consideration thereof, the notes and bonds of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act and the income from these notes and bonds may be free from all taxation by the State or its political subdivisions, except for exempt from estate, transfer, and inheritance taxes. The exemption from taxation provided by the preceding sentence shall apply to the income on any notes or bonds of the Authority only if the Authority in its sole judgment determines that the exemption enhances the marketability of the bonds or notes or reduces the interest rates that would otherwise be borne by the bonds or notes. For purposes of Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the exemption of the Authority shall terminate after all of the bonds have been paid. The amount of such income that shall be added and then subtracted on the Illinois income tax return of a taxpayer, subject to Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, from federal adjusted gross income or federal taxable income in computing Illinois base income shall be the interest net of any bond premium amortization.

(Source: P.A. 94-203, eff. 7-13-05; revised 9-18-06.)

Section 490. The Joliet Arsenal Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(70 ILCS 508/40)

Sec. 40. Acquisition.

(a) The Authority may, but need not, acquire title to any project with respect to which it exercises its authority.

(b) The Authority shall have power to acquire by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise any property or rights therein from any person, the State of Illinois, any municipal corporation, any local unit of government, the government of the United States, any agency or instrumentality of the United States, any body politic, or any county useful for its purposes, whether improved for the purposes of any prospective project or unimproved. The Authority may also accept any donation of funds for its purposes from any of those sources.

(c) The Authority shall have power to develop, construct, and improve, either under its own direction or through collaboration with any approved applicant, or to acquire through purchase or otherwise any project, using for that purpose the proceeds derived from its sale of revenue bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness or governmental loans or grants, and to hold title in the name of the Authority to those projects.

(d) The Authority shall have the power to enter into intergovernmental agreements with the State of Illinois, the county of Will, the Illinois Finance Authority, the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority, the United States government, any agency or instrumentality of the United States, any unit of local government located within the territory of the Authority, or any other unit of government to the extent allowed by Article VII, Section 10 of the Illinois Constitution and the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act.

(e) The Authority shall have the power to share employees with other units of government, including agencies of the United States, agencies of the State of Illinois, and agencies or personnel of any unit of local government.

(f) Subject to subsection (i) of Section 35 of this Act, the Authority shall have the power to exercise powers and issue revenue bonds as if it were a municipality so authorized in Divisions 12.1, 74, 74.1, 74.3, and 74.5 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(g) All property owned by the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority is exempt from property taxes. Any property owned by the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority and leased to an entity that is not exempt shall remain exempt. The leasehold interest of the lessee shall be assessed under Section 9-195 of the Property Tax Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; 93-421, eff. 8-5-03; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 495. The Southeastern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(70 ILCS 518/40)

Sec. 40. Bonds and notes; exemption from taxation. The creation of the Authority is in all respects for the benefit of the people of Illinois and for the improvement of their health, safety, welfare, comfort, and security, and its purposes are public purposes. In consideration thereof, the notes and bonds of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act and the income from these notes and bonds may be free from all taxation by the State or its political subdivisions, except exempt for estate, transfer, and inheritance taxes. The exemption from taxation provided by the preceding sentence shall apply to the income on any notes or bonds of the Authority only if the Authority in its sole judgment determines that the exemption enhances the marketability of the bonds or notes or reduces the interest rates that would otherwise be borne by the bonds or notes. For purposes of Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the exemption of the Authority shall terminate after all of the bonds have been paid. The amount of such income that shall be added and then subtracted on the Illinois income tax return of a taxpayer, subject to Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, from federal adjusted gross income or federal taxable income in computing Illinois base income shall be the interest net of any bond premium amortization.

(Source: P.A. 93-968, eff. 8-20-04; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 500. The Western Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(70 ILCS 532/45)

Sec. 45. Bonds and notes; exemption from taxation. The creation of the Authority is in all respects for the benefit of the people of Illinois and for the improvement of their health, safety, welfare, comfort, and security, and its purposes are public purposes. In consideration thereof, the notes and bonds of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act and the income from these notes and bonds may be free from all taxation by the State or its political subdivisions, except exempt for estate, transfer, and inheritance taxes. The exemption from taxation provided by the preceding sentence shall apply to the income on any notes or bonds of the Authority only if the Authority in its sole judgment determines that the exemption enhances the marketability of the bonds or notes or reduces the interest rates that would otherwise be borne by the bonds or notes. For purposes of Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the exemption of the Authority shall terminate after all of the bonds have been paid. The amount of such income that shall be added and then subtracted on the Illinois income tax return of a taxpayer, subject to Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, from federal adjusted gross income or federal taxable income in computing Illinois base income shall be the interest net of any bond premium amortization.

(Source: P.A. 93-874, eff. 8-6-04; revised 9-18-06.)

Section 505. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Sections 4a and 6 as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/4a) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 24.1)

Sec. 4a. Change to elected board of trustees; petition; election; ballot; nomination and election of trustees. Any fire protection district organized under this Act may determine, in either manner provided in the following items (1) and (2) of this Section, to have an elected, rather than an appointed, board of trustees.

(1) If the district lies wholly within a single township but does not also lie wholly within a municipality, the township board of trustees may determine, by ordinance, to have an elected board of trustees.

(2) Upon presentation to the board of trustees of a petition, signed by not less than 10% of the electors of the district, requesting that a proposition for the election of trustees be submitted to the electors of the district, the secretary of the board of trustees shall certify the proposition to the appropriate election authorities who shall submit the proposition at a regular election in accordance with the general election law. The general election law shall apply to and govern such election. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the trustees of...... YES

Fire Protection District be ---------------------

elected, rather than appointed? NO

-------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of the votes cast on such proposition are in the affirmative, the trustees of the district shall thereafter be elected as provided by this Section.

At the next regular election for trustees as provided by the general election law, a district that has approved by ordinance or referendum to have its trustees elected rather than appointed shall elect 3, 5, or 7 trustees, as previously determined by the organization of the district or as increased under Section 4.01 or 4.02. The initial elected trustees shall be elected for 2, 4, and 6 year terms. In a district with 3 trustees, one trustee shall be elected for a term of 2 years, one for a term of 4 years, and one for a term of 6 years. In a district with 5 trustees, 2 shall be elected for terms of 2 years, 2 for terms of 4 years, and one for a term of 6 years. In a district with 7 trustees, 3 shall be elected for terms of 2 years, 2 for terms of 4 years, and 2 for terms of 6 years. Except as otherwise provided in Section 2A-54 of the Election Code, the term of each elected trustee shall commence on the third Monday of the month following the month of his election and until his successor is elected and qualified. The length of the terms of the trustees first elected shall be determined by lot at their first meeting. Except as otherwise provided in Section 2A-54 of the Election Code, thereafter, each trustee shall be elected to serve for a term of 6 years commencing on the third Monday of the month following the month of his election and until his successor is elected and qualified.

No party designation shall appear on the ballot for election of trustees. The provisions of the general election law shall apply to and govern the nomination and election of trustees.

Nominations for members of the board of trustees shall be made by a petition signed by at least 25 voters or 5% of the voters, whichever is less, residing within the district and shall be filed with the secretary of the board. In addition to the requirements of general election law, the form of the petition shall be as follows:

NOMINATING PETITIONS

To the Secretary of the Board of Trustees of (name of fire protection district):

We, the undersigned, being (number of signatories or 5% or more) of the voters residing within the district, hereby petition that (name of candidate) who resides at (address of candidate) in this district shall be a candidate for the office of (office) of the Board of Trustees (full-term or vacancy) to be voted for at the election to be held (date of election).

The secretary of the board shall notify each candidate for whom a petition for nomination has been filed of their obligations under the Campaign Financing Act, as required by the general election law. The notice shall be given on a form prescribed by the State Board of Elections and in accordance with the requirements of the general election law.

The secretary shall, within 7 days of filing or on the last day for filing, whichever is earlier, acknowledge to the petitioner in writing his acceptance of the petition.

The provisions of Section 4 relating to eligibility, powers and disabilities of trustees shall apply equally to elected trustees.

Whenever a fire protection district determines to elect trustees as provided in this Section, the trustees appointed pursuant to Section 4 shall continue to constitute the board of trustees until the third Monday of the month following the month of the first election of trustees. If the term of office of any appointed trustees expires before the first election of trustees, the authority which appointed that trustee under Section 4 of this Act shall appoint a successor to serve until a successor is elected and has qualified. The terms of all appointed trustees in such district shall expire on the third Monday of the month following the month of the first election of trustees under this Section or when successors have been elected and have qualified, whichever occurs later.

(Source: P.A. 93-847, eff. 7-30-04; 93-952, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(70 ILCS 705/6) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 26)

Sec. 6. Board of trustees; powers.

(a) The trustees shall constitute a board of trustees for the district for which they are appointed, which board of trustees is declared to be the corporate authority of the fire protection district, and shall exercise all of the powers and control all the affairs and property of such district.

The board of trustees at their initial meeting and at their first meeting following the commencement of the term of any trustee shall elect one of their number as president and one of their number as secretary and shall elect a treasurer for the district, who may be one of the trustees or may be any other citizen of the district and who shall hold office during the pleasure of the board and who shall give such bond as may be required by the board.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in Sections 16.01 through 16.18, the board may appoint and enter into a multi-year contract not exceeding 3 years with a fire chief and may appoint any firemen that may be necessary for the district, who shall hold office during the pleasure of the board and who shall give any bond that the board may require. The board may prescribe the duties and fix the compensation of all the officers and employees of the fire protection district.

(c) A member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district may be compensated as follows: in a district having fewer than 4 full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $1,000 per annum; in a district having more than 3 but less than 10 full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $1,500 per annum; in a district having either 10 or more full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $2,000 per annum. In addition, fire districts that operate an ambulance service pursuant to authorization by referendum, as provided in Section 22, may pay trustees an additional annual compensation not to exceed 50% of the amount otherwise authorized herein. The additional compensation shall be an administrative expense of the ambulance service and shall be paid from revenues raised by the ambulance tax levy.

(d) The trustees also have the express power to execute a note or notes and to execute a mortgage or trust deed to secure the payment of such note or notes; such trust deed or mortgage shall cover real estate, or some part thereof, or personal property owned by the district and the lien of the mortgage shall apply to the real estate or personal property so mortgaged by the district, and the proceeds of the note or notes may be used in the acquisition of personal property or of real estate or in the erection of improvements on such real estate.

The trustees have express power to purchase either real estate or personal property to be used for the purposes of the fire protection district through contracts which provide for the consideration for such purchase to be paid through installments to be made at stated intervals during a certain period of time, but, in no case, shall such contracts provide for the consideration to be paid during a period of time in excess of 25 years.

(e) The trustees have express power to provide for the benefit of its employees, volunteer firemen and paid firemen, group life, health, accident, hospital and medical insurance, or any combination thereof; and to pay for all or any portion of the premiums on such insurance. Such insurance may include provisions for employees who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing in accord with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination.

(f) To encourage continued service with the district, the board of trustees has the express power to award monetary incentives, not to exceed $240 per year, to volunteer firefighters of the district based on the length of service. To be eligible for the incentives, the volunteer firefighters must have at least 5 years of service with the district. The amount of the incentives may not be greater than 2% of the annual levy amount when all incentive awards are combined.

(g) The board of trustees has express power to change the corporate name of the fire protection district by ordinance, provided that notification of any change is given to the circuit clerk and the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(h) The board of trustees may impose reasonable civil penalties on individuals who repeatedly cause false fire alarms.

(i) The board of trustees has full power to pass all necessary ordinances, and rules and regulations for the proper management and conduct of the business of the board of trustees of the fire protection district for carrying into effect the objects for which the district was formed.

(Source: P.A. 93-302, eff. 1-1-04; 93-589, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-3-03.)

Section 510. The Park District Code is amended by changing Section 5-1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1205/5-1) (from Ch. 105, par. 5-1)

Sec. 5-1. Each Park District has the power to levy and collect taxes on all the taxable property in the district for all corporate purposes. The commissioners may accumulate funds for the purposes of building repairs and improvements and may annually levy taxes for such purposes in excess of current requirements for its other purposes but subject to the tax rate limitation as herein provided.

All general taxes proposed by the board to be levied upon the taxable property within the district shall be levied by ordinance. A certified copy of such levy ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of the county in which the same is to be collected not later than the last Tuesday in December in each year. The county clerk shall extend such tax; provided, the aggregate amount of taxes levied for any one year, exclusive of the amount levied for the payment of the principal and interest on bonded indebtedness of the district and taxes authorized by special referenda, shall not exceed, except as otherwise provided in this Section, the rate of .10%, or the rate limitation in effect on July 1, 1967, whichever is greater, of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a park district board of a park district lying wholly within one county is authorized to increase property taxes under this Section for corporate purposes for any one year so long as the increase is offset by a like property tax levy reduction in one or more of the park district's funds. At the time that such park district files its levy with the county clerk, it shall also certify to the county clerk that the park district has complied with and is authorized to act under this Section 5-1 of the Park District Code. In no instance shall the increase either exceed or result in a reduction to the extension limitation to which any park district is subject under Section 18-195 of the Property Tax Code.

Any funds on hand at the end of the fiscal year that are not pledged for or allocated to a particular purpose may, by action of the board of commissioners, be transferred to a capital improvement fund and accumulated therein, but the total amount accumulated in the fund may not exceed 1.5% of the aggregate assessed valuation of all taxable property in the park district.

The foregoing limitations upon tax rates may be decreased under the referendum provisions of the General Revenue Law of the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-434, eff. 8-5-03; 93-625, eff. 12-19-03; revised 1-13-04.)

Section 515. The West Cook Railroad Relocation and Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1920/15)

Sec. 15. Acquisition of property. The Authority shall have the power to acquire by gift, purchase, or legacy the fee simple title to real property located within the boundaries of the Authority, including temporary and permanent easements, as well as reversionary interests in the streets, alleys and other public places and personal property, required for its purposes, and title thereto shall be taken in the corporate name of the Authority. Any such property which is already devoted to a public use may nevertheless be acquired, provided that no property belonging to the United States of America or the State of Illinois may be acquired without the consent of such governmental unit. No property devoted to a public use belonging to a corporation subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission may be acquired without a prior finding by the Illinois Commerce Commission that the taking would not result in the imposition of an undue burden on intrastate instrastate commerce. All land and appurtenances thereto, acquired or owned by the Authority, are to be deemed acquired or owned for a public use or public purpose.

(Source: P.A. 91-562, eff. 8-14-99; revised 10-12-05.)

Section 520. The Dixon Railroad Relocation Authority Law is amended by changing Section 5-15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1925/5-15)

Sec. 5-15. Acquisition of property. The Authority shall have the power to acquire by gift, purchase, or legacy the fee simple title to real property located within the boundaries of the Authority, including temporary and permanent easements, as well as reversionary interests in the streets, alleys and other public places and personal property, required for its purposes, and title thereto shall be taken in the corporate name of the Authority. Any such property that is already devoted to a public use may nevertheless be acquired, provided that no property belonging to the United States of America or the State of Illinois may be acquired without the consent of such governmental unit. No property devoted to a public use belonging to a corporation subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission may be acquired without a prior finding by the Illinois Commerce Commission that the taking would not result in the imposition of an undue burden on intrastate instrastate commerce. All land and appurtenances thereto, acquired or owned by the Authority, are to be deemed acquired or owned for a public use or public purpose.

(Source: P.A. 92-352, eff. 8-15-01; revised 10-12-05.)

Section 525. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 288 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/288)

Sec. 288. District enlarged. On March 7, 2002 Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the corporate limits of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act are extended to include within those limits the following described tracts of land, and those tracts are annexed to the District.

(1) Parcel 1 (Canter Parcel)

THAT PART OF SECTION 21 TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9, EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION 21; THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 12 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST (DEED BEING SOUTH), ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4, A DISTANCE OF 574.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 181.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 38 DEGREES 25 MINUTES 33 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 222.79 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 238.50 FEET) TO AN IRON STAKE; THENCE SOUTH 60 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST (DEED BEING SOUTH 59 DEGREES 41 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST), ALONG A LINE THAT WOULD INTERSECT THE EAST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 21 AT A POINT THAT IS 669.25 FEET NORTHERLY OF (AS MEASURED ALONG SAID EAST LINE) THE CENTER OF SAID SECTION 21, A DISTANCE OF 24.03 FEET FOR THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 60 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID LINE, A DISTANCE OF 629.56 FEET TO THE INTERSECTION WITH THE NORTHEASTERLY EXTENSION OF A LINE PREVIOUSLY SURVEYED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 38 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 02 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID LINE, A DISTANCE OF 1100.29 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTH 39 DEGREES 55 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 1098.70 FEET) TO THE CENTER LINE OF THE CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, (NOW KNOWN AS IRVING PARK BOULEVARD AND STATE ROUTE NO. 19) AS SHOWN ON THE PLAT OF DEDICATION RECORDED JUNE 9, 1933 AS DOCUMENT NO. 11245764 AND AS SHOWN ON A PLAT OF SURVEY DATED SEPTEMBER 22, 1932 APPROVED BY THE SUPERINTENDENT OF HIGHWAYS OF COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS ON DECEMBER 17, 1933; THENCE SOUTH 51 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 19 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID CENTER LINE, A DISTANCE OF 597.60 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTHEASTERLY ALONG CENTER LINE, 620.50 FEET) TO A POINT OF CURVE IN SAID CENTER LINE, ACCORDING TO THE PLAT OF DEDICATION RECORDED FEBRUARY 16, 1933 AS DOCUMENT NO. 11200330 AND AFORESAID PLAT OF SURVEY; THENCE SOUTHEASTERLY, ALONG THE SAID CENTER LINE, BEING ALONG A CURVE TO THE LEFT, HAVING A RADIUS OF 4645.69 FEET AND BEING TANGENT TO THE LAST DESCRIBED COURSE AT THE LAST DESCRIBED POINT, A DISTANCE OF 341.66 FEET (DEED BEING ALONG SAID CURVE, 338.30 FEET) TO THE INTERSECTION WITH A PREVIOUSLY SURVEYED AND MONUMENTED LINE; THENCE SOUTH 42 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 09 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID LINE, A DISTANCE OF 65.95 FEET (DEED BEING SOUTH 44 DEGREES 41 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 65 FEET) TO THE CENTER LINE OF THE OLD CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, ACCORDING TO THE AFORESAID PLAT OF SURVEY; THENCE NORTH 56 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE CENTER LINE OF THE SAID OLD CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, A DISTANCE OF 685.80 FEET (DEED BEING NORTH 54 DEGREES 52 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, 635.0 FEET) TO AN ANGLE IN SAID CENTER LINE; THENCE NORTH 44 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 58 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID CENTER LINE, A DISTANCE OF 878.23 FEET (DEED BEING NORTH 44 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST) TO A LINE THAT IS DRAWN SOUTH 38 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 41 SECONDS WEST FROM THE POINT OF BEGINNING AND BEING PERPENDICULAR TO THE NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF THE CHICAGO-ELGIN ROAD, AS DESCRIBED ON THE AFORESAID PLAT OF DEDICATION PER DOCUMENT NO. 11245764 AND SHOWN ON THE AFORESAID PLAT OF SURVEY; THENCE NORTH 38 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 41 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID PERPENDICULAR LINE, A DISTANCE OF 1011.41 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, (EXCEPTING THEREFROM SUCH PORTIONS THEREOF AS MAY HAVE BEEN HERETOFORE CONVEYED OR DEDICATED FOR HIGHWAY PURPOSES) IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-024-0000

(2) Parcel 2 (T Bar J Ranch Parcel)

PARCEL 1:

THAT PART OF SECTION 21, TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH; RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION 21; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION, 574.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.50 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, ALONG A FENCE LINE 510.8 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES WEST, ALONG A FENCE LINE, 275.05 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 67 DEGREES 40 MINUTES WEST, 277.64 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 19 DEGREES 47 MINUTES WEST, ALONG A FENCE LINE, 175.5 FEET TO THE NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF A PUBLIC HIGHWAY KNOWN AS IRVING PARK BOULEVARD; THENCE SOUTH 50 DEGREES 21 MINUTES EAST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF PUBLIC HIGHWAY, A DISTANCE OF 248.3 FEET TO A POINT THAT IS SOUTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES WEST, 251.15 FEET FROM THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES, EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE 251.15 FEET TO A POINT OF BEGINNING, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-018-0000

PARCEL 2:

THAT PART OF SECTION 21, TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 21 AFORESAID; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION, 574.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.5 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 203.4 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 307.4 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 29 DEGREES 48 MINUTES WEST, 275.05 FEET; THENCE NORTH 67 DEGREES 40 MINUTES WEST, 277.64 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 19 DEGREES 47 MINUTES WEST ALONG A FENCE LINE, 175.5 FEET TO NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF PUBLIC HIGHWAY KNOWN AS IRVING PARK BOULEVARD; THENCE NORTH 50 DEGREES 21 MINUTES WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF HIGHWAY 566.2 FEET; THENCE NORTH 17 DEGREES 17 MINUTES EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE 193.07 FEET; THENCE NORTH 84 DEGREES 47 MINUTES EAST 988.44 FEET TO A FENCE LINE; THENCE SOUTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES EAST ALONG SAID FENCE LINE, A DISTANCE OF 282.19 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING IN HANOVER TOWNSHIP IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-022-0000

(3) Parcel 3 (Gibas parcel)

A PARCEL OF LAND IN SECTION 21, TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SAID SECTION 21, THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST 1/4 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4, 574.20 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.20 FEET FOR A POINT OF BEGINNING, THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.5 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 203.4 FEET TO A FENCE CORNER; THENCE NORTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES WEST ALONG A FENCE LINE, 512.8 FEET; THENCE NORTH 3 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST ALONG SAID FENCE LINE 263.6 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF NEW SCHAUMBURG ROAD THAT IS 311.0 FEET MORE OR LESS SOUTHWESTERLY OF THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTHEASTERLY ALONG THE SAID SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF ROAD 311.0 FEET MORE OR LESS TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, (EXCEPTING SUCH PORTIONS THEREOF AS MAY FALL WITHIN LOTS 10 OR 26 OF COUNTY CLERK'S DIVISION OF SECTION 21 ACCORDING TO THE PLAT THEREOF RECORDED, MAY 31, 1895 IN BOOK 65 OF PLATS PAGE 35) IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N.: 06-21-101-015-0000

(4) Parcel 4 (Blake parcel)

THAT PART OF SECTIONS 20 AND 21 IN TOWNSHIP 41 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 21 AFORESAID; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION, 574.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 69 DEGREES 48 MINUTES EAST, 181.2 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 28 DEGREES 49 MINUTES EAST, 720.45 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 33 DEGREES 37 MINUTES WEST, 238.5 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 75 DEGREES 29 MINUTES WEST, 203.4 FEET; THENCE NORTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES WEST ALONG A FENCE LINE, 282.19 FEET TO A POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 84 DEGREES 47 MINUTES WEST, 988.44 FEET TO A POINT ON A FENCE LINE THAT LIES NORTH 17 DEGREES 17 MINUTES EAST, 193.07 FEET FROM A POINT ON THE NORTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF IRVING PARK BOULEVARD; THENCE NORTH 17 DEGREES 17 MINUTES EAST ALONG SAID FENCE LINE, 276.03 FEET TO THE SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF SCHAUMBURG ROAD (AS NOW DEDICATED); THENCE EASTERLY AND NORTHEASTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY RIGHT OF WAY LINE ON A CURVE TO LEFT HAVING A RADIUS OF 1425.4 FEET A DISTANCE OF 829.0 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 3 DEGREES 29 MINUTES EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE 263.6 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 31 DEGREES 51 MINUTES EAST ALONG A FENCE LINE A DISTANCE OF 230.61 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN HANOVER TOWNSHIP, COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

P.I.N. PI.N.: 06-21-101-021-0000.

(Source: P.A. 92-532, eff. 3-7-02; revised 1-27-03.)

(70 ILCS 2605/289)

Sec. 289 288. District enlarged. On August 22, 2002 Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the corporate limits of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District are extended to include within those limits the following described tract of land, and that tract is annexed to the District.

LEGAL DESCRIPTION

5.425 ACRES

THAT PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, TOWNSHIP 42 NORTH, RANGE 9, EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 25; THENCE NORTH 00°00'00" EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 1314.40 FEET TO THE NORTH LINE OF THE SOUTH HALF OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25; THENCE SOUTH 89°15'17" WEST ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 170.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 44°22'03" WEST, 410.93 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 89°15'17" WEST PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 420.04 FEET TO A LINE 1755.25 FEET EAST OF, MEASURED AT RIGHT ANGLES, AND PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25; THENCE NORTH 00°02'28" WEST ALONG SAID PARALLEL LINE, 105.23 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89°15'17" WEST PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 300.13 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 00°02'28" EAST, 150.68 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89°57'32" EAST 120.37 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 00°02'28" EAST PARALLEL WITH THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 353.10 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89°15'17" EAST PARALLEL WITH THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, A DISTANCE OF 479.77 FEET; THENCE NORTH 00°02'28" WEST, 278.99 FEET; THENCE NORTH 44°22'03" EAST, 171.50 FEET TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

(Source: P.A. 92-843, eff. 8-22-02; revised 2-18-03.)

Section 530. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 5.01 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 352)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act:

(a) "Mass transit facility" means any local public transportation facility, whether buses, trolley-buses, or railway systems, utilized by a substantial number of persons for their daily transportation, and includes not only the local public transportation facility itself but ancillary and supporting facilities such as, for example, motor vehicle parking facilities, as well.

(b) "Participating municipality and county" means the municipality or municipalities, county or counties creating the local Mass Transit District pursuant to Section 3 of this Act.

(c) "Municipality" means a city, village, township, or incorporated town.

(d) "Corporate authorities" means (1) the city council or similar body of a city, (2) the board of trustees or similar body of a village or incorporated town, (3) the council of a municipality under the commission form of municipal government, and (4) the board of trustees in a township.

(e) "County board" means the governing board of a county.

(f) "District" means a local Mass Transit District created pursuant to Section 3 of this Act.

(g) "Board" means the Board of Trustees of a local Mass Transit District created pursuant to Section 3 of this Act.

(h) "Interstate transportation authority" shall mean any political subdivision created by compact between this State and another state, which is a body corporate and politic and a political subdivision of both contracting states, and which operates a public mass transportation system. ;

(i) "Metro East Mass Transit District" means one or more local mass transit districts created pursuant to this Act, composed only of Madison, St. Clair or Monroe Counties, or any combination thereof or any territory annexed to such district.

(j) "Public mass transportation system" shall mean a transportation system or systems owned and operated by an interstate transportation authority, a municipality, District, or other public or private authority, employing motor busses, rails or any other means of conveyance, by whatsoever type or power, operated for public use in the conveyance of persons, mainly providing local transportation service within an interstate transportation district, municipality, or county.

(Source: P.A. 93-590, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(70 ILCS 3610/5.01) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 355.01)

Sec. 5.01. Metro East Mass Transit District; use and occupation taxes.

(a) The Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District may, by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of two-thirds of the then trustees, impose throughout the District any or all of the taxes and fees provided in this Section. All taxes and fees imposed under this Section shall be used only for public mass transportation systems, and the amount used to provide mass transit service to unserved areas of the District shall be in the same proportion to the total proceeds as the number of persons residing in the unserved areas is to the total population of the District. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes.

(b) The Board may impose a Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the district at a rate of 1/4 of 1%, or as authorized under subsection (d-5) of this Section, of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of such business within the district. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 14 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metro East Mass Transit District tax fund established under paragraph (g) of this Section.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale, by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Metro East Mass Transit District to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the district, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the District, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. The tax rate shall be 1/4%, or as authorized under subsection (d-5) of this Section, of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the district. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the Authority), 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the District), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the District), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metro East Mass Transit District tax fund established under paragraph (g) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the District to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(d) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using, in the district, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the district at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at a rate of 1/4%, or as authorized under subsection (d-5) of this Section, of the selling price of the tangible personal property within the District, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the District. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Metro East Mass Transit District. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and interest so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, that are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metro East Mass Transit District tax fund established under paragraph (g) of this Section.

(d-5) (A) The county board of any county participating in the Metro East Mass Transit District may authorize, by ordinance, a referendum on the question of whether the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax for the District should be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%. Upon adopting the ordinance, the county board shall certify the proposition to the proper election officials who shall submit the proposition to the voters of the District at the next election, in accordance with the general election law.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%?

(B) Two thousand five hundred electors of any Metro East Mass Transit District may petition the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court, or any judge of that Circuit designated by the Chief Judge, in which that District is located to cause to be submitted to a vote of the electors the question whether the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax for the District should be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%.

Upon submission of such petition the court shall set a date not less than 10 nor more than 30 days thereafter for a hearing on the sufficiency thereof. Notice of the filing of such petition and of such date shall be given in writing to the District and the County Clerk at least 7 days before the date of such hearing.

If such petition is found sufficient, the court shall enter an order to submit that proposition at the next election, in accordance with general election law.

The form of the petition shall be in substantially the following form: To the Circuit Court of the County of (name of county):

We, the undersigned electors of the (name of transit district), respectfully petition your honor to submit to a vote of the electors of (name of transit district) the following proposition:

Shall the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%?

Name Address, with Street and Number.

(C) The votes shall be recorded as "YES" or "NO". If a majority of all votes cast on the proposition are for the increase in the tax rates, the Metro East Mass Transit District shall begin imposing the increased rates in the District, and the Department of Revenue shall begin collecting the increased amounts, as provided under this Section. An ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing, or on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing.

(D) If the voters have approved a referendum under this subsection, before November 1, 1994, to increase the tax rate under this subsection, the Metro East Mass Transit District Board of Trustees may adopt by a majority vote an ordinance at any time before January 1, 1995 that excludes from the rate increase tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. The ordinance excluding titled or registered tangible personal property from the rate increase must be filed with the Department at least 15 days before its effective date. At any time after adopting an ordinance excluding from the rate increase tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, the Metro East Mass Transit District Board of Trustees may adopt an ordinance applying the rate increase to that tangible personal property. The ordinance shall be adopted, and a certified copy of that ordinance shall be filed with the Department, on or before October 1, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the rate increase against tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government as of the following January 1. After December 31, 1995, any reimposed rate increase in effect under this subsection shall no longer apply to tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. Beginning January 1, 1996, the Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District may never reimpose a previously excluded tax rate increase on tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. After July 1, 2004, if the voters have approved a referendum under this subsection to increase the tax rate under this subsection, the Metro East Mass Transit District Board of Trustees may adopt by a majority vote an ordinance that excludes from the rate increase tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. The ordinance excluding titled or registered tangible personal property from the rate increase shall be adopted, and a certified copy of that ordinance shall be filed with the Department on or before October 1, whereupon the Department shall administer and enforce this exclusion from the rate increase as of the following January 1, or on or before April 1, whereupon the Department shall administer and enforce this exclusion from the rate increase as of the following July 1. The Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District may never reimpose a previously excluded tax rate increase on tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government.

(d-6) If the Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District has imposed a rate increase under subsection (d-5) and filed an ordinance with the Department of Revenue excluding titled property from the higher rate, then that Board may, by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of two-thirds of the then trustees, impose throughout the District a fee. The fee on the excluded property shall not exceed $20 per retail transaction or an amount equal to the amount of tax excluded, whichever is less, on tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. Beginning July 1, 2004, the fee shall apply only to titled property that is subject to either the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax or the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax. No fee shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(d-7) Until June 30, 2004, if a fee has been imposed under subsection (d-6), a fee shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using, in the district, any item of tangible personal property that is titled or registered with any agency of this State's government, in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed under subsection (d-6).

(d-7.1) Beginning July 1, 2004, any fee imposed by the Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District under subsection (d-6) and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the fees shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. Reference to "taxes" in this Section shall be construed to apply to the administration, payment, and remittance of all fees under this Section. For purposes of any fee imposed under subsection (d-6), 4% of the fee, penalty, and interest received by the Department in the first 12 months that the fee is collected and enforced by the Department and 2% of the fee, penalty, and interest following the first 12 months shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department. No retailers' discount shall apply to any fee imposed under subsection (d-6).

(d-8) No item of titled property shall be subject to both the higher rate approved by referendum, as authorized under subsection (d-5), and any fee imposed under subsection (d-6) or (d-7).

(d-9) (Blank).

(d-10) (Blank).

(e) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (c) or (d) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Metro East Mass Transit District as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, except as provided in subsection (d-5) of this Section, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing, or, beginning January 1, 2004, on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (d-7.1), the State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the District. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois the amount to be paid to the District, which shall be the then balance in the fund, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amount to be paid to the District, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for payment for the amount in accordance with the direction in the certification.

(Source: P.A. 93-590, eff. 1-1-04; 93-1068, eff. 1-15-05; 94-776, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 535. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Section 4.02 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/4.02) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.02)

Sec. 4.02. Federal, State and Other Funds.

(a) The Authority shall have the power to apply for, receive and expend grants, loans or other funds from the State of Illinois or any department or agency thereof, from any unit of local government, from the federal government or any department or agency thereof, for use in connection with any of the powers or purposes of the Authority as set forth in this Act. The Authority shall have power to make such studies as may be necessary and to enter into contracts or agreements with the State of Illinois or any department or agency thereof, with any unit of local government, or with the federal government or any department or agency thereof, concerning such grants, loans or other funds, or any conditions relating thereto, including obligations to repay such funds. The Authority may make such covenants concerning such grants, loans and funds as it deems proper and necessary in carrying out its responsibilities, purposes and powers as provided in this Act.

(b) The Authority shall be the primary public body in the metropolitan region with authority to apply for and receive any grants, loans or other funds relating to public transportation programs from the State of Illinois or any department or agency thereof, or from the federal government or any department or agency thereof. Any unit of local government, Service Board or transportation agency may apply for and receive any such federal or state capital grants, loans or other funds, provided, however that a Service Board may not apply for or receive any grant or loan which is not identified in the Five-Year Program. Any Service Board, unit of local government or transportation agency shall notify the Authority prior to making any such application and shall file a copy thereof with the Authority. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose any limitation on the ability of the State of Illinois or any department or agency thereof, any unit of local government or Service Board or transportation agency to make any grants or to enter into any agreement or contract with the National Rail Passenger Corporation. Nor shall anything in this Section impose any limitation on the ability of any school district to apply for or receive any grant, loan or other funds for transportation of school children.

(c) The Authority shall provide to the Service Board any monies received relating to public transportation services under the jurisdiction of the Service Boards as follows:

(1) As soon as may be practicable after the Authority receives payment, under Section 4.03(m) or Section 4.03.1(d), of the proceeds of those taxes levied by the Authority, the Authority shall transfer to each Service Board the amount to which it is entitled under Section 4.01(d). ;

(2) The Authority by ordinance adopted by 9 of its then Directors shall establish a formula apportioning any federal funds for operating assistance purposes the Authority receives to each Service Board. In establishing the formula, the Board shall consider, among other factors: ridership levels, the efficiency with which the service is provided, the degree of transit dependence of the area served and the cost of service. That portion of any federal funds for operating assistance received by the Authority shall be paid to each Service Board as soon as may be practicable upon their receipt provided the Authority has adopted a balanced budget as required by Section 4.01 and further provided that the Service Boards are in compliance with the requirements in Section 4.11.

(3) The Authority by ordinance adopted by 9 of its then Directors shall apportion to the Service Boards funds provided by the State of Illinois under Section 4.09 and shall make payment of said funds to each Service Board as soon as may be practicable upon their receipt provided the Authority has adopted a balanced budget as required by Section 4.01 and further provided the Service Board is in compliance with the requirements in Section 4.11.

(4) Beginning January 1, 2009, before making any payments, transfers, or expenditures under this subsection to a Service Board, the Authority must first comply with Section 4.02a or 4.02b of this Act, whichever may be applicable.

(Source: P.A. 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 540. The School Code is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 2-3.131, 2-3.137, 10-20.35, 10-20.37, 34-18.23, 34-18.26, and 34-18.30 and by changing Sections 3-14.29, 10-17a, 10-20.21a, 10-21.9, 10-22.20, 10-28, 11E-110, 11E-135, 14-7.04, 14-15.01, 14A-30, 14A-55, 18-8.05, 19-1, 21-1b, 21-12, 21-14, 22-35, 27-6, 27-8.1, 27-20.6, 27-23.5, 27-24.4, 34-8.1, and 34-18.5 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.131)

Sec. 2-3.131. Transitional assistance payments.

(a) If the amount that the State Board of Education will pay to a school district from fiscal year 2004 appropriations, as estimated by the State Board of Education on April 1, 2004, is less than the amount that the State Board of Education paid to the school district from fiscal year 2003 appropriations, then, subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall make a fiscal year 2004 transitional assistance payment to the school district in an amount equal to the difference between the estimated amount to be paid from fiscal year 2004 appropriations and the amount paid from fiscal year 2003 appropriations.

(b) If the amount that the State Board of Education will pay to a school district from fiscal year 2005 appropriations, as estimated by the State Board of Education on April 1, 2005, is less than the amount that the State Board of Education paid to the school district from fiscal year 2004 appropriations, then the State Board of Education shall make a fiscal year 2005 transitional assistance payment to the school district in an amount equal to the difference between the estimated amount to be paid from fiscal year 2005 appropriations and the amount paid from fiscal year 2004 appropriations.

(c) If the amount that the State Board of Education will pay to a school district from fiscal year 2006 appropriations, as estimated by the State Board of Education on April 1, 2006, is less than the amount that the State Board of Education paid to the school district from fiscal year 2005 appropriations, then the State Board of Education shall make a fiscal year 2006 transitional assistance payment to the school district in an amount equal to the difference between the estimated amount to be paid from fiscal year 2006 appropriations and the amount paid from fiscal year 2005 appropriations.

(d) If the amount that the State Board of Education will pay to a school district from fiscal year 2007 appropriations, as estimated by the State Board of Education on April 1, 2007, is less than the amount that the State Board of Education paid to the school district from fiscal year 2006 appropriations, then the State Board of Education, subject to appropriation, shall make a fiscal year 2007 transitional assistance payment to the school district in an amount equal to the difference between the estimated amount to be paid from fiscal year 2007 appropriations and the amount paid from fiscal year 2006 appropriations.

(Source: P.A. 93-21, eff. 7-1-03; 93-838, eff. 7-30-04; 94-69, eff. 7-1-05; 94-835, eff. 6-6-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.132)

Sec. 2-3.132 2-3.131. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. The State Board of Education shall, whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii). The State Board of Education may not adopt any rule that would prohibit a child from receiving any form of subsidy or benefit due to his or her parent or guardian withholding consent under Section 22-35 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.133)

Sec. 2-3.133 2-3.131. Homework assistance information for parents. The State Board of Education shall provide information on its Internet web site regarding strategies that parents can use to assist their children in successfully completing homework assignments. The State Board of Education shall notify all school districts about this information's availability on the State Board of Education's Internet web site.

(Source: P.A. 93-471, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.134)

Sec. 2-3.134. 2-3.131. Persistently dangerous schools. The State Board of Education shall maintain data and publish a list of persistently dangerous schools on an annual basis.

(Source: P.A. 93-633, eff. 12-23-03; revised 1-12-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.137)

Sec. 2-3.137. Inspection and review of school facilities; task force.

(a) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules for the documentation of school plan reviews and inspections of school facilities, including the responsible individual's signature. Such documents shall be kept on file by the regional superintendent of schools. The State Board of Education shall also adopt rules for the qualifications of persons performing the reviews and inspections, which must be consistent with the recommendations in the task force's report issued to the Governor and the General Assembly under subsection (b) of this Section. Those qualifications shall include requirements for training, education, and at least 2 years of relevant experience.

(b) The State Board of Education shall convene a task force for the purpose of reviewing the documents required under rules adopted under subsection (a) of this Section and making recommendations regarding training and accreditation of individuals performing reviews or inspections required under Section 2-3.12, 3-14.20, 3-14.21, or 3-14.22 of this Code, including regional superintendents of schools and others performing reviews or inspections under the authority of a regional superintendent (such as consultants, municipalities, and fire protection districts).

The task force shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) The Executive Director of the Capital Development Board or his or her designee and a staff representative of the Division of Building Codes and Regulations.

(2) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(3) A person appointed by the State Board of Education.

(4) A person appointed by an organization representing school administrators.

(5) A person appointed by an organization representing suburban school administrators and school board members.

(6) A person appointed by an organization representing architects.

(7) A person appointed by an organization representing regional superintendents of schools.

(8) A person appointed by an organization representing fire inspectors.

(9) A person appointed by an organization representing Code administrators.

(10) A person appointed by an organization representing plumbing inspectors.

(11) A person appointed by an organization that represents both parents and teachers.

(12) A person appointed by an organization representing municipal governments in the State.

(13) A person appointed by the State Fire Marshal from his or her office.

(14) A person appointed by an organization representing fire chiefs.

(15) The Director of Public Health or his or her designee.

(16) A person appointed by an organization representing structural engineers.

(17) A person appointed by an organization representing professional engineers.

The task force shall issue a report of its findings to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2006.

(Source: P.A. 94-225, eff. 7-14-05; 94-973, eff. 1-1-07.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.138)

Sec. 2-3.138 2-3.137. School health recognition program. The State Board of Education shall establish a school health recognition program that:

(1) publicly identifies those schools that have implemented programs to increase the level of physical activity of their students;

(2) publicly identifies those schools that have adopted policies or implemented programs to promote healthy nutritional choices for their students; and

(3) allows recognized schools to share best practices and model services with other schools throughout the State.

(Source: P.A. 94-190, eff. 7-12-05; revised 9-21-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.139)

Sec. 2-3.139 2-3.137. School wellness policies; taskforce.

(a) The State Board of Education shall establish a State goal that all school districts have a wellness policy that is consistent with recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which recommendations include the following:

(1) nutrition guidelines for all foods sold on school campus during the school day;

(2) setting school goals for nutrition education and physical activity;

(3) establishing community participation in creating local wellness policies; and

(4) creating a plan for measuring implementation of these wellness policies.

The Department of Public Health, the Department of Human Services, and the State Board of Education shall form an interagency working group to publish model wellness policies and recommendations. Sample policies shall be based on CDC recommendations for nutrition and physical activity. The State Board of Education shall distribute the model wellness policies to all school districts before June 1, 2006.

(b) There is created the School Wellness Policy Taskforce, consisting of the following members:

(1) One member representing the State Board of Education, appointed by the State Board of Education.

(2) One member representing the Department of Public Health, appointed by the Director of Public Health.

(3) One member representing the Department of Human Services, appointed by the Secretary of Human Services.

(4) One member of an organization representing the interests of school nurses in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(5) One member of an organization representing the interests of school administrators in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(6) One member of an organization representing the interests of school boards in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(7) One member of an organization representing the interests of regional superintendents of schools in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(8) One member of an organization representing the interests of parent-teacher associations in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(9) One member of an organization representing the interests of pediatricians in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(10) One member of an organization representing the interests of dentists in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(11) One member of an organization representing the interests of dieticians in this State, appointed by the interagency working group.

(12) One member of an organization that has an interest and expertise in heart disease, appointed by the interagency working group.

(13) One member of an organization that has an interest and expertise in cancer, appointed by the interagency working group.

(14) One member of an organization that has an interest and expertise in childhood obesity, appointed by the interagency working group.

(15) One member of an organization that has an interest and expertise in the importance of physical education and recreation in preventing disease, appointed by the interagency working group.

(16) One member of an organization that has an interest and expertise in school food service, appointed by the interagency working group.

(17) One member of an organization that has an interest and expertise in school health, appointed by the interagency working group.

(18) One member of an organization that campaigns for programs and policies for healthier school environments, appointed by the interagency working group.

(19) One at-large member with a doctorate in nutrition, appointed by the State Board of Education.

Members of the taskforce shall serve without compensation. The taskforce shall meet at the call of the State Board of Education. The taskforce shall report its identification of barriers to implementing school wellness policies and its recommendations to reduce those barriers to the General Assembly and the Governor on or before January 1, 2006. The taskforce shall report its recommendations on statewide school nutrition standards to the General Assembly and the Governor on or before January 1, 2007. The taskforce shall report its evaluation of the effectiveness of school wellness policies to the General Assembly and the Governor on or before January 1, 2008. The evaluation shall review a sample size of 5 to 10 school districts. Reports shall be made to the General Assembly by filing copies of each report as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. Upon the filing of the last report, the taskforce is dissolved.

(c) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(d) Nothing in this Section may be construed as a curricular mandate on any school district.

(Source: P.A. 94-199, eff. 7-12-05; revised 9-21-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.141)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2010)

Sec. 2-3.141 2-3.137. Parental participation pilot project.

(a) By the beginning of the 2006-2007 school year, the State Board of Education shall by rule establish a parental participation pilot project to provide grants to the lowest performing school districts to help such districts improve parental participation through activities, including, but not limited to, parent-teacher conferences, open houses, family nights, volunteer opportunities, and family outreach materials.

(b) The pilot project shall be for a period of at least 4 school years. The State Board shall establish a procedure and develop criteria for the administration of the pilot project. In administering the pilot project, the State Board shall do the following:

(1) select participating school districts or schools;

(2) define the conditions for the distribution and use of grant funds;

(3) enter into contracts as necessary to implement the pilot project; and

(4) monitor local pilot project implementation.

(c) The Parental Participation Pilot Project Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Parental Participation Pilot Project Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation, by the State Board for the pilot project. To implement the pilot project, the State Board may use any funds appropriated by the General Assembly for the purposes of the pilot project as well as any gift, grant, or donation given for the pilot project. The State Board may solicit and accept a gift, grant, or donation of any kind from any source, including from a foundation, private entity, governmental entity, or institution of higher education, for the implementation of the pilot project.

The State Board shall use pilot project funds for grants to low-performing school districts to encourage parental participation.

The State Board may not allocate more than $250,000 annually for the pilot project. The pilot project may be implemented only if sufficient funds are available under this Section for that purpose.

(d) A school district may apply to the State Board for the establishment of a parental participation pilot project for the entire district or for a particular school or group of schools in the district.

The State Board shall select 4 school districts to participate in the pilot project. One school district shall be located in the City of Chicago, one school district shall be located in that portion of Cook County that is located outside of the City of Chicago, one school district shall be located in the area that makes up the counties of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will, and one school district shall be located in the remainder of the State.

The State Board shall select the participating districts and schools for the pilot project based on each district's or school's need for the pilot project. In selecting participants, the State Board shall consider the following criteria:

(1) whether the district or school has any of the following problems and whether those problems can be mitigated or addressed through enhanced parental participation:

(A) low rates of satisfactory performance on assessment instruments under Section 2-3.64 of this Code;

(B) high rates of low-income students, limited English proficient students, dropouts, chronically truant students, and student mobility; or

(C) low student attendance rates; and

(2) the methods the district or school will use to measure the progress of the pilot project in the district or school in accordance with subsection (f) of this Section.

(e) Each participating school district or school shall establish a parental participation committee to assist in developing and implementing the parental participation pilot project.

The school board of a participating district or of a district in which a participating school is located shall appoint individuals to the committee. The committee may be composed of any of the following:

(1) educators;

(2) district-level administrators;

(3) community leaders;

(4) parents of students who attend a participating school; or

(5) any other individual the school board finds appropriate.

The committee shall develop an academic improvement plan that details how the pilot project should be implemented in the participating district or school. In developing the academic improvement plan, the committee shall consider the educational problems in the district or school that could be mitigated through the implementation of the pilot project.

The committee shall recommend to the school board how the pilot project funds should be used to implement the academic improvement plan. The committee may recommend annually any necessary changes in the academic improvement plan to the school board. The State Board must approve the academic improvement plan or any changes in the academic improvement plan before disbursing pilot project funds to the school board.

(f) The school board of each school district participating in the pilot project shall send an annual progress report to the State Board no later than August 1 of each year that the district is participating in the pilot project. The report must state in detail the type of plan being used in the district or school and the effect of the pilot project on the district or school, including the following:

(1) the academic progress of students who are participating in the pilot project, as measured by performance on assessment instruments;

(2) if applicable, a comparison of student progress in a school or classroom that is participating in the pilot project as compared with student progress in the schools or classrooms in the district that are not participating in the pilot project;

(3) any elements of the pilot project that contribute to improved student performance on assessment instruments administered under Section 2-3.64 of this Code or any other assessment instrument required by the State Board;

(4) any cost savings and improved efficiency relating to school personnel;

(5) any effect on student dropout and attendance rates;

(6) any effect on student enrollment in higher education;

(7) any effect on teacher performance and retention;

(8) any improvement in communications among students, teachers, parents, and administrators;

(9) any improvement in parental involvement in the education of the parent's child; and

(10) any effect on community involvement and support for the district or school.

(g) After the expiration of the 4-year pilot project, the State Board shall review the pilot project, based on the annual reports the State Board receives from the school boards of participating school districts, conduct a final evaluation, and report its findings to the General Assembly no later than December 31, 2010.

(h) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 94-507, eff. 8-8-05; revised 9-21-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/3-14.29)

Sec. 3-14.29. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. Whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), to agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii).

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

Sec. 10-17a. Better schools accountability.

(1) Policy and Purpose. It shall be the policy of the State of Illinois that each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall submit to parents, taxpayers of such district, the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board of Education a school report card assessing the performance of its schools and students. The report card shall be an index of school performance measured against statewide and local standards and will provide information to make prior year comparisons and to set future year targets through the school improvement plan.

(2) Reporting Requirements. Each school district shall prepare a report card in accordance with the guidelines set forth in this Section which describes the performance of its students by school attendance centers and by district and the district's financial resources and use of financial resources. Such report card shall be presented at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, posted on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, made available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, sent home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card. In addition, each school district shall submit the completed report card to the office of the district's Regional Superintendent which shall make copies available to any individuals requesting them.

The report card shall be completed and disseminated prior to October 31 in each school year. The report card shall contain, but not be limited to, actual local school attendance center, school district and statewide data indicating the present performance of the school, the State norms and the areas for planned improvement for the school and school district.

(3) (a) The report card shall include the following applicable indicators of attendance center, district, and statewide student performance: percent of students who exceed, meet, or do not meet standards established by the State Board of Education pursuant to Section 2-3.25a; composite and subtest means on nationally normed achievement tests for college bound students; student attendance rates; chronic truancy rate; dropout rate; graduation rate; and student mobility, turnover shown as a percent of transfers out and a percent of transfers in.

(b) The report card shall include the following descriptions for the school, district, and State: average class size; amount of time per day devoted to mathematics, science, English and social science at primary, middle and junior high school grade levels; number of students taking the Prairie State Achievement Examination under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64, the number of those students who received a score of excellent, and the average score by school of students taking the examination; pupil-teacher ratio; pupil-administrator ratio; operating expenditure per pupil; district expenditure by fund; average administrator salary; and average teacher salary. The report card shall also specify the amount of money that the district receives from all sources, including without limitation subcategories specifying the amount from local property taxes, the amount from general State aid, the amount from other State funding, and the amount from other income.

(c) The report card shall include applicable indicators of parental involvement in each attendance center. The parental involvement component of the report card shall include the percentage of students whose parents or guardians have had one or more personal contacts with the students' teachers during the school year concerning the students' education, and such other information, commentary, and suggestions as the school district desires. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal contact" includes, but is not limited to, parent-teacher conferences, parental visits to school, school visits to home, telephone conversations, and written correspondence. The parental involvement component shall not single out or identify individual students, parents, or guardians by name.

(d) The report card form shall be prepared by the State Board of Education and provided to school districts by the most efficient, economic, and appropriate means.

(Source: P.A. 92-604, eff. 7-1-02; 92-631, eff. 7-11-02; revised 7-26-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.21a)

Sec. 10-20.21a. Contracts for charter bus services. To award contracts for providing charter bus services for the sole purpose of transporting students regularly enrolled in grade 12 or below to or from interscholastic athletic or interscholastic or school sponsored activities.

All contracts for providing charter bus services for the sole purpose of transporting students regularly enrolled in grade 12 or below to or from interscholastic athletic or interscholastic or school sponsored activities must contain clause (A) as set forth below, except that a contract with an out-of-state company may contain clause (B), as set forth below, or clause (A). The clause must be set forth in the body of the contract in typeface of at least 12 points and all upper case letters:

(A) "ALL OF THE CHARTER BUS DRIVERS WHO WILL BE PROVIDING SERVICES UNDER THIS CONTRACT HAVE, OR WILL HAVE BEFORE ANY SERVICES ARE PROVIDED:

(1) SUBMITTED THEIR FINGERPRINTS TO THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE IN THE FORM AND MANNER PRESCRIBED BY THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE. THESE FINGERPRINTS SHALL BE CHECKED AGAINST THE FINGERPRINT RECORDS NOW AND HEREAFTER FILED IN THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE AND FEDERAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION CRIMINAL HISTORY RECORDS DATABASES. THE FINGERPRINT CHECK HAS RESULTED A STATE POLICE AGENCY AND THE FEDERAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION FOR A CRIMINAL BACKGROUND CHECK, RESULTING IN A DETERMINATION THAT THEY HAVE NOT BEEN CONVICTED OF COMMITTING ANY OF THE OFFENSES SET FORTH IN SUBDIVISION (C-1)(4) OF SECTION 6-508 OF THE ILLINOIS VEHICLE CODE; AND

(2) DEMONSTRATED PHYSICAL FITNESS TO OPERATE SCHOOL BUSES BY SUBMITTING THE RESULTS OF A MEDICAL EXAMINATION, INCLUDING TESTS FOR DRUG USE, TO A STATE REGULATORY AGENCY."

(B) "NOT ALL OF THE CHARTER BUS DRIVERS WHO WILL BE PROVIDING SERVICES UNDER THIS CONTRACT HAVE, OR WILL HAVE BEFORE ANY SERVICES ARE PROVIDED:

(1) SUBMITTED THEIR FINGERPRINTS TO THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE IN THE FORM AND MANNER PRESCRIBED BY THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE. THESE FINGERPRINTS SHALL BE CHECKED AGAINST THE FINGERPRINT RECORDS NOW AND HEREAFTER FILED IN THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE AND FEDERAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION CRIMINAL HISTORY RECORDS DATABASES. THE FINGERPRINT CHECK HAS RESULTED A STATE POLICE AGENCY AND THE FEDERAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION FOR A CRIMINAL BACKGROUND CHECK, RESULTING IN A DETERMINATION THAT THEY HAVE NOT BEEN CONVICTED OF COMMITTING ANY OF THE OFFENSES SET FORTH IN SUBDIVISION (C-1)(4) OF SECTION 6-508 OF THE ILLINOIS VEHICLE CODE; AND

(2) DEMONSTRATED PHYSICAL FITNESS TO OPERATE SCHOOL BUSES BY SUBMITTING THE RESULTS OF A MEDICAL EXAMINATION, INCLUDING TESTS FOR DRUG USE, TO A STATE REGULATORY AGENCY."

(Source: P.A. 93-476, eff. 1-1-04; 93-644, eff. 6-1-04; revised 12-6-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.35)

Sec. 10-20.35. Medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians. School districts are encouraged to create and use an emergency medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians for those students with special needs or medical conditions. The form may include without limitation information to be provided by the student's parent or legal guardian concerning the student's relevant medical conditions, medications that the student is taking, the student's communication skills, and how a bus driver or an emergency medical technician is to respond to certain behaviors of the student. If the form is used, the school district is encouraged to notify parents and legal guardians of the availability of the form. The parent or legal guardian of the student may fill out the form and submit it to the school that the student is attending. The school district is encouraged to keep one copy of the form on file at the school and another copy on the student's school bus in a secure location.

(Source: P.A. 92-580, eff. 7-1-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.36)

Sec. 10-20.36 10-20.35. Psychotropic or psychostimulant medication; disciplinary action.

(a) In this Section:

"Psychostimulant medication" means medication that produces increased levels of mental and physical energy and alertness and an elevated mood by stimulating the central nervous system.

"Psychotropic medication" means psychotropic medication as defined in Section 1-121.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(b) Each school board must adopt and implement a policy that prohibits any disciplinary action that is based totally or in part on the refusal of a student's parent or guardian to administer or consent to the administration of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication to the student.

The policy must require that, at least once every 2 years, the in-service training of certified school personnel and administrators include training on current best practices regarding the identification and treatment of attention deficit disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, the application of non-aversive behavioral interventions in the school environment, and the use of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication for school-age children.

(c) This Section does not prohibit school medical staff, an individualized educational program team, or a professional worker (as defined in Section 14-1.10 of this Code) from recommending that a student be evaluated by an appropriate medical practitioner or prohibit school personnel from consulting with the practitioner with the consent of the student's parents or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 92-663, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-3-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.37)

Sec. 10-20.37. Summer kindergarten. A school board may establish, maintain, and operate, in connection with the kindergarten program of the school district, a summer kindergarten program that begins 2 months before the beginning of the regular school year and a summer kindergarten program for grade one readiness for those pupils making unsatisfactory progress during the regular kindergarten session that will continue for 2 months after the regular school year. The summer kindergarten program may be held within the school district or, pursuant to a contract that must be approved by the State Board of Education, may be operated by 2 or more adjacent school districts or by a public or private university or college. Transportation for students attending the summer kindergarten program shall be the responsibility of the school district. The expense of establishing, maintaining, and operating the summer kindergarten program may be paid from funds contributed or otherwise made available to the school district for that purpose by federal or State appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 93-472, eff. 8-8-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.38)

Sec. 10-20.38 10-20.37. Provision of student information prohibited. A school district may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-28-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-21.9) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-21.9)

Sec. 10-21.9. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Certified and noncertified applicants for employment with a school district, except school bus driver applicants, are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Department of State Police, to the Department. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Department of State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Department shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse school districts and regional superintendents for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the school district, the presidents of the appropriate school boards if the check was requested from the Department of State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Teacher Certification Board or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Department of State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database as a sex offender. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Department of State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database as a sex offender, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Department of State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database as a sex offender. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Department of State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database as provided in subsection (a). Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions of an applicant for employment shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(c) No school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been convicted for committing attempted first degree murder or for committing or attempting to commit first degree murder or a Class X felony or any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those defined in Sections 11-6, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-21, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those defined in Sections 4(a), 4(b) and 5(a) of that Act; (iii) those defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Further, no school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(d) No school board shall knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check has not been initiated.

(e) Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any certificate issued pursuant to Article 21 or Section 34-8.1 or 34-83 of the School Code, the appropriate regional superintendent of schools or the State Superintendent of Education shall initiate the certificate suspension and revocation proceedings authorized by law.

(f) After January 1, 1990 the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Department of State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(Source: P.A. 93-418, eff. 1-1-04; 93-909, eff. 8-12-04; 94-219, eff. 7-14-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-875, eff. 7-1-06; 94-945, eff. 6-27-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.20) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.20)

Sec. 10-22.20. Classes for adults and youths whose schooling has been interrupted; conditions for State reimbursement; use of child care facilities.

(a) To establish special classes for the instruction (1) of persons of age 21 years or over, and (2) of persons less than age 21 and not otherwise in attendance in public school, for the purpose of providing adults in the community, and youths whose schooling has been interrupted, with such additional basic education, vocational skill training, and other instruction as may be necessary to increase their qualifications for employment or other means of self-support and their ability to meet their responsibilities as citizens including courses of instruction regularly accepted for graduation from elementary or high schools and for Americanization and General Educational Development Review classes.

The board shall pay the necessary expenses of such classes out of school funds of the district, including costs of student transportation and such facilities or provision for child-care as may be necessary in the judgment of the board to permit maximum utilization of the courses by students with children, and other special needs of the students directly related to such instruction. The expenses thus incurred shall be subject to State reimbursement, as provided in this Section. The board may make a tuition charge for persons taking instruction who are not subject to State reimbursement, such tuition charge not to exceed the per capita cost of such classes.

The cost of such instruction, including the additional expenses herein authorized, incurred for recipients of financial aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, or for persons for whom education and training aid has been authorized under Section 9-8 of that Code, shall be assumed in its entirety from funds appropriated by the State to the Illinois Community College Board.

(b) The Illinois Community College Board shall establish the standards for the courses of instruction reimbursed under this Section. The Illinois Community College Board shall supervise the administration of the programs. The Illinois Community College Board shall determine the cost of instruction in accordance with standards established by the the Illinois Community College Board, including therein other incidental costs as herein authorized, which shall serve as the basis of State reimbursement in accordance with the provisions of this Section. In the approval of programs and the determination of the cost of instruction, the Illinois Community College Board shall provide for the maximum utilization of federal funds for such programs. The Illinois Community College Board shall also provide for:

(1) the development of an index of need for program planning and for area funding allocations, as defined by the Illinois Community College Board;

(2) the method for calculating hours of instruction, as defined by the Illinois Community College Board, claimable for reimbursement and a method to phase in the calculation and for adjusting the calculations in cases where the services of a program are interrupted due to circumstances beyond the control of the program provider;

(3) a plan for the reallocation of funds to increase the amount allocated for grants based upon program performance as set forth in subsection (d) below; and

(4) the development of standards for determining grants based upon performance as set forth in subsection (d) below and a plan for the phased-in implementation of those standards.

For instruction provided by school districts and community college districts beginning July 1, 1996 and thereafter, reimbursement provided by the Illinois Community College Board for classes authorized by this Section shall be provided from funds appropriated for the reimbursement criteria set forth in subsection (c) below.

(c) Upon the annual approval of the Illinois Community College Board, reimbursement shall be first provided for transportation, child care services, and other special needs of the students directly related to instruction and then from the funds remaining an amount equal to the product of the total credit hours or units of instruction approved by the Illinois Community College Board, multiplied by the following:

(1) For adult basic education, the maximum reimbursement per credit hour or per unit of instruction shall be equal to the general state aid per pupil foundation level established in subsection (B) of Section 18-8.05, divided by 60;

(2) The maximum reimbursement per credit hour or per unit of instruction in subparagraph (1) above shall be weighted for students enrolled in classes defined as vocational skills and approved by the Illinois Community College Board by 1.25;

(3) The maximum reimbursement per credit hour or per unit of instruction in subparagraph (1) above shall be multiplied by .90 for students enrolled in classes defined as adult secondary education programs and approved by the Illinois Community College Board;

(4) (Blank); and

(5) Funding for program years after 1999-2000 shall be determined by the Illinois Community College Board.

(d) Upon its annual approval, the Illinois Community College Board shall provide grants to eligible programs for supplemental activities to improve or expand services under the Adult Education Act. Eligible programs shall be determined based upon performance outcomes of students in the programs as set by the Illinois Community College Board.

(e) Reimbursement under this Section shall not exceed the actual costs of the approved program.

If the amount appropriated to the Illinois Community College Board for reimbursement under this Section is less than the amount required under this Act, the apportionment shall be proportionately reduced.

School districts and community college districts may assess students up to $3.00 per credit hour, for classes other than Adult Basic Education level programs, if needed to meet program costs.

(f) An education plan shall be established for each adult or youth whose schooling has been interrupted and who is participating in the instructional programs provided under this Section.

Each school board and community college shall keep an accurate and detailed account of the students assigned to and receiving instruction under this Section who are subject to State reimbursement and shall submit reports of services provided commencing with fiscal year 1997 as required by the Illinois Community College Board.

For classes authorized under this Section, a credit hour or unit of instruction is equal to 15 hours of direct instruction for students enrolled in approved adult education programs at midterm and making satisfactory progress, in accordance with standards established by the Illinois Community College Board.

(g) Upon proof submitted to the Illinois Department of Human Services of the payment of all claims submitted under this Section, that Department shall apply for federal funds made available therefor and any federal funds so received shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury.

School districts or community colleges providing classes under this Section shall submit applications to the Illinois Community College Board for preapproval in accordance with the standards established by the Illinois Community College Board. Payments shall be made by the Illinois Community College Board based upon approved programs. Interim expenditure reports may be required by the Illinois Community College Board. Final claims for the school year shall be submitted to the regional superintendents for transmittal to the Illinois Community College Board. Final adjusted payments shall be made by September 30.

If a school district or community college district fails to provide, or is providing unsatisfactory or insufficient classes under this Section, the Illinois Community College Board may enter into agreements with public or private educational or other agencies other than the public schools for the establishment of such classes.

(h) If a school district or community college district establishes child-care facilities for the children of participants in classes established under this Section, it may extend the use of these facilities to students who have obtained employment and to other persons in the community whose children require care and supervision while the parent or other person in charge of the children is employed or otherwise absent from the home during all or part of the day. It may make the facilities available before and after as well as during regular school hours to school age and preschool age children who may benefit thereby, including children who require care and supervision pending the return of their parent or other person in charge of their care from employment or other activity requiring absence from the home.

The Illinois Community College Board shall pay to the board the cost of care in the facilities for any child who is a recipient of financial aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

The board may charge for care of children for whom it cannot make claim under the provisions of this Section. The charge shall not exceed per capita cost, and to the extent feasible, shall be fixed at a level which will permit utilization by employed parents of low or moderate income. It may also permit any other State or local governmental agency or private agency providing care for children to purchase care.

After July 1, 1970 when the provisions of Section 10-20.20 become operative in the district, children in a child-care facility shall be transferred to the kindergarten established under that Section for such portion of the day as may be required for the kindergarten program, and only the prorated costs of care and training provided in the Center for the remaining period shall be charged to the Illinois Department of Human Services or other persons or agencies paying for such care.

(i) The provisions of this Section shall also apply to school districts having a population exceeding 500,000.

(j) In addition to claiming reimbursement under this Section, a school district may claim general State aid under Section 18-8.05 for any student under age 21 who is enrolled in courses accepted for graduation from elementary or high school and who otherwise meets the requirements of Section 18-8.05.

(Source: P.A. 93-21, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-28-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-28)

Sec. 10-28. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. A school board shall, whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. A school board shall, whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), require each of its schools to agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii).

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/11E-110)

Sec. 11E-110. Teachers in contractual continued service.

(a) When a school district conversion or multi-unit conversion becomes effective for purposes of administration and attendance, as determined pursuant to Section 11E-70 of this Code, the provisions of Section 24-12 of this Code relative to the contractual continued service status of teachers having contractual continued service whose positions are transferred from one school board to the control of a new or different school board shall apply, and the positions held by teachers, as that term is defined in Section 24-11 of this Code, having contractual continued service with the unit district at the time of its dissolution shall be transferred on the following basis:

(1) positions of teachers in contractual continued service that, during the 5 school years immediately preceding the effective date of the change, as determined under Section 11E-70 of this Code, were full-time positions in which all of the time required of the position was spent in one or more of grades 9 through 12 shall be transferred to the control of the school board of the new high school district or combined high school - unit district, as the case may be;

(2) positions of teachers in contractual continued service that, during the 5 school years immediately preceding the effective date of the change, as determined under Section 11E-70 of this Code, were full-time positions in which all of the time required of the position was spent in one or more of grades kindergarten through 8 shall be transferred to the control of the school board of the newly created successor elementary district; and

(3) positions of teachers in contractual continued service that were full-time positions not required to be transferred to the control of the school board of the new high school district or combined high school - unit district, as the case may be, or the school board of the newly created successor elementary district under the provisions of subdivision (1) or (2) of this subsection (a) shall be transferred to the control of whichever of the boards the teacher shall request.

(4) With respect to each position to be transferred under the provisions of this subsection (a), the amount of time required of each position to be spent in one or more of grades kindergarten through 8 and 9 through 12 shall be determined with reference to the applicable records of the unit district being dissolved pursuant to stipulation of the school board of the unit district prior to the effective date of its dissolution or thereafter of the school board of the newly created districts and with the approval in either case of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the territory described in the petition filed under this Article or the greater percentage of equalized assessed evaluation of the territory is situated; however, if no such stipulation can be agreed upon, the regional superintendent of schools, after hearing any additional relevant and material evidence that any school board desires to submit, shall make the determination.

(b) When the creation of a unit district or a combined school district becomes effective for purposes of administration and attendance, as determined pursuant to Section 11E-70 of this Code, the positions of teachers in contractual continued service in the districts involved in the creation of the new district are transferred to the newly created district pursuant to the provisions of Section 24-12 of this Code relative to teachers having contractual continued service status whose positions are transferred from one board to the control of a different board, and those provisions of Section 24-12 shall apply to these transferred teachers. The contractual continued service status of any teacher thereby transferred to the newly created district is not lost and the new school board is subject to this Code with respect to the transferred teacher in the same manner as if the teacher was that district's employee and had been its employee during the time the teacher was actually employed by the school board of the district from which the position was transferred.

(Source: P.A. 94-1019, eff. 7-10-06; revised 8-23-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/11E-135)

Sec. 11E-135. Incentives. For districts reorganizing under this Article and for a district or districts that annex all of the territory of one or more entire other school districts in accordance with Article 7 of this Code, the following payments shall be made from appropriations made for these purposes:

(a)(1) For a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code, or for a unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, for its first year of existence, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under Section 18-8.05 of this Code shall be computed for the new district and for the previously existing districts for which property is totally included within the new district. If the computation on the basis of the previously existing districts is greater, a supplementary payment equal to the difference shall be made for the first 4 years of existence of the new district.

(2) For a school district that annexes all of the territory of one or more entire other school districts as defined in Article 7 of this Code, for the first year during which the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes, as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under Section 18-8.05 of this Code shall be computed for the annexing district as constituted after the annexation and for the annexing and each annexed district as constituted prior to the annexation; and if the computation on the basis of the annexing and annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation is greater, then a supplementary payment equal to the difference shall be made for the first 4 years of existence of the annexing school district as constituted upon the annexation.

(3) For 2 or more school districts that annex all of the territory of one or more entire other school districts, as defined in Article 7 of this Code, for the first year during which the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes, as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under Section 18-8.05 of this Code shall be computed for each annexing district as constituted after the annexation and for each annexing and annexed district as constituted prior to the annexation; and if the aggregate of the general State aid and supplemental general State aid as so computed for the annexing districts as constituted after the annexation is less than the aggregate of the general State aid and supplemental general State aid as so computed for the annexing and annexed districts, as constituted prior to the annexation, then a supplementary payment equal to the difference shall be made and allocated between or among the annexing districts, as constituted upon the annexation, for the first 4 years of their existence. The total difference payment shall be allocated between or among the annexing districts in the same ratio as the pupil enrollment from that portion of the annexed district or districts that is annexed to each annexing district bears to the total pupil enrollment from the entire annexed district or districts, as such pupil enrollment is determined for the school year last ending prior to the date when the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes. The amount of the total difference payment and the amount thereof to be allocated to the annexing districts shall be computed by the State Board of Education on the basis of pupil enrollment and other data that shall be certified to the State Board of Education, on forms that it shall provide for that purpose, by the regional superintendent of schools for each educational service region in which the annexing and annexed districts are located.

(4) For a school district conversion, as defined in Section 11E-15 of this Code, or a multi-unit conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, if in their first year of existence the newly created elementary districts and the newly created high school district, from a school district conversion, or the newly created elementary district or districts and newly created combined high school - unit district, from a multi-unit conversion, qualify for less general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code than would have been payable under Section 18-8.05 for that same year to the previously existing districts, then a supplementary payment equal to that difference shall be made for the first 4 years of existence of the newly created districts. The aggregate amount of each supplementary payment shall be allocated among the newly created districts in the proportion that the deemed pupil enrollment in each district during its first year of existence bears to the actual aggregate pupil enrollment in all of the districts during their first year of existence. For purposes of each allocation:

(A) the deemed pupil enrollment of the newly created high school district from a school district conversion shall be an amount equal to its actual pupil enrollment for its first year of existence multiplied by 1.25;

(B) the deemed pupil enrollment of each newly created elementary district from a school district conversion shall be an amount equal to its actual pupil enrollment for its first year of existence reduced by an amount equal to the product obtained when the amount by which the newly created high school district's deemed pupil enrollment exceeds its actual pupil enrollment for its first year of existence is multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the actual pupil enrollment of the newly created elementary district for its first year of existence and the denominator of which is the actual aggregate pupil enrollment of all of the newly created elementary districts for their first year of existence;

(C) the deemed high school pupil enrollment of the newly created combined high school - unit district from a multi-unit conversion shall be an amount equal to its actual grades 9 through 12 pupil enrollment for its first year of existence multiplied by 1.25; and

(D) the deemed elementary pupil enrollment of each newly created district from a multi-unit conversion shall be an amount equal to each district's actual grade K through 8 pupil enrollment for its first year of existence, reduced by an amount equal to the product obtained when the amount by which the newly created combined high school - unit district's deemed high school pupil enrollment exceeds its actual grade 9 through 12 pupil enrollment for its first year of existence is multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the actual grade K through 8 pupil enrollment of each newly created district for its first year of existence and the denominator of which is the actual aggregate grade K through 8 pupil enrollment of all such newly created districts for their first year of existence.

The aggregate amount of each supplementary payment under this subdivision (4) and the amount thereof to be allocated to the newly created districts shall be computed by the State Board of Education on the basis of pupil enrollment and other data, which shall be certified to the State Board of Education, on forms that it shall provide for that purpose, by the regional superintendent of schools for each educational service region in which the newly created districts are located.

(5) For a partial elementary unit district, as defined in subsection (a) or (c) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, if, in the first year of existence, the newly created partial elementary unit district qualifies for less general State aid and supplemental general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code than would have been payable under that Section for that same year to the previously existing districts that formed the partial elementary unit district, then a supplementary payment equal to that difference shall be made to the partial elementary unit district for the first 4 years of existence of that newly created district.

(6) For an elementary opt-in, as described in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the general State aid difference shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection (a) as if the elementary opt-in was included in an optional elementary unit district at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is less than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (a) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then no adjustments may be made. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is more than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (a) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then the excess must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 25% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(7) Claims for financial assistance under this subsection (a) may not be recomputed except as expressly provided under Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(8) Any supplementary payment made under this subsection (a) must be treated as separate from all other payments made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(b)(1) After the formation of a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code, or a unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in each of the previously existing districts on June 30, prior to the creation of the new district. For the first 4 years after the formation of the new district, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to the new district equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the new district, while employed in one of the previously existing districts during the year immediately preceding the formation of the new district, and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the year immediately prior to the formation of the new district if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing district with the highest salary schedule.

(2) After the territory of one or more school districts is annexed by one or more other school districts as defined in Article 7 of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in each annexed district and in the annexing district or districts as they were each constituted on June 30 preceding the date when the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation became effective for all purposes, as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code. For the first 4 years after the annexation, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to each annexing district as constituted after the annexation equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the annexing district as constituted after the annexation, while employed in an annexed or annexing district during the year immediately preceding the annexation, and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the immediately preceding year if placed on the salary schedule of whichever of the annexing or annexed districts had the highest salary schedule during the immediately preceding year.

(3) For each new high school district formed under a school district conversion, as defined in Section 11E-15 of this Code, the State shall make a supplementary payment for 4 years equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each certified member of the new high school district, while employed in one of the previously existing districts, and the sum of the salaries those certified members would have been paid if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing district with the highest salary schedule.

(4) For each newly created partial elementary unit district, the State shall make a supplementary payment for 4 years equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each certified member of the newly created partial elementary unit district, while employed in one of the previously existing districts that formed the partial elementary unit district, and the sum of the salaries those certified members would have been paid if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing district with the highest salary schedule. The salary schedules used in the calculation shall be those in effect in the previously existing districts for the school year prior to the creation of the new partial elementary unit district.

(5) For an elementary district opt-in, as described in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the salary difference incentive shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) as if the opted-in elementary district was included in the optional elementary unit district at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date. If the calculation in this paragraph (5) is less than that calculated in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then no adjustments may be made. If the calculation in this paragraph (5) is more than that calculated in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then the excess must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the partial elementary unit district, 25% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(5.5) (b-5) After the formation of a cooperative high school by 2 or more school districts under Section 10-22.22c of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in each of the previously existing high schools on June 30 prior to the formation of the cooperative high school. For the first 4 years after the formation of the cooperative high school, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to the cooperative high school equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the cooperative high school while employed in one of the previously existing high schools during the year immediately preceding the formation of the cooperative high school and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the year immediately prior to the formation of the cooperative high school if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing high school with the highest salary schedule.

(6) The supplementary State aid reimbursement under this subsection (b) shall be treated as separate from all other payments made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code. In the case of the formation of a new district or cooperative high school, reimbursement shall begin during the first year of operation of the new district or cooperative high school, and in the case of an annexation of the territory of one or more school districts by one or more other school districts, reimbursement shall begin during the first year when the change in boundaries attributable to the annexation or division becomes effective for all purposes as determined pursuant to Section 7-9 of this Code. Each year that the new, annexing, or resulting district or cooperative high school, as the case may be, is entitled to receive reimbursement, the number of eligible certified members who are employed on October 1 in the district or cooperative high school shall be certified to the State Board of Education on prescribed forms by October 15 and payment shall be made on or before November 15 of that year.

(c)(1) For the first year after the formation of a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code or a unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, a computation shall be made totaling each previously existing district's audited fund balances in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the referendum for the creation of the new district. The new district shall be paid supplementary State aid equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of the previously existing district with the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other previously existing districts.

(2) For the first year after the annexation of all of the territory of one or more entire school districts by another school district, as defined in Article 7 of this Code, computations shall be made, for the year ending June 30 prior to the date that the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation is allowed by the affirmative decision issued by the regional board of school trustees under Section 7-6 of this Code, notwithstanding any effort to seek administrative review of the decision, totaling the annexing district's and totaling each annexed district's audited fund balances in their respective educational, working cash, operations and maintenance, and transportation funds. The annexing district as constituted after the annexation shall be paid supplementary State aid equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of whichever of the annexing or annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation had the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other districts as constituted prior to the annexation.

(3) For the first year after the annexation of all of the territory of one or more entire school districts by 2 or more other school districts, as defined by Article 7 of this Code, computations shall be made, for the year ending June 30 prior to the date that the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation is allowed by the affirmative decision of the regional board of school trustees under Section 7-6 of this Code, notwithstanding any action for administrative review of the decision, totaling each annexing and annexed district's audited fund balances in their respective educational, working cash, operations and maintenance, and transportation funds. The annexing districts as constituted after the annexation shall be paid supplementary State aid, allocated as provided in this paragraph (3), in an aggregate amount equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of whichever of the annexing or annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation had the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other districts as constituted prior to the annexation. The aggregate amount of the supplementary State aid payable under this paragraph (3) shall be allocated between or among the annexing districts as follows:

(A) the regional superintendent of schools for each educational service region in which an annexed district is located prior to the annexation shall certify to the State Board of Education, on forms that it shall provide for that purpose, the value of all taxable property in each annexed district, as last equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue prior to the annexation, and the equalized assessed value of each part of the annexed district that was annexed to or included as a part of an annexing district;

(B) using equalized assessed values as certified by the regional superintendent of schools under clause (A) of this paragraph (3), the combined audited fund balance deficit of each annexed district as determined under this Section shall be apportioned between or among the annexing districts in the same ratio as the equalized assessed value of that part of the annexed district that was annexed to or included as a part of an annexing district bears to the total equalized assessed value of the annexed district; and

(C) the aggregate supplementary State aid payment under this paragraph (3) shall be allocated between or among, and shall be paid to, the annexing districts in the same ratio as the sum of the combined audited fund balance deficit of each annexing district as constituted prior to the annexation, plus all combined audited fund balance deficit amounts apportioned to that annexing district under clause (B) of this subsection, bears to the aggregate of the combined audited fund balance deficits of all of the annexing and annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation.

(4) For the new elementary districts and new high school district formed through a school district conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-15 of this Code or the new elementary district or districts and new combined high school - unit district formed through a multi-unit conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, a computation shall be made totaling each previously existing district's audited fund balances in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the referendum establishing the new districts. In the first year of the new districts, the State shall make a one-time supplementary payment equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of the previously existing district with the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other previously existing districts. A district with a combined balance among the 4 funds that is positive shall be considered to have a deficit of zero. The supplementary payment shall be allocated among the newly formed high school and elementary districts in the manner provided by the petition for the formation of the districts, in the form in which the petition is approved by the regional superintendent of schools or State Superintendent of Education under Section 11E-50 of this Code.

(5) For each newly created partial elementary unit district, as defined in subsection (a) or (c) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, a computation shall be made totaling the audited fund balances of each previously existing district that formed the new partial elementary unit district in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the referendum for the formation of the partial elementary unit district. In the first year of the new partial elementary unit district, the State shall make a one-time supplementary payment to the new district equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of the previously existing district with the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other previously existing districts. A district with a combined balance among the 4 funds that is positive shall be considered to have a deficit of zero.

(6) For an elementary opt-in as defined in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the deficit fund balance incentive shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection (c) as if the opted-in elementary was included in the optional elementary unit district at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is less than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (c) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then no adjustments may be made. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is more than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (c) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then the excess must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 25% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(7) For purposes of any calculation required under paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this subsection (c), a district with a combined fund balance that is positive shall be considered to have a deficit of zero. For purposes of determining each district's audited fund balances in its educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6) of this subsection (c), the balance of each fund shall be deemed decreased by an amount equal to the amount of the annual property tax theretofore levied in the fund by the district for collection and payment to the district during the calendar year in which the June 30 fell, but only to the extent that the tax so levied in the fund actually was received by the district on or before or comprised a part of the fund on such June 30. For purposes of determining each district's audited fund balances, a calculation shall be made for each fund to determine the average for the 3 years prior to the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6) of this subsection (c), of the district's expenditures in the categories "purchased services", "supplies and materials", and "capital outlay", as those categories are defined in rules of the State Board of Education. If this 3-year average is less than the district's expenditures in these categories for the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6) of this subsection (c), then the 3-year average shall be used in calculating the amounts payable under this Section in place of the amounts shown in these categories for the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6) of this subsection (c). Any deficit because of State aid not yet received may not be considered in determining the June 30 deficits. The same basis of accounting shall be used by all previously existing districts and by all annexing or annexed districts, as constituted prior to the annexation, in making any computation required under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6) of this subsection (c).

(8) The supplementary State aid payments under this subsection (c) shall be treated as separate from all other payments made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(d)(1) Following the formation of a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code, a new elementary district or districts and a new high school district formed through a school district conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-15 of this Code, a new partial elementary unit district, as defined in Section 11E-30 of this Code, or a new elementary district or districts formed through a multi-unit conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, or the annexation of all of the territory of one or more entire school districts by one or more other school districts, as defined in Article 7 of this Code, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid for the number of school years determined under the following table to each new or annexing district equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee who is employed by the district on a full-time basis for the regular term of the school year:

The State Board of Education shall make a one-time calculation of a reorganized district's quintile ranks. The average daily attendance used in this calculation shall be the best 3 months' average daily attendance for the district's first year. The equalized assessed value per pupil shall be the district's real property equalized assessed value used in calculating the district's first-year general State aid claim, under Section 18-8.05 of this Code, divided by the best 3 months' average daily attendance.

No annexing or resulting school district shall be entitled to supplementary State aid under this subsection (d) unless the district acquires at least 30% of the average daily attendance of the district from which the territory is being detached or divided.

If a district results from multiple reorganizations that would otherwise qualify the district for multiple payments under this subsection (d) in any year, then the district shall receive a single payment only for that year based solely on the most recent reorganization.

(2) For an elementary opt-in, as defined in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the full-time certified staff incentive shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee of the elementary district that opts-in who is employed by the optional elementary unit district on a full-time basis for the regular term of the school year. The calculation from this paragraph (2) must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 25% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(2.5) (a-5) Following the formation of a cooperative high school by 2 or more school districts under Section 10-22.22c of this Code, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid for 3 school years to the cooperative high school equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee who is employed by the cooperative high school on a full-time basis for the regular term of any such school year. If a cooperative high school results from multiple agreements that would otherwise qualify the cooperative high school for multiple payments under this Section in any year, the cooperative high school shall receive a single payment for that year based solely on the most recent agreement.

(3) The supplementary State aid reimbursement payable under this subsection (d) shall be separate from and in addition to all other payments made to the district pursuant to any other Section of this Article.

(4) During May of each school year for which a supplementary State aid reimbursement is to be paid to a new or annexing school district or cooperative high school pursuant to this subsection (d), the school board or governing board shall certify to the State Board of Education, on forms furnished to the school board or governing board by the State Board of Education for purposes of this subsection (d), the number of certified employees for which the district or cooperative high school is entitled to reimbursement under this Section, together with the names, certificate numbers, and positions held by the certified employees.

(5) Upon certification by the State Board of Education to the State Comptroller of the amount of the supplementary State aid reimbursement to which a school district or cooperative high school is entitled under this subsection (d), the State Comptroller shall draw his or her warrant upon the State Treasurer for the payment thereof to the school district or cooperative high school and shall promptly transmit the payment to the school district or cooperative high school through the appropriate school treasurer.

(Source: P.A. 94-1019, eff. 7-10-06; incorporates P.A. 94-902, eff. 7-1-06; revised 9-13-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-7.04) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-7.04)

Sec. 14-7.04. Health care reimbursement.

(a) Local educational agencies may utilize federally funded health care programs to share in the costs of services which are provided to children requiring special education and related services and which are either listed on an individualized education program established pursuant to the federal Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975, Public Law No. 94-142 or are provided under an individualized family service plan established pursuant to the federal Education of the Handicapped Act Amendments of 1986, Public Law No. 99-457. Those federally funded health care programs shall also share in the cost of all screenings and diagnostic evaluations for children suspected of having or known to have a disability. However, all such services shall continue to be initially funded by the local educational agency and shall be provided regardless of subsequent cost sharing with other funding sources. Federally funded health care reimbursement funds are supplemental and shall not be used to reduce any other Federal payments, private payments or State Board of Education funds for special education as provided in Article 14 of the School Code for which the local education agency is eligible.

Local educational agencies providing early periodic screening and diagnostic testing services on or after August 1, 1991, including screening and diagnostic services, health care and treatment, preventive health care, and any other measure to correct or improve health impairments of Medicaid-eligible children, may also access federally funded health care resources.

The State Board of Education and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may enter into an intergovernmental agreement whereby school districts or their agents may claim medicaid matching funds for medicaid eligible special education children as authorized by Section 1903 of the Social Security Act. Under that intergovernmental agreement, school districts or their agents may also claim federal funds for the services provided to special education students enrolled in the Children's Health Insurance Program.

(b) No employee or officer of a school district, special education joint agreement, office of a regional superintendent of schools or the State Board of Education may have a direct or indirect financial interest in any agreement between the entity of which the person is an employee or officer and any corporation, organization or other entity that collects or participates in the collection of payments from private health care benefit plans or federally funded health care programs authorized under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 91-24, eff. 7-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-15.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-15.01)

Sec. 14-15.01. Community and Residential Services Authority.

(a) (1) The Community and Residential Services Authority is hereby created and shall consist of the following members:

A representative of the State Board of Education;

Four representatives of the Department of Human Services, with one member from the Division of Community Health and Prevention, one member from the Office of Developmental Disabilities of the Division of Disability and Behavioral Health Services, one member from the Office of Mental Health of the Division of Disability and Behavioral Health Services, and one member of the Office of Rehabilitation Services of the Division of Disability and Behavioral Health Services;

A representative of the Department of Children and Family Services;

A representative of the Department of Corrections;

A representative of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid;

A representative of the Attorney General's Disability Rights Advocacy Division;

The Chairperson and Minority Spokesperson of the House and Senate Committees on Elementary and Secondary Education or their designees; and

Six persons appointed by the Governor. Five of such appointees shall be experienced or knowledgeable relative to provision of services for individuals with a behavior disorder or a severe emotional disturbance and shall include representatives of both the private and public sectors, except that no more than 2 of those 5 appointees may be from the public sector and at least 2 must be or have been directly involved in provision of services to such individuals. The remaining member appointed by the Governor shall be or shall have been a parent of an individual with a behavior disorder or a severe emotional disturbance, and that appointee may be from either the private or the public sector.

(2) Members appointed by the Governor shall be appointed for terms of 4 years and shall continue to serve until their respective successors are appointed; provided that the terms of the original appointees shall expire on August 1, 1990, and the term of the additional member appointed under this amendatory Act of 1992 shall commence upon the appointment and expire August 1, 1994. Any vacancy in the office of a member appointed by the Governor shall be filled by appointment of the Governor for the remainder of the term.

A vacancy in the office of a member appointed by the Governor exists when one or more of the following events occur:

(i) An appointee dies;

(ii) An appointee files a written resignation with the Governor;

(iii) An appointee ceases to be a legal resident of the State of Illinois; or

(iv) An appointee fails to attend a majority of regularly scheduled Authority meetings in a fiscal year.

Members who are representatives of an agency shall serve at the will of the agency head. Membership on the Authority shall cease immediately upon cessation of their affiliation with the agency. If such a vacancy occurs, the appropriate agency head shall appoint another person to represent the agency.

If a legislative member of the Authority ceases to be Chairperson or Minority Spokesperson of the designated Committees, they shall automatically be replaced on the Authority by the person who assumes the position of Chairperson or Minority Spokesperson.

(b) The Community and Residential Services Authority shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) To conduct surveys to determine the extent of need, the degree to which documented need is currently being met and feasible alternatives for matching need with resources.

(2) To develop policy statements for interagency cooperation to cover all aspects of service delivery, including laws, regulations and procedures, and clear guidelines for determining responsibility at all times.

(3) To recommend policy statements and provide information regarding effective programs for delivery of services to all individuals under 22 years of age with a behavior disorder or a severe emotional disturbance in public or private situations.

(4) To review the criteria for service eligibility, provision and availability established by the governmental agencies represented on this Authority, and to recommend changes, additions or deletions to such criteria.

(5) To develop and submit to the Governor, the General Assembly, the Directors of the agencies represented on the Authority, and the State Board of Education a master plan for individuals under 22 years of age with a behavior disorder or a severe emotional disturbance, including detailed plans of service ranging from the least to the most restrictive options; and to assist local communities, upon request, in developing or strengthening collaborative interagency networks.

(6) To develop a process for making determinations in situations where there is a dispute relative to a plan of service for individuals or funding for a plan of service.

(7) To provide technical assistance to parents, service consumers, providers, and member agency personnel regarding statutory responsibilities of human service and educational agencies, and to provide such assistance as deemed necessary to appropriately access needed services.

(c) (1) The members of the Authority shall receive no compensation for their services but shall be entitled to reimbursement of reasonable expenses incurred while performing their duties.

(2) The Authority may appoint special study groups to operate under the direction of the Authority and persons appointed to such groups shall receive only reimbursement of reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(3) The Authority shall elect from its membership a chairperson, vice-chairperson and secretary.

(4) The Authority may employ and fix the compensation of such employees and technical assistants as it deems necessary to carry out its powers and duties under this Act. Staff assistance for the Authority shall be provided by the State Board of Education.

(5) Funds for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Authority shall be appropriated to the State Board of Education in a separate line item.

(d) (1) The Authority shall have power to promulgate rules and regulations to carry out its powers and duties under this Act.

(2) The Authority may accept monetary gifts or grants from the federal government or any agency thereof, from any charitable foundation or professional association or from any other reputable source for implementation of any program necessary or desirable to the carrying out of the general purposes of the Authority. Such gifts and grants may be held in trust by the Authority and expended in the exercise of its powers and performance of its duties as prescribed by law.

(3) The Authority shall submit an annual report of its activities and expenditures to the Governor, the General Assembly, the directors of agencies represented on the Authority, and the State Superintendent of Education.

(Source: P.A. 92-632, eff. 1-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/14A-30)

Sec. 14A-30. Local programs; requirements. In order for a local program for the education of gifted and talented children to be approved by the State Board of Education in order to qualify for State funding, if available, as of the beginning of the 2006-2007 academic year, the local program must meet the following minimum requirements and demonstrate the fulfillment of these requirements in a written program description submitted to the State Board of Education by the local educational agency operating the program and modified if the program is substantively altered:

(1) The use of a minimum of 3 assessment measures used to identify gifted and talented children in each area in which a program for gifted and talented children is established, which may include without limitation scores on standardized achievement tests, observation checklists, portfolios, and currently-used district assessments.

(2) A priority emphasis on language arts and mathematics.

(3) An identification method that uses the definition of gifted and talented children as defined in Section 14A-20 of this Code.

(4) Assessment instruments sensitive to the inclusion of underrepresented groups, including low-income students, minority students, and English language learners.

(5) A process of identification of gifted and talented children that is of equal rigor in each area of aptitude addressed by the program.

(6) The use of identification procedures that appropriately correspond with the planned programs, curricula, and services.

(7) A fair and equitable decision-making process.

(8) The availability of a fair and impartial appeal process within the school, school district, or cooperative of school districts operating a program for parents or guardians whose children are aggrieved by a decision of the school, school district, or cooperative of school districts regarding eligibility for participation in a program.

(9) Procedures for annually informing the community at-large, including parents, about the program and the methods used for the identification of gifted and talented children.

(10) Procedures for notifying parents or guardians of a child of a decision affecting that child's participation in a program.

(11) A description of how gifted and talented children will be grouped and instructed in order to maximize the educational benefits the children derive from participation in the program, including curriculum modifications and options that accelerate and add depth and complexity to the curriculum content.

(12) An explanation of how the program emphasizes higher-level skills attainment, including problem-solving, critical thinking, creative thinking, and research skills, as embedded within relevant content areas.

(13) A methodology for measuring academic growth for gifted and talented children and a procedure for communicating a child's progress to his or her parents or guardian, including, but not limited to, a report card.

(14) The collection of data on growth in learning for children in a program for gifted and talented children and the reporting of the data to the State Board of Education.

(15) The designation of a supervisor responsible for overseeing the educational program for gifted and talented children.

(16) A showing that the certified teachers who are assigned to teach gifted and talented children understand the characteristics and educational needs of children and are able to differentiate the curriculum and apply instructional methods to meet the needs of the children.

(17) Plans for the continuation of professional development for staff assigned to the program serving gifted and talented children.

(Source: P.A. 94-151, eff. 7-8-05; 94-410, eff. 8-2-05; revised 8-31-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/14A-55)

Sec. 14A-55. Rulemaking. The State Board of Education shall have the authority to adopt all rules necessary to implement and regulate the provisions of in this Article.

(Source: P.A. 94-151, eff. 7-8-05; 94-410, eff. 8-2-05; revised 8-31-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.05)

Sec. 18-8.05. Basis for apportionment of general State financial aid and supplemental general State aid to the common schools for the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years.

(A) General Provisions.

(1) The provisions of this Section apply to the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years. The system of general State financial aid provided for in this Section is designed to assure that, through a combination of State financial aid and required local resources, the financial support provided each pupil in Average Daily Attendance equals or exceeds a prescribed per pupil Foundation Level. This formula approach imputes a level of per pupil Available Local Resources and provides for the basis to calculate a per pupil level of general State financial aid that, when added to Available Local Resources, equals or exceeds the Foundation Level. The amount of per pupil general State financial aid for school districts, in general, varies in inverse relation to Available Local Resources. Per pupil amounts are based upon each school district's Average Daily Attendance as that term is defined in this Section.

(2) In addition to general State financial aid, school districts with specified levels or concentrations of pupils from low income households are eligible to receive supplemental general State financial aid grants as provided pursuant to subsection (H). The supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under subsection (H) shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(3) To receive financial assistance under this Section, school districts are required to file claims with the State Board of Education, subject to the following requirements:

(a) Any school district which fails for any given school year to maintain school as required by law, or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to file for such school year any claim upon the Common School Fund. In case of nonrecognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion which the Average Daily Attendance in the attendance center or centers bear to the Average Daily Attendance in the school district. A "recognized school" means any public school which meets the standards as established for recognition by the State Board of Education. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim which was filed while it was recognized.

(b) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9, 18-10, and 18-12, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c) If a school district operates a full year school under Section 10-19.1, the general State aid to the school district shall be determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with this Section as near as may be applicable.

(d) (Blank).

(4) Except as provided in subsections (H) and (L), the board of any district receiving any of the grants provided for in this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that board is authorized to make expenditures by law.

School districts are not required to exert a minimum Operating Tax Rate in order to qualify for assistance under this Section.

(5) As used in this Section the following terms, when capitalized, shall have the meaning ascribed herein:

(a) "Average Daily Attendance": A count of pupil attendance in school, averaged as provided for in subsection (C) and utilized in deriving per pupil financial support levels.

(b) "Available Local Resources": A computation of local financial support, calculated on the basis of Average Daily Attendance and derived as provided pursuant to subsection (D).

(c) "Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes": Funds paid to local school districts pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

(d) "Foundation Level": A prescribed level of per pupil financial support as provided for in subsection (B).

(e) "Operating Tax Rate": All school district property taxes extended for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

(B) Foundation Level.

(1) The Foundation Level is a figure established by the State representing the minimum level of per pupil financial support that should be available to provide for the basic education of each pupil in Average Daily Attendance. As set forth in this Section, each school district is assumed to exert a sufficient local taxing effort such that, in combination with the aggregate of general State financial aid provided the district, an aggregate of State and local resources are available to meet the basic education needs of pupils in the district.

(2) For the 1998-1999 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,225. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,325. For the 2000-2001 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,425. For the 2001-2002 school year and 2002-2003 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,560. For the 2003-2004 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,810. For the 2004-2005 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,964. For the 2005-2006 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,164.

(3) For the 2006-2007 school year and each school year thereafter, the Foundation Level of support is $5,334 or such greater amount as may be established by law by the General Assembly.

(C) Average Daily Attendance.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), an Average Daily Attendance figure shall be utilized. The Average Daily Attendance figure for formula calculation purposes shall be the monthly average of the actual number of pupils in attendance of each school district, as further averaged for the best 3 months of pupil attendance for each school district. In compiling the figures for the number of pupils in attendance, school districts and the State Board of Education shall, for purposes of general State aid funding, conform attendance figures to the requirements of subsection (F).

(2) The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (E) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated or the average of the attendance data for the 3 preceding school years, whichever is greater. The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (H) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated.

(D) Available Local Resources.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), a representation of Available Local Resources per pupil, as that term is defined and determined in this subsection, shall be utilized. Available Local Resources per pupil shall include a calculated dollar amount representing local school district revenues from local property taxes and from Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes, expressed on the basis of pupils in Average Daily Attendance. Calculation of Available Local Resources shall exclude any tax amnesty funds received as a result of Public Act 93-26.

(2) In determining a school district's revenue from local property taxes, the State Board of Education shall utilize the equalized assessed valuation of all taxable property of each school district as of September 30 of the previous year. The equalized assessed valuation utilized shall be obtained and determined as provided in subsection (G).

(3) For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 3.00%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 2.30%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades 9 through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be the applicable equalized assessed valuation of the district multiplied by 1.05%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

For partial elementary unit districts created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the elementary and high school classification of the partial elementary unit district multiplied by 2.06% and divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for grades kindergarten through 8, plus the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the high school only classification of the partial elementary unit district multiplied by 0.94% and divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for grades 9 through 12.

(4) The Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes paid to each school district during the calendar year 2 years before the calendar year in which a school year begins, divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for that district, shall be added to the local property tax revenues per pupil as derived by the application of the immediately preceding paragraph (3). The sum of these per pupil figures for each school district shall constitute Available Local Resources as that term is utilized in subsection (E) in the calculation of general State aid.

(E) Computation of General State Aid.

(1) For each school year, the amount of general State aid allotted to a school district shall be computed by the State Board of Education as provided in this subsection.

(2) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is less than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, general State aid for that district shall be calculated as an amount equal to the Foundation Level minus Available Local Resources, multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(3) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is equal to or greater than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level and less than the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid per pupil shall be a decimal proportion of the Foundation Level derived using a linear algorithm. Under this linear algorithm, the calculated general State aid per pupil shall decline in direct linear fashion from 0.07 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, to 0.05 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level. The allocation of general State aid for school districts subject to this paragraph 3 shall be the calculated general State aid per pupil figure multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(4) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil equals or exceeds the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid for the school district shall be calculated as the product of $218 multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(5) The amount of general State aid allocated to a school district for the 1999-2000 school year meeting the requirements set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) shall be increased by an amount equal to the general State aid that would have been received by the district for the 1998-1999 school year by utilizing the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) less the general State aid allotted for the 1998-1999 school year. This amount shall be deemed a one time increase, and shall not affect any future general State aid allocations.

(F) Compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(1) Each school district shall, by July 1 of each year, submit to the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Board of Education, attendance figures for the school year that began in the preceding calendar year. The attendance information so transmitted shall identify the average daily attendance figures for each month of the school year. Beginning with the general State aid claim form for the 2002-2003 school year, districts shall calculate Average Daily Attendance as provided in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of this paragraph (1).

(a) In districts that do not hold year-round classes, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(b) In districts in which all buildings hold year-round classes, days of attendance in July and August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(c) In districts in which some buildings, but not all, hold year-round classes, for the non-year-round buildings, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May. The average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be computed as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph (1). To calculate the Average Daily Attendance for the district, the average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be multiplied by the days in session for the non-year-round buildings for each month and added to the monthly attendance of the non-year-round buildings.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, days of attendance by pupils shall be counted only for sessions of not less than 5 clock hours of school work per day under direct supervision of: (i) teachers, or (ii) non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel when engaging in non-teaching duties and supervising in those instances specified in subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 and paragraph 10 of Section 34-18, with pupils of legal school age and in kindergarten and grades 1 through 12.

Days of attendance by tuition pupils shall be accredited only to the districts that pay the tuition to a recognized school.

(2) Days of attendance by pupils of less than 5 clock hours of school shall be subject to the following provisions in the compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(a) Pupils regularly enrolled in a public school for only a part of the school day may be counted on the basis of 1/6 day for every class hour of instruction of 40 minutes or more attended pursuant to such enrollment, unless a pupil is enrolled in a block-schedule format of 80 minutes or more of instruction, in which case the pupil may be counted on the basis of the proportion of minutes of school work completed each day to the minimum number of minutes that school work is required to be held that day.

(b) Days of attendance may be less than 5 clock hours on the opening and closing of the school term, and upon the first day of pupil attendance, if preceded by a day or days utilized as an institute or teachers' workshop.

(c) A session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance upon certification by the regional superintendent, and approved by the State Superintendent of Education to the extent that the district has been forced to use daily multiple sessions.

(d) A session of 3 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance (1) when the remainder of the school day or at least 2 hours in the evening of that day is utilized for an in-service training program for teachers, up to a maximum of 5 days per school year of which a maximum of 4 days of such 5 days may be used for parent-teacher conferences, provided a district conducts an in-service training program for teachers which has been approved by the State Superintendent of Education; or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days may be used, in which event each such day may be counted as a day of attendance; and (2) when days in addition to those provided in item (1) are scheduled by a school pursuant to its school improvement plan adopted under Article 34 or its revised or amended school improvement plan adopted under Article 2, provided that (i) such sessions of 3 or more clock hours are scheduled to occur at regular intervals, (ii) the remainder of the school days in which such sessions occur are utilized for in-service training programs or other staff development activities for teachers, and (iii) a sufficient number of minutes of school work under the direct supervision of teachers are added to the school days between such regularly scheduled sessions to accumulate not less than the number of minutes by which such sessions of 3 or more clock hours fall short of 5 clock hours. Any full days used for the purposes of this paragraph shall not be considered for computing average daily attendance. Days scheduled for in-service training programs, staff development activities, or parent-teacher conferences may be scheduled separately for different grade levels and different attendance centers of the district.

(e) A session of not less than one clock hour of teaching hospitalized or homebound pupils on-site or by telephone to the classroom may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance, however these pupils must receive 4 or more clock hours of instruction to be counted for a full day of attendance.

(f) A session of at least 4 clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance for first grade pupils, and pupils in full day kindergartens, and a session of 2 or more hours may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance by pupils in kindergartens which provide only 1/2 day of attendance.

(g) For children with disabilities who are below the age of 6 years and who cannot attend 2 or more clock hours because of their disability or immaturity, a session of not less than one clock hour may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance; however for such children whose educational needs so require a session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a full day of attendance.

(h) A recognized kindergarten which provides for only 1/2 day of attendance by each pupil shall not have more than 1/2 day of attendance counted in any one day. However, kindergartens may count 2 1/2 days of attendance in any 5 consecutive school days. When a pupil attends such a kindergarten for 2 half days on any one school day, the pupil shall have the following day as a day absent from school, unless the school district obtains permission in writing from the State Superintendent of Education. Attendance at kindergartens which provide for a full day of attendance by each pupil shall be counted the same as attendance by first grade pupils. Only the first year of attendance in one kindergarten shall be counted, except in case of children who entered the kindergarten in their fifth year whose educational development requires a second year of kindergarten as determined under the rules and regulations of the State Board of Education.

(i) On the days when the Prairie State Achievement Examination is administered under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64 of this Code, the day of attendance for a pupil whose school day must be shortened to accommodate required testing procedures may be less than 5 clock hours and shall be counted towards the 176 days of actual pupil attendance required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that a sufficient number of minutes of school work in excess of 5 clock hours are first completed on other school days to compensate for the loss of school work on the examination days.

(G) Equalized Assessed Valuation Data.

(1) For purposes of the calculation of Available Local Resources required pursuant to subsection (D), the State Board of Education shall secure from the Department of Revenue the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every school district, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the district as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all school districts subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each school district situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the alternative general homestead exemption provisions of Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code (a) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that school district exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that school district if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (b) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the alternative general homestead exemption provisions of Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each school district all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this paragraph that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this paragraph that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

This equalized assessed valuation, as adjusted further by the requirements of this subsection, shall be utilized in the calculation of Available Local Resources.

(2) The equalized assessed valuation in paragraph (1) shall be adjusted, as applicable, in the following manner:

(a) For the purposes of calculating State aid under this Section, with respect to any part of a school district within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Sections 11-74.4-1 through 11-74.4-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Sections 11-74.6-1 through 11-74.6-50 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current equalized assessed valuation of real property located in any such project area which is attributable to an increase above the total initial equalized assessed valuation of such property shall be used as part of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, the total initial equalized assessed valuation or the current equalized assessed valuation, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(b) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (b).

(3) For the 1999-2000 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district meets all of the criteria of this subsection (G)(3), the school district's Available Local Resources shall be calculated under subsection (D) using the district's Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated under this subsection (G)(3).

For purposes of this subsection (G)(3) the following terms shall have the following meanings:

"Budget Year": The school year for which general State aid is calculated and awarded under subsection (E).

"Base Tax Year": The property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of general State aid.

"Preceding Tax Year": The property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Base Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the County Clerk and defined in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate as defined in subsection (A).

"Extension Limitation Ratio": A numerical ratio, certified by the County Clerk, in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Tax Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension.

"Operating Tax Rate": The operating tax rate as defined in subsection (A).

If a school district is subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of that district. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the district's 1996 Equalized Assessed Valuation and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. For the 2000-2001 school year and each school year thereafter, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated under this subsection (G)(3) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation as calculated pursuant to subsections (G)(1) and (G)(2), then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid for the Budget Year pursuant to subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources under subsection (D).

Partial elementary unit districts created in accordance with Article 11E of this Code shall not be eligible for the adjustment in this subsection (G)(3) until the fifth year following the effective date of the reorganization.

(4) For the purposes of calculating general State aid for the 1999-2000 school year only, if a school district experienced a triennial reassessment on the equalized assessed valuation used in calculating its general State financial aid apportionment for the 1998-1999 school year, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation that would have been used to calculate the district's 1998-1999 general State aid. This amount shall equal the product of the equalized assessed valuation used to calculate general State aid for the 1997-1998 school year and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district as calculated under this paragraph (4) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation utilized in calculating the district's 1998-1999 general State aid allocation, then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources.

(5) For school districts having a majority of their equalized assessed valuation in any county except Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, or Will, if the amount of general State aid allocated to the school district for the 1999-2000 school year under the provisions of subsection (E), (H), and (J) of this Section is less than the amount of general State aid allocated to the district for the 1998-1999 school year under these subsections, then the general State aid of the district for the 1999-2000 school year only shall be increased by the difference between these amounts. The total payments made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed $14,000,000. Claims shall be prorated if they exceed $14,000,000.

(H) Supplemental General State Aid.

(1) In addition to the general State aid a school district is allotted pursuant to subsection (E), qualifying school districts shall receive a grant, paid in conjunction with a district's payments of general State aid, for supplemental general State aid based upon the concentration level of children from low-income households within the school district. Supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under this subsection shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section. If the appropriation in any fiscal year for general State aid and supplemental general State aid is insufficient to pay the amounts required under the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculations, then the State Board of Education shall ensure that each school district receives the full amount due for general State aid and the remainder of the appropriation shall be used for supplemental general State aid, which the State Board of Education shall calculate and pay to eligible districts on a prorated basis.

(1.5) This paragraph (1.5) applies only to those school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall be the low-income eligible pupil count from the most recently available federal census divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district. If, however, (i) the percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count of a high school district with fewer than 400 students exceeds by 75% or more the percentage change in the total low-income eligible pupil count of contiguous elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, or (ii) a high school district within 2 counties and serving 5 elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, has a percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count and there is a percentage increase in the total low-income eligible pupil count of a majority of the elementary school districts in excess of 50% from the 2 most recent federal censuses, then the high school district's low-income eligible pupil count from the earlier federal census shall be the number used as the low-income eligible pupil count for the high school district, for purposes of this subsection (H). The changes made to this paragraph (1) by Public Act 92-28 shall apply to supplemental general State aid grants for school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year that are paid in fiscal year 1999 or thereafter and to any State aid payments made in fiscal year 1994 through fiscal year 1998 pursuant to subsection 1(n) of Section 18-8 of this Code (which was repealed on July 1, 1998), and any high school district that is affected by Public Act 92-28 is entitled to a recomputation of its supplemental general State aid grant or State aid paid in any of those fiscal years. This recomputation shall not be affected by any other funding.

(1.10) This paragraph (1.10) applies to the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall, for each fiscal year, be the low-income eligible pupil count as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services based on the number of pupils who are eligible for at least one of the following low income programs: Medicaid, KidCare, TANF, or Food Stamps, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services, averaged over the 2 immediately preceding fiscal years for fiscal year 2004 and over the 3 immediately preceding fiscal years for each fiscal year thereafter) divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(2) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 1998-1999, 1999-2000, and 2000-2001 school years only:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for any school year shall be $800 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for the 1998-1999 school year shall be $1,100 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,500 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,900 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For the 1999-2000 school year, the per pupil amount specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be increased to $1,243, $1,600, and $2,000, respectively.

(f) For the 2000-2001 school year, the per pupil amounts specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be $1,273, $1,640, and $2,050, respectively.

(2.5) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2002-2003 school year:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of less than 10%, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 10% and less than 20%, the grant for each school year shall be $675 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,330 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,362 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,680 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(f) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for each school year shall be $2,080 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(2.10) Except as otherwise provided, supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 15% or less, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level greater than 15%, the grant for each school year shall be $294.25 added to the product of $2,700 and the square of the Low Income Concentration Level, all multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

For the 2003-2004 school year, 2004-2005 school year, 2005-2006 school year, and 2006-2007 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2007-2008 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.66. For the 2008-2009 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.33. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph to the contrary, if for any school year supplemental general State aid grants are prorated as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (H), then the grants under this paragraph shall be prorated.

For the 2003-2004 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.25 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2004-2005 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.50 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2005-2006 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.75 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year.

(3) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of more than 1,000 and less than 50,000 that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall submit a plan to the State Board of Education prior to October 30 of each year for the use of the funds resulting from this grant of supplemental general State aid for the improvement of instruction in which priority is given to meeting the education needs of disadvantaged children. Such plan shall be submitted in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(4) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of 50,000 or more that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall be required to distribute from funds available pursuant to this Section, no less than $261,000,000 in accordance with the following requirements:

(a) The required amounts shall be distributed to the attendance centers within the district in proportion to the number of pupils enrolled at each attendance center who are eligible to receive free or reduced-price lunches or breakfasts under the federal Child Nutrition Act of 1966 and under the National School Lunch Act during the immediately preceding school year.

(b) The distribution of these portions of supplemental and general State aid among attendance centers according to these requirements shall not be compensated for or contravened by adjustments of the total of other funds appropriated to any attendance centers, and the Board of Education shall utilize funding from one or several sources in order to fully implement this provision annually prior to the opening of school.

(c) Each attendance center shall be provided by the school district a distribution of noncategorical funds and other categorical funds to which an attendance center is entitled under law in order that the general State aid and supplemental general State aid provided by application of this subsection supplements rather than supplants the noncategorical funds and other categorical funds provided by the school district to the attendance centers.

(d) Any funds made available under this subsection that by reason of the provisions of this subsection are not required to be allocated and provided to attendance centers may be used and appropriated by the board of the district for any lawful school purpose.

(e) Funds received by an attendance center pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the attendance center at the discretion of the principal and local school council for programs to improve educational opportunities at qualifying schools through the following programs and services: early childhood education, reduced class size or improved adult to student classroom ratio, enrichment programs, remedial assistance, attendance improvement, and other educationally beneficial expenditures which supplement the regular and basic programs as determined by the State Board of Education. Funds provided shall not be expended for any political or lobbying purposes as defined by board rule.

(f) Each district subject to the provisions of this subdivision (H)(4) shall submit an acceptable plan to meet the educational needs of disadvantaged children, in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, to the State Board of Education prior to July 15 of each year. This plan shall be consistent with the decisions of local school councils concerning the school expenditure plans developed in accordance with part 4 of Section 34-2.3. The State Board shall approve or reject the plan within 60 days after its submission. If the plan is rejected, the district shall give written notice of intent to modify the plan within 15 days of the notification of rejection and then submit a modified plan within 30 days after the date of the written notice of intent to modify. Districts may amend approved plans pursuant to rules promulgated by the State Board of Education.

Upon notification by the State Board of Education that the district has not submitted a plan prior to July 15 or a modified plan within the time period specified herein, the State aid funds affected by that plan or modified plan shall be withheld by the State Board of Education until a plan or modified plan is submitted.

If the district fails to distribute State aid to attendance centers in accordance with an approved plan, the plan for the following year shall allocate funds, in addition to the funds otherwise required by this subsection, to those attendance centers which were underfunded during the previous year in amounts equal to such underfunding.

For purposes of determining compliance with this subsection in relation to the requirements of attendance center funding, each district subject to the provisions of this subsection shall submit as a separate document by December 1 of each year a report of expenditure data for the prior year in addition to any modification of its current plan. If it is determined that there has been a failure to comply with the expenditure provisions of this subsection regarding contravention or supplanting, the State Superintendent of Education shall, within 60 days of receipt of the report, notify the district and any affected local school council. The district shall within 45 days of receipt of that notification inform the State Superintendent of Education of the remedial or corrective action to be taken, whether by amendment of the current plan, if feasible, or by adjustment in the plan for the following year. Failure to provide the expenditure report or the notification of remedial or corrective action in a timely manner shall result in a withholding of the affected funds.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this subsection. No funds shall be released under this subdivision (H)(4) to any district that has not submitted a plan that has been approved by the State Board of Education.

(I) (Blank).

(J) Supplementary Grants in Aid.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, the amount of the aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section for which each school district is eligible shall be no less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that was received by the district under Section 18-8 (exclusive of amounts received under subsections 5(p) and 5(p-5) of that Section) for the 1997-98 school year, pursuant to the provisions of that Section as it was then in effect. If a school district qualifies to receive a supplementary payment made under this subsection (J), the amount of the aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section which that district is eligible to receive for each school year shall be no less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that was received by the district under Section 18-8 (exclusive of amounts received under subsections 5(p) and 5(p-5) of that Section) for the 1997-1998 school year, pursuant to the provisions of that Section as it was then in effect.

(2) If, as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (J), a school district is to receive aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section for the 1998-99 school year and any subsequent school year that in any such school year is less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that the district received for the 1997-98 school year, the school district shall also receive, from a separate appropriation made for purposes of this subsection (J), a supplementary payment that is equal to the amount of the difference in the aggregate State aid figures as described in paragraph (1).

(3) (Blank).

(K) Grants to Laboratory and Alternative Schools.

In calculating the amount to be paid to the governing board of a public university that operates a laboratory school under this Section or to any alternative school that is operated by a regional superintendent of schools, the State Board of Education shall require by rule such reporting requirements as it deems necessary.

As used in this Section, "laboratory school" means a public school which is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board of Education. The governing board of a public university which receives funds from the State Board under this subsection (K) may not increase the number of students enrolled in its laboratory school from a single district, if that district is already sending 50 or more students, except under a mutual agreement between the school board of a student's district of residence and the university which operates the laboratory school. A laboratory school may not have more than 1,000 students, excluding students with disabilities in a special education program.

As used in this Section, "alternative school" means a public school which is created and operated by a Regional Superintendent of Schools and approved by the State Board of Education. Such alternative schools may offer courses of instruction for which credit is given in regular school programs, courses to prepare students for the high school equivalency testing program or vocational and occupational training. A regional superintendent of schools may contract with a school district or a public community college district to operate an alternative school. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be established by the regional superintendents of schools of the affected educational service regions. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be operated under such terms as the regional superintendents of schools of those educational service regions may agree.

Each laboratory and alternative school shall file, on forms provided by the State Superintendent of Education, an annual State aid claim which states the Average Daily Attendance of the school's students by month. The best 3 months' Average Daily Attendance shall be computed for each school. The general State aid entitlement shall be computed by multiplying the applicable Average Daily Attendance by the Foundation Level as determined under this Section.

(L) Payments, Additional Grants in Aid and Other Requirements.

(1) For a school district operating under the financial supervision of an Authority created under Article 34A, the general State aid otherwise payable to that district under this Section, but not the supplemental general State aid, shall be reduced by an amount equal to the budget for the operations of the Authority as certified by the Authority to the State Board of Education, and an amount equal to such reduction shall be paid to the Authority created for such district for its operating expenses in the manner provided in Section 18-11. The remainder of general State school aid for any such district shall be paid in accordance with Article 34A when that Article provides for a disposition other than that provided by this Article.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Summer school. Summer school payments shall be made as provided in Section 18-4.3.

(M) Education Funding Advisory Board.

The Education Funding Advisory Board, hereinafter in this subsection (M) referred to as the "Board", is hereby created. The Board shall consist of 5 members who are appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. The members appointed shall include representatives of education, business, and the general public. One of the members so appointed shall be designated by the Governor at the time the appointment is made as the chairperson of the Board. The initial members of the Board may be appointed any time after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997. The regular term of each member of the Board shall be for 4 years from the third Monday of January of the year in which the term of the member's appointment is to commence, except that of the 5 initial members appointed to serve on the Board, the member who is appointed as the chairperson shall serve for a term that commences on the date of his or her appointment and expires on the third Monday of January, 2002, and the remaining 4 members, by lots drawn at the first meeting of the Board that is held after all 5 members are appointed, shall determine 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2001, and 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2000. All members appointed to serve on the Board shall serve until their respective successors are appointed and confirmed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments. If a vacancy in membership occurs at a time when the Senate is not in session, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall appoint, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, a person to fill that membership for the unexpired term. If the Senate is not in session when the initial appointments are made, those appointments shall be made as in the case of vacancies.

The Education Funding Advisory Board shall be deemed established, and the initial members appointed by the Governor to serve as members of the Board shall take office, on the date that the Governor makes his or her appointment of the fifth initial member of the Board, whether those initial members are then serving pursuant to appointment and confirmation or pursuant to temporary appointments that are made by the Governor as in the case of vacancies.

The State Board of Education shall provide such staff assistance to the Education Funding Advisory Board as is reasonably required for the proper performance by the Board of its responsibilities.

For school years after the 2000-2001 school year, the Education Funding Advisory Board, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall make recommendations as provided in this subsection (M) to the General Assembly for the foundation level under subdivision (B)(3) of this Section and for the supplemental general State aid grant level under subsection (H) of this Section for districts with high concentrations of children from poverty. The recommended foundation level shall be determined based on a methodology which incorporates the basic education expenditures of low-spending schools exhibiting high academic performance. The Education Funding Advisory Board shall make such recommendations to the General Assembly on January 1 of odd numbered years, beginning January 1, 2001.

(N) (Blank).

(O) References.

(1) References in other laws to the various subdivisions of Section 18-8 as that Section existed before its repeal and replacement by this Section 18-8.05 shall be deemed to refer to the corresponding provisions of this Section 18-8.05, to the extent that those references remain applicable.

(2) References in other laws to State Chapter 1 funds shall be deemed to refer to the supplemental general State aid provided under subsection (H) of this Section.

(P) Public Act 93-838 and Public Act 93-808 make inconsistent changes to this Section. Under Section 6 of the Statute on Statutes there is an irreconcilable conflict between Public Act 93-808 and Public Act 93-838. Public Act 93-838, being the last acted upon, is controlling. The text of Public Act 93-838 is the law regardless of the text of Public Act 93-808.

(Source: P.A. 93-21, eff. 7-1-03; 93-715, eff. 7-12-04; 93-808, eff. 7-26-04; 93-838, eff. 7-30-04; 93-875, eff. 8-6-04; 94-69, eff. 7-1-05; 94-438, eff. 8-4-05; 94-835, eff. 6-6-06; 94-1019, eff. 7-10-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in "An Act to limit the indebtedness of counties having a population of less than 500,000 and townships, school districts and other municipal corporations having a population of less than 300,000", approved February 15, 1928, as amended.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not handicapped accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 93-13, eff. 6-9-03; 93-799, eff. 7-22-04; 93-1045, eff. 10-15-04; 94-234, eff. 7-1-06; 94-721, eff. 1-6-06; 94-952, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1019, eff. 7-10-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-1b) (from Ch. 122, par. 21-1b)

Sec. 21-1b. Subject endorsement on certificates. All certificates initially issued under this Article after June 30, 1986, shall be specifically endorsed by the State Board of Education for each subject the holder of the certificate is legally qualified to teach, such endorsements to be made in accordance with standards promulgated by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board. The regional superintendent of schools, however, has the duty, after appropriate training, to accept and review all transcripts for new initial certificate applications and ensure that each applicant has met all of the criteria established by the State Board of Education in consultation with with the State Teacher Certification Board. All certificates which are issued under this Article prior to July 1, 1986 may, by application to the State Board of Education, be specifically endorsed for each subject the holder is legally qualified to teach. Endorsements issued under this Section shall not apply to substitute teacher's certificates issued under Section 21-9 of this Code.

Commencing July 1, 1999, each application for endorsement of an existing teaching certificate shall be accompanied by a $30 nonrefundable fee. There is hereby created a Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund as a special fund within the State Treasury. The proceeds of each $30 fee shall be paid into the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund; and the moneys in that Fund shall be appropriated and used to provide the technology and other resources necessary for the timely and efficient processing of certification requests.

The State Board of Education and each regional office of education are authorized to charge a service or convenience fee for the use of credit cards for the payment of certification fees. This service or convenience fee may not exceed the amount required by the credit card processing company or vendor that has entered into a contract with the State Board or regional office of education for this purpose, and the fee must be paid to that company or vendor.

(Source: P.A. 93-679, eff. 6-30-04; 93-1036, eff. 9-14-04; revised 10-22-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 21-12)

Sec. 21-12. Printing; Seal; Signature; Credentials. All certificates shall be printed by and bear the signatures of the chairman and of the secretary of the State Teacher Certification Board. Each certificate shall show the integrally printed seal of the State Teacher Certification Board. All college credentials offered as the basis of a certificate shall be presented to the secretary of the State Teacher Certification Board for inspection and approval. The regional superintendent of schools, however, has the duty, after appropriate training, to accept and review all transcripts for new initial certificate applications and ensure that each applicant has met all of the criteria established by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board.

Commencing July 1, 1999, each application for a certificate or evaluation of credentials shall be accompanied by an evaluation fee of $30 payable to the State Superintendent of Education, which is not refundable, except that no application or evaluation fee shall be required for a Master Certificate issued pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 21-2 of this Code. The proceeds of each $30 fee shall be paid into the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund, created under Section 21-1b of this Code; and the moneys in that Fund shall be appropriated and used to provide the technology and other resources necessary for the timely and efficient processing of certification requests.

The State Board of Education and each regional office of education are authorized to charge a service or convenience fee for the use of credit cards for the payment of certification fees. This service or convenience fee may not exceed the amount required by the credit card processing company or vendor that has entered into a contract with the State Board or regional office of education for this purpose, and the fee must be paid to that company or vendor.

When evaluation verifies the requirements for a valid certificate, the applicant shall be issued an entitlement card that may be presented to a regional superintendent of schools for issuance of a certificate.

The applicant shall be notified of any deficiencies.

(Source: P.A. 93-679, eff. 6-30-04; 93-1036, eff. 9-14-04; revised 10-22-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/21-14) (from Ch. 122, par. 21-14)

Sec. 21-14. Registration and renewal of certificates.

(a) A limited four-year certificate or a certificate issued after July 1, 1955, shall be renewable at its expiration or within 60 days thereafter by the county superintendent of schools having supervision and control over the school where the teacher is teaching upon certified evidence of meeting the requirements for renewal as required by this Act and prescribed by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Teacher Certification Board. An elementary supervisory certificate shall not be renewed at the end of the first four-year period covered by the certificate unless the holder thereof has filed certified evidence with the State Teacher Certification Board that he has a master's degree or that he has earned 8 semester hours of credit in the field of educational administration and supervision in a recognized institution of higher learning. The holder shall continue to earn 8 semester hours of credit each four-year period until such time as he has earned a master's degree.

All certificates not renewed or registered as herein provided shall lapse after a period of 5 years from the expiration of the last year of registration. Such certificates may be reinstated for a one year period upon payment of all accumulated registration fees. Such reinstated certificates shall only be renewed: (1) by earning 5 semester hours of credit in a recognized institution of higher learning in the field of professional education or in courses related to the holder's contractual teaching duties; or (2) by presenting evidence of holding a valid regular certificate of some other type. Any certificate may be voluntarily surrendered by the certificate holder. A voluntarily surrendered certificate shall be treated as a revoked certificate.

(b) When those teaching certificates issued before February 15, 2000 are renewed for the first time after February 15, 2000, all such teaching certificates shall be exchanged for Standard Teaching Certificates as provided in subsection (c) of Section 21-2. All Initial and Standard Teaching Certificates, including those issued to persons who previously held teaching certificates issued before February 15, 2000, shall be renewable under the conditions set forth in this subsection (b).

Initial Teaching Certificates are valid for 4 years of teaching, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 21-2 of this Code, and are renewable every 4 years until the person completes 4 years of teaching. If the holder of an Initial Certificate has completed 4 years of teaching but has not completed the requirements set forth in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 21-2 of this Code, then the Initial Certificate may be reinstated for one year, during which the requirements must be met. A holder of an Initial Certificate who has not completed 4 years of teaching may continuously register the certificate for additional 4-year periods without penalty. Initial Certificates that are not registered shall lapse consistent with subsection (a) of this Section and may be reinstated only in accordance with subsection (a). Standard Teaching Certificates are renewable every 5 years as provided in subsection (c) of Section 21-2 and subsection (c) of this Section. For purposes of this Section, "teaching" is defined as employment and performance of services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, in a certificated teaching position, or a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law.

(c) In compliance with subsection (c) of Section 21-2 of this Code, which provides that a Standard Teaching Certificate may be renewed by the State Teacher Certification Board based upon proof of continuing professional development, the State Board of Education and the State Teacher Certification Board shall jointly:

(1) establish a procedure for renewing Standard Teaching Certificates, which shall include but not be limited to annual timelines for the renewal process and the components set forth in subsections (d) through (k) of this Section;

(2) establish the standards for certificate renewal;

(3) approve or disapprove the providers of continuing professional development activities;

(4) determine the maximum credit for each category of continuing professional development activities, based upon recommendations submitted by a continuing professional development activity task force, which shall consist of 6 staff members from the State Board of Education, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education, and 6 teacher representatives, 3 of whom are selected by the Illinois Education Association and 3 of whom are selected by the Illinois Federation of Teachers;

(5) designate the type and amount of documentation required to show that continuing professional development activities have been completed; and

(6) provide, on a timely basis to all Illinois teachers, certificate holders, regional superintendents of schools, school districts, and others with an interest in continuing professional development, information about the standards and requirements established pursuant to this subsection (c).

(d) Any Standard Teaching Certificate held by an individual employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control in a certificated teaching position or a charter school in compliance with the Charter Schools Law must be maintained Valid and Active through certificate renewal activities specified in the certificate renewal procedure established pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, provided that a holder of a Valid and Active certificate who is only employed on either a part-time basis or day-to-day basis as a substitute teacher shall pay only the required registration fee to renew his or her certificate and maintain it as Valid and Active. All other Standard Teaching Certificates held may be maintained as Valid and Exempt through the registration process provided for in the certificate renewal procedure established pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section. A Valid and Exempt certificate must be immediately activated, through procedures developed jointly by the State Board of Education and the State Teacher Certification Board, upon the certificate holder becoming employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control in a certificated teaching position or a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law. A holder of a Valid and Exempt certificate may activate his or her certificate through procedures provided for in the certificate renewal procedure established pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section.

(e)(1) A Standard Teaching Certificate that has been maintained as Valid and Active for the 5 years of the certificate's validity shall be renewed as Valid and Active upon the certificate holder: (i) completing an advanced degree from an approved institution in an education-related field; (ii) completing at least 8 semester hours of coursework as described in subdivision (B) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (e); (iii) earning at least 24 continuing education units as described in subdivision (C) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (e); (iv) completing the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards process as described in subdivision (D) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (e); or (v) earning 120 continuing professional development units ("CPDU") as described in subdivision (E) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (e). The maximum continuing professional development units for each continuing professional development activity identified in subdivisions (F) through (J) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (e) shall be jointly determined by the State Board of Education and the State Teacher Certification Board. If, however, the certificate holder has maintained the certificate as Valid and Exempt for a portion of the 5-year period of validity, the number of continuing professional development units needed to renew the certificate as Valid and Active shall be proportionately reduced by the amount of time the certificate was Valid and Exempt. Furthermore, if a certificate holder is employed and performs teaching services on a part-time basis for all or a portion of the certificate's 5-year period of validity, the number of continuing professional development units needed to renew the certificate as Valid and Active shall be reduced by 50% for the amount of time the certificate holder has been employed and performed teaching services on a part-time basis. Part-time shall be defined as less than 50% of the school day or school term.

Notwithstanding any other requirements to the contrary, if a Standard Teaching Certificate has been maintained as Valid and Active for the 5 years of the certificate's validity and the certificate holder has completed his or her certificate renewal plan before July 1, 2002, the certificate shall be renewed as Valid and Active.

(2) Beginning July 1, 2004, in order to satisfy the requirements for continuing professional development provided for in subsection (c) of Section 21-2 of this Code, each Valid and Active Standard Teaching Certificate holder shall complete professional development activities that address the certificate or those certificates that are required of his or her certificated teaching position, if the certificate holder is employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, or that certificate or those certificates most closely related to his or her teaching position, if the certificate holder is employed in a charter school. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (e), the certificate holder's activities must address purposes (A), (B), (C), or (D) and must reflect purpose (E) of the following continuing professional development purposes:

(A) Advance both the certificate holder's knowledge and skills as a teacher consistent with the Illinois Professional Teaching Standards and the Illinois Content Area Standards in the certificate holder's areas of certification, endorsement, or teaching assignment in order to keep the certificate holder current in those areas.

(B) Develop the certificate holder's knowledge and skills in areas determined to be critical for all Illinois teachers, as defined by the State Board of Education, known as "State priorities".

(C) Address the knowledge, skills, and goals of the certificate holder's local school improvement plan, if the teacher is employed in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control.

(D) Expand the certificate holder's knowledge and skills in an additional teaching field or toward the acquisition of another teaching certificate, endorsement, or relevant education degree.

(E) Address the needs of serving students with disabilities, including adapting and modifying the general curriculum related to the Illinois Learning Standards to meet the needs of students with disabilities and serving such students in the least restrictive environment. Teachers who hold certificates endorsed for special education must devote at least 50% of their continuing professional development activities to this purpose. Teachers holding other certificates must devote at least 20% of their activities to this purpose.

A speech-language pathologist or audiologist who is licensed under the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act and who has met the continuing education requirements of that Act and the rules promulgated under that Act shall be deemed to have satisfied the continuing professional development requirements established by the State Board of Education and the Teacher Certification Board to renew a Standard Certificate.

(3) Continuing professional development activities may include, but are not limited to, the following activities:

(A) completion of an advanced degree from an approved institution in an education-related field;

(B) at least 8 semester hours of coursework in an approved education-related program, of which at least 2 semester hours relate to the continuing professional development purpose set forth in purpose (A) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e), completion of which means no other continuing professional development activities are required;

(C) continuing education units that satisfy the continuing professional development purposes set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (e), with each continuing education unit equal to 5 clock hours, provided that a plan that includes at least 24 continuing education units (or 120 clock/contact hours) need not include any other continuing professional development activities;

(D) completion of the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards ("NBPTS") process for certification or recertification, completion of which means no other continuing professional development activities are required;

(E) completion of 120 continuing professional development units that satisfy the continuing professional development purposes set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) and may include without limitation the activities identified in subdivisions (F) through (J) of this paragraph (3);

(F) collaboration and partnership activities related to improving the teacher's knowledge and skills as a teacher, including the following:

(i) participating on collaborative planning and professional improvement teams and committees;

(ii) peer review and coaching;

(iii) mentoring in a formal mentoring program, including service as a consulting teacher participating in a remediation process formulated under Section 24A-5 of this Code;

(iv) participating in site-based management or decision making teams, relevant committees, boards, or task forces directly related to school improvement plans;

(v) coordinating community resources in schools, if the project is a specific goal of the school improvement plan;

(vi) facilitating parent education programs for a school, school district, or regional office of education directly related to student achievement or school improvement plans;

(vii) participating in business, school, or community partnerships directly related to student achievement or school improvement plans; or

(viii) supervising a student teacher or teacher education candidate in clinical supervision, provided that the supervision may only be counted once during the course of 5 years;

(G) college or university coursework related to improving the teacher's knowledge and skills as a teacher as follows:

(i) completing undergraduate or graduate credit earned from a regionally accredited institution in coursework relevant to the certificate area being renewed, including coursework that incorporates induction activities and development of a portfolio of both student and teacher work that provides experience in reflective practices, provided the coursework meets Illinois Professional Teaching Standards or Illinois Content Area Standards and supports the essential characteristics of quality professional development; or

(ii) teaching college or university courses in areas relevant to the certificate area being renewed, provided that the teaching may only be counted once during the course of 5 years;

(H) conferences, workshops, institutes, seminars, and symposiums related to improving the teacher's knowledge and skills as a teacher, subject to disapproval of the activity or event by the State Teacher Certification Board acting jointly with the State Board of Education, including the following:

(i) completing non-university credit directly related to student achievement, school improvement plans, or State priorities;

(ii) participating in or presenting at workshops, seminars, conferences, institutes, and symposiums;

(iii) training as external reviewers for Quality Assurance; or

(iv) training as reviewers of university teacher preparation programs.

A teacher, however, may not receive credit for conferences, workshops, institutes, seminars, or symposiums that are designed for entertainment, promotional, or commercial purposes or that are solely inspirational or motivational. The State Superintendent of Education and regional superintendents of schools are authorized to review the activities and events provided or to be provided under this subdivision (H) and to investigate complaints regarding those activities and events, and either the State Superintendent of Education or a regional superintendent of schools may recommend that the State Teacher Certification Board and the State Board of Education jointly disapprove those activities and events considered to be inconsistent with this subdivision (H);

(I) other educational experiences related to improving the teacher's knowledge and skills as a teacher, including the following:

(i) participating in action research and inquiry projects;

(ii) observing programs or teaching in schools, related businesses, or industry that is systematic, purposeful, and relevant to certificate renewal;

(iii) traveling related to one's teaching assignment, directly related to student achievement or school improvement plans and approved by the regional superintendent of schools or his or her designee at least 30 days prior to the travel experience, provided that the traveling shall not include time spent commuting to destinations where the learning experience will occur;

(iv) participating in study groups related to student achievement or school improvement plans;

(v) serving on a statewide education-related committee, including but not limited to the State Teacher Certification Board, State Board of Education strategic agenda teams, or the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities;

(vi) participating in work/learn programs or internships; or

(vii) developing a portfolio of student and teacher work;

(J) professional leadership experiences related to improving the teacher's knowledge and skills as a teacher, including the following:

(i) participating in curriculum development or assessment activities at the school, school district, regional office of education, State, or national level;

(ii) participating in team or department leadership in a school or school district;

(iii) participating on external or internal school or school district review teams;

(iv) publishing educational articles, columns, or books relevant to the certificate area being renewed; or

(v) participating in non-strike related professional association or labor organization service or activities related to professional development;

(K) receipt of a subsequent Illinois certificate or endorsement pursuant to this Article; or

(L) completion of requirements for meeting the Illinois criteria for becoming "highly qualified" (for purposes of the No Child Left Behind Act of 2001, Public Law 107-110) in an additional teaching area; .

(M) successful completion of 4 semester hours of graduate-level coursework on the assessment of one's own performance in relation to the Illinois Teaching Standards, as described in clause (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 21-2 of this Code; or .

(N) successful completion of a minimum of 4 semester hours of graduate-level coursework addressing preparation to meet the requirements for certification by the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards, as described in clause (C) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 21-2 of this Code.

(4) A person must complete the requirements of this subsection (e) before the expiration of his or her Standard Teaching Certificate and must submit assurance to the regional superintendent of schools or, if applicable, a local professional development committee authorized by the regional superintendent to submit recommendations to him or her for this purpose. The statement of assurance shall contain a list of the activities completed, the provider offering each activity, the number of credits earned for each activity, and the purposes to which each activity is attributed. The certificate holder shall maintain the evidence of completion of each activity for at least one certificate renewal cycle. The certificate holder shall affirm under penalty of perjury that he or she has completed the activities listed and will maintain the required evidence of completion. The State Board of Education or the regional superintendent of schools for each region shall conduct random audits of assurance statements and supporting documentation.

(5) (Blank).

(6) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, a school district is authorized to enter into an agreement with the exclusive bargaining representative, if any, to form a local professional development committee (LPDC). The membership and terms of members of the LPDC may be determined by the agreement. Provisions regarding LPDCs contained in a collective bargaining agreement in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly between a school district and the exclusive bargaining representative shall remain in full force and effect for the term of the agreement, unless terminated by mutual agreement. The LPDC shall make recommendations to the regional superintendent of schools on renewal of teaching certificates. The regional superintendent of schools for each region shall perform the following functions:

(1) review recommendations for certificate renewal, if any, received from LPDCs;

(2) (blank);

(3) (blank);

(4) (blank);

(5) determine whether certificate holders have met the requirements for certificate renewal and notify certificate holders if the decision is not to renew the certificate;

(6) provide a certificate holder with the opportunity to appeal a recommendation made by a LPDC, if any, not to renew the certificate to the regional professional development review committee;

(7) issue and forward recommendations for renewal or nonrenewal of certificate holders' Standard Teaching Certificates to the State Teacher Certification Board; and

(8) (blank).

(g)(1) Each regional superintendent of schools shall review and concur or nonconcur with each recommendation for renewal or nonrenewal of a Standard Teaching Certificate he or she receives from a local professional development committee, if any, or, if a certificate holder appeals the recommendation to the regional professional development review committee, the recommendation for renewal or nonrenewal he or she receives from a regional professional development review committee and, within 14 days of receipt of the recommendation, shall provide the State Teacher Certification Board with verification of the following, if applicable:

(A) the certificate holder has satisfactorily completed professional development and continuing education activities set forth in paragraph (3) of subsection (e) of this Section;

(B) the certificate holder has submitted the statement of assurance required under paragraph (4) of subsection (e) of this Section, and this statement has been attached to the application for renewal;

(C) the local professional development committee, if any, has recommended the renewal of the certificate holder's Standard Teaching Certificate and forwarded the recommendation to the regional superintendent of schools;

(D) the certificate holder has appealed his or her local professional development committee's recommendation of nonrenewal, if any, to the regional professional development review committee and the result of that appeal;

(E) the regional superintendent of schools has concurred or nonconcurred with the local professional development committee's or regional professional development review committee's recommendation, if any, to renew or nonrenew the certificate holder's Standard Teaching Certificate and made a recommendation to that effect; and

(F) the established registration fee for the Standard Teaching Certificate has been paid.

If the notice required by this subsection (g) includes a recommendation of certificate nonrenewal, then, at the same time the regional superintendent of schools provides the State Teacher Certification Board with the notice, he or she shall also notify the certificate holder in writing, by certified mail, return receipt requested, that this notice has been provided to the State Teacher Certification Board.

(2) Each certificate holder shall have the right to appeal his or her local professional development committee's recommendation of nonrenewal, if any, to the regional professional development review committee, within 14 days of receipt of notice that the recommendation has been sent to the regional superintendent of schools. Each regional superintendent of schools shall establish a regional professional development review committee or committees for the purpose of advising the regional superintendent of schools, upon request, and handling certificate holder appeals. This committee shall consist of at least 4 classroom teachers, one non-administrative certificated educational employee, 2 administrators, and one at-large member who shall be either (i) a parent, (ii) a member of the business community, (iii) a community member, or (iv) an administrator, with preference given to an individual chosen from among those persons listed in items (i), (ii), and (iii) in order to secure representation of an interest not already represented on the committee. The teacher and non-administrative certificated educational employee members of the review committee shall be selected by their exclusive representative, if any, and the administrators and at-large member shall be selected by the regional superintendent of schools. A regional superintendent of schools may add additional members to the committee, provided that the same proportion of teachers to administrators and at-large members on the committee is maintained. Any additional teacher and non-administrative certificated educational employee members shall be selected by their exclusive representative, if any. Vacancies in positions on a regional professional development review committee shall be filled in the same manner as the original selections. Committee members shall serve staggered 3-year terms. All individuals selected to serve on regional professional development review committees must be known to demonstrate the best practices in teaching or their respective field of practice.

(h)(1) The State Teacher Certification Board shall review the regional superintendent of schools' recommendations to renew or nonrenew Standard Teaching Certificates and notify certificate holders in writing whether their certificates have been renewed or nonrenewed within 90 days of receipt of the recommendations, unless a certificate holder has appealed a regional superintendent of schools' recommendation of nonrenewal, as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (h). The State Teacher Certification Board shall verify that the certificate holder has met the renewal criteria set forth in paragraph (1) of subsection (g) of this Section.

(2) Each certificate holder shall have the right to appeal a regional superintendent of school's recommendation to nonrenew his or her Standard Teaching Certificate to the State Teacher Certification Board, within 14 days of receipt of notice that the decision has been sent to the State Teacher Certification Board, which shall hold an appeal hearing within 60 days of receipt of the appeal. When such an appeal is taken, the certificate holder's Standard Teaching Certificate shall continue to be valid until the appeal is finally determined. The State Teacher Certification Board shall review the regional superintendent of school's recommendation, the regional professional development review committee's recommendation, if any, and the local professional development committee's recommendation, if any, and all relevant documentation to verify whether the certificate holder has met the renewal criteria set forth in paragraph (1) of subsection (g) of this Section. The State Teacher Certification Board may request that the certificate holder appear before it. All actions taken by the State Teacher Certification Board shall require a quorum and be by a simple majority of those present and voting. A record of all votes shall be maintained. The State Teacher Certification Board shall notify the certificate holder in writing, within 7 days of completing the review, whether his or her Standard Teaching Certificate has been renewed or nonrenewed, provided that if the State Teacher Certification Board determines to nonrenew a certificate, the written notice provided to the certificate holder shall be by certified mail, return receipt requested. All certificate renewal or nonrenewal decisions of the State Teacher Certification Board are final and subject to administrative review, as set forth in Section 21-24 of this Code.

(i) Holders of Master Teaching Certificates shall meet the same requirements and follow the same procedures as holders of Standard Teaching Certificates, except that their renewal cycle shall be as set forth in subsection (d) of Section 21-2 of this Code and their renewal requirements shall be subject to paragraph (8) of subsection (c) of Section 21-2 of this Code.

A holder of a teaching certificate endorsed as a speech-language pathologist who has been granted the Certificate of Clinical Competence by the American Speech-Language Hearing Association may renew his or her Standard Teaching Certificate pursuant to the 10-year renewal cycle set forth in subsection (d) of Section 21-2 of this Code.

(j) Holders of Valid and Exempt Standard and Master Teaching Certificates who are not employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, in a certificated teaching position, may voluntarily activate their certificates through the regional superintendent of schools of the regional office of education for the geographic area where their teaching is done. These certificate holders shall follow the same renewal criteria and procedures as all other Standard and Master Teaching Certificate holders, except that their continuing professional development activities need not reflect or address the knowledge, skills, and goals of a local school improvement plan.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that affect renewal of Standard and Master Certificates shall apply to those persons who hold Standard or Master Certificates on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and shall be given effect upon renewal of those certificates.

(Source: P.A. 92-510, eff. 6-1-02; 92-796, eff. 8-10-02; 93-81, eff. 7-2-03; 93-679, eff. 6-30-04; revised 9-20-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-35)

Sec. 22-35. Sharing information on school lunch applicants; consent. Before an entity shares with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on an applicant for free or reduced-price lunches under Section 2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of this Code or Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act, that entity must obtain, in writing, the consent of the applicant's parent or legal guardian. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may not seek any punitive action against or withhold any benefit or subsidy from an applicant for a free or reduced-price lunch due to the applicant's parent or legal guardian withholding consent.

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-6) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-6)

Sec. 27-6. Courses in physical education required; special activities.

(a) Pupils enrolled in the public schools and State universities engaged in preparing teachers shall be required to engage daily during the school day, except on block scheduled days for those public schools engaged in block scheduling, in courses of physical education for such periods as are compatible with the optimum growth and developmental needs of individuals at the various age levels except when appropriate excuses are submitted to the school by a pupil's parent or guardian or by a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section.

Special activities in physical education shall be provided for pupils whose physical or emotional condition, as determined by a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, prevents their participation in the courses provided for normal children.

(b) A school board is authorized to excuse pupils enrolled in grades 11 and 12 from engaging in physical education courses if those pupils request to be excused for any of the following reasons: (1) for ongoing participation in an interscholastic athletic program; (2) to enroll in academic classes which are required for admission to an institution of higher learning, provided that failure to take such classes will result in the pupil being denied admission to the institution of his or her choice; or (3) to enroll in academic classes which are required for graduation from high school, provided that failure to take such classes will result in the pupil being unable to graduate. A school board may also excuse pupils in grades 9 through 12 enrolled in a marching band program for credit from engaging in physical education courses if those pupils request to be excused for ongoing participation in such marching band program. In addition, a school board may excuse pupils in grades 9 through 12 if those pupils must utilize the time set aside for physical education to receive special education support and services. A school board may also excuse pupils in grades 9 through 12 enrolled in a Reserve Officer's Training Corps (ROTC) program sponsored by the school district from engaging in physical education courses. School boards which choose to exercise this authority shall establish a policy to excuse pupils on an individual basis.

(c) The provisions of this Section are subject to the provisions of Section 27-22.05.

(Source: P.A. 94-189, eff. 7-12-05; 94-198, eff. 1-1-06; 94-200, eff. 7-12-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the fifth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including vision examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo vision examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include the collection of data relating to obesity, (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice nurses who have a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes them to perform health examinations, or physician assistants who have been delegated the performance of health examinations by their supervising physician shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or licensed optometrists, shall perform all vision exams required by school authorities and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the vision exam. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination or dental examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to obesity, (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations.

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section. This reported information shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year shall be withheld by the regional superintendent until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health or dental examinations or any part thereof, or to immunizations, on religious grounds shall not be required to submit their children or wards to the examinations or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed statement of objection, detailing the grounds for the objection. If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form. Exempting a child from the health or dental examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 92-703, eff. 7-19-02; 93-504, eff. 1-1-04; 93-530, eff. 1-1-04; 93-946, eff. 7-1-05; 93-966, eff. 1-1-05; revised 12-1-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-20.6)

Sec. 27-20.6. "Irish Famine" study. Every public elementary school and high school may include in its curriculum a unit of instruction studying the causes and effects of mass starvation in mid-19th century Ireland. This period in world history is known as the "Irish Famine", in which millions of Irish died or emigrated. The study of this material is a reaffirmation of the commitment of free people of all nations to eradicate the causes of famine that exist in the modern world.

The State Superintendent of Education may prepare and make available to all school boards instructional materials that may be used as guidelines for development of a unit of instruction under this Section; provided, however, that each school board shall itself determine the minimum amount of instruction time that shall qualify as a unit of instruction satisfying the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-566, eff. 1-2-98; revised 9-21-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.5)

Sec. 27-23.5. Organ/tissue and blood donor and transplantation programs. Each school district that maintains grades 9 and 10 may include in its curriculum and teach to the students of either such grade one unit of instruction on organ/tissue and blood donor and transplantation programs. No student shall be required to take or participate in instruction on organ/tissue and blood donor and transplantation programs if a parent or guardian files written objection thereto on constitutional grounds, and refusal to take or participate in such instruction on those grounds shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of a student or result in any academic penalty.

The regional superintendent of schools in which a school district that maintains grades 9 and 10 is located shall obtain and distribute to each school that maintains grades 9 and 10 in his or her district information and data, including instructional materials provided at no cost by America's Blood Centers, the American Red Cross, and Gift of Hope, that may be used by the school in developing a unit of instruction under this Section. However, each school board shall determine the minimum amount of instructional time that shall qualify as a unit of instruction satisfying the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-547, eff. 8-19-03; 93-794, eff. 7-22-04; revised 10-22-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-24.4) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-24.4)

Sec. 27-24.4. Reimbursement amount. Each school district shall be entitled to reimbursement, for each pupil, excluding each resident of the district over age 55, who finishes either the classroom instruction part or the practice driving part of a driver education course that meets the minimum requirements of this Act. However, if a school district has adopted a policy to permit proficiency examinations for the practice driving part of the driver education course as provided under Section 27-24.3, then the school district is entitled to only one-half of the reimbursement amount for the practice driving part for each pupil who has passed the proficiency examination, and the State Board of Education shall adjust the reimbursement formula accordingly. Reimbursement under this Act is payable from the Drivers Education Fund in the State treasury.

Each year all funds appropriated from the Drivers Driver Education Fund to the State Board of Education, with the exception of those funds necessary for administrative purposes of the State Board of Education, shall be distributed in the manner provided in this paragraph to school districts by the State Board of Education for reimbursement of claims from the previous school year. As soon as may be after each quarter of the year, if moneys are available in the Drivers Driver Education Fund in the State treasury for payments under this Section, the State Comptroller shall draw his or her warrants upon the State Treasurer as directed by the State Board of Education. The warrant for each quarter shall be in an amount equal to one-fourth of the total amount to be distributed to school districts for the year. Payments shall be made to school districts as soon as may be after receipt of the warrants.

The base reimbursement amount shall be calculated by the State Board by dividing the total amount appropriated for distribution by the total of: (a) the number of students, excluding residents of the district over age 55, who have completed the classroom instruction part for whom valid claims have been made times 0.2; plus (b) the number of students, excluding residents of the district over age 55, who have completed the practice driving instruction part for whom valid claims have been made times 0.8.

The amount of reimbursement to be distributed on each claim shall be 0.2 times the base reimbursement amount for each validly claimed student, excluding residents of the district over age 55, who has completed the classroom instruction part, plus 0.8 times the base reimbursement amount for each validly claimed student, excluding residents of the district over age 55, who has completed the practice driving instruction part. The school district which is the residence of a pupil who attends a nonpublic school in another district that has furnished the driver education course shall reimburse the district offering the course, the difference between the actual per capita cost of giving the course the previous school year and the amount reimbursed by the State.

By April 1 the nonpublic school shall notify the district offering the course of the names and district numbers of the nonresident students desiring to take such course the next school year. The district offering such course shall notify the district of residence of those students affected by April 15. The school district furnishing the course may claim the nonresident pupil for the purpose of making a claim for State reimbursement under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-440, eff. 8-4-05; 94-525, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-8.1)

Sec. 34-8.1. Principals. Principals shall be employed to supervise the operation of each attendance center. Their powers and duties shall include but not be limited to the authority (i) to direct, supervise, evaluate, and suspend with or without pay or otherwise discipline all teachers, assistant principals, and other employees assigned to the attendance center in accordance with board rules and policies and (ii) to direct all other persons assigned to the attendance center pursuant to a contract with a third party to provide services to the school system. The right to employ, discharge, and layoff shall be vested solely with the board, provided that decisions to discharge or suspend non-certified employees, including disciplinary layoffs, and the termination of certified employees from employment pursuant to a layoff or reassignment policy are subject to review under the grievance resolution procedure adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 10 of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. The grievance resolution procedure adopted by the board shall provide for final and binding arbitration, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the arbitrator's decision may include all make-whole relief, including without limitation reinstatement. The principal shall fill positions by appointment as provided in this Section and may make recommendations to the board regarding the employment, discharge, or layoff of any individual. The authority of the principal shall include the authority to direct the hours during which the attendance center shall be open and available for use provided the use complies with board rules and policies, to determine when and what operations shall be conducted within those hours, and to schedule staff within those hours. Under the direction of, and subject to the authority of the principal, the Engineer In Charge shall be accountable for the safe, economical operation of the plant and grounds and shall also be responsible for orientation, training, and supervising the work of Engineers, Trainees, school maintenance assistants, custodial workers and other plant operation employees under his or her direction.

There shall be established by the board a system of semi-annual evaluations conducted by the principal as to performance of the engineer in charge. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the principal from conducting additional evaluations. An overall numerical rating shall be given by the principal based on the evaluation conducted by the principal. An unsatisfactory numerical rating shall result in disciplinary action, which may include, without limitation and in the judgment of the principal, loss of promotion or bidding procedure, reprimand, suspension with or without pay, or recommended dismissal. The board shall establish procedures for conducting the evaluation and reporting the results to the engineer in charge.

Under the direction of, and subject to the authority of, the principal, the Food Service Manager is responsible at all times for the proper operation and maintenance of the lunch room to which he is assigned and shall also be responsible for the orientation, training, and supervising the work of cooks, bakers, porters, and lunchroom attendants under his or her direction.

There shall be established by the Board a system of semi-annual evaluations conducted by the principal as to the performance of the food service manager. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the principal from conducting additional evaluations. An overall numerical rating shall be given by the principal based on the evaluation conducted by the principal. An unsatisfactory numerical rating shall result in disciplinary action which may include, without limitation and in the judgment of the principal, loss of promotion or bidding procedure, reprimand, suspension with or without pay, or recommended dismissal. The board shall establish rules for conducting the evaluation and reporting the results to the food service manager.

Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to require the employment or assignment of an Engineer-In-Charge or a Food Service Manager for each attendance center.

Principals shall be employed to supervise the educational operation of each attendance center. If a principal is absent due to extended illness or leave or absence, an assistant principal may be assigned as acting principal for a period not to exceed 100 school days. Each principal shall assume administrative responsibility and instructional leadership, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations of the board, for the planning, operation and evaluation of the educational program of the attendance center to which he is assigned. The principal shall submit recommendations to the general superintendent concerning the appointment, dismissal, retention, promotion, and assignment of all personnel assigned to the attendance center; provided, that from and after September 1, 1989: (i) if any vacancy occurs in a position at the attendance center or if an additional or new position is created at the attendance center, that position shall be filled by appointment made by the principal in accordance with procedures established and provided by the Board whenever the majority of the duties included in that position are to be performed at the attendance center which is under the principal's supervision, and each such appointment so made by the principal shall be made and based upon merit and ability to perform in that position without regard to seniority or length of service, provided, that such appointments shall be subject to the Board's desegregation obligations, including but not limited to the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan in U.S. v. Chicago Board of Education; (ii) the principal shall submit recommendations based upon merit and ability to perform in the particular position, without regard to seniority or length of service, to the general superintendent concerning the appointment of any teacher, teacher aide, counselor, clerk, hall guard, security guard and any other personnel which is to be made by the general superintendent whenever less than a majority of the duties of that teacher, teacher aide, counselor, clerk, hall guard, and security guard and any other personnel are to be performed at the attendance center which is under the principal's supervision; and (iii) subject to law and the applicable collective bargaining agreements, the authority and responsibilities of a principal with respect to the evaluation of all teachers and other personnel assigned to an attendance center shall commence immediately upon his or her appointment as principal of the attendance center, without regard to the length of time that he or she has been the principal of that attendance center.

Notwithstanding the existence of any other law of this State, nothing in this Act shall prevent the board from entering into a contract with a third party for services currently performed by any employee or bargaining unit member.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, each principal may approve contracts, binding on the board, in the amount of no more than $10,000, if the contract is endorsed by the Local School Council.

Unless otherwise prohibited by law or by rule of the board, the principal shall provide to local school council members copies of all internal audits and any other pertinent information generated by any audits or reviews of the programs and operation of the attendance center.

Each principal shall hold a valid administrative certificate issued or exchanged in accordance with Article 21 and endorsed as required by that Article for the position of principal. The board may establish or impose academic, educational, examination, and experience requirements and criteria that are in addition to those established and required by Article 21 for issuance of a valid certificate endorsed for the position of principal as a condition of the nomination, selection, appointment, employment, or continued employment of a person as principal of any attendance center, or as a condition of the renewal of any principal's performance contract.

The board shall specify in its formal job description for principals, and from and after July 1, 1990 shall specify in the 4 year performance contracts for use with respect to all principals, that his or her primary responsibility is in the improvement of instruction. A majority of the time spent by a principal shall be spent on curriculum and staff development through both formal and informal activities, establishing clear lines of communication regarding school goals, accomplishments, practices and policies with parents and teachers. The principal, with the assistance of the local school council, shall develop a school improvement plan as provided in Section 34-2.4 and, upon approval of the plan by the local school council, shall be responsible for directing implementation of the plan. The principal, with the assistance of the professional personnel leadership committee, shall develop the specific methods and contents of the school's curriculum within the board's system-wide curriculum standards and objectives and the requirements of the school improvement plan. The board shall ensure that all principals are evaluated on their instructional leadership ability and their ability to maintain a positive education and learning climate. It shall also be the responsibility of the principal to utilize resources of proper law enforcement agencies when the safety and welfare of students and teachers are threatened by illegal use of drugs and alcohol, by illegal use or possession of weapons, or by illegal gang activity.

On or before October 1, 1989, the Board of Education, in consultation with any professional organization representing principals in the district, shall promulgate rules and implement a lottery for the purpose of determining whether a principal's existing performance contract (including the performance contract applicable to any principal's position in which a vacancy then exists) expires on June 30, 1990 or on June 30, 1991, and whether the ensuing 4 year performance contract begins on July 1, 1990 or July 1, 1991. The Board of Education shall establish and conduct the lottery in such manner that of all the performance contracts of principals (including the performance contracts applicable to all principal positions in which a vacancy then exists), 50% of such contracts shall expire on June 30, 1990, and 50% shall expire on June 30, 1991. All persons serving as principal on May 1, 1989, and all persons appointed as principal after May 1, 1989 and prior to July 1, 1990 or July 1, 1991, in a manner other than as provided by Section 34-2.3, shall be deemed by operation of law to be serving under a performance contract which expires on June 30, 1990 or June 30, 1991; and unless such performance contract of any such principal is renewed (or such person is again appointed to serve as principal) in the manner provided by Section 34-2.2 or 34-2.3, the employment of such person as principal shall terminate on June 30, 1990 or June 30, 1991.

Commencing on July 1, 1990, or on July 1, 1991, and thereafter, the principal of each attendance center shall be the person selected in the manner provided by Section 34-2.3 to serve as principal of that attendance center under a 4 year performance contract. All performance contracts of principals expiring after July 1, 1990, or July 1, 1991, shall commence on the date specified in the contract, and the renewal of their performance contracts and the appointment of principals when their performance contracts are not renewed shall be governed by Sections 34-2.2 and 34-2.3. Whenever a vacancy in the office of a principal occurs for any reason, the vacancy shall be filled by the selection of a new principal to serve under a 4 year performance contract in the manner provided by Section 34-2.3.

The board of education shall develop and prepare, in consultation with the organization representing principals, a performance contract for use at all attendance centers, and shall furnish the same to each local school council. The term of the performance contract shall be 4 years, unless the principal is retained by the decision of a hearing officer pursuant to subdivision 1.5 of Section 34-2.3, in which case the contract shall be extended for 2 years. The performance contract of each principal shall consist of the uniform performance contract, as developed or from time to time modified by the board, and such additional criteria as are established by a local school council pursuant to Section 34-2.3 for the performance contract of its principal.

During the term of his or her performance contract, a principal may be removed only as provided for in the performance contract except for cause. He or she shall also be obliged to follow the rules of the board of education concerning conduct and efficiency.

In the event the performance contract of a principal is not renewed or a principal is not reappointed as principal under a new performance contract, or in the event a principal is appointed to any position of superintendent or higher position, or voluntarily resigns his position of principal, his or her employment as a principal shall terminate and such former principal shall not be reinstated to the position from which he or she was promoted to principal, except that he or she, if otherwise qualified and certified in accordance with Article 21, shall be placed by the board on appropriate eligibility lists which it prepares for use in the filling of vacant or additional or newly created positions for teachers. The principal's total years of service to the board as both a teacher and a principal, or in other professional capacities, shall be used in calculating years of experience for purposes of being selected as a teacher into new, additional or vacant positions.

In the event the performance contract of a principal is not renewed or a principal is not reappointed as principal under a new performance contract, such principal shall be eligible to continue to receive his or her previously provided level of health insurance benefits for a period of 90 days following the non-renewal of the contract at no expense to the principal, provided that such principal has not retired.

(Source: P.A. 93-3, eff. 4-16-03; 93-48, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.5) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18.5)

Sec. 34-18.5. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Certified and noncertified applicants for employment with the school district are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, or a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Department of State Police, to the Department. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Department of State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Department shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse the school district and regional superintendent for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board of education or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the board of education for the school district, the presidents of the appropriate board of education or school boards if the check was requested from the Department of State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Teacher Certification Board or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Department of State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database as a sex offender. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Department of State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database as a sex offender, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Department of State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database as a sex offender. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Department of State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database as provided in subsection (a). Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions of an applicant for employment shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(c) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been convicted for committing attempted first degree murder or for committing or attempting to commit first degree murder or a Class X felony or any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those defined in Sections 11-6, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-21, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those defined in the Cannabis Control Act, except those defined in Sections 4(a), 4(b) and 5(a) of that Act; (iii) those defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Further, the board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(d) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check has not been initiated.

(e) Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any certificate issued pursuant to Article 21 or Section 34-8.1 or 34-83 of the School Code, the board of education or the State Superintendent of Education shall initiate the certificate suspension and revocation proceedings authorized by law.

(f) After March 19, 1990, the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Department of State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(Source: P.A. 93-418, eff. 1-1-04; 93-909, eff. 8-12-04; 94-219, eff. 7-14-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-875, eff. 7-1-06; 94-945, eff. 6-27-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.23)

Sec. 34-18.23. Medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians. The school district is encouraged to create and use an emergency medical information form for bus drivers and emergency medical technicians for those students with special needs or medical conditions. The form may include without limitation information to be provided by the student's parent or legal guardian concerning the student's relevant medical conditions, medications that the student is taking, the student's communication skills, and how a bus driver or an emergency medical technician is to respond to certain behaviors of the student. If the form is used, the school district is encouraged to notify parents and legal guardians of the availability of the form. The parent or legal guardian of the student may fill out the form and submit it to the school that the student is attending. The school district is encouraged to keep one copy of the form on file at the school and another copy on the student's school bus in a secure location.

(Source: P.A. 92-580, eff. 7-1-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.25)

Sec. 34-18.25 34-18.23. Psychotropic or psychostimulant medication; disciplinary action.

(a) In this Section:

"Psychostimulant medication" means medication that produces increased levels of mental and physical energy and alertness and an elevated mood by stimulating the central nervous system.

"Psychotropic medication" means psychotropic medication as defined in Section 1-121.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(b) The board must adopt and implement a policy that prohibits any disciplinary action that is based totally or in part on the refusal of a student's parent or guardian to administer or consent to the administration of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication to the student.

The policy must require that, at least once every 2 years, the in-service training of certified school personnel and administrators include training on current best practices regarding the identification and treatment of attention deficit disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, the application of non-aversive behavioral interventions in the school environment, and the use of psychotropic or psychostimulant medication for school-age children.

(c) This Section does not prohibit school medical staff, an individualized educational program team, or a professional worker (as defined in Section 14-1.10 of this Code) from recommending that a student be evaluated by an appropriate medical practitioner or prohibit school personnel from consulting with the practitioner with the consent of the student's parents or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 92-663, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-3-02.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.26)

Sec. 34-18.26. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. The board shall, whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. The board shall, whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), require each of its schools to agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii).

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.27)

Sec. 34-18.27 34-18.26. Summer kindergarten. The board may establish, maintain, and operate, in connection with the kindergarten program of the school district, a summer kindergarten program that begins 2 months before the beginning of the regular school year and a summer kindergarten program for grade one readiness for those pupils making unsatisfactory progress during the regular kindergarten session that will continue for 2 months after the regular school year. The summer kindergarten program may be held within the school district or, pursuant to a contract that must be approved by the State Board of Education, may be operated by 2 or more adjacent school districts or by a public or private university or college. Transportation for students attending the summer kindergarten program shall be the responsibility of the school district. The expense of establishing, maintaining, and operating the summer kindergarten program may be paid from funds contributed or otherwise made available to the school district for that purpose by federal or State appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 93-472, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.28)

Sec. 34-18.28 34-18.26. Prison tour pilot program. The board shall establish a pilot program to prevent crime by developing guidelines to identify students at risk of committing crimes. "Students at risk of committing crimes" shall be limited to those students who have engaged in serious acts of misconduct in violation of the board's policy on discipline. This program, in cooperation with the Department of Corrections, shall include a guided tour of a prison for each student so identified in order to discourage criminal behavior. The touring of a prison under this Section shall be subject to approval, in writing, of a student's parent or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 93-538, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.29)

Sec. 34-18.29 34-18.26. Provision of student information prohibited. The school district may not provide a student's name, address, telephone number, social security number, e-mail address, or other personal identifying information to a business organization or financial institution that issues credit or debit cards.

(Source: P.A. 93-549, eff. 8-19-03; revised 9-24-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.30)

Sec. 34-18.30. Dependents of military personnel; no tuition charge. If, at the time of enrollment, a dependent of United States military personnel is housed in temporary housing located outside of the school district, but will be living within the district within 60 days after the time of initial enrollment, the dependent must be allowed to enroll, subject to the requirements of this Section, and must not be charged tuition. Any United States military personnel attempting to enroll a dependent under this Section shall provide proof that the dependent will be living within the district within 60 days after the time of initial enrollment. Proof of residency may include, but is not limited to, postmarked mail addressed to the military personnel and sent to an address located within the district, a lease agreement for occupancy of a residence located within the district, or proof of ownership of a residence located within the district. Non-resident dependents of United States military personnel attending school on a tuition-free basis may be counted for the purposes of determining the apportionment of State aid provided under Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-740, eff. 7-15-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.31)

Sec. 34-18.31 34-18.30. Highly qualified teachers; No Child Left Behind Act funds. If the school district has an overall shortage of highly qualified teachers, as defined by the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (Public Law 107-110), or a shortage of highly qualified teachers in the subject area of mathematics, science, reading, or special education, then the school board must spend at least 40% of the money it receives from Title 2 grants under the Act on recruitment and retention initiatives to assist in recruiting and retaining highly qualified teachers (in a specific subject area is applicable) as specified in paragraphs (1)(B), (2)(A), (2)(B), (4)(A), (4)(B), and (4)(C) of subsection (a) of Section 2123 of the Act until there is no longer a shortage of highly qualified teachers (in a specific subject area if applicable). As the number of highly qualified teachers in the district increases, however, the school board may spend any surplus of the minimum 40% of funds dedicated to addressing the highly qualified teacher shortage in any manner the school board deems appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 93-997, eff. 8-23-04; revised 10-14-04.)

Section 545. The Illinois School Student Records Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(105 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-6)

Sec. 6. (a) No school student records or information contained therein may be released, transferred, disclosed or otherwise disseminated, except as follows:

(1) To a parent or student or person specifically designated as a representative by a parent, as provided in paragraph (a) of Section 5;

(2) To an employee or official of the school or school district or State Board with current demonstrable educational or administrative interest in the student, in furtherance of such interest;

(3) To the official records custodian of another school within Illinois or an official with similar responsibilities of a school outside Illinois, in which the student has enrolled, or intends to enroll, upon the request of such official or student;

(4) To any person for the purpose of research, statistical reporting or planning, provided that no student or parent can be identified from the information released and the person to whom the information is released signs an affidavit agreeing to comply with all applicable statutes and rules pertaining to school student records;

(5) Pursuant to a court order, provided that the parent shall be given prompt written notice upon receipt of such order of the terms of the order, the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released in compliance with such order and an opportunity to inspect and copy the school student records and to challenge their contents pursuant to Section 7;

(6) To any person as specifically required by State or federal law;

(6.5) To juvenile authorities when necessary for the discharge of their official duties who request information prior to adjudication of the student and who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court. For purposes of this Section "juvenile authorities" means: (i) a judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge; (ii) parties to the proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and their attorneys; (iii) probation officers and court appointed advocates for the juvenile authorized by the judge hearing the case; (iv) any individual, public or private agency having custody of the child pursuant to court order; (v) any individual, public or private agency providing education, medical or mental health service to the child when the requested information is needed to determine the appropriate service or treatment for the minor; (vi) any potential placement provider when such release is authorized by the court for the limited purpose of determining the appropriateness of the potential placement; (vii) law enforcement officers and prosecutors; (viii) adult and juvenile prisoner review boards; (ix) authorized military personnel; (x) individuals authorized by court;

(7) Subject to regulations of the State Board, in connection with an emergency, to appropriate persons if the knowledge of such information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other persons;

(8) To any person, with the prior specific dated written consent of the parent designating the person to whom the records may be released, provided that at the time any such consent is requested or obtained, the parent shall be advised in writing that he has the right to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5, to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7 and to limit any such consent to designated records or designated portions of the information contained therein;

(9) To a governmental agency, or social service agency contracted by a governmental agency, in furtherance of an investigation of a student's school attendance pursuant to the compulsory student attendance laws of this State, provided that the records are released to the employee or agent designated by the agency;

(10) To those SHOCAP committee members who fall within the meaning of "state and local officials and authorities", as those terms are used within the meaning of the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, for the purposes of identifying serious habitual juvenile offenders and matching those offenders with community resources pursuant to Section 5-145 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act; or

(11) To the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in furtherance of the requirements of Section 2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of the School Code or Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act.

(b) No information may be released pursuant to subparagraphs (3) or (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 unless the parent receives prior written notice of the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released, and an opportunity to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5 and to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7. Provided, however, that such notice shall be sufficient if published in a local newspaper of general circulation or other publication directed generally to the parents involved where the proposed release of information is pursuant to subparagraph 6 of paragraph (a) in this Section 6 and relates to more than 25 students.

(c) A record of any release of information pursuant to this Section must be made and kept as a part of the school student record and subject to the access granted by Section 5. Such record of release shall be maintained for the life of the school student records and shall be available only to the parent and the official records custodian. Each record of release shall also include:

(1) The nature and substance of the information released;

(2) The name and signature of the official records custodian releasing such information;

(3) The name of the person requesting such information, the capacity in which such a request has been made, and the purpose of such request;

(4) The date of the release; and

(5) A copy of any consent to such release.

(d) Except for the student and his parents, no person to whom information is released pursuant to this Section and no person specifically designated as a representative by a parent may permit any other person to have access to such information without a prior consent of the parent obtained in accordance with the requirements of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of this Section.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the publication of student directories which list student names, addresses and other identifying information and similar publications which comply with regulations issued by the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 550. The Illinois Peace Corps Fellowship Program Law is amended by changing Section 2-3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 30/2-3) (from Ch. 122, par. 2003)

Sec. 2-3. Program description. The University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, the several universities and colleges under the governance of the Board of Governors of State Colleges and Universities, and the several Regency Universities under the jurisdiction of the Board of Regents are hereby authorized to become participants in the Illinois Peace Corps Fellowship Program. Any such participating public institution of higher education may conduct and administer this program to augment the number of Illinois public school teachers by bringing the teaching skills of recently returned United States Peace Corps volunteers to those school districts, including the school districts situated within the City of Chicago and the City of East St. Louis or any other school district designated by the State Board of Education, which enter into cooperative agreements required for implementation of the program. In designating such school districts, the State Board of Education may consider districts that have a high proportion of drop-out students, a high percentage of minority students, a high proportion of low income families and high truancy rates. The program shall utilize former United States State Peace Corps volunteers with two years of Peace Corps experience by placing them in the designated cooperating school districts as full time teachers or teacher aides. In return for making a two-year commitment to teaching and being placed in a full-time salaried teacher aide or certificated teaching position at a public school located in a designated cooperating school district, the former Peace Corps volunteer may be awarded a fellowship to the participating public institution of higher education to complete (in the case of teacher aides who are not yet certificated) the courses required for issuance of a teaching certificate under Article 21 of The School Code, or to pursue a master's degree program in education. The fellowships may consist of tuition waivers applicable toward enrollment at the participating public institution of higher education to complete required courses for teacher certification and to pursue a master's degree program in education; and the award of such tuition waivers may be supported by funds and grants made available to the participating university or universities through private or public sources. A participating university may also consider an authorization under which all fellowship recipients are allowed to pay in-state tuition rates while enrolled for credit in a master's degree program.

An annual salary for the fellowship recipient to teach in a designated school district for a period of two years may be provided by the designated cooperating school district at which the fellowship recipient shall teach, and may be set at an amount equal to that paid to other teacher aides and certificated teachers in a comparable position.

(Source: P.A. 86-1467; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 555. The School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(105 ILCS 125/10)

Sec. 10. Sharing information on school lunch applicants. Each private school that receives funds for free or reduced-price lunches under this Act shall, whenever requested by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Public Aid), agree in writing with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid (as the State agency that administers the State Medical Assistance Program as provided in Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the State Children's Health Insurance Program as provided in Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act) to share with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information on applicants for free or reduced-price lunches. This sharing of information shall be for the sole purpose of helping the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid identify and enroll children in the State Medical Assistance Program or the State Children's Health Insurance Program or both as allowed under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(iii)(IV) and under the restrictions set forth in 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1758(b)(2)(C)(vi) and (vii).

(Source: P.A. 93-404, eff. 8-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 560. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Section 2-16.08 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/2-16.08)

Sec. 2-16.08. ICCB Federal Trust Fund. The ICCB Federal Trust Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Money recovered from federal programs for general administration that is are received by the State Board shall be deposited into the ICCB Federal Trust Fund. All money in the ICCB Federal Trust Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, by the State Board for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 93-153, eff. 7-10-03; revised 1-14-04.)

Section 565. The Higher Education Loan Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 3.01, and 5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 945/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms specified in Sections 3.01 through 3.13 of this Act and the Illinois Finance Facilities Authority Act have the meanings ascribed to them in those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(110 ILCS 945/3.01) (from Ch. 144, par. 1603.01)

Sec. 3.01. Authority. "Authority" means the Illinois State Finance Authority created by the Illinois State Finance Authority Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

(110 ILCS 945/5) (from Ch. 144, par. 1605)

Sec. 5. Transfer of functions from the Illinois Educational Facilities Authority to the Illinois Finance Authority. The Illinois Finance Authority created by the Illinois Finance Authority Act shall succeed to, assume and exercise all rights, powers, duties and responsibilities formerly exercised by the Illinois Educational Facilities Authority prior to the abolition of that Authority by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. All books, records, papers, documents and pending business in any way pertaining to the former Illinois Educational Facilities Authority are transferred to the Illinois State Finance Authority, but any rights or obligations of any person under any contract made by, or under any rules, regulations, uniform standards, criteria and guidelines established or approved by, such former Illinois Educational Facilities Authority shall be unaffected thereby. All bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness outstanding on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be unaffected by the transfer of functions to the Illinois Finance Authority. No rule, regulation, standard, criteria or guideline promulgated, established or approved by the former Illinois Educational Facilities Authority pursuant to an exercise of any right, power, duty or responsibility assumed by and transferred to the Illinois Finance Authority shall be affected by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, and all such rules, regulations, standards, criteria and guidelines shall become those of the Illinois Finance Authority until such time as they are amended or repealed by the Authority.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 570. The Nursing Education Scholarship Law is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(110 ILCS 975/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 2753)

Sec. 3. Definitions.

The following terms, whenever used or referred to, have the following meanings except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

(1) "Board" means the Board of Higher Education created by the Board of Higher Education Act.

(2) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(3) "Approved institution" means a public community college, private junior college, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, or public or private college or university located in this State that has approval by the Department of Professional Regulation for an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program.

(4) "Baccalaureate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a bachelor of science degree in nursing.

(5) "Enrollment" means the establishment and maintenance of an individual's status as a student in an approved institution, regardless of the terms used at the institution to describe such status.

(6) "Academic year" means the period of time from September 1 of one year through August 31 of the next year or as otherwise defined by the academic institution.

(7) "Associate degree in nursing program or hospital-based diploma in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to an associate degree in nursing, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing, or hospital-based diploma in nursing.

(8) "Graduate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a master of science degree in nursing or a doctorate of philosophy or doctorate of nursing degree in nursing.

(9) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(10) "Accepted for admission" means a student has completed the requirements for entry into an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program at an approved institution, as documented by the institution.

(11) "Fees" means those mandatory charges, in addition to tuition, that all enrolled students must pay, including required course or lab fees.

(12) "Full-time student" means a student enrolled for at least 12 hours per term or as otherwise determined by the academic institution.

(13) "Law" means the Nursing Education Scholarship Law.

(14) "Nursing employment obligation" means employment in this State as a registered professional nurse or licensed practical nurse in direct patient care or as a nurse educator in the case of a graduate degree in nursing program recipient for at least one year for each year of scholarship assistance received through the Nursing Education Scholarship Program.

(15) "Part-time student" means a person who is enrolled for at least one-third of the number of hours required per term by a school for its full-time students.

(16) "Practical nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution leading to a certificate in practical nursing.

(17) "Registered professional nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered professional nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

(18) "Licensed practical nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a licensed practical nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

(19) "School term" means an academic term, such as a semester, quarter, trimester, or number of clock hours, as defined by an approved institution.

(20) "Student in good standing" means a student maintaining a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least the academic grade of a "C".

(21) "Total and permanent disability" means a physical or mental impairment, disease, or loss of a permanent nature that prevents nursing employment with or without reasonable accommodation. Proof of disability shall be a declaration from the social security administration, Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, Department of Defense, or an insurer authorized to transact business in Illinois who is providing disability insurance coverage to a contractor.

(22) "Tuition" means the established charges of an institution of higher learning for instruction at that institution.

(23) "Nurse educator" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act, who has a graduate degree in nursing, and who is employed by an approved academic institution to educate registered nursing students, licensed practical nursing students, and registered nurses pursuing graduate degrees.

(Source: P.A. 92-43, eff. 1-1-02; 93-721, eff. 1-1-05; 93-879, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-25-04.)

Section 575. The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 7 as follows:

(115 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Educational employer" or "employer" means the governing body of a public school district, combination of public school districts, including the governing body of joint agreements of any type formed by 2 or more school districts, public community college district or State college or university, and any State agency whose major function is providing educational services. "Educational employer" or "employer" does not include a Financial Oversight Panel created pursuant to Section 1A-8 of the School Code due to a district violating a financial plan but does include a School Finance Authority created under Article 1E or 1F of the School Code.

(b) "Educational employee" or "employee" means any individual, excluding supervisors, managerial, confidential, short term employees, student, and part-time academic employees of community colleges employed full or part time by an educational employer, but shall not include elected officials and appointees of the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate, firefighters as defined by subsection (g-1) of Section 3 of the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, and peace officers employed by a State university. For the purposes of this Act, part-time academic employees of community colleges shall be defined as those employees who provide less than 3 credit hours of instruction per academic semester. In this subsection (b), the term "student" includes graduate students who are research assistants primarily performing duties that involve research or graduate assistants primarily performing duties that are pre-professional, but excludes graduate students who are teaching assistants primarily performing duties that involve the delivery and support of instruction and all other graduate assistants.

(c) "Employee organization" or "labor organization" means an organization of any kind in which membership includes educational employees, and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning grievances, employee-employer disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work, but shall not include any organization which practices discrimination in membership because of race, color, creed, age, gender, national origin or political affiliation.

(d) "Exclusive representative" means the labor organization which has been designated by the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board as the representative of the majority of educational employees in an appropriate unit, or recognized by an educational employer prior to January 1, 1984 as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate unit or, after January 1, 1984, recognized by an employer upon evidence that the employee organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate unit.

(e) "Board" means the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board.

(f) "Regional Superintendent" means the regional superintendent of schools provided for in Articles 3 and 3A of The School Code.

(g) "Supervisor" means any individual having authority in the interests of the employer to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, reward or discipline other employees within the appropriate bargaining unit and adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend such action if the exercise of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but requires the use of independent judgment. The term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to such exercising authority.

(h) "Unfair labor practice" or "unfair practice" means any practice prohibited by Section 14 of this Act.

(i) "Person" includes an individual, educational employee, educational employer, legal representative, or employee organization.

(j) "Wages" means salaries or other forms of compensation for services rendered.

(k) "Professional employee" means, in the case of a public community college, State college or university, State agency whose major function is providing educational services, the Illinois School for the Deaf, and the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, (1) any employee engaged in work (i) predominantly intellectual and varied in character as opposed to routine mental, manual, mechanical, or physical work; (ii) involving the consistent exercise of discretion and judgment in its performance; (iii) of such character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and (iv) requiring knowledge of an advanced type in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from an apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or (2) any employee, who (i) has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study described in clause (iv) of paragraph (1) of this subsection, and (ii) is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify himself or herself to become a professional as defined in paragraph (l).

(l) "Professional employee" means, in the case of any public school district, or combination of school districts pursuant to joint agreement, any employee who has a certificate issued under Article 21 or Section 34-83 of the School Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(m) "Unit" or "bargaining unit" means any group of employees for which an exclusive representative is selected.

(n) "Confidential employee" means an employee, who (i) in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who (ii) in the regular course of his or her duties has access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies.

(o) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of such management policies and practices.

(p) "Craft employee" means a skilled journeyman, craft person, and his or her apprentice or helper.

(q) "Short-term employee" is an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable expectation that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year. Nothing in this subsection shall affect the employee status of individuals who were covered by a collective bargaining agreement on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991.

(Source: P.A. 92-547, eff. 6-13-02; 92-748, eff. 1-1-03; 93-314, eff. 1-1-04; 93-501, eff. 8-11-03; 93-1044, eff. 10-14-04; revised 10-25-04.)

(115 ILCS 5/7) (from Ch. 48, par. 1707)

Sec. 7. Recognition of exclusive bargaining representatives - unit determination. The Board is empowered to administer the recognition of bargaining representatives of employees of public school districts, including employees of districts which have entered into joint agreements, or employees of public community college districts, or any State college or university, and any State agency whose major function is providing educational services, making certain that each bargaining unit contains employees with an identifiable community of interest and that no unit includes both professional employees and nonprofessional employees unless a majority of employees in each group vote for inclusion in the unit.

(a) In determining the appropriateness of a unit, the Board shall decide in each case, in order to ensure employees the fullest freedom in exercising the rights guaranteed by this Act, the unit appropriate for the purpose of collective bargaining, based upon but not limited to such factors as historical pattern of recognition, community of interest, including employee skills and functions, degree of functional integration, interchangeability and contact among employees, common supervision, wages, hours and other working conditions of the employees involved, and the desires of the employees. Nothing in this Act, except as herein provided, shall interfere with or negate the current representation rights or patterns and practices of employee organizations which have historically represented employees for the purposes of collective bargaining, including but not limited to the negotiations of wages, hours and working conditions, resolutions of employees' grievances, or resolution of jurisdictional disputes, or the establishment and maintenance of prevailing wage rates, unless a majority of the employees so represented expresses a contrary desire under the procedures set forth in this Act. This Section, however, does not prohibit multi-unit bargaining. Notwithstanding the above factors, where the majority of public employees of a craft so decide, the Board shall designate such craft as a unit appropriate for the purposes of collective bargaining.

The sole appropriate bargaining unit for tenured and tenure-track academic faculty at each campus of the University of Illinois shall be a unit that is comprised of non-supervisory academic faculty employed more than half-time and that includes all tenured and tenure-track faculty of that University campus employed by the board of trustees in all of the campus's undergraduate, graduate, and professional schools and degree and non-degree programs (with the exception of the college of medicine, the college of pharmacy, the college of dentistry, the college of law, and the college of veterinary medicine, each of which shall have its own separate unit), regardless of current or historical representation rights or patterns or the application of any other factors. Any decision, rule, or regulation promulgated by the Board to the contrary shall be null and void.

(b) An educational employer shall voluntarily recognize a labor organization for collective bargaining purposes if that organization appears to represent a majority of employees in the unit. The employer shall post notice of its intent to so recognize for a period of at least 20 school days on bulletin boards or other places used or reserved for employee notices. Thereafter, the employer, if satisfied as to the majority status of the employee organization, shall send written notification of such recognition to the Board for certification. Any dispute regarding the majority status of a labor organization shall be resolved by the Board which shall make the determination of majority status.

Within the 20 day notice period, however, any other interested employee organization may petition the Board to seek recognition as the exclusive representative of the unit in the manner specified by rules and regulations prescribed by the Board, if such interested employee organization has been designated by at least 15% of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit which includes all or some of the employees in the unit intended to be recognized by the employer. In such event, the Board shall proceed with the petition in the same manner as provided in paragraph (c) of this Section.

(c) A labor organization may also gain recognition as the exclusive representative by an election of the employees in the unit. Petitions requesting an election may be filed with the Board:

(1) by an employee or group of employees or any labor organizations acting on their behalf alleging and presenting evidence that 30% or more of the employees in a bargaining unit wish to be represented for collective bargaining or that the labor organization which has been acting as the exclusive bargaining representative is no longer representative of a majority of the employees in the unit; or

(2) by an employer alleging that one or more labor organizations have presented a claim to be recognized as an exclusive bargaining representative of a majority of the employees in an appropriate unit and that it doubts the majority status of any of the organizations or that it doubts the majority status of an exclusive bargaining representative.

The Board shall investigate the petition and if it has reasonable cause to suspect that a question of representation exists, it shall give notice and conduct a hearing. If it finds upon the record of the hearing that a question of representation exists, it shall direct an election, which shall be held no later than 90 days after the date the petition was filed. Nothing prohibits the waiving of hearings by the parties and the conduct of consent elections.

(c-5) The Board shall designate an exclusive representative for purposes of collective bargaining when the representative demonstrates a showing of majority interest by employees in the unit. If the parties to a dispute are without agreement on the means to ascertain the choice, if any, of employee organization as their representative, the Board shall ascertain the employees' choice of employee organization, on the basis of dues deduction authorization and other evidence, or, if necessary, by conducting an election. If either party provides to the Board, before the designation of a representative, clear and convincing evidence that the dues deduction authorizations, and other evidence upon which the Board would otherwise rely to ascertain the employees' choice of representative, are fraudulent or were obtained through coercion, the Board shall promptly thereafter conduct an election. The Board shall also investigate and consider a party's allegations that the dues deduction authorizations and other evidence submitted in support of a designation of representative without an election were subsequently changed, altered, withdrawn, or withheld as a result of employer fraud, coercion, or any other unfair labor practice by the employer. If the Board determines that a labor organization would have had a majority interest but for an employer's fraud, coercion, or unfair labor practice, it shall designate the labor organization as an exclusive representative without conducting an election.

(d) An order of the Board dismissing a representation petition, determining and certifying that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, determining and certifying that a labor organization has not been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in the bargaining unit or certifying a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit because of a determination by the Board that the labor organization is the historical bargaining representative of employees in the bargaining unit, is a final order. Any person aggrieved by any such order issued on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1987 may apply for and obtain judicial review in accordance with provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, except that such review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court of a judicial district in which the Board maintains an office. Any direct appeal to the Appellate Court shall be filed within 35 days from the date that a copy of the decision sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the decision.

No election may be conducted in any bargaining unit during the term of a collective bargaining agreement covering such unit or subdivision thereof, except the Board may direct an election after the filing of a petition between January 15 and March 1 of the final year of a collective bargaining agreement. Nothing in this Section prohibits the negotiation of a collective bargaining agreement covering a period not exceeding 3 years. A collective bargaining agreement of less than 3 years may be extended up to 3 years by the parties if the extension is agreed to in writing before the filing of a petition under this Section. In such case, the final year of the extension is the final year of the collective bargaining agreement. No election may be conducted in a bargaining unit, or subdivision thereof, in which a valid election has been held within the preceding 12 month period.

(Source: P.A. 93-444, eff. 8-5-03; 93-445, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-03.)

Section 580. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Section 48.4 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/48.4)

Sec. 48.4. Enforcement of child support.

(a) Any bank governed by this Act shall encumber or surrender accounts or assets held by the bank on behalf of any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien or levy from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) Within 90 days after receiving notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) that the Department has adopted a child support enforcement debit authorization form as required under the Illinois Public Aid Code, each bank governed by this Act shall take all appropriate steps to implement the use of the form in relation to accounts held by the bank. Upon receiving from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) a copy of a child support enforcement debit authorization form signed by an obligor, a bank holding an account on behalf of the obligor shall debit the account and transfer the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit according to the instructions in the child support enforcement debit authorization form.

(Source: P.A. 92-811, eff. 8-21-02; 93-736, eff. 7-14-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 585. The Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 1-6d and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-6e as follows:

(205 ILCS 105/1-6d)

Sec. 1-6d. Enforcement of child support.

(a) Any association governed by this Act shall encumber or surrender accounts or assets held by the association on behalf of any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien or levy from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) Within 90 days after receiving notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) that the Department has adopted a child support enforcement debit authorization form as required under the Illinois Public Aid Code, each association governed by this Act shall take all appropriate steps to implement the use of the form in relation to accounts held by the association. Upon receiving from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) a copy of a child support enforcement debit authorization form signed by an obligor, an association holding an account on behalf of the obligor shall debit the account and transfer the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit according to the instructions in the child support enforcement debit authorization form.

(Source: P.A. 92-811, eff. 8-21-02; 93-736, eff. 7-14-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(205 ILCS 105/1-6e)

Sec. 1-6e. Reverse mortgage; disclosure. At the time a reverse mortgage loan is made, the lender must provide to the mortgagor a separate document that informs the mortgagor that by obtaining the reverse mortgage the mortgagor's eligibility to obtain a tax deferral under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act may be adversely affected. The mortgagor must sign the disclosure document as part of the reverse mortgage transaction.

(Source: P.A. 92-577, eff. 6-26-02.)

(205 ILCS 105/1-6f)

Sec. 1-6f 1-6e. Non-English language transactions. An association may conduct transactions in a language other than English through an employee or agent acting as interpreter or through an interpreter provided by the customer.

(Source: P.A. 92-578, eff. 6-26-02; revised 9-3-02.)

Section 590. The Savings Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7007 as follows:

(205 ILCS 205/7007)

Sec. 7007. Enforcement of child support.

(a) Any savings bank governed by this Act shall encumber or surrender accounts or assets held by the savings bank on behalf of any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien or levy from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) Within 90 days after receiving notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) that the Department has adopted a child support enforcement debit authorization form as required under the Illinois Public Aid Code, each savings bank governed by this Act shall take all appropriate steps to implement the use of the form in relation to accounts held by the savings bank. Upon receiving from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) a copy of a child support enforcement debit authorization form signed by an obligor, a savings bank holding an account on behalf of the obligor shall debit the account and transfer the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit according to the instructions in the child support enforcement debit authorization form.

(Source: P.A. 92-811, eff. 8-21-02; 93-736, eff. 7-14-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 595. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Section 43.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/43.1)

Sec. 43.1. Enforcement of child support.

(a) Any credit union governed by this Act shall encumber or surrender accounts or assets held by the credit union on behalf of any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) Within 90 days after receiving notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) that the Department has adopted a child support enforcement debit authorization form as required under the Illinois Public Aid Code, each credit union governed by this Act shall take all appropriate steps to implement the use of the form in relation to accounts held by the credit union. Upon receiving from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) a copy of a child support enforcement debit authorization form signed by an obligor, a credit union holding an account on behalf of the obligor shall debit the account and transfer the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit according to the instructions in the child support enforcement debit authorization form.

(Source: P.A. 93-736, eff. 7-14-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 600. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 2-4 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/2-4) (from Ch. 17, par. 2322-4)

Sec. 2-4. Averments of Licensee. Each application for license or for the renewal of a license shall be accompanied by the following averments stating that the applicant:

(a) Will maintain at least one full service office within the State of Illinois pursuant to Section 3-4 of this Act;

(b) Will maintain staff reasonably adequate to meet the requirements of Section 3-4 of this Act;

(c) Will keep and maintain for 36 months the same written records as required by the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act, and any other information required by regulations of the Commissioner regarding any home mortgage in the course of the conduct of its residential mortgage business;

(d) Will file with the Commissioner, when due, any report or reports which it is required to file under any of the provisions of this Act;

(e) Will not engage, whether as principal or agent, in the practice of rejecting residential mortgage applications without reasonable cause, or varying terms or application procedures without reasonable cause, for home mortgages on real estate within any specific geographic area from the terms or procedures generally provided by the licensee within other geographic areas of the State;

(f) Will not engage in fraudulent home mortgage underwriting practices;

(g) Will not make payment, whether directly or indirectly, of any kind to any in house or fee appraiser of any government or private money lending agency with which an application for a home mortgage has been filed for the purpose of influencing the independent judgment of the appraiser with respect to the value of any real estate which is to be covered by such home mortgage;

(h) Has filed tax returns (State and Federal) for the past 3 years or filed with the Commissioner an accountant's or attorney's statement as to why no return was filed;

(i) Will not engage in any discrimination or redlining activities prohibited by Section 3-8 of this Act;

(j) Will not knowingly make any false promises likely to influence or persuade, or pursue a course of misrepresentation and false promises through agents, solicitors, advertising or otherwise;

(k) Will not knowingly misrepresent, circumvent or conceal, through whatever subterfuge or device, any of the material particulars or the nature thereof, regarding a transaction to which it is a party to the injury of another party thereto;

(l) Will disburse funds in accordance with its agreements;

(m) Has not committed a crime against the law of this State, any other state or of the United States, involving moral turpitude, fraudulent or dishonest dealing, and that no final judgment has been entered against it in a civil action upon grounds of fraud, misrepresentation or deceit which has not been previously reported to the Commissioner;

(n) Will account or deliver to any person any personal property such as money, fund, deposit, check, draft, mortgage, other document or thing of value, which has come into its possession, and which is not its property, or which it is not in law or equity entitled to retain under the circumstances, at the time which has been agreed upon or is required by law, or, in the absence of a fixed time, upon demand of the person entitled to such accounting and delivery;

(o) Has not engaged in any conduct which would be cause for denial of a license;

(p) Has not become insolvent;

(q) Has not submitted an application for a license under this Act which contains a material misstatement;

(r) Has not demonstrated by course of conduct, negligence or incompetence in performing any act for which it is required to hold a license under this Act;

(s) Will advise the Commissioner in writing of any changes to the information submitted on the most recent application for license within 30 days of said change. The written notice must be signed in the same form as the application for license being amended;

(t) Will comply with the provisions of this Act, or with any lawful order, rule or regulation made or issued under the provisions of this Act;

(u) Will submit to periodic examination by the Commissioner as required by this Act;

(v) Will advise the Commissioner in writing of judgments entered against, and bankruptcy petitions by, the license applicant within 5 days of occurrence;

(w) Will advise the Commissioner in writing within 30 days when the license applicant requests a licensee under this Act to repurchase a loan, and the circumstances therefor; and

(x) Will advise the Commissioner in writing within 30 days when the license applicant is requested by another entity to repurchase a loan, and the circumstances therefor; .

(y) Will at all times act in a manner consistent with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 1-2 of this Act; and .

(z) (x) Will not knowingly hire or employ a loan originator who is not registered with the Commissioner as required under Section 7-1 of this Act.

A licensee who fails to fulfill obligations of an averment, to comply with averments made, or otherwise violates any of the averments made under this Section shall be subject to the penalties in Section 4-5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 605. The Foreign Banking Office Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(205 ILCS 645/20)

Sec. 20. Enforcement of child support.

(a) Any foreign banking corporation governed by this Act shall encumber or surrender accounts or assets held by the foreign banking corporation on behalf of any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) Within 90 days after receiving notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) that the Department has adopted a child support enforcement debit authorization form as required under the Illinois Public Aid Code, each foreign banking corporation governed by this Act shall take all appropriate steps to implement the use of the form in relation to accounts held by the corporation. Upon receiving from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) a copy of a child support enforcement debit authorization form signed by an obligor, a foreign banking corporation holding an account on behalf of the obligor shall debit the account and transfer the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit according to the instructions in the child support enforcement debit authorization form.

(Source: P.A. 93-736, eff. 7-14-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 610. The Debt Management Service Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(205 ILCS 665/2) (from Ch. 17, par. 5302)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Debt management service" means the planning and management of the financial affairs of a debtor for a fee and the receiving of money from the debtor for the purpose of distributing it, directly or indirectly, to the debtor's creditors in payment or partial payment of the debtor's obligations or soliciting financial contributions from creditors. The business of debt management is conducted in this State if the debt management business, its employees, or its agents are located in this State or if the debt management business solicits or contracts with debtors located in this State.

This term shall not include the following when engaged in the regular course of their respective businesses and professions:

(a) Attorneys at law.

(b) Banks, fiduciaries, credit unions, savings and loan associations, and savings banks as duly authorized and admitted to transact business in the State of Illinois and performing credit and financial adjusting service in the regular course of their principal business.

(c) Title insurers and abstract companies, while doing an escrow business.

(d) Judicial officers or others acting pursuant to court order.

(e) Employers for their employees.

(f) Bill payment services, as defined in the Transmitters of Money Act.

"Director" means Director of Financial Institutions.

"Debtor" means the person or persons for whom the debt management service is performed.

"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, association, limited liability company, corporation, or not-for-profit corporation.

"Licensee" means a person licensed under this Act.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Financial Institutions.

(Source: P.A. 92-400, eff. 1-1-02; 93-903, eff. 8-10-04; revised 9-21-04.)

Section 615. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 30, and 35 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/15)

Sec. 15. License required. No health care facility or program that meets the definition and scope of an alternative health care model shall operate as such unless it is a participant in a demonstration program under this Act and licensed by the Department as an alternative health care model. The provisions of this Section as they relate to subacute care hospitals shall not apply to hospitals licensed under the Illinois Hospital Licensing Act or skilled nursing facilities licensed under the Illinois Nursing Home Care Act; provided, however, that the facilities shall not hold themselves out to the public as subacute care hospitals. The provisions of this Act concerning children's respite care centers shall not apply to any facility licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the University of Illinois Hospital Act that provides respite care services to children.

(Source: P.A. 88-490; 89-393, eff. 8-20-95; revised 9-15-06.)

(210 ILCS 3/30)

Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to demonstration programs.

(a) There shall be no more than:

(i) 3 subacute care hospital alternative health care models in the City of Chicago (one of which shall be located on a designated site and shall have been licensed as a hospital under the Illinois Hospital Licensing Act within the 10 years immediately before the application for a license);

(ii) 2 subacute care hospital alternative health care models in the demonstration program for each of the following areas:

(1) Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(2) DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties.

(3) Municipalities with a population greater than 50,000 not located in the areas described in item (i) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (1) and (2) of item (ii) of subsection (a); and

(iii) 4 subacute care hospital alternative health care models in the demonstration program for rural areas.

In selecting among applicants for these licenses in rural areas, the Health Facilities Planning Board and the Department shall give preference to hospitals that may be unable for economic reasons to provide continued service to the community in which they are located unless the hospital were to receive an alternative health care model license.

(a-5) There shall be no more than a total of 12 postsurgical recovery care center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, located as follows:

(1) Two in the City of Chicago.

(2) Two in Cook County outside the City of Chicago. At least one of these shall be owned or operated by a hospital devoted exclusively to caring for children.

(3) Two in Kane, Lake, and McHenry Counties.

(4) Four in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more not located in the areas described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), 3 of which shall be owned or operated by hospitals, at least 2 of which shall be located in counties with a population of less than 175,000, according to the most recent decennial census for which data are available, and one of which shall be owned or operated by an ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(5) Two in rural areas, both of which shall be owned or operated by hospitals.

There shall be no postsurgical recovery care center alternative health care models located in counties with populations greater than 600,000 but less than 1,000,000. A proposed postsurgical recovery care center must be owned or operated by a hospital if it is to be located within, or will primarily serve the residents of, a health service area in which more than 60% of the gross patient revenue of the hospitals within that health service area are derived from Medicaid and Medicare, according to the most recently available calendar year data from the Illinois Health Care Cost Containment Council. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude a hospital and an ambulatory surgical treatment center from forming a joint venture or developing a collaborative agreement to own or operate a postsurgical recovery care center.

(a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 8 children's respite care center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, which shall be located as follows:

(1) One in the City of Chicago.

(2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.

(4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).

(5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the Health Facilities Planning Board.

No more than one children's respite care model owned and operated by a licensed skilled pediatric facility shall be located in each of the areas designated in this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) There shall be an authorized community-based residential rehabilitation center alternative health care model in the demonstration program. The community-based residential rehabilitation center shall be located in the area of Illinois south of Interstate Highway 70.

(a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model in the demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall be located in Will County, owned by a not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by the county board before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(b) Alternative health care models, other than a model authorized under subsection (a-20), shall obtain a certificate of need from the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act before receiving a license by the Department. If, after obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative health care delivery model that is a community based residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need from the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Board before increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in medically underserved areas shall receive priority in obtaining a certificate of need.

(c) An alternative health care model license shall be issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed alternative health care model that continues to be in substantial compliance after the conclusion of the demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals unless and until a different licensure program for that type of health care model is established by legislation. The Department may issue a provisional license to any alternative health care model that does not substantially comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which upon completion will render the alternative health care model in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the health and safety of the patients of the alternative health care model will be protected during the period for which the provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections necessary for the alternative health care model to substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be completed.

(d) Alternative health care models shall seek certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall provide charitable care consistent with that provided by comparable health care providers in the geographic area.

(d-5) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), in cooperation with the Illinois Department of Public Health, shall develop and implement a reimbursement methodology for all facilities participating in the demonstration program. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Illinois Department of Public Aid shall keep a record of services provided under the demonstration program to recipients of medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall submit an annual report of that information to the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health care facilities.

(f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at reasonable cost.

(Source: P.A. 91-65, eff. 7-9-99; 91-838, eff. 6-16-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 3/35)

Sec. 35. Alternative health care models authorized. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, alternative health care models described in this Section may be established on a demonstration basis.

(1) Alternative health care model; subacute care hospital. A subacute care hospital is a designated site which provides medical specialty care for patients who need a greater intensity or complexity of care than generally provided in a skilled nursing facility but who no longer require acute hospital care. The average length of stay for patients treated in subacute care hospitals shall not be less than 20 days, and for individual patients, the expected length of stay at the time of admission shall not be less than 10 days. Variations from minimum lengths of stay shall be reported to the Department. There shall be no more than 13 subacute care hospitals authorized to operate by the Department. Subacute care includes physician supervision, registered nursing, and physiological monitoring on a continual basis. A subacute care hospital is either a freestanding building or a distinct physical and operational entity within a hospital or nursing home building. A subacute care hospital shall only consist of beds currently existing in licensed hospitals or skilled nursing facilities, except, in the City of Chicago, on a designated site that was licensed as a hospital under the Illinois Hospital Licensing Act within the 10 years immediately before the application for an alternative health care model license. During the period of operation of the demonstration project, the existing licensed beds shall remain licensed as hospital or skilled nursing facility beds as well as being licensed under this Act. In order to handle cases of complications, emergencies, or exigent circumstances, a subacute care hospital shall maintain a contractual relationship, including a transfer agreement, with a general acute care hospital. If a subacute care model is located in a general acute care hospital, it shall utilize all or a portion of the bed capacity of that existing hospital. In no event shall a subacute care hospital use the word "hospital" in its advertising or marketing activities or represent or hold itself out to the public as a general acute care hospital.

(2) Alternative health care delivery model; postsurgical recovery care center. A postsurgical recovery care center is a designated site which provides postsurgical recovery care for generally healthy patients undergoing surgical procedures that require overnight nursing care, pain control, or observation that would otherwise be provided in an inpatient setting. A postsurgical recovery care center is either freestanding or a defined unit of an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospital. No facility, or portion of a facility, may participate in a demonstration program as a postsurgical recovery care center unless the facility has been licensed as an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospital for at least 2 years before August 20, 1993 (the effective date of Public Act 88-441). The maximum length of stay for patients in a postsurgical recovery care center is not to exceed 48 hours unless the treating physician requests an extension of time from the recovery center's medical director on the basis of medical or clinical documentation that an additional care period is required for the recovery of a patient and the medical director approves the extension of time. In no case, however, shall a patient's length of stay in a postsurgical recovery care center be longer than 72 hours. If a patient requires an additional care period after the expiration of the 72-hour limit, the patient shall be transferred to an appropriate facility. Reports on variances from the 48-hour limit shall be sent to the Department for its evaluation. The reports shall, before submission to the Department, have removed from them all patient and physician identifiers. In order to handle cases of complications, emergencies, or exigent circumstances, every postsurgical recovery care center as defined in this paragraph shall maintain a contractual relationship, including a transfer agreement, with a general acute care hospital. A postsurgical recovery care center shall be no larger than 20 beds. A postsurgical recovery care center shall be located within 15 minutes travel time from the general acute care hospital with which the center maintains a contractual relationship, including a transfer agreement, as required under this paragraph.

No postsurgical recovery care center shall discriminate against any patient requiring treatment because of the source of payment for services, including Medicare and Medicaid recipients.

The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of Public Act 88-441 concerning postsurgical recovery care centers within 9 months after August 20, 1993.

(3) Alternative health care delivery model; children's community-based health care center. A children's community-based health care center model is a designated site that provides nursing care, clinical support services, and therapies for a period of one to 14 days for short-term stays and 120 days to facilitate transitions to home or other appropriate settings for medically fragile children, technology dependent children, and children with special health care needs who are deemed clinically stable by a physician and are younger than 22 years of age. This care is to be provided in a home-like environment that serves no more than 12 children at a time. Children's community-based health care center services must be available through the model to all families, including those whose care is paid for through the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and insurance companies who cover home health care services or private duty nursing care in the home.

Each children's community-based health care center model location shall be physically separate and apart from any other facility licensed by the Department of Public Health under this or any other Act and shall provide the following services: respite care, registered nursing or licensed practical nursing care, transitional care to facilitate home placement or other appropriate settings and reunite families, medical day care, weekend camps, and diagnostic studies typically done in the home setting.

Coverage for the services provided by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under this paragraph (3) is contingent upon federal waiver approval and is provided only to Medicaid eligible clients participating in the home and community based services waiver designated in Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act for medically frail and technologically dependent children or children in Department of Children and Family Services foster care who receive home health benefits.

(4) Alternative health care delivery model; community based residential rehabilitation center. A community-based residential rehabilitation center model is a designated site that provides rehabilitation or support, or both, for persons who have experienced severe brain injury, who are medically stable, and who no longer require acute rehabilitative care or intense medical or nursing services. The average length of stay in a community-based residential rehabilitation center shall not exceed 4 months. As an integral part of the services provided, individuals are housed in a supervised living setting while having immediate access to the community. The residential rehabilitation center authorized by the Department may have more than one residence included under the license. A residence may be no larger than 12 beds and shall be located as an integral part of the community. Day treatment or individualized outpatient services shall be provided for persons who reside in their own home. Functional outcome goals shall be established for each individual. Services shall include, but are not limited to, case management, training and assistance with activities of daily living, nursing consultation, traditional therapies (physical, occupational, speech), functional interventions in the residence and community (job placement, shopping, banking, recreation), counseling, self-management strategies, productive activities, and multiple opportunities for skill acquisition and practice throughout the day. The design of individualized program plans shall be consistent with the outcome goals that are established for each resident. The programs provided in this setting shall be accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF). The program shall have been accredited by CARF as a Brain Injury Community-Integrative Program for at least 3 years.

(5) Alternative health care delivery model; Alzheimer's disease management center. An Alzheimer's disease management center model is a designated site that provides a safe and secure setting for care of persons diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. An Alzheimer's disease management center model shall be a facility separate from any other facility licensed by the Department of Public Health under this or any other Act. An Alzheimer's disease management center shall conduct and document an assessment of each resident every 6 months. The assessment shall include an evaluation of daily functioning, cognitive status, other medical conditions, and behavioral problems. An Alzheimer's disease management center shall develop and implement an ongoing treatment plan for each resident. The treatment plan shall have defined goals. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall treat behavioral problems and mood disorders using nonpharmacologic approaches such as environmental modification, task simplification, and other appropriate activities. All staff must have necessary training to care for all stages of Alzheimer's Disease. An Alzheimer's disease management center shall provide education and support for residents and caregivers. The education and support shall include referrals to support organizations for educational materials on community resources, support groups, legal and financial issues, respite care, and future care needs and options. The education and support shall also include a discussion of the resident's need to make advance directives and to identify surrogates for medical and legal decision-making. The provisions of this paragraph establish the minimum level of services that must be provided by an Alzheimer's disease management center. An Alzheimer's disease management center model shall have no more than 100 residents. Nothing in this paragraph (5) shall be construed as prohibiting a person or facility from providing services and care to persons with Alzheimer's disease as otherwise authorized under State law.

(Source: P.A. 93-402, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 620. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Sections 75 and 125 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/75)

Sec. 75. Residency Requirements.

(a) No individual shall be accepted for residency or remain in residence if the establishment cannot provide or secure appropriate services, if the individual requires a level of service or type of service for which the establishment is not licensed or which the establishment does not provide, or if the establishment does not have the staff appropriate in numbers and with appropriate skill to provide such services.

(b) Only adults may be accepted for residency.

(c) A person shall not be accepted for residency if:

(1) the person poses a serious threat to himself or herself or to others;

(2) the person is not able to communicate his or her needs and no resident representative residing in the establishment, and with a prior relationship to the person, has been appointed to direct the provision of services;

(3) the person requires total assistance with 2 or more activities of daily living;

(4) the person requires the assistance of more than one paid caregiver at any given time with an activity of daily living;

(5) the person requires more than minimal assistance in moving to a safe area in an emergency;

(6) the person has a severe mental illness, which for the purposes of this Section means a condition that is characterized by the presence of a major mental disorder as classified in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) (American Psychiatric Association, 1994), where the individual is substantially disabled due to mental illness in the areas of self-maintenance, social functioning, activities of community living and work skills, and the disability specified is expected to be present for a period of not less than one year, but does not mean Alzheimer's disease and other forms of dementia based on organic or physical disorders;

(7) the person requires intravenous therapy or intravenous feedings unless self-administered or administered by a qualified, licensed health care professional;

(8) the person requires gastrostomy feedings unless self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(9) the person requires insertion, sterile irrigation, and replacement of catheter, except for routine maintenance of urinary catheters, unless the catheter care is self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(10) the person requires sterile wound care unless care is self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(11) the person requires sliding scale insulin administration unless self-performed or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(12) the person is a diabetic requiring routine insulin injections unless the injections are self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(13) the person requires treatment of stage 3 or stage 4 decubitus ulcers or exfoliative dermatitis;

(14) the person requires 5 or more skilled nursing visits per week for conditions other than those listed in items (13) and (15) of this subsection for a period of 3 consecutive weeks or more except when the course of treatment is expected to extend beyond a 3 week period for rehabilitative purposes and is certified as temporary by a physician; or

(15) other reasons prescribed by the Department by rule.

(d) A resident with a condition listed in items (1) through (15) of subsection (c) shall have his or her residency terminated.

(e) Residency shall be terminated when services available to the resident in the establishment are no longer adequate to meet the needs of the resident. This provision shall not be interpreted as limiting the authority of the Department to require the residency termination of individuals.

(f) Subsection (d) of this Section shall not apply to terminally ill residents who receive or would qualify for hospice care and such care is coordinated by a hospice program licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act or other licensed health care professional employed by a licensed home health agency and the establishment and all parties agree to the continued residency.

(g) Items (3), (4), (5), and (9) of subsection (c) shall not apply to a quadriplegic, paraplegic, or individual with neuro-muscular diseases, such as muscular dystrophy and multiple sclerosis, or other chronic diseases and conditions as defined by rule if the individual is able to communicate his or her needs and does not require assistance with complex medical problems, and the establishment is able to accommodate the individual's needs. The Department shall prescribe rules pursuant to this Section that address special safety and service needs of these individuals.

(h) For the purposes of items (7) through (10) of subsection (c), a licensed health care professional may not be employed by the owner or operator of the establishment, its parent entity, or any other entity with ownership common to either the owner or operator of the establishment or parent entity, including but not limited to an affiliate of the owner or operator of the establishment. Nothing in this Section is meant to limit a resident's right to choose his or her health care provider.

(Source: P.A. 93-141, eff. 7-10-03; 94-256, eff. 7-19-05; 94-570, eff. 8-12-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(210 ILCS 9/125)

Sec. 125. Assisted Living and Shared Housing Standards and Quality of Life Advisory Board.

(a) The Governor shall appoint the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Standards and Quality of Life Advisory Board which shall be responsible for advising the Director in all aspects of the administration of the Act. The Board shall give advice to the Department concerning activities of the assisted living ombudsman and all other matters deemed relevant by the Director and to the Director concerning the delivery of personal care services, the unique needs and concerns of seniors residing in housing projects, and all other issues affecting the quality of life of residents.

(b) The Board shall be comprised of the following persons:

(1) the Director who shall serve as chair, ex officio and nonvoting;

(2) the Director of Aging who shall serve as vice-chair, ex officio and nonvoting;

(3) one representative each of the Departments of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and Human Services, the Office of the State Fire Marshal, and the Illinois Housing Development Authority, and 2 representatives of the Department on Aging, all nonvoting members;

(4) the State Ombudsman or his or her designee;

(5) one representative of the Association of Area Agencies on Aging;

(6) four members selected from the recommendations by provider organizations whose membership consist of nursing care or assisted living establishments;

(7) one member selected from the recommendations of provider organizations whose membership consists of home health agencies;

(8) two residents of assisted living or shared housing establishments;

(9) three members selected from the recommendations of consumer organizations which engage solely in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of the senior population;

(10) one member who shall be a physician;

(11) one member who shall be a registered professional nurse selected from the recommendations of professional nursing associations;

(12) two citizen members with expertise in the area of gerontology research or legal research regarding implementation of assisted living statutes;

(13) two members representing providers of community care services; and

(14) one member representing agencies providing case coordination services.

(c) Members of the Board appointed under paragraphs (5) through (14) of subsection (b) shall be appointed to serve for terms of 3 years except as otherwise provided in this Section. All members shall be appointed by January 1, 2001, except that the 2 members representing the Department on Aging appointed under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) and the members appointed under paragraphs (13) and (14) of subsection (b) shall be appointed by January 1, 2005. One third of the Board members' initial terms shall expire in one year; one third in 2 years, and one third in 3 years. Of the 3 members appointed under paragraphs (13) and (14) of subsection (b), one shall serve for an initial term of one year, one shall serve for an initial term of 2 years, and one shall serve for an initial term of 3 years. A member's term does not expire until a successor is appointed by the Governor. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of that term. The Board shall meet at the call of the Director. The affirmative vote of 10 members of the Board shall be necessary for Board action. Members of this Board shall receive no compensation for their services, however, resident members shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses.

(d) The Board shall be provided copies of all administrative rules and changes to administrative rules for review and comment prior to notice being given to the public. If the Board, having been asked for its review, fails to advise the Department within 90 days, the rules shall be considered acted upon.

(Source: P.A. 93-1003, eff. 8-23-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 625. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 6.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4166.2)

Sec. 6.2. Inspector General.

(a) The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary of Human Services and the Governor. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department of Human Services with respect to the operations of the office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department of Human Services. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected abuse or neglect (as those terms are defined in Section 3 of this Act) of patients or residents in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services and shall have authority to investigate and take immediate action on reports of abuse or neglect of recipients, whether patients or residents, in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or program that is licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or that is funded by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) and is not licensed or certified by any agency of the State. At the specific, written request of an agency of the State other than the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Inspector General may cooperate in investigating reports of abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness or persons with developmental disabilities. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over or involvement in routine, programmatic, licensure, or certification operations of the Department of Human Services or any of its funded agencies.

The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations of abuse and neglect and initiating, conducting, and completing investigations. The promulgated rules shall clearly set forth that in instances where 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation of abuse or neglect, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that is redundant to an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall establish criteria for determining, based upon the nature of the allegation, the appropriate method of investigation, which may include, but need not be limited to, site visits, telephone contacts, or requests for written responses from agencies. The rules shall also clarify how the Office of the Inspector General shall interact with the licensing unit of the Department of Human Services in investigations of allegations of abuse or neglect. Any allegations or investigations of reports made pursuant to this Act shall remain confidential until a final report is completed. The resident or patient who allegedly was abused or neglected and his or her legal guardian shall be informed by the facility or agency of the report of alleged abuse or neglect. Final reports regarding unsubstantiated or unfounded allegations shall remain confidential, except that final reports may be disclosed pursuant to Section 6 of this Act.

For purposes of this Section, "required reporter" means a person who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of abuse or neglect at a State-operated facility or a community agency and who is either: (i) a person employed at a State-operated facility or a community agency on or off site who is providing or monitoring services to an individual or individuals or is providing services to the State-operated facility or the community agency; or (ii) any person or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services involved in providing, monitoring, or administering mental health or developmental disability services, including, but not limited to, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers. A required reporter shall report the allegation of abuse or neglect, or cause a report to be made, to the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) Hotline no later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident of alleged abuse or neglect. A required reporter as defined in this paragraph who willfully fails to comply with the reporting requirement is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For purposes of this Section, "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or a developmental disability facility as defined in Sections 1-114 and 1-107 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

For purposes of this Section, "community agency" or "agency" means any community entity or program providing mental health or developmental disabilities services that is licensed, certified, or funded by the Department of Human Services and is not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State (for example, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Children and Family Services, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services).

When the Office of the Inspector General has substantiated a case of abuse or neglect, the Inspector General shall include in the final report any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. Upon determination that a report of neglect is substantiated, the Inspector General shall then determine whether such neglect rises to the level of egregious neglect.

(b) The Inspector General shall, within 24 hours after determining that a reported allegation of suspected abuse or neglect indicates that any possible criminal act has been committed or that special expertise is required in the investigation, immediately notify the Department of State Police or the appropriate law enforcement entity. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, rape, or other felony. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(b-5) The Inspector General shall make a determination to accept or reject a preliminary report of the investigation of alleged abuse or neglect based on established investigative procedures. Notice of the Inspector General's determination must be given to the person who claims to be the victim of the abuse or neglect, to the person or persons alleged to have been responsible for abuse or neglect, and to the facility or agency. The facility or agency or the person or persons alleged to have been responsible for the abuse or neglect and the person who claims to be the victim of the abuse or neglect may request clarification or reconsideration based on additional information. For cases where the allegation of abuse or neglect is substantiated, the Inspector General shall require the facility or agency to submit a written response. The written response from a facility or agency shall address in a concise and reasoned manner the actions that the agency or facility will take or has taken to protect the resident or patient from abuse or neglect, prevent reoccurrences, and eliminate problems identified and shall include implementation and completion dates for all such action.

(c) The Inspector General shall, within 10 calendar days after the transmittal date of a completed investigation where abuse or neglect is substantiated or administrative action is recommended, provide a complete report on the case to the Secretary of Human Services and to the agency in which the abuse or neglect is alleged to have happened. The complete report shall include a written response from the agency or facility operated by the State to the Inspector General that addresses in a concise and reasoned manner the actions that the agency or facility will take or has taken to protect the resident or patient from abuse or neglect, prevent reoccurrences, and eliminate problems identified and shall include implementation and completion dates for all such action. The Secretary of Human Services shall accept or reject the response and establish how the Department will determine whether the facility or program followed the approved response. The Secretary may require Department personnel to visit the facility or agency for training, technical assistance, programmatic, licensure, or certification purposes. Administrative action, including sanctions, may be applied should the Secretary reject the response or should the facility or agency fail to follow the approved response. Within 30 days after the Secretary has approved a response, the facility or agency making the response shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General on the status of the corrective action implemented. Within 60 days after the Secretary has approved the response, the facility or agency shall send notice of the completion of the corrective action or shall send an updated implementation report. The facility or agency shall continue sending updated implementation reports every 60 days until the facility or agency sends a notice of the completion of the corrective action. The Inspector General shall review any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days. The Inspector General shall monitor compliance through a random review of completed corrective actions. This monitoring may include, but need not be limited to, site visits, telephone contacts, or requests for written documentation from the facility or agency to determine whether the facility or agency is in compliance with the approved response. The facility or agency shall inform the resident or patient and the legal guardian whether the reported allegation was substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. There shall be an appeals process for any person or agency that is subject to any action based on a recommendation or recommendations.

(d) The Inspector General may recommend to the Departments of Public Health and Human Services sanctions to be imposed against mental health and developmental disabilities facilities under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services for the protection of residents, including appointment of on-site monitors or receivers, transfer or relocation of residents, and closure of units. The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Attorney General or any of the several State's attorneys in imposing such sanctions. Whenever the Inspector General issues any recommendations to the Secretary of Human Services, the Secretary shall provide a written response.

(e) The Inspector General shall establish and conduct periodic training programs for Department of Human Services employees concerning the prevention and reporting of neglect and abuse.

(f) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any mental health or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services, shall establish and conduct unannounced site visits to those facilities at least once annually, and shall be granted access, for the purpose of investigating a report of abuse or neglect, to the records of the Department of Human Services and to any facility or program funded by the Department of Human Services that is subject under the provisions of this Section to investigation by the Inspector General for a report of abuse or neglect.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall limit investigations by the Department of Human Services that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in that Department's capacity as the central administrative authority responsible for the operation of State mental health and developmental disability facilities.

(g-5) After notice and an opportunity for a hearing that is separate and distinct from the Office of the Inspector General's appeals process as implemented under subsection (c) of this Section, the Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's nurse aide registry under Section 3-206.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act the identity of individuals against whom there has been a substantiated finding of physical or sexual abuse or egregious neglect of a service recipient.

Nothing in this subsection shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit pursuant to the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or pursuant to any federal labor statute. An individual who is a member of a collective bargaining unit as described above shall not be reported to the Department of Public Health's nurse aide registry until the exhaustion of that individual's grievance and arbitration rights, or until 3 months after the initiation of the grievance process, whichever occurs first, provided that the Department of Human Services' hearing under this subsection regarding the reporting of an individual to the Department of Public Health's nurse aide registry has concluded. Notwithstanding anything hereinafter or previously provided, if an action taken by an employer against an individual as a result of the circumstances that led to a finding of physical or sexual abuse or egregious neglect is later overturned under a grievance or arbitration procedure provided for in Section 8 of the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under a collective bargaining agreement, the report must be removed from the registry.

The Department of Human Services shall promulgate or amend rules as necessary or appropriate to establish procedures for reporting to the registry, including the definition of egregious neglect, procedures for notice to the individual and victim, appeal and hearing procedures, and petition for removal of the report from the registry. The portion of the rules pertaining to hearings shall provide that, at the hearing, both parties may present written and oral evidence. The Department shall be required to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the Office of the Inspector General's finding of physical or sexual abuse or egregious neglect warrants reporting to the Department of Public Health's nurse aide registry under Section 3-206.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

Notice to the individual shall include a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the registry is based and notice of the opportunity for a hearing to contest the report. The Department of Human Services shall provide the notice by certified mail to the last known address of the individual. The notice shall give the individual an opportunity to contest the report in a hearing before the Department of Human Services or to submit a written response to the findings instead of requesting a hearing. If the individual does not request a hearing or if after notice and a hearing the Department of Human Services finds that the report is valid, the finding shall be included as part of the registry, as well as a brief statement from the reported individual if he or she chooses to make a statement. The Department of Public Health shall make available to the public information reported to the registry. In a case of inquiries concerning an individual listed in the registry, any information disclosed concerning a finding of abuse or neglect shall also include disclosure of the individual's brief statement in the registry relating to the reported finding or include a clear and accurate summary of the statement.

At any time after the report of the registry, an individual may petition the Department of Human Services for removal from the registry of the finding against him or her. Upon receipt of such a petition, the Department of Human Services shall conduct an investigation and hearing on the petition. Upon completion of the investigation and hearing, the Department of Human Services shall report the removal of the finding to the registry unless the Department of Human Services determines that removal is not in the public interest.

(Source: P.A. 93-636, eff. 12-31-03; 94-428, eff. 8-2-05; 94-853, eff. 6-13-06; 94-934, eff. 6-26-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 630. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-105, 2-101.1, 2-106, 2-106.1, 2-202, 2-204, 2-205, 2-211, 3-108, 3-109, 3-117, 3-119, 3-208, 3-304, 3-401.1, 3-405, 3-406, 3-411, 3-414, 3-508, 3-805, and 3A-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/1-105) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-105)

Sec. 1-105. "Administrator" means a person who is charged with the general administration and supervision of a facility and licensed, if required, under the "Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act", as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 81-1349; revised 9-15-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-101.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-101.1)

Sec. 2-101.1. Spousal impoverishment. All new residents and their spouses shall be informed on admittance of their spousal impoverishment rights as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as now or hereafter amended and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360).

(Source: P.A. 86-410; revised 9-21-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-106) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-106)

Sec. 2-106. (a) For purposes of this Act, (i) a physical restraint is any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to a resident's body that the resident cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body. Devices used for positioning, including but not limited to bed rails, gait belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints for purposes of this Section; (ii) a chemical restraint is any drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms. The Department shall by rule, designate certain devices as restraints, including at least all those devices which have been determined to be restraints by the United States Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX 18 and 19 of the Social Security Act Acts.

(b) Neither restraints nor confinements shall be employed for the purpose of punishment or for the convenience of any facility personnel. No restraints or confinements shall be employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the need for such restraints or confinements in the resident's clinical record. Each facility licensed under this Act must have a written policy to address the use of restraints and seclusion. The Department shall establish by rule the provisions that the policy must include, which, to the extent practicable, should be consistent with the requirements for participation in the federal Medicare program. Each policy shall include periodic review of the use of restraints.

(c) A restraint may be used only with the informed consent of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized representative. A restraint may be used only for specific periods, if it is the least restrictive means necessary to attain and maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well-being, including brief periods of time to provide necessary life-saving treatment. A restraint may be used only after consultation with appropriate health professionals, such as occupational or physical therapists, and a trial of less restrictive measures has led to the determination that the use of less restrictive measures would not attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well-being. However, if the resident needs emergency care, restraints may be used for brief periods to permit medical treatment to proceed unless the facility has notice that the resident has previously made a valid refusal of the treatment in question.

(d) A restraint may be applied only by a person trained in the application of the particular type of restraint.

(e) Whenever a period of use of a restraint is initiated, the resident shall be advised of his or her right to have a person or organization of his or her choosing, including the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, notified of the use of the restraint. A recipient who is under guardianship may request that a person or organization of his or her choosing be notified of the restraint, whether or not the guardian approves the notice. If the resident so chooses, the facility shall make the notification within 24 hours, including any information about the period of time that the restraint is to be used. Whenever the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission is notified that a resident has been restrained, it shall contact the resident to determine the circumstances of the restraint and whether further action is warranted.

(f) Whenever a restraint is used on a resident whose primary mode of communication is sign language, the resident shall be permitted to have his or her hands free from restraint for brief periods each hour, except when this freedom may result in physical harm to the resident or others.

(g) The requirements of this Section are intended to control in any conflict with the requirements of Sections 1-126 and 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-636, eff. 6-1-04; revised 9-18-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-106.1)

Sec. 2-106.1. Drug treatment.

(a) A resident shall not be given unnecessary drugs. An unnecessary drug is any drug used in an excessive dose, including in duplicative therapy; for excessive duration; without adequate monitoring; without adequate indications for its use; or in the presence of adverse consequences that indicate the drugs should be reduced or discontinued. The Department shall adopt, by rule, the standards for unnecessary drugs contained in interpretive guidelines issued by the United States Department of Health and Human Services for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX titles 18 and 19 of the Social Security Act.

(b) Psychotropic medication shall not be prescribed without the informed consent of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized representative. "Psychotropic medication" means medication that is used for or listed as used for antipsychotic, antidepressant, antimanic, or antianxiety behavior modification or behavior management purposes in the latest editions of the AMA Drug Evaluations or the Physician's Desk Reference.

(c) The requirements of this Section are intended to control in a conflict with the requirements of Sections 2-102 and 2-107.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code with respect to the administration of psychotropic medication.

(Source: P.A. 93-636, eff. 6-1-04; revised 9-18-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-202) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-202)

Sec. 2-202. (a) Before a person is admitted to a facility, or at the expiration of the period of previous contract, or when the source of payment for the resident's care changes from private to public funds or from public to private funds, a written contract shall be executed between a licensee and the following in order of priority:

(1) the person, or if the person is a minor, his parent or guardian; or

(2) the person's guardian, if any, or agent, if any, as defined in Section 2-3 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act; or

(3) a member of the person's immediate family.

An adult person shall be presumed to have the capacity to contract for admission to a long term care facility unless he has been adjudicated a "disabled person" within the meaning of Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, or unless a petition for such an adjudication is pending in a circuit court of Illinois.

If there is no guardian, agent or member of the person's immediate family available, able or willing to execute the contract required by this Section and a physician determines that a person is so disabled as to be unable to consent to placement in a facility, or if a person has already been found to be a "disabled person", but no order has been entered allowing residential placement of the person, that person may be admitted to a facility before the execution of a contract required by this Section; provided that a petition for guardianship or for modification of guardianship is filed within 15 days of the person's admission to a facility, and provided further that such a contract is executed within 10 days of the disposition of the petition.

No adult shall be admitted to a facility if he objects, orally or in writing, to such admission, except as otherwise provided in Chapters III and IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or Section 11a-14.1 of the Probate Act of 1975.

If a person has not executed a contract as required by this Section, then such a contract shall be executed on or before July 1, 1981, or within 10 days after the disposition of a petition for guardianship or modification of guardianship that was filed prior to July 1, 1981, whichever is later.

Before a licensee enters a contract under this Section, it shall provide the prospective resident and his guardian, if any, with written notice of the licensee's policy regarding discharge of a resident whose private funds for payment of care are exhausted.

(b) A resident shall not be discharged or transferred at the expiration of the term of a contract, except as provided in Sections 3-401 through 3-423.

(c) At the time of the resident's admission to the facility, a copy of the contract shall be given to the resident, his guardian, if any, and any other person who executed the contract.

(d) A copy of the contract for a resident who is supported by nonpublic funds other than the resident's own funds shall be made available to the person providing the funds for the resident's support.

(e) The original or a copy of the contract shall be maintained in the facility and be made available upon request to representatives of the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(f) The contract shall be written in clear and unambiguous language and shall be printed in not less than 12-point type. The general form of the contract shall be prescribed by the Department.

(g) The contract shall specify:

(1) the term of the contract;

(2) the services to be provided under the contract and the charges for the services;

(3) the services that may be provided to supplement the contract and the charges for the services;

(4) the sources liable for payments due under the contract;

(5) the amount of deposit paid; and

(6) the rights, duties and obligations of the resident, except that the specification of a resident's rights may be furnished on a separate document which complies with the requirements of Section 2-211.

(h) The contract shall designate the name of the resident's representative, if any. The resident shall provide the facility with a copy of the written agreement between the resident and the resident's representative which authorizes the resident's representative to inspect and copy the resident's records and authorizes the resident's representative to execute the contract on behalf of the resident required by this Section.

(i) The contract shall provide that if the resident is compelled by a change in physical or mental health to leave the facility, the contract and all obligations under it shall terminate on 7 days notice. No prior notice of termination of the contract shall be required, however, in the case of a resident's death. The contract shall also provide that in all other situations, a resident may terminate the contract and all obligations under it with 30 days notice. All charges shall be prorated as of the date on which the contract terminates, and, if any payments have been made in advance, the excess shall be refunded to the resident. This provision shall not apply to life-care contracts through which a facility agrees to provide maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life nor to continuing-care contracts through which a facility agrees to supplement all available forms of financial support in providing maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life.

(j) In addition to all other contract specifications contained in this Section admission contracts shall also specify:

(1) whether the facility accepts Medicaid clients;

(2) whether the facility requires a deposit of the resident or his family prior to the establishment of Medicaid eligibility;

(3) in the event that a deposit is required, a clear and concise statement of the procedure to be followed for the return of such deposit to the resident or the appropriate family member or guardian of the person;

(4) that all deposits made to a facility by a resident, or on behalf of a resident, shall be returned by the facility within 30 days of the establishment of Medicaid eligibility, unless such deposits must be drawn upon or encumbered in accordance with Medicaid eligibility requirements established by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(k) It shall be a business offense for a facility to knowingly and intentionally both retain a resident's deposit and accept Medicaid payments on behalf of that resident.

(Source: P.A. 87-225; 87-895; 88-154; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-204) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-204)

Sec. 2-204. The Director shall appoint a Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board to consult with the Department and the residents' advisory councils created under Section 2-203.

(a) The Board shall be comprised of the following persons:

(1) The Director who shall serve as chairman, ex officio and nonvoting; and

(2) One representative each of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, and the Office of the State Fire Marshal, all nonvoting members;

(3) One member who shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(4) One member who shall be a registered nurse selected from the recommendations of professional nursing associations;

(5) Four members who shall be selected from the recommendations by organizations whose membership consists of facilities;

(6) Two members who shall represent the general public who are not members of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and who have no responsibility for management or formation of policy or financial interest in a facility;

(7) One member who is a member of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and is capable of actively participating on the Board; and

(8) One member who shall be selected from the recommendations of consumer organizations which engage solely in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of residents and their immediate families.

(b) The terms of those members of the Board appointed prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1988 shall expire on December 31, 1988. Members of the Board created by this amendatory Act of 1988 shall be appointed to serve for terms as follows: 3 for 2 years, 3 for 3 years and 3 for 4 years. The member of the Board added by this amendatory Act of 1989 shall be appointed to serve for a term of 4 years. Each successor member shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term. The Board shall meet as frequently as the chairman deems necessary, but not less than 4 times each year. Upon request by 4 or more members the chairman shall call a meeting of the Board. The affirmative vote of 6 members of the Board shall be necessary for Board action. A member of the Board can designate a replacement to serve at the Board meeting and vote in place of the member by submitting a letter of designation to the chairman prior to or at the Board meeting. The Board members shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(c) The Advisory Board shall advise the Department of Public Health on all aspects of its responsibilities under this Act, including the format and content of any rules promulgated by the Department of Public Health. Any such rules, except emergency rules promulgated pursuant to Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, promulgated without obtaining the advice of the Advisory Board are null and void. In the event that the Department fails to follow the advice of the Board, the Department shall, prior to the promulgation of such rules, transmit a written explanation of the reason thereof to the Board. During its review of rules, the Board shall analyze the economic and regulatory impact of those rules. If the Advisory Board, having been asked for its advice, fails to advise the Department within 90 days, the rules shall be considered acted upon.

(Source: P.A. 88-45; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-205) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-205)

Sec. 2-205. The following information is subject to disclosure to the public from the Department or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) Information submitted under Sections 3-103 and 3-207 except information concerning the remuneration of personnel licensed, registered, or certified by the Department of Professional Regulation and monthly charges for an individual private resident;

(2) Records of license and certification inspections, surveys, and evaluations of facilities, other reports of inspections, surveys, and evaluations of resident care, and reports concerning a facility prepared pursuant to Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act, subject to the provisions of the Social Security Act;

(3) Cost and reimbursement reports submitted by a facility under Section 3-208, reports of audits of facilities, and other public records concerning costs incurred by, revenues received by, and reimbursement of facilities; and

(4) Complaints filed against a facility and complaint investigation reports, except that a complaint or complaint investigation report shall not be disclosed to a person other than the complainant or complainant's representative before it is disclosed to a facility under Section 3-702, and, further, except that a complainant or resident's name shall not be disclosed except under Section 3-702.

The Department shall disclose information under this Section in accordance with provisions for inspection and copying of public records required by The Freedom of Information Act.

However, the disclosure of information described in subsection (1) shall not be restricted by any provision of The Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 85-1209; 85-1378; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-211) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-211)

Sec. 2-211. Each resident and resident's guardian or other person acting for the resident shall be given a written explanation, prepared by the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, of all the rights enumerated in Part 1 of this Article and in Part 4 of Article III. For residents of facilities participating in Title XVIII or XIX 18 or 19 of the Social Security Act, the explanation shall include an explanation of residents' rights enumerated in that Act. The explanation shall be given at the time of admission to a facility or as soon thereafter as the condition of the resident permits, but in no event later than 48 hours after admission, and again at least annually thereafter. At the time of the implementation of this Act each resident shall be given a written summary of all the rights enumerated in Part 1 of this Article.

If a resident is unable to read such written explanation, it shall be read to the resident in a language the resident understands. In the case of a minor or a person having a guardian or other person acting for him, both the resident and the parent, guardian or other person acting for the resident shall be fully informed of these rights.

(Source: P.A. 87-549; revised 9-18-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-108) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-108)

Sec. 3-108. The Department shall coordinate the functions within State government affecting facilities licensed under this Act and shall cooperate with other State agencies which establish standards or requirements for facilities to assure necessary, equitable, and consistent State supervision of licensees without unnecessary duplication of survey, evaluation, and consultation services or complaint investigations. The Department shall cooperate with the Department of Human Services in regard to facilities containing more than 20% of residents for whom the Department of Human Services has mandated follow-up responsibilities under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act.

The Department shall cooperate with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in regard to facilities where recipients of public aid are residents.

The Department shall immediately refer to the Department of Professional Regulation for investigation any credible evidence of which it has knowledge that an individual licensed by that Department has violated this Act or any rule issued under this Act.

The Department shall enter into agreements with other State Departments, agencies or commissions to effectuate the purpose of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 89-197, eff. 7-21-95; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-109) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-109)

Sec. 3-109. Upon receipt and review of an application for a license made under this Article and inspection of the applicant facility under this Article, the Director shall issue a license if he finds:

(1) that the individual applicant, or the corporation, partnership or other entity if the applicant is not an individual, is a person responsible and suitable to operate or to direct or participate in the operation of a facility by virtue of financial capacity, appropriate business or professional experience, a record of compliance with lawful orders of the Department and lack of revocation of a license during the previous 5 years;

(2) that the facility is under the supervision of an administrator who is licensed, if required, under the "Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act", as now or hereafter amended; and

(3) that the facility is in substantial compliance with this Act, and such other requirements for a license as the Department by rule may establish under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 81-1349; revised 9-15-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-117) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-117)

Sec. 3-117. An application for a license may be denied for any of the following reasons:

(1) Failure to meet any of the minimum standards set forth by this Act or by rules and regulations promulgated by the Department under this Act. ;

(2) Conviction of the applicant, or if the applicant is a firm, partnership or association, of any of its members, or if a corporation, the conviction of the corporation or any of its officers or stockholders, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the facility, of a felony, or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude, during the previous 5 years as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction. ;

(3) Personnel insufficient in number or unqualified by training or experience to properly care for the proposed number and type of residents. ;

(4) Insufficient financial or other resources to operate and conduct the facility in accordance with standards promulgated by the Department under this Act. ;

(5) Revocation of a facility license during the previous 5 years, if such prior license was issued to the individual applicant, a controlling owner or controlling combination of owners of the applicant; or any affiliate of the individual applicant or controlling owner of the applicant and such individual applicant, controlling owner of the applicant or affiliate of the applicant was a controlling owner of the prior license; provided, however, that the denial of an application for a license pursuant to this subsection must be supported by evidence that such prior revocation renders the applicant unqualified or incapable of meeting or maintaining a facility in accordance with the standards and rules promulgated by the Department under this Act. ; or

(6) That the facility is not under the direct supervision of a full-time administrator, as defined by regulation, who is licensed, if required, under the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(Source: P.A. 85-1337; revised 9-15-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-119) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-119)

Sec. 3-119. (a) The Department, after notice to the applicant or licensee, may suspend, revoke or refuse to renew a license in any case in which the Department finds any of the following:

(1) There has been a substantial failure to comply with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated by the Department under this Act. ;

(2) Conviction of the licensee, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the facility, of a felony, or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude, during the previous 5 years as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction. ;

(3) Personnel is insufficient in number or unqualified by training or experience to properly care for the number and type of residents served by the facility. ;

(4) Financial or other resources are insufficient to conduct and operate the facility in accordance with standards promulgated by the Department under this Act. ; and

(5) The facility is not under the direct supervision of a full-time administrator, as defined by regulation, who is licensed, if required, under the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(b) Notice under this Section shall include a clear and concise statement of the violations on which the nonrenewal or revocation is based, the statute or rule violated and notice of the opportunity for a hearing under Section 3-703.

(c) If a facility desires to contest the nonrenewal or revocation of a license, the facility shall, within 10 days after receipt of notice under subsection (b) of this Section, notify the Department in writing of its request for a hearing under Section 3-703. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall send notice to the facility and hold a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(d) The effective date of nonrenewal or revocation of a license by the Department shall be any of the following:

(1) Until otherwise ordered by the circuit court, revocation is effective on the date set by the Department in the notice of revocation, or upon final action after hearing under Section 3-703, whichever is later. ;

(2) Until otherwise ordered by the circuit court, nonrenewal is effective on the date of expiration of any existing license, or upon final action after hearing under Section 3-703, whichever is later; however, a license shall not be deemed to have expired if the Department fails to timely respond to a timely request for renewal under this Act or for a hearing to contest nonrenewal under paragraph (c). ; or

(3) The Department may extend the effective date of license revocation or expiration in any case in order to permit orderly removal and relocation of residents.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(Source: P.A. 85-1337; revised 9-15-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-208) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-208)

Sec. 3-208. (a) Each licensee shall file annually, or more often as the Director shall by rule prescribe, an attested financial statement. The Director may order an audited financial statement of a particular facility by an auditor of the Director's choice, provided the cost of such audit is paid by the Department.

(b) No public funds shall be expended for the maintenance of any resident in a facility which has failed to file the financial statement required under this Section and no public funds shall be paid to or on behalf of a facility which has failed to file a statement.

(c) The Director of Public Health and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall promulgate under Sections 3-801 and 3-802, one set of regulations for the filing of these financial statements, and shall provide in these regulations for forms, required information, intervals and dates of filing and such other provisions as they may deem necessary.

(d) The Director of Public Health and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall seek the advice and comments of other State and federal agencies which require the submission of financial data from facilities licensed under this Act and shall incorporate the information requirements of these agencies so as to impose the least possible burden on licensees. No other State agency may require submission of financial data except as expressly authorized by law or as necessary to meet requirements of federal statutes or regulations. Information obtained under this Section shall be made available, upon request, by the Department to any other State agency or legislative commission to which such information is necessary for investigations or required for the purposes of State or federal law or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 81-1349; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-304) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-304)

Sec. 3-304. (a) The Department shall prepare on a quarterly basis a list containing the names and addresses of all facilities against which the Department during the previous quarter has:

(1) sent a notice under Section 3-307 regarding a penalty assessment under subsection (1) of Section 3-305;

(2) sent a notice of license revocation under Section 3-119;

(3) sent a notice refusing renewal of a license under Section 3-119;

(4) sent a notice to suspend a license under Section 3-119;

(5) issued a conditional license for violations that have not been corrected under Section 3-303 or penalties or fines described under Section 3-305 have been assessed under Section 3-307 or 3-308;

(6) placed a monitor under subsections (a), (b) and (c) of Section 3-501 and under subsection (d) of such Section where license revocation or nonrenewal notices have also been issued;

(7) initiated an action to appoint a receiver;

(8) recommended to the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of the Department of Public Aid), or the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the decertification for violations in relation to patient care of a facility pursuant to Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(b) In addition to the name and address of the facility, the list shall include the name and address of the person or licensee against whom the action has been initiated, a self-explanatory summary of the facts which warranted the initiation of each action, the type of action initiated, the date of the initiation of the action, the amount of the penalty sought to be assessed, if any, and the final disposition of the action, if completed.

(c) The list shall be available to any member of the public upon oral or written request without charge.

(Source: P.A. 85-1378; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-401.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-401.1)

Sec. 3-401.1. (a) A facility participating in the Medical Assistance Program is prohibited from failing or refusing to retain as a resident any person because he or she is a recipient of or an applicant for the Medical Assistance Program.

(a-5) After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, a facility of which only a distinct part is certified to participate in the Medical Assistance Program may refuse to retain as a resident any person who resides in a part of the facility that does not participate in the Medical Assistance Program and who is unable to pay for his or her care in the facility without Medical Assistance only if:

(1) the facility, no later than at the time of admission and at the time of the resident's contract renewal, explains to the resident (unless he or she is incompetent), and to the resident's representative, and to the person making payment on behalf of the resident for the resident's stay, in writing, that the facility may discharge the resident if the resident is no longer able to pay for his or her care in the facility without Medical Assistance;

(2) the resident (unless he or she is incompetent), the resident's representative, and the person making payment on behalf of the resident for the resident's stay, acknowledge in writing that they have received the written explanation.

(a-10) For the purposes of this Section, a recipient or applicant shall be considered a resident in the facility during any hospital stay totaling 10 days or less following a hospital admission. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall recoup funds from a facility when, as a result of the facility's refusal to readmit a recipient after hospitalization for 10 days or less, the recipient incurs hospital bills in an amount greater than the amount that would have been paid by that Department (formerly the Illinois Department of Public Aid) for care of the recipient in the facility. The amount of the recoupment shall be the difference between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' (formerly the Illinois Department of Public Aid's) payment for hospital care and the amount that Department would have paid for care in the facility.

(b) A facility which violates this Section shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not less than $500 nor more than $1,000 for the first offense and not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000 for each subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 90-310, eff. 8-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-405) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-405)

Sec. 3-405. A copy of the notice required by Section 3-402 shall be placed in the resident's clinical record and a copy shall be transmitted to the Department, the resident, the resident's representative, and, if the resident's care is paid for in whole or part through Title XIX, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 81-223; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-406) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-406)

Sec. 3-406. When the basis for an involuntary transfer or discharge is the result of an action by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) with respect to a recipient of Title XIX and a hearing request is filed with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), the 21-day written notice period shall not begin until a final decision in the matter is rendered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or a court of competent jurisdiction and notice of that final decision is received by the resident and the facility.

(Source: P.A. 81-223; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-411) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-411)

Sec. 3-411. The Department of Public Health, when the basis for involuntary transfer or discharge is other than action by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) with respect to the Title XIX Medicaid recipient, shall hold a hearing at the resident's facility not later than 10 days after a hearing request is filed, and render a decision within 14 days after the filing of the hearing request.

(Source: P.A. 81-1349; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-414) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-414)

Sec. 3-414. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall continue Title XIX Medicaid funding during the appeal, transfer, or discharge period for those residents who are Title XIX recipients affected by Section 3-401.

(Source: P.A. 81-223; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-508) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-508)

Sec. 3-508. A receiver appointed under this Act:

(a) Shall exercise those powers and shall perform those duties set out by the court. ;

(b) Shall operate the facility in such a manner as to assure safety and adequate health care for the residents. ;

(c) Shall have the same rights to possession of the building in which the facility is located and of all goods and fixtures in the building at the time the petition for receivership is filed as the owner would have had if the receiver had not been appointed, and of all assets of the facility. The receiver shall take such action as is reasonably necessary to protect or conserve the assets or property of which the receiver takes possession, or the proceeds from any transfer thereof, and may use them only in the performance of the powers and duties set forth in this Section and by order of the court. ;

(d) May use the building, fixtures, furnishings and any accompanying consumable goods in the provision of care and services to residents and to any other persons receiving services from the facility at the time the petition for receivership was filed. The receiver shall collect payments for all goods and services provided to residents or others during the period of the receivership at the same rate of payment charged by the owners at the time the petition for receivership was filed. ;

(e) May correct or eliminate any deficiency in the structure or furnishings of the facility which endangers the safety or health of residents while they remain in the facility, provided the total cost of correction does not exceed $3,000. The court may order expenditures for this purpose in excess of $3,000 on application from the receiver after notice to the owner and hearing. ;

(f) May let contracts and hire agents and employees to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver under this Section. ;

(g) Except as specified in Section 3-510, shall honor all leases, mortgages and secured transactions governing the building in which the facility is located and all goods and fixtures in the building of which the receiver has taken possession, but only to the extent of payments which, in the case of a rental agreement, are for the use of the property during the period of the receivership, or which, in the case of a purchase agreement, come due during the period of the receivership.

(h) Shall have full power to direct and manage and to discharge employees of the facility, subject to any contract rights they may have. The receiver shall pay employees at the same rate of compensation, including benefits, that the employees would have received from the owner. Receivership does not relieve the owner of any obligation to employees not carried out by the receiver. ;

(i) Shall, if any resident is transferred or discharged, follow the procedures set forth in Part 4 of this Article.

(j) Shall be entitled to and shall take possession of all property or assets of residents which are in the possession of a facility or its owner. The receiver shall preserve all property, assets and records of residents of which the receiver takes possession and shall provide for the prompt transfer of the property, assets and records to the new placement of any transferred resident.

(k) Shall report to the court on any actions he has taken to bring the facility into compliance with this Act or with Title XVIII or XIX 18 or 19 of the Social Security Act that he believes should be continued when the receivership is terminated in order to protect the health, safety or welfare of the residents.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 9-18-06.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-805) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-805)

Sec. 3-805. (a) The Department shall conduct a pilot project to examine, study and contrast the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Health Care Organizations ("Commission") accreditation review process with the current regulations and licensure surveys process conducted by the Department for long-term care facilities. This pilot project will enable qualified facilities to apply for participation in the project, in which surveys completed by the Commission are accepted by the Department in lieu of inspections required by this Act, as provided in subsection (b) of this Section. It is intended that this pilot project shall commence on January 1, 1990, and shall conclude on December 31, 2000, with a final report to be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly by June 30, 2001.

(b) (1) In lieu of conducting an inspection for license renewal under this Act, the Department may accept from a facility that is accredited by the Commission under the Commission's long-term care standards the facility's most recent annual accreditation review by the Commission. In addition to such review, the facility shall submit any fee or other license renewal report or information required by law. The Department may accept such review for so long as the Commission maintains an annual inspection or review program. If the Commission does not conduct an on-site annual inspection or review, the Department shall conduct an inspection as otherwise required by this Act. If the Department determines that an annual on-site inspection or review conducted by the Commission does not meet minimum standards set by the Department, the Department shall not accept the Commission's accreditation review and shall conduct an inspection as otherwise required by this Act.

The Department shall establish procedures applicable to the pilot project conducted pursuant to this Section. The procedures shall provide for a review of the Commission's survey findings that may be Type "A" or Type "B" violations under this Act requiring immediate correction, the taking of necessary and appropriate action to determine whether such violations exist, and steps to effect corrective action in cooperation with the Commission, or otherwise under this Act, as may be necessary. The Department shall also establish procedures to require the Commission to immediately report to the Department any survey finding that constitutes a condition or occurrence relating to the operation and maintenance of a facility which presents a substantial probability that death or serious mental or physical harm to a resident will result therefrom, so as to enable the Department to take necessary and appropriate action under this Act.

(2) This subsection (b) does not limit the Department in performing any inspections or other duties authorized by this Act, or under any contract relating to the medical assistance program administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, or under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(3) No facility shall be required to obtain accreditation from the Commission.

(c) Participation in the pilot project shall be limited to facilities selected at random by the Director, provided that:

(1) facilities shall apply to the Director for selection to participate;

(2) facilities which are currently accredited by the Commission may apply to participate;

(3) any facility not accredited by the Commission at the time of application to participate in the pilot project shall apply for such accreditation;

(4) the number of facilities so selected shall be no greater than 15% of the total number of long-term care facilities licensed under this Act;

(5) the number of facilities so selected shall be divided equally between facilities having fewer than 100 beds and facilities having 100 or more beds;

(6) facilities so selected shall have been licensed for more than 2 years and shall not have been issued a conditional license within 2 years before applying for participation in the pilot project; and

(7) no facilities so selected shall have been issued a notice of a Type "A" violation within one year before applying for participation in the pilot project.

(d) Inspections and surveys conducted by the Commission under the pilot project for initial or continued accreditation shall not be announced in advance to the facility being inspected or surveyed, and shall provide for participation in the inspection or survey process by residents of the facility and the public.

(e) With respect to any facility accredited by the Commission, the Commission shall submit to the Department copies of:

(1) the accreditation award letter;

(2) the accreditation report, including recommendations and comments by the Commission; and

(3) any correspondence directly related to the accreditation.

(f) No facility which is denied initial or continued accreditation by the Commission shall participate in the pilot project.

(g) The Director shall meet at least once every 6 months with the director of the Commission's long-term care facility accreditation program to review, coordinate and modify as necessary the services performed by the Commission under the pilot project. On or before June 30, 1993, the Director shall submit to the Governor and to the General Assembly a report evaluating the pilot project and making any recommendations deemed necessary.

(h) This Section does not limit the Department in performing any inspections or other duties authorized by this Act, or under any contract relating to the medical assistance program administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, or under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-171, eff. 7-19-95; 89-381, eff. 8-18-95; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96; 90-353, eff. 8-8-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(210 ILCS 45/3A-101)

Sec. 3A-101. Cooperative arrangements. Not later than June 30, 1996, the Department shall enter into one or more cooperative arrangements with the Illinois Department of Public Aid, the Department on Aging, the Office of the State Fire Marshal, and any other appropriate entity for the purpose of developing a single survey for nursing facilities, including but not limited to facilities funded under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, or both, which shall be administered and conducted solely by the Department. The Departments shall test the single survey process on a pilot basis, with both the Departments of Public Aid and Public Health represented on the consolidated survey team. The pilot will sunset June 30, 1997. After June 30, 1997, unless otherwise determined by the Governor, a single survey shall be implemented by the Department of Public Health which would not preclude staff from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) from going on-site to nursing facilities to perform necessary audits and reviews which shall not replicate the single State agency survey required by this Act. This Article shall not apply to community or intermediate care facilities for the developmentally disabled.

(Source: P.A. 89-415, eff. 1-1-96; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 635. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 11 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise, the terms defined in the following Sections preceding proceeding Section 3 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 94-379, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-27-05.)

(210 ILCS 55/11) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2811)

Sec. 11. (a) Each licensee shall file annually, or more often as the Director shall by rule prescribe, an attested financial statement. An audited financial statement may be required of a particular facility, if the Director determines that additional information is needed.

(b) No public funds shall be expended for the services of a home health agency which has failed to file the financial statement required by this Section.

(c) The Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health and the Director of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall promulgate one set of regulations for the filing of financial statements, and shall provide in these regulations for forms, information required, intervals and dates of filing, and such other provisions as he may deem necessary. Regulations shall be published in sufficient time to permit those licensees who must first file financial statements time in which to do so.

(d) The Director shall seek the advice and comments of other State and Federal agencies which require the submission of financial data from home health agencies licensed under this Act and shall incorporate the information requirements of these agencies into the forms it adopts or issues under this Act and shall otherwise coordinate its regulations with the requirements of these agencies so as to impose the least possible burden on licensees. No other State agency may require submission of financial data except as expressly authorized by law or as necessary to meet requirements of federal law or regulation. Information obtained under this Section shall be made available, upon request, by the Department to any other State agency or legislative commission to which such information is necessary for investigations or to execute the intent of State or Federal law or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 80-804; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 640. The Supportive Residences Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 65/20) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 9020)

Sec. 20. Licensing standards.

(a) The Department shall promulgate rules establishing minimum standards for licensing and operating Supportive Residences in municipalities with a population over 500,000. No such municipality shall have more than 12 Supportive Residences. These rules shall regulate the operation and conduct of Supportive Residences and shall include but not be limited to:

(1) development and maintenance of a case management system by which an integrated care plan is to be created for each resident;

(2) the training and qualifications of personnel directly responsible for providing care to residents;

(3) provisions and criteria for admission, discharge, and transfer of residents;

(4) provisions for residents to receive appropriate programming and support services commensurate with their individual needs;

(5) agreements between Supportive Residences and hospitals or other health care providers;

(6) residents' rights and responsibilities and those of their families and guardians;

(7) fee and other contractual agreements between Supportive Residences and residents;

(8) medical and supportive services for residents;

(9) the safety, cleanliness, and general adequacy of the premises, including provision for maintenance of fire and health standards that conform to State laws and municipal codes, to provide for the physical comfort, well-being, care, and protection of the residents;

(10) maintenance of records and residents' rights of access to those records; and

(11) procedures for reporting abuse or neglect of residents.

(b) The rules shall also regulate the general financial ability, competence, character, and qualifications of the applicant to provide appropriate care and comply with this Act.

(c) The Department may promulgate special rules and regulations establishing minimum standards for Supportive Support Residences that permit the admission of:

(1) residents who are parents with children, whether either or both have HIV Disease; or

(2) residents with HIV Disease who are also developmentally or physically disabled.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to impair or abridge the power of municipalities to enforce municipal zoning or land use ordinances.

(Source: P.A. 87-840; 88-500; revised 9-18-06.)

(210 ILCS 65/30) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 9030)

Sec. 30. Departmental inspection.

(a) The Department may inspect the records and premises of a Supportive Residence whenever the Department determines it to be appropriate.

(b) The Department shall investigate all reports of violations from any other governmental entity that also has monitoring responsibilities for Supportive Support Residences.

(c) If the Department determines that a Supportive Residence is not in compliance with this Act, the Department shall promptly serve a notice of violation upon the licensee. Each notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall specify the nature of the violation, the statutory provision or rule alleged to have been violated, and the requirement that the licensee submit a plan of correction to the Department. The notice shall also inform the licensee of any other action the Department might take under this Act and of his right to a hearing under Section 55 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-840; revised 9-18-06.)

Section 645. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 10.4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/10.4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 151.4)

Sec. 10.4. Medical staff privileges.

(a) Any hospital licensed under this Act or any hospital organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act shall, prior to the granting of any medical staff privileges to an applicant, or renewing a current medical staff member's privileges, request of the Director of Professional Regulation information concerning the licensure status and any disciplinary action taken against the applicant's or medical staff member's license, except: (1) for medical personnel who enter a hospital to obtain organs and tissues for transplant from a donor in accordance with the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act; or (2) for medical personnel who have been granted disaster privileges pursuant to the procedures and requirements established by rules adopted by the Department. Any hospital and any employees of the hospital or others involved in granting privileges who that, in good faith, grant grants disaster privileges pursuant to this Section to respond to an emergency shall not, as a result of their his, her, or its acts or omissions, be liable for civil damages for granting or denying disaster privileges except in the event of willful and wanton misconduct, as that term is defined in Section 10.2 of this Act. Individuals granted privileges who provide care in an emergency situation, in good faith and without direct compensation, shall not, as a result of their his or her acts or omissions, except for acts or omissions involving willful and wanton misconduct, as that term is defined in Section 10.2 of this Act, on the part of the person, be liable for civil damages. The Director of Professional Regulation shall transmit, in writing and in a timely fashion, such information regarding the license of the applicant or the medical staff member, including the record of imposition of any periods of supervision or monitoring as a result of alcohol or substance abuse, as provided by Section 23 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, and such information as may have been submitted to the Department indicating that the application or medical staff member has been denied, or has surrendered, medical staff privileges at a hospital licensed under this Act, or any equivalent facility in another state or territory of the United States. The Director of Professional Regulation shall define by rule the period for timely response to such requests.

No transmittal of information by the Director of Professional Regulation, under this Section shall be to other than the president, chief operating officer, chief administrative officer, or chief of the medical staff of a hospital licensed under this Act, a hospital organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital operated by the United States, or any of its instrumentalities. The information so transmitted shall be afforded the same status as is information concerning medical studies by Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) All hospitals licensed under this Act, except county hospitals as defined in subsection (c) of Section 15-1 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, shall comply with, and the medical staff bylaws of these hospitals shall include rules consistent with, the provisions of this Section in granting, limiting, renewing, or denying medical staff membership and clinical staff privileges. Hospitals that require medical staff members to possess faculty status with a specific institution of higher education are not required to comply with subsection (1) below when the physician does not possess faculty status.

(1) Minimum procedures for pre-applicants and applicants for medical staff membership shall include the following:

(A) Written procedures relating to the acceptance and processing of pre-applicants or applicants for medical staff membership, which should be contained in medical staff bylaws.

(B) Written procedures to be followed in determining a pre-applicant's or an applicant's qualifications for being granted medical staff membership and privileges.

(C) Written criteria to be followed in evaluating a pre-applicant's or an applicant's qualifications.

(D) An evaluation of a pre-applicant's or an applicant's current health status and current license status in Illinois.

(E) A written response to each pre-applicant or applicant that explains the reason or reasons for any adverse decision (including all reasons based in whole or in part on the applicant's medical qualifications or any other basis, including economic factors).

(2) Minimum procedures with respect to medical staff and clinical privilege determinations concerning current members of the medical staff shall include the following:

(A) A written notice of an adverse decision.

(B) An explanation of the reasons for an adverse decision including all reasons based on the quality of medical care or any other basis, including economic factors.

(C) A statement of the medical staff member's right to request a fair hearing on the adverse decision before a hearing panel whose membership is mutually agreed upon by the medical staff and the hospital governing board. The hearing panel shall have independent authority to recommend action to the hospital governing board. Upon the request of the medical staff member or the hospital governing board, the hearing panel shall make findings concerning the nature of each basis for any adverse decision recommended to and accepted by the hospital governing board.

(i) Nothing in this subparagraph (C) limits a hospital's or medical staff's right to summarily suspend, without a prior hearing, a person's medical staff membership or clinical privileges if the continuation of practice of a medical staff member constitutes an immediate danger to the public, including patients, visitors, and hospital employees and staff. A fair hearing shall be commenced within 15 days after the suspension and completed without delay.

(ii) Nothing in this subparagraph (C) limits a medical staff's right to permit, in the medical staff bylaws, summary suspension of membership or clinical privileges in designated administrative circumstances as specifically approved by the medical staff. This bylaw provision must specifically describe both the administrative circumstance that can result in a summary suspension and the length of the summary suspension. The opportunity for a fair hearing is required for any administrative summary suspension. Any requested hearing must be commenced within 15 days after the summary suspension and completed without delay. Adverse decisions other than suspension or other restrictions on the treatment or admission of patients may be imposed summarily and without a hearing under designated administrative circumstances as specifically provided for in the medical staff bylaws as approved by the medical staff.

(iii) If a hospital exercises its option to enter into an exclusive contract and that contract results in the total or partial termination or reduction of medical staff membership or clinical privileges of a current medical staff member, the hospital shall provide the affected medical staff member 60 days prior notice of the effect on his or her medical staff membership or privileges. An affected medical staff member desiring a hearing under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2) must request the hearing within 14 days after the date he or she is so notified. The requested hearing shall be commenced and completed (with a report and recommendation to the affected medical staff member, hospital governing board, and medical staff) within 30 days after the date of the medical staff member's request. If agreed upon by both the medical staff and the hospital governing board, the medical staff bylaws may provide for longer time periods.

(D) A statement of the member's right to inspect all pertinent information in the hospital's possession with respect to the decision.

(E) A statement of the member's right to present witnesses and other evidence at the hearing on the decision.

(F) A written notice and written explanation of the decision resulting from the hearing.

(F-5) A written notice of a final adverse decision by a hospital governing board.

(G) Notice given 15 days before implementation of an adverse medical staff membership or clinical privileges decision based substantially on economic factors. This notice shall be given after the medical staff member exhausts all applicable procedures under this Section, including item (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2), and under the medical staff bylaws in order to allow sufficient time for the orderly provision of patient care.

(H) Nothing in this paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) limits a medical staff member's right to waive, in writing, the rights provided in subparagraphs (A) through (G) of this paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) upon being granted the written exclusive right to provide particular services at a hospital, either individually or as a member of a group. If an exclusive contract is signed by a representative of a group of physicians, a waiver contained in the contract shall apply to all members of the group unless stated otherwise in the contract.

(3) Every adverse medical staff membership and clinical privilege decision based substantially on economic factors shall be reported to the Hospital Licensing Board before the decision takes effect. These reports shall not be disclosed in any form that reveals the identity of any hospital or physician. These reports shall be utilized to study the effects that hospital medical staff membership and clinical privilege decisions based upon economic factors have on access to care and the availability of physician services. The Hospital Licensing Board shall submit an initial study to the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 1996, and subsequent reports shall be submitted periodically thereafter.

(4) As used in this Section:

"Adverse decision" means a decision reducing, restricting, suspending, revoking, denying, or not renewing medical staff membership or clinical privileges.

"Economic factor" means any information or reasons for decisions unrelated to quality of care or professional competency.

"Pre-applicant" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who requests an application for medical staff membership or privileges.

"Privilege" means permission to provide medical or other patient care services and permission to use hospital resources, including equipment, facilities and personnel that are necessary to effectively provide medical or other patient care services. This definition shall not be construed to require a hospital to acquire additional equipment, facilities, or personnel to accommodate the granting of privileges.

(5) Any amendment to medical staff bylaws required because of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly shall be adopted on or before July 1, 2001.

(c) All hospitals shall consult with the medical staff prior to closing membership in the entire or any portion of the medical staff or a department. If the hospital closes membership in the medical staff, any portion of the medical staff, or the department over the objections of the medical staff, then the hospital shall provide a detailed written explanation for the decision to the medical staff 10 days prior to the effective date of any closure. No applications need to be provided when membership in the medical staff or any relevant portion of the medical staff is closed.

(Source: P.A. 93-794, eff. 7-22-04; 93-829, eff. 7-28-04; revised 11-22-05.)

Section 650. The Mobile Home Park Act is amended by changing Section 2.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 115/2.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 712.2)

Sec. 2.2. Permanent habitation. "Permanent habitation" means habitation for a period of 2 or more months.

(Source: P.A. 77-1472; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 655. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 155.21, 238, 238.1, 299.1a, 299.1b, 337.1, 352, 356b, 356r, 367b, 370c, 416, 500-135, 512-3, 531.06, and 1204, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 155.39, 356z.2, and 356z.4, and by renumbering Section 370r as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/155.21) (from Ch. 73, par. 767.21)

Sec. 155.21. A company writing medical liability insurance shall not refuse to offer insurance to a physician, hospital or other health care provider on the grounds that the physician, hospital or health care provider has entered or intends to enter an arbitration agreement pursuant to the Health Care "Malpractice Arbitration Act".

As used in this Section, medical liability insurance means insurance on risks based upon negligence by a physician, hospital or other health care provider.

(Source: P.A. 79-1435; revised 10-11-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.39)

Sec. 155.39. Vehicle protection products.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Administrator" means a third party other than the warrantor who is designated by the warrantor to be responsible for the administration of vehicle protection product warranties.

"Incidental costs" means expenses specified in the vehicle protection product warranty incurred by the warranty holder related to the failure of the vehicle protection product to perform as provided in the warranty. Incidental costs may include, without limitation, insurance policy deductibles, rental vehicle charges, the difference between the actual value of the stolen vehicle at the time of theft and the cost of a replacement vehicle, sales taxes, registration fees, transaction fees, and mechanical inspection fees.

"Vehicle protection product" means a vehicle protection device, system, or service that is (i) installed on or applied to a vehicle, (ii) is designed to prevent loss or damage to a vehicle from a specific cause, (iii) includes a written warranty by a warrantor that provides if the vehicle protection product fails to prevent loss or damage to a vehicle from a specific cause, that the warranty holder shall be paid specified incidental costs by the warrantor as a result of the failure of the vehicle protection product to perform pursuant to the terms of the warranty, and (iv) the warrantor's liability is covered by a warranty reimbursement insurance policy. The term "vehicle protection product" shall include, without limitation, alarm systems, body part marking products, steering locks, window etch products, pedal and ignition locks, fuel and ignition kill switches, and electronic, radio, and satellite tracking devices.

"Vehicle protection product warrantor" or "warrantor" means a person who is contractually obligated to the warranty holder under the terms of the vehicle protection product. Warrantor does not include an authorized insurer.

"Warranty reimbursement insurance policy" means a policy of insurance issued to the vehicle protection product warrantor to pay on behalf of the warrantor all covered contractual obligations incurred by the warrantor under the terms and conditions of the insured vehicle protection product warranties sold by the warrantor. The warranty reimbursement insurance policy shall be issued by an insurer authorized to do business in this State that has filed its policy form with the Department.

(b) No vehicle protection product sold or offered for sale in this State shall be subject to the provisions of this Code. Vehicle protection product warrantors and related vehicle protection product sellers and warranty administrators complying with this Section are not required to comply with and are not subject to any other provision of this Code. The vehicle protection products' written warranties are express warranties and not insurance.

(c) This Section applies to all vehicle protection products sold or offered for sale prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. The enactment of this Section does not imply that vehicle protection products should have been subject to regulation under this Code prior to the enactment of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-218, eff. 7-18-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.40)

Sec. 155.40 155.39. Auto insurance; application; false address.

(a) An applicant for a policy of insurance that insures against any loss or liability resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance, or use of a motor vehicle shall not provide to the insurer to which the application for coverage is made any address for the applicant other than the address at which the applicant resides.

(b) A person who knowingly violates this Section is guilty of a business offense. The penalty is a fine of not less than $1,001 and not more than $1,200.

(Source: P.A. 93-269, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-19-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.41)

Sec. 155.41 155.39. Slave era policies.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares all of the following:

(1) Insurance policies from the slavery era have been discovered in the archives of several insurance companies, documenting insurance coverage for slaveholders for damage to or death of their slaves, issued by a predecessor insurance firm. These documents provide the first evidence of ill-gotten profits from slavery, which profits in part capitalized insurers whose successors remain in existence today.

(2) Legislation has been introduced in Congress for the past 10 years demanding an inquiry into slavery and its continuing legacies.

(3) The Director of Insurance and the Department of Insurance are entitled to seek information from the files of insurers licensed and doing business in this State, including licensed Illinois subsidiaries of international insurance corporations, regarding insurance policies issued to slaveholders by predecessor corporations. The people of Illinois are entitled to significant historical information of this nature.

(b) The Department shall request and obtain information from insurers licensed and doing business in this State regarding any records of slaveholder insurance policies issued by any predecessor corporation during the slavery era.

(c) The Department shall obtain the names of any slaveholders or slaves described in those insurance records, and shall make the information available to the public and the General Assembly.

(d) Any insurer licensed and doing business in this State shall research and report to the Department with respect to any records within the insurer's possession or knowledge relating to insurance policies issued to slaveholders that provided coverage for damage to or death of their slaves.

(e) Descendants of slaves, whose ancestors were defined as private property, dehumanized, divided from their families, forced to perform labor without appropriate compensation or benefits, and whose ancestors' owners were compensated for damages by insurers, are entitled to full disclosure.

(Source: P.A. 93-333, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-19-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/238) (from Ch. 73, par. 850)

Sec. 238. Exemption.

(a) All proceeds payable because of the death of the insured and the aggregate net cash value of any or all life and endowment policies and annuity contracts payable to a wife or husband of the insured, or to a child, parent or other person dependent upon the insured, whether the power to change the beneficiary is reserved to the insured or not, and whether the insured or his estate is a contingent beneficiary or not, shall be exempt from execution, attachment, garnishment or other process, for the debts or liabilities of the insured incurred subsequent to the effective date of this Code, except as to premiums paid in fraud of creditors within the period limited by law for the recovery thereof.

(b) Any insurance company doing business in this State and governed by this Code shall encumber or surrender accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by the insurance company owned by any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

This Section does not prohibit the furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any insurance company governed by this Code shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid provided the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pays to the insurance company a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. An insurance company providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any owner of an account as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or other person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), for encumbering or surrendering any accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by the insurance company in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. An insurance company shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender any accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy requiring that action.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/238.1)

Sec. 238.1. Data exchanges; administrative liens.

(a) Any insurance company doing business in the State and governed by this Code shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for the purpose of locating accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code of responsible relatives to satisfy past-due child support owed by responsible relatives under an order for support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State on behalf of resident or non-resident persons.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, an insurance company shall not be liable to any person:

(1) for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a);

(2) for encumbering or surrendering any accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by such insurance company in response to a notice of lien or levy issued by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), or by any other state's child support enforcement agency, as provided for in Section 238 of this Code; or

(3) for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/299.1a) (from Ch. 73, par. 911.1a)

Sec. 299.1a. Benefits not Attachable.

(a) No money or other charity, relief or aid to be paid, provided or rendered by any society shall be liable to attachment, garnishment or other process or to be seized, taken, appropriated or applied by any legal or equitable process or operation of law to pay any debt or liability of a member or beneficiary, or any other person who may have a right thereunder, either before or after payment by the society.

(b) Any benefit association doing business in this State and governed by this Article XVII shall encumber or surrender accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by the benefit association owned by any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

This Section shall not prohibit the furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any benefit association governed by this Article XVII shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid provided the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pays to the benefit association a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A benefit association providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by the benefit association in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A benefit association shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender accounts until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy requiring that action.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/299.1b)

Sec. 299.1b. Data exchanges; administrative liens.

(a) Any benefit association doing business in the State and governed by this Code shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for the purpose of locating accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code of responsible relatives to satisfy past-due child support owed by responsible relatives under an order for support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State on behalf of resident or non-resident persons.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, a benefit association shall not be liable to any person:

(1) for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a);

(2) for encumbering or surrendering any accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by such benefit association in response to a notice of lien or levy issued by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), or by any other state's child support enforcement agency, as provided for in Section 299.1a of this Code; or

(3) for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/337.1)

Sec. 337.1. Data exchanges; administrative liens.

(a) Any benefit association governed by this Article XVIII shall encumber or surrender accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code held by the benefit association on behalf of any responsible relative who is subject to a child support lien, upon notice of the lien or levy by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or its successor agency pursuant to Section 10-25.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or upon notice of interstate lien from any other state's agency responsible for implementing the child support enforcement program set forth in Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(b) This Section shall not prohibit the furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any benefit association governed by this Article XVIII shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid provided the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pays to the benefit association a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A benefit association providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any owner of an account as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or other person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), for encumbering or surrendering any accounts held by the benefit association in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A benefit association shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender the accounts or portions thereof as defined in Section 10-24 of the Illinois Public Aid Code until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/352) (from Ch. 73, par. 964)

Sec. 352. Scope of Article.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e), this Article shall apply to all companies transacting in this State the kinds of business enumerated in clause (b) of Class 1 and clause (a) of Class 2 of section 4. Nothing in this Article shall apply to, or in any way affect policies or contracts described in clause (a) of Class 1 of Section 4; however, this Article shall apply to policies and contracts which contain benefits providing reimbursement for the expenses of long term health care which are certified or ordered by a physician including but not limited to professional nursing care, custodial nursing care, and non-nursing custodial care provided in a nursing home or at a residence of the insured.

(b) This Article does not apply to policies of accident and health insurance issued in compliance with Article XIXB of this Code.

(c) A policy issued and delivered in this State that provides coverage under that policy for certificate holders who are neither residents of nor employed in this State does not need to provide to those nonresident certificate holders who are not employed in this State the coverages or services mandated by this Article.

(d) Stop-loss insurance is exempt from all Sections of this Article, except this Section and Sections 353a, 354, 357.30, and 370. For purposes of this exemption, stop-loss insurance is further defined as follows:

(1) The policy must be issued to and insure an employer, trustee, or other sponsor of the plan, or the plan itself, but not employees, members, or participants.

(2) Payments by the insurer must be made to the employer, trustee, or other sponsors of the plan, or the plan itself, but not to the employees, members, participants, or health care providers.

(e) A policy issued or delivered in this State to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) and providing coverage, under clause (b) of Class 1 or clause (a) of Class 2 as described in Section 4, to persons who are enrolled under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act is exempt from all restrictions, limitations, standards, rules, or regulations respecting benefits imposed by or under authority of this Code, except those specified by subsection (1) of Section 143. Nothing in this subsection, however, affects the total medical services available to persons eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-370, eff. 8-15-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/356b) (from Ch. 73, par. 968b)

Sec. 356b. (a) This Section applies to the hospital and medical expense provisions of an accident or health insurance policy.

(b) If a policy provides that coverage of a dependent person terminates upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons specified in the policy, the attainment of such limiting age does not operate to terminate the hospital and medical coverage of a person who, because of a handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(c) For purposes of subsection (b), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(d) The insurer may inquire of the policyholder 2 months prior to attainment by a dependent of the limiting age set forth in the policy, or at any reasonable time thereafter, whether such dependent is in fact a disabled and dependent person and, in the absence of proof submitted within 60 days of such inquiry that such dependent is a disabled and dependent person may terminate coverage of such person at or after attainment of the limiting age. In the absence of such inquiry, coverage of any disabled and dependent person shall continue through the term of such policy or any extension or renewal thereof.

(e) This amendatory Act of 1969 is applicable to policies issued or renewed more than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 88-309; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/356r)

Sec. 356r. Woman's principal health care provider.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after November 14, 1996 that requires an insured or enrollee to designate an individual to coordinate care or to control access to health care services shall also permit a female insured or enrollee to designate a participating woman's principal health care provider, and the insurer or managed care plan shall provide the following written notice to all female insureds or enrollees no later than 120 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998; to all new enrollees at the time of enrollment; and thereafter to all existing enrollees at least annually, as a part of a regular publication or informational mailing:

"NOTICE TO ALL FEMALE PLAN MEMBERS:

YOUR RIGHT TO SELECT A WOMAN'S PRINCIPAL

HEALTH CARE PROVIDER.

Illinois law allows you to select "a woman's principal health care provider" in addition to your selection of a primary care physician. A woman's principal health care provider is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches specializing in obstetrics or gynecology or specializing in family practice. A woman's principal health care provider may be seen for care without referrals from your primary care physician. If you have not already selected a woman's principal health care provider, you may do so now or at any other time. You are not required to have or to select a woman's principal health care provider.

Your woman's principal health care provider must be a part of your plan. You may get the list of participating obstetricians, gynecologists, and family practice specialists from your employer's employee benefits coordinator, or for your own copy of the current list, you may call [insert plan's toll free number]. The list will be sent to you within 10 days after your call. To designate a woman's principal health care provider from the list, call [insert plan's toll free number] and tell our staff the name of the physician you have selected.".

If the insurer or managed care plan exercises the option set forth in subsection (a-5), the notice shall also state:

"Your plan requires that your primary care physician and your woman's principal health care provider have a referral arrangement with one another. If the woman's principal health care provider that you select does not have a referral arrangement with your primary care physician, you will have to select a new primary care physician who has a referral arrangement with your woman's principal health care provider or you may select a woman's principal health care provider who has a referral arrangement with your primary care physician. The list of woman's principal health care providers will also have the names of the primary care physicians and their referral arrangements.".

No later than 120 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998, the insurer or managed care plan shall provide each employer who has a policy of insurance or a managed care plan with the insurer or managed care plan with a list of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches specializing in obstetrics or gynecology or specializing in family practice who have contracted with the plan. At the time of enrollment and thereafter within 10 days after a request by an insured or enrollee, the insurer or managed care plan also shall provide this list directly to the insured or enrollee. The list shall include each physician's address, telephone number, and specialty. No insurer or plan formal or informal policy may restrict a female insured's or enrollee's right to designate a woman's principal health care provider, except as set forth in subsection (a-5). If the female enrollee is an enrollee of a managed care plan under contract with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the physician chosen by the enrollee as her woman's principal health care provider must be a Medicaid-enrolled provider. This requirement does not require a female insured or enrollee to make a selection of a woman's principal health care provider. The female insured or enrollee may designate a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches specializing in family practice as her woman's principal health care provider.

(a-5) The insured or enrollee may be required by the insurer or managed care plan to select a woman's principal health care provider who has a referral arrangement with the insured's or enrollee's individual who coordinates care or controls access to health care services if such referral arrangement exists or to select a new individual to coordinate care or to control access to health care services who has a referral arrangement with the woman's principal health care provider chosen by the insured or enrollee, if such referral arrangement exists. If an insurer or a managed care plan requires an insured or enrollee to select a new physician under this subsection (a-5), the insurer or managed care plan must provide the insured or enrollee with both options to select a new physician provided in this subsection (a-5).

Notwithstanding a plan's restrictions of the frequency or timing of making designations of primary care providers, a female enrollee or insured who is subject to the selection requirements of this subsection, may, at any time, effect a change in primary care physicians in order to make a selection of a woman's principal health care provider.

(a-6) If an insurer or managed care plan exercises the option in subsection (a-5), the list to be provided under subsection (a) shall identify the referral arrangements that exist between the individual who coordinates care or controls access to health care services and the woman's principal health care provider in order to assist the female insured or enrollee to make a selection within the insurer's or managed care plan's requirement.

(b) If a female insured or enrollee has designated a woman's principal health care provider, then the insured or enrollee must be given direct access to the woman's principal health care provider for services covered by the policy or plan without the need for a referral or prior approval. Nothing shall prohibit the insurer or managed care plan from requiring prior authorization or approval from either a primary care provider or the woman's principal health care provider for referrals for additional care or services.

(c) For the purposes of this Section the following terms are defined:

(1) "Woman's principal health care provider" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches specializing in obstetrics or gynecology or specializing in family practice.

(2) "Managed care entity" means any entity including a licensed insurance company, hospital or medical service plan, health maintenance organization, limited health service organization, preferred provider organization, third party administrator, an employer or employee organization, or any person or entity that establishes, operates, or maintains a network of participating providers.

(3) "Managed care plan" means a plan operated by a managed care entity that provides for the financing of health care services to persons enrolled in the plan through:

(A) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute resolution; or

(B) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers and procedures covered by the plan.

(4) "Participating provider" means a physician who has contracted with an insurer or managed care plan to provide services to insureds or enrollees as defined by the contract.

(d) The original provisions of this Section became law on July 17, 1996 and took effect November 14, 1996, which is 120 days after becoming law.

(Source: P.A. 89-514; 90-14, eff. 7-1-97; 90-741, eff. 8-13-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.2)

Sec. 356z.2. Coverage for adjunctive services in dental care.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall cover charges incurred, and anesthetics provided, in conjunction with dental care that is provided to a covered individual in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center if any of the following applies:

(1) the individual is a child age 6 or under;

(2) the individual has a medical condition that requires hospitalization or general anesthesia for dental care; or

(3) the individual is disabled.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "ambulatory surgical treatment center" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

For purposes of this Section, "disabled" means a person, regardless of age, with a chronic disability if the chronic disability meets all of the following conditions:

(1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments.

(2) It is likely to continue.

(3) It results in substantial functional limitations in one or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(A) self-care;

(B) receptive and expressive language;

(C) learning;

(D) mobility;

(E) capacity for independent living; or

(F) economic self-sufficiency.

(c) The coverage required under this Section may be subject to any limitations, exclusions, or cost-sharing provisions that apply generally under the insurance policy.

(d) This Section does not apply to a policy that covers only dental care.

(e) Nothing in this Section requires that the dental services be covered.

(f) The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specified disease policies, nor to policies or contracts designed for issuance to persons eligible for coverage under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, known as Medicare, or any other similar coverage under State or federal governmental plans.

(Source: P.A. 92-764, eff. 1-1-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.3)

Sec. 356z.3 356z.2. Disclosure of limited benefit. An insurer that issues, delivers, amends, or renews an individual or group policy of accident and health insurance in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and arranges, contracts with, or administers contracts with a provider whereby beneficiaries are provided an incentive to use the services of such provider must include the following disclosure on its contracts and evidences of coverage: "WARNING, LIMITED BENEFITS WILL BE PAID WHEN NON-PARTICIPATING PROVIDERS ARE USED. You should be aware that when you elect to utilize the services of a non-participating provider for a covered service in non-emergency situations, benefit payments to such non-participating provider are not based upon the amount billed. The basis of your benefit payment will be determined according to your policy's fee schedule, usual and customary charge (which is determined by comparing charges for similar services adjusted to the geographical area where the services are performed), or other method as defined by the policy. YOU CAN EXPECT TO PAY MORE THAN THE COINSURANCE AMOUNT DEFINED IN THE POLICY AFTER THE PLAN HAS PAID ITS REQUIRED PORTION. Non-participating providers may bill members for any amount up to the billed charge after the plan has paid its portion of the bill. Participating providers have agreed to accept discounted payments for services with no additional billing to the member other than co-insurance and deductible amounts. You may obtain further information about the participating status of professional providers and information on out-of-pocket expenses by calling the toll free telephone number on your identification card.".

(Source: P.A. 92-579, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-3-02.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.4)

Sec. 356z.4. Coverage for contraceptives.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that provides coverage for outpatient services and outpatient prescription drugs or devices must provide coverage for the insured and any dependent of the insured covered by the policy for all outpatient contraceptive services and all outpatient contraceptive drugs and devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration. Coverage required under this Section may not impose any deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, or other cost-sharing or limitation that is greater than that required for any outpatient service or outpatient prescription drug or device otherwise covered by the policy.

(b) As used in this Section, "outpatient contraceptive service" means consultations, examinations, procedures, and medical services, provided on an outpatient basis and related to the use of contraceptive methods (including natural family planning) to prevent an unintended pregnancy.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an insurance company to cover services related to an abortion as the term "abortion" is defined in the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an insurance company to cover services related to permanent sterilization that requires a surgical procedure.

(Source: P.A. 93-102, eff. 1-1-04.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.5)

Sec. 356z.5 356z.4. Prescription inhalants. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that provides coverage for prescription drugs may not deny or limit coverage for prescription inhalants to enable persons to breathe when suffering from asthma or other life-threatening bronchial ailments based upon any restriction on the number of days before an inhaler refill may be obtained if, contrary to those restrictions, the inhalants have been ordered or prescribed by the treating physician and are medically appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 93-529, eff. 8-14-03; revised 9-25-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.7) (was 215 ILCS 5/370r)

Sec. 356z.7 370r. Prescription drugs; cancer treatment. No group policy of accident or health insurance that provides coverage for prescribed drugs approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of certain types of cancer shall exclude coverage of any drug on the basis that the drug has been prescribed for the treatment of a type of cancer for which the drug has not been approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration. The drug, however, must be approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration and must be recognized for the treatment of the specific type of cancer for which the drug has been prescribed in any one of the following established reference compendia:

(a) the American Medical Association Drug Evaluations;

(b) the American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information; or

(c) the United States Pharmacopeia Drug Information;

or if not in the compendia, recommended for that particular type of cancer in formal clinical studies, the results of which have been published in at least two peer reviewed professional medical journals published in the United States or Great Britain.

Any coverage required by this Section shall also include those medically necessary services associated with the administration of a drug.

Despite the provisions of this Section, coverage shall not be required for any experimental or investigational drugs or any drug that the federal Food and Drug Administration has determined to be contraindicated for treatment of the specific type of cancer for which the drug has been prescribed. This Section shall apply only to cancer drugs. Nothing in this Section shall be construed, expressly or by implication, to create, impair, alter, limit, notify, enlarge, abrogate or prohibit reimbursement for drugs used in the treatment of any other disease or condition.

(Source: P.A. 87-980; revised 10-19-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/367b) (from Ch. 73, par. 979b)

Sec. 367b. (a) This Section applies to the hospital and medical expense provisions of a group accident or health insurance policy.

(b) If a policy provides that coverage of a dependent of an employee or other member of the covered group terminates upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons specified in the policy, the attainment of such limiting age does not operate to terminate the hospital and medical coverage of a person who, because of a handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(c) For purposes of subsection (b), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(d) The insurer may inquire of the person insured 2 months prior to attainment by a dependent of the limiting age set forth in the policy, or at any reasonable time thereafter, whether such dependent is in fact a disabled and dependent person and, in the absence of proof submitted within 31 days of such inquiry that such dependent is a disabled and dependent person may terminate coverage of such person at or after attainment of the limiting age. In the absence of such inquiry, coverage of any disabled and dependent person shall continue through the term of such policy or any extension or renewal.

(e) This amendatory Act of 1969 is applicable to policies issued or renewed more than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 88-309; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a) (1) On and after the effective date of this Section, every insurer which delivers, issues for delivery or renews or modifies group A&H policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall offer to the applicant or group policyholder subject to the insurers standards of insurability, coverage for reasonable and necessary treatment and services for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions, other than serious mental illnesses as defined in item (2) of subsection (b), up to the limits provided in the policy for other disorders or conditions, except (i) the insured may be required to pay up to 50% of expenses incurred as a result of the treatment or services, and (ii) the annual benefit limit may be limited to the lesser of $10,000 or 25% of the lifetime policy limit.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed clinical professional counselor of his choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed clinical professional counselor up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed clinical professional counselor is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers and licensed clinical professional counselors, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker or licensed clinical professional counselor has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician and the licensed clinical social worker or licensed clinical professional counselor has provided written notification to the patient's primary care physician, if any, that services are being provided to the patient. That notification may, however, be waived by the patient on a written form. Those forms shall be retained by the licensed clinical social worker or licensed clinical professional counselor for a period of not less than 5 years.

(b) (1) An insurer that provides coverage for hospital or medical expenses under a group policy of accident and health insurance or health care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall provide coverage under the policy for treatment of serious mental illness under the same terms and conditions as coverage for hospital or medical expenses related to other illnesses and diseases. The coverage required under this Section must provide for same durational limits, amount limits, deductibles, and co-insurance requirements for serious mental illness as are provided for other illnesses and diseases. This subsection does not apply to coverage provided to employees by employers who have 50 or fewer employees.

(2) "Serious mental illness" means the following psychiatric illnesses as defined in the most current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the American Psychiatric Association:

(A) schizophrenia;

(B) paranoid and other psychotic disorders;

(C) bipolar disorders (hypomanic, manic, depressive, and mixed);

(D) major depressive disorders (single episode or recurrent);

(E) schizoaffective disorders (bipolar or depressive);

(F) pervasive developmental disorders;

(G) obsessive-compulsive disorders;

(H) depression in childhood and adolescence;

(I) panic disorder; and

(J) post-traumatic stress disorders (acute, chronic, or with delayed onset).

(3) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment of serious mental illness shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for serous mental illness, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process.

(4) A group health benefit plan:

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the following treatment of mental illness in each calendar year:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A);

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan; and

(C) shall include the same amount limits, deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance factors for serious mental illness as for physical illness.

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(7) This Section shall not be interpreted to require a group health benefit plan to provide coverage for treatment of:

(A) an addiction to a controlled substance or cannabis that is used in violation of law; or

(B) mental illness resulting from the use of a controlled substance or cannabis in violation of law.

(8) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 94-402, eff. 8-2-05; 94-584, eff. 8-15-05; 94-906, eff. 1-1-07; 94-921, eff. 6-26-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(215 ILCS 5/416)

Sec. 416. Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge.

(a) As of July 30, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-840) this amendatory Act of 2004, every company licensed or authorized by the Illinois Department of Insurance and insuring employers' liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act shall remit to the Director a surcharge based upon the annual direct written premium, as reported under Section 136 of this Act, of the company in the manner provided in this Section. Such proceeds shall be deposited into the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund as established in the Workers' Compensation Act. If a company survives or was formed by a merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation, the direct written premiums of all companies party to the merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation shall, for purposes of determining the amount of the fee imposed by this Section, be regarded as those of the surviving or new company.

(b)(1) Except as provided in subsection (b)(2) of this Section, beginning on July 30, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-840) this amendatory Act of 2004 and on July 1 of each year thereafter, the Director shall charge an annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge from every company subject to subsection (a) of this Section equal to 1.01% of its direct written premium for insuring employers' liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act as reported in each company's annual statement filed for the previous year as required by Section 136. The Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge shall be collected by companies subject to subsection (a) of this Section as a separately stated surcharge on insured employers at the rate of 1.01% of direct written premium. The Illinois Workers' Compensation Industrial Commission Operations Fund Surcharge shall not be collected by companies subject to subsection (a) of this Section from any employer that self-insures its liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, provided that the employer has paid the Illinois Workers' Compensation Industrial Commission Operations Fund Fee pursuant to Section 4d of the Workers' Compensation Act. All sums collected by the Department of Insurance under the provisions of this Section shall be paid promptly after the receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund in the State treasury.

(b)(2) The surcharge due pursuant to Public Act 93-840 this amendatory Act of 2004 shall be collected instead of the surcharge due on July 1, 2004 under Public Act 93-32. Payment of the surcharge due under Public Act 93-840 this amendatory Act of 2004 shall discharge the employer's obligations due on July 1, 2004.

(c) In addition to the authority specifically granted under Article XXV of this Code, the Director shall have such authority to adopt rules or establish forms as may be reasonably necessary for purposes of enforcing this Section. The Director shall also have authority to defer, waive, or abate the surcharge or any penalties imposed by this Section if in the Director's opinion the company's solvency and ability to meet its insured obligations would be immediately threatened by payment of the surcharge due.

(d) When a company fails to pay the full amount of any annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge of $100 or more due under this Section, there shall be added to the amount due as a penalty the greater of $1,000 or an amount equal to 5% of the deficiency for each month or part of a month that the deficiency remains unpaid.

(e) The Department of Insurance may enforce the collection of any delinquent payment, penalty, or portion thereof by legal action or in any other manner by which the collection of debts due the State of Illinois may be enforced under the laws of this State.

(f) Whenever it appears to the satisfaction of the Director that a company has paid pursuant to this Act an Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge in an amount in excess of the amount legally collectable from the company, the Director shall issue a credit memorandum for an amount equal to the amount of such overpayment. A credit memorandum may be applied for the 2-year period from the date of issuance, against the payment of any amount due during that period under the surcharge imposed by this Section or, subject to reasonable rule of the Department of Insurance including requirement of notification, may be assigned to any other company subject to regulation under this Act. Any application of credit memoranda after the period provided for in this Section is void.

(g) Annually, the Governor may direct a transfer of up to 2% of all moneys collected under this Section to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-721, eff. 1-1-05; 93-840, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-29-04.)

(215 ILCS 5/500-135)

Sec. 500-135. Fees.

(a) The fees required by this Article are as follows:

(1) a fee of $180 for a person who is a resident of Illinois, and $250 for a person who is not a resident of Illinois, payable once every 2 years for an insurance producer license;

(2) a fee of $50 for the issuance of a temporary insurance producer license;

(3) a fee of $150 payable once every 2 years for a business entity;

(4) an annual $50 fee for a limited line producer license issued under items (1) through (7) of subsection (a) of Section 500-100;

(5) a $50 application fee for the processing of a request to take the written examination for an insurance producer license;

(6) an annual registration fee of $1,000 for registration of an education provider;

(7) a certification fee of $50 for each certified pre-licensing or continuing education course and an annual fee of $20 for renewing the certification of each such course;

(8) a fee of $180 for a person who is a resident of Illinois, and $250 for a person who is not a resident of Illinois, payable once every 2 years for a car rental limited line license;

(9) a fee of $200 payable once every 2 years for a limited lines license other than the licenses issued under items (1) through (7) of subsection (a) of Section 500-100, a car rental limited line license, or a self-service storage facility limited line license;

(10) a fee of $50 payable once every 2 years for a self-service storage facility limited line license.

(b) Except as otherwise provided, all fees paid to and collected by the Director under this Section shall be paid promptly after receipt thereof, together with a detailed statement of such fees, into a special fund in the State Treasury to be known as the Insurance Producer Administration Fund. The moneys deposited into the Insurance Producer Administration Fund may be used only for payment of the expenses of the Department in the execution, administration, and enforcement of the insurance laws of this State, and shall be appropriated as otherwise provided by law for the payment of those expenses with first priority being any expenses incident to or associated with the administration and enforcement of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 92-386, eff. 1-1-02; 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 93-288, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-12-03.)

(215 ILCS 5/512-3) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.59-3)

Sec. 512-3. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms defined in this Article have the meanings ascribed to them herein:

(a) "Third party prescription program" or "program" means any system of providing for the reimbursement of pharmaceutical services and prescription drug products offered or operated in this State under a contractual arrangement or agreement between a provider of such services and another party who is not the consumer of those services and products. Such programs may include, but need not be limited to, employee benefit plans whereby a consumer receives prescription drugs or other pharmaceutical services and those services are paid for by an agent of the employer or others.

(b) "Third party program administrator" or "administrator" means any person, partnership or corporation who issues or causes to be issued any payment or reimbursement to a provider for services rendered pursuant to a third party prescription program, but does not include the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or any agent authorized by the Director to reimburse a provider of services rendered pursuant to a program of which the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is the third party.

(Source: P.A. 90-372, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/531.06) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.80-6)

Sec. 531.06. Creation of the Association. There is created a non-profit legal entity to be known as the Illinois Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association. All member insurers are and must remain members of the Association as a condition of their authority to transact insurance in this State. The Association must perform its functions under the plan of operation established and approved under Section 531.10 and must exercise its powers through a board of directors established under Section 531.07. For purposes of administration and assessment, the Association must maintain 2 accounts:

(1) The life insurance and annuity account which includes the following subaccounts:

(a) Life Insurance Account;

(b) Annuity account; and

(c) Unallocated Annuity Account which shall include contracts qualified under Section 403(b) of the United States State Internal Revenue Code.

(2) The health insurance account.

The Association shall be supervised by the Director and is subject to the applicable provisions of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 86-753; revised 10-11-05.)

(215 ILCS 5/1204) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.904)

Sec. 1204. (A) The Secretary shall promulgate rules and regulations which shall require each insurer licensed to write property or casualty insurance in the State and each syndicate doing business on the Illinois Insurance Exchange to record and report its loss and expense experience and other data as may be necessary to assess the relationship of insurance premiums and related income as compared to insurance costs and expenses. The Secretary may designate one or more rate service organizations or advisory organizations to gather and compile such experience and data. The Secretary shall require each insurer licensed to write property or casualty insurance in this State and each syndicate doing business on the Illinois Insurance Exchange to submit a report, on a form furnished by the Secretary, showing its direct writings in this State and companywide.

(B) Such report required by subsection (A) of this Section may include, but not be limited to, the following specific types of insurance written by such insurer:

(1) Political subdivision liability insurance reported separately in the following categories:

(a) municipalities;

(b) school districts;

(c) other political subdivisions;

(2) Public official liability insurance;

(3) Dram shop liability insurance;

(4) Day care center liability insurance;

(5) Labor, fraternal or religious organizations liability insurance;

(6) Errors and omissions liability insurance;

(7) Officers and directors liability insurance reported separately as follows:

(a) non-profit entities;

(b) for-profit entities;

(8) Products liability insurance;

(9) Medical malpractice insurance;

(10) Attorney malpractice insurance;

(11) Architects and engineers malpractice insurance; and

(12) Motor vehicle insurance reported separately for commercial and private passenger vehicles as follows:

(a) motor vehicle physical damage insurance;

(b) motor vehicle liability insurance.

(C) Such report may include, but need not be limited to the following data, both specific to this State and companywide, in the aggregate or by type of insurance for the previous year on a calendar year basis:

(1) Direct premiums written;

(2) Direct premiums earned;

(3) Number of policies;

(4) Net investment income, using appropriate estimates where necessary;

(5) Losses paid;

(6) Losses incurred;

(7) Loss reserves:

(a) Losses unpaid on reported claims;

(b) Losses unpaid on incurred but not reported claims;

(8) Number of claims:

(a) Paid claims;

(b) Arising claims;

(9) Loss adjustment expenses:

(a) Allocated loss adjustment expenses;

(b) Unallocated loss adjustment expenses;

(10) Net underwriting gain or loss;

(11) Net operation gain or loss, including net investment income;

(12) Any other information requested by the Secretary.

(C-3) (C-5) Additional information by an advisory organization as defined in Section 463 of this Code.

(1) An advisory organization as defined in Section 463 of this Code shall report annually the following information in such format as may be prescribed by the Secretary:

(a) paid and incurred losses for each of the past 10 years;

(b) medical payments and medical charges, if collected, for each of the past 10 years;

(c) the following indemnity payment information: cumulative payments by accident year by calendar year of development. This array will show payments made and frequency of claims in the following categories: medical only, permanent partial disability (PPD), permanent total disability (PTD), temporary total disability (TTD), and fatalities;

(d) injuries by frequency and severity;

(e) by class of employee.

(2) The report filed with the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation under paragraph (1) of this subsection (C-3) (C-5) shall be made available, on an aggregate basis, to the General Assembly and to the general public. The identity of the petitioner, the respondent, the attorneys, and the insurers shall not be disclosed.

(3) Reports required under this subsection (C-3) (C-5) shall be filed with the Secretary no later than September 1 in 2006 and no later than September 1 of each year thereafter.

(C-5) Additional information required from medical malpractice insurers.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this Section, the following information shall be included in the report required by subsection (A) of this Section in such form and under such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Secretary:

(a) paid and incurred losses by county for each of the past 10 policy years;

(b) earned exposures by ISO code, policy type, and policy year by county for each of the past 10 years; and

(c) the following actuarial information:

(i) Base class and territory equivalent exposures by report year by relative accident year.

(ii) Cumulative loss array by accident year by calendar year of development. This array will show frequency of claims in the following categories: open, closed with indemnity (CWI), closed with expense (CWE), and closed no pay (CNP); paid severity in the following categories: indemnity and allocated loss adjustment expenses (ALAE) on closed claims; and indemnity and expense reserves on pending claims.

(iii) Cumulative loss array by report year by calendar year of development. This array will show frequency of claims in the following categories: open, closed with indemnity (CWI), closed with expense (CWE), and closed no pay (CNP); paid severity in the following categories: indemnity and allocated loss adjustment expenses (ALAE) on closed claims; and indemnity and expense reserves on pending claims.

(iv) Maturity year and tail factors.

(v) Any expense, contingency ddr (death, disability, and retirement), commission, tax, and/or off-balance factors.

(2) The following information must also be annually provided to the Department:

(a) copies of the company's reserve and surplus studies; and

(b) consulting actuarial report and data supporting the company's rate filing.

(3) All information collected by the Secretary under paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be made available, on a company-by-company basis, to the General Assembly and the general public. This provision shall supersede any other provision of State law that may otherwise protect such information from public disclosure as confidential.

(D) In addition to the information which may be requested under subsection (C), the Secretary may also request on a companywide, aggregate basis, Federal Income Tax recoverable, net realized capital gain or loss, net unrealized capital gain or loss, and all other expenses not requested in subsection (C) above.

(E) Violations - Suspensions - Revocations.

(1) Any company or person subject to this Article, who willfully or repeatedly fails to observe or who otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Article or any rule or regulation promulgated by the Secretary under authority of this Article or any final order of the Secretary entered under the authority of this Article shall by civil penalty forfeit to the State of Illinois a sum not to exceed $2,000. Each day during which a violation occurs constitutes a separate offense.

(2) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of this subsection may attach unless a written notice of apparent liability has been issued by the Secretary and received by the respondent, or the Secretary sends written notice of apparent liability by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the last known address of the respondent. Any respondent so notified must be granted an opportunity to request a hearing within 10 days from receipt of notice, or to show in writing, why he should not be held liable. A notice issued under this Section must set forth the date, facts and nature of the act or omission with which the respondent is charged and must specifically identify the particular provision of this Article, rule, regulation or order of which a violation is charged.

(3) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of this subsection may attach for any violation occurring more than 2 years prior to the date of issuance of the notice of apparent liability and in no event may the total civil penalty forfeiture imposed for the acts or omissions set forth in any one notice of apparent liability exceed $100,000.

(4) All administrative hearings conducted pursuant to this Article are subject to 50 Ill. Adm. Code 2402 and all administrative hearings are subject to the Administrative Review Law.

(5) The civil penalty forfeitures provided for in this Section are payable to the General Revenue Fund of the State of Illinois, and may be recovered in a civil suit in the name of the State of Illinois brought in the Circuit Court in Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of the county where the respondent is domiciled or has its principal operating office.

(6) In any case where the Secretary issues a notice of apparent liability looking toward the imposition of a civil penalty forfeiture under this Section that fact may not be used in any other proceeding before the Secretary to the prejudice of the respondent to whom the notice was issued, unless (a) the civil penalty forfeiture has been paid, or (b) a court has ordered payment of the civil penalty forfeiture and that order has become final.

(7) When any person or company has a license or certificate of authority under this Code and knowingly fails or refuses to comply with a lawful order of the Secretary requiring compliance with this Article, entered after notice and hearing, within the period of time specified in the order, the Secretary may, in addition to any other penalty or authority provided, revoke or refuse to renew the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, or may suspend the license or certificate of authority of such person or company until compliance with such order has been obtained.

(8) When any person or company has a license or certificate of authority under this Code and knowingly fails or refuses to comply with any provisions of this Article, the Secretary may, after notice and hearing, in addition to any other penalty provided, revoke or refuse to renew the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, or may suspend the license or certificate of authority of such person or company, until compliance with such provision of this Article has been obtained.

(9) No suspension or revocation under this Section may become effective until 5 days from the date that the notice of suspension or revocation has been personally delivered or delivered by registered or certified mail to the company or person. A suspension or revocation under this Section is stayed upon the filing, by the company or person, of a petition for judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 94-277, eff. 7-20-05; 94-677, eff. 8-25-05; revised 8-29-05.)

Section 660. The Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 15 as follows:

(215 ILCS 105/14.05)

Sec. 14.05 15. Alternative portable coverage for federally eligible individuals.

(a) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection a. of Section 7 and except as otherwise provided in this Section, any federally eligible individual for whom a Plan application, and such enclosures and supporting documentation as the Board may require, is received by the Board within 90 days after the termination of prior creditable coverage shall qualify to enroll in the Plan under the portability provisions of this Section.

A federally eligible person who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002 and whose Plan application and enclosures and supporting documentation as the Board may require is received by the Board within 63 days after the termination of previous creditable coverage shall qualify to enroll in the Plan under the portability provisions of this Section.

(b) Any federally eligible individual seeking Plan coverage under this Section must submit with his or her application evidence, including acceptable written certification of previous creditable coverage, that will establish to the Board's satisfaction, that he or she meets all of the requirements to be a federally eligible individual and is currently and permanently residing in this State (as of the date his or her application was received by the Board).

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a period of creditable coverage shall not be counted, with respect to qualifying an applicant for Plan coverage as a federally eligible individual under this Section, if after such period and before the application for Plan coverage was received by the Board, there was at least a 90 day period during all of which the individual was not covered under any creditable coverage.

For a federally eligible person who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002, a period of creditable coverage shall not be counted, with respect to qualifying an applicant for Plan coverage as a federally eligible individual under this Section, if after such period and before the application for Plan coverage was received by the Board, there was at least a 63 day period during all of which the individual was not covered under any creditable coverage.

(d) Any federally eligible individual who the Board determines qualifies for Plan coverage under this Section shall be offered his or her choice of enrolling in one of alternative portability health benefit plans which the Board is authorized under this Section to establish for these federally eligible individuals and their dependents.

(e) The Board shall offer a choice of health care coverages consistent with major medical coverage under the alternative health benefit plans authorized by this Section to every federally eligible individual. The coverages to be offered under the plans, the schedule of benefits, deductibles, co-payments, exclusions, and other limitations shall be approved by the Board. One optional form of coverage shall be comparable to comprehensive health insurance coverage offered in the individual market in this State or a standard option of coverage available under the group or individual health insurance laws of the State. The standard benefit plan that is authorized by Section 8 of this Act may be used for this purpose. The Board may also offer a preferred provider option and such other options as the Board determines may be appropriate for these federally eligible individuals who qualify for Plan coverage pursuant to this Section.

(f) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection f. of Section 8, any plan coverage that is issued to federally eligible individuals who qualify for the Plan pursuant to the portability provisions of this Section shall not be subject to any preexisting conditions exclusion, waiting period, or other similar limitation on coverage.

(g) Federally eligible individuals who qualify and enroll in the Plan pursuant to this Section shall be required to pay such premium rates as the Board shall establish and approve in accordance with the requirements of Section 7.1 of this Act.

(h) A federally eligible individual who qualifies and enrolls in the Plan pursuant to this Section must satisfy on an ongoing basis all of the other eligibility requirements of this Act to the extent not inconsistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 in order to maintain continued eligibility for coverage under the Plan.

(Source: P.A. 92-153, eff. 7-25-01; 93-33, eff. 6-23-03; 93-34, eff. 6-23-03; 93-622, eff. 12-18-03; revised 3-22-06.)

(215 ILCS 105/15)

Sec. 15. This Act takes effect July 1, 1987.

(Source: P.A. 84-1478.)

Section 665. The Children's Health Insurance Program Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:

(215 ILCS 106/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Benchmarking" means health benefits coverage as defined in Section 2103 of the Social Security Act.

"Child" means a person under the age of 19.

"Department" means the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

"Medical assistance" means health care benefits provided under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Medical visit" means a hospital, dental, physician, optical, or other health care visit where services are provided pursuant to this Act.

"Program" means the Children's Health Insurance Program, which includes subsidizing the cost of privately sponsored health insurance and purchasing or providing health care benefits for eligible children.

"Resident" means a person who meets the residency requirements as defined in Section 5-3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-736, eff. 8-12-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 106/15)

Sec. 15. Operation of the Program. There is hereby created a Children's Health Insurance Program. The Program shall operate subject to appropriation and shall be administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The Department shall have the powers and authority granted to the Department under the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Department may contract with a Third Party Administrator or other entities to administer and oversee any portion of this Program.

(Source: P.A. 90-736, eff. 8-12-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 670. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Sections 2-1, 4-9.1, 4-17, and 6-8 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/2-1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1403)

Sec. 2-1. Certificate of authority - Exception for corporate employee programs - Applications - Material modification of operation.

(a) No organization shall establish or operate a Health Maintenance Organization in this State without obtaining a certificate of authority under this Act. No person other than an organization may lawfully establish or operate a Health Maintenance Organization in this State. This Act shall not apply to the establishment and operation of a Health Maintenance Organization exclusively providing or arranging for health care services to employees of a corporate affiliate of such Health Maintenance Organization. This exclusion shall be available only to those Health Maintenance Organizations which require employee contributions which equal less than 50% of the total cost of the health care plan, with the remainder of the cost being paid by the corporate affiliate which is the employer of the participants in the plan. This Act shall not apply to the establishment and operation of a Health Maintenance Organization exclusively providing or arranging health care services under contract with the State to persons committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections.

This Act does not apply to the establishment and operation of managed care community networks that are certified as risk-bearing entities under Section 5-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and that contract with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) pursuant to that Section.

(b) Any organization may apply to the Director for and obtain a certificate of authority to establish and operate a Health Maintenance Organization in compliance with this Act. A foreign corporation may qualify under this Act, subject to its registration to do business in this State as a foreign corporation.

(c) Each application for a certificate of authority shall be filed in triplicate and verified by an officer or authorized representative of the applicant, shall be in a form prescribed by the Director, and shall set forth, without limiting what may be required by the Director, the following:

(1) A copy of the organizational document;

(2) A copy of the bylaws, rules and regulations, or similar document regulating the conduct of the internal affairs of the applicant, which shall include a mechanism to afford the enrollees an opportunity to participate in an advisory capacity in matters of policy and operations;

(3) A list of the names, addresses, and official positions of the persons who are to be responsible for the conduct of the affairs of the applicant; including, but not limited to, all members of the board of directors, executive committee, the principal officers, and any person or entity owning or having the right to acquire 10% or more of the voting securities or subordinated debt of the applicant;

(4) A statement generally describing the applicant, geographic area to be served, its facilities, personnel and the health care services to be offered;

(5) A copy of the form of any contract made or to be made between the applicant and any providers regarding the provision of health care services to enrollees;

(6) A copy of the form of any contract made or to be made between the applicant and any person listed in paragraph (3) of this subsection;

(7) A copy of the form of any contract made or to be made between the applicant and any person, corporation, partnership or other entity for the performance on the applicant's behalf of any functions including, but not limited to, marketing, administration, enrollment, investment management and subcontracting for the provision of health services to enrollees;

(8) A copy of the form of any group contract which is to be issued to employers, unions, trustees, or other organizations and a copy of any form of evidence of coverage to be issued to any enrollee or subscriber and any advertising material;

(9) Descriptions of the applicant's procedures for resolving enrollee grievances which must include procedures providing for enrollees participation in the resolution of grievances;

(10) A copy of the applicant's most recent financial statements audited by an independent certified public accountant. If the financial affairs of the applicant's parent company are audited by an independent certified public accountant but those of the applicant are not, then a copy of the most recent audited financial statement of the applicant's parent, attached to which shall be consolidating financial statements of the parent including separate unaudited financial statements of the applicant, unless the Director determines that additional or more recent financial information is required for the proper administration of this Act;

(11) A copy of the applicant's financial plan, including a three-year projection of anticipated operating results, a statement of the sources of working capital, and any other sources of funding and provisions for contingencies;

(12) A description of rate methodology;

(13) A description of the proposed method of marketing;

(14) A copy of every filing made with the Illinois Secretary of State which relates to the applicant's registered agent or registered office;

(15) A description of the complaint procedures to be established and maintained as required under Section 4-6 of this Act;

(16) A description, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department of Public Health, of the quality assessment and utilization review procedures to be utilized by the applicant;

(17) The fee for filing an application for issuance of a certificate of authority provided in Section 408 of the Illinois Insurance Code, as now or hereafter amended; and

(18) Such other information as the Director may reasonably require to make the determinations required by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-370, eff. 8-15-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 125/4-9.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1409.2-1)

Sec. 4-9.1. Dependent Coverage Termination.

(a) The attainment of a limiting age under a group contract or evidence of coverage which provides that coverage of a dependent person of an enrollee shall terminate upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons does not operate to terminate the coverage of a person who, because of a handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(b) For purposes of subsection (a), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(c) Proof of such incapacity and dependency shall be furnished to the health maintenance organization by the enrollee within 31 days of a request for the information by the health maintenance organization and subsequently as may be required by the health maintenance organization, but not more frequently than annually. In the absence of proof submitted within 31 days of such inquiry that such dependent is a disabled and dependent person, the health maintenance organization may terminate coverage of such person at or after attainment of the limiting age. In the absence of such inquiry, coverage of any disabled and dependent person shall continue through the term of the group contract or evidence of coverage or any extension or renewal thereof.

(Source: P.A. 88-309; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 125/4-17)

Sec. 4-17. Basic outpatient preventive and primary health care services for children. In order to attempt to address the needs of children in Illinois (i) without health care coverage, either through a parent's employment, through medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, or any other health plan or (ii) who lose medical assistance if and when their parents move from welfare to work and do not find employment that offers health care coverage, a health maintenance organization may undertake to provide or arrange for and to pay for or reimburse the cost of basic outpatient preventive and primary health care services. The Department shall promulgate rules to establish minimum coverage and disclosure requirements. These requirements at a minimum shall include routine physical examinations and immunizations, sick visits, diagnostic x-rays and laboratory services, and emergency outpatient services. Coverage may also include preventive dental services, vision screening and one pair of eyeglasses, prescription drugs, and mental health services. The coverage may include any reasonable co-payments, deductibles, and benefit maximums subject to limitations established by the Director by rule. Coverage shall be limited to children who are 18 years of age or under, who have resided in the State of Illinois for at least 30 days, and who do not qualify for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code. Any such coverage shall be made available to an adult on behalf of such children and shall not be funded through State appropriations. In counties with populations in excess of 3,000,000, the Director shall not approve any arrangement under this Section unless and until an arrangement for at least one health maintenance organization under contract with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) for furnishing health services pursuant to Section 5-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and for which the requirements of 42 CFR 434.26(a) have been waived is approved.

(Source: P.A. 90-376, eff. 8-14-97; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 125/6-8) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1418.8)

Sec. 6-8. Powers and duties of the Association. In addition to the powers and duties enumerated in other Sections of this Article, the Association shall have the powers set forth in this Section.

(1) If a domestic organization is an impaired organization, the Association may, subject to any conditions imposed by the Association other than those which impair the contractual obligations of the impaired organization, and approved by the impaired organization and the Director:

(a) guarantee or reinsure, or cause to be guaranteed, assumed or reinsured, any or all of the covered health care plan certificates of covered persons of the impaired organization;

(b) provide such monies, pledges, notes, guarantees, or other means as are proper to effectuate paragraph (a), and assure payment of the contractual obligations of the impaired organization pending action under paragraph (a); and

(c) loan money to the impaired organization.

(2) If a domestic, foreign, or alien organization is an insolvent organization, the Association shall, subject to the approval of the Director:

(a) guarantee, assume, indemnify or reinsure or cause to be guaranteed, assumed, indemnified or reinsured the covered health care plan benefits of covered persons of the insolvent organization; however, in the event that the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of the Department of Public Aid) assigns individuals that are recipients of public aid from an insolvent organization to another organization, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services the Department of Public Aid shall, before fixing the rates to be paid by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to the transferee organization on account of such individuals, consult with the Director of the Department of Insurance as to the reasonableness of such rates in light of the health care needs of such individuals and the costs of providing health care services to such individuals;

(b) assure payment of the contractual obligations of the insolvent organization to covered persons;

(c) make payments to providers of health care, or indemnity payments to covered persons, so as to assure the continued payment of benefits substantially similar to those provided for under covered health care plan certificate issued by the insolvent organization to covered persons; and

(d) provide such monies, pledges, notes, guaranties, or other means as are reasonably necessary to discharge such duties.

This subsection (2) shall not apply when the Director has determined that the foreign or alien organization's domiciliary jurisdiction or state of entry provides, by statute, protection substantially similar to that provided by this Article for residents of this State and such protection will be provided in a timely manner.

(3) There shall be no liability on the part of and no cause of action shall arise against the Association or against any transferee from the Association in connection with the transfer by reinsurance or otherwise of all or any part of an impaired or insolvent organization's business by reason of any action taken or any failure to take any action by the impaired or insolvent organization at any time.

(4) If the Association fails to act within a reasonable period of time as provided in subsection (2) of this Section with respect to an insolvent organization, the Director shall have the powers and duties of the Association under this Article with regard to such insolvent organization.

(5) The Association or its designated representatives may render assistance and advice to the Director, upon his request, concerning rehabilitation, payment of claims, continuations of coverage, or the performance of other contractual obligations of any impaired or insolvent organization.

(6) The Association has standing to appear before any court concerning all matters germane to the powers and duties of the Association, including, but not limited to, proposals for reinsuring or guaranteeing the covered health care plan certificates of the impaired or insolvent organization and the determination of the covered health care plan certificates and contractual obligations.

(7) (a) Any person receiving benefits under this Article is deemed to have assigned the rights under the covered health care plan certificates to the Association to the extent of the benefits received because of this Article whether the benefits are payments of contractual obligations or continuation of coverage. The Association may require an assignment to it of such rights by any payee, enrollee or beneficiary as a condition precedent to the receipt of any rights or benefits conferred by this Article upon such person. The Association is subrogated to these rights against the assets of any insolvent organization and against any other party who may be liable to such payee, enrollee or beneficiary.

(b) The subrogation rights of the Association under this subsection have the same priority against the assets of the insolvent organization as that possessed by the person entitled to receive benefits under this Article.

(8) (a) The contractual obligations of the insolvent organization for which the Association becomes or may become liable are as great as but no greater than the contractual obligations of the insolvent organization would have been in the absence of an insolvency unless such obligations are reduced as permitted by subsection (3), but the aggregate liability of the Association shall not exceed $300,000 with respect to any one natural person.

(b) Furthermore, the Association shall not be required to pay, and shall have no liability to, any provider of health care services to an enrollee:

(i) if such provider, or his or its affiliates or members of his immediate family, at any time within the one year prior to the date of the issuance of the first order, by a court of competent jurisdiction, of conservation, rehabilitation or liquidation pertaining to the health maintenance organization:

(A) was a securityholder of such organization (but excluding any securityholder holding an equity interest of 5% or less);

(B) exercised control over the organization by means such as serving as an officer or director, through a management agreement or as a principal member of a not-for-profit organization;

(C) had a representative serving by virtue or his or her official position as a representative of such provider on the board of any entity which exercised control over the organization;

(D) received provider payments made by such organization pursuant to a contract which was not a product of arms-length bargaining; or

(E) received distributions other than for physician services from a not-for-profit organization on account of such provider's status as a member of such organization.

For purposes of this subparagraph (i), the terms "affiliate," "person," "control" and "securityholder" shall have the meanings ascribed to such terms in Section 131.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code; or

(ii) if and to the extent such a provider has agreed by contract not to seek payment from the enrollee for services provided to such enrollee or if, and to the extent, as a matter of law such provider may not seek payment from the enrollee for services provided to such enrollee.

(c) In no event shall the Association be required to pay any provider participating in the insolvent organization any amount for in-plan services rendered by such provider prior to the insolvency of the organization in excess of (1) the amount provided by a capitation contract between a physician provider and the insolvent organization for such services; or (2) the amounts provided by contract between a hospital provider and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) for similar services to recipients of public aid; or (3) in the event neither (1) nor (2) above is applicable, then the amounts paid under the Medicare area prevailing rate for the area where the services were provided, or if no such rate exists with respect to such services, then 80% of the usual and customary rates established by the Health Insurance Association of America. The payments required to be made by the Association under this Section shall constitute full and complete payment for such provider services to the enrollee.

(d) The Association shall not be required to pay more than an aggregate of $300,000 for any organization which is declared to be insolvent prior to July 1, 1987, and such funds shall be distributed first to enrollees who are not public aid recipients pursuant to a plan recommended by the Association and approved by the Director and the court having jurisdiction over the liquidation.

(9) The Association may:

(a) Enter into such contracts as are necessary or proper to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Article.

(b) Sue or be sued, including taking any legal actions necessary or proper for recovery of any unpaid assessments under Section 6-9. The Association shall not be liable for punitive or exemplary damages.

(c) Borrow money to effect the purposes of this Article. Any notes or other evidence of indebtedness of the Association not in default are legal investments for domestic organizations and may be carried as admitted assets.

(d) Employ or retain such persons as are necessary to handle the financial transactions of the Association, and to perform such other functions as become necessary or proper under this Article.

(e) Negotiate and contract with any liquidator, rehabilitator, conservator, or ancillary receiver to carry out the powers and duties of the Association.

(f) Take such legal action as may be necessary to avoid payment of improper claims.

(g) Exercise, for the purposes of this Article and to the extent approved by the Director, the powers of a domestic organization, but in no case may the Association issue evidence of coverage other than that issued to perform the contractual obligations of the impaired or insolvent organization.

(h) Exercise all the rights of the Director under Section 193(4) of the Illinois Insurance Code with respect to covered health care plan certificates after the association becomes obligated by statute.

(10) The obligations of the Association under this Article shall not relieve any reinsurer, insurer or other person of its obligations to the insolvent organization (or its conservator, rehabilitator, liquidator or similar official) or its enrollees, including without limitation any reinsurer, insurer or other person liable to the insolvent insurer (or its conservator, rehabilitator, liquidator or similar official) or its enrollees under any contract of reinsurance, any contract providing stop loss coverage or similar coverage or any health care contract. With respect to covered health care plan certificates for which the Association becomes obligated after an entry of an order of liquidation or rehabilitation, the Association may elect to succeed to the rights of the insolvent organization arising after the date of the order of liquidation or rehabilitation under any contract of reinsurance, any contract providing stop loss coverage or similar coverages or any health care service contract to which the insolvent organization was a party, on the terms set forth under such contract, to the extent that such contract provides coverage for health care services provided after the date of the order of liquidation or rehabilitation. As a condition to making this election, the Association must pay premiums for coverage relating to periods after the date of the order of liquidation or rehabilitation.

(11) The Association shall be entitled to collect premiums due under or with respect to covered health care certificates for a period from the date on which the domestic, foreign, or alien organization became an insolvent organization until the Association no longer has obligations under subsection (2) of this Section with respect to such certificates. The Association's obligations under subsection (2) of this Section with respect to any covered health care plan certificates shall terminate in the event that all such premiums due under or with respect to such covered health care plan certificates are not paid to the Association (i) within 30 days of the Association's demand therefor, or (ii) in the event that such certificates provide for a longer grace period for payment of premiums after notice of non-payment or demand therefor, within the lesser of (A) the period provided for in such certificates or (B) 60 days.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 675. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 10, 15a, and 25 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/2) (from Ch. 32, par. 596)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act, the following terms have the respective meanings set forth in this section, unless different meanings are plainly indicated by the context:

(a) "Health Services Plan Corporation" means a corporation organized under the terms of this Act for the purpose of establishing and operating a voluntary health services plan and providing other medically related services.

(b) "Voluntary health services plan" means either a plan or system under which medical, hospital, nursing and relating health services may be rendered to a subscriber or beneficiary at the expense of a health services plan corporation, or any contractual arrangement to provide, either directly or through arrangements with others, dental care services to subscribers and beneficiaries.

(c) "Subscriber" means a natural person to whom a subscription certificate has been issued by a health services plan corporation. Persons eligible under Section 5-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be subscribers if a written agreement exists, as specified in Section 25 of this Act, between the Health Services Plan Corporation and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. A subscription certificate may be issued to such persons at no cost.

(d) "Beneficiary" means a person designated in a subscription certificate as one entitled to receive health services.

(e) "Health services" means those services ordinarily rendered by physicians licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches, by podiatrists licensed in Illinois to practice podiatric medicine, by dentists and dental surgeons licensed to practice in Illinois, by nurses registered in Illinois, by dental hygienists licensed to practice in Illinois, and by assistants and technicians acting under professional supervision; it likewise means hospital services as usually and customarily rendered in Illinois, and the compounding and dispensing of drugs and medicines by pharmacists and assistant pharmacists registered in Illinois.

(f) "Subscription certificate" means a certificate issued to a subscriber by a health services plan corporation, setting forth the terms and conditions upon which health services shall be rendered to a subscriber or a beneficiary.

(g) "Physician rendering service for a plan" means a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches who has undertaken or agreed, upon terms and conditions acceptable both to himself and to the health services plan corporation involved, to furnish medical service to the plan's subscribers and beneficiaries.

(h) "Dentist or dental surgeon rendering service for a plan" means a dentist or dental surgeon licensed in Illinois to practice dentistry or dental surgery who has undertaken or agreed, upon terms and conditions acceptable both to himself and to the health services plan corporation involved, to furnish dental or dental surgical services to the plan's subscribers and beneficiaries.

(i) "Director" means the Director of Insurance of the State of Illinois.

(j) "Person" means any of the following: a natural person, corporation, partnership or unincorporated association.

(k) "Podiatrist or podiatric surgeon rendering service for a plan" means any podiatrist or podiatric surgeon licensed in Illinois to practice podiatry, who has undertaken or agreed, upon terms and conditions acceptable both to himself and to the health services plan corporation involved, to furnish podiatric or podiatric surgical services to the plan's subscribers and beneficiaries.

(Source: P.A. 83-254; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01; 92-440, eff. 8-17-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-764, eff. 1-1-03; 93-102, eff. 1-1-04; 93-529, eff. 8-14-03; 93-853, eff. 1-1-05; 93-1000, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(215 ILCS 165/15a) (from Ch. 32, par. 609a)

Sec. 15a. Dependent Coverage Termination.

(a) The attainment of a limiting age under a voluntary health services plan which provides that coverage of a dependent of a subscriber terminates upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons specified in the subscription certificate does not operate to terminate the coverage of a person who, because of a handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(b) For purposes of subsection (a), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(c) The corporation may require, at reasonable intervals from the date of the first claim filed on behalf of the disabled and dependent person or from the date the corporation receives notice of a covered person's disability and dependency, proof of the person's disability and dependency.

(d) This amendatory Act of 1969 is applicable to subscription certificates issued or renewed after October 27, 1969.

(Source: P.A. 88-309; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(215 ILCS 165/25) (from Ch. 32, par. 619)

Sec. 25. A health services plan corporation may receive and accept from governmental or private agencies or from other persons as defined in this Act, payments covering all or part of the cost of subscriptions to provide health services for needy and other individuals. However, all contracts for health services concerning persons other than recipients of public aid shall be between the corporation and the person to receive such services. No payments shall be made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to any Health Services Plan Corporation except where the payment is made for a covered service included in the Medical Assistance Program at the rate established by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and where the service was rendered to a public aid recipient, and where there was in full force and effect, at the time the service was rendered, a written agreement governing such provision of services between such Health Services Plan Corporation and the Department.

(Source: P.A. 81-1203; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 680. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 5-109, 8-206, 13-301.1, and 16-111 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/5-109) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 5-109)

Sec. 5-109. Reports; false reports; penalty. Each public utility in the State, other than a commercial mobile radio service provider, shall each year furnish to the Commission, in such form as the Commission shall require, annual reports as to all the items mentioned in the preceding Sections of this Article, and in addition such other items, whether of a nature similar to those therein enumerated or otherwise, as the Commission may prescribe. Such annual reports shall contain all the required information for the period of 12 months ending on June 30 in each year, or ending on December 31 in each year, as the Commission may by order prescribe for each class of public utilities, except commercial mobile radio service providers, and shall be filed with the Commission at its office in Springfield within 3 months after the close of the year for which the report is made. The Commission shall have authority to require any public utility to file monthly reports of earnings and expenses of such utility, and to file other periodical or special, or both periodical and special reports concerning any matter about which the Commission is authorized by law to keep itself informed. All reports shall be under oath.

When any report is erroneous or defective or appears to the Commission to be erroneous or defective, the Commission may notify the public utility to amend such report within 30 days, and before or after the termination of such period the Commission may examine the officers, agents, or employees, and books, records, accounts, vouchers, plant, equipment and property of such public utility, and correct such items in the report as upon such examination the Commission may find defective or erroneous.

All reports made to the Commission by any public utility and the contents thereof shall be open to public inspection, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission. Such reports shall be preserved in the office of the Commission.

Any public utility which fails to make and file any report called for by the Commission within the time specified; or to make specific answer to any question propounded by the Commission within 30 days from the time it is lawfully required to do so, or within such further time, not to exceed 90 days, as may in its discretion be allowed by the Commission, shall forfeit up to $100 for each and every day it may so be in default if the utility collects less than $100,000 annually in gross revenue; and if the utility collects $100,000 or more annually in gross revenue, it shall forfeit $1,000 per day for each and every day it is in default.

Any person who willfully makes any false return or report to the Commission or to any member, officer, or employee thereof, any person who willfully, in a return or report, withholds or fails to provide material information to which the Commission is entitled under this Act and which information is either required to be filed by statute, rule, regulation, order, or decision of the Commission or has been requested by the Commission, and any person who willfully aids or abets such person shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 93-132, eff. 7-10-03; 93-457, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-12-03.)

(220 ILCS 5/8-206) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 8-206)

Sec. 8-206. Winter termination for nonpayment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, no electric or gas public utility shall disconnect service to any residential customer or mastermetered apartment building for nonpayment of a bill or deposit where gas or electricity is used as the primary source of space heating or is used to control or operate the primary source of space heating equipment at the premises during the period of time from December 1 through and including March 31 of the immediately succeeding calendar year, unless:

(1) The utility (i) has offered the customer a deferred payment arrangement allowing for payment of past due amounts over a period of not less than 4 months not to extend beyond the following November and the option to enter into a levelized payment plan for the payment of future bills. The maximum down payment requirements shall not exceed 10% of the amount past due and owing at the time of entering into the agreement; and (ii) has provided the customer with the names, addresses and telephone numbers of governmental and private agencies which may provide assistance to customers of public utilities in paying their utility bills; the utility shall obtain the approval of an agency before placing the name of that agency on any list which will be used to provide such information to customers;

(2) The customer has refused or failed to enter into a deferred payment arrangement as described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a); and

(3) All notice requirements as provided by law and rules or regulations of the Commission have been met.

(b) Prior to termination of service for any residential customer or mastermetered apartment building during the period from December 1 through and including March 31 of the immediately succeeding calendar year, all electric and gas public utilities shall, in addition to all other notices:

(1) Notify the customer or an adult residing at the customer's premises by telephone, a personal visit to the customer's premises or by first class mail, informing the customer that:

(i) the customer's account is in arrears and the customer's service is subject to termination for nonpayment of a bill;

(ii) the customer can avoid disconnection of service by entering into a deferred payment agreement to pay past due amounts over a period not to extend beyond the following November and the customer has the option to enter into a levelized payment plan for the payment of future bills;

(iii) the customer may apply for any available assistance to aid in the payment of utility bills from any governmental or private agencies from the list of such agencies provided to the customer by the utility.

Provided, however, that a public utility shall be required to make only one such contact with the customer during any such period from December 1 through and including March 31 of the immediately succeeding calendar year.

(2) Each public utility shall maintain records which shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the manner by which the customer was notified and the time, date and manner by which any prior but unsuccessful attempts to contact were made. These records shall also describe the terms of the deferred payment arrangements offered to the customer and those entered into by the utility and customers. These records shall indicate the total amount past due, the down payment, the amount remaining to be paid and the number of months allowed to pay the outstanding balance. No public utility shall be required to retain records pertaining to unsuccessful attempts to contact or deferred payment arrangements rejected by the customer after such customer has entered into a deferred payment arrangement with such utility.

(c) No public utility shall disconnect service for nonpayment of a bill until the lapse of 6 business days after making the notification required by paragraph (1) of subsection (b) so as to allow the customer an opportunity to:

(1) Enter into a deferred payment arrangement and the option to enter into a levelized payment plan for the payment of future bills.

(2) Contact a governmental or private agency that may provide assistance to customers for the payment of public utility bills.

(d) Any residential customer who enters into a deferred payment arrangement pursuant to this Act, and subsequently during that period of time set forth in subsection (a) becomes subject to termination, shall be given notice as required by law and any rule or regulation of the Commission prior to termination of service.

(e) During that time period set forth in subsection (a), a utility shall not require a down payment for a deposit from a residential customer in excess of 20% of the total deposit requested. An additional 4 months shall be allowed to pay the remainder of the deposit. This provision shall not apply to mastermetered apartment buildings or other nonresidential customers.

(f) During that period of time set forth in subsection (a), no utility may refuse to offer a deferred payment agreement to a residential customer who has defaulted on such an agreement within the past 12 months. However, no utility shall be required to enter into more than one deferred payment arrangement under this Section with any residential customer or mastermetered apartment building during the period from December 1 through and including March 31 of the immediately succeeding calendar year.

(g) In order to enable customers to take advantage of energy assistance programs, customers who can demonstrate that their applications for a local, state or federal energy assistance program have been approved may request that the amount they will be entitled to receive as a regular energy assistance payment be deducted and set aside from the amount past due on which they make deferred payment arrangements. Payment on the set-aside amount shall be credited when the energy assistance voucher or check is received, according to the utility's common business practice.

(h) In no event shall any utility send a final notice to any customer who has entered into a current deferred payment agreement and has not defaulted on that deferred payment agreement, unless the final notice pertains to a deposit request.

(i) Each utility shall include with each disconnection notice sent during the period for December 1 through and including March 31 of the immediately succeeding calendar year to a residential customer an insert explaining the above provisions and providing a telephone number of the utility company which the consumer may call to receive further information.

(j) Each utility shall file with the Commission prior to December 1 of each year a plan detailing the implementation of this Section. This plan shall contain, but not be limited to:

(1) a description of the methods to be used to notify residential customers as required in this Section, including the forms of written and oral notices which shall be required to include all the information contained in subsection (b) of this Section.

(2) a listing of the names, addresses and telephone numbers of governmental and private agencies which may provide assistance to residential customers in paying their utility bills;

(3) the program of employee education and information which shall be used by the company in the implementation of this Section.

(4) a description of methods to be utilized to inform residential customers of those governmental and private agencies and current and planned methods of cooperation with those agencies to identify the customers who qualify for assistance in paying their utility bills.

A utility which has a plan on file with the Commission need not resubmit a new plan each year. However, any alteration of the plan on file must be submitted and approved prior to December 1 of any year.

All plans are subject to review and approval by the Commission. The Commission may direct a utility to alter its plan to comply with the requirements of this Section.

(k) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, no electric or gas public utility shall disconnect service to any residential customer who is a participant under Section 6 of the Energy Assistance Act of 1989 for nonpayment of a bill or deposit where gas or electricity is used as the primary source of space heating or is used to control or operate the primary source of space heating equipment at the premises during the period of time from December 1 through and including March 31 of the immediately succeeding calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 93-289, eff. 7-22-03; revised 9-20-06.)

(220 ILCS 5/13-301.1) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 13-301.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2007)

Sec. 13-301.1. Universal Telephone Service Assistance Program.

(a) The Commission shall by rule or regulation establish a Universal Telephone Service Assistance Program for low income residential customers. The program shall provide for a reduction of access line charges, a reduction of connection charges, or any other alternative to increase accessibility to telephone service that the Commission deems advisable subject to the availability of funds for the program as provided in subsection (d). The Commission shall establish eligibility requirements for benefits under the program.

(b) The Commission shall adopt rules providing for enhanced enrollment for eligible consumers to receive lifeline service. Enhanced enrollment may include, but is not limited to, joint marketing, joint application, or joint processing with the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program, the Medicaid Program, and the Food Stamp Program. The Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, upon request of the Commission, shall assist in the adoption and implementation of those rules. The Commission and the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity may enter into memoranda of understanding establishing the respective duties of the Commission and the Departments in relation to enhanced enrollment.

(c) In this Section, "lifeline service" means a retail local service offering described by 47 C.F.R. Section 54.401(a), as amended.

(d) The Commission shall require by rule or regulation that each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange telecommunications services notify its customers that if the customer wishes to participate in the funding of the Universal Telephone Service Assistance Program he may do so by electing to contribute, on a monthly basis, a fixed amount that will be included in the customer's monthly bill. The customer may cease contributing at any time upon providing notice to the telecommunications carrier providing local exchange telecommunications services. The notice shall state that any contribution made will not reduce the customer's bill for telecommunications services. Failure to remit the amount of increased payment will reduce the contribution accordingly. The Commission shall specify the monthly fixed amount or amounts that customers wishing to contribute to the funding of the Universal Telephone Service Assistance Program may choose from in making their contributions. Every telecommunications carrier providing local exchange telecommunications services shall remit the amounts contributed in accordance with the terms of the Universal Telephone Service Assistance Program.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-24-06.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-111)

Sec. 16-111. Rates and restructuring transactions during mandatory transition period.

(a) During the mandatory transition period, notwithstanding any provision of Article IX of this Act, and except as provided in subsections (b), (d), (e), and (f) of this Section, the Commission shall not (i) initiate, authorize or order any change by way of increase (other than in connection with a request for rate increase which was filed after September 1, 1997 but prior to October 15, 1997, by an electric utility serving less than 12,500 customers in this State), (ii) initiate or, unless requested by the electric utility, authorize or order any change by way of decrease, restructuring or unbundling (except as provided in Section 16-109A), in the rates of any electric utility that were in effect on October 1, 1996, or (iii) in any order approving any application for a merger pursuant to Section 7-204 that was pending as of May 16, 1997, impose any condition requiring any filing for an increase, decrease, or change in, or other review of, an electric utility's rates or enforce any such condition of any such order; provided, however, that this subsection shall not prohibit the Commission from:

(1) approving the application of an electric utility to implement an alternative to rate of return regulation or a regulatory mechanism that rewards or penalizes the electric utility through adjustment of rates based on utility performance, pursuant to Section 9-244;

(2) authorizing an electric utility to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause and adjust its base rate tariffs in accordance with subsection (b), (d), or (f) of Section 9-220 of this Act, to fix its fuel adjustment factor in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 9-220 of this Act, or to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause in accordance with subsection (e) of Section 9-220 of this Act;

(3) ordering into effect tariffs for delivery services and transition charges in accordance with Sections 16-104 and 16-108, for real-time pricing in accordance with Section 16-107, or the options required by Section 16-110 and subsection (n) of 16-112, allowing a billing experiment in accordance with Section 16-106, or modifying delivery services tariffs in accordance with Section 16-109; or

(4) ordering or allowing into effect any tariff to recover charges pursuant to Sections 9-201.5, 9-220.1, 9-221, 9-222 (except as provided in Section 9-222.1), 16-108, and 16-114 of this Act, Section 5-5 of the Electricity Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Law, Section 6-5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997, and Section 13 of the Energy Assistance Act.

After December 31, 2004, the provisions of this subsection (a) shall not apply to an electric utility whose average residential retail rate was less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, and which served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995 unless the electric utility or its holding company has been acquired by or merged with an affiliate of another electric utility subsequent to January 1, 2002. This exemption shall be limited to this subsection (a) and shall not extend to any other provisions of this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), each Illinois electric utility serving more than 12,500 customers in Illinois shall file tariffs (i) reducing, effective August 1, 1998, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 15% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998 and (ii) if the public utility provides electric service to (A) more than 500,000 customers but less than 1,000,000 customers in this State on January 1, 1999, reducing, effective May 1, 2002, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by an additional 5% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998, or (B) at least 1,000,000 customers in this State on January 1, 1999, reducing, effective October 1, 2001, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by an additional 5% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998. Provided, however, that (A) if an electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to the average residential retail rate for a group of Midwest Utilities (consisting of all investor-owned electric utilities with annual system peaks in excess of 1000 megawatts in the States of Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Michigan, Missouri, Ohio, and Wisconsin), based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, then it shall only be required to file tariffs (i) reducing, effective August 1, 1998, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 5% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998, (ii) reducing, effective October 1, 2000, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by the lesser of 5% of the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998 or the percentage by which the electric utility's average residential retail rate exceeds the average residential retail rate of the Midwest Utilities, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1999, and (iii) reducing, effective October 1, 2002, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by an additional amount equal to the lesser of 5% of the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998 or the percentage by which the electric utility's average residential retail rate exceeds the average residential retail rate of the Midwest Utilities, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 2001; and (B) if the average residential retail rate of an electric utility serving between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995 is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the Midwest Utilities, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, then it shall only be required to file tariffs (i) reducing, effective August 1, 1998, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 2% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998; (ii) reducing, effective October 1, 2000, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 2% from the base rate in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998; and (iii) reducing, effective October 1, 2002, each component of its base rates to residential retail customers by 1% from the base rates in effect immediately prior to January 1, 1998. Provided, further, that any electric utility for which a decrease in base rates has been or is placed into effect between October 1, 1996 and the dates specified in the preceding sentences of this subsection, other than pursuant to the requirements of this subsection, shall be entitled to reduce the amount of any reduction or reductions in its base rates required by this subsection by the amount of such other decrease. The tariffs required under this subsection shall be filed 45 days in advance of the effective date. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Section 9-220 of this Act, no restatement of base rates in conjunction with the elimination of a fuel adjustment clause under that Section shall result in a lesser decrease in base rates than customers would otherwise receive under this subsection had the electric utility's fuel adjustment clause not been eliminated.

(c) Any utility reducing its base rates by 15% on August 1, 1998 pursuant to subsection (b) shall include the following statement on its bills for residential customers from August 1 through December 31, 1998: "Effective August 1, 1998, your rates have been reduced by 15% by the Electric Service Customer Choice and Rate Relief Law of 1997 passed by the Illinois General Assembly.". Any utility reducing its base rates by 5% on August 1, 1998, pursuant to subsection (b) shall include the following statement on its bills for residential customers from August 1 through December 31, 1998: "Effective August 1, 1998, your rates have been reduced by 5% by the Electric Service Customer Choice and Rate Relief Law of 1997 passed by the Illinois General Assembly.".

Any utility reducing its base rates by 2% on August 1, 1998 pursuant to subsection (b) shall include the following statement on its bills for residential customers from August 1 through December 31, 1998: "Effective August 1, 1998, your rates have been reduced by 2% by the Electric Service Customer Choice and Rate Relief Law of 1997 passed by the Illinois General Assembly.".

(d) During the mandatory transition period, but not before January 1, 2000, and notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), an electric utility may request an increase in its base rates if the electric utility demonstrates that the 2-year average of its earned rate of return on common equity, calculated as its net income applicable to common stock divided by the average of its beginning and ending balances of common equity using data reported in the electric utility's Form 1 report to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission but adjusted to remove the effects of accelerated depreciation or amortization or other transition or mitigation measures implemented by the electric utility pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section and the effect of any refund paid pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, is below the 2-year average for the same 2 years of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication. The Commission shall review the electric utility's request, and may review the justness and reasonableness of all rates for tariffed services, in accordance with the provisions of Article IX of this Act, provided that the Commission shall consider any special or negotiated adjustments to the revenue requirement agreed to between the electric utility and the other parties to the proceeding. In setting rates under this Section, the Commission shall exclude the costs and revenues that are associated with competitive services and any billing or pricing experiments conducted under Section 16-106.

(e) For the purposes of this subsection (e) all calculations and comparisons shall be performed for the Illinois operations of multijurisdictional utilities. During the mandatory transition period, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), if the 2-year average of an electric utility's earned rate of return on common equity, calculated as its net income applicable to common stock divided by the average of its beginning and ending balances of common equity using data reported in the electric utility's Form 1 report to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission but adjusted to remove the effect of any refund paid under this subsection (e), and further adjusted to include the annual amortization of any difference between the consideration received by an affiliated interest of the electric utility in the sale of an asset which had been sold or transferred by the electric utility to the affiliated interest subsequent to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 and the consideration for which such asset had been sold or transferred to the affiliated interest, with such difference to be amortized ratably from the date of the sale by the affiliated interest to December 31, 2006, exceeds the 2-year average of the Index for the same 2 years by 1.5 or more percentage points, the electric utility shall make refunds to customers beginning the first billing day of April in the following year in the manner described in paragraph (3) of this subsection. For purposes of this subsection (e), the "Index" shall be the sum of (A) the average for the 12 months ended September 30 of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication for each year 1998 through 2006, and (B) (i) 4.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 1998 through September 30, 1999 or 8.00 percentage points if the electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, and the electric utility served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers on January 1, 1995, (ii) 7.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006 if the electric utility was providing service to at least 1,000,000 customers in this State on January 1, 1999, or 9.00 percentage points if the electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995 and the electric utility served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995, (iii) 11.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006, but only if the electric utility's average residential retail rate is less than or equal to 90% of the average residential retail rate for the "Midwest Utilities", as that term is defined in subsection (b) of this Section, based on data reported on Form 1 to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for calendar year 1995, the electric utility served between 150,000 and 250,000 retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995, and the electric utility offers delivery services on or before June 1, 2000 to retail customers whose annual electric energy use comprises 33% of the kilowatt hour sales to that group of retail customers that are classified under Division D, Groups 20 through 39 of the Standard Industrial Classifications set forth in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States Office of Management and Budget, excluding the kilowatt hour sales to those customers that are eligible for delivery services pursuant to Section 16-104(a)(1)(i), and offers delivery services to its remaining retail customers classified under Division D, Groups 20 through 39 on or before October 1, 2000, and, provided further, that the electric utility commits not to petition pursuant to Section 16-108(f) for entry of an order by the Commission authorizing the electric utility to implement transition charges for an additional period after December 31, 2006, or (iv) 5.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006 for all other electric utilities or 7.00 percentage points for such utilities for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2000 through September 30, 2006 for any such utility that commits not to petition pursuant to Section 16-108(f) for entry of an order by the Commission authorizing the electric utility to implement transition charges for an additional period after December 31, 2006 or 11.00 percentage points for each of the 12-month periods ending September 30, 2005 and September 30, 2006 for each electric utility providing service to fewer than 6,500, or between 75,000 and 150,000, electric retail customers in this State on January 1, 1995 if such utility commits not to petition pursuant to Section 16-108(f) for entry of an order by the Commission authorizing the electric utility to implement transition charges for an additional period after December 31, 2006.

(1) For purposes of this subsection (e), "excess earnings" means the difference between (A) the 2-year average of the electric utility's earned rate of return on common equity, less (B) the 2-year average of the sum of (i) the Index applicable to each of the 2 years and (ii) 1.5 percentage points; provided, that "excess earnings" shall never be less than zero.

(2) On or before March 31 of each year 2000 through 2007 each electric utility shall file a report with the Commission showing its earned rate of return on common equity, calculated in accordance with this subsection, for the preceding calendar year and the average for the preceding 2 calendar years.

(3) If an electric utility has excess earnings, determined in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection, the refunds which the electric utility shall pay to its customers beginning the first billing day of April in the following year shall be calculated and applied as follows:

(i) The electric utility's excess earnings shall be multiplied by the average of the beginning and ending balances of the electric utility's common equity for the 2-year period in which excess earnings occurred.

(ii) The result of the calculation in (i) shall be multiplied by 0.50 and then divided by a number equal to 1 minus the electric utility's composite federal and State income tax rate.

(iii) The result of the calculation in (ii) shall be divided by the sum of the electric utility's projected total kilowatt-hour sales to retail customers plus projected kilowatt-hours to be delivered to delivery services customers over a one year period beginning with the first billing date in April in the succeeding year to determine a cents per kilowatt-hour refund factor.

(iv) The cents per kilowatt-hour refund factor calculated in (iii) shall be credited to the electric utility's customers by applying the factor on the customer's monthly bills to each kilowatt-hour sold or delivered until the total amount calculated in (ii) has been paid to customers.

(f) During the mandatory transition period, an electric utility may file revised tariffs reducing the price of any tariffed service offered by the electric utility for all customers taking that tariffed service, which shall be effective 7 days after filing.

(g) During the mandatory transition period, an electric utility may, without obtaining any approval of the Commission other than that provided for in this subsection and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any rule or regulation of the Commission that would require such approval:

(1) implement a reorganization, other than a merger of 2 or more public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 or their holding companies;

(2) retire generating plants from service;

(3) sell, assign, lease or otherwise transfer assets to an affiliated or unaffiliated entity and as part of such transaction enter into service agreements, power purchase agreements, or other agreements with the transferee; provided, however, that the prices, terms and conditions of any power purchase agreement must be approved or allowed into effect by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission; or

(4) use any accelerated cost recovery method including accelerated depreciation, accelerated amortization or other capital recovery methods, or record reductions to the original cost of its assets.

In order to implement a reorganization, retire generating plants from service, or sell, assign, lease or otherwise transfer assets pursuant to this Section, the electric utility shall comply with subsections (c) and (d) of Section 16-128, if applicable, and subsection (k) of this Section, if applicable, and provide the Commission with at least 30 days notice of the proposed reorganization or transaction, which notice shall include the following information:

(i) a complete statement of the entries that the electric utility will make on its books and records of account to implement the proposed reorganization or transaction together with a certification from an independent certified public accountant that such entries are in accord with generally accepted accounting principles and, if the Commission has previously approved guidelines for cost allocations between the utility and its affiliates, a certification from the chief accounting officer of the utility that such entries are in accord with those cost allocation guidelines;

(ii) a description of how the electric utility will use proceeds of any sale, assignment, lease or transfer to retire debt or otherwise reduce or recover the costs of services provided by such electric utility;

(iii) a list of all federal approvals or approvals required from departments and agencies of this State, other than the Commission, that the electric utility has or will obtain before implementing the reorganization or transaction;

(iv) an irrevocable commitment by the electric utility that it will not, as a result of the transaction, impose any stranded cost charges that it might otherwise be allowed to charge retail customers under federal law or increase the transition charges that it is otherwise entitled to collect under this Article XVI; and

(v) if the electric utility proposes to sell, assign, lease or otherwise transfer a generating plant that brings the amount of net dependable generating capacity transferred pursuant to this subsection to an amount equal to or greater than 15% of the electric utility's net dependable capacity as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, and enters into a power purchase agreement with the entity to which such generating plant is sold, assigned, leased, or otherwise transferred, the electric utility also agrees, if its fuel adjustment clause has not already been eliminated, to eliminate its fuel adjustment clause in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 9-220 for a period of time equal to the length of any such power purchase agreement or successor agreement, or until January 1, 2005, whichever is longer; if the capacity of the generating plant so transferred and related power purchase agreement does not result in the elimination of the fuel adjustment clause under this subsection, and the fuel adjustment clause has not already been eliminated, the electric utility shall agree that the costs associated with the transferred plant that are included in the calculation of the rate per kilowatt-hour to be applied pursuant to the electric utility's fuel adjustment clause during such period shall not exceed the per kilowatt-hour cost associated with such generating plant included in the electric utility's fuel adjustment clause during the full calendar year preceding the transfer, with such limit to be adjusted each year thereafter by the Gross Domestic Product Implicit Price Deflator.

(vi) In addition, if the electric utility proposes to sell, assign, or lease, (A) either (1) an amount of generating plant that brings the amount of net dependable generating capacity transferred pursuant to this subsection to an amount equal to or greater than 15% of its net dependable capacity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, or (2) one or more generating plants with a total net dependable capacity of 1100 megawatts, or (B) transmission and distribution facilities that either (1) bring the amount of transmission and distribution facilities transferred pursuant to this subsection to an amount equal to or greater than 15% of the electric utility's total depreciated original cost investment in such facilities, or (2) represent an investment of $25,000,000 in terms of total depreciated original cost, the electric utility shall provide, in addition to the information listed in subparagraphs (i) through (v), the following information: (A) a description of how the electric utility will meet its service obligations under this Act in a safe and reliable manner and (B) the electric utility's projected earned rate of return on common equity, calculated in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section, for each year from the date of the notice through December 31, 2006 both with and without the proposed transaction. If the Commission has not issued an order initiating a hearing on the proposed transaction within 30 days after the date the electric utility's notice is filed, the transaction shall be deemed approved. The Commission may, after notice and hearing, prohibit the proposed transaction if it makes either or both of the following findings: (1) that the proposed transaction will render the electric utility unable to provide its tariffed services in a safe and reliable manner, or (2) that there is a strong likelihood that consummation of the proposed transaction will result in the electric utility being entitled to request an increase in its base rates during the mandatory transition period pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. Any hearing initiated by the Commission into the proposed transaction shall be completed, and the Commission's final order approving or prohibiting the proposed transaction shall be entered, within 90 days after the date the electric utility's notice was filed. Provided, however, that a sale, assignment, or lease of transmission facilities to an independent system operator that meets the requirements of Section 16-126 shall not be subject to Commission approval under this Section.

In any proceeding conducted by the Commission pursuant to this subparagraph (vi), intervention shall be limited to parties with a direct interest in the transaction which is the subject of the hearing and any statutory consumer protection agency as defined in subsection (d) of Section 9-102.1. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 10-113 of this Act, any application seeking rehearing of an order issued under this subparagraph (vi), whether filed by the electric utility or by an intervening party, shall be filed within 10 days after service of the order.

The Commission shall not in any subsequent proceeding or otherwise, review such a reorganization or other transaction authorized by this Section, but shall retain the authority to allocate costs as stated in Section 16-111(i). An entity to which an electric utility sells, assigns, leases or transfers assets pursuant to this subsection (g) shall not, as a result of the transactions specified in this subsection (g), be deemed a public utility as defined in Section 3-105. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall change any requirement under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Department of Nuclear Safety including, but not limited to, the payment of fees. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall exempt a utility from obtaining a certificate pursuant to Section 8-406 of this Act for the construction of a new electric generating facility. Nothing in this subsection (g) is intended to exempt the transactions hereunder from the operation of the federal or State antitrust laws. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall require an electric utility to use the procedures specified in this subsection for any of the transactions specified herein. Any other procedure available under this Act may, at the electric utility's election, be used for any such transaction.

(h) During the mandatory transition period, the Commission shall not establish or use any rates of depreciation, which for purposes of this subsection shall include amortization, for any electric utility other than those established pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 5-104 of this Act or utilized pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section. Provided, however, that in any proceeding to review an electric utility's rates for tariffed services pursuant to Section 9-201, 9-202, 9-250 or 16-111(d) of this Act, the Commission may establish new rates of depreciation for the electric utility in the same manner provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-104 of this Act. An electric utility implementing an accelerated cost recovery method including accelerated depreciation, accelerated amortization or other capital recovery methods, or recording reductions to the original cost of its assets, pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section, shall file a statement with the Commission describing the accelerated cost recovery method to be implemented or the reduction in the original cost of its assets to be recorded. Upon the filing of such statement, the accelerated cost recovery method or the reduction in the original cost of assets shall be deemed to be approved by the Commission as though an order had been entered by the Commission.

(i) Subsequent to the mandatory transition period, the Commission, in any proceeding to establish rates and charges for tariffed services offered by an electric utility, shall consider only (1) the then current or projected revenues, costs, investments and cost of capital directly or indirectly associated with the provision of such tariffed services; (2) collection of transition charges in accordance with Sections 16-102 and 16-108 of this Act; (3) recovery of any employee transition costs as described in Section 16-128 which the electric utility is continuing to incur, including recovery of any unamortized portion of such costs previously incurred or committed, with such costs to be equitably allocated among bundled services, delivery services, and contracts with alternative retail electric suppliers; and (4) recovery of the costs associated with the electric utility's compliance with decommissioning funding requirements; and shall not consider any other revenues, costs, investments or cost of capital of either the electric utility or of any affiliate of the electric utility that are not associated with the provision of tariffed services. In setting rates for tariffed services, the Commission shall equitably allocate joint and common costs and investments between the electric utility's competitive and tariffed services. In determining the justness and reasonableness of the electric power and energy component of an electric utility's rates for tariffed services subsequent to the mandatory transition period and prior to the time that the provision of such electric power and energy is declared competitive, the Commission shall consider the extent to which the electric utility's tariffed rates for such component for each customer class exceed the market value determined pursuant to Section 16-112, and, if the electric power and energy component of such tariffed rate exceeds the market value by more than 10% for any customer class, may establish such electric power and energy component at a rate equal to the market value plus 10%. In any such case, the Commission may also elect to extend the provisions of Section 16-111(e) for any period in which the electric utility is collecting transition charges, using information applicable to such period.

(j) During the mandatory transition period, an electric utility may elect to transfer to a non-operating income account under the Commission's Uniform System of Accounts either or both of (i) an amount of unamortized investment tax credit that is in addition to the ratable amount which is credited to the electric utility's operating income account for the year in accordance with Section 46(f)(2) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as in effect prior to P.L. 101-508, or (ii) "excess tax reserves", as that term is defined in Section 203(e)(2)(A) of the federal Tax Reform Act of 1986, provided that (A) the amount transferred may not exceed the amount of the electric utility's assets that were created pursuant to Statement of Financial Accounting Standards No. 71 which the electric utility has written off during the mandatory transition period, and (B) the transfer shall not be effective until approved by the Internal Revenue Service. An electric utility electing to make such a transfer shall file a statement with the Commission stating the amount and timing of the transfer for which it intends to request approval of the Internal Revenue Service, along with a copy of its proposed request to the Internal Revenue Service for a ruling. The Commission shall issue an order within 14 days after the electric utility's filing approving, subject to receipt of approval from the Internal Revenue Service, the proposed transfer.

(k) If an electric utility is selling or transferring to a single buyer 5 or more generating plants located in this State with a total net dependable capacity of 5000 megawatts or more pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section and has obtained a sale price or consideration that exceeds 200% of the book value of such plants, the electric utility must provide to the Governor, the President of the Illinois Senate, the Minority Leader of the Illinois Senate, the Speaker of the Illinois House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the Illinois House of Representatives no later than 15 days after filing its notice under subsection (g) of this Section or 5 days after the date on which this subsection (k) becomes law, whichever is later, a written commitment in which such electric utility agrees to expend $2 billion outside the corporate limits of any municipality with 1,000,000 or more inhabitants within such electric utility's service area, over a 6-year period beginning with the calendar year in which the notice is filed, on projects, programs, and improvements within its service area relating to transmission and distribution including, without limitation, infrastructure expansion, repair and replacement, capital investments, operations and maintenance, and vegetation management.

(Source: P.A. 91-50, eff. 6-30-99; 92-537, eff. 6-6-02; 92-690, eff. 7-18-02; revised 9-10-02.)

Section 685. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 23a as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/23a) (from Ch. 111, par. 2323a)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 23a. The Director of the Department may, upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services or the Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or Department of Public Health, that continuation of practice of a person licensed under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, immediately suspend the license of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such hearing held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status or reinstated, or such person be subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided however, the person, or his counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit or impeach such evidence and submit evidence rebutting same.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 690. The Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 45/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73.104)

Sec. 4. Withdrawal of funds; revocability of contract.

(a) The amount or amounts so deposited into trust, with interest thereon, if any, shall not be withdrawn until the death of the person or persons for whose funeral or burial such funds were paid, unless sooner withdrawn and repaid to the person who originally paid the money under or in connection with the pre-need contract or to his or her legal representative. The life insurance policies or tax-deferred annuities shall not be surrendered until the death of the person or persons for whose funeral or burial the policies or annuities were purchased, unless sooner surrendered and repaid to the owner of the policy purchased under or in connection with the pre-need contract or to his or her legal representative. If, however, the agreement or series of agreements provides for forfeiture and retention of any or all payments as and for liquidated damages as provided in Section 6, then the trustee may withdraw the deposits. In addition, nothing in this Section (i) prohibits the change of depositary by the trustee and the transfer of trust funds from one depositary to another or (ii) prohibits a contract purchaser who is or may become eligible for public assistance under any applicable federal or State law or local ordinance including, but not limited to, eligibility under 24 C.F.R., Part 913 relating to family insurance under federal Housing and Urban Development Policy from irrevocably waiving, in writing, and renouncing the right to cancel a pre-need contract for funeral services in an amount prescribed by rule of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. No guaranteed price pre-need funeral contract may prohibit a purchaser from making a contract irrevocable to the extent that federal law or regulations require that such a contract be irrevocable for purposes of the purchaser's eligibility for Supplemental Security Income benefits, Medicaid, or another public assistance program, as permitted under federal law.

(b) If for any reason a seller or provider who has engaged in pre-need sales has refused, cannot, or does not comply with the terms of the pre-need contract within a reasonable time after he or she is required to do so, the purchaser or his or her heirs or assigns or duly authorized representative shall have the right to a refund of an amount equal to the sales price paid for undelivered merchandise or services plus otherwise earned undistributed interest amounts held in trust attributable to the contract, within 30 days of the filing of a sworn affidavit with the trustee setting forth the existence of the contract and the fact of breach. A copy of this affidavit shall be filed with the Comptroller and the seller. In the event a seller is prevented from performing by strike, shortage of materials, civil disorder, natural disaster, or any like occurrence beyond the control of the seller or provider, the seller or provider's time for performance shall be extended by the length of the delay. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the seller or provider from any liability for non-performance of his or her obligations under the pre-need contract.

(c) After final payment on a pre-need contract, any purchaser may, upon written demand to a seller, demand that the pre-need contract with the seller be terminated. The seller shall, within 30 days, initiate a refund to the purchaser of the entire amount held in trust attributable to undelivered merchandise and unperformed services, including otherwise earned undistributed interest earned thereon or the cash surrender value of a life insurance policy or tax-deferred annuity.

(c-5) If no funeral merchandise or services are provided or if the funeral is conducted by another person, the seller may keep no more than 10% of the payments made under the pre-need contract or $300, whichever sum is less. The remainder of the trust funds or insurance or annuity proceeds shall be forwarded to the legal heirs of the deceased or as determined by probate action.

(d) The placement and retention of all or a portion of a casket, combination casket-vault, urn, or outer burial container comprised of materials which are designed to withstand prolonged storage in the manner set forth in this paragraph without adversely affecting the structural integrity or aesthetic characteristics of such merchandise in a specific burial space in which the person or persons for whose funeral or burial the merchandise was intended has a right of interment, or the placement of the merchandise in a specific mausoleum crypt or lawn crypt in which such person has a right of entombment, or the placement of the merchandise in a specific niche in which such person has a right of inurnment, or delivery to such person and retention by such person until the time of need shall constitute actual delivery to the person who originally paid the money under or in connection with said agreement or series of agreements. Actual delivery shall eliminate, from and after the date of actual delivery, any requirement under this Act to place or retain in trust any funds received for the sale of such merchandise. The delivery, prior to the time of need, of any funeral or burial merchandise in any manner other than authorized by this Section shall not constitute actual delivery and shall not eliminate any requirement under this Act to place or retain in trust any funds received for the sale of such merchandise.

(Source: P.A. 92-419, eff. 1-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 695. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 65, and 70 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, the following definitions apply:

"Applicant" means an individual seeking employment with a health care employer who has received a bona fide conditional offer of employment.

"Conditional offer of employment" means a bona fide offer of employment by a health care employer to an applicant, which is contingent upon the receipt of a report from the Department of State Police indicating that the applicant does not have a record of conviction of any of the criminal offenses enumerated in Section 25.

"Direct care" means the provision of nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, or other personal needs, including home services as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act. The entity responsible for inspecting and licensing, certifying, or registering the health care employer may, by administrative rule, prescribe guidelines for interpreting this definition with regard to the health care employers that it licenses.

"Health care employer" means:

(1) the owner or licensee of any of the following:

(i) a community living facility, as defined in the Community Living Facilities Act;

(ii) a life care facility, as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(iii) a long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act;

(iv) a home health agency, home services agency, or home nursing agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(v) a comprehensive hospice program or volunteer hospice program, as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(vi) a hospital, as defined in the Hospital Licensing Act;

(vii) a community residential alternative, as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(viii) a nurse agency, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act;

(ix) a respite care provider, as defined in the Respite Program Act;

(ix-a) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(x) a supportive living program, as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xi) early childhood intervention programs as described in 59 Ill. Adm. Code 121;

(xii) the University of Illinois Hospital, Chicago;

(xiii) programs funded by the Department on Aging through the Community Care Program;

(xiv) programs certified to participate in the Supportive Living Program authorized pursuant to Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xv) programs listed by the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act as Freestanding Emergency Centers;

(xvi) locations licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(2) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(3) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency, as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensing and Certification Act; or

(4) the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, including any regional long term care ombudsman programs under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, only for the purpose of securing background checks.

"Initiate" means the obtaining of the authorization for a record check from a student, applicant, or employee. The educational entity or health care employer or its designee shall transmit all necessary information and fees to the Illinois State Police within 10 working days after receipt of the authorization.

"Long-term care facility" means a facility licensed by the State or certified under federal law as a long-term care facility, a supportive living facility, an assisted living establishment, or a shared housing establishment or registered as a board and care home.

(Source: P.A. 93-878, eff. 1-1-05; 94-379, eff. 1-1-06; 94-570, eff. 8-12-05; 94-665, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(225 ILCS 46/65)

Sec. 65. Health Care Worker Task Force. A Health Care Worker Task Force shall be appointed to study and make recommendations on statutory changes to this Act.

(a) The Task Force shall monitor the status of the implementation of this Act and monitor complaint investigations relating to this Act by the Department on Aging, Department of Public Health, Department of Professional Regulation, and the Department of Human Services to determine the criminal background, if any, of health care workers who have had findings of abuse, theft, or exploitation.

(b) The Task Force shall make recommendations concerning modifications to the list of offenses enumerated in Section 25, including time limits on all or some of the disqualifying offenses, and any other necessary or desirable changes to the Act.

(c) The Task Force shall issue an interim report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than January 1, 2004. The final report shall be issued no later than September 30, 2005, and shall include specific statutory changes recommended, if any.

(d) The Task Force shall be composed of the following members, who shall serve without pay:

(1) a chairman knowledgeable about health care issues, who shall be appointed by the Governor;

(2) the Director of Public Health or his or her designee;

(3) the Director of State Police or his or her designee;

(3.5) the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or his or her designee;

(3.6) the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee;

(3.7) the Director of Aging or his or her designee;

(4) 2 representatives of health care providers, who shall be appointed by the Governor;

(5) 2 representatives of health care employees, who shall be appointed by the Governor;

(5.5) a representative of a Community Care homemaker program, who shall be appointed by the Governor;

(6) a representative of the general public who has an interest in health care, who shall be appointed by the Governor; and

(7) 4 members of the General Assembly, one appointed by the Speaker of the House, one appointed by the House Minority Leader, one appointed by the President of the Senate, and one appointed by the Senate Minority Leader.

(Source: P.A. 93-224, eff. 7-18-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(225 ILCS 46/70)

Sec. 70. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS) grant.

(a) In this Section:

"Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS) grant" means the grant awarded to and distributed by the Department of Public Health to enhance the conduct of criminal history records checks of certain health care employees. The CMMS grant is authorized by Section 307 of the federal Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003, which establishes the framework for a program to evaluate national and state background checks on prospective employees with direct access to patients of long-term care facilities or providers.

"Selected health care employer" means any of the following selected to participate in the CMMS grant:

(1) a community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facility Act;

(2) a long-term care facility as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act;

(3) a home health agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(4) a full hospice as defined in the Hospice Licensing Act;

(5) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(6) a supportive living facility as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(7) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(8) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency as defined in the Community Integrated Living Arrangements Licensing and Certification Act; or

(9) a long-term care hospital or hospital with swing beds.

(b) Selected health care employers shall be phased in to participate in the CMMS grant between January 1, 2006 and January 1, 2007, as prescribed by the Department of Public Health by rule.

(c) With regards to individuals hired on or after January 1, 2006 who have direct access to residents, patients, or clients of the selected health care employer, selected health care employers must comply with Section 25 of this Act.

"Individuals who have direct access" includes, but is not limited to, (i) direct care workers as described in subsection (a) of Section 25; (ii) individuals licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, such as nurses, social workers, physical therapists, occupational therapists, and pharmacists; (iii) individuals who provide services on site, through contract; and (iv) non-direct care workers, such as those who work in environmental services, food service, and administration.

"Individuals who have direct access" does not include physicians or volunteers.

The Department of Public Health may further define "individuals who have direct access" by rule.

(d) Each applicant seeking employment in a position described in subsection (c) of this Section with a selected health care employer shall, as a condition of employment, have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record information by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history records check. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check and shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois convictions to the Department of Public Health.

(e) A selected health care employer who makes a conditional offer of employment to an applicant shall:

(1) ensure that the applicant has complied with the fingerprinting requirements of this Section;

(2) complete documentation relating to any criminal history record, as revealed by the applicant, as prescribed by rule by the Department of Public Health;

(3) complete documentation of the applicant's personal identifiers as prescribed by rule by the Department of Public Health; and

(4) provide supervision, as prescribed by rule by the licensing agency, if the applicant is hired and allowed to work prior to the results of the criminal history records check being obtained.

(f) A selected health care employer having actual knowledge from a source that an individual with direct access to a resident, patient, or client has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one of the offenses enumerated in Section 25 of this Act shall contact the licensing agency or follow other instructions as prescribed by administrative rule.

(g) A fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section must be submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(h) This Section shall be inapplicable upon the conclusion of the CMMS grant.

(Source: P.A. 94-665, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06; revised 10-19-06.)

Section 700. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 22 and 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2007)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probationary status, refuse to renew, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or visiting professor permit of any person issued under this Act to practice medicine, or to treat human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; or

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control; or

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) The conviction of a felony in this or any other jurisdiction, except as otherwise provided in subsection B of this Section, whether or not related to practice under this Act, or the entry of a guilty or nolo contendere plea to a felony charge.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Disciplinary action of another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Dividing with anyone other than physicians with whom the licensee practices in a partnership, Professional Association, limited liability company, or Medical or Professional Corporation any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually and personally rendered. Nothing contained in this subsection prohibits persons holding valid and current licenses under this Act from practicing medicine in partnership under a partnership agreement, including a limited liability partnership, in a limited liability company under the Limited Liability Company Act, in a corporation authorized by the Medical Corporation Act, as an association authorized by the Professional Association Act, or in a corporation under the Professional Corporation Act or from pooling, sharing, dividing or apportioning the fees and monies received by them or by the partnership, corporation or association in accordance with the partnership agreement or the policies of the Board of Directors of the corporation or association. Nothing contained in this subsection prohibits 2 or more corporations authorized by the Medical Corporation Act, from forming a partnership or joint venture of such corporations, and providing medical, surgical and scientific research and knowledge by employees of these corporations if such employees are licensed under this Act, or from pooling, sharing, dividing, or apportioning the fees and monies received by the partnership or joint venture in accordance with the partnership or joint venture agreement. Nothing contained in this subsection shall abrogate the right of 2 or more persons, holding valid and current licenses under this Act, to each receive adequate compensation for concurrently rendering professional services to a patient and divide a fee; provided, the patient has full knowledge of the division, and, provided, that the division is made in proportion to the services performed and responsibility assumed by each.

(15) A finding by the Medical Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Wilfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra, as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to transfer copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate and provide medical direction.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with or provide medical direction to a licensed advanced practice nurse.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Medical Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Medical Disciplinary Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physician or physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Disciplinary Board. The Medical Disciplinary Board or the Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until such time as the individual submits to the examination if the Disciplinary Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause. If the Disciplinary Board finds a physician unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Medical Disciplinary Fund.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or visiting permit of any person issued under this Act to practice medicine or to treat human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery, who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or visiting permit is revoked under this subsection B of Section 22 of this Act shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Medical Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-677, eff. 8-25-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(225 ILCS 60/25) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2007)

Sec. 25. The Director of the Department may, upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), or the Director of Public Health that continuation of practice of a person licensed under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, and after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinator, immediately suspend the license of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. Such hearing is to be held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status or reinstated, or whether such person should be subject to other disciplinary action. In the hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided however, the person, or their counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit, impeach and submit evidence rebutting such evidence.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 705. The Naprapathic Practice Act is amended by changing Section 110 as follows:

(225 ILCS 63/110)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2013)

Sec. 110. Grounds for disciplinary action; refusal, revocation, suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee or license for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Violations of this Act or its rules.

(2) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(3) Conviction of any crime under the laws of any U.S. jurisdiction that is (i) a felony, (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or (iii) directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license.

(5) Professional incompetence or gross negligence.

(6) Gross malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(11) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. This shall not be deemed to include rent or other remunerations paid to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a naprapath for the lease, rental, or use of space, owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, corporation or association.

(13) Using the title "Doctor" or its abbreviation without further clarifying that title or abbreviation with the word "naprapath" or "naprapathy" or the designation "D.N.".

(14) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(15) Abandonment of a patient without cause.

(16) Willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(17) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Solicitation of professional services by means other than permitted advertising.

(20) Failure to provide a patient with a copy of his or her record upon the written request of the patient.

(21) Conviction by any court of competent jurisdiction, either within or without this State, of any violation of any law governing the practice of naprapathy, conviction in this or another state of any crime which is a felony under the laws of this State or conviction of a felony in a federal court, if the Department determines, after investigation, that the person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.

(22) A finding that licensure has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(23) Continued practice by a person knowingly having an infectious or contagious disease.

(24) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or a neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(25) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name shown on the license.

(26) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(27) Maintaining a professional relationship with any person, firm, or corporation when the naprapath knows, or should know, that the person, firm, or corporation is violating this Act.

(28) Promotion of the sale of food supplements, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a client or patient in such manner as to exploit the patient or client for financial gain of the licensee.

(29) Having treated ailments of human beings other than by the practice of naprapathy as defined in this Act, or having treated ailments of human beings as a licensed naprapath independent of a documented referral or documented current and relevant diagnosis from a physician, dentist, or podiatrist, or having failed to notify the physician, dentist, or podiatrist who established a documented current and relevant diagnosis that the patient is receiving naprapathic treatment pursuant to that diagnosis.

(30) Use by a registered naprapath of the word "infirmary", "hospital", "school", "university", in English or any other language, in connection with the place where naprapathy may be practiced or demonstrated.

(31) Continuance of a naprapath in the employ of any person, firm, or corporation, or as an assistant to any naprapath or naprapaths, directly or indirectly, after his or her employer or superior has been found guilty of violating or has been enjoined from violating the laws of the State of Illinois relating to the practice of naprapathy when the employer or superior persists in that violation.

(32) The performance of naprapathic service in conjunction with a scheme or plan with another person, firm, or corporation known to be advertising in a manner contrary to this Act or otherwise violating the laws of the State of Illinois concerning the practice of naprapathy.

(33) Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having participated in approved continuing education programs as determined by the Committee and approved by the Director. Exceptions for extreme hardships are to be defined by the rules of the Department.

(34) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of naprapathy, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(35) Gross or willful overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(36) Mental illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to (i) file a return or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return or (ii) pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time that the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Committee to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(c) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any person licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure or certification pursuant to this Act to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The person to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of a license until the person submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual.

Any person whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions shall be referred to the Director for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 92-655, eff. 7-16-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 710. The Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act is amended by changing Sections 10-45, 20-40, and 20-55 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 10-45. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may, upon recommendation of the Board, refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate with regard to a license for any one or combination of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. Fines up to $2,500 may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action for those violations that result in monetary gain for the licensee. Fines shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving mental or physical illness or impairment. All fines collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:

(1) Material deception in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or violation of the rules of or final administrative action of the Director, after consideration of the recommendation of the Board.

(3) Conviction of any crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) which is a felony; or (ii) which is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or (iii) of any crime which is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified mail.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.

(8) Unlawful sale or distribution of any drug, narcotic, or prescription device, or unlawful conversion of any drug, narcotic or prescription device.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in a licensee's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or his license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person to omit to file or record medical reports as required by law or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Gross negligence in the practice of nursing.

(15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under any name other than one's own.

(16) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(17) Allowing another person or organization to use the licensees' license to deceive the public.

(18) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(19) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a nurse licensing examination administered under this Act.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between nurse and patient except as required by law.

(22) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(23) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with the licensee's practice.

(24) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered.

(25) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against such licensee by another licensing jurisdiction (any other jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional or nursing society or association, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court or a nursing liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(26) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice nursing in another state or jurisdiction, or current surrender by the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined by this Section.

(27) A violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(28) Physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Director for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 90-742, eff. 8-13-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(225 ILCS 65/20-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 20-40. Fund. There is hereby created within the State Treasury the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund. The monies in the Fund may be used by and at the direction of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act, including but not limited to:

(a) Distribution and publication of the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act and the rules at the time of renewal to all persons licensed by the Department under this Act.

(b) Employment of secretarial, nursing, administrative, enforcement, and other staff for the administration of this Act.

(c) Conducting a survey, as prescribed by rule of the Department, once every 4 years during the license renewal period.

(d) Conducting of training seminars for licensees under this Act relating to the obligations, responsibilities, enforcement and other provisions of the Act and its rules.

(e) Disposition of Fees:

(i) (Blank).

(ii) All of the fees and fines collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(iii) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 1988, the moneys deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund shall be appropriated to the Department for expenses of the Department and the Board in the administration of this Act. All earnings received from investment of moneys in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund and shall be used for the same purposes as fees deposited in the Fund.

(iv) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2004 and for each fiscal year thereafter, $1,200,000 of the moneys deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund each year shall be set aside and appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for nursing scholarships awarded pursuant to the Nursing Education Scholarship Law. Representatives of the Department and the Nursing Education Scholarship Program Advisory Council shall review this requirement and the scholarship awards every 2 years.

(v) Moneys in the Fund may be transferred to the Professions Indirect Cost Fund as authorized under Section 2105-300 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/2105-300).

(f) Moneys set aside for nursing scholarships awarded pursuant to the Nursing Education Scholarship Law as provided in item (iv) of subsection (e) of this Section may not be transferred under Section 8h of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-46, eff. 7-1-01; 93-806, eff. 7-24-04; 93-1054, eff. 11-18-04; revised 12-1-04.)

(225 ILCS 65/20-55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 20-55. Suspension for imminent danger. The Director of the Department may, upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), or the Director of Public Health that continuation of practice of a person licensed under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, immediately suspend the license of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such hearing held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status or reinstated, or such person be subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided, however, the person, or his or her counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit or impeach and submit evidence rebutting such evidence.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-61, eff. 12-30-97; 90-742, eff. 8-13-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 715. The Mail Order Contact Lens Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 83/20)

Sec. 20. Nonresident mail-order ophthalmic opthalmic provider registration.

(a) The Department shall require and provide for an annual registration for all mail-order ophthalmic providers located outside of this State, including those providing services via the Internet, that dispense contact lenses to Illinois residents. A mail-order ophthalmic provider's registration shall be granted by the Department upon the disclosure and certification by a mail-order ophthalmic provider of all of the following:

(1) That it is licensed or registered to distribute contact lenses in the state in which the dispensing facility is located and from which the contact lenses are dispensed, if required.

(2) The location, names, and titles of all principal corporate officers and the person who is responsible for overseeing the dispensing of contact lenses to residents of this State.

(3) That it complies with all lawful directions and appropriate requests for information from the appropriate agency of each state in which it is licensed or registered.

(4) That it will respond directly to all communications from the Department concerning emergency circumstances arising from the dispensing of contact lenses to residents of this State.

(5) That it maintains its records of contact lenses dispensed to residents of this State so that the records are readily retrievable.

(6) That it cooperates with the Department in providing information to the appropriate agency of the state in which it is licensed or registered concerning matters related to the dispensing of contact lenses to residents of this State.

(7) That it conducts business in a manner that conforms with Section 10 of this Act.

(8) That it provides a toll-free telephone service for responding to patient questions and complaints during its regular hours of operation. The toll-free number shall be included in literature provided with mailed contact lenses. All questions relating to eye care for the lenses prescribed shall be referred back to the contact lens prescriber.

(9) That it provides the following or a substantially equivalent written notification to the patient whenever contact lenses are supplied: WARNING: IF YOU ARE HAVING ANY OF THE FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS REMOVE YOUR LENSES IMMEDIATELY AND CONSULT YOUR EYE CARE PRACTITIONER BEFORE WEARING YOUR LENSES AGAIN: UNEXPLAINED EYE DISCOMFORT, WATERING, VISION CHANGE, OR REDNESS.

(b) The Department shall provide a copy of this Act and its rules, and the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 and its rules, with each application for registration.

(Source: P.A. 91-421, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-13-05.)

Section 720. The Pharmacy Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 30 and 33 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/30) (from Ch. 111, par. 4150)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 30. (a) In accordance with Section 11 of this Act, the Department may refuse to issue, restore, or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to any license or certificate of registration for any one or combination of the following causes:

1. Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

2. Violations of this Act, or the rules promulgated hereunder.

3. Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses.

4. A pattern of conduct which demonstrates incompetence or unfitness to practice.

5. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

6. Failing, within 60 days, to respond to a written request made by the Department for information.

7. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

8. Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

9. Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered.

10. A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

11. Selling or engaging in the sale of drug samples provided at no cost by drug manufacturers.

12. Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

13. A finding that licensure or registration has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

14. The applicant, or licensee has been convicted in state or federal court of any crime which is a felony or any misdemeanor related to the practice of pharmacy, of which an essential element is dishonesty.

15. Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

16. Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of pharmacy, including, but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Public Aid Code.

17. Gross and willful overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Public Aid Code.

18. Repetitiously dispensing prescription drugs without receiving a written or oral prescription.

19. Upon a finding of a substantial discrepancy in a Department audit of a prescription drug, including controlled substances, as that term is defined in this Act or in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

20. Physical illness which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety, or mental incompetency as declared by a court of competent jurisdiction.

21. Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

22. Failing to sell or dispense any drug, medicine, or poison in good faith. "Good faith", for the purposes of this Section, has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (u) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

23. Interfering with the professional judgment of a pharmacist by any registrant under this Act, or his or her agents or employees.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license or registration of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(c) The Department shall revoke the license or certificate of registration issued under the provisions of this Act or any prior Act of this State of any person who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or certificate of registration issued under the provisions of this Act or any prior Act of this State is revoked under this subsection (c) shall be prohibited from engaging in the practice of pharmacy in this State.

(d) In any order issued in resolution of a disciplinary proceeding, the Board may request any licensee found guilty of a charge involving a significant violation of subsection (a) of Section 5, or paragraph 19 of Section 30 as it pertains to controlled substances, to pay to the Department a fine not to exceed $2,000.

(e) In any order issued in resolution of a disciplinary proceeding, in addition to any other disciplinary action, the Board may request any licensee found guilty of noncompliance with the continuing education requirements of Section 12 to pay the Department a fine not to exceed $1000.

(f) The Department shall issue quarterly to the Board a status of all complaints related to the profession received by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 92-880, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(225 ILCS 85/33) (from Ch. 111, par. 4153)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 33. The Director of the Department may, upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), or the Director of Public Health that continuation of practice of a person licensed or registered under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, immediately suspend the license or registration of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a license or registration under this Act, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such hearing held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status or reinstated, or such person be subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided however, the person, or his counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit or impeach such evidence and submit evidence rebutting same.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 725. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 24 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 4824)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 24. Refusal to issue or suspension or revocation of license; grounds. The Department may refuse to issue, may refuse to renew, may refuse to restore, may suspend, or may revoke any license, or may place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation upon anyone licensed under this Act for any of the following reasons:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules or regulations promulgated hereunder.

(3) Conviction of any crime under the laws of any United States jurisdiction that is a felony or a misdemeanor, of which an essential element is dishonesty, or of any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pertaining to advertising.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Gross or repeated malpractice or negligence.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(8) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use of alcohol, narcotics, stimulants or other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice podiatric medicine with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(11) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. This shall not be deemed to include rent or other remunerations paid to an individual, partnership, or corporation, by a licensee, for the lease, rental or use of space, owned or controlled, by the individual, partnership or corporation.

(13) A finding by the Podiatric Medical Licensing Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Abandonment of a patient.

(15) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with state agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Report Act.

(17) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(18) Solicitation of professional services other than permitted advertising.

(19) The determination by a circuit court that a licensed podiatric physician is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Podiatric Medical Licensing Board to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(20) Holding oneself out to treat human ailments under any name other than his or her own, or the impersonation of any other physician.

(21) Revocation or suspension or other action taken with respect to a podiatric medical license in another jurisdiction that would constitute disciplinary action under this Act.

(22) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the podiatric physician.

(23) Gross, willful, and continued overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for those services, including, but not limited to, filing false statement for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code or other private or public third party payor.

(24) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(25) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of podiatric medicine, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) Mental illness or disability that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(27) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(28) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(29) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction (another state or a territory of the United States or a foreign state or country) by a peer review body, by any health care institution, by a professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by a governmental agency, by a law enforcement agency, or by a court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

Upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), or the Director of Public Health that continuation of practice of a person licensed under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, the Director may immediately suspend the license of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such hearing held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status or reinstated, or such person be subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided, however, the person or his counsel shall have the opportunity to discredit or impeach such evidence and submit evidence rebutting the same.

All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 3 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described in this Section. Except for fraud in procuring a license, no action shall be commenced more than 5 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have been a violation of this Section. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of one year from the date of notification to the Department under Section 26 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 24 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Director for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-76, eff. 12-30-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 730. The Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(225 ILCS 110/16) (from Ch. 111, par. 7916)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 16. Refusal, revocation or suspension of licenses.

(1) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, censure, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following causes:

(a) Fraud in procuring the license.

(b) Habitual intoxication or addiction to the use of drugs.

(c) Willful or repeated violations of the rules of the Department of Public Health.

(d) Division of fees or agreeing to split or divide the fees received for speech-language pathology or audiology services with any person for referring an individual, or assisting in the care or treatment of an individual, without the knowledge of the individual or his or her legal representative.

(e) Employing, procuring, inducing, aiding or abetting a person not licensed as a speech-language pathologist or audiologist to engage in the unauthorized practice of speech-language pathology or audiology.

(e-5) Employing, procuring, inducing, aiding, or abetting a person not licensed as a speech-language pathology assistant to perform the functions and duties of a speech-language pathology assistant.

(f) Making any misrepresentations or false promises, directly or indirectly, to influence, persuade or induce patronage.

(g) Professional connection or association with, or lending his or her name to another for the illegal practice of speech-language pathology or audiology by another, or professional connection or association with any person, firm or corporation holding itself out in any manner contrary to this Act.

(h) Obtaining or seeking to obtain checks, money, or any other things of value by false or fraudulent representations, including but not limited to, engaging in such fraudulent practice to defraud the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(i) Practicing under a name other than his or her own.

(j) Improper, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(k) Conviction in this or another state of any crime which is a felony under the laws of this State or conviction of a felony in a federal court, if the Department determines, after investigation, that such person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.

(1) Permitting a person under his or her supervision to perform any function not authorized by this Act.

(m) A violation of any provision of this Act or rules promulgated thereunder.

(n) Revocation by another state, the District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation of a license to practice speech-language pathology or audiology or a license to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant in its jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for that revocation is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for revocation set forth herein.

(o) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(p) Gross or repeated malpractice resulting in injury or death of an individual.

(q) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a speech-language pathologist, speech-language pathology assistant, or audiologist, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the public assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid).

(r) Professional incompetence as manifested by poor standards of care or mental incompetence as declared by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(s) Repeated irregularities in billing a third party for services rendered to an individual. For purposes of this Section, "irregularities in billing" shall include:

(i) reporting excessive charges for the purpose of obtaining a total payment in excess of that usually received by the speech-language pathologist, speech-language pathology assistant, or audiologist for the services rendered;

(ii) reporting charges for services not rendered; or

(iii) incorrectly reporting services rendered for the purpose of obtaining payment not earned.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(v) Physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(w) Violation of the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act.

(x) Failure by a speech-language pathology assistant and supervising speech-language pathologist to comply with the supervision requirements set forth in Section 8.8.

(y) Wilfully exceeding the scope of duties customarily undertaken by speech-language pathology assistants set forth in Section 8.7 that results in, or may result in, harm to the public.

(2) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission.

(3) The entry of an order by a circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided for in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension of that license. That person may have his or her license restored only upon the determination by a circuit court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the Board's recommendation to the Department that the license be restored. Where the circumstances so indicate, the Board may recommend to the Department that it require an examination prior to restoring any license automatically suspended under this subsection.

(4) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(5) In enforcing this Section, the Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical psychologists shall be those specifically designated by the Board. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician or clinical psychologist of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of any individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians or clinical psychologists approved or designated by the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Board may recommend to the Department to file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. Any individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Director for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.

In instances in which the Director immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 91-949, eff. 2-9-01; 92-510, eff. 6-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 735. The Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 5 and by renumbering Section 99 as follows:

(225 ILCS 227/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"1.3G fireworks" means fireworks that are used for professional outdoor displays and classified as fireworks UN0333, UN0334, or UN0335 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101.

"BATFE" means the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms Enforcement.

"Consumer fireworks" means fireworks that must comply with the construction, chemical composition, and labeling regulations of the U.S. Consumer Products Safety Commission, as set forth in 16 C.F.R. Parts 1500 and 1507, and classified as fireworks UN0336 or UN0337 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101. "Consumer fireworks" does not include a substance or article exempted under the Fireworks Use Act.

"Display fireworks" means 1.3G explosive or special effects fireworks.

"Facility" means an area being used for the conducting of a pyrotechnic display business, but does not include residential premises except for the portion of any residential premises that is actually used in the conduct of a pyrotechnic display business.

"Flame effect" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of flammable gases, liquids, or special materials to produce a thermal, physical, visual, or audible effect before the public, invitees, or licensees, regardless of whether admission is charged in accordance with NFPA 160.

"Lead pyrotechnic operator" means the individual with overall responsibility for the safety, setup, discharge, and supervision of a pyrotechnic display.

"Office" means Office of the State Fire Marshal.

"Person" means an individual, firm, corporation, association, partnership, company, consortium, joint venture, commercial entity, state, municipality, or political subdivision of a state or any agency, department, or instrumentality of the United States and any officer, agent, or employee of these entities.

"Pyrotechnic display" or "display" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of display fireworks or flame effects to produce a visual or audible effect of an exhibitional nature before the public, invitees, or licensees, regardless of whether admission is charged.

"Pyrotechnic distributor" means any person, company, association, group of persons, or corporation who distributes display fireworks for sale in the State of Illinois or provides them as part of a pyrotechnic display service in the State of Illinois or provides only pyrotechnic services.

"Special effects fireworks" means pyrotechnic devices used for special effects by professionals in the performing arts in conjunction with theatrical, musical, or other productions that are similar to consumer fireworks in chemical compositions and construction, but are not intended for consumer use and are not labeled as such or identified as "intended for indoor use". "Special effects fireworks" are classified as fireworks UN0431 or UN0432 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101.

(Source: P.A. 93-263, eff. 7-22-03; 94-385, eff. 7-29-05; 94-658, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(225 ILCS 227/999) (was 225 ILCS 227/99)

Sec. 999 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.

(Source: P.A. 93-263, eff. 7-22-03; revised 9-19-03.)

Section 740. The Illinois Plumbing License Law is amended by changing Section 13.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 320/13.1)

Sec. 13.1. Plumbing contractors; registration; applications.

(1) On and after May 1, 2002, all persons or corporations desiring to engage in the business of plumbing contractor, other than any entity that maintains an audited net worth of shareholders' equity equal to or exceeding $100,000,000, shall register in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(2) Application for registration shall be filed with the Department each year, on or before the last day of September, in writing and on forms prepared and furnished by the Department. All plumbing contractor registrations expire on the last day of September of each year.

(3) Applications shall contain the name, address, and telephone number of the person and the plumbing license of (i) the individual, if a sole proprietorship; (ii) the partner, if a partnership; or (iii) an officer, if a corporation. The application shall contain the business name, address, and telephone number, a current copy of the plumbing license, and any other information the Department may require by rule.

(4) Applicants shall submit an original certificate of insurance documenting that the contractor carries general liability insurance with a minimum of $100,000 per occurrence, a minimum of $300,000 aggregate for bodily injury, property damage insurance with a minimum of $50,000 or a minimum of $300,000 combined single limit, and workers compensation insurance with a minimum $500,000 employer's liability. No registration may be issued in the absence of this certificate. Certificates must be in force at all times for registration to remain valid.

(5) Applicants shall submit, on a form provided by the Department, an indemnification bond in the amount of $20,000 or a letter of credit in the same amount for work performed in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act.

(6) All employees of a registered plumbing contractor who engage in plumbing work shall be licensed plumbers or apprentice plumbers in accordance with this Act.

(7) Plumbing contractors shall submit an annual registration fee in an amount to be established by rule.

(8) The Department shall be notified in advance of any changes in the business structure, name, or location or of the addition or deletion of the owner or officer who is the licensed plumber listed on the application. Failure to notify the Department of this information is grounds for suspension or revocation of the plumbing contractor's registration.

(9) In the event that the plumber's license on the application for registration of a plumbing contractor is a license issued by the City of Chicago, it shall be the responsibility of the applicant to forward a copy of the plumber's license to the Department, noting the name of the registered plumbing contractor, when it is renewed.

(Source: P.A. 94-55, eff. 6-17-05; 94-258, eff. 7-19-05; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 745. The Auction License Act is amended by changing Sections 10-40 and 20-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 407/10-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2010)

Sec. 10-40. Restoration.

(a) A licensee whose license has lapsed or expired shall have 2 years from the expiration date to restore his or her license without examination. The expired licensee shall make application to the OBRE on forms provided by the OBRE, including a properly completed 45-day permit sponsor card, provide evidence of successful completion of 12 hours of approved continuing education during the period of time the license had lapsed, and pay all lapsed fees and penalties as established by administrative rule.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, any licensee whose license under this Act has expired is eligible to restore such license without paying any lapsed fees and penalties provided that the license expired while the licensee was:

(1) on active duty with the United States Army, United States State Marine Corps, United States Navy, United States Air Force, United States Coast Guard, the State Militia called into service or training;

(2) engaged in training or education under the supervision of the United States prior to induction into military service; or

(3) serving as an employee of the OBRE, while the employee was required to surrender his or her license due to a possible conflict of interest.

A licensee shall be eligible to restore a license under the provisions of this subsection for a period of 2 years following the termination of the service, education, or training by providing a properly completed application and 45-day permit sponsor card, provided that the termination was by other than dishonorable discharge and provided that the licensee furnishes the OBRE with an affidavit specifying that the licensee has been so engaged.

(c) At any time after the suspension, revocation, placement on probationary status, or other disciplinary action taken under this Act with reference to any license, the OBRE may restore the license to the licensee without examination upon the order of the Commissioner, if the licensee submits a properly completed application and 45-day permit sponsor card, pays appropriate fees, and otherwise complies with the conditions of the order.

(Source: P.A. 91-603, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-11-05.)

(225 ILCS 407/20-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2010)

Sec. 20-20. Termination without hearing for failure to pay taxes, child support, or a student loan. OBRE may terminate or otherwise discipline any license issued under this Act without hearing if the appropriate administering agency provides adequate information and proof that the licensee has:

(1) failed to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue until the requirements of the tax act are satisfied;

(2) failed to pay any court ordered child support as determined by a court order or by referral from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid); or

(3) failed to repay any student loan or assistance as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission. If a license is terminated or otherwise disciplined pursuant to this Section, the licensee may request a hearing as provided by this Act within 30 days of notice of termination or discipline.

(Source: P.A. 91-603, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 750. The Home Inspector License Act is amended by changing Section 15-50 as follows:

(225 ILCS 441/15-50)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2012)

Sec. 15-50. Nonpayment of child support. In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to OBRE, OBRE may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid). Redetermination of the delinquency by OBRE shall not be required. In cases regarding the renewal of a license, OBRE shall not renew any license if the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has certified the licensee to be more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support unless the licensee has arranged for payment of past and current child support obligations in a manner satisfactory to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid). OBRE may impose conditions, restrictions, or disciplinary action upon that renewal.

(Source: P.A. 92-239, eff. 8-3-01; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 755. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing Sections 35-30 and 40-40 as follows:

(225 ILCS 447/35-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 35-30. Employee requirements. All employees of a licensed agency, other than those exempted, shall apply for a permanent employee registration card. The holder of an agency license issued under this Act, known in this Section as "employer", may employ in the conduct of his or her business employees under the following provisions:

(a) (1) No person shall be issued a permanent employee registration card who:

(1) (A) Is younger than 18 years of age.

(2) (B) Is younger than 21 years of age if the services will include being armed.

(3) (C) Has been determined by the Department to be unfit by reason of conviction of an offense in this or another state, other than a traffic offense. The Department shall adopt rules for making those determinations that shall afford the applicant due process of law.

(4) (D) Has had a license or permanent employee registration card denied, suspended, or revoked under this Act (i) within one year before the date the person's application for permanent employee registration card is received by the Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial, suspension, or revocation was based on any provision of this Act other than Section 40-50, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section 15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10, subsection (b) of Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection (b) of Section 25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10, subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.

(5) (E) Has been declared incompetent by any court of competent jurisdiction by reason of mental disease or defect and has not been restored.

(6) (F) Has been dishonorably discharged from the armed services of the United States.

(b) (2) No person may be employed by a private detective agency, private security contractor agency, private alarm contractor agency, or locksmith agency under this Section until he or she has executed and furnished to the employer, on forms furnished by the Department, a verified statement to be known as "Employee's Statement" setting forth:

(1) (A) The person's full name, age, and residence address.

(2) (B) The business or occupation engaged in for the 5 years immediately before the date of the execution of the statement, the place where the business or occupation was engaged in, and the names of employers, if any.

(3) (C) That the person has not had a license or employee registration denied, revoked, or suspended under this Act (i) within one year before the date the person's application for permanent employee registration card is received by the Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial, suspension, or revocation was based on any provision of this Act other than Section 40-50, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section 15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10, subsection (b) of Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection (b) of Section 25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10, subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.

(4) (D) Any conviction of a felony or misdemeanor.

(5) (E) Any declaration of incompetence by a court of competent jurisdiction that has not been restored.

(6) (F) Any dishonorable discharge from the armed services of the United States.

(7) (G) Any other information as may be required by any rule of the Department to show the good character, competency, and integrity of the person executing the statement.

(c) Each applicant for a permanent employee registration card shall have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record information as prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois convictions to the Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or directly to the vendor. The Department, in its discretion, may allow an applicant who does not have reasonable access to a designated vendor to provide his or her fingerprints in an alternative manner. The Department, in its discretion, may also use other procedures in performing or obtaining criminal background checks of applicants. Instead of submitting his or her fingerprints, an individual may submit proof that is satisfactory to the Department that an equivalent security clearance has been conducted. Also, an individual who has retired as a peace officer within 12 months of application may submit verification, on forms provided by the Department and signed by his or her employer, of his or her previous full-time employment as a peace officer.

(d) The Department shall issue a permanent employee registration card, in a form the Department prescribes, to all qualified applicants. The holder of a permanent employee registration card shall carry the card at all times while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of his or her employment. Expiration and requirements for renewal of permanent employee registration cards shall be established by rule of the Department. Possession of a permanent employee registration card does not in any way imply that the holder of the card is employed by an agency unless the permanent employee registration card is accompanied by the employee identification card required by subsection (f) of this Section.

(e) Each employer shall maintain a record of each employee that is accessible to the duly authorized representatives of the Department. The record shall contain the following information:

(1) A photograph taken within 10 days of the date that the employee begins employment with the employer. The photograph shall be replaced with a current photograph every 3 calendar years.

(2) The Employee's Statement specified in subsection (b) of this Section.

(3) All correspondence or documents relating to the character and integrity of the employee received by the employer from any official source or law enforcement agency.

(4) In the case of former employees, the employee identification card of that person issued under subsection (f) of this Section. Each employee record shall duly note if the employee is employed in an armed capacity. Armed employee files shall contain a copy of an active firearm owner's identification card and a copy of an active firearm authorization card. Each employer shall maintain a record for each armed employee of each instance in which the employee's weapon was discharged during the course of his or her professional duties or activities. The record shall be maintained on forms provided by the Department, a copy of which must be filed with the Department within 15 days of an instance. The record shall include the date and time of the occurrence, the circumstances involved in the occurrence, and any other information as the Department may require. Failure to provide this information to the Department or failure to maintain the record as a part of each armed employee's permanent file is grounds for disciplinary action. The Department, upon receipt of a report, shall have the authority to make any investigation it considers appropriate into any occurrence in which an employee's weapon was discharged and to take disciplinary action as may be appropriate.

(5) The Department may, by rule, prescribe further record requirements.

(f) Every employer shall furnish an employee identification card to each of his or her employees. This employee identification card shall contain a recent photograph of the employee, the employee's name, the name and agency license number of the employer, the employee's personal description, the signature of the employer, the signature of that employee, the date of issuance, and an employee identification card number.

(g) No employer may issue an employee identification card to any person who is not employed by the employer in accordance with this Section or falsely state or represent that a person is or has been in his or her employ. It is unlawful for an applicant for registered employment to file with the Department the fingerprints of a person other than himself or herself.

(h) Every employer shall obtain the identification card of every employee who terminates employment with him or her.

(i) Every employer shall maintain a separate roster of the names of all employees currently working in an armed capacity and submit the roster to the Department on request.

(j) No agency may employ any person to perform a licensed activity under this Act unless the person possesses a valid permanent employee registration card or a valid license under this Act, or is exempt pursuant to subsection (n).

(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (j), an agency may employ a person in a temporary capacity if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The agency completes in its entirety and submits to the Department an application for a permanent employee registration card, including the required fingerprint receipt and fees.

(2) The agency has verification from the Department that the applicant has no record of any criminal conviction pursuant to the criminal history check conducted by the Department of State Police. The agency shall maintain the verification of the results of the Department of State Police criminal history check as part of the employee record as required under subsection (e) of this Section.

(3) The agency exercises due diligence to ensure that the person is qualified under the requirements of the Act to be issued a permanent employee registration card.

(4) The agency maintains a separate roster of the names of all employees whose applications are currently pending with the Department and submits the roster to the Department on a monthly basis. Rosters are to be maintained by the agency for a period of at least 24 months.

An agency may employ only a permanent employee applicant for which it either submitted a permanent employee application and all required forms and fees or it confirms with the Department that a permanent employee application and all required forms and fees have been submitted by another agency, licensee or the permanent employee and all other requirements of this Section are met.

The Department shall have the authority to revoke, without a hearing, the temporary authority of an individual to work upon receipt of Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint data or a report of another official authority indicating a criminal conviction. If the Department has not received a temporary employee's Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint data within 120 days of the date the Department received the Department of State Police fingerprint data, the Department may, at its discretion, revoke the employee's temporary authority to work with 15 days written notice to the individual and the employing agency.

An agency may not employ a person in a temporary capacity if it knows or reasonably should have known that the person has been convicted of a crime under the laws of this State, has been convicted in another state of any crime that is a crime under the laws of this State, has been convicted of any crime in a federal court, or has been posted as an unapproved applicant by the Department. Notice by the Department to the agency, via certified mail, personal delivery, electronic mail, or posting on the Department's Internet site accessible to the agency that the person has been convicted of a crime shall be deemed constructive knowledge of the conviction on the part of the agency. The Department may adopt rules to implement this subsection (k).

(l) No person may be employed under this Section in any capacity if:

(1) the person, while so employed, is being paid by the United States or any political subdivision for the time so employed in addition to any payments he or she may receive from the employer; or

(2) the person wears any portion of his or her official uniform, emblem of authority, or equipment while so employed.

(m) If information is discovered affecting the registration of a person whose fingerprints were submitted under this Section, the Department shall so notify the agency that submitted the fingerprints on behalf of that person.

(n) Peace officers shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section relating to permanent employee registration cards. The agency shall remain responsible for any peace officer employed under this exemption, regardless of whether the peace officer is compensated as an employee or as an independent contractor and as further defined by rule.

(o) Persons who have no access to confidential or security information and who otherwise do not provide traditional security services are exempt from employee registration. Examples of exempt employees include, but are not limited to, employees working in the capacity of ushers, directors, ticket takers, cashiers, drivers, and reception personnel. Confidential or security information is that which pertains to employee files, scheduling, client contracts, or technical security and alarm data.

(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; revised 10-18-05.)

(225 ILCS 447/40-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 40-40. Nonpayment of child support. In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or any circuit court has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or a circuit court. Redetermination of the delinquency by the Department shall not be required. In cases regarding the renewal of a license, the Department shall not renew any license if the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or a circuit court has certified the licensee to be more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support, unless the licensee has arranged for payment of past and current child support obligations in a manner satisfactory to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or circuit court. The Department may impose conditions, restrictions or disciplinary action upon that renewal in accordance with Section 40-10 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 760. The Illinois Public Accounting Act is amended by changing Sections 14.1 and 28 as follows:

(225 ILCS 450/14.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 14.1. Foreign accountants. The Department shall issue a license to a holder of a foreign designation, granted in a foreign country entitling the holder thereof to engage in the practice of public accounting, provided that:

(a) the applicant is the holder of a certificate as a certified public accountant from the Board or a registration as a registered certified public accountant from the Department issued under this Act; and

(b) the foreign authority that granted the designation makes similar provision to allow a person who holds a valid license issued by this State to obtain a foreign authority's comparable designation; and

(c) the foreign designation (i) was duly issued by a foreign authority that regulates the practice of public accounting and the foreign designation has not expired or been revoked or suspended; (ii) entitles the holder to issue reports upon financial statements; and (iii) was issued upon the basis of educational, examination, and experience requirements established by the foreign authority or by law; and

(d) the applicant (i) received the designation based on standards substantially equivalent to those in effect in this State at the time the foreign designation was granted; and (ii) completed an experience requirement, substantially equivalent to the requirement set out in Section 14, in the jurisdiction that granted the foreign designation or has completed 5 years of experience in the practice of public accounting in this State, or meets equivalent requirements prescribed by the Department by rule, within the 10 years immediately preceding the application.

(e) Applicants have 3 years from the date of application to complete the application process. If the process has not been completed in 3 years, the application shall be denied, the fee shall be forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.

(Source: P.A. 92-457, eff. 7-1-04; 93-683, eff. 7-2-04; revised 10-11-05.)

(225 ILCS 450/28) (from Ch. 111, par. 5534)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 28. Penalties. Each of the following acts perpetrated in the State of Illinois is a Class B misdemeanor.

(a) The practice of public accounting insofar as it consists in rendering service as described in Section 8, without licensure, in violation of the provisions of this Act;

(b) The obtaining or attempting to obtain licensure as a licensed certified public accountant or registration as a registered certified public accountant by fraud;

(c) The use of the title "Certified Public Accountant" or the abbreviation "C.P.A." or use of any similar words or letters indicating the user is a certified public accountant, the title "Registered Certified Public Accountant", the abbreviation "R.C.P.A.", any similar words or letters indicating the user is a certified public accountant or a registered certified public accountant by any person in contravention of this Act;

(c-5) The use of the title "Certified Public Accountant" or "Licensed Certified Public Accountant" or the abbreviation "C.P.A." or "L.C.P.A." or any similar words or letters indicating the user is a certified public accountant by any person in contravention with this Act;

(d) The use of the title "Certified Public Accountant" or the abbreviation "C.P.A." or any similar words or letters indicating that the members are certified public accountants, by any partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or other entity unless all members thereof personally engaged in the practice of public accounting in this State are licensed as licensed certified public accountants by the Department, and are holders of an effective unrevoked license, and the partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or other entity is licensed as licensed certified public accountants by the Board with an effective unrevoked license;

(e) The use of the title "Licensed Certified Public Accountant", or the abbreviation "L.C.P.A." or any similar words or letters indicating such person is a licensed certified public accountant, by any person not licensed as a licensed certified public accountant by the Department, and holding an effective unrevoked license; provided nothing in this Act shall prohibit the use of the title "Accountant" or "Bookkeeper" by any person;

(f) The use of the title "Licensed Certified Public Accountants", "Public Accountants" or the abbreviation "P.A.'s" or any similar words or letters indicating that the members are public accountants by any partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or other entity unless all members thereof personally engaged in the practice of public accounting in this State are licensed as licensed certified public accountants by the Department and are holders of effective unrevoked licenses, and the partnership is licensed as a public accounting firm by the Department with an effective unrevoked license licenses;

(g) Making false statements to the Department regarding compliance with continuing professional education requirements;

(h) The use of the title "Certified Public Accountant" or the abbreviation "C.P.A." or any similar words or letters indicating that the members are certified public accountants, by any partnership unless all members thereof personally engaged in the practice of public accounting in this State have received certificates as certified public accountants from the Board, are licensed as public accountants by the Department, and are holders of an effective unrevoked license, and the partnership is licensed as public accountants by the Department with an effective unrevoked license.

This Section does not prohibit a firm partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or other entity who does not practice public accounting as set forth in Section 8 of this Act and whose members residing in Illinois are registered with the Department from using the title "Certified Public Accountant" or the abbreviation "C.P.A." or "CPA" or similar words or letters indicating that the members are certified public accountants.

(Source: P.A. 92-457, eff. 7-1-04; 93-683, eff. 7-2-04; revised 11-5-04.)

Section 765. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Section 20-45 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/20-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2010)

Sec. 20-45. Nonpayment of child support. In cases in which the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to OBRE, OBRE may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid). Redetermination of the delinquency by OBRE shall not be required. In cases regarding the renewal of a license, OBRE shall not renew any license if the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has certified the licensee to be more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support unless the licensee has arranged for payment of past and current child support obligations in a manner satisfactory to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid). OBRE may impose conditions, restrictions, or disciplinary action upon that renewal.

(Source: P.A. 91-245, eff. 12-31-99; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 770. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Section 15-50 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/15-50)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2012)

Sec. 15-50. Nonpayment of child support. In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to OBRE, OBRE may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid). Redetermination of the delinquency by OBRE shall not be required. In cases regarding the renewal of a license, OBRE shall not renew any license if the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has certified the licensee to be more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support, unless the licensee has arranged for payment of past and current child support obligations in a manner satisfactory to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid). OBRE may impose conditions, restrictions, or disciplinary action upon that renewal.

(Source: P.A. 92-180, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 775. The Illinois Petroleum Education and Marketing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 728/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2008)

Sec. 10. Illinois Petroleum Resources Board.

(a) There is hereby created until January 1, 2008, the Illinois Petroleum Resources Board which shall be subject to the provisions of the Regulatory Sunset Act. The purpose of the Board is to coordinate a program designed to demonstrate to the general public the importance of the Illinois oil exploration and production industry, to encourage the wise and efficient use of energy, to promote environmentally sound production methods and technologies, to develop existing supplies of State oil resources, and to support research and educational activities concerning the oil exploration and production industry.

(b) The Board shall be composed of 12 members to be appointed by the Governor. The Governor shall make appointments from a list of names submitted by qualified producer associations, of which 10 shall be oil and gas producers.

(c) A member of the Board shall:

(1) be at least 25 years of age;

(2) be a resident of the State of Illinois; and

(3) have at least 5 years of active experience in the oil industry.

(d) Members shall serve for a term of 3 years, except that of the initial appointments, 4 members shall serve for one year, 4 members for 2 years, and 4 members for 3 years.

(e) Vacancies shall be filled for the unexpired term of office in the same manner as the original appointment.

(f) The Board shall, at its first meeting, elect one of its members as chairperson, who shall preside over meetings of the Board and perform other duties that may be required by the Board. The first meeting of the Board shall be called by the Governor.

(g) No member of the Board shall receive a salary or reimbursement for duties performed as a member of the Board, except that members are eligible to receive reimbursement for travel expenses incurred in the performance of Board duties.

(Source: P.A. 92-610, eff. 7-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 8-12-02.)

Section 780. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 1.3 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/1.3)

Sec. 1.3. Legislative findings.

(a) The General Assembly finds that the Illinois gaming industry is a single industry consisting of horse racing and riverboat gambling. Reports issued by the Economic and Fiscal Commission (now Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability) in 1992, 1994, and 1998 have found that horse racing and riverboat gambling:

(1) "share many of the same characteristics" and are "more alike than different";

(2) are planned events;

(3) have similar odds of winning;

(4) occur in similar settings; and

(5) compete with each other for limited gaming dollars.

(b) The General Assembly declares it to be the public policy of this State to ensure the viability of both horse racing and riverboat aspects of the Illinois gaming industry.

(Source: P.A. 93-1067, eff. 1-15-05; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 785. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 13 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/4) (from Ch. 120, par. 2404)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Board" means the Illinois Gaming Board.

(b) "Occupational license" means a license issued by the Board to a person or entity to perform an occupation which the Board has identified as requiring a license to engage in riverboat gambling in Illinois.

(c) "Gambling game" includes, but is not limited to, baccarat, twenty-one, poker, craps, slot machine, video game of chance, roulette wheel, klondike table, punchboard, faro layout, keno layout, numbers ticket, push card, jar ticket, or pull tab which is authorized by the Board as a wagering device under this Act.

(d) "Riverboat" means a self-propelled excursion boat, a permanently moored barge, or permanently moored barges that are permanently fixed together to operate as one vessel, on which lawful gambling is authorized and licensed as provided in this Act.

(e) "Managers license" means a license issued by the Board to a person or entity to manage gambling operations conducted by the State pursuant to Section 7.3 7.2.

(f) "Dock" means the location where a riverboat moors for the purpose of embarking passengers for and disembarking passengers from the riverboat.

(g) "Gross receipts" means the total amount of money exchanged for the purchase of chips, tokens or electronic cards by riverboat patrons.

(h) "Adjusted gross receipts" means the gross receipts less winnings paid to wagerers.

(i) "Cheat" means to alter the selection of criteria which determine the result of a gambling game or the amount or frequency of payment in a gambling game.

(j) "Department" means the Department of Revenue.

(k) "Gambling operation" means the conduct of authorized gambling games upon a riverboat.

(l) "License bid" means the lump sum amount of money that an applicant bids and agrees to pay the State in return for an owners license that is re-issued on or after July 1, 2003.

(m) The terms "minority person" and "female" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-600, eff. 6-28-02; 93-28, eff. 6-20-03; revised 1-28-04.)

(230 ILCS 10/13) (from Ch. 120, par. 2413)

Sec. 13. Wagering tax; rate; distribution.

(a) Until January 1, 1998, a tax is imposed on the adjusted gross receipts received from gambling games authorized under this Act at the rate of 20%.

(a-1) From January 1, 1998 until July 1, 2002, a privilege tax is imposed on persons engaged in the business of conducting riverboat gambling operations, based on the adjusted gross receipts received by a licensed owner from gambling games authorized under this Act at the following rates:

15% of annual adjusted gross receipts up to and including $25,000,000;

20% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $25,000,000 but not exceeding $50,000,000;

25% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $50,000,000 but not exceeding $75,000,000;

30% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $75,000,000 but not exceeding $100,000,000;

35% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $100,000,000.

(a-2) From July 1, 2002 until July 1, 2003, a privilege tax is imposed on persons engaged in the business of conducting riverboat gambling operations, other than licensed managers conducting riverboat gambling operations on behalf of the State, based on the adjusted gross receipts received by a licensed owner from gambling games authorized under this Act at the following rates:

15% of annual adjusted gross receipts up to and including $25,000,000;

22.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $25,000,000 but not exceeding $50,000,000;

27.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $50,000,000 but not exceeding $75,000,000;

32.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $75,000,000 but not exceeding $100,000,000;

37.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $100,000,000 but not exceeding $150,000,000;

45% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $150,000,000 but not exceeding $200,000,000;

50% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $200,000,000.

(a-3) Beginning July 1, 2003, a privilege tax is imposed on persons engaged in the business of conducting riverboat gambling operations, other than licensed managers conducting riverboat gambling operations on behalf of the State, based on the adjusted gross receipts received by a licensed owner from gambling games authorized under this Act at the following rates:

15% of annual adjusted gross receipts up to and including $25,000,000;

27.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $25,000,000 but not exceeding $37,500,000;

32.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $37,500,000 but not exceeding $50,000,000;

37.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $50,000,000 but not exceeding $75,000,000;

45% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $75,000,000 but not exceeding $100,000,000;

50% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $100,000,000 but not exceeding $250,000,000;

70% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $250,000,000.

An amount equal to the amount of wagering taxes collected under this subsection (a-3) that are in addition to the amount of wagering taxes that would have been collected if the wagering tax rates under subsection (a-2) were in effect shall be paid into the Common School Fund.

The privilege tax imposed under this subsection (a-3) shall no longer be imposed beginning on the earlier of (i) July 1, 2005; (ii) the first date after June 20, 2003 that riverboat gambling operations are conducted pursuant to a dormant license; or (iii) the first day that riverboat gambling operations are conducted under the authority of an owners license that is in addition to the 10 owners licenses initially authorized under this Act. For the purposes of this subsection (a-3), the term "dormant license" means an owners license that is authorized by this Act under which no riverboat gambling operations are being conducted on June 20, 2003.

(a-4) Beginning on the first day on which the tax imposed under subsection (a-3) is no longer imposed, a privilege tax is imposed on persons engaged in the business of conducting riverboat gambling operations, other than licensed managers conducting riverboat gambling operations on behalf of the State, based on the adjusted gross receipts received by a licensed owner from gambling games authorized under this Act at the following rates:

15% of annual adjusted gross receipts up to and including $25,000,000;

22.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $25,000,000 but not exceeding $50,000,000;

27.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $50,000,000 but not exceeding $75,000,000;

32.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $75,000,000 but not exceeding $100,000,000;

37.5% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $100,000,000 but not exceeding $150,000,000;

45% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $150,000,000 but not exceeding $200,000,000;

50% of annual adjusted gross receipts in excess of $200,000,000.

(a-8) Riverboat gambling operations conducted by a licensed manager on behalf of the State are not subject to the tax imposed under this Section.

(a-10) The taxes imposed by this Section shall be paid by the licensed owner to the Board not later than 3:00 o'clock p.m. of the day after the day when the wagers were made.

(a-15) If the privilege tax imposed under subsection (a-3) is no longer imposed pursuant to item (i) of the last paragraph of subsection (a-3), then by June 15 of each year, each owners licensee, other than an owners licensee that admitted 1,000,000 persons or fewer in calendar year 2004, must, in addition to the payment of all amounts otherwise due under this Section, pay to the Board a reconciliation payment in the amount, if any, by which the licensed owner's base amount exceeds the amount of net privilege tax paid by the licensed owner to the Board in the then current State fiscal year. A licensed owner's net privilege tax obligation due for the balance of the State fiscal year shall be reduced up to the total of the amount paid by the licensed owner in its June 15 reconciliation payment. The obligation imposed by this subsection (a-15) is binding on any person, firm, corporation, or other entity that acquires an ownership interest in any such owners license. The obligation imposed under this subsection (a-15) terminates on the earliest of: (i) July 1, 2007, (ii) the first day after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly that riverboat gambling operations are conducted pursuant to a dormant license, (iii) the first day that riverboat gambling operations are conducted under the authority of an owners license that is in addition to the 10 owners licenses initially authorized under this Act, or (iv) the first day that a licensee under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 conducts gaming operations with slot machines or other electronic gaming devices. The Board must reduce the obligation imposed under this subsection (a-15) by an amount the Board deems reasonable for any of the following reasons: (A) an act or acts of God, (B) an act of bioterrorism or terrorism or a bioterrorism or terrorism threat that was investigated by a law enforcement agency, or (C) a condition beyond the control of the owners licensee that does not result from any act or omission by the owners licensee or any of its agents and that poses a hazardous threat to the health and safety of patrons. If an owners licensee pays an amount in excess of its liability under this Section, the Board shall apply the overpayment to future payments required under this Section.

For purposes of this subsection (a-15):

"Act of God" means an incident caused by the operation of an extraordinary force that cannot be foreseen, that cannot be avoided by the exercise of due care, and for which no person can be held liable.

"Base amount" means the following:

For a riverboat in Alton, $31,000,000.

For a riverboat in East Peoria, $43,000,000.

For the Empress riverboat in Joliet, $86,000,000.

For a riverboat in Metropolis, $45,000,000.

For the Harrah's riverboat in Joliet, $114,000,000.

For a riverboat in Aurora, $86,000,000.

For a riverboat in East St. Louis, $48,500,000.

For a riverboat in Elgin, $198,000,000.

"Dormant license" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (a-3).

"Net privilege tax" means all privilege taxes paid by a licensed owner to the Board under this Section, less all payments made from the State Gaming Fund pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section.

The changes made to this subsection (a-15) by Public Act 94-839 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly are intended to restate and clarify the intent of Public Act 94-673 with respect to the amount of the payments required to be made under this subsection by an owners licensee to the Board.

(b) Until January 1, 1998, 25% of the tax revenue deposited in the State Gaming Fund under this Section shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, to the unit of local government which is designated as the home dock of the riverboat. Beginning January 1, 1998, from the tax revenue deposited in the State Gaming Fund under this Section, an amount equal to 5% of adjusted gross receipts generated by a riverboat shall be paid monthly, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, to the unit of local government that is designated as the home dock of the riverboat. From the tax revenue deposited in the State Gaming Fund pursuant to riverboat gambling operations conducted by a licensed manager on behalf of the State, an amount equal to 5% of adjusted gross receipts generated pursuant to those riverboat gambling operations shall be paid monthly, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, to the unit of local government that is designated as the home dock of the riverboat upon which those riverboat gambling operations are conducted.

(c) Appropriations, as approved by the General Assembly, may be made from the State Gaming Fund to the Department of Revenue and the Department of State Police for the administration and enforcement of this Act, or to the Department of Human Services for the administration of programs to treat problem gambling.

(c-5) Before May 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-804) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and beginning 2 years after May 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-804) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, after the payments required under subsections (b) and (c) have been made, an amount equal to 15% of the adjusted gross receipts of (1) an owners licensee that relocates pursuant to Section 11.2, (2) an owners licensee conducting riverboat gambling operations pursuant to an owners license that is initially issued after June 25, 1999, or (3) the first riverboat gambling operations conducted by a licensed manager on behalf of the State under Section 7.3, whichever comes first, shall be paid from the State Gaming Fund into the Horse Racing Equity Fund.

(c-10) Each year the General Assembly shall appropriate from the General Revenue Fund to the Education Assistance Fund an amount equal to the amount paid into the Horse Racing Equity Fund pursuant to subsection (c-5) in the prior calendar year.

(c-15) After the payments required under subsections (b), (c), and (c-5) have been made, an amount equal to 2% of the adjusted gross receipts of (1) an owners licensee that relocates pursuant to Section 11.2, (2) an owners licensee conducting riverboat gambling operations pursuant to an owners license that is initially issued after June 25, 1999, or (3) the first riverboat gambling operations conducted by a licensed manager on behalf of the State under Section 7.3, whichever comes first, shall be paid, subject to appropriation from the General Assembly, from the State Gaming Fund to each home rule county with a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants for the purpose of enhancing the county's criminal justice system.

(c-20) Each year the General Assembly shall appropriate from the General Revenue Fund to the Education Assistance Fund an amount equal to the amount paid to each home rule county with a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants pursuant to subsection (c-15) in the prior calendar year.

(c-25) After the payments required under subsections (b), (c), (c-5) and (c-15) have been made, an amount equal to 2% of the adjusted gross receipts of (1) an owners licensee that relocates pursuant to Section 11.2, (2) an owners licensee conducting riverboat gambling operations pursuant to an owners license that is initially issued after June 25, 1999, or (3) the first riverboat gambling operations conducted by a licensed manager on behalf of the State under Section 7.3, whichever comes first, shall be paid from the State Gaming Fund to Chicago State University.

(d) From time to time, the Board shall transfer the remainder of the funds generated by this Act into the Education Assistance Fund, created by Public Act 86-0018, of the State of Illinois.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the unit of local government designated as the home dock of the riverboat from entering into agreements with other units of local government in this State or in other states to share its portion of the tax revenue.

(f) To the extent practicable, the Board shall administer and collect the wagering taxes imposed by this Section in a manner consistent with the provisions of Sections 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5i, 5j, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 8, 9, and 10 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-27, eff. 6-20-03; 93-28, eff. 6-20-03; 94-673, eff. 8-23-05; 94-804, eff. 5-26-06; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 790. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 5-1, 6-2, 6-11, 6-16.2, 7-5, 7-6, and 12-4 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 6-33 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)

Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall be of the following classes:

(a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2. Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6. First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer,

(b) Distributor's license,

(c) Importing Distributor's license,

(d) Retailer's license,

(e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),

(f) Railroad license,

(g) Boat license,

(h) Non-Beverage User's license,

(i) Wine-maker's premises license,

(j) Airplane license,

(k) Foreign importer's license,

(l) Broker's license,

(m) Non-resident dealer's license,

(n) Brew Pub license,

(o) Auction liquor license,

(p) Caterer retailer license,

(q) Special use permit license.

No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a wine manufacturer's license.

(a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture, importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:

Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees, and to retailers provided the brewer obtains an importing distributor's license or distributor's license in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors, and to no other licensees.

Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to no other licensees.

Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the sale of no more than 5,000 gallons of the licensee's wine to retailers. The State Commission shall issue only one first-class wine-maker's license to any person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the making of less than 50,000 gallons of wine annually that applies for a first-class wine-maker's license. No subsidiary or affiliate thereof, nor any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent, or shareholder may be issued an additional wine-maker's license by the State Commission.

Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of between 50,000 and 100,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the sale of no more than 10,000 gallons of the licensee's wine directly to retailers. The State Commission shall issue only one second-class wine-maker's license to any person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the making of less than 100,000 gallons of wine annually that applies for a second-class wine-maker's license. No subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent, or shareholder may be issued an additional wine-maker's license by the State Commission.

Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor and which enlists agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis in this State must register those agents, representatives, or persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.

Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the Commission and shall include the name and address of the applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements, misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for suspension or revocation of the registration.

(b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law.

(c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof, but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed, labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers and foreign importers only.

(d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form: Provided that any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of further describing the type of business conducted at a retail licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer, (ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted under subsection (e).

(e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit) shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the location and on the specific dates designated for the special event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii) submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has obtained local authority approval.

(f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State; and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for each car in which such sales are made.

(g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant thereon.

(h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase, possession and use of limited and stated quantities of alcoholic liquor as follows:

Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons

(i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall require additional licensing per location as specified in Section 5-3 of this Act.

(j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane license shall be required of an airline company if liquor service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.

(k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period and provided further that the foreign importer complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale.

(l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor, importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the State of Illinois.

No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the holder of a valid broker's license.

The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of said transaction in such form as the Commission may by regulations prescribe.

(ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside of this State by an express company, common carrier, or contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.

A broker's license under this subsection (1) shall not entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic liquors.

This subsection (1) shall not apply to distributors, employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to its registrants thereunder.

Any agent, representative, or person subject to registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall not be eligible to receive a broker's license.

(m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and importing distributors and to no one else in this State; provided that said non-resident dealer shall register with the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period; and further provided that it shall comply with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale.

(n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee to manufacture beer only on the premises specified in the license, to make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption, to store the beer upon the premises, and to sell and offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises, provided that a brew pub licensee shall not sell for off-premises consumption more than 50,000 gallons per year.

(o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or unlicensed.

(p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor license will be issued to a person and it will permit the auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.

(q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special use permit license may be granted for the following time periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days per location in any 12 month period. An applicant for the special use permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(Source: P.A. 92-105, eff. 1-1-02; 92-378, eff. 8-16-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-672, eff. 7-16-02; 93-923, eff. 8-12-04; 93-1057, eff. 12-2-04; revised 12-6-04.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-2) (from Ch. 43, par. 120)

Sec. 6-2. Issuance of licenses to certain persons prohibited.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this Section and in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12, no license of any kind issued by the State Commission or any local commission shall be issued to:

(1) A person who is not a resident of any city, village or county in which the premises covered by the license are located; except in case of railroad or boat licenses.

(2) A person who is not of good character and reputation in the community in which he resides.

(3) A person who is not a citizen of the United States.

(4) A person who has been convicted of a felony under any Federal or State law, unless the Commission determines that such person has been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust after considering matters set forth in such person's application and the Commission's investigation. The burden of proof of sufficient rehabilitation shall be on the applicant.

(5) A person who has been convicted of being the keeper or is keeping a house of ill fame.

(6) A person who has been convicted of pandering or other crime or misdemeanor opposed to decency and morality.

(7) A person whose license issued under this Act has been revoked for cause.

(8) A person who at the time of application for renewal of any license issued hereunder would not be eligible for such license upon a first application.

(9) A copartnership, if any general partnership thereof, or any limited partnership thereof, owning more than 5% of the aggregate limited partner interest in such copartnership would not be eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason other than residence within the political subdivision, unless residency is required by local ordinance.

(10) A corporation or limited liability company, if any member, officer, manager or director thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation, would not be eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason other than citizenship and residence within the political subdivision.

(10a) A corporation or limited liability company unless it is incorporated or organized in Illinois, or unless it is a foreign corporation or foreign limited liability company which is qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company Act to transact business in Illinois. The Commission shall permit and accept from an applicant for a license under this Act proof prepared from the Secretary of State's website that the corporation or limited liability company is in good standing and is qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company Act to transact business in Illinois.

(11) A person whose place of business is conducted by a manager or agent unless the manager or agent possesses the same qualifications required by the licensee.

(12) A person who has been convicted of a violation of any Federal or State law concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, subsequent to the passage of this Act or has forfeited his bond to appear in court to answer charges for any such violation.

(13) A person who does not beneficially own the premises for which a license is sought, or does not have a lease thereon for the full period for which the license is to be issued.

(14) Any law enforcing public official, including members of local liquor control commissions, any mayor, alderman, or member of the city council or commission, any president of the village board of trustees, any member of a village board of trustees, or any president or member of a county board; and no such official shall have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor, except that a license may be granted to such official in relation to premises that are not located within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that official if the issuance of such license is approved by the State Liquor Control Commission and except that a license may be granted, in a city or village with a population of 50,000 or less, to any alderman, member of a city council, or member of a village board of trustees in relation to premises that are located within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that official if (i) the sale of alcoholic liquor pursuant to the license is incidental to the selling of food, (ii) the issuance of the license is approved by the State Commission, (iii) the issuance of the license is in accordance with all applicable local ordinances in effect where the premises are located, and (iv) the official granted a license does not vote on alcoholic liquor issues pending before the board or council to which the license holder is elected. Notwithstanding any provision of this paragraph (14) to the contrary, an alderman or member of a city council or commission, a member of a village board of trustees other than the president of the village board of trustees, or a member of a county board other than the president of a county board may have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor as long as he or she is not a law enforcing public official, a mayor, a village board president, or president of a county board. To prevent any conflict of interest, the elected official with the direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor cannot participate in any meetings, hearings, or decisions on matters impacting the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor.

(15) A person who is not a beneficial owner of the business to be operated by the licensee.

(16) A person who has been convicted of a gambling offense as proscribed by any of subsections (a) (3) through (a) (11) of Section 28-1 of, or as proscribed by Section 28-1.1 or 28-3 of, the Criminal Code of 1961, or as proscribed by a statute replaced by any of the aforesaid statutory provisions.

(17) A person or entity to whom a federal wagering stamp has been issued by the federal government, unless the person or entity is eligible to be issued a license under the Raffles Act or the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act.

(18) A person who intends to sell alcoholic liquors for use or consumption on his or her licensed retail premises who does not have liquor liability insurance coverage for that premises in an amount that is at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set out in subsection (a) of Section 6-21.

(b) A criminal conviction of a corporation is not grounds for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a license applied for or held by the corporation if the criminal conviction was not the result of a violation of any federal or State law concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, the offense that led to the conviction did not result in any financial gain to the corporation and the corporation has terminated its relationship with each director, officer, employee, or controlling shareholder whose actions directly contributed to the conviction of the corporation. The Commission shall determine if all provisions of this subsection (b) have been met before any action on the corporation's license is initiated.

(Source: P.A. 93-266, eff. 1-1-04; 93-1057, eff. 12-2-04; 94-5, eff. 6-3-05; 94-289, eff. 1-1-06; 94-381, eff. 7-29-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-11) (from Ch. 43, par. 127)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 31,000 square feet of floor space in a single story building located a distance of more than 90 feet but less than 100 feet from a high school that opened in 1928 as a junior high school and became a senior high school in 1933, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio area attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food,

(2) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises,

(3) the premises are less than 1,000 square feet,

(4) the premises are owned by the University of Illinois,

(5) the premises are immediately adjacent to property owned by a church and are not less than 20 nor more than 40 feet from the church space used for worship services, and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(i) (h) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church, synagogue, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church, synagogue, or other place of worship are at least 100 feet apart, on parallel streets, and separated by an alley; and

(2) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(j) (h) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a theater that is within 100 feet of a church if (1) the church owns the theater, (2) the church leases the theater to one or more entities, and (3) the theater is used by at least 5 different not-for-profit theater groups.

(Source: P.A. 92-720, eff. 7-25-02; 92-813, eff. 8-21-02; 93-687, eff. 7-8-04; 93-688, eff. 7-8-04; 93-780, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-16.2)

Sec. 6-16.2. Prohibited entry to a licensed premises. A municipality or county may prohibit a licensee or any officer, associate, member, representative, agent, or employee of a licensee from permitting a person under the age of 21 years to enter and remain in that portion of a licensed premises that sells, gives, or delivers alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises. No prohibition under this Section, however, shall apply to any licensed premises, such as without limitation a restaurant or food shop, where selling, giving, or delivering alcoholic liquor is not the principal business of the licensee at those premises.

In those instances where a person under the age of 21 years is prohibited from entering and remaining on the premises, proof that the defendant-licensee, or his employee or agent, demanded, was shown, and reasonably relied upon adequate written evidence for purposes of entering and remaining on the licensed premises is an affirmative defense in any criminal prosecution therefor or to any proceedings for the suspension or revocation of any license based thereon. It shall not, however, be an affirmative defense if the defendant-licensee defendant-license, or his agent or employee, accepted the written evidence knowing it to be false or fraudulent.

Adequate written evidence of age and identity of the person is a document issued by a federal, state, county, or municipal government, or subdivision or agency thereof, including, but not limited to, a motor vehicle operator's license, a registration certificate issued under the Federal Selective Service Act, or an identification card issued to a member of the armed forces.

If a false or fraudulent Illinois driver's license or Illinois identification card is presented by a person less than 21 years of age to a licensee or the licensee's agent or employee for the purpose of obtaining entry and remaining on a licensed premises, the law enforcement officer or agency investigating the incident shall, upon the conviction of the person who presented the fraudulent license or identification, make a report of the matter to the Secretary of State on a form provided by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 90-617, eff. 7-10-98; revised 1-14-04.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-33)

Sec. 6-33. Sealing and removal of open wine bottles from a restaurant. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a restaurant licensed to sell alcoholic liquor in this State may permit a patron to remove one unsealed and partially consumed bottle of wine for off-premise consumption provided that the patron has purchased a meal and consumed a portion of the bottle of wine with the meal on the restaurant premises. A partially consumed bottle of wine that is to be removed from the premises pursuant to this Section shall be securely sealed by the licensee or an agent of the licensee prior to removal from the premises and placed in a transparent one-time use tamper-proof bag. The licensee or agent of the licensee shall provide a dated receipt for the bottle of wine to the patron. Wine that is resealed in accordance with the provisions of this Section and not tampered with shall not be deemed an unsealed container for the purposes of Section 11-502 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-1047, eff. 1-1-07.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-34)

Sec. 6-34 6-33. Alcohol without liquid machines.

(a) No person shall bring into this State for use or sale any alcohol without liquid machine.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "alcohol without liquid machine" means a device designed or marketed for the purposes of mixing alcohol with oxygen or another gas to produce a mist for inhalation for recreational purposes.

(Source: P.A. 94-745, eff. 5-8-06; revised 8-29-06.)

(235 ILCS 5/7-5) (from Ch. 43, par. 149)

Sec. 7-5. The local liquor control commissioner may revoke or suspend any license issued by him if he determines that the licensee has violated any of the provisions of this Act or of any valid ordinance or resolution enacted by the particular city council, president, or board of trustees or county board (as the case may be) or any applicable rule or regulations established by the local liquor control commissioner or the State commission which is not inconsistent with law. Upon notification by the Illinois Department of Revenue, the State Commission, in accordance with Section 3-12, may refuse the issuance or renewal of a license, fine a licensee, or suspend or revoke any license issued by the State Commission if the licensee or license applicant has violated the provisions of Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. In addition to the suspension, the local liquor control commissioner in any county or municipality may levy a fine on the licensee for such violations. The fine imposed shall not exceed $1000 for a first violation within a 12-month period, $1,500 for a second violation within a 12-month period, and $2,500 for a third or subsequent violation within a 12-month period. Each day on which a violation continues shall constitute a separate violation. Not more than $15,000 in fines under this Section may be imposed against any licensee during the period of his license. Proceeds from such fines shall be paid into the general corporate fund of the county or municipal treasury, as the case may be.

However, no such license shall be so revoked or suspended and no licensee shall be fined except after a public hearing by the local liquor control commissioner with a 3 day written notice to the licensee affording the licensee an opportunity to appear and defend. All such hearings shall be open to the public and the local liquor control commissioner shall reduce all evidence to writing and shall maintain an official record of the proceedings. If the local liquor control commissioner has reason to believe that any continued operation of a particular licensed premises will immediately threaten the welfare of the community he may, upon the issuance of a written order stating the reason for such conclusion and without notice or hearing order the licensed premises closed for not more than 7 days, giving the licensee an opportunity to be heard during that period, except that if such licensee shall also be engaged in the conduct of another business or businesses on the licensed premises such order shall not be applicable to such other business or businesses.

The local liquor control commissioner shall within 5 days after such hearing, if he determines after such hearing that the license should be revoked or suspended or that the licensee should be fined, state the reason or reasons for such determination in a written order, and either the amount of the fine, the period of suspension, or that the license has been revoked, and shall serve a copy of such order within the 5 days upon the licensee.

If the premises for which the license was issued are located outside of a city, village or incorporated town having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants, the licensee after the receipt of such order of suspension or revocation shall have the privilege within a period of 20 days after the receipt of such order of suspension or revocation of appealing the order to the State commission for a decision sustaining, reversing or modifying the order of the local liquor control commissioner. If the State commission affirms the local commissioner's order to suspend or revoke the license at the first hearing, the appellant shall cease to engage in the business for which the license was issued, until the local commissioner's order is terminated by its own provisions or reversed upon rehearing or by the courts.

If the premises for which the license was issued are located within a city, village or incorporated town having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants, the licensee shall have the privilege, within a period of 20 days after the receipt of such order of fine, suspension or revocation, of appealing the order to the local license appeal commission and upon the filing of such an appeal by the licensee the license appeal commission shall determine the appeal upon certified record of proceedings of the local liquor commissioner in accordance with the provisions of Section 7-9. Within 30 days after such appeal was heard the license appeal commission shall render a decision sustaining or reversing the order of the local liquor control commissioner.

(Source: P.A. 93-22, eff. 6-20-03; 93-926, eff. 8-12-04; 93-1057, eff. 12-2-04; revised 12-6-04.)

(235 ILCS 5/7-6) (from Ch. 43, par. 150)

Sec. 7-6. All proceedings for the revocation or suspension of licenses of manufacturers, distributors, importing distributors, non-resident dealers, foreign importers, non-beverage users, railroads, airplanes and boats shall be before the State Commission. All such proceedings and all proceedings for the revocation or suspension of a retailer's license before the State commission shall be in accordance with rules and regulations established by it not inconsistent with law. However, no such license shall be so revoked or suspended except after a hearing by the State commission with reasonable notice to the licensee served by registered or certified mail with return receipt requested at least 10 days prior to the hearings at the last known place of business of the licensee and after an opportunity to appear and defend. Such notice shall specify the time and place of the hearing, the nature of the charges, the specific provisions of the Act and rules violated, and the specific facts supporting the charges or violation. The findings of the Commission shall be predicated upon competent evidence. The revocation of a local license shall automatically result in the revocation of a State license. Upon notification by the Illinois Department of Revenue, the State Commission, in accordance with Section 3-12, may refuse the issuance or renewal of a license, fine a licensee, or suspend or revoke any license issued by the State Commission if the licensee or license applicant has violated the provisions of Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. All procedures for the suspension or revocation of a license, as enumerated above, are applicable to the levying of fines for violations of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto.

(Source: P.A. 93-22, eff. 6-20-03; 93-926, eff. 8-12-04; 93-1057, eff. 12-2-04; revised 12-6-04.)

(235 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-4. Grape and Wine Resources Fund. Beginning July 1, 1999 and ending June 30, 2003 2006, on the first day of each State fiscal year, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Grape and Wine Resources Fund, which is hereby continued as a special fund in the State Treasury. By January 1, 2006, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs shall review the activities of the Council and report to the General Assembly and the Governor its recommendation of whether or not the funding under this Section should be continued.

The Grape and Wine Resources Fund shall be administered by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs, which shall serve as the lead administrative agency for allocation and auditing of funds as well as monitoring program implementation. The Department shall make an annual grant of moneys from the Fund to the Council, which shall be used to pay for the Council's operations and expenses. These moneys shall be used by the Council to achieve the Council's objectives and shall not be used for any political or legislative purpose. Money remaining in the Fund at the end of the fiscal year shall remain in the Fund for use during the following year and shall not be transferred to any other State fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-512, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-17-03.)

Section 795. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 2-12, 2-12.5, 2-14, 4-1.7, 4-4.1, 5-1.1, 5-2.05, 5-4, 5-5, 5-5.01, 5-5.1, 5-5.3, 5-5.4, 5-5.4c, 5-5.5, 5-5.5a, 5-5.7, 5-5.8a, 5-5.8b, 5-5d, 5-9, 5-11, 5-11.1, 5-16.1, 5-16.4, 5-16.8, 5-21, 5-24, 5A-4, 5A-5, 5A-10, 5A-13, 6-11, 9-1, 9-13, 9A-7, 9A-9.5, 10-1, 10-10, 10-10.4, 10-15, 10-16.7, 10-17.9, 10-24.35, 10-24.40, 10-24.50, 11-3, 11-3.1, 11-3.3, 11-9, 11-16, 12-1, 12-4.7c, 12-4.35, 12-4.201, 12-9, 12-10.2a, 12-10.4, 12-10.5, 12-13.1, and 12-16 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-5.23 and 9A-15 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/2-12) (from Ch. 23, par. 2-12)

Sec. 2-12. "Illinois Department"; "Department". In this Code, "Illinois Department" or "Department", when a particular entity is not specified, means the following:

(1) In the case of a function performed before July 1, 1997 (the effective date of the Department of Human Services Act), the term means the Department of Public Aid.

(2) In the case of a function to be performed on or after July 1, 1997 under Article III, IV, VI, IX, or IXA, the term means the Department of Human Services as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid.

(3) In the case of a function to be performed on or after July 1, 1997 under Article V, V-A, V-B, V-C, V-D, V-E, X, XIV, or XV, the term means the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid).

(4) In the case of a function to be performed on or after July 1, 1997 under Article I, II, VIIIA, XI, XII, or XIII, the term means the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or both, according to whether that function, in the specific context, has been allocated to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or both of those departments.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/2-12.5)

Sec. 2-12.5. "Director of the Illinois Department"; "Director of the Department"; "Director". In this Code, "Director of the Illinois Department", "Director of the Department", or "Director", when a particular official is not specified, means the following:

(1) In the case of a function performed before July 1, 1997 (the effective date of the Department of Human Services Act), the term means the Director of Public Aid.

(2) In the case of a function to be performed on or after July 1, 1997 under Article III, IV, VI, IX, or IXA, the term means the Secretary of Human Services.

(3) In the case of a function to be performed on or after July 1, 1997 under Article V, V-A, V-B, V-C, V-D, V-E, X, XIV, or XV, the term means the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid).

(4) In the case of a function to be performed on or after July 1, 1997 under Article I, II, VIIIA, XI, XII, or XIII, the term means the Secretary of Human Services or the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid) or both, according to whether that function, in the specific context, has been allocated to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or both of those departments.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/2-14) (from Ch. 23, par. 2-14)

Sec. 2-14. "Local governmental unit". Every county, city, village, incorporated town or township charged with the duty of providing public aid under Article VI; and County Veterans Assistance Commissions providing general assistance to indigent war veterans and their families under Section 12-21.13 of Article XII.

However, should any Section of this Code impose the obligation of providing medical assistance to persons who are non-residents of the State of Illinois upon a local governmental unit, the term "local governmental unit" shall not include townships. In such case the obligation for providing medical assistance to non-residents which would otherwise be the duty of a township shall become the obligation of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 81-519; 81-1085; 81-1509; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/4-1.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-1.7)

Sec. 4-1.7. Enforcement of Parental Child Support Obligation. If the parent or parents of the child are failing to meet or are delinquent in their legal obligation to support the child, the parent or other person having custody of the child or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may request the law enforcement officer authorized or directed by law to so act to file action for the enforcement of such remedies as the law provides for the fulfillment of the child support obligation.

If a parent has a judicial remedy against the other parent to compel child support, or if, as the result of an action initiated by or in behalf of one parent against the other, a child support order has been entered in respect to which there is noncompliance or delinquency, or where the order so entered may be changed upon petition to the court to provide additional support, the parent or other person having custody of the child or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may request the appropriate law enforcement officer to seek enforcement of the remedy, or of the support order, or a change therein to provide additional support. If the law enforcement officer is not authorized by law to so act in these instances, the parent, or if so authorized by law the other person having custody of the child, or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may initiate an action to enforce these remedies.

A parent or other person having custody of the child must comply with the requirements of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act, and the regulations duly promulgated thereunder, and any rules promulgated by the Illinois Department regarding enforcement of the child support obligation. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services may provide by rule for the grant or continuation of aid to the person for a temporary period if he or she accepts counseling or other services designed to increase his or her motivation to seek enforcement of the child support obligation.

In addition to any other definition of failure or refusal to comply with the requirements of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act, or Illinois Department rule, in the case of failure to attend court hearings, the parent or other person can show cooperation by attending a court hearing or, if a court hearing cannot be scheduled within 14 days following the court hearing that was missed, by signing a statement that the parent or other person is now willing to cooperate in the child support enforcement process and will appear at any later scheduled court date. The parent or other person can show cooperation by signing such a statement only once. If failure to attend the court hearing or other failure to cooperate results in the case being dismissed, such a statement may be signed after 2 months.

No denial or termination of medical assistance pursuant to this Section shall commence during pregnancy of the parent or other person having custody of the child or for 30 days after the termination of such pregnancy. The termination of medical assistance may commence thereafter if the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid determines that the failure or refusal to comply with this Section persists. Postponement of denial or termination of medical assistance during pregnancy under this paragraph shall be effective only to the extent it does not conflict with federal law or regulation.

Any evidence a parent or other person having custody of the child gives in order to comply with the requirements of this Section shall not render him or her liable to prosecution under Sections 11-7 or 11-8 of the "Criminal Code of 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended.

When so requested, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services shall provide such services and assistance as the law enforcement officer may require in connection with the filing of any action hereunder.

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services, as an expense of administration, may also provide applicants for and recipients of aid with such services and assistance, including assumption of the reasonable costs of prosecuting any action or proceeding, as may be necessary to enable them to enforce the child support liability required hereunder.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as a requirement that an applicant or recipient file an action for dissolution of marriage against his or her spouse.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/4-4.1)

Sec. 4-4.1. Immunizations.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) shall develop and implement and that Department and the Department of Human Services shall jointly continue by rule a program to ensure that children under 5 years of age living in assistance units that receive benefits under this Code are immunized. The Illinois Department of Public Aid shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the progress of the program on April 1, 1994 and 1995.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require immunization of any child in contravention of the stated objections of a parent, guardian, or relative with custody of a child that the administration of immunizing agents conflicts with his or her religious tenets and practices.

(Source: P.A. 88-342; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-1.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-1.1)

Sec. 5-1.1. Definitions. The terms defined in this Section shall have the meanings ascribed to them, except when the context otherwise requires.

(a) "Skilled nursing facility" means a nursing home eligible to participate as a skilled nursing facility under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(b) "Intermediate care facility" means a nursing home eligible to participate as an intermediate care facility under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(c) "Standard services" means those services required for the care of all patients in the facility and shall as a minimum include the following: (1) administration; (2) dietary (standard); (3) housekeeping; (4) laundry and linen; (5) maintenance of property and equipment, including utilities; (6) medical records; (7) training of employees; (8) utilization review; (9) activities services; (10) social services; (11) disability services; and all other similar services required by either the laws of the State of Illinois or one of its political subdivisions or municipalities or by Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(d) "Patient services" means those which vary with the number of personnel; professional and para-professional skills of the personnel; specialized equipment, and reflect the intensity of the medical and psycho-social needs of the patients. Patient services shall as a minimum include: (1) physical services; (2) nursing services, including restorative nursing; (3) medical direction and patient care planning; (4) health related supportive and habilitative services and all similar services required by either the laws of the State of Illinois or one of its political subdivisions or municipalities or by Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(e) "Ancillary services" means those services which require a specific physician's order and defined as under the medical assistance program as not being routine in nature for skilled nursing and intermediate care facilities. Such services generally must be authorized prior to delivery and payment as provided for under the rules of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(f) "Capital" means the investment in a facility's assets for both debt and non-debt funds. Non-debt capital is the difference between an adjusted replacement value of the assets and the actual amount of debt capital.

(g) "Profit" means the amount which shall accrue to a facility as a result of its revenues exceeding its expenses as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.

(h) "Non-institutional services" means those services provided under paragraph (f) of Section 3 of the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act and those services provided under Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging.

(i) "Exceptional medical care" means the level of medical care required by persons who are medically stable for discharge from a hospital but who require acute intensity hospital level care for physician, nurse and ancillary specialist services, including persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or a related condition. Such care shall consist of those services which the Department shall determine by rule.

(j) "Institutionalized person" means an individual who is an inpatient in an intermediate care or skilled nursing facility, or who is an inpatient in a medical institution receiving a level of care equivalent to that of an intermediate care or skilled nursing facility, or who is receiving services under Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act.

(k) "Institutionalized spouse" means an institutionalized person who is expected to receive services at the same level of care for at least 30 days and is married to a spouse who is not an institutionalized person.

(l) "Community spouse" is the spouse of an institutionalized spouse.

(Source: P.A. 89-626, eff. 8-9-96; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-2.05)

Sec. 5-2.05. Disabled children.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may offer, to children with developmental disabilities and severely mentally ill or emotionally disturbed children who otherwise would not qualify for medical assistance under this Article due to family income, home-based and community-based services instead of institutional placement, as allowed under paragraph 7 of Section 5-2.

(b) The Department of Public Aid, in conjunction with the Department of Human Services and the Division of Specialized Care for Children, University of Illinois-Chicago, shall also report to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2004 regarding the status of existing services offered under paragraph 7 of Section 5-2. This report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:

(1) The number of persons eligible for these services.

(2) The number of persons who applied for these services.

(3) The number of persons who currently receive these services.

(4) The nature, scope, and cost of services provided under paragraph 7 of Section 5-2.

(5) The comparative cost of providing those services in a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility.

(6) The funding sources for the provision of services, including federal financial participation.

(7) The qualifications, skills, and availability of caregivers for children receiving services.

The report shall also include information regarding the extent to which the existing programs could provide coverage for mentally disabled children who are currently being provided services in an institution who could otherwise be served in a less-restrictive, community-based setting for the same or a lower cost.

(Source: P.A. 93-599, eff. 8-26-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-4)

Sec. 5-4. Amount and nature of medical assistance. The amount and nature of medical assistance shall be determined by the County Departments in accordance with the standards, rules, and regulations of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, with due regard to the requirements and conditions in each case, including contributions available from legally responsible relatives. However, the amount and nature of such medical assistance shall not be affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The amount and nature of medical assistance shall not be affected by the receipt of donations or benefits from fundraisers in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

In determining the income and assets available to the institutionalized spouse and to the community spouse, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall follow the procedures established by federal law. The community spouse resource allowance shall be established and maintained at the maximum level permitted pursuant to Section 1924(f)(2) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or an amount set after a fair hearing, whichever is greater. The monthly maintenance allowance for the community spouse shall be established and maintained at the maximum level permitted pursuant to Section 1924(d)(3)(C) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended. Subject to the approval of the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the provisions of this Section shall be extended to persons who but for the provision of home or community-based services under Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, would require the level of care provided in an institution, as is provided for in federal law.

The Department of Human Services shall notify in writing each institutionalized spouse who is a recipient of medical assistance under this Article, and each such person's community spouse, of the changes in treatment of income and resources, including provisions for protecting income for a community spouse and permitting the transfer of resources to a community spouse, required by enactment of the federal Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (Public Law 100-360). The notification shall be in language likely to be easily understood by those persons. The Department of Human Services also shall reassess the amount of medical assistance for which each such recipient is eligible as a result of the enactment of that federal Act, whether or not a recipient requests such a reassessment.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 91-676, eff. 12-23-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services, which shall include but not be limited to prosthodontics; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows: a baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age and an annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older. All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. As used in this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, image receptor, and cassettes, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad mid-breast, with 2 views for each breast.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor that provides non-emergency medical transportation, defined by the Department by rule, shall be conditional for 180 days. During that time, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in the medical assistance program without cause. That termination of eligibility is not subject to the Department's hearing process.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients without medical authorization; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-789, eff. 8-6-02; 93-632, eff. 2-1-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; 93-981, eff. 8-23-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.01) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.01)

Sec. 5-5.01. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may establish and implement a pilot project for determining the feasibility of authorizing medical assistance payments for the costs of diagnosis and treatment of Alzheimer's disease.

(Source: P.A. 84-773; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.1)

Sec. 5-5.1. Grouping of Facilities. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall, for purposes of payment, provide for groupings of nursing facilities. Factors to be considered in grouping facilities may include, but are not limited to, size, age, patient mix or geographical area.

The groupings developed under this Section shall be considered in determining reasonable cost reimbursement formulas. However, this Section shall not preclude the Department from recognizing and evaluating the cost of capital on a facility-by-facility basis.

(Source: P.A. 80-1142; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.3) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.3)

Sec. 5-5.3. Conditions of Payment - Prospective Rates - Accounting Principles. This amendatory Act establishes certain conditions for the Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) in instituting rates for the care of recipients of medical assistance in skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities. Such conditions shall assure a method under which the payment for skilled nursing and intermediate care services, provided to recipients under the Medical Assistance Program shall be on a reasonable cost related basis, which is prospectively determined annually by the Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services). The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. There shall be no rate increase during calendar year 1983 and the first six months of calendar year 1984.

The determination of the payment shall be made on the basis of generally accepted accounting principles that shall take into account the actual costs to the facility of providing skilled nursing and intermediate care services to recipients under the medical assistance program.

The resultant total rate for a specified type of service shall be an amount which shall have been determined to be adequate to reimburse allowable costs of a facility that is economically and efficiently operated. The Department shall establish an effective date for each facility or group of facilities after which rates shall be paid on a reasonable cost related basis which shall be no sooner than the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)

Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop standards of payment of skilled nursing and intermediate care services in facilities providing such services under this Article which:

(1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment for skilled nursing and intermediate care services on a prospective basis. The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities certified by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance program shall be prospectively established annually on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation, except that the capital cost element for newly constructed facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994 and before July 1, 2007, unless specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October 1, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect information concerning nursing home resident condition necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois nursing home residents while remaining subject to the appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003 to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:

(A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing component rate per patient day under the new system than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology until a higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved by that facility.

(B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing component rate per patient day under the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted.

(C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the General Assembly.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001 shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002 shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on June 30, 2001.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002, which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30, 2002.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June 30, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and implementation of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on December 31, 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, a socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The Illinois Department may by rule adjust these socio-development component rates, but in no case may such rates be diminished.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005, facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i) a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.

Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year, except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1, 1997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility, updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1, 1985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate effective on July 1, 1984.

(2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled nursing and intermediate care services under the medical assistance program.

(3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social characteristics and needs of the patients.

(4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for services provided by qualified therapists or qualified assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate supervision.

(Source: P.A. 93-20, eff. 6-20-03; 93-649, eff. 1-8-04; 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; 93-1087, eff. 2-28-05; 94-48, eff. 7-1-05; 94-85, eff. 6-28-05; 94-697, eff. 11-21-05; 94-838, eff. 6-6-06; 94-964, eff. 6-28-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4c)

Sec. 5-5.4c. Bed reserves; approval. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall approve bed reserves at a daily rate of 75% of an individual's current Medicaid per diem, for nursing facilities 90% or more of whose residents are Medicaid recipients and that have occupancy levels of at least 93% for resident bed reserves not exceeding 10 days.

(Source: P.A. 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.5)

Sec. 5-5.5. Elements of Payment Rate.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall develop a prospective method for determining payment rates for skilled nursing and intermediate care services in nursing facilities composed of the following cost elements:

(1) Standard Services, with the cost of this component being determined by taking into account the actual costs to the facilities of these services subject to cost ceilings to be defined in the Department's rules.

(2) Resident Services, with the cost of this component being determined by taking into account the actual costs, needs and utilization of these services, as derived from an assessment of the resident needs in the nursing facilities. The Department shall adopt rules governing reimbursement for resident services as listed in Section 5-1.1. Surveys or assessments of resident needs under this Section shall include a review by the facility of the results of such assessments and a discussion of issues in dispute with authorized survey staff, unless the facility elects not to participate in such a review process. Surveys or assessments of resident needs under this Section may be conducted semi-annually and payment rates relating to resident services may be changed on a semi-annual basis. The Illinois Department shall initiate a project, either on a pilot basis or Statewide, to reimburse the cost of resident services based on a methodology which utilizes an assessment of resident needs to determine the level of reimbursement. This methodology shall be different from the payment criteria for resident services utilized by the Illinois Department on July 1, 1981. On March 1, 1982, and each year thereafter, until such time when the Illinois Department adopts the methodology used in such project for use statewide, the Illinois Department shall report to the General Assembly on the implementation and progress of such project. The report shall include:

(A) A statement of the Illinois Department's goals and objectives for such project;

(B) A description of such project, including the number and type of nursing facilities involved in the project;

(C) A description of the methodology used in such project;

(D) A description of the Illinois Department's application of the methodology;

(E) A statement on the methodology's effect on the quality of care given to residents in the sample nursing facilities; and

(F) A statement on the cost of the methodology used in such project and a comparison of this cost with the cost of the current payment criteria.

(3) Ancillary Services, with the payment rate being developed for each individual type of service. Payment shall be made only when authorized under procedures developed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(4) Nurse's Aide Training, with the cost of this component being determined by taking into account the actual cost to the facilities of such training.

(5) Real Estate Taxes, with the cost of this component being determined by taking into account the figures contained in the most currently available cost reports (with no imposition of maximums) updated to the midpoint of the current rate year for long term care services rendered between July 1, 1984 and June 30, 1985, and with the cost of this component being determined by taking into account the actual 1983 taxes for which the nursing homes were assessed (with no imposition of maximums) updated to the midpoint of the current rate year for long term care services rendered between July 1, 1985 and June 30, 1986.

(b) In developing a prospective method for determining payment rates for skilled nursing and intermediate care services in nursing facilities, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall consider the following cost elements:

(1) Reasonable capital cost determined by utilizing incurred interest rate and the current value of the investment, including land, utilizing composite rates, or by utilizing such other reasonable cost related methods determined by the Department. However, beginning with the rate reimbursement period effective July 1, 1987, the Department shall be prohibited from establishing, including, and implementing any depreciation factor in calculating the capital cost element.

(2) Profit, with the actual amount being produced and accruing to the providers in the form of a return on their total investment, on the basis of their ability to economically and efficiently deliver a type of service. The method of payment may assure the opportunity for a profit, but shall not guarantee or establish a specific amount as a cost.

(c) The Illinois Department may implement the amendatory changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of 1991 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with the provisions of Section 5.02 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement the amendatory changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of 1991 shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety and welfare.

(d) No later than January 1, 2001, the Department of Public Aid shall file with the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules, pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, a proposed rule, or a proposed amendment to an existing rule, regarding payment for appropriate services, including assessment, care planning, discharge planning, and treatment provided by nursing facilities to residents who have a serious mental illness.

(Source: P.A. 93-632, eff. 2-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.5a) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.5a)

Sec. 5-5.5a. Kosher kitchen and food service.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may develop in its rate structure for skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities an accommodation for fully kosher kitchen and food service operations, rabbinically approved or certified on an annual basis for a facility in which the only kitchen or all kitchens are fully kosher (a fully kosher facility). Beginning in the fiscal year after the fiscal year when this amendatory Act of 1990 becomes effective, the rate structure may provide for an additional payment to such facility not to exceed 50 cents per resident per day if 60% or more of the residents in the facility request kosher foods or food products prepared in accordance with Jewish religious dietary requirements for religious purposes in a fully kosher facility. Based upon food cost reports of the Illinois Department of Agriculture regarding kosher and non-kosher food available in the various regions of the State, this rate structure may be periodically adjusted by the Department but may not exceed the maximum authorized under this subsection (a).

(b) The Department shall by rule determine how a facility with a fully kosher kitchen and food service may be determined to be eligible and apply for the rate accommodation specified in subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 86-1464; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.7)

Sec. 5-5.7. Cost Reports - Audits. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall work with the Department of Public Health to use cost report information currently being collected under provisions of the "Nursing Home Care Act", approved August 23, 1979, as amended. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, develop in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles a uniform chart of accounts which each facility providing services under the medical assistance program shall adopt, after a reasonable period.

Nursing homes licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and providers of adult developmental training services certified by the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 15.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act which provide services to clients eligible for medical assistance under this Article are responsible for submitting the required annual cost report to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall audit the financial and statistical records of each provider participating in the medical assistance program as a skilled nursing or intermediate care facility over a 3 year period, beginning with the close of the first cost reporting year. Following the end of this 3-year term, audits of the financial and statistical records will be performed each year in at least 20% of the facilities participating in the medical assistance program with at least 10% being selected on a random sample basis, and the remainder selected on the basis of exceptional profiles. All audits shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall establish prospective payment rates for categories of service needed within the skilled nursing and intermediate care levels of services, in order to more appropriately recognize the individual needs of patients in nursing facilities.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide, during the process of establishing the payment rate for skilled nursing and intermediate care services, or when a substantial change in rates is proposed, an opportunity for public review and comment on the proposed rates prior to their becoming effective.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.8a) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.8a)

Sec. 5-5.8a. Payment for exceptional care.

(a) For the provision of exceptional medical care, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may make payments only to skilled nursing facilities that substantially meet the licensure and certification requirements prescribed by the Department of Public Health. Only the Department of Public Health shall be responsible for determining whether licensure and certification requirements for skilled nursing care facilities have been substantially met. The rate of payment shall be negotiated with the facilities offering to provide the exceptional medical care. A facility's costs of providing exceptional care shall not be considered in determining the rate of payment to skilled nursing facilities under Sections 5-5.3 through 5-5.5. Payment for exceptional medical care shall not exceed the rate that the Illinois Department would be required to pay under the Medical Assistance Program for the same care in a hospital.

(b) The Illinois Department shall adopt rules and regulations under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement this Section. Those rules and regulations shall set forth the procedures to be followed by facilities when submitting an initial exceptional medical care certification request and exceptional medical care payment requests. The rules and regulations shall also include the procedures and criteria used by the Illinois Department in determining whether to approve a skilled nursing facility's initial exceptional medical care certification request and exceptional medical care payment requests. The rules shall provide that the Illinois Department, upon receipt of a facility's request for payment for exceptional medical care and all necessary documentation, shall, after negotiations between the Illinois Department and the facility are completed, determine and notify the facility whether the request has been approved or denied.

(Source: P.A. 88-412; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.8b) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.8b)

Sec. 5-5.8b. Payment to Campus Facilities. There is hereby established a separate payment category for campus facilities. A "campus facility" is defined as an entity which consists of a long term care facility (or group of facilities if the facilities are on the same contiguous parcel of real estate) which meets all of the following criteria as of May 1, 1987: the entity provides care for both children and adults; residents of the entity reside in three or more separate buildings with congregate and small group living arrangements on a single campus; the entity provides three or more separate licensed levels of care; the entity (or a part of the entity) is enrolled with the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services) as a provider of long term care services and receives payments from that the Department of Public Aid; the entity (or a part of the entity) receives funding from the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (now the Department of Human Services); and the entity (or a part of the entity) holds a current license as a child care institution issued by the Department of Children and Family Services.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Children and Family Services shall develop jointly a rate methodology or methodologies for campus facilities. Such methodology or methodologies may establish a single rate to be paid by all the agencies, or a separate rate to be paid by each agency, or separate components to be paid to different parts of the campus facility. All campus facilities shall receive the same rate of payment for similar services. Any methodology developed pursuant to this section shall take into account the actual costs to the facility of providing services to residents, and shall be adequate to reimburse the allowable costs of a campus facility which is economically and efficiently operated. Any methodology shall be established on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data submitted by campus facilities, and shall take into account the actual costs incurred by campus facilities in providing services, and in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. Rates may be established on a prospective or retrospective basis. Any methodology shall provide reimbursement for appropriate payment elements, including the following: standard services, patient services, real estate taxes, and capital costs.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.23)

Sec. 5-5.23. Children's mental health services.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, by rule, shall require the screening and assessment of a child prior to any Medicaid-funded admission to an inpatient hospital for psychiatric services to be funded by Medicaid. The screening and assessment shall include a determination of the appropriateness and availability of out-patient support services for necessary treatment. The Department, by rule, shall establish methods and standards of payment for the screening, assessment, and necessary alternative support services.

(b) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, to the extent allowable under federal law, shall secure federal financial participation for Individual Care Grant expenditures made by the Department of Human Services for the Medicaid optional service authorized under Section 1905(h) of the federal Social Security Act, pursuant to the provisions of Section 7.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act.

(c) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall work jointly with the Department of Human Services to implement subsections (a) and (b).

(Source: P.A. 93-495, eff. 8-8-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.24)

Sec. 5-5.24 5-5.23. Prenatal and perinatal care. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide reimbursement under this Article for all prenatal and perinatal health care services that are provided for the purpose of preventing low-birthweight infants, reducing the need for neonatal intensive care hospital services, and promoting perinatal health. These services may include comprehensive risk assessments for pregnant women, women with infants, and infants, lactation counseling, nutrition counseling, childbirth support, psychosocial counseling, treatment and prevention of periodontal disease, and other support services that have been proven to improve birth outcomes. The Department shall maximize the use of preventive prenatal and perinatal health care services consistent with federal statutes, rules, and regulations. The Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop a plan for prenatal and perinatal preventive health care and shall present the plan to the General Assembly by January 1, 2004. On or before January 1, 2006 and every 2 years thereafter, the Department shall report to the General Assembly concerning the effectiveness of prenatal and perinatal health care services reimbursed under this Section in preventing low-birthweight infants and reducing the need for neonatal intensive care hospital services. Each such report shall include an evaluation of how the ratio of expenditures for treating low-birthweight infants compared with the investment in promoting healthy births and infants in local community areas throughout Illinois relates to healthy infant development in those areas.

(Source: P.A. 93-536, eff. 8-18-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5d)

Sec. 5-5d. Enhanced transition and follow-up services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall apply for any necessary waivers pursuant to Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act to facilitate the transition from one residential setting to another and follow-up services. Nothing in this Section shall be construed considered as limiting current similar programs by the Department of Human Services or the Department on Aging.

(Source: P.A. 93-902, eff. 8-10-04; 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-9)

Sec. 5-9. Choice of Medical Dispensers. Applicants and recipients shall be entitled to free choice of those qualified practitioners, hospitals, nursing homes, and other dispensers of medical services meeting the requirements and complying with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department. However, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may, after providing reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing, deny, suspend or terminate any otherwise qualified person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity, from participation as a vendor of goods or services under the medical assistance program authorized by this Article if the Director finds such vendor of medical services in violation of this Act or the policy or rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Any physician who has been convicted of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed shall be automatically removed from the list of physicians qualified to participate as a vendor of medical services under the medical assistance program authorized by this Article.

(Source: P.A. 82-263; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-11)

Sec. 5-11. Co-operative arrangements; contracts with other State agencies, health care and rehabilitation organizations, and fiscal intermediaries.

(a) The Illinois Department may enter into co-operative arrangements with State agencies responsible for administering or supervising the administration of health services and vocational rehabilitation services to the end that there may be maximum utilization of such services in the provision of medical assistance.

The Illinois Department shall, not later than June 30, 1993, enter into one or more co-operative arrangements with the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities providing that the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities will be responsible for administering or supervising all programs for services to persons in community care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities, including but not limited to intermediate care facilities, that are supported by State funds or by funding under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act. The responsibilities of the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities under these agreements are transferred to the Department of Human Services as provided in the Department of Human Services Act.

The Department may also contract with such State health and rehabilitation agencies and other public or private health care and rehabilitation organizations to act for it in supplying designated medical services to persons eligible therefor under this Article. Any contracts with health services or health maintenance organizations shall be restricted to organizations which have been certified as being in compliance with standards promulgated pursuant to the laws of this State governing the establishment and operation of health services or health maintenance organizations. The Department shall renegotiate the contracts with health maintenance organizations and managed care community networks that took effect August 1, 2003, so as to produce $70,000,000 savings to the Department net of resulting increases to the fee-for-service program for State fiscal year 2006. The Department may also contract with insurance companies or other corporate entities serving as fiscal intermediaries in this State for the Federal Government in respect to Medicare payments under Title XVIII of the Federal Social Security Act to act for the Department in paying medical care suppliers. The provisions of Section 9 of "An Act in relation to State finance", approved June 10, 1919, as amended, notwithstanding, such contracts with State agencies, other health care and rehabilitation organizations, or fiscal intermediaries may provide for advance payments.

(b) For purposes of this subsection (b), "managed care community network" means an entity, other than a health maintenance organization, that is owned, operated, or governed by providers of health care services within this State and that provides or arranges primary, secondary, and tertiary managed health care services under contract with the Illinois Department exclusively to persons participating in programs administered by the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may certify managed care community networks, including managed care community networks owned, operated, managed, or governed by State-funded medical schools, as risk-bearing entities eligible to contract with the Illinois Department as Medicaid managed care organizations. The Illinois Department may contract with those managed care community networks to furnish health care services to or arrange those services for individuals participating in programs administered by the Illinois Department. The rates for those provider-sponsored organizations may be determined on a prepaid, capitated basis. A managed care community network may choose to contract with the Illinois Department to provide only pediatric health care services. The Illinois Department shall by rule adopt the criteria, standards, and procedures by which a managed care community network may be permitted to contract with the Illinois Department and shall consult with the Department of Insurance in adopting these rules.

A county provider as defined in Section 15-1 of this Code may contract with the Illinois Department to provide primary, secondary, or tertiary managed health care services as a managed care community network without the need to establish a separate entity and shall be deemed a managed care community network for purposes of this Code only to the extent it provides services to participating individuals. A county provider is entitled to contract with the Illinois Department with respect to any contracting region located in whole or in part within the county. A county provider is not required to accept enrollees who do not reside within the county.

In order to (i) accelerate and facilitate the development of integrated health care in contracting areas outside counties with populations in excess of 3,000,000 and counties adjacent to those counties and (ii) maintain and sustain the high quality of education and residency programs coordinated and associated with local area hospitals, the Illinois Department may develop and implement a demonstration program from managed care community networks owned, operated, managed, or governed by State-funded medical schools. The Illinois Department shall prescribe by rule the criteria, standards, and procedures for effecting this demonstration program.

A managed care community network that contracts with the Illinois Department to furnish health care services to or arrange those services for enrollees participating in programs administered by the Illinois Department shall do all of the following:

(1) Provide that any provider affiliated with the managed care community network may also provide services on a fee-for-service basis to Illinois Department clients not enrolled in such managed care entities.

(2) Provide client education services as determined and approved by the Illinois Department, including but not limited to (i) education regarding appropriate utilization of health care services in a managed care system, (ii) written disclosure of treatment policies and restrictions or limitations on health services, including, but not limited to, physical services, clinical laboratory tests, hospital and surgical procedures, prescription drugs and biologics, and radiological examinations, and (iii) written notice that the enrollee may receive from another provider those covered services that are not provided by the managed care community network.

(3) Provide that enrollees within the system may choose the site for provision of services and the panel of health care providers.

(4) Not discriminate in enrollment or disenrollment practices among recipients of medical services or enrollees based on health status.

(5) Provide a quality assurance and utilization review program that meets the requirements established by the Illinois Department in rules that incorporate those standards set forth in the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

(6) Issue a managed care community network identification card to each enrollee upon enrollment. The card must contain all of the following:

(A) The enrollee's health plan.

(B) The name and telephone number of the enrollee's primary care physician or the site for receiving primary care services.

(C) A telephone number to be used to confirm eligibility for benefits and authorization for services that is available 24 hours per day, 7 days per week.

(7) Ensure that every primary care physician and pharmacy in the managed care community network meets the standards established by the Illinois Department for accessibility and quality of care. The Illinois Department shall arrange for and oversee an evaluation of the standards established under this paragraph (7) and may recommend any necessary changes to these standards.

(8) Provide a procedure for handling complaints that meets the requirements established by the Illinois Department in rules that incorporate those standards set forth in the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

(9) Maintain, retain, and make available to the Illinois Department records, data, and information, in a uniform manner determined by the Illinois Department, sufficient for the Illinois Department to monitor utilization, accessibility, and quality of care.

(10) Provide that the pharmacy formulary used by the managed care community network and its contract providers be no more restrictive than the Illinois Department's pharmaceutical program on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998 and as amended after that date.

The Illinois Department shall contract with an entity or entities to provide external peer-based quality assurance review for the managed health care programs administered by the Illinois Department. The entity shall be representative of Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches and have statewide geographic representation in all specialities of medical care that are provided in managed health care programs administered by the Illinois Department. The entity may not be a third party payer and shall maintain offices in locations around the State in order to provide service and continuing medical education to physician participants within those managed health care programs administered by the Illinois Department. The review process shall be developed and conducted by Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. In consultation with the entity, the Illinois Department may contract with other entities for professional peer-based quality assurance review of individual categories of services other than services provided, supervised, or coordinated by physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, criteria to avoid conflicts of interest in the conduct of quality assurance activities consistent with professional peer-review standards. All quality assurance activities shall be coordinated by the Illinois Department.

Each managed care community network must demonstrate its ability to bear the financial risk of serving individuals under this program. The Illinois Department shall by rule adopt standards for assessing the solvency and financial soundness of each managed care community network. Any solvency and financial standards adopted for managed care community networks shall be no more restrictive than the solvency and financial standards adopted under Section 1856(a) of the Social Security Act for provider-sponsored organizations under Part C of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.

The Illinois Department may implement the amendatory changes to this Code made by this amendatory Act of 1998 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of that Act, the adoption of rules to implement these changes is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(c) Not later than June 30, 1996, the Illinois Department shall enter into one or more cooperative arrangements with the Department of Public Health for the purpose of developing a single survey for nursing facilities, including but not limited to facilities funded under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act or both, which shall be administered and conducted solely by the Department of Public Health. The Departments shall test the single survey process on a pilot basis, with both the Departments of Public Aid and Public Health represented on the consolidated survey team. The pilot will sunset June 30, 1997. After June 30, 1997, unless otherwise determined by the Governor, a single survey shall be implemented by the Department of Public Health which would not preclude staff from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) from going on-site to nursing facilities to perform necessary audits and reviews which shall not replicate the single State agency survey required by this Act. This Section shall not apply to community or intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities.

(d) Nothing in this Code in any way limits or otherwise impairs the authority or power of the Illinois Department to enter into a negotiated contract pursuant to this Section with a managed care community network or a health maintenance organization, as defined in the Health Maintenance Organization Act, that provides for termination or nonrenewal of the contract without cause, upon notice as provided in the contract, and without a hearing.

(Source: P.A. 94-48, eff. 7-1-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-11.1)

Sec. 5-11.1. Cooperative arrangements; contracts. The Illinois Department may enter into cooperative arrangements with State agencies responsible for administering or supervising the administration of health services and vocational rehabilitation services to maximize utilization of these services in the provision of medical assistance.

The Illinois Department shall, not later than June 30, 1994, enter into one or more cooperative arrangements with the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities providing that the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities will be responsible for administering or supervising all programs for services to persons in community care facilities for persons with mental illness, including but not limited to intermediate care facilities, that are supported by State funds or by funding under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act. The responsibilities of the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities under these agreements are transferred to the Department of Human Services as provided in the Department of Human Services Act.

The Department may also contract with State health and rehabilitation agencies and other public or private health care and rehabilitation organizations to act for it in supplying designated medical services to persons eligible under this Section. Any contracts with health services or health maintenance organizations shall be restricted to organizations which have been certified as being in compliance with standards promulgated under the laws of this State governing the establishment and operation of health services or health maintenance organizations. The Department may also contract with insurance companies or other corporate entities serving as fiscal intermediaries in this State for the federal government in respect to Medicare payments under Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act to act for the Department in paying medical care suppliers. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to abrogate any existing doctor/patient relationships with Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid recipients or the free choice of clients or their guardians to select a physician to provide medical care. The provisions of Section 9 of the State Finance Act notwithstanding, such contracts with State agencies, other health care and rehabilitation organizations, or fiscal intermediaries may provide for advance payments.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-16.1)

Sec. 5-16.1. Case Management Services. The Illinois Department may develop, implement and evaluate a Case Management Services Program which provides services consistent with the provisions of this Section, and the Inter-Agency Agreement between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) and the Department of Public Health, for a targeted population on a less than Statewide basis in the State of Illinois. The purpose of this Case Management Services Program shall be to assist eligible participants in gaining access to needed medical, social, educational and other services thereby reducing the likelihood of long-term welfare dependency. The Case Management Services Program shall have the following characteristics:

(a) It shall be conducted for a period of no less than 5 consecutive fiscal years in one urban area containing a high proportion, as determined by Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and Department of Public Health records, of Medicaid eligible pregnant or parenting girls under 17 years of age at the time of the initial assessment and in one rural area containing a high proportion, as determined by Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and Department of Public Health records, of Medicaid eligible pregnant or parenting girls under 17 years of age at the time of the initial assessment.

(b) Providers participating in the program shall be paid an amount per patient per month, to be set by the Illinois Department, for the case management services provided.

(c) Providers eligible to participate in the program shall be nurses or social workers, licensed to practice in Illinois, who comply with the rules and regulations established by the Illinois Department and the Inter-Agency Agreement between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) and the Department of Public Health. The Illinois Department may terminate a provider's participation in the program if the provider is determined to have failed to comply with any applicable program standard or procedure established by the Illinois Department.

(d) Each eligible participant in an area where the Case Management Services Program is being conducted may voluntarily designate a case manager, of her own choosing to assume responsibility for her care.

(e) A participant may change her designated case manager provided that she informs the Illinois Department by the 20th day of the month in order for the change to be effective in the following month.

(f) The Illinois Department shall, by rule, establish procedures for providing case management services when the designated source becomes unavailable or wishes to withdraw from any obligation as case management services provider.

(g) In accordance with rules adopted by the Illinois Department, a participant may discontinue participation in the program upon timely notice to the Illinois Department, in which case the participant shall remain eligible for assistance under all applicable provisions of Article V of this Code.

The Illinois Department shall take any necessary steps to obtain authorization or waiver under federal law to implement a Case Management Services Program. Participation shall be voluntary for the provider and the recipient.

(Source: P.A. 87-685; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.4)

Sec. 5-16.4. Medical Assistance Provider Payment Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury the Medical Assistance Provider Payment Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of disbursing moneys as follows:

(1) For medical services provided to recipients of aid under Articles V, VI, and XII.

(2) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Illinois Department or its agent in performing the activities authorized by this Section.

(3) For making transfers to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund, as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Medicaid Liability Liquidity Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (3) may not exceed the principal amount of debt issued under that Act.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund (which shall be made in accordance with the provisions of the Medicaid Liability Liquidity Borrowing Act), shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited into the Fund.

(2) Proceeds from any short-term borrowing directed to the Fund by the Governor pursuant to the Medicaid Liability Liquidity Borrowing Act.

(3) Amounts transferred into the Fund under subsection (d) of this Section.

(4) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned on those moneys.

(d) Beginning July 1, 1995, on the 13th and 26th days of each month the State Comptroller and Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Medical Assistance Provider Payment Fund an amount equal to 1/48th of the annual Medical Assistance appropriation to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) from the Medical Assistance Provider Payment Fund, plus cumulative deficiencies from those prior transfers. In addition to those transfers, the State Comptroller and Treasurer may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Medical Assistance Provider Payment Fund as much as is necessary to pay claims pursuant to the new twice-monthly payment schedule established in Section 5-16.5 and to avoid interest liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act. No transfers made pursuant to this subsection shall interfere with the timely payment of the general State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-11 of the School Code.

(Source: P.A. 88-554, eff. 7-26-94; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356u, 356w, 356x, and 356z.6 of the Illinois Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions of Section 364.01 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-853, eff. 1-1-05; 93-1000, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-21)

Sec. 5-21. Immunization. By July 1, 1994, the Illinois Department shall, in cooperation with the Department of Public Health, establish and implement a pilot program that will provide immunization services for children on a walk-in basis at local public aid offices. The Director shall determine the number and location of the local public aid offices that will participate in the pilot program. The Illinois Department shall submit a report on the effectiveness of the program to the General Assembly on or before December 31, 1995. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) and the Department of Human Services, in cooperation with the Department of Public Health, shall continue to implement the pilot program after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996.

(Source: P.A. 88-493; 88-670, eff. 12-2-94; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-24)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 5-24. Disease management programs and services for chronic conditions; pilot project.

(a) In this Section, "disease management programs and services" means services administered to patients in order to improve their overall health and to prevent clinical exacerbations and complications, using cost-effective, evidence-based practice guidelines and patient self-management strategies. Disease management programs and services include all of the following:

(1) A population identification process.

(2) Evidence-based or consensus-based clinical practice guidelines, risk identification, and matching of interventions with clinical need.

(3) Patient self-management and disease education.

(4) Process and outcomes measurement, evaluation, management, and reporting.

(b) Subject to appropriations, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may undertake a pilot project to study patient outcomes, for patients with chronic diseases, associated with the use of disease management programs and services for chronic condition management. "Chronic diseases" include, but are not limited to, diabetes, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

(c) The disease management programs and services pilot project shall examine whether chronic disease management programs and services for patients with specific chronic conditions do any or all of the following:

(1) Improve the patient's overall health in a more expeditious manner.

(2) Lower costs in other aspects of the medical assistance program, such as hospital admissions, days in skilled nursing homes, emergency room visits, or more frequent physician office visits.

(d) In carrying out the pilot project, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall examine all relevant scientific literature and shall consult with health care practitioners including, but not limited to, physicians, surgeons, registered pharmacists, and registered nurses.

(e) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall consult with medical experts, disease advocacy groups, and academic institutions to develop criteria to be used in selecting a vendor for the pilot project.

(f) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(g) This Section is repealed 10 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 93-518, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-4)

Sec. 5A-4. Payment of assessment; penalty.

(a) The annual assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 for State fiscal year 2004 shall be due and payable on June 18 of the year. The assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 for State fiscal year 2005 shall be due and payable in quarterly installments, each equalling one-fourth of the assessment for the year, on July 19, October 19, January 18, and April 19 of the year. The assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 for State fiscal year 2006 and each subsequent State fiscal year shall be due and payable in quarterly installments, each equaling one-fourth of the assessment for the year, on the fourteenth State business day of September, December, March, and May. No installment payment of an assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 shall be due and payable, however, until after: (i) the hospital provider receives written notice from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) that the payment methodologies to hospitals required under Section 5A-12 or Section 5A-12.1, whichever is applicable for that fiscal year, have been approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the waiver under 42 CFR 433.68 for the assessment imposed by Section 5A-2, if necessary, has been granted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services; and (ii) the hospital has received the payments required under Section 5A-12 or Section 5A-12.1, whichever is applicable for that fiscal year. Upon notification to the Department of approval of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 or Section 5A-12.1, whichever is applicable for that fiscal year, and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68, all quarterly installments otherwise due under Section 5A-2 prior to the date of notification shall be due and payable to the Department upon written direction from the Department and receipt of the payments required under Section 5A-12.1.

(b) The Illinois Department is authorized to establish delayed payment schedules for hospital providers that are unable to make installment payments when due under this Section due to financial difficulties, as determined by the Illinois Department.

(c) If a hospital provider fails to pay the full amount of an installment when due (including any extensions granted under subsection (b)), there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 a penalty assessment equal to the lesser of (i) 5% of the amount of the installment not paid on or before the due date plus 5% of the portion thereof remaining unpaid on the last day of each 30-day period thereafter or (ii) 100% of the installment amount not paid on or before the due date. For purposes of this subsection, payments will be credited first to unpaid installment amounts (rather than to penalty or interest), beginning with the most delinquent installments.

(Source: P.A. 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; 93-1066, eff. 1-15-05; 94-242, eff. 7-18-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-5)

Sec. 5A-5. Notice; penalty; maintenance of records.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall send a notice of assessment to every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article. The notice of assessment shall notify the hospital of its assessment and shall be sent after receipt by the Department of notification from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 or Section 5A-12.1, whichever is applicable for that fiscal year, and, if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 have been approved. The notice shall be on a form prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the following:

(1) The name of the hospital provider.

(2) The address of the hospital provider's principal place of business from which the provider engages in the occupation of hospital provider in this State, and the name and address of each hospital operated, conducted, or maintained by the provider in this State.

(3) The occupied bed days or adjusted gross hospital revenue of the hospital provider (whichever is applicable), the amount of assessment imposed under Section 5A-2 for the State fiscal year for which the notice is sent, and the amount of each quarterly installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Other reasonable information as determined by the Illinois Department.

(b) If a hospital provider conducts, operates, or maintains more than one hospital licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health, the provider shall pay the assessment for each hospital separately.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in the case of a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in respect of which the person is subject to assessment under this Article as a hospital provider, the assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in the year during which the provider conducts, operates, or maintains the hospital and the denominator of which is 365. Immediately upon ceasing to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital, the person shall pay the assessment for the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a hospital, upon notice by the Illinois Department, shall pay the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 and subsection (e) in installments on the due dates stated in the notice and on the regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year occurring after the due dates of the initial notice.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for State fiscal years 2004 and 2005, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital throughout calendar year 2001, the assessment for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical occupied bed days for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department. Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for State fiscal years after 2005, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2003, the assessment for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical adjusted gross hospital revenue for the hospital's first full fiscal year as determined by the Illinois Department (which may be based on annualization of the provider's actual revenues for a portion of the year, or revenues of a comparable hospital for the year, including revenues realized by a prior provider of the same hospital during the year).

(f) Every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article shall keep sufficient records to permit the determination of adjusted gross hospital revenue for the hospital's fiscal year. All such records shall be kept in the English language and shall, at all times during regular business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and employees.

(g) The Illinois Department may, by rule, provide a hospital provider a reasonable opportunity to request a clarification or correction of any clerical or computational errors contained in the calculation of its assessment, but such corrections shall not extend to updating the cost report information used to calculate the assessment.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; 94-242, eff. 7-18-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-10) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-10)

Sec. 5A-10. Applicability.

(a) The assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 shall not take effect or shall cease to be imposed, and any moneys remaining in the Fund shall be refunded to hospital providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them, if:

(1) the sum of the appropriations for State fiscal years 2004 and 2005 from the General Revenue Fund for hospital payments under the medical assistance program is less than $4,500,000,000 or the appropriation for each of State fiscal years 2006, 2007 and 2008 from the General Revenue Fund for hospital payments under the medical assistance program is less than $2,500,000,000 increased annually to reflect any increase in the number of recipients; or

(2) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) makes changes in its rules that reduce the hospital inpatient or outpatient payment rates, including adjustment payment rates, in effect on October 1, 2004, except for hospitals described in subsection (b) of Section 5A-3 and except for changes in the methodology for calculating outlier payments to hospitals for exceptionally costly stays, so long as those changes do not reduce aggregate expenditures below the amount expended in State fiscal year 2005 for such services; or

(3) the payments to hospitals required under Section 5A-12 are changed or are not eligible for federal matching funds under Title XIX or XXI of the Social Security Act.

(b) The assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 shall not take effect or shall cease to be imposed if the assessment is determined to be an impermissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Moneys in the Hospital Provider Fund derived from assessments imposed prior thereto shall be disbursed in accordance with Section 5A-8 to the extent federal matching is not reduced due to the impermissibility of the assessments, and any remaining moneys shall be refunded to hospital providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them.

(Source: P.A. 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; 94-242, eff. 7-18-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-13)

Sec. 5A-13. Emergency rulemaking. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) may adopt rules necessary to implement this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of that Act, the General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to implement this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 93-659, eff. 2-3-04; 94-242, eff. 7-18-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-11)

Sec. 6-11. State funded General Assistance.

(a) Effective July 1, 1992, all State funded General Assistance and related medical benefits shall be governed by this Section. Other parts of this Code or other laws related to General Assistance shall remain in effect to the extent they do not conflict with the provisions of this Section. If any other part of this Code or other laws of this State conflict with the provisions of this Section, the provisions of this Section shall control.

(b) State funded General Assistance shall consist of 2 separate programs. One program shall be for adults with no children and shall be known as State Transitional Assistance. The other program shall be for families with children and for pregnant women and shall be known as State Family and Children Assistance.

(c) (1) To be eligible for State Transitional Assistance on or after July 1, 1992, an individual must be ineligible for assistance under any other Article of this Code, must be determined chronically needy, and must be one of the following:

(A) age 18 or over or

(B) married and living with a spouse, regardless of age.

(2) The Illinois Department or the local governmental unit shall determine whether individuals are chronically needy as follows:

(A) Individuals who have applied for Supplemental Security Income (SSI) and are awaiting a decision on eligibility for SSI who are determined disabled by the Illinois Department using the SSI standard shall be considered chronically needy, except that individuals whose disability is based solely on substance addictions (drug abuse and alcoholism) and whose disability would cease were their addictions to end shall be eligible only for medical assistance and shall not be eligible for cash assistance under the State Transitional Assistance program.

(B) If an individual has been denied SSI due to a finding of "not disabled" (either at the Administrative Law Judge level or above, or at a lower level if that determination was not appealed), the Illinois Department shall adopt that finding and the individual shall not be eligible for State Transitional Assistance or any related medical benefits. Such an individual may not be determined disabled by the Illinois Department for a period of 12 months, unless the individual shows that there has been a substantial change in his or her medical condition or that there has been a substantial change in other factors, such as age or work experience, that might change the determination of disability.

(C) The Illinois Department, by rule, may specify other categories of individuals as chronically needy; nothing in this Section, however, shall be deemed to require the inclusion of any specific category other than as specified in paragraphs (A) and (B).

(3) For individuals in State Transitional Assistance, medical assistance shall be provided in an amount and nature determined by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid by rule. The amount and nature of medical assistance provided need not be the same as that provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, and nothing in this paragraph (3) shall be construed to require the coverage of any particular medical service. In addition, the amount and nature of medical assistance provided may be different for different categories of individuals determined chronically needy.

(4) The Illinois Department shall determine, by rule, those assistance recipients under Article VI who shall be subject to employment, training, or education programs including Earnfare, the content of those programs, and the penalties for failure to cooperate in those programs.

(5) The Illinois Department shall, by rule, establish further eligibility requirements, including but not limited to residence, need, and the level of payments.

(d) (1) To be eligible for State Family and Children Assistance, a family unit must be ineligible for assistance under any other Article of this Code and must contain a child who is:

(A) under age 18 or

(B) age 18 and a full-time student in a secondary school or the equivalent level of vocational or technical training, and who may reasonably be expected to complete the program before reaching age 19.

Those children shall be eligible for State Family and Children Assistance.

(2) The natural or adoptive parents of the child living in the same household may be eligible for State Family and Children Assistance.

(3) A pregnant woman whose pregnancy has been verified shall be eligible for income maintenance assistance under the State Family and Children Assistance program.

(4) The amount and nature of medical assistance provided under the State Family and Children Assistance program shall be determined by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid by rule. The amount and nature of medical assistance provided need not be the same as that provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section, and nothing in this paragraph (4) shall be construed to require the coverage of any particular medical service.

(5) The Illinois Department shall, by rule, establish further eligibility requirements, including but not limited to residence, need, and the level of payments.

(e) A local governmental unit that chooses to participate in a General Assistance program under this Section shall provide funding in accordance with Section 12-21.13 of this Act. Local governmental funds used to qualify for State funding may only be expended for clients eligible for assistance under this Section 6-11 and related administrative expenses.

(f) In order to qualify for State funding under this Section, a local governmental unit shall be subject to the supervision and the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Code, the Illinois Department is authorized to reduce payment levels used to determine cash grants provided to recipients of State Transitional Assistance at any time within a Fiscal Year in order to ensure that cash benefits for State Transitional Assistance do not exceed the amounts appropriated for those cash benefits. Changes in payment levels may be accomplished by emergency rule under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that the limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period shall not apply and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall not apply. This provision shall also be applicable to any reduction in payment levels made upon implementation of this amendatory Act of 1995.

(Source: P.A. 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. Declaration of Purpose. It is the purpose of this Article to aid applicants for and recipients of public aid under Articles III, IV, V, and VI, to increase their capacities for self-support, self-care, and responsible citizenship, and to assist them in maintaining and strengthening family life. If authorized pursuant to Section 9-8, this Article may be extended to former and potential recipients and to persons whose income does not exceed the standard established to determine eligibility for aid as a medically indigent person under Article V. The Department, with the written consent of the Governor, may also:

(a) extend this Article to individuals and their families with income closely related to national indices of poverty who have special needs resulting from institutionalization of a family member or conditions that may lead to institutionalization or who live in impoverished areas or in facilities developed to serve persons of low income;

(b) establish, where indicated, schedules of payment for service provided based on ability to pay;

(c) provide for the coordinated delivery of the services described in this Article and related services offered by other public or private agencies or institutions, and cooperate with the Illinois Department on Aging to enable it to properly execute and fulfill its duties pursuant to the provisions of Section 4.01 of the "Illinois Act on the Aging", as now or hereafter amended;

(d) provide in-home care services, such as chore and housekeeping services or homemaker services, to recipients of public aid under Articles IV and VI, the scope and eligibility criteria for such services to be determined by rule;

(e) contract with other State agencies for the purchase of social service under Title XX of the Social Security Act, such services to be provided pursuant to such other agencies' enabling legislation; and

(f) cooperate with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to provide services to public aid recipients for the treatment and prevention of alcoholism and substance abuse.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/9-13)

Sec. 9-13. Survey of teen parent services. The Social Services Advisory Committee shall conduct a survey of all policy related to the provision of teen parent services and make administrative and legislative recommendations to prevent duplication, correct inconsistencies, and generally improve the provision of services to teen parents within the Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services). The results of the survey, including recommendations shall be submitted in written form to the General Assembly, no later than December 1, 1994.

(Source: P.A. 88-412; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-7) (from Ch. 23, par. 9A-7)

Sec. 9A-7. Good Cause and Pre-Sanction Process.

(a) The Department shall establish by rule what constitutes good cause for failure to participate in education, training and employment programs, failure to accept suitable employment or terminating employment or reducing earnings.

The Department shall establish, by rule, a pre-sanction process to assist in resolving disputes over proposed sanctions and in determining if good cause exists. Good cause shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) temporary illness for its duration;

(2) court required appearance or temporary incarceration;

(3) (blank);

(4) death in the family;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(8) (blank);

(9) extreme inclement weather;

(10) (blank);

(11) lack of any support service even though the necessary service is not specifically provided under the Department program, to the extent the lack of the needed service presents a significant barrier to participation;

(12) if an individual is engaged in employment or training or both that is consistent with the employment related goals of the program, if such employment and training is later approved by Department staff;

(13) (blank);

(14) failure of Department staff to correctly forward the information to other Department staff;

(15) failure of the participant to cooperate because of attendance at a test or a mandatory class or function at an educational program (including college), when an education or training program is officially approved by the Department;

(16) failure of the participant due to his or her illiteracy;

(17) failure of the participant because it is determined that he or she should be in a different activity;

(18) non-receipt by the participant of a notice advising him or her of a participation requirement. If the non-receipt of mail occurs frequently, the Department shall explore an alternative means of providing notices of participation requests to participants;

(19) (blank);

(20) non-comprehension of English, either written or oral or both;

(21) (blank);

(22) (blank);

(23) child care (or day care for an incapacitated individual living in the same home as a dependent child) is necessary for the participation or employment and such care is not available for a child under age 13;

(24) failure to participate in an activity due to a scheduled job interview, medical appointment for the participant or a household member, or school appointment;

(25) the individual is homeless. Homeless individuals (including the family) have no current residence and no expectation of acquiring one in the next 30 days. This includes individuals residing in overnight and transitional (temporary) shelters. This does not include individuals who are sharing a residence with friends or relatives on a continuing basis;

(26) circumstances beyond the control of the participant which prevent the participant from completing program requirements; or

(27) (blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) The Department shall establish a reconciliation procedure to assist in resolving disputes related to any aspect of participation, including exemptions, good cause, sanctions or proposed sanctions, supportive services, assessments, responsibility and service plans, assignment to activities, suitability of employment, or refusals of offers of employment. Through the reconciliation process the Department shall have a mechanism to identify good cause, ensure that the client is aware of the issue, and enable the client to perform required activities without facing sanction.

(2) A participant may request reconciliation and receive notice in writing of a meeting. At least one face-to-face meeting may be scheduled to resolve misunderstandings or disagreements related to program participation and situations which may lead to a potential sanction. The meeting will address the underlying reason for the dispute and plan a resolution to enable the individual to participate in TANF employment and work activity requirements.

(2.5) If the individual fails to appear at the reconciliation meeting without good cause, the reconciliation is unsuccessful and a sanction shall be imposed.

(3) The reconciliation process shall continue after it is determined that the individual did not have good cause for non-cooperation. Any necessary demonstration of cooperation on the part of the participant will be part of the reconciliation process. Failure to demonstrate cooperation will result in immediate sanction.

(4) For the first instance of non-cooperation, if the client reaches agreement to cooperate, the client shall be allowed 30 days to demonstrate cooperation before any sanction activity may be imposed. In any subsequent instances of non-cooperation, the client shall be provided the opportunity to show good cause or remedy the situation by immediately complying with the requirement.

(5) The Department shall document in the case record the proceedings of the reconciliation and provide the client in writing with a reconciliation agreement.

(6) If reconciliation resolves the dispute, no sanction shall be imposed. If the client fails to comply with the reconciliation agreement, the Department shall then immediately impose the original sanction. If the dispute cannot be resolved during reconciliation, a sanction shall not be imposed until the reconciliation process is complete.

(Source: P.A. 93-598, eff. 8-26-03; revised 10-9-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-9.5)

Sec. 9A-9.5. Health care advocates; committee. The Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall jointly establish an interagency committee to do the following:

(1) Assist the departments in making recommendations on incorporating health care advocates into education, training, and placement programs under this Article. The advocates should be individuals who are knowledgeable about various types of health insurance programs.

(2) Develop more outreach and educational materials to help TANF families make informed choices concerning health insurance and health care. The materials should target families that are transitioning from receipt of public aid to employment.

(3) Develop methods to simplify the process of applying for medical assistance under Article V.

(Source: P.A. 93-150, eff. 7-10-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-15)

Sec. 9A-15. College education assistance; pilot program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall establish a pilot program to provide recipients of assistance under Article IV with additional assistance in obtaining a post-secondary education degree to the extent permitted by the federal law governing the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families Program. This assistance may include, but is not limited to, moneys for the payment of tuition, but the Department may not use any moneys appropriated for the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families Program (TANF) under Article IV to pay for tuition under the pilot program. In addition to criteria, standards, and procedures related to post-secondary education required by rules applicable to the TANF program, the Department shall provide that the time that a pilot program participant spends in post-secondary classes shall apply toward the time that the recipient is required to spend in education, placement, and training activities under this Article.

The Department shall define the pilot program by rule, including a determination of its duration and scope, the nature of the assistance to be provided, and the criteria, standards, and procedures for participation.

(b) The Department shall enter into an interagency agreement with the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for the administration of the pilot program.

(c) The Department shall evaluate the pilot program and report its findings and recommendations after 2 years of its operation to the Governor and the General Assembly, including proposed rules to modify or extend the pilot program beyond the scope and schedule upon which it was originally established.

(Source: P.A. 94-371, eff. 1-1-06.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-16)

Sec. 9A-16 9A-15. Work activity; applicable minimum wage. The State or federal minimum wage, whichever is higher, shall be used to calculate the required number of hours of participation in any earnfare or pay-after-performance activity under Section 9A-9 or any other Section of this Code in which a recipient of public assistance performs work as a condition of receiving the public assistance and the recipient is not paid wages for the work.

(Source: P.A. 94-533, eff. 8-10-05; revised 9-22-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-1)

Sec. 10-1. Declaration of Public Policy - Persons Eligible for Child Support Enforcement Services - Fees for Non-Applicants and Non-Recipients.) It is the intent of this Code that the financial aid and social welfare services herein provided supplement rather than supplant the primary and continuing obligation of the family unit for self-support to the fullest extent permitted by the resources available to it. This primary and continuing obligation applies whether the family unit of parents and children or of husband and wife remains intact and resides in a common household or whether the unit has been broken by absence of one or more members of the unit. The obligation of the family unit is particularly applicable when a member is in necessitous circumstances and lacks the means of a livelihood compatible with health and well-being.

It is the purpose of this Article to provide for locating an absent parent or spouse, for determining his financial circumstances, and for enforcing his legal obligation of support, if he is able to furnish support, in whole or in part. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall give priority to establishing, enforcing and collecting the current support obligation, and then to past due support owed to the family unit, except with respect to collections effected through the intercept programs provided for in this Article.

The child support enforcement services provided hereunder shall be furnished dependents of an absent parent or spouse who are applicants for or recipients of financial aid under this Code. It is not, however, a condition of eligibility for financial aid that there be no responsible relatives who are reasonably able to provide support. Nor, except as provided in Sections 4-1.7 and 10-8, shall the existence of such relatives or their payment of support contributions disqualify a needy person for financial aid.

By accepting financial aid under this Code, a spouse or a parent or other person having custody of a child shall be deemed to have made assignment to the Illinois Department for aid under Articles III, IV, V and VII or to a local governmental unit for aid under Article VI of any and all rights, title, and interest in any support obligation, including statutory interest thereon, up to the amount of financial aid provided. The rights to support assigned to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or local governmental unit shall constitute an obligation owed the State or local governmental unit by the person who is responsible for providing the support, and shall be collectible under all applicable processes.

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall also furnish the child support enforcement services established under this Article in behalf of persons who are not applicants for or recipients of financial aid under this Code in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act. The Department may establish a schedule of reasonable fees, to be paid for the services provided and may deduct a collection fee, not to exceed 10% of the amount collected, from such collection. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall cause to be published and distributed publications reasonably calculated to inform the public that individuals who are not recipients of or applicants for public aid under this Code are eligible for the child support enforcement services under this Article X. Such publications shall set forth an explanation, in plain language, that the child support enforcement services program is independent of any public aid program under the Code and that the receiving of child support enforcement services in no way implies that the person receiving such services is receiving public aid.

(Source: P.A. 94-90, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Court enforcement; applicability also to persons who are not applicants or recipients. Except where the Illinois Department, by agreement, acts for the local governmental unit, as provided in Section 10-3.1, local governmental units shall refer to the State's Attorney or to the proper legal representative of the governmental unit, for judicial enforcement as herein provided, instances of non-support or insufficient support when the dependents are applicants or recipients under Article VI. The Child and Spouse Support Unit established by Section 10-3.1 may institute in behalf of the Illinois Department any actions under this Section for judicial enforcement of the support liability when the dependents are (a) applicants or recipients under Articles III, IV, V or VII; (b) applicants or recipients in a local governmental unit when the Illinois Department, by agreement, acts for the unit; or (c) non-applicants or non-recipients who are receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, as provided in Section 10-1. Where the Child and Spouse Support Unit has exercised its option and discretion not to apply the provisions of Sections 10-3 through 10-8, the failure by the Unit to apply such provisions shall not be a bar to bringing an action under this Section.

Action shall be brought in the circuit court to obtain support, or for the recovery of aid granted during the period such support was not provided, or both for the obtainment of support and the recovery of the aid provided. Actions for the recovery of aid may be taken separately or they may be consolidated with actions to obtain support. Such actions may be brought in the name of the person or persons requiring support, or may be brought in the name of the Illinois Department or the local governmental unit, as the case requires, in behalf of such persons.

The court may enter such orders for the payment of moneys for the support of the person as may be just and equitable and may direct payment thereof for such period or periods of time as the circumstances require, including support for a period before the date the order for support is entered. The order may be entered against any or all of the defendant responsible relatives and may be based upon the proportionate ability of each to contribute to the person's support.

The Court shall determine the amount of child support (including child support for a period before the date the order for child support is entered) by using the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. For purposes of determining the amount of child support to be paid for a period before the date the order for child support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the responsible relative's net income for that period was the same as his or her net income at the time the order is entered.

If (i) the responsible relative was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the responsible relative's ability to provide child support, (ii) the responsible relative failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the responsible relative is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the responsible relative's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

The Court shall determine the amount of maintenance using the standards set forth in Section 504 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Any such judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

When an order is entered for the support of a minor, the court may provide therein for reasonable visitation of the minor by the person or persons who provided support pursuant to the order. Whoever willfully refuses to comply with such visitation order or willfully interferes with its enforcement may be declared in contempt of court and punished therefor.

Except where the local governmental unit has entered into an agreement with the Illinois Department for the Child and Spouse Support Unit to act for it, as provided in Section 10-3.1, support orders entered by the court in cases involving applicants or recipients under Article VI shall provide that payments thereunder be made directly to the local governmental unit. Orders for the support of all other applicants or recipients shall provide that payments thereunder be made directly to the Illinois Department. In accordance with federal law and regulations, the Illinois Department may continue to collect current maintenance payments or child support payments, or both, after those persons cease to receive public assistance and until termination of services under Article X. The Illinois Department shall pay the net amount collected to those persons after deducting any costs incurred in making the collection or any collection fee from the amount of any recovery made. In both cases the order shall permit the local governmental unit or the Illinois Department, as the case may be, to direct the responsible relative or relatives to make support payments directly to the needy person, or to some person or agency in his behalf, upon removal of the person from the public aid rolls or upon termination of services under Article X.

If the notice of support due issued pursuant to Section 10-7 directs that support payments be made directly to the needy person, or to some person or agency in his behalf, and the recipient is removed from the public aid rolls, court action may be taken against the responsible relative hereunder if he fails to furnish support in accordance with the terms of such notice.

Actions may also be brought under this Section in behalf of any person who is in need of support from responsible relatives, as defined in Section 2-11 of Article II who is not an applicant for or recipient of financial aid under this Code. In such instances, the State's Attorney of the county in which such person resides shall bring action against the responsible relatives hereunder. If the Illinois Department, as authorized by Section 10-1, extends the child support enforcement services provided by this Article to spouses and dependent children who are not applicants or recipients under this Code, the Child and Spouse Support Unit established by Section 10-3.1 shall bring action against the responsible relatives hereunder and any support orders entered by the court in such cases shall provide that payments thereunder be made directly to the Illinois Department.

Whenever it is determined in a proceeding to establish or enforce a child support or maintenance obligation that the person owing a duty of support is unemployed, the court may order the person to seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing or other memorandum of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. Additionally, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training or work programs and where the duty of support is owed to a child receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Illinois Department for participation in job search, training or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of this Code.

Whenever it is determined that a person owes past-due support for a child receiving assistance under this Code, the court shall order at the request of the Illinois Department:

(1) that the person pay the past-due support in accordance with a plan approved by the court; or

(2) if the person owing past-due support is unemployed, is subject to such a plan, and is not incapacitated, that the person participate in such job search, training, or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of this Code as the court deems appropriate.

A determination under this Section shall not be administratively reviewable by the procedures specified in Sections 10-12, and 10-13 to 10-13.10. Any determination under these Sections, if made the basis of court action under this Section, shall not affect the de novo judicial determination required under this Section.

A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of this Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the non-custodial parent to notify the court and, in cases in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, the Illinois Department, within 7 days, (i) of the name, address, and telephone number of any new employer of the non-custodial parent, (ii) whether the non-custodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Code, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, then the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for the enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this paragraph. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this paragraph with regard to the order. This paragraph shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for the support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for the support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

Payments under this Section to the Illinois Department pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. All payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Human Services shall be deposited in the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund. Disbursements from these funds shall be as provided in Sections 12-9.1 and 12-10.2 of this Code. Payments received by a local governmental unit shall be deposited in that unit's General Assistance Fund.

To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Sections 10-10.4 and 10-26 of this Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 93-1061, eff. 1-1-05; 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-9-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-10.4)

Sec. 10-10.4. Payment of Support to State Disbursement Unit.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "payor" mean those terms as defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act, except that "order for support" shall not mean orders providing for spousal maintenance under which there is no child support obligation.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, each court or administrative order for support entered or modified on or after October 1, 1999 shall require that support payments be made to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 if:

(1) a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, but the support payments are made through income withholding.

(c) Support payments shall be made to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(1) the order for support was entered before October 1, 1999, and a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, and the support payments are being made through income withholding.

(c-5) If no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, and the support payments are not being made through income withholding, then support payments shall be made as directed in the order for support.

(c-10) At any time, and notwithstanding the existence of an order directing payments to be made elsewhere, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice to the obligor and, where applicable, to the obligor's payor:

(1) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(A) a party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X; or

(B) no party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, but the support payments are made through income withholding; or

(2) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit of another state upon request of another state's Title IV-D child support enforcement agency, in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated under that Part D.

(c-15) Within 15 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the clerk of the circuit court shall provide written notice to the obligor to make payments directly to the clerk of the circuit court if no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under this Article X, the support payments are not made through income withholding, and the order for support requires support payments to be made directly to the clerk of the circuit court.

(c-20) If the State Disbursement Unit receives a support payment that was not appropriately made to the Unit under this Section, the Unit shall immediately return the payment to the sender, including, if possible, instructions detailing where to send the support payments.

(d) The notices under subsections (c-10) and (c-15) may be sent by ordinary mail, certified mail, return receipt requested, facsimile transmission, or other electronic process, or may be served upon the obligor or payor using any method provided by law for service of a summons. A copy of the notice shall be provided to the obligee and, when the order for support was entered by the court, to the clerk of the court.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 91-677, eff. 1-5-00; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-15) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-15)

Sec. 10-15. Enforcement of administrative order; costs and fees. If a responsible relative refuses, neglects, or fails to comply with a final administrative support or reimbursement order of the Illinois Department entered by the Child and Spouse Support Unit pursuant to Sections 10-11 or 10-11.1 or registered pursuant to Section 10-17.1, the Child and Spouse Support Unit may file suit against the responsible relative or relatives to secure compliance with the administrative order.

Suits shall be instituted in the name of the People of the State of Illinois on the relation of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid of the State of Illinois and the spouse or dependent children for whom the support order has been issued.

The court shall order the payment of the support obligation, or orders for reimbursement of moneys for support provided, directly to the Illinois Department but the order shall permit the Illinois Department to direct the responsible relative or relatives to make payments of support directly to the spouse or dependent children, or to some person or agency in his or their behalf, as provided in Section 10-8 or 10-10, as applicable.

Whenever it is determined in a proceeding to enforce an administrative order that the responsible relative is unemployed, and support is sought on behalf of applicants for or recipients of financial aid under Article IV of this Code or other persons who are given access to the child support enforcement services of this Article as provided in Section 10-1, the court may order the responsible relative to seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing or other memorandum of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. In addition, the court may order the unemployed responsible relative to report to the Illinois Department for participation in job search, training or work programs established under Section 9-6 of this Code or to the Illinois Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training or work programs.

Charges imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 shall be enforced by the Court in a suit filed under this Section.

To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Sections 10-10.4 and 10-26 of this Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-16.7)

Sec. 10-16.7. Child support enforcement debit authorization.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Financial institution" and "account" are defined as set forth in Section 10-24.

"Payor" is defined as set forth in Section 15 of the Income Withholding for Support Act.

"Order for support" means any order for periodic payment of funds to the State Disbursement Unit for the support of a child or, where applicable, for support of a child and a parent with whom the child resides, that is entered or modified under this Code or under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or that is entered or registered for modification or enforcement under the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act.

"Obligor" means an individual who owes a duty to make payments under an order for support in a case in which child support enforcement services are being provided under this Article X.

(b) The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall adopt a child support enforcement debit authorization form that, upon being signed by an obligor, authorizes a financial institution holding an account on the obligor's behalf to debit the obligor's account periodically in an amount equal to the amount of child support that the obligor is required to pay periodically and transfer that amount to the State Disbursement Unit. The form shall include instructions to the financial institution concerning the debiting of accounts held on behalf of obligors and the transfer of the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit. In adopting the form, the Department may consult with the Office of Banks and Real Estate and the Department of Financial Institutions. The Department must adopt the form within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. Promptly after adopting the form, the Department must notify each financial institution conducting business in this State that the form has been adopted and is ready for use.

(c) An obligor who does not have a payor may sign a child support debit authorization form adopted by the Department under this Section. The obligor may sign a form in relation to any or all of the financial institutions holding an account on the obligor's behalf. Promptly after an obligor signs a child support debit authorization form, the Department shall send the original signed form to the appropriate financial institution. Subject to subsection (e), upon receiving the form, the financial institution shall debit the account and transfer the debited amounts to the State Disbursement Unit according to the instructions in the form. A financial institution that complies with a child support debit authorization form signed by an obligor and issued under this Section shall not be subject to civil liability with respect to any individual or any agency.

(d) The signing and issuance of a child support debit authorization form under this Section does not relieve the obligor from responsibility for compliance with any requirement under the order for support.

(e) A financial institution is obligated to debit the account of an obligor pursuant to this Section only if or to the extent:

(1) the financial institution reasonably believes the debit authorization form is a true and authentic original document;

(2) there are finally collected funds in the account; and

(3) the account is not subject to offsetting claims of the financial institution, whether due at the time of receipt of the debit authorization form or thereafter to become due and whether liquidated or unliquidated.

To the extent the account of the obligor is pledged or held by the financial institution as security for a loan or other obligation, or that the financial institution has any other claim or lien against the account, the financial institution is entitled to retain the account.

(Source: P.A. 93-736, eff. 7-14-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-17.9)

Sec. 10-17.9. Past due support information to State Department of Revenue.

(a) The Illinois Department may provide by rule for certification to the Illinois Department of Revenue of past due support owed by responsible relatives under a support order entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State on behalf of resident or non-resident persons. The rule shall provide for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by each responsible relative affected. Any final administrative decision rendered by the Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law. A responsible relative may avoid certification to the Illinois Department of Revenue by establishing a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(b) A certified past due support amount shall be final. The certified amount shall be payable to the Illinois Department of Revenue upon written notification of the certification to the responsible relative by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(c) In the event a responsible relative overpays pursuant to collection under this Section and the applicable Sections of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the overpayment shall be a credit against future support obligations. If the current support obligation of the responsible relative has terminated under operation of law or court order, any moneys overpaid but still in the possession of the Department shall be promptly returned to the responsible relative.

(d) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, any child support delinquency certified to the Illinois Department of Revenue shall be treated as a child support delinquency for all other purposes, and any collection action by the State's Attorney or the Illinois Department of Revenue with respect to any delinquency certified under this Article shall have the same priority against attachment, execution, assignment, or other collection action as is provided by any other provision of State law.

(e) Any child support delinquency collected by the Illinois Department of Revenue, including those amounts that result in overpayment of a child support delinquency, shall be paid to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-24.35)

Sec. 10-24.35. Accommodation of financial institutions. The Illinois Department of Public Aid shall make a reasonable effort to accommodate those financial institutions on which the requirements of this Article X would impose a hardship. In the case of a non-automated financial institution, a paper copy including either social security numbers or tax identification numbers is an acceptable format. In order to allow for data processing implementation, no agreement shall become effective earlier than 90 days after its execution.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-24.40)

Sec. 10-24.40. Financial institution's charges on account.

(a) If the Illinois Department of Public Aid requests a financial institution to hold or encumber assets in an account as defined in Section 10-24, the financial institution at which the account as defined in Section 10-24 is maintained may charge and collect its normally scheduled account activity fees to maintain the account during the period of time the account assets are held or encumbered.

(b) If the Illinois Department of Public Aid takes any action to enforce a lien or levy imposed on an account, as defined in Section 10-24, under Section 10-25.5, the financial institution at which the account is maintained may charge to the account a fee of up to $50 and shall deduct the amount of the fee from the account before remitting any moneys from the account to the Illinois Department of Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-24.50)

Sec. 10-24.50. Financial institution's freedom from liability. A financial institution that provides information under Sections 10-24 through 10-24.50 shall not be liable to any account holder, owner, or other person in any civil, criminal, or administrative action for any of the following:

(1) Disclosing the required information to the Illinois Department of Public Aid, any other provisions of the law not withstanding.

(2) Holding, encumbering, or surrendering any of an individual's accounts as defined in Section 10-24 in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by:

(A) the Illinois Department of Public Aid under Sections 10-25 and 10-25.5; or

(B) a person or entity acting on behalf of the Illinois Department of Public Aid.

(3) Any other action taken or omission made in good faith to comply with Sections 10-24 through 10-24.50, including individual or mechanical errors, provided that the action or omission does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-3) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-3)

Sec. 11-3. Assignment and attachment of aid prohibited. Except as provided below in this Section and in Section 11-3.3, all financial aid given under Articles III, IV, V, and VI and money payments for child care services provided by a child care provider under Articles IX and IXA shall not be subject to assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment, or otherwise. Provided, however, that a medical vendor may use his right to receive vendor payments as collateral for loans from financial institutions so long as such arrangements do not constitute any activity prohibited under Section 1902(a)(32) of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, or any other applicable laws or regulations. Provided further, however, that a medical or other vendor or a service provider may assign, reassign, sell, pledge or grant a security interest in any such financial aid, vendor payments or money payments or grants which he has a right to receive to the Illinois Finance Authority, in connection with any financing program undertaken by the Illinois Finance Authority, or to the Illinois Finance Authority, in connection with any financing program undertaken by the Illinois Finance Authority. Each Authority may utilize a trustee or agent to accept, accomplish, effectuate or realize upon any such assignment, reassignment, sale, pledge or grant on that Authority's behalf. Provided further, however, that nothing herein shall prevent the Illinois Department from collecting any assessment, fee, interest or penalty due under Article V-A, V-B, V-C, or V-E by withholding financial aid as payment of such assessment, fee, interest, or penalty. Any alienation in contravention of this statute does not diminish and does not affect the validity, legality or enforceability of any underlying obligations for which such alienation may have been made as collateral between the parties to the alienation. This amendatory Act shall be retroactive in application and shall pertain to obligations existing prior to its enactment.

(Source: P.A. 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; 93-205 (Sections 890-25 and 890-40), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-3.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-3.1)

Sec. 11-3.1. Any recipient of financial aid which is payable to the recipient at regular intervals may elect to have the aid deposited, and the Illinois Department of Human Services is authorized to deposit the aid, directly in the recipient's savings account or checking account or in any electronic benefits transfer account or accounts in a financial institution approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services and in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Department of Human Services. The Illinois Department of Human Services and any electronic benefits transfer financial institutions or contractor shall encourage financial institutions to provide checking account and savings account services to recipients of public aid.

Any recipient of financial aid or benefits distributed by means other than electronic benefits transfer under Articles III, IV, and VI of this Code may elect to receive the aid by means of direct deposit transmittals to his or her account maintained at a bank, savings and loan association, or credit union or by means of electronic benefits transfer in a financial institution approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services and in accordance with rules and regulations of the Illinois Department of Human Services. The Illinois Department of Human Services may distribute financial aid or food stamp benefits by means of electronic benefits transfer and may require recipients to receive financial aid or food stamp benefits by means of electronic benefits transfer, provided that any electronic benefits transfer made under this Section shall be accomplished in compliance with the Electronic Fund Transfer Act and any relevant rules promulgated thereunder. The Illinois Department of Human Services may provide for a method of compensation for services in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department of Human Services, the United States Department of Agriculture, the United States Department of Health and Human Services, and the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer. The Illinois Department of Human Services shall require a convenient density of distribution points for recipients of public aid to have adequate options to access aid held in an electronic benefits transfer account. No fee may be charged to recipients for reasonable access to public aid benefits held in such an account. Deposits into a financial institution for electronic benefits transfer accounts shall be subject to community reinvestment and to serving public benefits recipients pursuant to relevant criteria of the State Treasurer, Comptroller, and the Illinois Department of Human Services. The Electronic Benefits Transfer Fund is hereby created for the purpose of electronically disbursing public aid benefits.

The electronic benefits transfer contractor shall inform the Department of Human Services whenever it has distributed financial aid to individuals by means of electronic benefits transfer. The Illinois Department of Human Services shall determine the amount to be reimbursed to the contractor and shall direct the State Treasurer to transfer this portion of the amount previously vouchered by the Department of Human Services and approved by the Comptroller pursuant to Section 9.05(c) of the State Comptroller Act to the contractor from the Electronic Benefits Transfer Fund created under Section 9.05(b) of the State Comptroller Act in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department of Human Services, the United States Department of Agriculture, the United States State Department of Health and Human Services, the State Comptroller, and the State Treasurer.

(Source: P.A. 88-412; 89-310, eff. 1-1-96; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 10-11-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-3.3) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-3.3)

Sec. 11-3.3. Payment to provider or governmental agency or entity. Payments under this Code shall be made to the provider, except that the Department may issue or may agree to issue the payment directly to the Illinois Finance Authority, the Illinois Finance Authority, or any other governmental agency or entity, including any bond trustee for that agency or entity, to whom the provider has assigned, reassigned, sold, pledged or granted a security interest in the payments that the provider has a right to receive, provided that the issuance or agreement to issue is not prohibited under Section 1902(a)(32) of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-205 (Sections 890-25 and 890-40), eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-23-03.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-9) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-9)

Sec. 11-9. Protection of records - Exceptions. For the protection of applicants and recipients, the Illinois Department, the county departments and local governmental units and their respective officers and employees are prohibited, except as hereinafter provided, from disclosing the contents of any records, files, papers and communications, except for purposes directly connected with the administration of public aid under this Code.

In any judicial proceeding, except a proceeding directly concerned with the administration of programs provided for in this Code, such records, files, papers and communications, and their contents shall be deemed privileged communications and shall be disclosed only upon the order of the court, where the court finds such to be necessary in the interest of justice.

The Illinois Department shall establish and enforce reasonable rules and regulations governing the custody, use and preservation of the records, papers, files, and communications of the Illinois Department, the county departments and local governmental units receiving State or Federal funds or aid. The governing body of other local governmental units shall in like manner establish and enforce rules and regulations governing the same matters.

The contents of case files pertaining to recipients under Articles IV, V, and VI shall be made available without subpoena or formal notice to the officers of any court, to all law enforcing agencies, and to such other persons or agencies as from time to time may be authorized by any court. In particular, the contents of those case files shall be made available upon request to a law enforcement agency for the purpose of determining the current address of a recipient with respect to whom an arrest warrant is outstanding, and the current address of a recipient who was a victim of a felony or a witness to a felony shall be made available upon request to a State's Attorney of this State or a State's Attorney's investigator. Information shall also be disclosed to the Illinois State Scholarship Commission pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award.

This Section does not prevent the Illinois Department and local governmental units from reporting to appropriate law enforcement officials the desertion or abandonment by a parent of a child, as a result of which financial aid has been necessitated under Articles IV, V, or VI, or reporting to appropriate law enforcement officials instances in which a mother under age 18 has a child out of wedlock and is an applicant for or recipient of aid under any Article of this Code. The Illinois Department may provide by rule for the county departments and local governmental units to initiate proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to have children declared to be neglected when they deem such action necessary to protect the children from immoral influences present in their home or surroundings.

This Section does not preclude the full exercise of the powers of the Board of Public Aid Commissioners to inspect records and documents, as provided for all advisory boards pursuant to Section 5-505 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-505).

This Section does not preclude exchanges of information among the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid), and the Illinois Department of Revenue for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The provisions of this Section and of Section 11-11 as they apply to applicants and recipients of public aid under Article V shall be operative only to the extent that they do not conflict with any Federal law or regulation governing Federal grants to this State for such programs.

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid) shall enter into an inter-agency agreement with the Department of Children and Family Services to establish a procedure by which employees of the Department of Children and Family Services may have immediate access to records, files, papers, and communications (except medical, alcohol or drug assessment or treatment, mental health, or any other medical records) of the Illinois Department, county departments, and local governmental units receiving State or federal funds or aid, if the Department of Children and Family Services determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-111, eff. 1-1-02; 93-311, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-16) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-16)

Sec. 11-16. Changes in grants; cancellations, revocations, suspensions.

(a) All grants of financial aid under this Code shall be considered as frequently as may be required by the rules of the Illinois Department. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall consider grants of financial aid to children who are eligible under Article V of this Code at least annually and shall take into account those reports filed, or required to be filed, pursuant to Sections 11-18 and 11-19. After such investigation as may be necessary, the amount and manner of giving aid may be changed or the aid may be entirely withdrawn if the County Department, local governmental unit, or Illinois Department finds that the recipient's circumstances have altered sufficiently to warrant such action. Financial aid may at any time be canceled or revoked for cause or suspended for such period as may be proper.

(b) Whenever any such grant of financial aid is cancelled, revoked, reduced, or terminated because of the failure of the recipient to cooperate with the Department, including but not limited to the failure to keep an appointment, attend a meeting, or produce proof or verification of eligibility or need, the grant shall be reinstated in full, retroactive to the date of the change in or termination of the grant, provided that within 10 working days after the first day the financial aid would have been available, the recipient cooperates with the Department and is not otherwise ineligible for benefits for the period in question. This subsection (b) does not apply to sanctions imposed for the failure of any recipient to participate as required in the child support enforcement program or in any educational, training, or employment program under this Code or any other sanction under Section 4-21, nor does this subsection (b) apply to any cancellation, revocation, reduction, termination, or sanction imposed for the failure of any recipient to cooperate in the monthly reporting process or the quarterly reporting process.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-1)

Sec. 12-1. Administration of Code; Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(a) This Code shall be administered by the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as provided in the Department of Human Services Act.

(b) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall be under the supervision and direction of the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, as provided in Section 5-20 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-20). The Director shall be appointed pursuant to the provisions of Section 5-605 and meet the qualifications of Section 5-230 of that Law.

The Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, created by Section 5-165 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-165), shall be appointed pursuant to the provisions of Section 5-605 of that Law and shall meet the qualifications prescribed in Section 5-230 of that Law.

The salaries of the Director and the Assistant Director shall be those specified in Section 5-395 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-395).

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall comply with other provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois which are generally applicable to the several departments of the State Government created by that Code.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.7c)

Sec. 12-4.7c. Exchange of information after July 1, 1997.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to Sections 10-10 and 10-11 of this Code or pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Human Services shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.35)

Sec. 12-4.35. Medical services for certain noncitizens.

(a) Notwithstanding Section 1-11 of this Code or Section 20(a) of the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide medical services to noncitizens who have not yet attained 19 years of age and who are not eligible for medical assistance under Article V of this Code or under the Children's Health Insurance Program created by the Children's Health Insurance Program Act due to their not meeting the otherwise applicable provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code or Section 20(a) of the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The medical services available, standards for eligibility, and other conditions of participation under this Section shall be established by rule by the Department; however, any such rule shall be at least as restrictive as the rules for medical assistance under Article V of this Code or the Children's Health Insurance Program created by the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(b) The Department is authorized to take any action, including without limitation cessation of enrollment, reduction of available medical services, and changing standards for eligibility, that is deemed necessary by the Department during a State fiscal year to assure that payments under this Section do not exceed available funds.

(c) Continued enrollment of individuals into the program created under this Section in any fiscal year is contingent upon continued enrollment of individuals into the Children's Health Insurance Program during that fiscal year.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 94-48, eff. 7-1-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.201)

Sec. 12-4.201. (a) Data warehouse concerning medical and related services. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may purchase services and materials associated with the costs of developing and implementing a data warehouse comprised of management and decision making information in regard to the liability associated with, and utilization of, medical and related services, out of moneys available for that purpose.

(b) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall perform all necessary administrative functions to expand its linearly-scalable data warehouse to encompass other healthcare data sources at both the Department of Human Services and the Department of Public Health. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall leverage the inherent capabilities of the data warehouse to accomplish this expansion with marginal additional technical administration. The purpose of this expansion is to allow for programmatic review and analysis including the interrelatedness among the various healthcare programs in order to ascertain effectiveness toward, and ultimate impact on, clients. Beginning July 1, 2005, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) shall supply quarterly reports to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability detailing progress toward this mandate.

(Source: P.A. 94-267, eff. 7-19-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-9) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-9)

Sec. 12-9. Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund; uses. The Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund shall consist of (1) recoveries by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) authorized by this Code in respect to applicants or recipients under Articles III, IV, V, and VI, including recoveries made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) from the estates of deceased recipients, (2) recoveries made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) in respect to applicants and recipients under the Children's Health Insurance Program, and (3) federal funds received on behalf of and earned by State universities and local governmental entities for services provided to applicants or recipients covered under this Code. The Fund shall be held as a special fund in the State Treasury.

Disbursements from this Fund shall be only (1) for the reimbursement of claims collected by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) through error or mistake, (2) for payment to persons or agencies designated as payees or co-payees on any instrument, whether or not negotiable, delivered to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as a recovery under this Section, such payment to be in proportion to the respective interests of the payees in the amount so collected, (3) for payments to the Department of Human Services for collections made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) on behalf of the Department of Human Services under this Code, (4) for payment of administrative expenses incurred in performing the activities authorized under this Code, (5) for payment of fees to persons or agencies in the performance of activities pursuant to the collection of monies owed the State that are collected under this Code, (6) for payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government which are required to be paid by State warrant by either the State or federal government, and (7) for payments to State universities and local governmental entities of federal funds for services provided to applicants or recipients covered under this Code. Disbursements from this Fund for purposes of items (4) and (5) of this paragraph shall be subject to appropriations from the Fund to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid).

The balance in this Fund on the first day of each calendar quarter, after payment therefrom of any amounts reimbursable to the federal government, and minus the amount reasonably anticipated to be needed to make the disbursements during that quarter authorized by this Section, shall be certified by the Director of Healthcare and Family Services the Illinois Department of Public Aid and transferred by the State Comptroller to the Drug Rebate Fund or the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury, as appropriate, within 30 days of the first day of each calendar quarter.

On July 1, 1999, the State Comptroller shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund (formerly the Public Assistance Recoveries Trust Fund) into the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-10, eff. 6-11-01; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-20, eff. 6-20-03; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-10.2a)

Sec. 12-10.2a. Child Support Administrative Fund.

(a) Beginning July 1, 2002, the Child Support Administrative Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund may be used, subject to appropriation, only for the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' (formerly Department of Public Aid's) child support administrative expenses, as defined in this Section.

(a-5) Moneys in the Child Support Administrative Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) all federal grants received by the Illinois Department funded by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act, except those federal funds received under the Title IV-D program as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund;

(2) incentive payments received by the Illinois Department from other states or political subdivisions of other states for the enforcement and collection by the Department of an assigned child support obligation in behalf of those other states or their political subdivisions pursuant to the provisions of Title IV-D of the Social Security Act;

(3) incentive payments retained by the Illinois Department from the amounts that otherwise would be paid to the federal government to reimburse the federal government's share of the support collection for the Department's enforcement and collection of an assigned support obligation on behalf of the State of Illinois pursuant to the provisions of Title IV-D of the Social Security Act;

(4) all fees charged by the Department for child support enforcement services, as authorized under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act and Section 10-1 of this Code, and any other fees, costs, fines, recoveries, or penalties provided for by State or federal law and received by the Department under the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act;

(5) all amounts appropriated by the General Assembly for deposit into the Child Support Administrative Fund; and

(6) any gifts, grants, donations, or awards from individuals, private businesses, nonprofit associations, and governmental entities.

(a-10) The moneys identified in subsection (a-5) of this Section shall include moneys receipted on or after July 1, 2002, regardless of the fiscal year in which the moneys were earned.

(b) As used in this Section, "child support administrative expenses" means administrative expenses, including payment to the Health Insurance Reserve Fund for group insurance costs at the rate certified by the Department of Central Management Services, except those required to be paid from the General Revenue Fund, including personal and contractual services, incurred by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), either directly or under its contracts with SDU contractors as defined in Section 10-26.2, in performing activities authorized by Article X of this Code, and including appropriations to other State agencies or offices. The term includes expenses incurred by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) in administering the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund and the State Disbursement Unit Revolving Fund.

(c) Child support administrative expenses incurred in fiscal year 2003 or thereafter shall be paid only from moneys appropriated from the Child Support Administrative Fund.

(d) Before April 1, 2003 and before April 1 of each year thereafter, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) shall provide notification to the General Assembly of the amount of the Department's child support administrative expenses expected to be incurred during the fiscal year beginning on the next July 1, including the estimated amount required for the operation of the State Disbursement Unit, which shall be separately identified in the annual administrative appropriation.

(e) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2002 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund to the Child Support Administrative Fund amounts as determined by the Department necessary to enable the Department to meet its child support administrative expenses for the then-current fiscal year. For any fiscal year, the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer may not transfer more than the total amount appropriated for the Department's child support administrative expenses for that fiscal year.

(f) By December 1, 2001, the Illinois Department shall provide a corrective action plan to the General Assembly regarding the establishment of accurate accounts in the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. The plan shall include those tasks that may be required to establish accurate accounts, the estimated time for completion of each of those tasks and the plan, and the estimated cost for completion of each of the tasks and the plan.

(Source: P.A. 92-44, eff. 7-1-01; 92-570, eff. 6-26-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-10.4)

Sec. 12-10.4. Juvenile Rehabilitation Services Medicaid Matching Fund. There is created in the State Treasury the Juvenile Rehabilitation Services Medicaid Matching Fund. Deposits to this Fund shall consist of all moneys received from the federal government for behavioral health services secured by counties under the Medicaid Rehabilitation Option pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act or under the Children's Health Insurance Program pursuant to the Children's Health Insurance Program Act and Title XXI of the Social Security Act for minors who are committed to mental health facilities by the Illinois court system and for residential placements secured by the Department of Juvenile Justice for minors as a condition of their parole.

Disbursements from the Fund shall be made, subject to appropriation, by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for grants to the Department of Juvenile Justice and those counties which secure behavioral health services ordered by the courts and which have an interagency agreement with the Department and submit detailed bills according to standards determined by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-10.5)

Sec. 12-10.5. Medical Special Purposes Trust Fund.

(a) The Medical Special Purposes Trust Fund ("the Fund") is created. Any grant, gift, donation, or legacy of money or securities that the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is authorized to receive under Section 12-4.18 or Section 12-4.19, and that is dedicated for functions connected with the administration of any medical program administered by the Department, shall be deposited into the Fund. All federal moneys received by the Department as reimbursement for disbursements authorized to be made from the Fund shall also be deposited into the Fund. In addition, federal moneys received on account of State expenditures made in connection with obtaining compliance with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) shall be deposited into the Fund.

(b) No moneys received from a service provider or a governmental or private entity that is enrolled with the Department as a provider of medical services shall be deposited into the Fund.

(c) Disbursements may be made from the Fund for the purposes connected with the grants, gifts, donations, or legacies deposited into the Fund, including, but not limited to, medical quality assessment projects, eligibility population studies, medical information systems evaluations, and other administrative functions that assist the Department in fulfilling its health care mission under the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-37, eff. 7-1-01; 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-13.1)

Sec. 12-13.1. Inspector General.

(a) The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General who shall function within the Illinois Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) and report to the Governor. The term of the Inspector General shall expire on the third Monday of January, 1997 and every 4 years thereafter.

(b) In order to prevent, detect, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, mismanagement, and misconduct, the Inspector General shall oversee the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's integrity functions, which include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) Investigation of misconduct by employees, vendors, contractors and medical providers.

(2) Audits of medical providers related to ensuring that appropriate payments are made for services rendered and to the recovery of overpayments.

(3) Monitoring of quality assurance programs generally related to the medical assistance program and specifically related to any managed care program.

(4) Quality control measurements of the programs administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(5) Investigations of fraud or intentional program violations committed by clients of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(6) Actions initiated against contractors or medical providers for any of the following reasons:

(A) Violations of the medical assistance program.

(B) Sanctions against providers brought in conjunction with the Department of Public Health or the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities).

(C) Recoveries of assessments against hospitals and long-term care facilities.

(D) Sanctions mandated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services against medical providers.

(E) Violations of contracts related to any managed care programs.

(7) Representation of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid at hearings with the Illinois Department of Professional Regulation in actions taken against professional licenses held by persons who are in violation of orders for child support payments.

(b-5) At the request of the Secretary of Human Services, the Inspector General shall, in relation to any function performed by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid, exercise one or more of the powers provided under this Section as if those powers related to the Department of Human Services; in such matters, the Inspector General shall report his or her findings to the Secretary of Human Services.

(c) The Inspector General shall have access to all information, personnel and facilities of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid), their employees, vendors, contractors and medical providers and any federal, State or local governmental agency that are necessary to perform the duties of the Office as directly related to public assistance programs administered by those departments. No medical provider shall be compelled, however, to provide individual medical records of patients who are not clients of the Medical Assistance Program. State and local governmental agencies are authorized and directed to provide the requested information, assistance or cooperation.

(d) The Inspector General shall serve as the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's primary liaison with law enforcement, investigatory and prosecutorial agencies, including but not limited to the following:

(1) The Department of State Police.

(2) The Federal Bureau of Investigation and other federal law enforcement agencies.

(3) The various Inspectors General of federal agencies overseeing the programs administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(4) The various Inspectors General of any other State agencies with responsibilities for portions of programs primarily administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(5) The Offices of the several United States Attorneys in Illinois.

(6) The several State's Attorneys.

The Inspector General shall meet on a regular basis with these entities to share information regarding possible misconduct by any persons or entities involved with the public aid programs administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(e) All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner that ensures the preservation of evidence for use in criminal prosecutions. If the Inspector General determines that a possible criminal act relating to fraud in the provision or administration of the medical assistance program has been committed, the Inspector General shall immediately notify the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit. If the Inspector General determines that a possible criminal act has been committed within the jurisdiction of the Office, the Inspector General may request the special expertise of the Department of State Police. The Inspector General may present for prosecution the findings of any criminal investigation to the Office of the Attorney General, the Offices of the several United States State Attorneys in Illinois or the several State's Attorneys.

(f) To carry out his or her duties as described in this Section, the Inspector General and his or her designees shall have the power to compel by subpoena the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books, electronic records and papers as directly related to public assistance programs administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid). No medical provider shall be compelled, however, to provide individual medical records of patients who are not clients of the Medical Assistance Program.

(g) The Inspector General shall report all convictions, terminations, and suspensions taken against vendors, contractors and medical providers to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and to any agency responsible for licensing or regulating those persons or entities.

(h) The Inspector General shall make annual reports, findings, and recommendations regarding the Office's investigations into reports of fraud, waste, abuse, mismanagement, or misconduct relating to any public aid programs administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) to the General Assembly and the Governor. These reports shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:

(1) Aggregate provider billing and payment information, including the number of providers at various Medicaid earning levels.

(2) The number of audits of the medical assistance program and the dollar savings resulting from those audits.

(3) The number of prescriptions rejected annually under the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's Refill Too Soon program and the dollar savings resulting from that program.

(4) Provider sanctions, in the aggregate, including terminations and suspensions.

(5) A detailed summary of the investigations undertaken in the previous fiscal year. These summaries shall comply with all laws and rules regarding maintaining confidentiality in the public aid programs.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall limit investigations by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the Department of Human Services that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in their capacity as the central administrative authorities responsible for administration of public aid programs in this State.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-725, eff. 8-7-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-16) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-16)

Sec. 12-16. Public Aid Claims Enforcement Division of Office of Attorney General. The Public Aid Claims Enforcement Division in the Office of the Attorney General, established pursuant to the 1949 Code, shall institute in behalf of the State all court actions referred to it by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this Code and other laws for the recovery of financial aid provided under the public aid programs, the enforcement of obligations of support, and the enforcement of other claims, penalties and obligations.

The Division shall be staffed with attorneys appointed by the Attorney General as Special Assistant Attorneys' General whose special duty it shall be to execute the aforesaid duties. The Assistant Attorneys' General shall be assigned exclusively to such duties. They may engage only in such political activities as are not prohibited by the Hatch Political Activity Act, Title 5, U.S.C.A., Sections 118i et seq.

The Attorney General may request the appropriate State's Attorney of a county or staff of the Child and Spouse Support Unit established under Section 10-3.1 of this Code to institute any such action in behalf of the State or to assist the Attorney General in the prosecution of actions instituted by his Office.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 800. The Energy Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, 8, and 13 as follows:

(305 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1403)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) the terms defined in Sections 3-101 through 3-121 of The Public Utilities Act have the meanings ascribed to them in that Act;

(b) "Department" means the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Economic Opportunity;

(c) "energy provider" means any utility, municipal utility, cooperative utility, or any other corporation or individual which provides winter energy services;

(d) "winter" means the period from November 1 of any year through April 30 of the following year.

(Source: P.A. 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(305 ILCS 20/4) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1404)

Sec. 4. Energy Assistance Program.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Economic Opportunity is hereby authorized to institute a program to ensure the availability and affordability of heating and electric service to low income citizens. The Department shall implement the program by rule promulgated pursuant to The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The program shall be consistent with the purposes and objectives of this Act and with all other specific requirements provided herein. The Department may enter into such contracts and other agreements with local agencies as may be necessary for the purpose of administering the energy assistance program.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as altering or limiting the authority conferred on the Illinois Commerce Commission by the Public Utilities Act to regulate all aspects of the provision of public utility service, including but not limited to the authority to make rules and adjudicate disputes between utilities and customers related to eligibility for utility service, deposits, payment practices, discontinuance of service, and the treatment of arrearages owing for previously rendered utility service.

(Source: P.A. 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(305 ILCS 20/8) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1408)

Sec. 8. Program Reports.

(a) The Department of Natural Resources shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly reports on September 30 biennially, beginning in 2003, evaluating the effectiveness of the energy assistance and weatherization policies authorized by this Act. The first report shall cover such effects during the first winter during which the program authorized by this Act, is in operation, and successive reports shall cover effects since the issuance of the preceding report.

(1) Reports issued pursuant to this Section shall be limited to, information concerning the effects of the policies authorized by this Act on (1) the ability of eligible applicants to obtain and maintain adequate and affordable winter energy services and (2) changes in the costs and prices of winter energy services for people who do not receive energy assistance pursuant to this Act.

(2) The Department of Natural Resources shall by September 30, 2002, in consultation with the Policy Advisory Council, determine the kinds of numerical and other information needed to conduct the evaluations required by this Section, and shall advise the Policy Advisory Council of such information needs in a timely manner. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Economic Opportunity, the Department of Human Services, and the Illinois Commerce Commission shall each provide such information as the Department of Natural Resources may require to ensure that the evaluation reporting requirement established by this Section can be met.

(b) On or before December 31, 2002, 2004, 2006, and 2007, the Department shall prepare a report for the General Assembly on the expenditure of funds appropriated for the programs authorized under this Act.

(c) On or before December 31 of each year in 2004, 2006, and 2007, the Department shall, in consultation with the Council, prepare and submit evaluation reports to the Governor and the General Assembly outlining the effects of the program designed under this Act on the following as it relates to the propriety of continuing the program:

(1) the definition of an eligible low income residential customer;

(2) access of low income residential customers to essential energy services;

(3) past due amounts owed to utilities by low income persons in Illinois;

(4) appropriate measures to encourage energy conservation, efficiency, and responsibility among low income residential customers;

(5) the activities of the Department in the development and implementation of energy assistance and related policies and programs, which characterizes progress toward meeting the objectives and requirements of this Act, and which recommends any statutory changes which might be needed to further such progress.

(d) The Department shall by September 30, 2002 in consultation with the Council determine the kinds of numerical and other information needed to conduct the evaluations required by this Section.

(e) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall require each public utility providing heating or electric service to compile and submit any numerical and other information needed by the Department of Natural Resources to meet its reporting obligations.

(Source: P.A. 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(305 ILCS 20/13)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2007)

Sec. 13. Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund.

(a) The Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund is authorized to receive moneys from voluntary donations from individuals, foundations, corporations, and other sources, moneys received pursuant to Section 17, and, by statutory deposit, the moneys collected pursuant to this Section. The Fund is also authorized to receive voluntary donations from individuals, foundations, corporations, and other sources, as well as contributions made in accordance with Section 507MM of the Illinois Income Tax Act. Subject to appropriation, the Department shall use moneys from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund for payments to electric or gas public utilities, municipal electric or gas utilities, and electric cooperatives on behalf of their customers who are participants in the program authorized by Section 4 of this Act, for the provision of weatherization services and for administration of the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund. The yearly expenditures for weatherization may not exceed 10% of the amount collected during the year pursuant to this Section. The yearly administrative expenses of the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund may not exceed 10% of the amount collected during that year pursuant to this Section.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 16-111 of the Public Utilities Act but subject to subsection (k) of this Section, each public utility, electric cooperative, as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, and municipal utility, as referenced in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, that is engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas within the State of Illinois shall, effective January 1, 1998, assess each of its customer accounts a monthly Energy Assistance Charge for the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund. The delivering public utility, municipal electric or gas utility, or electric or gas cooperative for a self-assessing purchaser remains subject to the collection of the fee imposed by this Section. The monthly charge shall be as follows:

(1) $0.40 per month on each account for residential electric service;

(2) $0.40 per month on each account for residential gas service;

(3) $4 per month on each account for non-residential electric service which had less than 10 megawatts of peak demand during the previous calendar year;

(4) $4 per month on each account for non-residential gas service which had distributed to it less than 4,000,000 therms of gas during the previous calendar year;

(5) $300 per month on each account for non-residential electric service which had 10 megawatts or greater of peak demand during the previous calendar year; and

(6) $300 per month on each account for non-residential gas service which had 4,000,000 or more therms of gas distributed to it during the previous calendar year.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "residential electric service" means electric utility service for household purposes delivered to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate, or electric utility service for household purposes delivered to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit;

(2) "residential gas service" means gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate, or gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit;

(3) "non-residential electric service" means electric utility service which is not residential electric service; and

(4) "non-residential gas service" means gas utility service which is not residential gas service.

(d) At least 45 days prior to the date on which it must begin assessing Energy Assistance Charges, each public utility engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas shall file with the Illinois Commerce Commission tariffs incorporating the Energy Assistance Charge in other charges stated in such tariffs.

(e) The Energy Assistance Charge assessed by electric and gas public utilities shall be considered a charge for public utility service.

(f) By the 20th day of the month following the month in which the charges imposed by the Section were collected, each public utility, municipal utility, and electric cooperative shall remit to the Department of Revenue all moneys received as payment of the Energy Assistance Charge on a return prescribed and furnished by the Department of Revenue showing such information as the Department of Revenue may reasonably require. If a customer makes a partial payment, a public utility, municipal utility, or electric cooperative may elect either: (i) to apply such partial payments first to amounts owed to the utility or cooperative for its services and then to payment for the Energy Assistance Charge or (ii) to apply such partial payments on a pro-rata basis between amounts owed to the utility or cooperative for its services and to payment for the Energy Assistance Charge.

(g) The Department of Revenue shall deposit into the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund all moneys remitted to it in accordance with subsection (f) of this Section.

(h) (Blank).

On or before December 31, 2002, the Department shall prepare a report for the General Assembly on the expenditure of funds appropriated from the Low-Income Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund for the program authorized under Section 4 of this Act.

(i) The Department of Revenue may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(j) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Economic Opportunity may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(k) The charges imposed by this Section shall only apply to customers of municipal electric or gas utilities and electric or gas cooperatives if the municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or an electric cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge provided by this Section, the municipal electric or gas utility or electric cooperative shall inform the Department of Revenue in writing of such decision when it begins to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative does not assess this charge, the Department may not use funds from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund to provide benefits to its customers under the program authorized by Section 4 of this Act.

In its use of federal funds under this Act, the Department may not cause a disproportionate share of those federal funds to benefit customers of systems which do not assess the charge provided by this Section.

This Section is repealed effective December 31, 2007 unless renewed by action of the General Assembly. The General Assembly shall consider the results of the evaluations described in Section 8 in its deliberations.

(Source: P.A. 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; 94-817, eff. 5-30-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 805. The Good Samaritan Energy Plan Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 25 as follows:

(305 ILCS 22/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Department" means the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

"LIHEAP" means the energy assistance program established under the Energy Assistance Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 93-285, eff. 7-22-03; 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; revised 9-20-06.)

(305 ILCS 22/25)

Sec. 25. Administration of Fund. The Department shall administer the Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund with the advice and consent of the Low Income Energy Assistance Policy Advisory Council established under the Energy Assistance Act of 1989. Donations received for the Fund shall be made available for the purpose of alleviating utility bill arrearages for households determined eligible for LIHEAP, except that the Department may use up to 10% of the moneys donated for the Fund for the expenses of the Department and the local area agency incurred in administering the Fund. Resources from the Fund shall be awarded to local area agencies that have existing contracts with the Department to administer LIHEAP in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-285, eff. 7-22-03; revised 9-20-06.)

Section 810. The Medicaid Revenue Act is amended by changing Section 1-2 as follows:

(305 ILCS 35/1-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 7051-2)

Sec. 1-2. Legislative finding and declaration. The General Assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares:

(1) It is in the public interest and it is the public policy of this State to provide for and improve the basic medical care and long-term health care services of its indigent, most vulnerable citizens.

(2) Preservation of health, alleviation of sickness, and correction of handicapping conditions for persons requiring maintenance support are essential if those persons are to have an opportunity to become self-supporting or to attain a greater capacity for self-care.

(3) For persons who are medically indigent but otherwise able to provide themselves a livelihood, it is of special importance to maintain their incentives for continued independence and preserve their limited resources for ordinary maintenance needed to prevent their total or substantial dependence on public support.

(4) The State has historically provided for care and services, in conjunction with the federal government, through the establishment and funding of a medical assistance program administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) and approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, that program being commonly referred to as "Medicaid".

(5) The Medicaid program is a funding partnership between the State of Illinois and the federal government, with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid being designated as the single State agency responsible for the administration of the program, but with the State historically receiving 50% of the amounts expended as medical assistance under the Medicaid program from the federal government.

(6) To raise a portion of Illinois' share of the Medicaid funds after July 1, 1991, the General Assembly enacted Public Act 87-13 to provide for the collection of provider participation fees from designated health care providers receiving Medicaid payments.

(7) On September 12, 1991, the Secretary of Health and Human Services proposed regulations that could have reduced the federal matching of Medicaid expenditures incurred on or after January 1, 1992 by the portion of the expenditures paid from funds raised through the provider participation fees.

(8) To prevent the Secretary from enacting those regulations but at the same time to impose certain statutory limitations on the means by which states may raise Medicaid funds eligible for federal matching, Congress enacted the Medicaid Voluntary Contribution and Provider-Specific Tax Amendments of 1991, Public Law 102-234.

(9) Public Law 102-234 provides for a state's share of Medicaid funding eligible for federal matching to be raised through "broad-based health care related taxes", meaning, generally, a tax imposed with respect to a class of health care items or services (or providers thereof) specified therein, which (i) is imposed on all items or services or providers in the class in the state, except federal or public providers, and (ii) is imposed uniformly on all providers in the class at the same rate with respect to the same base.

(10) The separate classes of health care items and services established by P.L. 102-234 include inpatient and outpatient hospital services, nursing facility services, and services of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded.

(11) The provider participation fees imposed under P.A. 87-13 may not meet the standards under P.L. 102-234.

(12) The resulting hospital Medicaid reimbursement reductions may force the closure of some hospitals now serving a disproportionately high number of the needy, who would then have to be cared for by remaining hospitals at substantial cost to those remaining hospitals.

(13) The hospitals in the State are all part of and benefit from a hospital system linked together in a number of ways, including common licensing and regulation, health care standards, education, research and disease control reporting, patient transfers for specialist care, and organ donor networks.

(14) Each hospital's patient population demographics, including the proportion of patients whose care is paid by Medicaid, is subject to change over time.

(15) Hospitals in the State have a special interest in the payment of adequate reimbursement levels for hospital care by Medicaid.

(16) Most hospitals are exempt from payment of most federal, State, and local income, sales, property, and other taxes.

(17) The hospital assessment enacted by this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 is the most efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds needed for hospital care reimbursement.

(18) Cook County Hospital and Oak Forest Hospital are public hospitals owned and operated by Cook County with unique fiscal problems, including a patient population that is primarily Medicaid or altogether nonpaying, that make an intergovernmental transfer payment arrangement a more appropriate means of financing than the regular hospital assessment and reimbursement provisions.

(19) Sole community hospitals provide access to essential care that would otherwise not be reasonably available in the community they serve, such that imposition of assessments on them in their precarious financial circumstances may force their closure and have the effect of reducing access to health care.

(20) Each nursing home's resident population demographics, including the proportion of residents whose care is paid by Medicaid, is subject to change over time in that, among other things, residents currently able to pay the cost of nursing home care may become dependent on Medicaid support for continued care and services as resources are depleted.

(21) As the citizens of the State age, increased pressures will be placed on limited facilities to provide reasonable levels of care for a greater number of geriatric residents, and all involved in the nursing home industry, providers and residents, have a special interest in the maintenance of adequate Medicaid support for all nursing facilities.

(22) The assessments on nursing homes enacted by this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 are the most efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds needed for nursing home care reimbursement.

(23) All intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities receive a high degree of Medicaid support and benefits and therefore have a special interest in the maintenance of adequate Medicaid support.

(24) The assessments on intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities enacted by this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 are the most efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds needed for reimbursement of providers of intermediate care for persons with developmental disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 87-861; 88-380; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 815. The Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(305 ILCS 40/20) (from Ch. 23, par. 7100-20)

Sec. 20. Nursing Home Grant Assistance Program.

(a) (Blank).

(b) The Department, subject to appropriation, may use up to 2.5% of the moneys received under this Act for the costs of administering and enforcing the program.

(c) Within 30 days after the end of the quarterly period in which the distribution agent is required to file the certification and make the payment required by this Act, and after verification with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid of the licensing status of the distribution agent, the Director shall order the payment to be made from appropriations made for the purposes of this Act.

(d) Disbursements shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Department. The Department shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the disbursement of the grants to qualified distributing agents for payment to the eligible individuals certified to the Department by the qualified distributing agents.

The amount to be paid per calendar quarter to a qualified distribution agent shall not exceed, for each eligible individual, $500 multiplied by a fraction equal to the number of days that the eligible individual's nursing home care was not paid for, in whole or in part, by a federal, State, or combined federal-State medical care program, divided by the number of calendar days in the quarter. Any amount the qualified distribution agent owes to the Department under Section 30 shall be deducted from the amount of the payment to the qualified distribution agent.

If the amount appropriated or available is insufficient to meet all or part of any quarterly payment certification, the payment certified to each qualified distributing agent shall be uniformly reduced by an amount which will permit a payment to be made to each qualified distributing agent. Within 10 days after receipt by the State Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the qualified distributing agents, the State Comptroller shall cause the warrants to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in that certification.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, as soon as is practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1994, the Department shall order that payments be made, subject to appropriation, to the appropriate distribution agents for grants to persons who were eligible individuals during the fourth quarter of fiscal year 1993 to the extent that those individuals did not receive a grant for that quarter or the fourth quarter of fiscal year 1992. An eligible individual, or a person acting on behalf of an eligible individual, must apply on or before December 31, 1994 for a grant under this subsection (e). The amount to be paid to each distribution agent under this subsection shall be calculated as provided in subsection (d). Distribution agents shall distribute the grants to eligible individuals as required in Section 30. For the purpose of determining grants under this subsection (e), a nursing home that is a distribution agent under this Act shall file with the Department, on or before September 30, 1994, a certification disclosing the information required under Section 15 with respect to the fourth quarter of fiscal year 1993.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 820. The Elder Abuse and Neglect Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 6607)

Sec. 7. Review. All services provided to an eligible adult shall be reviewed by the provider agency on at least a quarterly basis for up to one year to determine whether the service care plan should be continued or modified, except that, upon review, the Department on Aging, upon review, may grant a waiver to extend the service care plan for up to one an additional one year period.

(Source: P.A. 93-300, eff. 1-1-04; 93-301, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-22-03.)

Section 825. The Partnership for Long-Term Care Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 20, 25, 50, and 60 as follows:

(320 ILCS 35/15) (from Ch. 23, par. 6801-15)

Sec. 15. Program.

(a) The Department on Aging, in cooperation with the Department of Insurance, and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, shall administer the program.

(b) The Departments shall seek any federal waivers and approvals necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-328; 89-525, eff. 7-19-96; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 35/20) (from Ch. 23, par. 6801-20)

Sec. 20. Program participant eligibility for Medicaid.

(a) Individuals who participate in the program and have resources above the eligibility levels for receipt of medical assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Subchapter XIX (commencing with Section 1396) of Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code) shall be eligible to receive in-home supportive service benefits and Medicaid benefits through the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if, before becoming eligible for benefits, they have purchased a long-term care insurance policy covering long-term care that has been certified by the Department of Insurance under Section 30 of this Act.

(b) Individuals may purchase certified long-term care insurance policies which cover long-term care services in amounts equal to the resources they wish to protect.

(b-5) An individual may purchase a certified long-term care insurance policy which protects an individual's total assets. To be eligible for total asset protection, an amount equal to the average cost of 4 years of long-term care services in a nursing facility must be purchased.

(b-7) Although a resource has been protected by the Partnership Policy, income is to be applied to the cost of care when the insured becomes Medicaid eligible.

(c) The resource protection provided by this Act shall be effective only for long-term care policies which cover long-term care services, that are delivered, issued for delivery, or renewed on or after July 1, 1992.

(d) When an individual purchases a certified long-term care insurance policy, the issuer must notify the purchaser of the benefits of purchasing inflation protection for the long-term care insurance policy.

(e) An insurance company may offer for sale a policy as described in paragraph (b) of this Section or paragraph (b-5) of this Section or both types of policies.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 89-525, eff. 7-19-96; 90-14, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 35/25) (from Ch. 23, par. 6801-25)

Sec. 25. Protection of resources.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the resources, to the extent described in subsection (b), of an individual who (i) purchases a certified long-term care insurance policy which covers long-term care services and (ii) has received all the benefit payments that are payable under that policy or contract for items described in subsection (b) shall not be considered in determining:

(1) Medicaid eligibility.

(2) The amount of any Medicaid payment.

(3) The amount of any subsequent recovery by the State of payments made for medical services to the extent federal law permits.

(4) Eligibility for in-home supportive services.

(5) The amount of any payment for in-home supportive services.

(b) Benefit payments described in subsection (a) must be for one or more of the following:

(1) In-home supportive service benefits and Medicaid long-term care services specified in regulations by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(2) Long-term care services delivered to insured individuals in a community setting as part of an individual assessment and case management program provided by coordinating entities designated or approved by the Department on Aging.

(3) Services the insured individual received while meeting the disability criteria for eligibility for long-term care benefits established by the Departments.

(Source: P.A. 89-525, eff. 7-19-96; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 35/50) (from Ch. 23, par. 6801-50)

Sec. 50. Task force.

(a) An executive and legislative advisory task force shall be created to provide advice and assistance in designing and implementing the Partnership for Long-term Care Program. The task force shall be composed of representatives, designated by the director of each of the following agencies or departments:

(1) The Department on Aging.

(2) The Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services).

(3) (Blank).

(4) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, in its capacity as the successor of the Department of Insurance.

(5) The Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity).

(6) The Legislative Research Unit.

(b) The task force shall consult with persons knowledgeable of and concerned with long-term care, including, but not limited to the following:

(1) Consumers.

(2) Health care providers.

(3) Representatives of long-term care insurance companies and administrators of health care service plans that cover long-term care services.

(4) Providers of long-term care.

(5) Private employers.

(6) Academic specialists in long-term care and aging.

(7) Representatives of the public employees' and teachers' retirement systems.

(c) The task force shall be established, and its members designated, not later than March 1, 1993. The task force shall make recommendations to the Department on Aging concerning the policy components of the program on or before September 1, 1993.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-24-06.)

(320 ILCS 35/60) (from Ch. 23, par. 6801-60)

Sec. 60. Administrative costs.

(a) The Department on Aging, in conjunction with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Insurance, and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, shall submit applications for State or federal grants or federal waivers, or funding from nationally distributed private foundation grants, or insurance reimbursements to be used to pay the administrative expenses of implementation of the program. The Department on Aging, in conjunction with those other departments, also shall seek moneys from these same sources for the purpose of implementing the program, including moneys appropriated for that purpose.

(b) In implementing this Act, the Department on Aging may negotiate contracts, on a nonbid basis, with long-term care insurers, health care insurers, health care service plans, or both, for the provision of coverage for long-term care services that will meet the certification requirements set forth in Section 30 and the other requirements of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 8-24-06.)

Section 830. The All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, and 30 as follows:

(320 ILCS 40/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 6905)

Sec. 5. Legislative declaration. The General Assembly finds and declares that it is the intent of this Act to replicate the On Lok ONLOK program in San Francisco, California, that has proven to be cost-effective at both the state and federal levels. The PACE program is part of a national replication project authorized in Section 9412(b)(2) of the federal Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1986, which instructs the Secretary of the federal Department of Health and Human Services to grant Medicare and Medicaid waivers to permit not more than 10 public or nonprofit private community-based organizations in the country to provide comprehensive health care services on a capitated basis to frail elderly who are at risk of institutionalization. The General Assembly finds that by coordinating an extensive array of medical and nonmedical services, the needs of the participants will be met primarily in an outpatient environment in an adult day health center, in their homes, or in an institutional setting. The General Assembly finds that such a service delivery system will enhance the quality of life for the participant and offers the potential to reduce and cap costs to Illinois of the medical needs of the participants, including hospital and nursing home admissions.

The General Assembly declares that the purpose of this Act is to provide services that would foster the following goals:

To maintain eligible persons at home as an alternative to long-term institutionalization;

To provide optimum accessibility to various important social and health resources that are available to assist eligible persons in maintaining independent living;

To provide that eligible persons who are frail elderly but who have the capacity to remain in an independent living situation have access to the appropriate social and health services without which independent living would not be possible;

To coordinate, integrate, and link these social and health services by removing obstacles that impede or limit improvements in delivery of these services;

To provide the most efficient and effective use of capitated funds for the delivery of these social and health services;

To assure that capitation payments amount to no more than 95% of the amount paid under the Medicaid fee-for-service structure of an actuarially similar population.

(Source: P.A. 87-411; revised 10-13-05.)

(320 ILCS 40/10) (from Ch. 23, par. 6910)

Sec. 10. Services for eligible persons. Within the context of the PACE program established under this Act, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may include any or all of the services in Article V 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

An eligible person may elect to receive services from the PACE program. If such an election is made, the eligible person shall not remain eligible for payment through the regular Medicare or Medicaid program. All services and programs provided through the PACE program shall be provided in accordance with this Act. An eligible person may elect to disenroll from the PACE program at any time.

For purposes of this Act, "eligible person" means a frail elderly individual who voluntarily enrolls in the PACE program, whose income and resources do not exceed limits established by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and for whom a licensed physician certifies that such a program provides an appropriate alternative to institutionalized care. The term "frail elderly" means an individual who meets the age and functional eligibility requirements established by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 94-48, eff. 7-1-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 40/15) (from Ch. 23, par. 6915)

Sec. 15. Program implementation.

(a) Upon receipt of federal approval, the Illinois Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services) shall implement the PACE program pursuant to the provisions of the approved Title XIX State plan.

(b) Using a risk-based financing model, the nonprofit organization providing the PACE program shall assume responsibility for all costs generated by the PACE program participants, and it shall create and maintain a risk reserve fund that will cover any cost overages for any participant. The PACE program is responsible for the entire range of services in the consolidated service model, including hospital and nursing home care, according to participant need as determined by a multidisciplinary team. The nonprofit organization providing the PACE program is responsible for the full financial risk. Specific arrangements of the risk-based financing model shall be adopted and negotiated by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the nonprofit organization providing the PACE program, and the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 94-48, eff. 7-1-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 40/20) (from Ch. 23, par. 6920)

Sec. 20. Duties of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(a) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide a system for reimbursement for services to the PACE program.

(b) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop and implement a contract with the nonprofit organization providing the PACE program that sets forth contractual obligations for the PACE program, including but not limited to reporting and monitoring of utilization of costs of the program as required by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall acknowledge that it is participating in the national PACE project as initiated by Congress.

(d) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services or its designee shall be responsible for certifying the eligibility for services of all PACE program participants.

(Source: P.A. 87-411; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 40/25) (from Ch. 23, par. 6925)

Sec. 25. Rules and regulations. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall promulgate rules and regulations necessary to implement this Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-411; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 40/30) (from Ch. 23, par. 6930)

Sec. 30. Rate of payment. The General Assembly shall make appropriations to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to fund services under this Act provided at a monthly capitated rate. The Illinois Department shall annually renegotiate a monthly capitated rate for the contracted services based on the 95% of the Medicaid fee-for-service costs of an actuarially similar population.

(Source: P.A. 87-411; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 835. The Older Adult Services Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 15, 20, 30, and 35 as follows:

(320 ILCS 42/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Advisory Committee" means the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee.

"Certified nursing home" means any nursing home licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and certified under Title XIX of the Social Security Act to participate as a vendor in the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Comprehensive case management" means the assessment of needs and preferences of an older adult at the direction of the older adult or the older adult's designated representative and the arrangement, coordination, and monitoring of an optimum package of services to meet the needs of the older adult.

"Consumer-directed" means decisions made by an informed older adult from available services and care options, which may range from independently making all decisions and managing services directly to limited participation in decision-making, based upon the functional and cognitive level of the older adult.

"Coordinated point of entry" means an integrated access point where consumers receive information and assistance, assessment of needs, care planning, referral, assistance in completing applications, authorization of services where permitted, and follow-up to ensure that referrals and services are accessed.

"Department" means the Department on Aging, in collaboration with the departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and other relevant agencies and in consultation with the Advisory Committee, except as otherwise provided.

"Departments" means the Department on Aging, the departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and other relevant agencies in collaboration with each other and in consultation with the Advisory Committee, except as otherwise provided.

"Family caregiver" means an adult family member or another individual who is an uncompensated provider of home-based or community-based care to an older adult.

"Health services" means activities that promote, maintain, improve, or restore mental or physical health or that are palliative in nature.

"Older adult" means a person age 60 or older and, if appropriate, the person's family caregiver.

"Person-centered" means a process that builds upon an older adult's strengths and capacities to engage in activities that promote community life and that reflect the older adult's preferences, choices, and abilities, to the extent practicable.

"Priority service area" means an area identified by the Departments as being less-served with respect to the availability of and access to older adult services in Illinois. The Departments shall determine by rule the criteria and standards used to designate such areas.

"Priority service plan" means the plan developed pursuant to Section 25 of this Act.

"Provider" means any supplier of services under this Act.

"Residential setting" means the place where an older adult lives.

"Restructuring" means the transformation of Illinois' comprehensive system of older adult services from funding primarily a facility-based service delivery system to primarily a home-based and community-based system, taking into account the continuing need for 24-hour skilled nursing care and congregate housing with services.

"Services" means the range of housing, health, financial, and supportive services, other than acute health care services, that are delivered to an older adult with functional or cognitive limitations, or socialization needs, who requires assistance to perform activities of daily living, regardless of the residential setting in which the services are delivered.

"Supportive services" means non-medical assistance given over a period of time to an older adult that is needed to compensate for the older adult's functional or cognitive limitations, or socialization needs, or those services designed to restore, improve, or maintain the older adult's functional or cognitive abilities.

(Source: P.A. 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 42/15)

Sec. 15. Designation of lead agency; annual report.

(a) The Department on Aging shall be the lead agency for: the provision of services to older adults and their family caregivers; restructuring Illinois' service delivery system for older adults; and implementation of this Act, except where otherwise provided. The Department on Aging shall collaborate with the departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and any other relevant agencies, and shall consult with the Advisory Committee, in all aspects of these duties, except as otherwise provided in this Act.

(b) The Departments shall promulgate rules to implement this Act pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(c) On January 1, 2006, and each January 1 thereafter, the Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly on progress made in complying with this Act, impediments thereto, recommendations of the Advisory Committee, and any recommendations for legislative changes necessary to implement this Act. To the extent practicable, all reports required by this Act shall be consolidated into a single report.

(Source: P.A. 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 42/20)

Sec. 20. Priority service areas; service expansion.

(a) The requirements of this Section are subject to the availability of funding.

(b) The Department shall expand older adult services that promote independence and permit older adults to remain in their own homes and communities. Priority shall be given to both the expansion of services and the development of new services in priority service areas.

(c) Inventory of services. The Department shall develop and maintain an inventory and assessment of (i) the types and quantities of public older adult services and, to the extent possible, privately provided older adult services, including the unduplicated count, location, and characteristics of individuals served by each facility, program, or service and (ii) the resources supporting those services.

(d) Priority service areas. The Departments shall assess the current and projected need for older adult services throughout the State, analyze the results of the inventory, and identify priority service areas, which shall serve as the basis for a priority service plan to be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly no later than July 1, 2006, and every 5 years thereafter.

(e) Moneys appropriated by the General Assembly for the purpose of this Section, receipts from donations, grants, fees, or taxes that may accrue from any public or private sources to the Department for the purpose of this Section, and savings attributable to the nursing home conversion program as calculated in subsection (h) shall be deposited into the Department on Aging State Projects Fund. Interest earned by those moneys in the Fund shall be credited to the Fund.

(f) Moneys described in subsection (e) from the Department on Aging State Projects Fund shall be used for older adult services, regardless of where the older adult receives the service, with priority given to both the expansion of services and the development of new services in priority service areas. Fundable services shall include:

(1) Housing, health services, and supportive services:

(A) adult day care;

(B) adult day care for persons with Alzheimer's disease and related disorders;

(C) activities of daily living;

(D) care-related supplies and equipment;

(E) case management;

(F) community reintegration;

(G) companion;

(H) congregate meals;

(I) counseling and education;

(J) elder abuse prevention and intervention;

(K) emergency response and monitoring;

(L) environmental modifications;

(M) family caregiver support;

(N) financial;

(O) home delivered meals;

(P) homemaker;

(Q) home health;

(R) hospice;

(S) laundry;

(T) long-term care ombudsman;

(U) medication reminders;

(V) money management;

(W) nutrition services;

(X) personal care;

(Y) respite care;

(Z) residential care;

(AA) senior benefits outreach;

(BB) senior centers;

(CC) services provided under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, or sheltered care services that meet the requirements of the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, or services provided under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code (the Supportive Living Facilities Program);

(DD) telemedicine devices to monitor recipients in their own homes as an alternative to hospital care, nursing home care, or home visits;

(EE) training for direct family caregivers;

(FF) transition;

(GG) transportation;

(HH) wellness and fitness programs; and

(II) other programs designed to assist older adults in Illinois to remain independent and receive services in the most integrated residential setting possible for that person.

(2) Older Adult Services Demonstration Grants, pursuant to subsection (g) of this Section.

(g) Older Adult Services Demonstration Grants. The Department shall establish a program of demonstration grants to assist in the restructuring of the delivery system for older adult services and provide funding for innovative service delivery models and system change and integration initiatives. The Department shall prescribe, by rule, the grant application process. At a minimum, every application must include:

(1) The type of grant sought;

(2) A description of the project;

(3) The objective of the project;

(4) The likelihood of the project meeting identified needs;

(5) The plan for financing, administration, and evaluation of the project;

(6) The timetable for implementation;

(7) The roles and capabilities of responsible individuals and organizations;

(8) Documentation of collaboration with other service providers, local community government leaders, and other stakeholders, other providers, and any other stakeholders in the community;

(9) Documentation of community support for the project, including support by other service providers, local community government leaders, and other stakeholders;

(10) The total budget for the project;

(11) The financial condition of the applicant; and

(12) Any other application requirements that may be established by the Department by rule.

Each project may include provisions for a designated staff person who is responsible for the development of the project and recruitment of providers.

Projects may include, but are not limited to: adult family foster care; family adult day care; assisted living in a supervised apartment; personal services in a subsidized housing project; evening and weekend home care coverage; small incentive grants to attract new providers; money following the person; cash and counseling; managed long-term care; and at least one respite care project that establishes a local coordinated network of volunteer and paid respite workers, coordinates assignment of respite workers to caregivers and older adults, ensures the health and safety of the older adult, provides training for caregivers, and ensures that support groups are available in the community.

A demonstration project funded in whole or in part by an Older Adult Services Demonstration Grant is exempt from the requirements of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. To the extent applicable, however, for the purpose of maintaining the statewide inventory authorized by the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, the Department shall send to the Health Facilities Planning Board a copy of each grant award made under this subsection (g).

The Department, in collaboration with the Departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, shall evaluate the effectiveness of the projects receiving grants under this Section.

(h) No later than July 1 of each year, the Department of Public Health shall provide information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to enable the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid to annually document and verify the savings attributable to the nursing home conversion program for the previous fiscal year to estimate an annual amount of such savings that may be appropriated to the Department on Aging State Projects Fund and notify the General Assembly, the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, and the Advisory Committee of the savings no later than October 1 of the same fiscal year.

(Source: P.A. 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; 94-342, eff. 7-26-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 42/30)

Sec. 30. Nursing home conversion program.

(a) The Department of Public Health, in collaboration with the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, shall establish a nursing home conversion program. Start-up grants, pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of this Section, shall be made available to nursing homes as appropriations permit as an incentive to reduce certified beds, retrofit, and retool operations to meet new service delivery expectations and demands.

(b) Grant moneys shall be made available for capital and other costs related to: (1) the conversion of all or a part of a nursing home to an assisted living establishment or a special program or unit for persons with Alzheimer's disease or related disorders licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or a supportive living facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; (2) the conversion of multi-resident bedrooms in the facility into single-occupancy rooms; and (3) the development of any of the services identified in a priority service plan that can be provided by a nursing home within the confines of a nursing home or transportation services. Grantees shall be required to provide a minimum of a 20% match toward the total cost of the project.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the co-location of services or the development of multifunctional centers under subsection (f) of Section 20, including a nursing home offering community-based services or a community provider establishing a residential facility.

(d) A certified nursing home with at least 50% of its resident population having their care paid for by the Medicaid program is eligible to apply for a grant under this Section.

(e) Any nursing home receiving a grant under this Section shall reduce the number of certified nursing home beds by a number equal to or greater than the number of beds being converted for one or more of the permitted uses under item (1) or (2) of subsection (b). The nursing home shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted for 15 years. If the beds are reinstated by the provider or its successor in interest, the provider shall pay to the fund from which the grant was awarded, on an amortized basis, the amount of the grant. The Department shall establish, by rule, the bed reduction methodology for nursing homes that receive a grant pursuant to item (3) of subsection (b).

(f) Any nursing home receiving a grant under this Section shall agree that, for a minimum of 10 years after the date that the grant is awarded, a minimum of 50% of the nursing home's resident population shall have their care paid for by the Medicaid program. If the nursing home provider or its successor in interest ceases to comply with the requirement set forth in this subsection, the provider shall pay to the fund from which the grant was awarded, on an amortized basis, the amount of the grant.

(g) Before awarding grants, the Department of Public Health shall seek recommendations from the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. The Department of Public Health shall attempt to balance the distribution of grants among geographic regions, and among small and large nursing homes. The Department of Public Health shall develop, by rule, the criteria for the award of grants based upon the following factors:

(1) the unique needs of older adults (including those with moderate and low incomes), caregivers, and providers in the geographic area of the State the grantee seeks to serve;

(2) whether the grantee proposes to provide services in a priority service area;

(3) the extent to which the conversion or transition will result in the reduction of certified nursing home beds in an area with excess beds;

(4) the compliance history of the nursing home; and

(5) any other relevant factors identified by the Department, including standards of need.

(h) A conversion funded in whole or in part by a grant under this Section must not:

(1) diminish or reduce the quality of services available to nursing home residents;

(2) force any nursing home resident to involuntarily accept home-based or community-based services instead of nursing home services;

(3) diminish or reduce the supply and distribution of nursing home services in any community below the level of need, as defined by the Department by rule; or

(4) cause undue hardship on any person who requires nursing home care.

(i) The Department shall prescribe, by rule, the grant application process. At a minimum, every application must include:

(1) the type of grant sought;

(2) a description of the project;

(3) the objective of the project;

(4) the likelihood of the project meeting identified needs;

(5) the plan for financing, administration, and evaluation of the project;

(6) the timetable for implementation;

(7) the roles and capabilities of responsible individuals and organizations;

(8) documentation of collaboration with other service providers, local community government leaders, and other stakeholders, other providers, and any other stakeholders in the community;

(9) documentation of community support for the project, including support by other service providers, local community government leaders, and other stakeholders;

(10) the total budget for the project;

(11) the financial condition of the applicant; and

(12) any other application requirements that may be established by the Department by rule.

(j) A conversion project funded in whole or in part by a grant under this Section is exempt from the requirements of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. The Department of Public Health, however, shall send to the Health Facilities Planning Board a copy of each grant award made under this Section.

(k) Applications for grants are public information, except that nursing home financial condition and any proprietary data shall be classified as nonpublic data.

(l) The Department of Public Health may award grants from the Long Term Care Civil Money Penalties Fund established under Section 1919(h)(2)(A)(ii) of the Social Security Act and 42 CFR 488.422(g) if the award meets federal requirements.

(Source: P.A. 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(320 ILCS 42/35)

Sec. 35. Older Adult Services Advisory Committee.

(a) The Older Adult Services Advisory Committee is created to advise the directors of Aging, Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and Public Health on all matters related to this Act and the delivery of services to older adults in general.

(b) The Advisory Committee shall be comprised of the following:

(1) The Director of Aging or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair and shall be an ex officio and nonvoting member.

(2) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Director of Public Health or their designees, who shall serve as vice-chairs and shall be ex officio and nonvoting members.

(3) One representative each of the Governor's Office, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Veterans' Affairs, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department on Aging, the Department on Aging's State Long Term Care Ombudsman, the Illinois Housing Finance Authority, and the Illinois Housing Development Authority, each of whom shall be selected by his or her respective director and shall be an ex officio and nonvoting member.

(4) Thirty-two members appointed by the Director of Aging in collaboration with the directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and selected from the recommendations of statewide associations and organizations, as follows:

(A) One member representing the Area Agencies on Aging;

(B) Four members representing nursing homes or licensed assisted living establishments;

(C) One member representing home health agencies;

(D) One member representing case management services;

(E) One member representing statewide senior center associations;

(F) One member representing Community Care Program homemaker services;

(G) One member representing Community Care Program adult day services;

(H) One member representing nutrition project directors;

(I) One member representing hospice programs;

(J) One member representing individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementias;

(K) Two members representing statewide trade or labor unions;

(L) One advanced practice nurse with experience in gerontological nursing;

(M) One physician specializing in gerontology;

(N) One member representing regional long-term care ombudsmen;

(O) One member representing township officials;

(P) One member representing municipalities;

(Q) One member representing county officials;

(R) One member representing the parish nurse movement;

(S) One member representing pharmacists;

(T) Two members representing statewide organizations engaging in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of the senior population;

(U) Two family caregivers;

(V) Two citizen members over the age of 60;

(W) One citizen with knowledge in the area of gerontology research or health care law;

(X) One representative of health care facilities licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; and

(Y) One representative of primary care service providers.

The Director of Aging, in collaboration with the Directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, may appoint additional citizen members to the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee. Each such additional member must be either an individual age 60 or older or an uncompensated caregiver for a family member or friend who is age 60 or older.

(c) Voting members of the Advisory Committee shall serve for a term of 3 years or until a replacement is named. All members shall be appointed no later than January 1, 2005. Of the initial appointees, as determined by lot, 10 members shall serve a term of one year; 10 shall serve for a term of 2 years; and 12 shall serve for a term of 3 years. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of that term. The Advisory Committee shall meet at least quarterly and may meet more frequently at the call of the Chair. A simple majority of those appointed shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a majority of those present and voting shall be necessary for Advisory Committee action. Members of the Advisory Committee shall receive no compensation for their services.

(d) The Advisory Committee shall have an Executive Committee comprised of the Chair, the Vice Chairs, and up to 15 members of the Advisory Committee appointed by the Chair who have demonstrated expertise in developing, implementing, or coordinating the system restructuring initiatives defined in Section 25. The Executive Committee shall have responsibility to oversee and structure the operations of the Advisory Committee and to create and appoint necessary subcommittees and subcommittee members.

(e) The Advisory Committee shall study and make recommendations related to the implementation of this Act, including but not limited to system restructuring initiatives as defined in Section 25 or otherwise related to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-1031, eff. 8-27-04; 94-31, eff. 6-14-05; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 840. The Senior Pharmaceutical Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(320 ILCS 50/15)

Sec. 15. Senior Pharmaceutical Assistance Review Committee.

(a) The Senior Pharmaceutical Assistance Review Committee is created. The Committee shall consist of 17 members as follows:

(1) Twelve members appointed as follows: 2 members of the General Assembly and 1 member of the general public, appointed by the President of the Senate; 2 members of the General Assembly and 1 member of the general public, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; 2 members of the General Assembly and 1 member of the general public, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; and 2 members of the General Assembly and 1 member of the general public, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives. These members shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.

(2) The Director of Aging or his or her designee.

(3) The Director of Revenue or his or her designee.

(4) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or his or her designee.

(5) The Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee.

(6) The Director of Public Health or his or her designee.

(b) Members appointed from the general public shall represent the following associations, organizations, and interests: statewide membership-based senior advocacy organizations, pharmaceutical manufacturers, pharmacists, dispensing pharmacies, physicians, and providers of services to senior citizens. No single organization may have more than one representative appointed as a member from the general public.

(c) The President of the Senate and Speaker of the House of Representatives shall each designate one member of the Committee to serve as co-chairs.

(d) Committee members shall serve without compensation or reimbursement for expenses.

(e) The Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairs, but at least quarterly.

(f) The Committee may conduct public hearings to gather testimony from interested parties regarding pharmaceutical assistance for Illinois seniors, including changes to existing and proposed programs.

(g) The Committee may advise appropriate State agencies regarding the establishment of proposed programs or changes to existing programs. The State agencies shall take into consideration any recommendations made by the Committee.

(h) The Committee shall report to the General Assembly and the Governor annually or as it deems necessary regarding proposed or recommended changes to pharmaceutical assistance programs that benefit Illinois seniors and any associated costs of those changes.

(i) In the event that a prescription drug benefit is added to the federal Medicare program, the Committee shall make recommendations for the realignment of State-operated senior prescription drug programs so that Illinois residents qualify for at least substantially the same level of benefits available to them prior to implementation of the Medicare prescription drug benefit, provided that a resident remains eligible for such a State-operated program. The Committee shall report its recommendations to the General Assembly and the Governor by January 1, 2005.

(Source: P.A. 92-594, eff. 6-27-02; 93-843, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 845. The Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act is amended by changing Sections 30 and 35 and by renumbering Section 990 as follows:

(320 ILCS 55/30)

Sec. 30. Manufacturer rebate agreements.

(a) Taking into consideration the extent to which the State pays for prescription drugs under various State programs and the provision of assistance to disabled persons or eligible seniors under patient assistance programs, prescription drug discount programs, or other offers for free or reduced price medicine, clinical research projects, limited supply distribution programs, compassionate use programs, or programs of research conducted by or for a drug manufacturer, the Department, its agent, or the program administrator shall negotiate and enter into rebate agreements with drug manufacturers, as defined in this Act, to effect prescription drug price discounts. The Department or program administrator may exclude certain medications from the list of covered medications and may establish a preferred drug list as a basis for determining the discounts, administrative fees, or other fees or rebates under this Section.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Receipts from rebates shall be used to provide discounts for prescription drugs purchased by cardholders and to cover the cost of administering the program. Any receipts to be allocated to the Department shall be deposited into the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund, a trust fund created outside the State Treasury with the State Treasurer acting as ex officio custodian. Disbursements from the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund shall be made upon the direction of the Director of Central Management Services.

(Source: P.A. 93-18, eff. 7-1-03; 94-86, eff. 1-1-06; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 8-9-05.)

(320 ILCS 55/35)

Sec. 35. Program eligibility.

(a) Any person may apply to the Department or its program administrator for participation in the program in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department or its program administrator shall determine the eligibility of each applicant for the program within 30 days after the date of application. To participate in the program an eligible Illinois resident whose application has been approved must pay the fee determined by the Director upon enrollment and annually thereafter and shall receive a program identification card. The card may be presented to an authorized pharmacy to assist the pharmacy in verifying eligibility under the program. If the Department is the program administrator, the Department shall deposit the enrollment fees collected into the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund. If the program administrator is a contracted vendor, the vendor may collect the enrollment fees and must report all such collected enrollment fees to the Department on a regular basis. The enrollment fees deposited into the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund must be separately accounted for by the Department. If 2 or more persons are eligible for any benefit under this Act and are members of the same household, each participating household member shall apply and pay the fee required for the purpose of obtaining an identification card. To participate in the program, an applicant must (i) be a resident of Illinois and (ii) have household income equal to or less than 300% of the Federal Poverty Level.

(b) Proceeds from annual enrollment fees shall be used to offset the administrative cost of this Act. The Department may reduce the annual enrollment fee by rule if the revenue from the enrollment fees is in excess of the costs to carry out the program.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 93-18, eff. 7-1-03; 94-86, eff. 1-1-06; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 8-9-05.)

(320 ILCS 55/90) (was 320 ILCS 55/990)

Sec. 90 990. (Amendatory provisions; text omitted).

(Source: P.A. 93-18, eff. 7-1-03; text omitted; revised 9-28-03.)

Section 850. The Family Caregiver Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(320 ILCS 65/16)

Sec. 16. Family caregiver demonstration grant. The Department shall seek federal funding for the establishment and assessment of a Family Caregiver Training and Support Demonstration Project. The Department is authorized to fund 2 sites, one in a rural community and one in a more urban area. The Department shall adopt rules governing participation and oversight of the program. The Department shall seek technical assistance from the Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) and the Department of Human Services. The Department shall advise the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the effectiveness of the program within 6 months after the conclusion of the demonstration period.

(Source: P.A. 93-864, eff. 8-5-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 855. The Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(325 ILCS 2/45)

Sec. 45. Medical assistance. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a newborn infant relinquished in accordance with this Act shall be deemed eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, and a hospital providing medical services to such an infant shall be reimbursed for those services in accordance with the payment methodologies authorized under that Code. In addition, for any day that a hospital has custody of a newborn infant relinquished in accordance with this Act and the infant does not require medically necessary care, the hospital shall be reimbursed by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid at the general acute care per diem rate, in accordance with 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.270(c).

(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 860. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 7.20 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/7.20)

Sec. 7.20. Inter-agency agreements for information. The Department shall enter into an inter-agency agreement with the Secretary of State to establish a procedure by which employees of the Department may have immediate access to driver's license records maintained by the Secretary of State if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall enter into an inter-agency agreement with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) to establish a procedure by which employees of the Department may have immediate access to records, files, papers, and communications (except medical, alcohol or drug assessment or treatment, mental health, or any other medical records) of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, county departments of public aid, the Department of Human Services, and local governmental units receiving State or federal funds or aid to provide public aid, if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-614, eff. 9-7-94; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 865. The Early Intervention Services System Act is amended by changing Sections 4, 5, and 13.5 as follows:

(325 ILCS 20/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 4154)

Sec. 4. Illinois Interagency Council on Early Intervention.

(a) There is established the Illinois Interagency Council on Early Intervention. The Council shall be composed of at least 15 but not more than 25 members. The members of the Council and the designated chairperson of the Council shall be appointed by the Governor. The Council member representing the lead agency may not serve as chairperson of the Council. The Council shall be composed of the following members:

(1) The Secretary of Human Services (or his or her designee) and 2 additional representatives of the Department of Human Services designated by the Secretary, plus the Directors (or their designees) of the following State agencies involved in the provision of or payment for early intervention services to eligible infants and toddlers and their families:

(A) Illinois State Board of Education;

(B) (Blank);

(C) (Blank);

(D) Illinois Department of Children and Family Services;

(E) University of Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children;

(F) Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid;

(G) Illinois Department of Public Health;

(H) (Blank);

(I) Illinois Planning Council on Developmental Disabilities; and

(J) Illinois Department of Insurance.

(2) Other members as follows:

(A) At least 20% of the members of the Council shall be parents, including minority parents, of infants or toddlers with disabilities or children with disabilities aged 12 or younger, with knowledge of, or experience with, programs for infants and toddlers with disabilities. At least one such member shall be a parent of an infant or toddler with a disability or a child with a disability aged 6 or younger;

(B) At least 20% of the members of the Council shall be public or private providers of early intervention services;

(C) One member shall be a representative of the General Assembly; and

(D) One member shall be involved in the preparation of professional personnel to serve infants and toddlers similar to those eligible for services under this Act.

The Council shall meet at least quarterly and in such places as it deems necessary. Terms of the initial members appointed under paragraph (2) shall be determined by lot at the first Council meeting as follows: of the persons appointed under subparagraphs (A) and (B), one-third shall serve one year terms, one-third shall serve 2 year terms, and one-third shall serve 3 year terms; and of the persons appointed under subparagraphs (C) and (D), one shall serve a 2 year term and one shall serve a 3 year term. Thereafter, successors appointed under paragraph (2) shall serve 3 year terms. Once appointed, members shall continue to serve until their successors are appointed. No member shall be appointed to serve more than 2 consecutive terms.

Council members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for reasonable costs incurred in the performance of their duties, including costs related to child care, and parents may be paid a stipend in accordance with applicable requirements.

The Council shall prepare and approve a budget using funds appropriated for the purpose to hire staff, and obtain the services of such professional, technical, and clerical personnel as may be necessary to carry out its functions under this Act. This funding support and staff shall be directed by the lead agency.

(b) The Council shall:

(1) advise and assist the lead agency in the performance of its responsibilities including but not limited to the identification of sources of fiscal and other support services for early intervention programs, and the promotion of interagency agreements which assign financial responsibility to the appropriate agencies;

(2) advise and assist the lead agency in the preparation of applications and amendments to applications;

(3) review and advise on relevant regulations and standards proposed by the related State agencies;

(4) advise and assist the lead agency in the development, implementation and evaluation of the comprehensive early intervention services system; and

(5) prepare and submit an annual report to the Governor and to the General Assembly on the status of early intervention programs for eligible infants and toddlers and their families in Illinois. The annual report shall include (i) the estimated number of eligible infants and toddlers in this State, (ii) the number of eligible infants and toddlers who have received services under this Act and the cost of providing those services, (iii) the estimated cost of providing services under this Act to all eligible infants and toddlers in this State, and (iv) data and other information as is requested to be included by the Legislative Advisory Committee established under Section 13.50 of this Act. The report shall be posted by the lead agency on the early intervention website as required under paragraph (f) of Section 5 of this Act.

No member of the Council shall cast a vote on or participate substantially in any matter which would provide a direct financial benefit to that member or otherwise give the appearance of a conflict of interest under State law. All provisions and reporting requirements of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act shall apply to Council members.

(Source: P.A. 91-357; eff. 7-29-99; 92-307, eff. 8-9-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(325 ILCS 20/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 4155)

Sec. 5. Lead Agency. The Department of Human Services is designated the lead agency and shall provide leadership in establishing and implementing the coordinated, comprehensive, interagency and interdisciplinary system of early intervention services. The lead agency shall not have the sole responsibility for providing these services. Each participating State agency shall continue to coordinate those early intervention services relating to health, social service and education provided under this authority.

The lead agency is responsible for carrying out the following:

(a) The general administration, supervision, and monitoring of programs and activities receiving assistance under Section 673 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 United States Code 1473).

(b) The identification and coordination of all available resources within the State from federal, State, local and private sources.

(c) The development of procedures to ensure that services are provided to eligible infants and toddlers and their families in a timely manner pending the resolution of any disputes among public agencies or service providers.

(d) The resolution of intra-agency and interagency regulatory and procedural disputes.

(e) The development and implementation of formal interagency agreements, and the entry into such agreements, between the lead agency and (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, (ii) the University of Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children, and (iii) other relevant State agencies that:

(1) define the financial responsibility of each agency for paying for early intervention services (consistent with existing State and federal law and rules, including the requirement that early intervention funds be used as the payor of last resort), a hierarchical order of payment as among the agencies for early intervention services that are covered under or may be paid by programs in other agencies, and procedures for direct billing, collecting reimbursements for payments made, and resolving service and payment disputes; and

(2) include all additional components necessary to ensure meaningful cooperation and coordination.

Interagency agreements under this paragraph (e) must be reviewed and revised to implement the purposes of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly no later than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

(f) The maintenance of an early intervention website. Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the lead agency shall post and keep posted on this website the following: (i) the current annual report required under subdivision (b)(5) of Section 4 of this Act, and the annual reports of the prior 3 years, (ii) the most recent Illinois application for funds prepared under Section 637 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act filed with the United States Department of Education, (iii) proposed modifications of the application prepared for public comment, (iv) notice of Council meetings, Council agendas, and minutes of its proceedings for at least the previous year, (v) proposed and final early intervention rules, (vi) requests for proposals, and (vii) all reports created for dissemination to the public that are related to the early intervention program, including reports prepared at the request of the Council, the General Assembly, and the Legislative Advisory Committee established under Section 13.50 of this Act. Each such document shall be posted on the website within 3 working days after the document's completion.

(Source: P.A. 92-307, eff. 8-9-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(325 ILCS 20/13.5)

Sec. 13.5. Other programs.

(a) When an application or a review of eligibility for early intervention services is made, and at any eligibility redetermination thereafter, the family shall be asked if it is currently enrolled in Medicaid, KidCare, or the Title V program administered by the University of Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children. If the family is enrolled in any of these programs, that information shall be put on the individualized family service plan and entered into the computerized case management system, and shall require that the individualized family services plan of a child who has been found eligible for services through the Division of Specialized Care for Children state that the child is enrolled in that program. For those programs in which the family is not enrolled, a preliminary eligibility screen shall be conducted simultaneously for (i) medical assistance (Medicaid) under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, (ii) children's health insurance program (KidCare) benefits under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, and (iii) Title V maternal and child health services provided through the Division of Specialized Care for Children of the University of Illinois.

(b) For purposes of determining family fees under subsection (f) of Section 13 and determining eligibility for the other programs and services specified in items (i) through (iii) of subsection (a), the lead agency shall develop and use, within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, with the cooperation of the Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) and the Division of Specialized Care for Children of the University of Illinois, a screening device that provides sufficient information for the early intervention regional intake entities or other agencies to establish eligibility for those other programs and shall, in cooperation with the Illinois Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) and the Division of Specialized Care for Children, train the regional intake entities on using the screening device.

(c) When a child is determined eligible for and enrolled in the early intervention program and has been found to at least meet the threshold income eligibility requirements for Medicaid or KidCare, the regional intake entity shall complete a KidCare/Medicaid application with the family and forward it to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services' Public Aid's KidCare Unit for a determination of eligibility.

(d) With the cooperation of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the lead agency shall establish procedures that ensure the timely and maximum allowable recovery of payments for all early intervention services and allowable administrative costs under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act and shall include those procedures in the interagency agreement required under subsection (e) of Section 5 of this Act.

(e) For purposes of making referrals for final determinations of eligibility for KidCare benefits under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act and for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the lead agency shall require each early intervention regional intake entity to enroll as a "KidCare agent" in order for the entity to complete the KidCare application as authorized under Section 22 of the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(f) For purposes of early intervention services that may be provided by the Division of Specialized Care for Children of the University of Illinois (DSCC), the lead agency shall establish procedures whereby the early intervention regional intake entities may determine whether children enrolled in the early intervention program may also be eligible for those services, and shall develop, within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, (i) the inter-agency agreement required under subsection (e) of Section 5 of this Act, establishing that early intervention funds are to be used as the payor of last resort when services required under an individualized family services plan may be provided to an eligible child through the DSCC, and (ii) training guidelines for the regional intake entities and providers that explain eligibility and billing procedures for services through DSCC.

(g) The lead agency shall require that an individual applying for or renewing enrollment as a provider of services in the early intervention program state whether or not he or she is also enrolled as a DSCC provider. This information shall be noted next to the name of the provider on the computerized roster of Illinois early intervention providers, and regional intake entities shall make every effort to refer families eligible for DSCC services to these providers.

(Source: P.A. 92-307, eff. 8-9-01; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 870. The Interagency Board for Children who are Deaf or Hard-of-Hearing and have an Emotional or Behavioral Disorder Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(325 ILCS 35/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 6704)

Sec. 4. Appointment. The Board shall consist of 12 members, one of whom shall be appointed by the Governor. The State Superintendent of Education shall appoint 2 members, one of whom shall be a parent of a child who is deaf or hard-of-hearing and has an emotional or behavioral disorder, and one of whom shall be an employee of the agency. The Director of Children and Family Services shall appoint 2 members, one of whom shall be a parent, foster parent, or legal guardian of a child who is deaf or hard-of-hearing and has an emotional or behavioral disorder, and one of whom shall be an employee of the agency. The Secretary of Human Services shall appoint 4 members, 2 of whom shall be parents of children who are deaf or hard of hearing and have an emotional or behavioral disorder, and 2 of whom shall be employees of the agency.

The Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall appoint one member who shall be an employee of the agency. The Community and Residential Services Authority for Behavior Disturbed and Severe Emotionally Disturbed Students shall appoint one member who shall be an employee of the Authority, and the Director of the Division of Specialized Care for Children shall appoint one member who shall be an employee of that agency.

Each appointing authority shall give preference to any qualified deaf employee when making appointments to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 89-680, eff. 1-1-97; 90-14, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 875. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 5-107 and 5-107.1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/5-107) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 5-107)

Sec. 5-107. Remittances from intermediary agencies under Title XVIII of the Federal Social Security Act for services to persons in State facilities shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and placed in the Mental Health Fund. Payments received from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act for services to persons in State facilities shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and shall be placed in the General Revenue Fund.

The Auditor General shall audit or cause to be audited all amounts collected by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 80-1414; revised 12-15-05.)

(405 ILCS 5/5-107.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 5-107.1)

Sec. 5-107.1. Remittances from or on behalf of licensed long-term care facilities through Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid reimbursement and monies from other funds for Day Training Programs for clients with a developmental disability shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and placed in the Mental Health Fund.

The Auditor General shall audit or cause to be audited all amounts collected by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 88-380; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 880. The Children's Mental Health Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(405 ILCS 49/5)

Sec. 5. Children's Mental Health Plan.

(a) The State of Illinois shall develop a Children's Mental Health Plan containing short-term and long-term recommendations to provide comprehensive, coordinated mental health prevention, early intervention, and treatment services for children from birth through age 18. This Plan shall include but not be limited to:

(1) Coordinated provider services and interagency referral networks for children from birth through age 18 to maximize resources and minimize duplication of services.

(2) Guidelines for incorporating social and emotional development into school learning standards and educational programs, pursuant to Section 15 of this Act.

(3) Protocols for implementing screening and assessment of children prior to any admission to an inpatient hospital for psychiatric services, pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 5-5.23 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(4) Recommendations regarding a State budget for children's mental health prevention, early intervention, and treatment across all State agencies.

(5) Recommendations for State and local mechanisms for integrating federal, State, and local funding sources for children's mental health.

(6) Recommendations for building a qualified and adequately trained workforce prepared to provide mental health services for children from birth through age 18 and their families.

(7) Recommendations for facilitating research on best practices and model programs, and dissemination of this information to Illinois policymakers, practitioners, and the general public through training, technical assistance, and educational materials.

(8) Recommendations for a comprehensive, multi-faceted public awareness campaign to reduce the stigma of mental illness and educate families, the general public, and other key audiences about the benefits of children's social and emotional development, and how to access services.

(9) Recommendations for creating a quality-driven children's mental health system with shared accountability among key State agencies and programs that conducts ongoing needs assessments, uses outcome indicators and benchmarks to measure progress, and implements quality data tracking and reporting systems.

(b) The Children's Mental Health Partnership (hereafter referred to as "the Partnership") is created. The Partnership shall have the responsibility of developing and monitoring the implementation of the Children's Mental Health Plan as approved by the Governor. The Children's Mental Health Partnership shall be comprised of: the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee; the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; the directors of the departments of Children and Family Services, Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, Public Health, and Juvenile Justice, or their designees; the head of the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, or his or her designee; the Attorney General or his or her designee; up to 25 representatives of community mental health authorities and statewide mental health, children and family advocacy, early childhood, education, health, substance abuse, violence prevention, and juvenile justice organizations or associations, to be appointed by the Governor; and 2 members of each caucus of the House of Representatives and Senate appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and the President of the Senate, respectively. The Governor shall appoint the Partnership Chair and shall designate a Governor's staff liaison to work with the Partnership.

(c) The Partnership shall submit a Preliminary Plan to the Governor on September 30, 2004 and shall submit the Final Plan on June 30, 2005. Thereafter, on September 30 of each year, the Partnership shall submit an annual report to the Governor on the progress of Plan implementation and recommendations for revisions in the Plan. The Final Plan and annual reports submitted in subsequent years shall include estimates of savings achieved in prior fiscal years under subsection (a) of Section 5-5.23 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and federal financial participation received under subsection (b) of Section 5-5.23 of that Code. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide technical assistance in developing these estimates and reports.

(Source: P.A. 93-495, eff. 8-8-03; 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

Section 885. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/14) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1314)

Sec. 14. Departmental regulations and activities. The Department shall establish and publish regulations and guidelines governing permissible limits of lead in and about residential buildings and dwellings.

The Department shall also initiate activities that:

(a) Will either provide for or support the monitoring and validation of all medical laboratories and , private and public hospitals that perform lead determination tests on human blood or other tissues. ;

(b) Will, subject to Section 7.2 of this Act, provide laboratory testing of blood specimens for lead content, to any physician, hospital, clinic, free clinic, municipality, or private organization organizations that cannot secure or provide the services through other sources. The Department shall not assume responsibility for blood lead analysis required in programs currently in operation. ;

(c) Will develop or encourage the development of appropriate programs and studies to identify sources of lead intoxication and assist other entities in the identification of lead in children's blood and the sources of that intoxication. ;

(d) May provide technical assistance and consultation to local, county, or regional governmental or private agencies for the promotion and development of lead poisoning prevention programs.

(e) Will provide recommendations by the Department on the subject of identification and treatment of for lead poisoning.

(f) Will maintain a clearinghouse of information, and will develop additional educational materials, on (i) lead hazards to children, (ii) lead poisoning prevention, (iii) lead poisoning screening, (iv) lead mitigation, abatement, and disposal, and (v) on health hazards during abatement. The Department shall make this information available to the general public.

(Source: P.A. 87-175; 87-1144; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 890. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 6, 6.4, and 7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-6)

Sec. 6. Powers and duties of Departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(a) The Department of Public Health shall have the duties and responsibilities required by Sections 2, 6.1, 6.2, and 6.4.

(b) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall have the duties and responsibilities required by Sections 6.3 and 7.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 70/6.4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-6.4)

Sec. 6.4. Sexual assault evidence collection program.

(a) There is created a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program to facilitate the prosecution of persons accused of sexual assault. This program shall be administered by the Illinois State Police. The program shall consist of the following: (1) distribution of sexual assault evidence collection kits which have been approved by the Illinois State Police to hospitals that request them, or arranging for such distribution by the manufacturer of the kits, (2) collection of the kits from hospitals after the kits have been used to collect evidence, (3) analysis of the collected evidence and conducting of laboratory tests, (4) maintaining the chain of custody and safekeeping of the evidence for use in a legal proceeding, and (5) the comparison of the collected evidence with the genetic marker grouping analysis information maintained by the Department of State Police under Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections and with the information contained in the Federal Bureau of Investigation's National DNA database; provided the amount and quality of genetic marker grouping results obtained from the evidence in the sexual assault case meets the requirements of both the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) policies. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the State Police Evidence Collection Kit, also known as "S.P.E.C.K.". A sexual assault evidence collection kit may not be released by a hospital without the written consent of the sexual assault survivor. In the case of a survivor who is a minor 13 years of age or older, evidence and information concerning the alleged sexual assault may be released at the written request of the minor. If the survivor is a minor who is under 13 years of age, evidence and information concerning the alleged sexual assault may be released at the written request of the parent, guardian, investigating law enforcement officer, or Department of Children and Family Services. Any health care professional, including any physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or nurse, sexual assault nurse examiner, and any health care institution, including any hospital, who provides evidence or information to a law enforcement officer pursuant to a written request as specified in this Section is immune from any civil or professional liability that might arise from those actions, with the exception of willful or wanton misconduct. The immunity provision applies only if all of the requirements of this Section are met.

(a-5) All sexual assault evidence collected using the State Police Evidence Collection Kits before January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-781) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that have not been previously analyzed and tested by the Department of State Police shall be analyzed and tested within 2 years after receipt of all necessary evidence and standards into the State Police Laboratory if sufficient staffing and resources are available. All sexual assault evidence collected using the State Police Evidence Collection Kits on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-781) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be analyzed and tested by the Department of State Police within one year after receipt of all necessary evidence and standards into the State Police Laboratory if sufficient staffing and resources are available.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall administer a program to train hospitals and hospital personnel participating in the sexual assault evidence collection program, in the correct use and application of the sexual assault evidence collection kits. A sexual assault nurse examiner may conduct examinations using the sexual assault evidence collection kits, without the presence or participation of a physician. The Department of Public Health shall cooperate with the Illinois State Police in this program as it pertains to medical aspects of the evidence collection.

(c) In this Section, "sexual assault nurse examiner" means a registered nurse who has completed a sexual assault nurse examiner (SANE) training program that meets the Forensic Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner Education Guidelines established by the International Association of Forensic Nurses.

(Source: P.A. 92-514, eff. 1-1-02; 93-781, eff. 1-1-05; 93-962, eff. 8-20-04; revised 10-14-04.)

(410 ILCS 70/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-7)

Sec. 7. Hospital charges and reimbursement. When any hospital or ambulance provider furnishes emergency services to any alleged sexual assault survivor, as defined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pursuant to Section 6.3 of this Act, who is neither eligible to receive such services under the Illinois Public Aid Code nor covered as to such services by a policy of insurance, the hospital and ambulance provider shall furnish such services to that person without charge and shall be entitled to be reimbursed for its billed charges in providing such services by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 895. The Newborn Eye Pathology Act is amended by changing the title of the Act as follows:

(410 ILCS 223/Act title)

An Act concerning public health, which may be referred to as Amadin Adamin and Ryan's Law.

Section 900. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. When used in this Act:

(a) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(b) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(c) "HIV" means the Human Immunodeficiency Virus or any other identified causative agent of AIDS.

(d) "Written informed consent" means an agreement in writing executed by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized representative without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress or other form of constraint or coercion, which entails at least the following:

(1) a fair explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations and the meaning of its results; and

(2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law.

(e) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(f) "Health care provider" means any health care professional, nurse, paramedic, psychologist or other person providing medical, nursing, psychological, or other health care services of any kind.

(f-5) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, or (vi) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a state or local public health department.

(g) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(h) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility or other legal entity.

(Source: P.A. 93-205, eff. 1-1-04; 93-482, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-12-03.)

Section 905. The Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 6 and 7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 405/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6956)

Sec. 6. ADA Advisory Committee. There is created the Alzheimer's Disease Advisory Committee consisting of 21 voting members appointed by the Director of the Department, as well as 5 nonvoting members as hereinafter provided in this Section. The Director or his designee shall serve as one of the 21 voting members and as the Chairman of the Committee. Those appointed as voting members shall include persons who are experienced in research and the delivery of services to victims and their families. Such members shall include 4 physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, one representative of a postsecondary educational institution which administers or is affiliated with a medical center in the State, one representative of a licensed hospital, one registered nurse, one representative of a long term care facility under the Nursing Home Care Act, one representative of an area agency on aging as defined by Section 3.07 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, one social worker, one representative of an organization established under the Illinois Insurance Code for the purpose of providing health insurance, 5 family members or representatives of victims of Alzheimer's disease and related disorders, and 4 members of the general public. Among the physician appointments shall be persons with specialties in the fields of neurology, family medicine, psychiatry and pharmacology. Among the general public members, at least 2 appointments shall include persons 65 years of age or older.

In addition to the 21 voting members, the Secretary of Human Services (or his or her designee) and one additional representative of the Department of Human Services designated by the Secretary plus the Directors of the following State agencies or their designees shall serve as nonvoting members: Department on Aging, Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, and Guardianship and Advocacy Commission.

Each voting member appointed by the Director of Public Health shall serve for a term of 2 years, and until his successor is appointed and qualified. Members of the Committee shall not be compensated but shall be reimbursed for expenses actually incurred in the performance of their duties. No more than 11 voting members may be of the same political party. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments.

The Committee shall review all State programs and services provided by State agencies that are directed toward persons with Alzheimer's disease and related dementias, and recommend changes to improve the State's response to this serious health problem.

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 405/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6957)

Sec. 7. Regional ADA center funding. Pursuant to appropriations enacted by the General Assembly, the Department shall provide funds to hospitals affiliated with each Regional ADA Center for necessary research and for the development and maintenance of services for victims of Alzheimer's disease and related disorders and their families. For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2003, and each year thereafter, the Department shall effect payments under this Section to hospitals affiliated with each Regional ADA Center through the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under the Excellence in Alzheimer's Disease Center Treatment Act. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall annually report to the Advisory Committee established under this Act regarding the funding of centers under this Act. The Department shall include the annual expenditures for this purpose in the plan required by Section 5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-20, eff. 6-20-03; 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 910. The Excellence in Alzheimer's Disease Center Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 25, 30, 45, and 55 as follows:

(410 ILCS 407/25)

Sec. 25. The Alzheimer's Disease Center Clinical Fund.

(a) Each institution defined as a Qualified Academic Medical Center Hospital - Pre 1996 Designation shall be eligible for payments from the Alzheimer's Disease Center Clinical Fund.

(b) Appropriations allocated to this Fund shall be divided among the qualifying hospitals. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall calculate payment rates for each hospital qualifying under this Section as follows:

(1) Hospitals that qualify under the Qualified Academic Medical Center Hospital - Pre 1996 Designation shall be paid a rate of $55.50 for each Medicaid inpatient day of care.

(2) No qualifying hospital shall receive payments under this Section that exceed $1,200,000.

(c) Payments under this Section shall be made at least quarterly.

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 407/30)

Sec. 30. The Alzheimer's Disease Center Expanded Clinical Fund.

(a) Each institution defined as a Qualified Academic Medical Center Hospital - Pre 1996 Designation or as a Qualified Academic Medical Center Hospital - Post 1996 Designation shall be eligible for payments from the Alzheimer's Disease Center Expanded Clinical Fund.

(b) Appropriations allocated to this Fund shall be divided among the qualifying hospitals. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall calculate payment rates for each hospital qualifying under this Section as follows:

(1) Hospitals that are defined as a Qualifying Academic Medical Center Hospital - Pre 1996 Designation shall be paid $13.90 for each Medicaid inpatient day of care.

(2) Hospitals that are defined as a Qualifying Academic Medical Center Hospital - Post 1996 Designation and do not meet the Pre 1996 Designation criterion, shall be paid $10.75 for each Medicaid inpatient day of care.

(3) Hospitals that qualify under the Pre and Post 1996 Designation shall qualify for payments under this Section according to the payment guidelines for Pre 1996 Designated hospitals.

(4) No qualifying hospital shall receive payments under this Section that exceed $300,000.

(c) Payments under this Section shall be made at least quarterly.

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 407/45)

Sec. 45. Payment of funds. The Comptroller shall disburse all funds appropriated to the Alzheimer's Disease Center Clinical Fund, the Alzheimer's Disease Center Expanded Clinical Fund, and the Alzheimer's Disease Center Independent Clinical Fund to the appropriate Qualified Academic Medical Center Hospitals (either Pre 1996 or Post 1996 Designation) as the funds are appropriated by the General Assembly and come due under this Act. The payment of these funds shall be made through the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 407/55)

Sec. 55. Payment methodology. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall promulgate rules necessary to make payments to the Qualifying Academic Medical Center Hospitals (either Pre 1996 or Post 1996 Designation) utilizing a reimbursement methodology consistent with this Act for distribution of all moneys from the funds in a manner that would help ensure these funds could be matchable to the maximum extent possible under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-929, eff. 8-12-04; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 915. The Hemophilia Care Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 420/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2901)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

(1) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(1.5) "Director" means the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(2) (Blank).

(3) "Hemophilia" means a bleeding tendency resulting from a genetically determined deficiency in the blood.

(4) "Committee" means the Hemophilia Advisory Committee created under this Act.

(5) "Eligible person" means any resident of the State suffering from hemophilia.

(6) "Family" means:

(a) In the case of a patient who is a dependent of another person or couple as defined by the Illinois Income Tax Act, all those persons for whom exemption is claimed in the State income tax return of the person or couple whose dependent the eligible person is, and

(b) In all other cases, all those persons for whom exemption is claimed in the State income tax return of the eligible person, or of the eligible person and his spouse.

(7) "Eligible cost of hemophilia services" means the cost of blood transfusions, blood derivatives, and for outpatient services, of physician charges, medical supplies, and appliances, used in the treatment of eligible persons for hemophilia, plus one half of the cost of hospital inpatient care, minus any amount of such cost which is eligible for payment or reimbursement by any hospital or medical insurance program, by any other government medical or financial assistance program, or by any charitable assistance program.

(8) "Gross income" means the base income for State income tax purposes of all members of the family.

(9) "Available family income" means the lesser of:

(a) Gross income minus the sum of (1) $5,500, and (2) $3,500 times the number of persons in the family, or

(b) One half of gross income.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 920. The Renal Disease Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 2, 3, and 3.01 as follows:

(410 ILCS 430/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.31)

Sec. 1. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall establish a program for the care and treatment of persons suffering from chronic renal diseases. This program shall assist persons suffering from chronic renal diseases who require lifesaving care and treatment for such renal disease, but who are unable to pay for such services on a continuing basis.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 430/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.32)

Sec. 2. The Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid) shall appoint a Renal Disease Advisory Committee to consult with the Department in the administration of this Act. The Committee shall be composed of 15 persons representing hospitals and medical schools which establish dialysis centers or kidney transplant programs, voluntary agencies interested in kidney diseases, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, and the general public. Each member shall hold office for a term of 4 years and until his successor is appointed and qualified, except that the terms of the members appointed pursuant to Public Act 78-538 shall expire as designated at the time of appointment, 1 at the end of the first year, 1 at the end of the second year, 1 at the end of the third year, and 1 at the end of the fourth year, after the date of appointment. Any person appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term. The Committee shall meet as frequently as the Director of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid deems necessary, but not less than once each year. The Committee members shall receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in carrying out their duties as members of this Committee.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 430/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.33)

Sec. 3. Duties of Departments of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and Public Health.

(A) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall:

(a) With the advice of the Renal Disease Advisory Committee, develop standards for determining eligibility for care and treatment under this program. Among other standards so developed under this paragraph, candidates, to be eligible for care and treatment, must be evaluated in a center properly staffed and equipped for such evaluation.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Extend financial assistance to persons suffering from chronic renal diseases in obtaining the medical, surgical, nursing, pharmaceutical, and technical services necessary in caring for such diseases, including the renting of home dialysis equipment. The Renal Disease Advisory Committee shall recommend to the Department the extent of financial assistance, including the reasonable charges and fees, for:

(1) Treatment in a dialysis facility;

(2) Hospital treatment for dialysis and transplant surgery;

(3) Treatment in a limited care facility;

(4) Home dialysis training; and

(5) Home dialysis.

(e) Assist in equipping dialysis centers.

(B) The Department of Public Health shall:

(a) Assist in the development and expansion of programs for the care and treatment of persons suffering from chronic renal diseases, including dialysis and other medical or surgical procedures and techniques that will have a lifesaving effect in the care and treatment of persons suffering from these diseases.

(b) Assist in the development of programs for the prevention of chronic renal diseases.

(c) Institute and carry on an educational program among physicians, hospitals, public health departments, and the public concerning chronic renal diseases, including the dissemination of information and the conducting of educational programs concerning the prevention of chronic renal diseases and the methods for the care and treatment of persons suffering from these diseases.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 430/3.01) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.33.01)

Sec. 3.01. The provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act are hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under this Act, except that Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act relating to procedures for rule-making does not apply to the adoption of any rule required by federal law in connection with which the Department is precluded by law from exercising any discretion.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-587, eff. 7-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 925. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(410 ILCS 513/22)

Sec. 22. Tests to determine inherited characteristics in paternity proceedings. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to affect or restrict in any way the ordering of or use of results from deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) testing or other tests to determine inherited characteristics by the court in a judicial proceeding under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in an administrative paternity proceeding under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code and rules promulgated under that Article.

(Source: P.A. 90-25, eff. 1-1-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 930. The Head and Spinal Cord Injury Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(410 ILCS 515/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7856)

Sec. 6. (a) There is hereby created the Advisory Council on Spinal Cord and Head Injuries within the Department of Human Services. The Council shall consist of 29 members, appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. Members shall serve 3-year terms and until their successors are appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The members appointed by the Governor shall include 2 neurosurgeons, 2 orthopedic surgeons, 2 rehabilitation specialists, one of whom shall be a registered nurse, 4 persons with head injuries or family members of persons with head injuries, 4 persons with spinal cord injuries or family members of persons with spinal cord injuries, a representative of an Illinois college or university, and a representative from health institutions or private industry. These members shall not serve more than 2 consecutive 3-year terms. The Governor shall appoint one individual from each of the following entities to the Council as ex-officio members: the unit of the Department of Human Services that is responsible for the administration of the vocational rehabilitation program, another unit within the Department of Human Services that provides services for individuals with disabilities, the State Board of Education, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Division of Specialized Care for Children of the University of Illinois, the Statewide Independent Living Council, and the State Rehabilitation Advisory Council. Ex-officio members are not subject to limit of 2 consecutive 3-year terms. The appointment of individuals representing State agencies shall be conditioned on their continued employment with their respective agencies.

(b) From funds appropriated for such purpose, the Department of Human Services shall provide to the Council the necessary staff and expenses to carry out the duties and responsibilities assigned by the Council. Such staff shall consist of a director and other support staff.

(c) Meetings shall be held at least every 90 days or at the call of the Council chairman, who shall be elected by the Council.

(d) Each member shall be reimbursed for reasonable and necessary expenses actually incurred in the performance of his official duties.

(e) The Council shall adopt written procedures to govern its activities. Consultants shall be provided for the Council from appropriations made for such purpose.

(f) The Council shall make recommendations to the Governor for developing and administering a State plan to provide services for spinal cord and head injured persons.

(g) No member of the Council may participate in or seek to influence a decision or vote of the Council if the member would be directly involved with the matter or if he would derive income from it. A violation of this prohibition shall be grounds for a person to be removed as a member of the Council by the Governor.

(h) The Council shall:

(1) promote meetings and programs for the discussion of reducing the debilitating effects of spinal cord and head injuries and disseminate information in cooperation with any other department, agency or entity on the prevention, evaluation, care, treatment and rehabilitation of persons affected by spinal cord and head injuries;

(2) study and review current prevention, evaluation, care, treatment and rehabilitation technologies and recommend appropriate preparation, training, retraining and distribution of manpower and resources in the provision of services to spinal cord and head injured persons through private and public residential facilities, day programs and other specialized services;

(3) recommend specific methods, means and procedures which should be adopted to improve and upgrade the State's service delivery system for spinal cord and head injured citizens of this State;

(4) participate in developing and disseminating criteria and standards which may be required for future funding or licensing of facilities, day programs and other specialized services for spinal cord and head injured persons in this State;

(5) report annually to the Governor and the General Assembly on its activities, and on the results of its studies and the recommendations of the Council; and

(6) be the advisory board for purposes of federal programs regarding traumatic brain injury.

(i) The Department of Human Services may accept on behalf of the Council federal funds, gifts and donations from individuals, private organizations and foundations, and any other funds that may become available.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-453, eff. 8-16-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 935. The Illinois Adverse Health Care Events Reporting Law of 2005 is amended by changing Section 10-45 as follows:

(410 ILCS 522/10-45)

Sec. 10-45. Testing period.

(a) Prior to the testing period in subsection (b), the Department shall adopt rules for implementing this Law in consultation with the Health Care Event Reporting Advisory Committee and individuals who have experience and expertise in devising and implementing adverse health care event or other health heath care quality reporting systems. The rules shall establish the methodology and format for health care facilities reporting information under this Law to the Department and shall be finalized before the beginning of the testing period under subsection (b).

(b) The Department shall conduct a testing period of at least 6 months to test the reporting process to identify any problems or deficiencies with the planned reporting process.

(c) None of the information reported and analyzed during the testing period shall be used in any public report under this Law.

(d) The Department must substantially address the problems or deficiencies identified during the testing period before fully implementing the reporting system.

(e) After the testing period, and after any corrections, adjustments, or modifications are finalized, the Department must give at least 30 days written notice to health care facilities prior to full implementation of the reporting system and collection of adverse event data that will be used in public reports.

(f) Following the testing period, 4 calendar quarters of data must be collected prior to the Department's publishing the annual report of adverse events to the public under paragraph (4) of Section 10-35.

(g) The process described in subsections (a) through (e) must be completed by the Department no later than July 1, 2007.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department may contract with an entity for receiving all adverse health care event reports, root cause analysis findings, and corrective action plans that must be reported to the Department under this Law and for the compilation of the information and the provision of quarterly and annual reports to the Department describing such information according to the rules adopted by the Department under this Law.

(Source: P.A. 94-242, eff. 7-18-05; revised 9-15-06.)

Section 940. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Sections 12, 17, 22, 24, and 25.1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-12)

Sec. 12. Live births; place of registration.

(1) Each live birth which occurs in this State shall be registered with the local or subregistrar of the district in which the birth occurred as provided in this Section, within 7 days after the birth. When a birth occurs on a moving conveyance, the city, village, township, or road district in which the child is first removed from the conveyance shall be considered the place of birth and a birth certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which the place is located.

(2) When a birth occurs in an institution, the person in charge of the institution or his designated representative shall obtain and record all the personal and statistical particulars relative to the parents of the child that are required to properly complete the live birth certificate; shall secure the required personal signatures on the hospital worksheet; shall prepare the certificate from this worksheet; and shall file the certificate with the local registrar. The institution shall retain the hospital worksheet permanently or as otherwise specified by rule. The physician in attendance shall verify or provide the date of birth and medical information required by the certificate, within 24 hours after the birth occurs.

(3) When a birth occurs outside an institution, the certificate shall be prepared and filed by one of the following in the indicated order of priority:

(a) The physician in attendance at or immediately after the birth, or in the absence of such a person,

(b) Any other person in attendance at or immediately after the birth, or in the absence of such a person,

(c) The father, the mother, or in the absence of the father and the inability of the mother, the person in charge of the premises where the birth occurred.

(4) Unless otherwise provided in this Act, if the mother was not married to the father of the child at either the time of conception or the time of birth, the name of the father shall be entered on the child's birth certificate only if the mother and the person to be named as the father have signed an acknowledgment of parentage in accordance with subsection (5).

Unless otherwise provided in this Act, if the mother was married at the time of conception or birth and the presumed father (that is, the mother's husband) is not the biological father of the child, the name of the biological father shall be entered on the child's birth certificate only if, in accordance with subsection (5), (i) the mother and the person to be named as the father have signed an acknowledgment of parentage and (ii) the mother and presumed father have signed a denial of paternity.

(5) Upon the birth of a child to an unmarried woman, or upon the birth of a child to a woman who was married at the time of conception or birth and whose husband is not the biological father of the child, the institution at the time of birth and the local registrar or county clerk after the birth shall do the following:

(a) Provide (i) an opportunity for the child's mother and father to sign an acknowledgment of parentage and (ii) if the presumed father is not the biological father, an opportunity for the mother and presumed father to sign a denial of paternity. The signing and witnessing of the acknowledgment of parentage or, if the presumed father of the child is not the biological father, the acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity conclusively establishes a parent and child relationship in accordance with Sections 5 and 6 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall furnish the acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity form to institutions, county clerks, and State and local registrars' offices. The form shall include instructions to send the original signed and witnessed acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(b) Provide the following documents, furnished by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, to the child's mother, biological father, and (if the person presumed to be the child's father is not the biological father) presumed father for their review at the time the opportunity is provided to establish a parent and child relationship:

(i) An explanation of the implications of, alternatives to, legal consequences of, and the rights and responsibilities that arise from signing an acknowledgment of parentage and, if necessary, a denial of paternity, including an explanation of the parental rights and responsibilities of child support, visitation, custody, retroactive support, health insurance coverage, and payment of birth expenses.

(ii) An explanation of the benefits of having a child's parentage established and the availability of parentage establishment and child support enforcement services.

(iii) A request for an application for child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(iv) Instructions concerning the opportunity to speak, either by telephone or in person, with staff of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid who are trained to clarify information and answer questions about paternity establishment.

(v) Instructions for completing and signing the acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity.

(c) Provide an oral explanation of the documents and instructions set forth in subdivision (5)(b), including an explanation of the implications of, alternatives to, legal consequences of, and the rights and responsibilities that arise from signing an acknowledgment of parentage and, if necessary, a denial of paternity. The oral explanation may be given in person or through the use of video or audio equipment.

(6) The institution, State or local registrar, or county clerk shall provide an opportunity for the child's father or mother to sign a rescission of parentage. The signing and witnessing of the rescission of parentage voids the acknowledgment of parentage and nullifies the presumption of paternity if executed and filed with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) within the time frame contained in Section 5 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall furnish the rescission of parentage form to institutions, county clerks, and State and local registrars' offices. The form shall include instructions to send the original signed and witnessed rescission of parentage to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(7) An acknowledgment of paternity signed pursuant to Section 6 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 may be challenged in court only on the basis of fraud, duress, or material mistake of fact, with the burden of proof upon the challenging party. Pending outcome of a challenge to the acknowledgment of paternity, the legal responsibilities of the signatories shall remain in full force and effect, except upon order of the court upon a showing of good cause.

(8) When the process for acknowledgment of parentage as provided for under subsection (5) establishes the paternity of a child whose certificate of birth is on file in another state, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall forward a copy of the acknowledgment of parentage, the denial of paternity, if applicable, and the rescission of parentage, if applicable, to the birth record agency of the state where the child's certificate of birth is on file.

(9) In the event the parent-child relationship has been established in accordance with subdivision (a)(1) of Section 6 of the Parentage Act of 1984, the names of the biological mother and biological father so established shall be entered on the child's birth certificate, and the names of the surrogate mother and surrogate mother's husband, if any, shall not be on the birth certificate.

(Source: P.A. 91-308, eff. 7-29-99; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 535/17) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-17)

Sec. 17. (1) For a person born in this State, the State Registrar of Vital Records shall establish a new certificate of birth when he receives any of the following:

(a) A certificate of adoption as provided in Section 16 or a certified copy of the order of adoption together with the information necessary to identify the original certificate of birth and to establish the new certificate of birth; except that a new certificate of birth shall not be established if so requested by the court ordering the adoption, the adoptive parents, or the adopted person.

(b) A certificate of adoption or a certified copy of the order of adoption entered in a court of competent jurisdiction of any other state or country declaring adopted a child born in the State of Illinois, together with the information necessary to identify the original certificate of birth and to establish the new certificate of birth; except that a new certificate of birth shall not be established if so requested by the court ordering the adoption, the adoptive parents, or the adopted person.

(c) A request that a new certificate be established and such evidence as required by regulation proving that such person has been legitimatized, or that the circuit court, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), or a court or administrative agency of any other state has established the paternity of such a person by judicial or administrative processes or by voluntary acknowledgment, which is accompanied by the social security numbers of all persons determined and presumed to be the parents.

(d) An affidavit by a physician that he has performed an operation on a person, and that by reason of the operation the sex designation on such person's birth record should be changed. The State Registrar of Vital Records may make any investigation or require any further information he deems necessary.

Each request for a new certificate of birth shall be accompanied by a fee of $15 and entitles the applicant to one certification or certified copy of the new certificate. If the request is for additional copies, it shall be accompanied by a fee of $2 for each additional certification or certified copy.

(2) When a new certificate of birth is established, the actual place and date of birth shall be shown; provided, in the case of adoption of a person born in this State by parents who were residents of this State at the time of the birth of the adopted person, the place of birth may be shown as the place of residence of the adoptive parents at the time of such person's birth, if specifically requested by them, and any new certificate of birth established prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act may be corrected accordingly if so requested by the adoptive parents or the adopted person when of legal age. The social security numbers of the parents shall not be recorded on the certificate of birth. The social security numbers may only be used for purposes allowed under federal law. The new certificate shall be substituted for the original certificate of birth:

(a) Thereafter, the original certificate and the evidence of adoption, paternity, legitimation, or sex change shall not be subject to inspection or certification except upon order of the circuit court or as provided by regulation.

(b) Upon receipt of notice of annulment of adoption, the original certificate of birth shall be restored to its place in the files, and the new certificate and evidence shall not be subject to inspection or certification except upon order of the circuit court.

(3) If no certificate of birth is on file for the person for whom a new certificate is to be established under this Section, a delayed record of birth shall be filed with the State Registrar of Vital Records as provided in Section 14 or Section 15 of this Act before a new certificate of birth is established, except that when the date and place of birth and parentage have been established in the adoption proceedings, a delayed record shall not be required.

(4) When a new certificate of birth is established by the State Registrar of Vital Records, all copies of the original certificate of birth in the custody of any custodian of permanent local records in this State shall be transmitted to the State Registrar of Vital Records as directed, and shall be sealed from inspection.

(5) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the amendment of a birth certificate in accordance with subsection (6) of Section 22.

(Source: P.A. 89-6, eff. 3-6-95; 89-257, eff. 1-1-96; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96; 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 535/22) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-22)

Sec. 22. (1) A certificate or record filed under this Act may be amended only in accordance with this Act and such regulations as the Department may adopt to protect the integrity of vital records. An application for an amendment shall be accompanied by a fee of $15 which includes the provision of one certification or certified copy of the amended birth record. If the request is for additional copies, it shall be accompanied by a fee of $2 for each additional certification or certified copy. Such amendments may only be made in connection with the original certificates and may not be made on copies of such certificates without the approval of the State Registrar of Vital Records. The provisions of this Section shall also be applicable to a certificate or record filed under any former Act relating to the registration of births, stillbirths, and deaths. Any original certificate or record filed with the county clerk prior to January 1, 1916, may be amended by the county clerk under the same provisions of this Section, or regulations adopted pursuant thereto, as apply to the State Registrar of Vital Records governing amendments to certificates or records filed with the Department subsequent to December 31, 1915.

(2) A certificate that is amended under this Section after its filing shall have the correction entered on its face; shall clearly indicate that an amendment has been made; and shall show the date of the amendment. A summary description of the evidence submitted in support of an amendment shall be permanently retained by the Department either as an original record or in microphotographic form. Documents from which such summary descriptions are made may be returned by the Department to the person or persons submitting them. The Department shall prescribe by regulation the conditions under which, within one year after the date of occurrence, additions or minor corrections may be made without the certificate being considered amended.

(3) An amendment to a delayed birth registration established under the provisions of Section 15 of this Act may be made by the State Registrar of Vital Records only upon the basis of an order from the court which originally established the facts of birth.

(4) Upon receipt of a certified copy of a court order changing the name or names of a person born in this State, the official custodian shall amend the original certificate of birth to reflect the changes.

(5) (Blank).

(6) When the paternity of a child with a certificate of birth on file in this State is established through voluntary acknowledgment or by a court or administrative agency under the laws of this or any other state, the State Registrar of Vital Records shall amend the original record accordingly, upon notification from a circuit court of this State or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), or upon receipt of a certified copy of another state's acknowledgment or judicial or administrative determination of paternity.

(7) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an adopted person applies in accordance with this Section for the amendment of the name on his or her birth certificate, the State Registrar shall amend the birth certificate if the person provides documentation or other evidence supporting the application that would be deemed sufficient if the documentation or evidence had been submitted in support of an application by a person who has not been adopted.

(8) When paternity has been established after the birth in accordance with Section 12, the State Registrar of Vital Records shall amend the original record accordingly.

(9) Upon application by the parents not later than one year after an acknowledgment of parentage under this Act or the Illinois Public Aid Code or a judicial or administrative determination or establishment of paternity or parentage, the State Registrar of Vital Records shall amend the child's name on the child's certificate of birth in accordance with the application. No more than one application to change a child's name may be made under this subsection (9).

(10) When a certificate is amended by the State Registrar of Vital Records under this Section, the State Registrar of Vital Records shall furnish a copy of the summary description to the custodian of any permanent local records and such records shall be amended accordingly.

(Source: P.A. 89-6, eff. 3-6-95; 89-257, eff. 1-1-96; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96; 89-641, eff. 8-9-96; 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 535/24) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-24)

Sec. 24. (1) To protect the integrity of vital records, to insure their proper use, and to insure the efficient and proper administration of the vital records system, access to vital records, and indexes thereof, including vital records in the custody of local registrars and county clerks originating prior to January 1, 1916, is limited to the custodian and his employees, and then only for administrative purposes, except that the indexes of those records in the custody of local registrars and county clerks, originating prior to January 1, 1916, shall be made available to persons for the purpose of genealogical research. Original, photographic or microphotographic reproductions of original records of births 100 years old and older and deaths 50 years old and older, and marriage records 75 years old and older on file in the State Office of Vital Records and in the custody of the county clerks may be made available for inspection in the Illinois State Archives reference area, Illinois Regional Archives Depositories, and other libraries approved by the Illinois State Registrar and the Director of the Illinois State Archives, provided that the photographic or microphotographic copies are made at no cost to the county or to the State of Illinois. It is unlawful for any custodian to permit inspection of, or to disclose information contained in, vital records, or to copy or permit to be copied, all or part of any such record except as authorized by this Act or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

(2) The State Registrar of Vital Records, or his agent, and any municipal, county, multi-county, public health district, or regional health officer recognized by the Department may examine vital records for the purpose only of carrying out the public health programs and responsibilities under his jurisdiction.

(3) The State Registrar of Vital Records, may disclose, or authorize the disclosure of, data contained in the vital records when deemed essential for bona fide research purposes which are not for private gain.

This amendatory Act of 1973 does not apply to any home rule unit.

(4) The State Registrar shall exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the establishment of paternity and the establishment, modification, and enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Act to the contrary, the State Registrar shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this subsection or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(410 ILCS 535/25.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-25.1)

Sec. 25.1. (a) When the State Registrar of Vital Records receives or prepares a death certificate the Registrar shall make an appropriate notation in the birth certificate record of that person that the person is deceased. The Registrar shall also notify the appropriate municipal or county custodian of such birth record that the person is deceased, and such custodian shall likewise make an appropriate notation in its records.

(b) In response to any inquiry, the Registrar or a custodian shall not provide a copy of a birth certificate or information concerning the birth record of any deceased person except as provided in this subsection (b) or as otherwise provided in this Act or as approved by the Department. When a copy of the birth certificate of a deceased person is requested, the Registrar or custodian shall require the person making the request to complete an information form, which shall be developed and furnished by the Department and shall include, at a minimum, the name, address, telephone number, social security number and driver's license number of the person making the request. Before furnishing the copy, the custodian shall prominently stamp on the copy the word "DECEASED" and write or stamp on the copy the date of death of the deceased person. The custodian shall retain the information form completed by the person making the request, and note on the birth certificate record that such a request was made. The custodian shall make the information form available to the Department of State Police or any local law enforcement agency upon request. A city or county custodian shall promptly submit copies of all completed forms to the Registrar. The word "DECEASED" and the date of death shall not appear on a copy of a birth certificate furnished to a parent of a child who died within 3 months of birth, provided no other copy of a birth certificate was furnished to the parent prior to the child's death.

(c) The Registrar shall furnish, no later than 60 days after receipt of a form used to request a birth certificate record of a deceased person, a copy of the form and a copy of the corresponding birth certificate record to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and the Department of Human Services shall, upon receipt of such information, check their records to ensure that no claim for public assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code is being made either by a person purporting to be the deceased person or by any person on behalf of the deceased person.

(d) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection (b), when the death of a child occurs within 90 days of that child's live birth, the mother listed on the birth certificate of that child may request the issuance of a copy of a certificate of live birth from the State Registrar. Such request shall be made in accordance with subsection (b), shall indicate the requestor's relationship to the child, and shall be made not later than 9 months from the date of the death of the child. Except as provided herein, the Registrar shall conform to all requirements of this Act in issuing copies of certificates under this subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 94-7, eff. 6-6-05; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 945. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 642/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act, who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in this State.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes services under this Act, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform services under this Act by his or her supervising physician.

"Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act.

"Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

"Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.

(Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; revised 10-19-06.)

Section 950. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 3.330, 5, 42, 55.8, 57.7, 57.8, 57.13, 58.3, and 58.7 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 22.50 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/3.330) (was 415 ILCS 5/3.32)

Sec. 3.330. Pollution control facility.

(a) "Pollution control facility" is any waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, or waste incinerator. This includes sewers, sewage treatment plants, and any other facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act.

The following are not pollution control facilities:

(1) (Blank);

(2) waste storage sites regulated under 40 CFR, Part 761.42;

(3) sites or facilities used by any person conducting a waste storage, waste treatment, waste disposal, waste transfer or waste incineration operation, or a combination thereof, for wastes generated by such person's own activities, when such wastes are stored, treated, disposed of, transferred or incinerated within the site or facility owned, controlled or operated by such person, or when such wastes are transported within or between sites or facilities owned, controlled or operated by such person;

(4) sites or facilities at which the State is performing removal or remedial action pursuant to Section 22.2 or 55.3;

(5) abandoned quarries used solely for the disposal of concrete, earth materials, gravel, or aggregate debris resulting from road construction activities conducted by a unit of government or construction activities due to the construction and installation of underground pipes, lines, conduit or wires off of the premises of a public utility company which are conducted by a public utility;

(6) sites or facilities used by any person to specifically conduct a landscape composting operation;

(7) regional facilities as defined in the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact;

(8) the portion of a site or facility where coal combustion wastes are stored or disposed of in accordance with subdivision (r)(2) or (r)(3) of Section 21;

(9) the portion of a site or facility used for the collection, storage or processing of waste tires as defined in Title XIV;

(10) the portion of a site or facility used for treatment of petroleum contaminated materials by application onto or incorporation into the soil surface and any portion of that site or facility used for storage of petroleum contaminated materials before treatment. Only those categories of petroleum listed in Section 57.9(a)(3) are exempt under this subdivision (10);

(11) the portion of a site or facility where used oil is collected or stored prior to shipment to a recycling or energy recovery facility, provided that the used oil is generated by households or commercial establishments, and the site or facility is a recycling center or a business where oil or gasoline is sold at retail;

(11.5) processing sites or facilities that receive only on-specification used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739, originating from used oil collectors for processing that is managed under 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739 to produce products for sale to off-site petroleum facilities, if these processing sites or facilities are: (i) located within a home rule unit of local government with a population of at least 30,000 according to the 2000 federal census, that home rule unit of local government has been designated as an Urban Round II Empowerment Zone by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and that home rule unit of local government has enacted an ordinance approving the location of the site or facility and provided funding for the site or facility; and (ii) in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements; .

(12) the portion of a site or facility utilizing coal combustion waste for stabilization and treatment of only waste generated on that site or facility when used in connection with response actions pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, or the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or as authorized by the Agency;

(13) the portion of a site or facility accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris, located in a county with a population over 700,000 as of January 1, 2000, and operated and located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act;

(14) the portion of a site or facility, located within a unit of local government that has enacted local zoning requirements, used to accept, separate, and process uncontaminated broken concrete, with or without protruding metal bars, provided that the uncontaminated broken concrete and metal bars are not speculatively accumulated, are at the site or facility no longer than one year after their acceptance, and are returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products; and

(15) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for a non-hazardous waste transfer station.

(b) A new pollution control facility is:

(1) a pollution control facility initially permitted for development or construction after July 1, 1981; or

(2) the area of expansion beyond the boundary of a currently permitted pollution control facility; or

(3) a permitted pollution control facility requesting approval to store, dispose of, transfer or incinerate, for the first time, any special or hazardous waste.

(Source: P.A. 93-998, eff. 8-23-04; 94-94, eff. 7-1-05; 94-249, eff. 7-19-05; 94-824, eff. 6-2-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(415 ILCS 5/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1005)

Sec. 5. Pollution Control Board.

(a) There is hereby created an independent board to be known as the Pollution Control Board.

Until July 1, 2003 or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later, the Board shall consist of 7 technically qualified members, no more than 4 of whom may be of the same political party, to be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

The term of each appointed member of the Board who is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later.

Beginning on July 1, 2003 or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later, the Board shall consist of 5 technically qualified members, no more than 3 of whom may be of the same political party, to be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. Members shall have verifiable technical, academic, or actual experience in the field of pollution control or environmental law and regulation.

Of the members initially appointed pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, one shall be appointed for a term ending July 1, 2004, 2 shall be appointed for terms ending July 1, 2005, and 2 shall be appointed for terms ending July 1, 2006. Thereafter, all members shall hold office for 3 years from the first day of July in the year in which they were appointed, except in case of an appointment to fill a vacancy. In case of a vacancy in the office when the Senate is not in session, the Governor may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall nominate some person to fill such office; and any person so nominated, who is confirmed by the Senate, shall hold the office during the remainder of the term.

Members of the Board shall hold office until their respective successors have been appointed and qualified. Any member may resign from office, such resignation to take effect when a successor has been appointed and has qualified.

Board members shall be paid $37,000 per year or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, and the Chairman shall be paid $43,000 per year or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. Each member shall devote his or her entire time to the duties of the office, and shall hold no other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation. Each member shall be reimbursed for expenses necessarily incurred and shall make a financial disclosure upon appointment.

Each Board member may employ one secretary and one assistant, and the Chairman one secretary and 2 assistants. The Board also may employ and compensate hearing officers to preside at hearings under this Act, and such other personnel as may be necessary. Hearing officers shall be attorneys licensed to practice law in Illinois.

The Board may have an Executive Director; if so, the Executive Director shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The salary and duties of the Executive Director shall be fixed by the Board.

The Governor shall designate one Board member to be Chairman, who shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor.

The Board shall hold at least one meeting each month and such additional meetings as may be prescribed by Board rules. In addition, special meetings may be called by the Chairman or by any 2 Board members, upon delivery of 24 hours written notice to the office of each member. All Board meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of all meetings shall be given at least 24 hours in advance of each meeting. In emergency situations in which a majority of the Board certifies that exigencies of time require the requirements of public notice and of 24 hour written notice to members may be dispensed with, and Board members shall receive such notice as is reasonable under the circumstances.

If there is no vacancy on the Board, 4 members of the Board shall constitute a quorum to transact business; otherwise, a majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum to transact business, and no vacancy shall impair the right of the remaining members to exercise all of the powers of the Board. Every action approved by a majority of the members of the Board shall be deemed to be the action of the Board. The Board shall keep a complete and accurate record of all its meetings.

(b) The Board shall determine, define and implement the environmental control standards applicable in the State of Illinois and may adopt rules and regulations in accordance with Title VII of this Act.

(c) The Board shall have authority to act for the State in regard to the adoption of standards for submission to the United States under any federal law respecting environmental protection. Such standards shall be adopted in accordance with Title VII of the Act and upon adoption shall be forwarded to the Environmental Protection Agency for submission to the United States pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of Section 4 of this Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall limit the discretion of the Governor to delegate authority granted to the Governor under any federal law.

(d) The Board shall have authority to conduct proceedings upon complaints charging violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order; upon administrative citations; upon petitions for variances or adjusted standards; upon petitions for review of the Agency's final determinations on permit applications in accordance with Title X of this Act; upon petitions to remove seals under Section 34 of this Act; and upon other petitions for review of final determinations which are made pursuant to this Act or Board rule and which involve a subject which the Board is authorized to regulate. The Board may also conduct other proceedings as may be provided by this Act or any other statute or rule.

(e) In connection with any proceeding pursuant to subsection (b) or (d) of this Section, the Board may subpoena and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of evidence reasonably necessary to resolution of the matter under consideration. The Board shall issue such subpoenas upon the request of any party to a proceeding under subsection (d) of this Section or upon its own motion.

(f) The Board may prescribe reasonable fees for permits required pursuant to this Act. Such fees in the aggregate may not exceed the total cost to the Agency for its inspection and permit systems. The Board may not prescribe any permit fees which are different in amount from those established by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 93-152, eff. 7-10-03; 93-509, eff. 8-11-03; revised 9-11-03.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.50)

Sec. 22.50. Compliance with land use limitations. No person shall use, or cause or allow the use of, any site for which a land use limitation has been imposed under this Act in a manner inconsistent with the land use limitation unless further investigation or remedial action has been conducted that documents the attainment of remedial objectives appropriate for the new land use and a new closure letter has been obtained from the Agency and recorded in the chain of title for the site. For the purpose of this Section, the term "land use limitation" shall include, but shall not be limited to, institutional controls and engineered barriers imposed under this Act and the regulations adopted under this Act. For the purposes of this Section, the term "closure letter" shall include, but shall not be limited to, No Further Remediation Letters issued under Titles XVI and XVII of this Act and the regulations adopted under those Titles.

(Source: P.A. 94-272, eff. 7-19-05; 94-314, eff. 7-25-05.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.53)

Sec. 22.53 22.50. Computer Equipment Disposal and Recycling Commission.

(a) The General Assembly finds that improper disposal of computer equipment presents a serious environmental threat. Computer equipment contains quantities of lead, mercury, other heavy metals, and plastics that, when improperly disposed of, can lead to environmental contamination.

(b) There is hereby created the Computer Equipment Disposal and Recycling Commission consisting of 7 members appointed as follows: 2 members appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall serve as Chairperson of the Commission; one member appointed by the Lieutenant Governor who shall serve as vice-chairperson; one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; one member appointed by the President of the Senate; and one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; all of whom shall serve without compensation. The Commission may accept and expend for its purposes any funds granted to the Commission by any agency of State or federal government or through private donation dealing exclusively with computer equipment disposal.

(c) The Commission shall have all of the following objectives:

(1) To investigate problems and concerns related to the disposal and recycling of computer equipment.

(2) To advise the General Assembly and State agencies with respect to legislative, regulatory, or other actions within the area of computer equipment disposal, and any related subject matter (i.e. fax machines, printers, etc.).

(3) To make recommendations regarding the development and establishment of pilot programs and ongoing programs for the recycling and proper disposal of computer equipment.

(d) The Commission shall issue a report of its findings and recommendations in relation to the objectives listed in subsection (c) of this Section to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency on or before May 31, 2006. In preparing its report, the Commission shall seek input from and consult with business organizations, trade organizations, trade associations, solid waste agencies, and environmental organizations with expertise in computer equipment disposal and recycling.

(e) Beginning on May 31, 2007, the Commission shall evaluate the implementation of programs by the State relating to computer equipment disposal and recycling, and shall issue a report of its finding and recommendations to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency on or before December 31, 2008.

(f) The Commission, upon issuing the report described in subsection (e) of this Section, is dissolved.

(Source: P.A. 94-518, eff. 8-10-05; revised 9-22-05.)

(415 ILCS 5/42) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1042)

Sec. 42. Civil penalties.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, any person that violates any provision of this Act or any regulation adopted by the Board, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or that violates any order of the Board pursuant to this Act, shall be liable for a civil penalty of not to exceed $50,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for each day during which the violation continues; such penalties may, upon order of the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction, be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) Any person that violates Section 12(f) of this Act or any NPDES permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the NPDES permit program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(2) Any person that violates Section 12(g) of this Act or any UIC permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State UIC program for all wells, except Class II wells as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty not to exceed $2,500 per day of violation; provided, however, that any person who commits such violations relating to the State UIC program for Class II wells, as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $1,000 for each day during which the violation continues.

(3) Any person that violates Sections 21(f), 21(g), 21(h) or 21(i) of this Act, or any RCRA permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State RCRA program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $25,000 per day of violation.

(4) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (o) of Section 21 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency. Such penalties shall be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(4-5) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $1,500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency, except that the civil penalty amount shall be $3,000 for each violation of any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21 that is the person's second or subsequent adjudication violation of that provision. The penalties shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(5) Any person who violates subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act or any CAAPP permit, or term or condition thereof, or any fee or filing requirement, or any duty to allow or carry out inspection, entry or monitoring activities, or any regulation or order relating to the CAAPP shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(b.5) In lieu of the penalties set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, any person who fails to file, in a timely manner, toxic chemical release forms with the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-2 of this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty of $100 per day for each day the forms are late, not to exceed a maximum total penalty of $6,000. This daily penalty shall begin accruing on the thirty-first day after the date that the person receives the warning notice issued by the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-6 of this Act; and the penalty shall be paid to the Agency. The daily accrual of penalties shall cease as of January 1 of the following year. All penalties collected by the Agency pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.

(c) Any person that violates this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order and causes the death of fish or aquatic life shall, in addition to the other penalties provided by this Act, be liable to pay to the State an additional sum for the reasonable value of the fish or aquatic life destroyed. Any money so recovered shall be placed in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in the State Treasury.

(d) The penalties provided for in this Section may be recovered in a civil action.

(e) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the request of the Agency or on his own motion, institute a civil action for an injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to restrain violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order, or to require such other actions as may be necessary to address violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, shall bring such actions in the name of the people of the State of Illinois. Without limiting any other authority which may exist for the awarding of attorney's fees and costs, the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction may award costs and reasonable attorney's fees, including the reasonable costs of expert witnesses and consultants, to the State's Attorney or the Attorney General in a case where he has prevailed against a person who has committed a wilful, knowing or repeated violation of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which the Attorney General has prevailed shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund created in Section 22.2 of this Act. Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which a State's Attorney has prevailed shall be retained by the county in which he serves.

(g) All final orders imposing civil penalties pursuant to this Section shall prescribe the time for payment of such penalties. If any such penalty is not paid within the time prescribed, interest on such penalty at the rate set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1003 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, shall be paid for the period from the date payment is due until the date payment is received. However, if the time for payment is stayed during the pendency of an appeal, interest shall not accrue during such stay.

(h) In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subdivisions (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(5) of this Section, the Board is authorized to consider any matters of record in mitigation or aggravation of penalty, including but not limited to the following factors:

(1) the duration and gravity of the violation;

(2) the presence or absence of due diligence on the part of the respondent in attempting to comply with requirements of this Act and regulations thereunder or to secure relief therefrom as provided by this Act;

(3) any economic benefits accrued by the respondent because of delay in compliance with requirements, in which case the economic benefits shall be determined by the lowest cost alternative for achieving compliance;

(4) the amount of monetary penalty which will serve to deter further violations by the respondent and to otherwise aid in enhancing voluntary compliance with this Act by the respondent and other persons similarly subject to the Act;

(5) the number, proximity in time, and gravity of previously adjudicated violations of this Act by the respondent;

(6) whether the respondent voluntarily self-disclosed, in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section, the non-compliance to the Agency; and

(7) whether the respondent has agreed to undertake a "supplemental environmental project," which means an environmentally beneficial project that a respondent agrees to undertake in settlement of an enforcement action brought under this Act, but which the respondent is not otherwise legally required to perform.

In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subsection (a) or paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (5) of subsection (b) of this Section, the Board shall ensure, in all cases, that the penalty is at least as great as the economic benefits, if any, accrued by the respondent as a result of the violation, unless the Board finds that imposition of such penalty would result in an arbitrary or unreasonable financial hardship. However, such civil penalty may be off-set in whole or in part pursuant to a supplemental environmental project agreed to by the complainant and the respondent.

(i) A person who voluntarily self-discloses non-compliance to the Agency, of which the Agency had been unaware, is entitled to a 100% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based on the economic benefit of non-compliance if the person can establish the following:

(1) that the non-compliance was discovered through an environmental audit or a compliance management system documented by the regulated entity as reflecting the regulated entity's due diligence in preventing, detecting, and correcting violations;

(2) that the non-compliance was disclosed in writing within 30 days of the date on which the person discovered it;

(3) that the non-compliance was discovered and disclosed prior to:

(i) the commencement of an Agency inspection, investigation, or request for information;

(ii) notice of a citizen suit;

(iii) the filing of a complaint by a citizen, the Illinois Attorney General, or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred;

(iv) the reporting of the non-compliance by an employee of the person without that person's knowledge; or

(v) imminent discovery of the non-compliance by the Agency;

(4) that the non-compliance is being corrected and any environmental harm is being remediated in a timely fashion;

(5) that the person agrees to prevent a recurrence of the non-compliance;

(6) that no related non-compliance events have occurred in the past 3 years at the same facility or in the past 5 years as part of a pattern at multiple facilities owned or operated by the person;

(7) that the non-compliance did not result in serious actual harm or present an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or the environment or violate the specific terms of any judicial or administrative order or consent agreement;

(8) that the person cooperates as reasonably requested by the Agency after the disclosure; and

(9) that the non-compliance was identified voluntarily and not through a monitoring, sampling, or auditing procedure that is required by statute, rule, permit, judicial or administrative order, or consent agreement.

If a person can establish all of the elements under this subsection except the element set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the person is entitled to a 75% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based upon the economic benefit of non-compliance.

(j) In addition to an other remedy or penalty that may apply, whether civil or criminal, any person who violates Section 22.52 of this Act shall be liable for an additional civil penalty of up to 3 times the gross amount of any pecuniary gain resulting from the violation.

(Source: P.A. 93-152, eff. 7-10-03; 93-575, eff. 1-1-04; 93-831, eff. 7-28-04; 94-272, eff. 7-19-05; 94-580, eff. 8-12-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(415 ILCS 5/55.8) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1055.8)

Sec. 55.8. Tire retailers.

(a) Beginning July 1, 1992, Any person selling new or used tires at retail or offering new or used tires for retail sale in this State shall:

(1) beginning on June 20, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-32), collect from retail customers a fee of $2 per new or and used tire sold and delivered in this State, to be paid to the Department of Revenue and deposited into the Used Tire Management Fund, less a collection allowance of 10 cents per tire to be retained by the retail seller and a collection allowance of 10 cents per tire to be retained by the Department of Revenue and paid into the General Revenue Fund;

(1.5) beginning on July 1, 2003, collect from retail customers an additional 50 cents per new or used tire sold and delivered in this State. The money collected from this fee shall be deposited into the Emergency Public Health Fund. This fee shall no longer be collected beginning on January 1, 2008; .

(2) accept for recycling used tires from customers, at the point of transfer, in a quantity equal to the number of new tires purchased; and

(3) post in a conspicuous place a written notice at least 8.5 by 11 inches in size that includes the universal recycling symbol and the following statements: "DO NOT put used tires in the trash."; "Recycle your used tires."; and "State law requires us to accept used tires for recycling, in exchange for new tires purchased.".

(b) A person who accepts used tires for recycling under subsection (a) shall not allow the tires to accumulate for periods of more than 90 days.

(c) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply to mail order sales nor shall the retail sale of a motor vehicle be considered to be the sale of tires at retail or offering of tires for retail sale. Instead of filing returns, retailers of tires may remit the tire user fee of $1.00 per tire to their suppliers of tires if the supplier of tires is a registered retailer of tires and agrees or otherwise arranges to collect and remit the tire fee to the Department of Revenue, notwithstanding the fact that the sale of the tire is a sale for resale and not a sale at retail. A tire supplier who enters into such an arrangement with a tire retailer shall be liable for the tax on all tires sold to the tire retailer and must (i) provide the tire retailer with a receipt that separately reflects the tire tax collected from the retailer on each transaction and (ii) accept used tires for recycling from the retailer's customers. The tire supplier shall be entitled to the collection allowance of 10 cents per tire.

The retailer of the tires must maintain in its books and records evidence that the appropriate fee was paid to the tire supplier and that the tire supplier has agreed to remit the fee to the Department of Revenue for each tire sold by the retailer. Otherwise, the tire retailer shall be directly liable for the fee on all tires sold at retail. Tire retailers paying the fee to their suppliers are not entitled to the collection allowance of 10 cents per tire.

(d) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section shall apply exclusively to tires to be used for vehicles defined in Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, aircraft tires, special mobile equipment, and implements of husbandry.

(e) The requirements of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) do not apply to the sale of reprocessed tires. For purposes of this Section, "reprocessed tire" means a used tire that has been recapped, retreaded, or regrooved and that has not been placed on a vehicle wheel rim.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-52, eff. 6-30-03; revised 10-13-03.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.7)

Sec. 57.7. Leaking underground storage tanks; site investigation and corrective action.

(a) Site investigation.

(1) For any site investigation activities required by statute or rule, the owner or operator shall submit to the Agency for approval a site investigation plan designed to determine the nature, concentration, direction of movement, rate of movement, and extent of the contamination as well as the significant physical features of the site and surrounding area that may affect contaminant transport and risk to human health and safety and the environment.

(2) Any owner or operator intending to seek payment from the Fund shall submit to the Agency for approval a site investigation budget that includes, but is not limited to, an accounting of all costs associated with the implementation and completion of the site investigation plan.

(3) Remediation objectives for the applicable indicator contaminants shall be determined using the tiered approach to corrective action objectives rules adopted by the Board pursuant to this Title and Title XVII of this Act. For the purposes of this Title, "Contaminant of Concern" or "Regulated Substance of Concern" in the rules means the applicable indicator contaminants set forth in subsection (d) of this Section and the rules adopted thereunder.

(4) Upon the Agency's approval of a site investigation plan, or as otherwise directed by the Agency, the owner or operator shall conduct a site investigation in accordance with the plan.

(5) Within 30 days after completing the site investigation, the owner or operator shall submit to the Agency for approval a site investigation completion report. At a minimum the report shall include all of the following:

(A) Executive summary.

(B) Site history.

(C) Site-specific sampling methods and results.

(D) Documentation of all field activities, including quality assurance.

(E) Documentation regarding the development of proposed remediation objectives.

(F) Interpretation of results.

(G) Conclusions.

(b) Corrective action.

(1) If the site investigation confirms none of the applicable indicator contaminants exceed the proposed remediation objectives, within 30 days after completing the site investigation the owner or operator shall submit to the Agency for approval a corrective action completion report in accordance with this Section.

(2) If any of the applicable indicator contaminants exceed the remediation objectives approved for the site, within 30 days after the Agency approves the site investigation completion report the owner or operator shall submit to the Agency for approval a corrective action plan designed to mitigate any threat to human health, human safety, or the environment resulting from the underground storage tank release. The plan shall describe the selected remedy and evaluate its ability and effectiveness to achieve the remediation objectives approved for the site. At a minimum, the report shall include all of the following:

(A) Executive summary.

(B) Statement of remediation objectives.

(C) Remedial technologies selected.

(D) Confirmation sampling plan.

(E) Current and projected future use of the property.

(F) Applicable preventive, engineering, and institutional controls including long-term reliability, operating, and maintenance plans, and monitoring procedures.

(G) A schedule for implementation and completion of the plan.

(3) Any owner or operator intending to seek payment from the Fund shall submit to the Agency for approval a corrective action budget that includes, but is not limited to, an accounting of all costs associated with the implementation and completion of the corrective action plan.

(4) Upon the Agency's approval of a corrective action plan, or as otherwise directed by the Agency, the owner or operator shall proceed with corrective action in accordance with the plan.

(5) Within 30 days after the completion of a corrective action plan that achieves applicable remediation objectives the owner or operator shall submit to the Agency for approval a corrective action completion report. The report shall demonstrate whether corrective action was completed in accordance with the approved corrective action plan and whether the remediation objectives approved for the site, as well as any other requirements of the plan, have been achieved.

(6) If within 4 years after the approval of any corrective action plan the applicable remediation objectives have not been achieved and the owner or operator has not submitted a corrective action completion report, the owner or operator must submit a status report for Agency review. The status report must include, but is not limited to, a description of the remediation activities taken to date, the effectiveness of the method of remediation being used, the likelihood of meeting the applicable remediation objectives using the current method of remediation, and the date the applicable remediation objectives are expected to be achieved.

(7) If the Agency determines any approved corrective action plan will not achieve applicable remediation objectives within a reasonable time, based upon the method of remediation and site specific circumstances, the Agency may require the owner or operator to submit to the Agency for approval a revised corrective action plan. If the owner or operator intends to seek payment from the Fund, the owner or operator must also submit a revised budget.

or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist or Licensed Professional Geologist

(c) Agency review and approval.

(1) Agency approval of any plan and associated budget, as described in this subsection (c), shall be considered final approval for purposes of seeking and obtaining payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund if the costs associated with the completion of any such plan are less than or equal to the amounts approved in such budget.

(2) In the event the Agency fails to approve, disapprove, or modify any plan or report submitted pursuant to this Title in writing within 120 days of the receipt by the Agency, the plan or report shall be considered to be rejected by operation of law for purposes of this Title and rejected for purposes of payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund.

(A) For purposes of those plans as identified in paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), the Agency's review may be an audit procedure. Such review or audit shall be consistent with the procedure for such review or audit as promulgated by the Board under Section 57.14. The Agency has the authority to establish an auditing program to verify compliance of such plans with the provisions of this Title.

(B) For purposes of corrective action plans submitted pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section for which payment from the Fund is not being sought, the Agency need not take action on such plan until 120 days after it receives the corrective action completion report required under subsection (b) of this Section. In the event the Agency approved the plan, it shall proceed under the provisions of this subsection (c).

(3) In approving any plan submitted pursuant to subsection (a) or (b) of this Section, the Agency shall determine, by a procedure promulgated by the Board under Section 57.14, that the costs associated with the plan are reasonable, will be incurred in the performance of site investigation or corrective action, and will not be used for site investigation or corrective action activities in excess of those required to meet the minimum requirements of this Title.

(4) For any plan or report received after June 24, September 13, 2002, any action by the Agency to disapprove or modify a plan submitted pursuant to this Title shall be provided to the owner or operator in writing within 120 days of the receipt by the Agency or, in the case of a site investigation plan or corrective action plan for which payment is not being sought, within 120 days of receipt of the site investigation completion report or corrective action completion report, respectively, and shall be accompanied by:

(A) an explanation of the Sections of this Act which may be violated if the plans were approved;

(B) an explanation of the provisions of the regulations, promulgated under this Act, which may be violated if the plan were approved;

(C) an explanation of the specific type of information, if any, which the Agency deems the applicant did not provide the Agency; and

(D) a statement of specific reasons why the Act and the regulations might not be met if the plan were approved.

Any action by the Agency to disapprove or modify a plan or report or the rejection of any plan or report by operation of law shall be subject to appeal to the Board in accordance with the procedures of Section 40. If the owner or operator elects to incorporate modifications required by the Agency rather than appeal, an amended plan shall be submitted to the Agency within 35 days of receipt of the Agency's written notification.

(5) For purposes of this Title, the term "plan" shall include:

(A) Any site investigation plan submitted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section;

(B) Any site investigation budget submitted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section;

(C) Any corrective action plan submitted pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section; or

(D) Any corrective action plan budget submitted pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) For purposes of this Title, the term "indicator contaminant" shall mean, unless and until the Board promulgates regulations to the contrary, the following: (i) if an underground storage tank contains gasoline, the indicator parameter shall be BTEX and Benzene; (ii) if the tank contained petroleum products consisting of middle distillate or heavy ends, then the indicator parameter shall be determined by a scan of PNA's taken from the location where contamination is most likely to be present; and (iii) if the tank contained used oil, then the indicator contaminant shall be those chemical constituents which indicate the type of petroleum stored in an underground storage tank. All references in this Title to groundwater objectives shall mean Class I groundwater standards or objectives as applicable.

(e) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, an owner or operator may proceed to conduct site investigation or corrective action prior to the submittal or approval of an otherwise required plan. If the owner or operator elects to so proceed, an applicable plan shall be filed with the Agency at any time. Such plan shall detail the steps taken to determine the type of site investigation or corrective action which was necessary at the site along with the site investigation or corrective action taken or to be taken, in addition to costs associated with activities to date and anticipated costs.

(2) Upon receipt of a plan submitted after activities have commenced at a site, the Agency shall proceed to review in the same manner as required under this Title. In the event the Agency disapproves all or part of the costs, the owner or operator may appeal such decision to the Board. The owner or operator shall not be eligible to be reimbursed for such disapproved costs unless and until the Board determines that such costs were eligible for payment.

(f) All investigations, plans, and reports conducted or prepared under this Section shall be conducted or prepared under the supervision of a licensed professional engineer and in accordance with the requirements of this Title.

(Source: P.A. 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 10-3-02.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.8)

Sec. 57.8. Underground Storage Tank Fund; payment; options for State payment; deferred correction election to commence corrective action upon availability of funds. If an owner or operator is eligible to access the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to an Office of State Fire Marshal eligibility/deductible final determination letter issued in accordance with Section 57.9, the owner or operator may submit a complete application for final or partial payment to the Agency for activities taken in response to a confirmed release. An owner or operator may submit a request for partial or final payment regarding a site no more frequently than once every 90 days.

(a) Payment after completion of corrective action measures. The owner or operator may submit an application for payment for activities performed at a site after completion of the requirements of Sections 57.6 and 57.7, or after completion of any other required activities at the underground storage tank site.

(1) In the case of any approved plan and budget for which payment is being sought, the Agency shall make a payment determination within 120 days of receipt of the application. Such determination shall be considered a final decision. The Agency's review shall be limited to generally accepted auditing and accounting practices. In no case shall the Agency conduct additional review of any plan which was completed within the budget, beyond auditing for adherence to the corrective action measures in the proposal. If the Agency fails to approve the payment application within 120 days, such application shall be deemed approved by operation of law and the Agency shall proceed to reimburse the owner or operator the amount requested in the payment application. However, in no event shall the Agency reimburse the owner or operator an amount greater than the amount approved in the plan.

(2) If sufficient funds are available in the Underground Storage Tank Fund, the Agency shall, within 60 days, forward to the Office of the State Comptroller a voucher in the amount approved under the payment application.

(3) In the case of insufficient funds, the Agency shall form a priority list for payment and shall notify persons in such priority list monthly of the availability of funds and when payment shall be made. Payment shall be made to the owner or operator at such time as sufficient funds become available for the costs associated with site investigation and corrective action and costs expended for activities performed where no proposal is required, if applicable. Such priority list shall be available to any owner or operator upon request. Priority for payment shall be determined by the date the Agency receives a complete request for partial or final payment. Upon receipt of notification from the Agency that the requirements of this Title have been met, the Comptroller shall make payment to the owner or operator of the amount approved by the Agency, if sufficient money exists in the Fund. If there is insufficient money in the Fund, then payment shall not be made. If the owner or operator appeals a final Agency payment determination and it is determined that the owner or operator is eligible for payment or additional payment, the priority date for the payment or additional payment shall be the same as the priority date assigned to the original request for partial or final payment.

(4) Any deductible, as determined pursuant to the Office of the State Fire Marshal's eligibility and deductibility final determination in accordance with Section 57.9, shall be subtracted from any payment invoice paid to an eligible owner or operator. Only one deductible shall apply per underground storage tank site.

(5) In the event that costs are or will be incurred in addition to those approved by the Agency, or after payment, the owner or operator may submit successive plans containing amended budgets. The requirements of Section 57.7 shall apply to any amended plans.

(6) For purposes of this Section, a complete application shall consist of:

(A) A certification from a Licensed Professional Engineer or Licensed Professional Geologist as required under this Title and acknowledged by the owner or operator.

(B) A statement of the amounts approved in the budget and the amounts actually sought for payment along with a certified statement by the owner or operator that the amounts so sought were expended in conformance with the approved budget.

(C) A copy of the Office of the State Fire Marshal's eligibility and deductibility determination.

(D) Proof that approval of the payment requested will not result in the limitations set forth in subsection (g) of this Section being exceeded.

(E) A federal taxpayer identification number and legal status disclosure certification on a form prescribed and provided by the Agency.

(b) Commencement of site investigation or corrective action upon availability of funds. The Board shall adopt regulations setting forth procedures based on risk to human health or the environment under which the owner or operator who has received approval for any budget plan submitted pursuant to Section 57.7, and who is eligible for payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to an Office of the State Fire Marshal eligibility and deductibility determination, may elect to defer site investigation or corrective action activities until funds are available in an amount equal to the amount approved in the budget. The regulations shall establish criteria based on risk to human health or the environment to be used for determining on a site-by-site basis whether deferral is appropriate. The regulations also shall establish the minimum investigatory requirements for determining whether the risk based criteria are present at a site considering deferral and procedures for the notification of owners or operators of insufficient funds, Agency review of request for deferral, notification of Agency final decisions, returning deferred sites to active status, and earmarking of funds for payment.

(c) When the owner or operator requests indemnification for payment of costs incurred as a result of a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank, if the owner or operator has satisfied the requirements of subsection (a) of this Section, the Agency shall forward a copy of the request to the Attorney General. The Attorney General shall review and approve the request for indemnification if:

(1) there is a legally enforceable judgment entered against the owner or operator and such judgment was entered due to harm caused by a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank and such judgment was not entered as a result of fraud; or

(2) a settlement with a third party due to a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank is reasonable.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the Agency shall not approve payment to an owner or operator from the Fund for costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred during a calendar year in excess of the following aggregate amounts based on the number of petroleum underground storage tanks owned or operated by such owner or operator in Illinois.

Amount Number of Tanks

$2,000,000........................fewer than 101

$3,000,000................................101 or more

(1) Costs incurred in excess of the aggregate amounts set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not be eligible for payment in subsequent years.

(2) For purposes of this subsection, requests submitted by any of the agencies, departments, boards, committees or commissions of the State of Illinois shall be acted upon as claims from a single owner or operator.

(3) For purposes of this subsection, owner or operator includes (i) any subsidiary, parent, or joint stock company of the owner or operator and (ii) any company owned by any parent, subsidiary, or joint stock company of the owner or operator.

(e) Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred by an owner or operator which have been paid to an owner or operator under a policy of insurance, another written agreement, or a court order are not eligible for payment under this Section. An owner or operator who receives payment under a policy of insurance, another written agreement, or a court order shall reimburse the State to the extent such payment covers costs for which payment was received from the Fund. Any monies received by the State under this subsection (e) shall be deposited into the Fund.

(f) (Blank.)

(g) The Agency shall not approve any payment from the Fund to pay an owner or operator:

(1) for costs of corrective action incurred by such owner or operator in an amount in excess of $1,500,000 per occurrence; and

(2) for costs of indemnification of such owner or operator in an amount in excess of $1,500,000 per occurrence.

(h) Payment of any amount from the Fund for corrective action or indemnification shall be subject to the State acquiring by subrogation the rights of any owner, operator, or other person to recover the costs of corrective action or indemnification for which the Fund has compensated such owner, operator, or person from the person responsible or liable for the release.

(i) If the Agency refuses to pay or authorizes only a partial payment, the affected owner or operator may petition the Board for a hearing in the manner provided for the review of permit decisions in Section 40 of this Act.

(j) Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred by an owner or operator prior to July 28, 1989, shall not be eligible for payment or reimbursement under this Section.

(k) The Agency shall not pay costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred before providing notification of the release of petroleum in accordance with the provisions of this Title.

(l) Corrective action does not include legal defense costs. Legal defense costs include legal costs for seeking payment under this Title unless the owner or operator prevails before the Board in which case the Board may authorize payment of legal fees.

(m) The Agency may apportion payment of costs for plans submitted under Section 57.7 if:

(1) the owner or operator was deemed eligible to access the Fund for payment of corrective action costs for some, but not all, of the underground storage tanks at the site; and

(2) the owner or operator failed to justify all costs attributable to each underground storage tank at the site.

(n) The Agency shall not pay costs associated with a corrective action plan incurred after the Agency provides notification to the owner or operator pursuant to item (7) of subsection (b) of Section 57.7 that a revised corrective action plan is required. Costs associated with any subsequently approved corrective action plan shall be eligible for reimbursement if they meet the requirements of this Title.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 10-3-02.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.13)

Sec. 57.13. Underground Storage Tank Program; transition.

(a) If a release is reported to the proper State authority on or after June 24 September 13, 2002, the owner or operator shall comply with the requirements of this Title.

(b) If a release is reported to the proper State authority prior to June 24 September 13, 2002, the owner or operator of an underground storage tank may elect to proceed in accordance with the requirements of this Title by submitting a written statement to the Agency of such election. If the owner or operator elects to proceed under the requirements of this Title all costs incurred in connection with the incident prior to notification shall be reimbursable in the same manner as was allowable under the then existing law. Completion of corrective action shall then follow the provisions of this Title.

(Source: P.A. 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; revised 9-9-02.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.3)

Sec. 58.3. Site Investigation and Remedial Activities Program; Brownfields Redevelopment Fund.

(a) The General Assembly hereby establishes by this Title a Site Investigation and Remedial Activities Program for sites subject to this Title. This program shall be administered by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency under this Title XVII and rules adopted by the Illinois Pollution Control Board.

(b) (1) The General Assembly hereby creates within the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund, consisting of 2 programs to be known as the "Municipal Brownfields Redevelopment Grant Program" and the "Brownfields Redevelopment Loan Program", which shall be used and administered by the Agency as provided in Sections 58.13 and 58.15 of this Act and the rules adopted under those Sections. The Brownfields Redevelopment Fund ("Fund") shall contain moneys transferred from the Response Contractors Indemnification Fund and other moneys made available for deposit into the Fund.

(2) The State Treasurer, ex officio, shall be the custodian of the Fund, and the Comptroller shall direct payments from the Fund upon vouchers properly certified by the Agency. The Treasurer shall credit to the Fund interest earned on moneys contained in the Fund. The Agency shall have the authority to accept, receive, and administer on behalf of the State any grants, gifts, loans, reimbursements or payments for services, or other moneys made available to the State from any source for purposes of the Fund. Those moneys shall be deposited into the Fund, unless otherwise required by the Environmental Protection Act or by federal law.

(3) Pursuant to appropriation, all moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Agency for the purposes set forth in subdivision (b)(4) of this Section and Sections 58.13 and 58.15 of this Act and to cover the Agency's costs of program development and administration under those Sections.

(4) The Agency shall have the power to enter into intergovernmental agreements with the federal government or the State, or any instrumentality thereof, for purposes of capitalizing the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund. Moneys on deposit in the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund may be used for the creation of reserve funds or pledged funds that secure the obligations of repayment of loans made pursuant to Section 58.15 of this Act. For the purpose of obtaining capital for deposit into the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund, the Agency may also enter into agreements with financial institutions and other persons for the purpose of selling loans and developing a secondary market for such loans. The Agency shall have the power to create and establish such reserve funds and accounts as may be necessary or desirable to accomplish its purposes under this subsection and to allocate its available moneys into such funds and accounts. Investment earnings on moneys held in the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund, including any reserve fund or pledged fund, shall be deposited into the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund.

(5) The Agency is authorized to administer funds made available to the Agency under federal law, including but not limited to the Small Business Liability Relief and Brownfields Revitalization Revitilization Act of 2002, related to brownfields cleanup and reuse in accordance with that law and this Title.

(Source: P.A. 91-36, eff. 6-15-99; 92-486, eff. 1-1-02; 92-715, eff. 7-23-02; revised 10-17-05.)

(415 ILCS 5/58.7)

Sec. 58.7. Review and approvals.

(a) Requirements. All plans and reports that are submitted pursuant to this Title shall be submitted for review or approval in accordance with this Section.

(b) Review and evaluation by the Agency.

(1) Except for sites excluded under subdivision (a) (2) of Section 58.1, the Agency shall, subject to available resources, agree to provide review and evaluation services for activities carried out pursuant to this Title for which the RA requested the services in writing. As a condition for providing such services, the Agency may require that the RA for a site:

(A) Conform with the procedures of this Title;

(B) Allow for or otherwise arrange site visits or other site evaluation by the Agency when so requested;

(C) Agree to perform the Remedial Action Plan as approved under this Title;

(D) Agree to pay any reasonable costs incurred and documented by the Agency in providing such services;

(E) Make an advance partial payment to the Agency for such anticipated services in an amount, acceptable to the Agency, but not to exceed $5,000 or one-half of the total anticipated costs of the Agency, whichever sum is less; and

(F) Demonstrate, if necessary, authority to act on behalf of or in lieu of the owner or operator.

(2) Any moneys received by the State for costs incurred by the Agency in performing review or evaluation services for actions conducted pursuant to this Title shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund.

(3) An RA requesting services under subdivision (b) (1) of this Section may, at any time, notify the Agency, in writing, that Agency services previously requested are no longer wanted. Within 180 days after receipt of the notice, the Agency shall provide the RA with a final invoice for services provided until the date of such notifications.

(4) The Agency may invoice or otherwise request or demand payment from a RA for costs incurred by the Agency in performing review or evaluation services for actions by the RA at sites only if:

(A) The Agency has incurred costs in performing response actions, other than review or evaluation services, due to the failure of the RA to take response action in accordance with a notice issued pursuant to this Act;

(B) The RA has agreed in writing to the payment of such costs;

(C) The RA has been ordered to pay such costs by the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction pursuant to this Act; or

(D) The RA has requested or has consented to Agency review or evaluation services under subdivision (b)

(1) of this Section.

(5) The Agency may, subject to available resources, agree to provide review and evaluation services for response actions if there is a written agreement among parties to a legal action or if a notice to perform a response action has been issued by the Agency.

(c) Review and evaluation by a Licensed Professional Engineer or Licensed Professional Geologist. A RA may elect to contract with a Licensed Professional Engineer or, in the case of a site investigation report only, a Licensed Professional Geologist, who will perform review and evaluation services on behalf of and under the direction of the Agency relative to the site activities.

(1) Prior to entering into the contract with the RELPEG, the RA shall notify the Agency of the RELPEG to be selected. The Agency and the RA shall discuss the potential terms of the contract.

(2) At a minimum, the contract with the RELPEG shall provide that the RELPEG will submit any reports directly to the Agency, will take his or her directions for work assignments from the Agency, and will perform the assigned work on behalf of the Agency.

(3) Reasonable costs incurred by the Agency shall be paid by the RA directly to the Agency in accordance with the terms of the review and evaluation services agreement entered into under subdivision (b) (1) of Section 58.7.

(4) In no event shall the RELPEG acting on behalf of the Agency be an employee of the RA or the owner or operator of the site or be an employee of any other person the RA has contracted to provide services relative to the site.

(d) Review and approval. All reviews required under this Title shall be carried out by the Agency or a RELPEG, both under the direction of a Licensed Professional Engineer or, in the case of the review of a site investigation only, a Licensed Professional Geologist.

(1) All review activities conducted by the Agency or a RELPEG shall be carried out in conformance with this Title and rules promulgated under Section 58.11.

(2) Subject to the limitations in subsection (c) and this subsection (d), the specific plans, reports, and activities that the Agency or a RELPEG may review include:

(A) Site Investigation Reports and related activities;

(B) Remediation Objectives Reports;

(C) Remedial Action Plans and related activities; and

(D) Remedial Action Completion Reports and related activities.

(3) Only the Agency shall have the authority to approve, disapprove, or approve with conditions a plan or report as a result of the review process including those plans and reports reviewed by a RELPEG. If the Agency disapproves a plan or report or approves a plan or report with conditions, the written notification required by subdivision (d) (4) of this Section shall contain the following information, as applicable:

(A) An explanation of the Sections of this Title that may be violated if the plan or report was approved;

(B) An explanation of the provisions of the rules promulgated under this Title that may be violated if the plan or report was approved;

(C) An explanation of the specific type of information, if any, that the Agency deems the applicant did not provide the Agency;

(D) A statement of specific reasons why the Title and regulations might not be met if the plan or report were approved; and

(E) An explanation of the reasons for conditions if conditions are required.

(4) Upon approving, disapproving, or approving with conditions a plan or report, the Agency shall notify the RA in writing of its decision. In the case of approval or approval with conditions of a Remedial Action Completion Report, the Agency shall prepare a No Further Remediation Letter that meets the requirements of Section 58.10 and send a copy of the letter to the RA.

(5) All reviews undertaken by the Agency or a RELPEG shall be completed and the decisions communicated to the RA within 60 days of the request for review or approval. The RA may waive the deadline upon a request from the Agency. If the Agency disapproves or approves with conditions a plan or report or fails to issue a final decision within the 60 day period and the RA has not agreed to a waiver of the deadline, the RA may, within 35 days, file an appeal to the Board. Appeals to the Board shall be in the manner provided for the review of permit decisions in Section 40 of this Act.

(e) Standard of review. In making determinations, the following factors, and additional factors as may be adopted by the Board in accordance with Section 58.11, shall be considered by the Agency when reviewing or approving plans, reports, and related activities, or the RELPEG, when reviewing plans, reports, and related activities:

(1) Site Investigation Reports and related activities: Whether investigations have been conducted and the results compiled in accordance with the appropriate procedures and whether the interpretations and conclusions reached are supported by the information gathered. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The adequacy of the description of the site and site characteristics that were used to evaluate the site;

(B) The adequacy of the investigation of potential pathways and risks to receptors identified at the site; and

(C) The appropriateness of the sampling and analysis used.

(2) Remediation Objectives Reports: Whether the remediation objectives are consistent with the requirements of the applicable method for selecting or determining remediation objectives under Section 58.5. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) If the objectives were based on the determination of area background levels under subsection (b) of Section 58.5, whether the review of current and historic conditions at or in the immediate vicinity of the site has been thorough and whether the site sampling and analysis has been performed in a manner resulting in accurate determinations;

(B) If the objectives were calculated on the basis of predetermined equations using site specific data, whether the calculations were accurately performed and whether the site specific data reflect actual site conditions; and

(C) If the objectives were determined using a site specific risk assessment procedure, whether the procedure used is nationally recognized and accepted, whether the calculations were accurately performed, and whether the site specific data reflect actual site conditions.

(3) Remedial Action Plans and related activities: Whether the plan will result in compliance with this Title, and rules adopted under it and attainment of the applicable remediation objectives. In making the determination, the following factors shall be considered:

(A) The likelihood that the plan will result in the attainment of the applicable remediation objectives;

(B) Whether the activities proposed are consistent with generally accepted engineering practices; and

(C) The management of risk relative to any remaining contamination, including but not limited to, provisions for the long-term enforcement, operation, and maintenance of institutional and engineering controls, if relied on.

(4) Remedial Action Completion Reports and related activities: Whether the remedial activities have been completed in accordance with the approved Remedial Action Plan and whether the applicable remediation objectives have been attained.

(f) All plans and reports submitted for review shall include a Licensed Professional Engineer's certification that all investigations and remedial activities were carried out under his or her direction and, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the work described in the plan or report has been completed in accordance with generally accepted engineering practices, and the information presented is accurate and complete. In the case of a site investigation report prepared or supervised by a Licensed Professional Geologist, the required certification may be made by the Licensed Professional Geologist (rather than a Licensed Professional Engineer) and based upon generally accepted principles of professional geology.

(g) In accordance with Section 58.11, the Agency shall propose and the Board shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this Section. At a minimum, the rules shall detail the types of services the Agency may provide in response to requests under subdivision (b) (1) of this Section and the recordkeeping it will utilize in documenting to the RA the costs incurred by the Agency in providing such services.

(h) Public participation.

(1) The Agency shall develop guidance to assist RA's in the implementation of a community relations plan to address activity at sites undergoing remedial action pursuant to this Title.

(2) The RA may elect to enter into a services agreement with the Agency for Agency assistance in community outreach efforts.

(3) The Agency shall maintain a registry listing those sites undergoing remedial action pursuant to this Title.

(4) Notwithstanding any provisions of this Section, the RA of a site undergoing remedial activity pursuant to this Title may elect to initiate a community outreach effort for the site.

(Source: P.A. 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; 92-735, eff. 7-25-02; revised 9-9-02.)

Section 955. The Burn Injury Reporting Act is amended by adding Section 900 as follows:

(425 ILCS 7/900 new)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2009)

Sec. 900. Expiration. This Act is repealed on January 1, 2009.

Section 960. The Fireworks Use Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 5 as follows:

(425 ILCS 35/1) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 127)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act, the following words shall have the following meanings:

"1.3G fireworks" means those fireworks used for professional outdoor displays and classified as fireworks UN0333, UN0334, or UN0335 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101.

"Consumer distributor" means any person who distributes, offers for sale, sells, or exchanges for consideration consumer fireworks in Illinois to another distributor or directly to any retailer or person for resale.

"Consumer fireworks" means those fireworks that must comply with the construction, chemical composition, and labeling regulations of the U.S. Consumer Products Safety Commission, as set forth in 16 C.F.R. Parts 1500 and 1507, and classified as fireworks UN0336 or UN0337 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101. "Consumer fireworks" shall not include snake or glow worm pellets; smoke devices; trick noisemakers known as "party poppers", "booby traps", "snappers", "trick matches", "cigarette loads", and "auto burglar alarms"; sparklers; toy pistols, toy canes, toy guns, or other devices in which paper or plastic caps containing twenty-five hundredths grains or less of explosive compound are used, provided they are so constructed that the hand cannot come in contact with the cap when in place for the explosion; and toy pistol paper or plastic caps that contain less than twenty hundredths grains of explosive mixture; the sale and use of which shall be permitted at all times.

"Consumer fireworks display" or "consumer display" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of consumer fireworks to produce a visual or audible effect.

"Consumer operator" means an adult individual who is responsible for the safety, setup, and discharge of the consumer fireworks display and who has completed the training required in Section 2.2 of this Act.

"Consumer retailer" means any person who offers for sale, sells, or exchanges for consideration consumer fireworks in Illinois directly to any person with a consumer display permit.

"Display fireworks" means 1.3G or special effects fireworks or as further defined in the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Flame effect" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of flammable gases, liquids, or special materials to produce a thermal, physical, visual, or audible effect before the public, invitees, or licensees, regardless of whether admission is charged, in accordance with National Fire Protection Association 160 guidelines, and as may be further defined in the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Lead pyrotechnic operator" means an individual who is responsible for the safety, setup, and discharge of the pyrotechnic display and who is licensed pursuant to the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Person" means an individual, firm, corporation, association, partnership, company, consortium, joint venture, or commercial entity.

"Pyrotechnic display" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of display fireworks or flame effects to produce visual or audible effects of a exhibitional nature before the public, invitees, or licensees, regardless of whether admission is charged, and as may be further defined in the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Special effects fireworks" means pyrotechnic devices used for special effects by professionals in the performing arts in conjunction with theatrical, musical, or other productions that are similar to consumer fireworks in chemical compositions and construction, but are not intended for consumer use and are not labeled as such or identified as "intended for indoor use". "Special effects fireworks" are classified as fireworks UN0431 or UN0432 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101.

(Source: P.A. 94-658, eff. 1-1-06; revised 11-21-05.)

(425 ILCS 35/5) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 131)

Sec. 5. (a) Any person, firm, co-partnership, or corporation violating the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 94-658, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

Section 965. The Public Building Egress Act is amended by changing Section 1.5 as follows:

(425 ILCS 55/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Stairwell door access.

(a) Stairwell enclosures in buildings greater than 4 stories shall comply with one of the following requirements:

(1) no stairwell enclosure door shall be locked at any time in order to provide re-entry from the stair enclosure to the interior of the building; or

(2) stairwell enclosure doors that are locked shall be equipped with an electronic lock release system that is activated upon loss of power, manually by a single switch accessible to building management or firefighting personnel, and automatically by activation of the building's fire alarm system.

A telephone or other two-way communications system connected to an approved constantly attended location shall be provided on not less than every fifth floor in each stairway where the doors to the stairway are locked. If this option is selected, the building must comply with these requirements by January 1, 2006.

(b) Regardless of which option is selected under subsection (a) of this Section, stairwell enclosure doors at the main egress level of the building shall remain unlocked from the stairwell enclosure side at all times.

(c) Building owners that select the option under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section must comply with the following requirements during the time necessary to install a lock release system and the two-way communication system:

(1) re-entry into the building interior shall be possible at all times on the highest story or second highest story, whichever allows access to another exit stair;

(2) there shall not be more than 4 stories intervening between stairwell enclosure doors that provides access to another exit stair;

(3) doors allowing re-entry shall be identified as such on the stair side of the door;

(4) doors not allowing re-entry shall be provided with a sign on the stair side indicating the location of the nearest exit, in each direction of travel that allows re-entry; and

(5) the information required to be posted on the door under paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (c), shall be posted at eye level and at the bottom of the door.

(d) Nothing in this Section applies to any stairwell enclosure door that opens directly into a dwelling unit, provided the dwelling unit door has a self-closer, latch, and no self-locking hardware. Where all doors in the stairwell meet these criteria, the stairwell shall be provided with either a two-way communication system or readily operable windows on each landing or intermediate landing.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f) (e), a home rule unit may not regulate stairwell door access in a manner less restrictive than the regulation by the State of stairwell door access under this Act. This subsection (e) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(f) (e) This Section does not apply in a home rule municipality that, on or before January 1, 2005, has passed an ordinance regulating building access from stairwell enclosures in buildings that are more than 4 stories in height.

(Source: P.A. 94-630, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 970. The Gasoline Storage Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(430 ILCS 15/2) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 154)

Sec. 2. Jurisdiction; regulation of tanks.

(1) (a) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, the jurisdiction of the Office of the State Fire Marshal under this Act shall be concurrent with that of municipalities and other political subdivisions. The Office of the State Fire Marshal has power to promulgate, pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, reasonable rules and regulations governing the keeping, storage, transportation, sale or use of gasoline and volatile oils. Nothing in this Act shall relieve any person, corporation, or other entity from complying with any zoning ordinance of a municipality or home rule unit enacted pursuant to Section 11-13-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted pursuant to Section 11-8-4 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(b) The rulemaking power shall include the power to promulgate rules providing for the issuance and revocation of permits allowing the self service dispensing of motor fuels as such term is defined in the Motor Fuel Tax Law in retail service stations or any other place of business where motor fuels are dispensed into the fuel tanks of motor vehicles, internal combustion engines or portable containers. Such rules shall specify the requirements that must be met both prior and subsequent to the issuance of such permits in order to insure the safety and welfare of the general public. The operation of such service stations without a permit shall be unlawful. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall revoke such permit if the self service operation of such a service station is found to pose a significant risk to the safety and welfare of the general public.

(c) However, except in any county with a population of 1,000,000 or more, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall not have the authority to prohibit the operation of a service station solely on the basis that it is an unattended self-service station which utilizes key or card operated self-service motor fuel dispensing devices. Nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit the Office of the State Fire Marshal from adopting reasonable rules and regulations governing the safety of self-service motor fuel dispensing devices.

(d) The State Fire Marshal shall not prohibit the dispensing or delivery of flammable or combustible motor vehicle fuels directly into the fuel tanks of vehicles from tank trucks, tank wagons, or other portable tanks. The State Fire Marshal shall adopt rules (i) for the issuance of permits for the dispensing of motor vehicle fuels in the manner described in this paragraph (d), (ii) that establish fees for permits and inspections, and provide for those fees to be deposited into the Fire Prevention Fund, (iii) that require the dispensing of motor fuel in the manner described in this paragraph (d) to meet conditions consistent with nationally recognized standards such as those of the National Fire Protection Association, and (iv) that restrict the dispensing of motor vehicle fuels in the manner described in this paragraph (d) to the following:

(A) agriculture sites for agricultural purposes,

(B) construction sites for refueling construction equipment used at the construction site,

(C) sites used for the parking, operation, or maintenance of a commercial vehicle fleet, but only if the site is located in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and the site is not normally accessible to the public, and

(D) sites used for the refueling of police, fire, or emergency medical services vehicles or other vehicles that are owned, leased, or operated by (or operated under contract with) the State, a unit of local government, or a school district, or any agency of the State and that are not normally accessible to the public.

(2) (a) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall adopt rules and regulations regarding underground storage tanks and associated piping and no municipality or other political subdivision shall adopt or enforce any ordinances or regulations regarding such underground tanks and piping other than those which are identical to the rules and regulations of the Office of the State Fire Marshal. It is declared to be the law of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that the establishment and enforcement of standards regarding underground storage tanks and associated piping within the jurisdiction of the Office of the State Fire Marshal is an exclusive State function which may not be exercised concurrently by a home rule unit except as expressly permitted in this Act.

(b) The Office of the State Fire Marshal may enter into written contracts with municipalities of over 500,000 in population to enforce the rules and regulations adopted under this subsection.

(3) (a) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall have authority over underground storage tanks which contain, have contained, or are designed to contain petroleum, hazardous substances and regulated substances as those terms are used in Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616), as amended by the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (P.L. 99-499). The Office shall have the power with regard to underground storage tanks to require any person who tests, installs, repairs, replaces, relines, or removes any underground storage tank system containing, formerly containing, or which is designed to contain petroleum or other regulated substances, to obtain a permit to install, repair, replace, reline, or remove the particular tank system, and to pay a fee set by the Office for a permit to install, repair, replace, reline, upgrade, test, or remove any portion of an underground storage tank system. All persons who do repairs above grade level for themselves need not pay a fee or be certified. All fees received by the Office from certification and permits shall be deposited in the Fire Prevention Fund for the exclusive use of the Office in administering the Underground Storage Tank program.

(b) (i) Within 120 days after the promulgation of regulations or amendments thereto by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency to implement Section 9003 of Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580 95-580), as amended, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall adopt regulations or amendments thereto which are identical in substance. The rulemaking provisions of Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall not apply to regulations or amendments thereto adopted pursuant to this subparagraph (i).

(ii) The Office of the State Fire Marshal may adopt additional regulations relating to an underground storage tank program that are not inconsistent with and at least as stringent as Section 9003 of Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), as amended, or regulations adopted thereunder. Except as provided otherwise in subparagraph (i) of this paragraph (b), the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall not adopt regulations relating to corrective action at underground storage tanks. Regulations adopted pursuant to this subsection shall be adopted in accordance with the procedures for rulemaking in Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(c) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall require any person, corporation or other entity who tests an underground tank or its piping or cathodic protection for another to report the results of such test to the Office.

(d) In accordance with constitutional limitations, the Office shall have authority to enter at all reasonable times upon any private or public property for the purpose of:

(i) Inspecting and investigating to ascertain possible violations of this Act, of regulations thereunder or of permits or terms or conditions thereof; or

(ii) In accordance with the provisions of this Act, taking whatever emergency action, that is necessary or appropriate, to assure that the public health or safety is not threatened whenever there is a release or a substantial threat of a release of petroleum or a regulated substance from an underground storage tank.

(e) The Office of the State Fire Marshal may issue an Administrative Order to any person who it reasonably believes has violated the rules and regulations governing underground storage tanks, including the installation, repair, leak detection, cathodic protection tank testing, removal or release notification. Such an order shall be served by registered or certified mail or in person. Any person served with such an order may appeal such order by submitting in writing any such appeal to the Office within 10 days of the date of receipt of such order. The Office shall conduct an administrative hearing governed by the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and enter an order to sustain, modify or revoke such order. Any appeal from such order shall be to the circuit court of the county in which the violation took place and shall be governed by the Administrative Review Law.

(f) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall not require the removal of an underground tank system taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, except in the case in which the office of the State Fire Marshal has determined that a release from the underground tank system poses a current or potential threat to human health and the environment. In that case, and upon receipt of an Order from the Office of the State Fire Marshal, the owner or operator of the nonoperational underground tank system shall assess the excavation zone and close the system in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(4) (a) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall adopt rules and regulations regarding aboveground storage tanks and associated piping and no municipality or other political subdivision shall adopt or enforce any ordinances or regulations regarding such aboveground tanks and piping other than those which are identical to the rules and regulations of the Office of the State Fire Marshal unless, in the interest of fire safety, the Office of the State Fire Marshal delegates such authority to municipalities, political subdivisions or home rule units. It is declared to be the law of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that the establishment of standards regarding aboveground storage tanks and associated piping within the jurisdiction of the Office of the State Fire Marshal is an exclusive State function which may not be exercised concurrently by a home rule unit except as expressly permitted in this Act.

(b) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall enforce its rules and regulations concerning aboveground storage tanks and associated piping; however, municipalities may enforce any of their zoning ordinances or zoning regulations regarding aboveground tanks. The Office of the State Fire Marshal may issue an administrative order to any owner of an aboveground storage tank and associated piping it reasonably believes to be in violation of such rules and regulations to remedy or remove any such violation. Such an order shall be served by registered or certified mail or in person. Any person served with such an order may appeal such order by submitting in writing any such appeal to the Office within 10 days of the date of receipt of such order. The Office shall conduct an administrative hearing governed by the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and enter an order to sustain, modify or revoke such order. Any appeal from such order shall be to the circuit court of the county in which the violation took place and shall be governed by the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 91-851, eff. 1-1-01; 92-618, eff. 7-11-02; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 975. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1, 3, and 3.1 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun or B-B gun which either expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter and which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second or breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.

"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 94-6, eff. 1-1-06; 94-353, eff. 7-29-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(430 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3)

Sec. 3. (a) Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm, firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card which has previously been issued in his name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.

(a-5) Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or transferring the firearm, request the Department of State Police to conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.

(b) Any person within this State who transfers or causes to be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date of transfer. Such record shall contain the date of the transfer; the description, serial number or other information identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for inspection such record of transfer. If the transfer or sale took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique identification number. Failure to record the unique identification number is a petty offense.

(b-5) Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person outside of Illinois. Any resident purchasing ammunition outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and either his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped only to an address on either of those 2 documents.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-6, eff. 1-1-06; 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; 94-353, eff. 7-29-05; 94-571, eff. 8-12-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Dial up system.

(a) The Department of State Police shall provide a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The Department of State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, federal law, or this Act the Department of State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(e) The Department of State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(f) The Department of State Police shall promulgate rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(Source: P.A. 94-6, eff. 1-1-06; 94-353, eff. 7-29-05; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 980. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Sections 4.01, 4.04, and 16 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/4.01) (from Ch. 8, par. 704.01)

Sec. 4.01. Animals in entertainment. This Section does not apply when the only animals involved are dogs. (Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, rather than this Section, applies when the only animals involved are dogs.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any animal which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between such animal and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person shall promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment, any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(c) No person shall sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any animal which he or she knows or should know has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another animal or human or be intentionally killed, for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(d) No person shall manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation or delivery any device or equipment which that person knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any human and animal, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(e) No person shall own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which such person knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person shall make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, which he or she knows or should know is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(g) No person shall attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(h) (Blank).

(i) Any animals or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 by the Department when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving an animal fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(j) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(k) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with an animal for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the animal was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the animal or animals involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(l) No person shall solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(m) The penalties for violations of this Section shall be as follows:

(1) A person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense. A second or subsequent offense involving the violation of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is a Class 4 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating subsection (d), (e), or (f) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(3) A person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(4) A person convicted of violating subsection (l) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 92-425, eff. 1-1-02; 92-454, eff. 1-1-02; 92-650, eff. 7-11-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 11-21-02.)

(510 ILCS 70/4.04) (from Ch. 8, par. 704.04)

Sec. 4.04. Injuring or killing police animals, service animals, or search and rescue dogs prohibited. It shall be unlawful for any person to willfully or maliciously torture, mutilate, injure, disable, poison, or kill (i) any animal used by a law enforcement department or agency in the performance of the functions or duties of the department or agency or when placed in confinement off duty, (ii) any service animal, (iii) any search and rescue dog, or (iv) any law enforcement, service, or search and rescue animal in training. However, a police officer or veterinarian may perform euthanasia in emergency situations when delay would cause the animal undue suffering and pain.

A person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony A misdemeanor if the animal is not killed or totally disabled; if the animal is killed or totally disabled, the person is guilty of a Class 3 Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-454, eff. 1-1-02; 92-650, eff. 7-11-02; incorporates 92-723, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-3-02.)

(510 ILCS 70/16) (from Ch. 8, par. 716)

Sec. 16. Miscellaneous violations; injunctions; forfeiture.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank). 4 felony 3

(c) Any person convicted of any act of abuse or neglect for which no other penalty is specified in this Act, or of violating any other provision of this Act or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto for which no other penalty is specified in this Act, is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor for the first violation. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony, with every day that a violation continues constituting a separate offense.

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) The Department may enjoin a person from a continuing violation of this Act.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating Section 3, 3.01, 3.02, or 3.03 the court may order the convicted person to forfeit to an animal control or animal shelter the animal or animals that are the basis of the conviction. Upon an order of forfeiture, the convicted person is deemed to have permanently relinquished all rights to the animal or animals that are the basis of the conviction. The forfeited animal or animals shall be adopted or humanely euthanized. In no event may the convicted person or anyone residing in his or her household be permitted to adopt the forfeited animal or animals. The court, additionally, may order that the convicted person and persons dwelling in the same household as the convicted person who conspired, aided, or abetted in the unlawful act that was the basis of the conviction, or who knew or should have known of the unlawful act, may not own, harbor, or have custody or control of any other animals for a period of time that the court deems reasonable.

(Source: P.A. 91-291, eff. 1-1-00; 91-351, eff. 7-29-99; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-425, eff. 1-1-02; 92-454, eff. 1-1-02; 92-650, eff. 7-11-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-723, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-3-02.)

Section 985. The Fish and Aquatic Life Code is amended by changing Section 20-35 as follows:

(515 ILCS 5/20-35) (from Ch. 56, par. 20-35)

Sec. 20-35. Offenses.

(a) Except as prescribed in Section 5-25 and unless otherwise provided in this Code, any person who is found guilty of violating any of the provisions of this Code, including administrative rules, is guilty of a petty offense.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of Section 5-20, 10-5, 10-10, 10-15, 10-20, 10-25, 10-30, 10-35, 10-50, 10-60, 10-70, 10-75, 10-95, 10-115, 10-135, 15-5, 15-10, 15-15, 15-20, 15-30, 15-32, 15-40, 15-45, 15-55, 15-60, 15-65, 15-75, 15-80, 15-85, 15-90, 15-95, 15-100, 15-105, 15-110, 15-115, 15-120, 15-130, 15-140, 20-70, 20-75, 20-80, 20-85 (except subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), and (g)), 25-10, 25-15, or 25-20 of this Code, including administrative rules relating to those Sections, is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of Section 1-200, 1-205, 10-55, 10-80, 10-100(b), 15-35, or 20-120 of this Code, including administrative rules relating to those Sections, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Code, including administrative rules, during the 5 years following the revocation of his or her license, permit, or privileges under Section 20-105 is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Any person who violates Section 5-25 of this Code, including administrative rules, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(b)(1) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to take aquatic life from any aquatic life farm except with the consent of the owner of the aquatic life farm. Any person possessing fishing tackle on the premises of an aquatic life farm is presumed to be fishing. The presumption may be rebutted by clear and convincing evidence. All fishing tackle, apparatus, and vehicles used in the violation of this subsection (b) shall be confiscated by the arresting officer. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, the seizure and confiscation procedures set forth in Section 1-215 of this Code shall apply. If the confiscated property is determined by the circuit court to have been used in the violation of this subsection (b), the confiscated property shall be sold at public auction by the county sheriff of the county where the violation occurred. The proceeds of the sale shall be deposited in the county general fund; provided that the auction may be stayed by an appropriate court order.

(2) A violation of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b) is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(c)(1) It is unlawful for any person to trespass or fish on an aquatic life farm located on a strip mine lake or other body of water used for aquatic life farming operations, or within a 200 foot buffer zone surrounding cages or netpens that are clearly delineated by buoys of a posted aquatic life farm, by swimming, scuba diving, or snorkeling in, around, or under the aquatic life farm or by operating a watercraft over, around, or in the aquatic life farm without the consent of the owner of the aquatic life farm.

(2) A violation of paragraph (1) of this subsection (c) is a Class B misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class A misdemeanor for a second or subsequent offense. All fishing tackle, apparatus, and watercraft used in a second or subsequent violation of this subsection (c) shall be confiscated by the arresting officer. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, the seizure and confiscation procedures set forth in Section 1-215 of this Code shall apply. If the confiscated property is determined by the circuit court to have been used in a violation of this subsection (c), the confiscated property shall be sold at public auction by the county sheriff of the county where the violation occurred. The proceeds of the sale shall be deposited in the county general fund; provided that the auction may be stayed by an appropriate court order.

(d) Offenses committed by minors under the direct control or with the consent of a parent or guardian may subject the parent or guardian to the penalties prescribed in this Section or as otherwise provided in this Code.

(e) In addition to any fines imposed under this Section, or as otherwise provided in this Code, any person found guilty of unlawfully taking or possessing any aquatic life protected by this Code shall be assessed a civil penalty for that aquatic life in accordance with the values prescribed in Section 5-25 of this Code. This civil penalty shall be imposed at the time of the conviction by the Circuit Court for the county where the offense was committed. Except as otherwise provided for in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, all penalties provided for in this Section shall be remitted to the Department in accordance with the provisions of Section 1-180 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-222, eff. 7-14-05; 94-592, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 990. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.2 and 3.23 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.2) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.2)

Sec. 2.2. This Act shall apply only to the wild birds and parts of wild birds (their nests and eggs), and wild mammals and parts of wild mammals, which shall include their green hides, in the State of Illinois, or which may be brought into the State, that are hereby defined as follows:

All birds, both game and non-game (except the House Sparrow, Passer domesticus; European Starling, Sturnus vulgaris; and Rock Dove or Domestic Pigeon, Columba livia). GAME BIRDS-Ruffed grouse, Bonasa umbellus; Sharp-tailed grouse, Pediocetes phasianellus; Bobwhite quail, Colinus virginianus; Hungarian Partridge, Perdix perdix; Chukar Partridge, Alectoris graeca; Ring-necked Pheasant, Phasianus colchicus; Greater Prairie Chicken, Tympanuchus cupido; Wild Turkey, Meleagris gallopavo. MIGRATORY GAME BIRDS-Waterfowl including brant, wild ducks, geese and swans, Anatidae; rails, gallinules and coots, Rallidae; snipe, Gallinago gallinago; woodcock, Scolopax minor; pigeons, including doves and wild pigeons (except domestic pigeons), Columbidae; and crows, Corvidae. RESIDENT AND MIGRATORY NON-GAME BIRDS-Loons, Gaviidae; grebes, Podicipedidae; pelicans, Pelecanidae; cormorants, Phalacrocoracidae; herons, bitterns and egrets, Ardeidae; ibises and spoonbills, Threskiornithidae; storks, Ciconiidae; vultures, Cathartidae Carthartidae; kites, hawks and eagles, Accipitridae; ospreys, Pandionidae; falcons, including the Peregrine Falcon, Falconidae; cranes, Gruidae; rails and gallinules, Rallidae; all shorebirds of the families Charadriidae, Scolopacidae, Recurvirostridae and Phalaropodidae; jaegers, Stercorariidae; gulls and terns, Laridae; cuckoos, Cuculidae; owls, Tytonidae and Strigidae; whip-poor-wills and nighthawks, Caprimulgidae; swifts, Apodidae; hummingbirds, Trochilidae, Kingfishers, Alcedinidae; woodpeckers, Picidae; kingbirds and flycatchers, Tyrannidae; larks, Alaudidae; swallows and martins, Hirundinidae; crows, magpies and jays, Corvidae; chickadees and titmice, Paridae; nuthatches, Sittidae; creepers, Certhiidae; wrens, Troglodytidae; mockingbirds, catbirds and thrashers, Mimidae; robins, bluebirds and thrushes, Turdidae; gnatcatchers and kinglets, Sylviidae; pipits, Motacillidae; waxwings, Bombycillidae; shrikes, Laniidae; vireos, Vireonidae; warblers, Parulidae; European Tree Sparrow, Passer montanus; blackbirds, meadowlarks and orioles, Icteridae; tanagers, thraupidae; cardinals, grosbeaks, finches, towhees, dickcissels, sparrows, juncos, buntings and longspurs, Fringillidae. GAME MAMMALS-Woodchuck, Marmota monax; Gray squirrel, Sciurus carolinensis; Fox squirrel, Sciurus niger; White-tailed jackrabbit, Lepus townsendii; Eastern cottontail, Sylvilagus floridanus; Swamp rabbit, Sylvilagus aquaticus; White-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus. FUR-BEARING MAMMALS-Muskrat, Ondatra zibethicus; Beaver, Castor canadensis; Raccoon, Procyon lotor; Opossum, Didelphis marsupialis; Least weasel, Mustela rixosa; Long-tailed weasel, Mustela frenata; Mink, Mustela vison; River otter, Lutra canadensis; Striped skunk, Mephitis mephitis; Badger, Taxidea taxus; Red fox, Vulpes vulpes; Gray fox, Urocyon cinereoagenteus cineraoargenteus; Coyote, Canis latrans; Bobcat, Lynx rufus. OTHER MAMMALS-Flying squirrel, Glaucomys volans; Red squirrel, Tamiasciurus hudsonicus; Eastern Woodrat, Neotoma floridana; Golden Mouse, Ochrotomys nuttalli; Rice Rat, Oryzomys palustris; Bats, Vespertilionidae.

It shall be unlawful for any person at any time to take, possess, sell, or offer for sale, any of these wild birds (dead or alive) and parts of wild birds (including their nests and eggs), wild mammals (dead or alive) and parts of wild mammals, including their green hides contrary to the provisions of this Act. However, nothing in this Act shall prohibit bona-fide public or state scientific, educational or zoological institutions from receiving, holding and displaying wildlife specimens that were salvaged or legally obtained.

It shall be unlawful for any person to bring into the State of Illinois for the purpose of holding, releasing, propagating or selling any other living wild animal not covered by this Act without first obtaining a permit from the Director. The permit shall be granted only upon satisfactory proof that the specific animals intended to be imported are free of communicable disease at the time of importation, will not become a nuisance, and will not cause damage to any existing wild or domestic species. Application for this permit shall be filed with the Director not less than 30 days in advance of the proposed date of importation. The Director may incorporate in the permit any restrictions as he may deem appropriate. These provisions shall not apply to any animal imported into this State for the purpose of being confined and exhibited in any zoo or other public display of animals nor to any other animals or groups of animals that the Department of Natural Resources may exempt by administrative rule.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take any other living wild animal not covered by this Act without the permission of the landowner or tenant.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised 10-11-05.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.23) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.23)

Sec. 3.23. Before any person shall hold, possess or engage in the raising of game mammals, game birds or migratory game birds protected by this Act, he shall procure a permit from the Department to do so. Any person desiring to possess, propagate, hold in captivity but not offer for sale any species protected by this Act may do so by acquiring either a Class A Noncommercial bird breeders permit or a Class A Noncommercial game breeders permit. Any person desiring to possess, propagate, to hold in captivity, to sell alive, for propagation or hunting purposes, sell dressed for food purposes any species protected by this Act may do so by acquiring a Class B Commercial bird breeders permit or a Class B Commercial/game breeders permit.

No person shall breed, raise, sell or offer to sell ferrets without first obtaining from the Department either a Class A noncommercial game breeder permit or a Class B commercial game breeder permit; such permit shall not, however, authorize the use or sale of ferrets for taking any of the wild birds or wild mammals protected by this Act.

Except for a Class A noncommercial ferret permit which shall be issued free of charge, the fee for a Class A permit shall be $10. The fee for a Class B permit shall be $20. Both Class A and Class B permits shall expire on March 31 of each year.

Holders of wild game or bird breeder's permits may import game mammals, game birds or migratory game birds into the State of Illinois but may release the same only with the permission of the Director.

Bobwhite quail and male pheasants raised in Illinois from eggs originating in Illinois and reared under the provisions of this Act may be released and harvested by hunting during the open season provided by the regulations under Sections 2.6 and 2.7 of this Act. Hen pheasants raised in Illinois from eggs originating in Illinois and reared under the provisions of this Act may be released but may be harvested only as provided by the regulations under Sections 2.34 and 3.28 of this Act.

Licensed breeders who hold Class B permits may sell live hand-reared pheasants, bobwhite quail and chukar partridges to organized field trial clubs, or to individuals operating dog training grounds designated by the Department, to be used for field trial purposes and such pheasants, bobwhite quail and chukar partridges may be killed by shooting in connection therewith on areas approved by the Department.

Tags or decals on containers, of a type not removable without breaking or mutilating the tag or decal, shall be used to designate the carcasses of game mammals, game birds or migratory game birds raised in captivity, as provided in this Section, and all game imported legally from any source outside the State of Illinois shall be so designated with irremovable tags or decals. If such tag or decal is not provided for in the State of origin the consignor shall obtain such tags or decals from the Department to identify such carcasses. Upon the application and payment of a fee of 10 cents for such tag or decal, the Department shall furnish permittees with such tags or decals, except that the Department shall only furnish any permittee with sufficient tags or decals for the number of game mammals, game birds or migratory game birds, or parts of carcasses thereof, as may from time to time have been disposed of by the permittee. One of such tags shall be securely affixed to one of the legs of each game mammal, except deer, where a tag shall be affixed to each leg, game bird or migratory game bird before removing such game mammal, game bird or migratory game bird from the premises of the permittee, and such tags shall remain upon the leg or legs of such mammal, game bird or migratory bird until prepared for consumption. Class B permit holders who sell such species dressed for food purposes shall affix such tags to one of the legs of each game mammal, except deer, where a tag must be secured to each leg, game bird or migratory game bird or shall secure such decals on the containers in which the carcasses are transported before removing such species from the premises of the permittees.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to give any such permittee authority to take game mammals, game birds or migratory game birds in their wild state contrary to other provisions of this Act, or to remove such permittee from responsibility for the observance of any Federal laws, rules or regulations which may apply to such game mammals, game birds or migratory game birds.

When any wild birds or wild mammals raised in captivity, or parts thereof, are transported or offered for shipment by the holder of a permit, issued under the provisions of Sections 1.6 and 1.7 hereof, or by a licensed breeder from outside the State, such shipment shall be plainly tagged or with decals if in containers so as to show the contents thereof, the name of the shipper, his place of residence, the place from where the shipment is made, its destination, name of consignee and the number, date and type of permit under which shipment is offered.

Game and game bird breeders shall keep records of the acquisition, sale or disposition of each game mammal or game bird so raised or propagated, showing the date of such transaction, the name and address of the person acquiring or receiving such game mammal or game bird, and shall furnish such person with a certificate of purchase showing the number and kinds of game mammals or game birds so disposed of, the date of transaction, the name of the person receiving, collecting, or buying such game mammals or game birds, and such other information as the Department may require. Such records and certificates of purchase or disposition shall be immediately presented to officers or authorized employees of the Department, any Sheriff, Deputy Sheriff, or other peace officer when request is made for same.

Failure to produce such records of certificates of purchase or disposition shall be prima facie evidence that such game mammals or game birds are contraband within the State of Illinois. Records shall be maintained from the date of acquisition until 2 years after the date of disposition or sale.

Duly organized clubs and associations approved by the Department and engaged in the raising, for release only and without profit, any of the game mammals and game birds protected by this Act are exempt from the provisions of this Section.

No person shall release, hold, possess, or engage in raising San Juan (sometimes called European) rabbits or finnraccoons (sometimes called raccoon dogs) (Nyctereutes procyonoides) in this State and no permit shall be issued therefor.

No person shall release, or propagate for the release any Nutria (Myocastor coypus), and monk parakeet (Myiopsitta Mycopsitta monachus), in this State at any time.

(Source: P.A. 86-920; revised 10-13-05.)

Section 995. The Illinois Open Land Trust Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(525 ILCS 33/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Conservation and recreation purposes" means activities that are consistent with the protection and preservation of open lands, natural areas, wetlands, prairies, forests, watersheds, resource-rich areas, greenways, and fish and wildlife habitats, including multiple use such as hunting, fishing, trapping, and other recreational uses.

"Conservation easement" means a nonpossessory interest in real property imposing limitations or affirmative obligations the purposes of which include retaining or protecting natural, scenic, or open-space values of real property, assuring its availability for forest, recreational, or open-space use, protecting natural resources, maintaining or enhancing air or water quality, or preserving the natural, historical, architectural, archaeological archacological, or cultural aspects of real property. A conservation easement may be released at any time by mutual consent of the parties.

"Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.

"Natural area" means an area of land that either retains or has recovered to a substantial degree its original natural or primeval character, though it need not be completely undisturbed, or has floral, faunal, ecological, geological, or archaeological features of scientific, educational, scenic, or esthetic interest.

"Open space" means those undeveloped or minimally developed lands that conserve and protect valuable natural features or processes.

"Real property" means land, including improvements existing on the land.

"Units of local government" means counties, townships, municipalities, park districts, conservation districts, forest preserve districts, river conservancy districts, and any other units of local government empowered to expend public funds for the acquisition and development of land for public outdoor park, recreation, or conservation purposes.

(Source: P.A. 91-220, eff. 7-21-99; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 1000. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Sections 4-508, 5-701.2, and 6-201.21 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/4-508) (from Ch. 121, par. 4-508)

Sec. 4-508. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this Section, and subject to the written approval of the Governor, the Department may dispose of, by public sale, at auction or by sealed bids, any land, rights or other properties, real or personal, acquired for but no longer needed for highway purposes or remnants remanents acquired under the provisions of Section 4-501, provided that no such sale may be made for less than the fair appraised value of such land, rights, or property.

(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this Section, and subject to the written approval of the Governor, the Department may exchange any land, rights or property no longer needed for highway purposes, or remnants remanents, acquired under the provisions of Section 4-501 of this Code for equivalent interests in land, rights or property needed for highway purposes. Where such interests are not of equivalent value cash may be paid or received for the difference in value.

(c) If at the time any property previously determined by the Department to be needed for highway purposes is declared no longer needed for such purposes, and the person from whom such property was acquired still owns and has continuously owned land abutting such property since the acquisition by the Department, the Department before making any disposition of that property shall first offer in writing that property to the person from whom such property was acquired at the current appraised value of the property. If the offer is accepted in writing within 60 days of the date of the written offer, the Department, subject to the written approval of the Governor, is authorized to dispose of such property to the person from whom such property was acquired upon payment of the appraised value. If the offer is not accepted in writing within 60 days of the date of the written offer, all rights under this paragraph shall terminate.

(d) If the Department enters into or currently has a written contract with another highway authority for the transfer of jurisdiction of any highway or portion thereof, the Department is authorized to convey, without compensation, any land, dedications, easements, access rights, or any interest in the real estate that it holds to that specific highway or portion thereof to the highway authority that is accepting or has accepted jurisdiction. However, no part of the transferred property can be vacated or disposed of without the approval of the Department, which may require compensation for non-public use.

(e) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Section, if the Department obtains or obtained fee simple title to, or any lesser interest, in any land, right, or other property and must comply with subdivision (f)(3) of Section 6 of Title I of the Land and Water Conservation Fund Act of 1965 (16 U.S.C. 460 l-8(f)(3)), the Historic Bridge Program established under Title 23, United States Code, Section 144, subsection (o) (23 U.S.C. 144(o)), the National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. Sec. 470), the Interagency Wetland Policy Act of 1989, or the Illinois State Agency Historic Resources Preservation Act, the Department, subject to the written approval of the Governor and concurrence of the grantee, is authorized to convey the title or interest in the land, right, or other property to another governmental agency, or a not-for-profit organization that will use the property for purposes consistent with the appropriate law.

The Department may retain rights to protect the public interest.

(Source: P.A. 90-573, eff. 2-6-98; 90-755, eff. 1-1-99; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 10-17-05.)

(605 ILCS 5/5-701.2) (from Ch. 121, par. 5-701.2)

Sec. 5-701.2. Any county board, with the approval of the Department, may also use motor fuel tax money allotted to it for construction of State highways within the county.

(Source: Laws 1959, p. 196; revised 1-21-04.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-201.21)

Sec. 6-201.21. Special services; disaster relief. Subject to Section 30-117 of the Township Code, the highway commissioner has authority to provide for orderly collection and disposal of brush and leaves that have been properly placed for collection along the road district rights-of-way in accordance with local guidelines in those townships or counties that regulate by ordinance open burning of brush or leaves. Further, the highway commissioner has authority to provide necessary relief services following the occurrence of an event that has been declared a disaster by State or local officials. The highway commissioner has purchasing authority, subject to Section 6-201.6, and contractual authority as defined in of Section 6-201.7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-109, eff. 7-8-03; 93-610, eff. 11-18-03; revised 12-4-03.)

Section 1005. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-109.1, 2-123, 3-412, 3-413, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-625, 3-806.3, 3-806.4, 3-814.4, 6-107, 6-108, 6-201, 6-205.2, 6-208, 6-411, 6-500, 6-508, 11-208.3, 11-1201, 11-1414, 12-603.1, 12-613, 15-301, 15-308.3, 16-104b, and 18a-404 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 3-648, 3-653, and 3-654 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-109.1)

Sec. 2-109.1. Exchange of information.

(a) The Secretary of State shall exchange information with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid which may be necessary for the establishment of paternity and the establishment, modification, and enforcement of child support orders pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Secretary of State shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-613, eff. 7-1-00; revised 12-15-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/2-123) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-123)

Sec. 2-123. Sale and Distribution of Information.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary may make the driver's license, vehicle and title registration lists, in part or in whole, and any statistical information derived from these lists available to local governments, elected state officials, state educational institutions, and all other governmental units of the State and Federal Government requesting them for governmental purposes. The Secretary shall require any such applicant for services to pay for the costs of furnishing such services and the use of the equipment involved, and in addition is empowered to establish prices and charges for the services so furnished and for the use of the electronic equipment utilized.

(b) The Secretary is further empowered to and he may, in his discretion, furnish to any applicant, other than listed in subsection (a) of this Section, vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, other electronic format or computer processable medium, or printout at a fixed fee of $250 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $500 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, in advance, and require in addition a further sufficient deposit based upon the Secretary of State's estimate of the total cost of the information requested and a charge of $25 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $50 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, per 1,000 units or part thereof identified or the actual cost, whichever is greater. The Secretary is authorized to refund any difference between the additional deposit and the actual cost of the request. This service shall not be in lieu of an abstract of a driver's record nor of a title or registration search. This service may be limited to entities purchasing a minimum number of records as required by administrative rule. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall be the entire vehicle or driver data list, or part thereof. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. Commercial purchasers of driver and vehicle record databases shall enter into a written agreement with the Secretary of State that includes disclosure of the commercial use of the information to be purchased.

(b-1) The Secretary is further empowered to and may, in his or her discretion, furnish vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, or other electronic format or computer processible medium, at no fee, to any State or local governmental agency that uses the information provided by the Secretary to transmit data back to the Secretary that enables the Secretary to maintain accurate driving records, including dispositions of traffic cases. This information may be provided without fee not more often than once every 6 months.

(c) Secretary of State may issue registration lists. The Secretary of State shall compile and publish, at least annually, a list of all registered vehicles. Each list of registered vehicles shall be arranged serially according to the registration numbers assigned to registered vehicles and shall contain in addition the names and addresses of registered owners and a brief description of each vehicle including the serial or other identifying number thereof. Such compilation may be in such form as in the discretion of the Secretary of State may seem best for the purposes intended.

(d) The Secretary of State shall furnish no more than 2 current available lists of such registrations to the sheriffs of all counties and to the chiefs of police of all cities and villages and towns of 2,000 population and over in this State at no cost. Additional copies may be purchased by the sheriffs or chiefs of police at the fee of $500 each or at the cost of producing the list as determined by the Secretary of State. Such lists are to be used for governmental purposes only.

(e) (Blank).

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) The Secretary of State shall make a title or registration search of the records of his office and a written report on the same for any person, upon written application of such person, accompanied by a fee of $5 for each registration or title search. The written application shall set forth the intended use of the requested information. No fee shall be charged for a title or registration search, or for the certification thereof requested by a government agency. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain personally identifying information unless the request for a search was made for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain highly restricted personal information unless specifically authorized by this Code.

The Secretary of State shall certify a title or registration record upon written request. The fee for certification shall be $5 in addition to the fee required for a title or registration search. Certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by Seal of the Secretary of State.

The Secretary of State may notify the vehicle owner or registrant of the request for purchase of his title or registration information as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requestor until expiration of a 10 day period. This 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the vehicle owner or registrant or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requestor of title or vehicle information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(f-5) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any personally identifying information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless the information is disclosed for one of the following purposes:

(1) For use by any government agency, including any court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or any private person or entity acting on behalf of a federal, State, or local agency in carrying out its functions.

(2) For use in connection with matters of motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts, and dealers; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers.

(3) For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or its agents, employees, or contractors, but only:

(A) to verify the accuracy of personal information submitted by an individual to the business or its agents, employees, or contractors; and

(B) if such information as so submitted is not correct or is no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purposes of preventing fraud by, pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering on a debt or security interest against, the individual.

(4) For use in research activities and for use in producing statistical reports, if the personally identifying information is not published, redisclosed, or used to contact individuals.

(5) For use in connection with any civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in any federal, State, or local court or agency or before any self-regulatory body, including the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, and the execution or enforcement of judgments and orders, or pursuant to an order of a federal, State, or local court.

(6) For use by any insurer or insurance support organization or by a self-insured entity or its agents, employees, or contractors in connection with claims investigation activities, antifraud activities, rating, or underwriting.

(7) For use in providing notice to the owners of towed or impounded vehicles.

(8) For use by any person licensed as a private detective or firm licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 1993, private investigative agency or security service licensed in Illinois for any purpose permitted under this subsection.

(9) For use by an employer or its agent or insurer to obtain or verify information relating to a holder of a commercial driver's license that is required under chapter 313 of title 49 of the United States Code.

(10) For use in connection with the operation of private toll transportation facilities.

(11) For use by any requester, if the requester demonstrates it has obtained the written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains.

(12) For use by members of the news media, as defined in Section 1-148.5, for the purpose of newsgathering when the request relates to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(13) For any other use specifically authorized by law, if that use is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(f-6) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any highly restricted personal information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless specifically authorized by this Code.

(g) 1. The Secretary of State may, upon receipt of a written request and a fee of $6 before October 1, 2003 and a fee of $12 on and after October 1, 2003, furnish to the person or agency so requesting a driver's record. Such document may include a record of: current driver's license issuance information, except that the information on judicial driving permits shall be available only as otherwise provided by this Code; convictions; orders entered revoking, suspending or cancelling a driver's license or privilege; and notations of accident involvement. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential. Information released pursuant to a request for a driver's record shall not contain personally identifying information, unless the request for the driver's record was made for one of the purposes set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

2. The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any highly restricted personal information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless specifically authorized by this Code. The Secretary of State may certify an abstract of a driver's record upon written request therefor. Such certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by the Seal of his office.

3. All requests for driving record information shall be made in a manner prescribed by the Secretary and shall set forth the intended use of the requested information.

The Secretary of State may notify the affected driver of the request for purchase of his driver's record as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requester until expiration of a 10 day period. This 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the affected driver or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requestor of driver information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

4. The Secretary of State may furnish without fee, upon the written request of a law enforcement agency, any information from a driver's record on file with the Secretary of State when such information is required in the enforcement of this Code or any other law relating to the operation of motor vehicles, including records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

5. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary of State may furnish, without fee, information from an individual driver's record on file, if a written request therefor is submitted by any public transit system or authority, public defender, law enforcement agency, a state or federal agency, or an Illinois local intergovernmental association, if the request is for the purpose of a background check of applicants for employment with the requesting agency, or for the purpose of an official investigation conducted by the agency, or to determine a current address for the driver so public funds can be recovered or paid to the driver, or for any other purpose set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

The Secretary may also furnish the courts a copy of an abstract of a driver's record, without fee, subsequent to an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. Such abstract may include records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle as contained in the current file; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

6. Any certified abstract issued by the Secretary of State or transmitted electronically by the Secretary of State pursuant to this Section, to a court or on request of a law enforcement agency, for the record of a named person as to the status of the person's driver's license shall be prima facie evidence of the facts therein stated and if the name appearing in such abstract is the same as that of a person named in an information or warrant, such abstract shall be prima facie evidence that the person named in such information or warrant is the same person as the person named in such abstract and shall be admissible for any prosecution under this Code and be admitted as proof of any prior conviction or proof of records, notices, or orders recorded on individual driving records maintained by the Secretary of State.

7. Subject to any restrictions contained in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and upon receipt of a proper request and a fee of $6 before October 1, 2003 and a fee of $12 on or after October 1, 2003, the Secretary of State shall provide a driver's record to the affected driver, or the affected driver's attorney, upon verification. Such record shall contain all the information referred to in paragraph 1 of this subsection (g) plus: any recorded accident involvement as a driver; information recorded pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-117 and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-204 of this Code. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential.

(h) The Secretary shall not disclose social security numbers or any associated information obtained from the Social Security Administration except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual except: (1) to officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the social security numbers in performance of their official duties, (2) to law enforcement officials for a lawful, civil or criminal law enforcement investigation, and if the head of the law enforcement agency has made a written request to the Secretary specifying the law enforcement investigation for which the social security numbers are being sought, (3) to the United States Department of Transportation, or any other State, pursuant to the administration and enforcement of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, (4) pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, or (5) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) for utilization in the child support enforcement duties assigned to that Department under provisions of the Illinois Public Aid Code after the individual has received advanced meaningful notification of what redisclosure is sought by the Secretary in accordance with the federal Privacy Act.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Medical statements or medical reports received in the Secretary of State's Office shall be confidential. No confidential information may be open to public inspection or the contents disclosed to anyone, except officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the information contained in the medical reports and the Driver License Medical Advisory Board, unless so directed by an order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

(k) All fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State Treasury, except that (i) for fees collected before October 1, 2003, $3 of the $6 fee for a driver's record shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund, (ii) for fees collected on and after October 1, 2003, of the $12 fee for a driver's record, $3 shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund and $6 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund, and (iii) for fees collected on and after October 1, 2003, 50% of the amounts collected pursuant to subsection (b) shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund.

(l) (Blank).

(m) Notations of accident involvement that may be disclosed under this Section shall not include notations relating to damage to a vehicle or other property being transported by a tow truck. This information shall remain confidential, provided that nothing in this subsection (m) shall limit disclosure of any notification of accident involvement to any law enforcement agency or official.

(n) Requests made by the news media for driver's license, vehicle, or title registration information may be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge, as determined by the Secretary, when the specific purpose for requesting the documents is deemed to be in the public interest. Waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest if the principal purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, and welfare or the legal rights of the general public and is not for the principal purpose of gaining a personal or commercial benefit. The information provided pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

(o) The redisclosure of personally identifying information obtained pursuant to this Section is prohibited, except to the extent necessary to effectuate the purpose for which the original disclosure of the information was permitted.

(p) The Secretary of State is empowered to adopt rules to effectuate this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; 93-895, eff. 1-1-05; 94-56, eff. 6-17-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-412) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-412)

Sec. 3-412. Registration plates and registration stickers to be furnished by the Secretary of State.

(a) The Secretary of State upon registering a vehicle subject to annual registration for the first time shall issue or shall cause to be issued to the owner one registration plate for a motorcycle, trailer, semitrailer, motorized pedalcycle or truck-tractor, 2 registration plates for other motor vehicles and, where applicable, current registration stickers for motor vehicles of the first division. The provisions of this Section may be made applicable to such vehicles of the second division, as the Secretary of State may, from time to time, in his discretion designate. On subsequent annual registrations during the term of the registration plate as provided in Section 3-414.1, the Secretary shall issue or cause to be issued registration stickers as evidence of current registration. However, the issuance of annual registration stickers to vehicles registered under the provisions of Sections 3-402.1 and 3-405.3 of this Code may not be required if the Secretary deems the issuance unnecessary.

(b) Every registration plate shall have displayed upon it the registration number assigned to the vehicle for which it is issued, the name of this State, which may be abbreviated, the year number for which it was issued, which may be abbreviated, the phrase "Land of Lincoln" (except as otherwise provided in this Code), and such other letters or numbers as the Secretary may prescribe. However, for apportionment plates issued to vehicles registered under Section 3-402.1 and fleet plates issued to vehicles registered under Section 3-405.3, the phrase "Land of Lincoln" may be omitted to allow for the word "apportioned", the word "fleet", or other similar language to be displayed. Registration plates issued to a vehicle registered as a fleet vehicle may display a designation determined by the Secretary.

The Secretary may in his discretion prescribe that letters be used as prefixes only on registration plates issued to vehicles of the first division which are registered under this Code and only as suffixes on registration plates issued to other vehicles. Every registration sticker issued as evidence of current registration shall designate the year number for which it is issued and such other letters or numbers as the Secretary may prescribe and shall be of a contrasting color with the registration plates and registration stickers of the previous year.

(c) Each registration plate and the required letters and numerals thereon, except the year number for which issued, shall be of sufficient size to be plainly readable from a distance of 100 feet during daylight, and shall be coated with reflectorizing material. The dimensions of the plate issued to vehicles of the first division shall be 6 by 12 inches.

(d) The Secretary of State shall issue for every passenger motor vehicle rented without a driver the same type of registration plates as the type of plates issued for a private passenger vehicle.

(e) The Secretary of State shall issue for every passenger car used as a taxicab or livery, distinctive registration plates.

(f) The Secretary of State shall issue for every motorcycle distinctive registration plates distinguishing between motorcycles having 150 or more cubic centimeters piston displacement, or having less than 150 cubic centimeter piston displacement.

(g) Registration plates issued to vehicles for-hire may display a designation as determined by the Secretary that such vehicles are for-hire.

(h) The Secretary of State shall issue distinctive registration plates for electric vehicles.

(i) The Secretary of State shall issue for every public and private ambulance registration plates identifying the vehicle as an ambulance. The Secretary shall forward to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid registration information for the purpose of verification of claims filed with the Department by ambulance owners for payment for services to public assistance recipients.

(j) The Secretary of State shall issue for every public and private medical carrier or rescue vehicle livery registration plates displaying numbers within ranges of numbers reserved respectively for medical carriers and rescue vehicles. The Secretary shall forward to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid registration information for the purpose of verification of claims filed with the Department by owners of medical carriers or rescue vehicles for payment for services to public assistance recipients.

(k) The Secretary of State shall issue distinctive license plates or distinctive license plate stickers for every vehicle exempted from subsection (a) of Section 12-503 by subsection (g-5) of that Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-239, eff. 1-1-06; 94-564, eff. 8-12-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-413) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-413)

Sec. 3-413. Display of registration plates, registration stickers and drive-away permits.

(a) Registration plates issued for a motor vehicle other than a motorcycle, trailer, semitrailer, truck-tractor, apportioned bus, or apportioned truck shall be attached thereto, one in the front and one in the rear. The registration plate issued for a motorcycle, trailer or semitrailer required to be registered hereunder and any apportionment plate issued to a bus under the provisions of this Code shall be attached to the rear thereof. The registration plate issued for a truck-tractor or an apportioned truck required to be registered hereunder shall be attached to the front thereof.

(b) Every registration plate shall at all times be securely fastened in a horizontal position to the vehicle for which it is issued so as to prevent the plate from swinging and at a height of not less than 5 inches from the ground, measuring from the bottom of such plate, in a place and position to be clearly visible and shall be maintained in a condition to be clearly legible, free from any materials that would obstruct the visibility of the plate, including, but not limited to, glass covers and tinted plastic covers. Clear plastic covers are permissible as long as they remain clear and do not obstruct the visibility of the plates. Registration stickers issued as evidence of renewed annual registration shall be attached to registration plates as required by the Secretary of State, and be clearly visible at all times.

(c) Every drive-away permit issued pursuant to this Code shall be firmly attached to the motor vehicle in the manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. If a drive-away permit is affixed to a motor vehicle in any other manner the permit shall be void and of no effect.

(d) The Illinois prorate decal issued to a foreign registered vehicle part of a fleet prorated or apportioned with Illinois, shall be displayed on a registration plate and displayed on the front of such vehicle in the same manner as an Illinois registration plate.

(e) The registration plate issued for a camper body mounted on a truck displaying registration plates shall be attached to the rear of the camper body.

(f) No person shall operate a vehicle, nor permit the operation of a vehicle, upon which is displayed an Illinois registration plate, plates or registration stickers after the termination of the registration period for which issued or after the expiration date set pursuant to Sections 3-414 and 3-414.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-668, eff. 1-1-03; 92-680, eff. 7-16-02; revised 10-2-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-621) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-621)

Sec. 3-621. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application, made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue to members of the Illinois National Guard, and to Illinois residents who are either former members of the Illinois National Guard or the surviving spouses of Illinois National Guard members, special registration plates. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds subject to the staggered registration system.

The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 92-545, eff. 6-12-02; 92-699, 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-622) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-622)

Sec. 3-622. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue to members of the United States Armed Forces Reserves who reside in Illinois, and to Illinois residents who are either former members of the United States Armed Forces Reserves or the surviving spouses of United States Armed Forces Reserve members who resided in Illinois, special registration plates. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds subject to the staggered registration system. The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 92-545, eff. 6-12-02; 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-623) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-623)

Sec. 3-623. Purple Heart Plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue to recipients awarded the Purple Heart by a branch of the armed forces of the United States who reside in Illinois, special registration plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of the proper application applications, may also issue these special registration plates to an Illinois resident who is the surviving spouse of a person who was killed in a foreign war and was awarded the Purple Heart by a branch of the armed forces of the United States. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the 1st division, including motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the 2nd division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application. However, for an individual who has been issued Purple Heart plates for a vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, the annual fee for the registration of the vehicle shall be as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-846, eff. 7-30-04; 94-93, eff. 1-1-06; 94-343, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-20-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-625) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-625)

Sec. 3-625. Pearl Harbor Plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates to any Illinois resident who, while a member of the armed forces of the United States, participated in the battle of Pearl Harbor on December 7, 1941, or to the widowed spouse of any Illinois resident who, while a member of the armed forces of the United States, participated in the battle of Pearl Harbor on December 7, 1941, provided that the widowed spouse was married to the battle of Pearl Harbor participant at the time of the participant's death and is a single person at the time of application. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the 1st division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the 2nd division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application.

(Source: P.A. 92-545, eff. 6-12-02; 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-648)

Sec. 3-648. Education license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Education license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates shall be determined by a contest that every elementary school pupil in the State of Illinois is eligible to enter. The designs submitted for the contest shall be judged on September 30, 2002, and the winning design shall be selected by a committee composed of the Secretary, the Director of State Police, 2 members of the Senate, one member chosen by the President of the Senate and one member chosen by the Senate Minority Leader, and 2 members of the House of Representatives, one member chosen by the Speaker of the House and one member chosen by the House Minority Leader. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance, in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this $40 additional original issuance fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs, and $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $40 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this $40 additional renewal fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $38 shall be deposited into the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund. Each fiscal year, once deposits from the additional original issuance and renewal fees into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund have reached $500,000, all the amounts received for the additional fees for the balance of the fiscal year shall be deposited into the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund.

(d) The Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Ninety-five percent of the moneys in the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund shall be appropriated to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for scholarships under Section 52 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act, and 5% of the moneys in the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Scholarship Fund shall be appropriated to the State Board of Education for grants to the Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching, a recognized charitable organization that meets the requirements of Title 26, Section 501(c)(3) of the United States Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-445, eff. 8-17-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-845, eff. 1-1-03; 93-21, eff. 7-1-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-653)

Sec. 3-653. Pet Friendly license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Pet Friendly license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined in Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the phrase "I am pet friendly" shall be on the plates. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this additional fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Pet Population Control Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this additional fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Pet Population Control Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-639, eff. 8-22-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-654)

Sec. 3-654. Illinois Public Broadcasting System Stations special license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Public Broadcasting System Stations special license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Public Broadcasting Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Public Broadcasting Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Public Broadcasting Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, the Secretary shall pay all moneys in the Public Broadcasting Fund to the various Public Broadcasting System stations in Illinois for operating costs.

(Source: P.A. 92-695, eff. 1-1-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-655)

Sec. 3-655 3-648. Hospice license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Hospice license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The design of the plates shall include the word "Hospice" above drawings of two lilies and a butterfly. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Hospice Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Hospice Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Hospice Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Hospice Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, to the Department of Public Health for distribution as grants for hospice services as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act. The Director of Public Health shall adopt rules for the distribution of these grants.

(Source: P.A. 92-693, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-656)

Sec. 3-656 3-653. Lewis and Clark Bicentennial license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Lewis and Clark Bicentennial license plates to residents of Illinois. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The Secretary of State shall confer with the Governor's Illinois Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Commission regarding the design, color, and format of the plates. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. Of this additional fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited into the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this additional fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited into the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund.

(d) The Secretary of State shall issue special license plates under this Section on and before September 1, 2008. The Secretary may not issue special plates under this Section after September 1, 2008.

(e) The Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, be used by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Community Affairs to promote tourism and education related to the Lewis and Clark Expedition and for historic preservation purposes related to the Expedition.

The State Treasurer shall transfer any moneys remaining in the Lewis and Clark Bicentennial Fund on September 1, 2009 and any moneys received for deposit into that Fund on or after September 1, 2009 into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-694, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-15-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-657)

Sec. 3-657 3-654. Park District Youth Program license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue Park District Youth Program license plates. The special Park District Youth Program plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, must accompany each application. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Park District Youth Program Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Park District Youth Program Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Park District Youth Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Park District Youth Program Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Association of Park Districts, a not-for-profit corporation, for grants to park districts and recreation agencies providing innovative after school programming for Illinois youth.

(Source: P.A. 92-697, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-658)

Sec. 3-658 3-654. Professional Sports Teams license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Professional Sports Teams license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates shall, subject to the permission of the applicable team owner, display the logo of the Chicago Bears, the Chicago Bulls, the Chicago Blackhawks Black Hawks, the Chicago Cubs, the Chicago White Sox, the St. Louis Rams, or the St. Louis Cardinals, at the applicant's option. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Professional Sports Teams Education Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Professional Sports Teams Education Fund shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, be deposited every 6 months into the Common School Fund.

(Source: P.A. 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; revised 10-28-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-659)

Sec. 3-659 3-654. Pan Hellenic license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Pan Hellenic license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that an emblem of a Pan Hellenic eligible member shall be on the plate. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln" as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, may prescribe rules governing the requirements and approval of the special plates.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The State Treasurer shall create separate accounts within the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund for each eligible member for which Pan Hellenic license plates have been issued. Moneys in the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund shall be allocated to each account in proportion to the number of plates sold in regard to each fraternity or sorority. All moneys in the Illinois Pan Hellenic Trust Fund shall be distributed, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Alpha Kappa Alpha Charitable Foundation, Illinois Delta Sigma Theta Charitable Foundation, Illinois Zeta Phi Beta Charitable Foundation, Illinois Sigma Gamma Rho Charitable Foundation, Illinois Alpha Phi Alpha Charitable Foundation, Illinois Omega Psi Phi Charitable Foundation, Illinois Kappa Alpha Psi Charitable Foundation, Illinois Phi Beta Sigma Charitable Foundation, or Illinois Iota Phi Theta Charitable Foundation for charitable purposes sponsored by the African-American fraternity or sorority.

(Source: P.A. 92-702, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-661)

Sec. 3-661 3-653. Illinois Route 66 license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Route 66 license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project, Inc. shall use all moneys in the Illinois Route 66 Heritage Project Fund for the development of tourism, through education and interpretation, preservation, and promotion of the former U.S. Route 66 in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-706, eff. 1-1-03; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-662)

Sec. 3-662 3-654. Stop Neuroblastoma license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Stop Neuroblastoma license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the following phrases shall be on the plates: (i) "Stop Neuroblastoma" and (ii) "Stop Cancer". The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Stop Neuroblastoma Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Stop Neuroblastoma Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Stop Neuroblastoma Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Stop Neuroblastoma Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants to the American Cancer Society for neuroblastoma and cancer research, education, screening, and treatment.

(Source: P.A. 92-711, eff. 7-19-02; revised 8-23-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-806.3)

Sec. 3-806.3. Senior Citizens. Commencing with the 2004 registration year and extending through the 2005 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, or 3-651, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

Commencing with the 2006 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, or 3-651, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

Commencing with the 2006 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-607, 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, or 3-651, or 3-806.4, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

No more than one reduced registration fee under this Section shall be allowed during any 12 month period based on the primary eligibility of any individual, whether such reduced registration fee is allowed to the individual or to the spouse, widow or widower of such individual. This Section does not apply to the fee paid in addition to the registration fee for motor vehicles displaying vanity or special license plates.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-699, eff. 1-1-03; 93-846, eff. 7-30-04; 93-849, eff. 1-1-05; 93-937, eff. 1-1-05; revised 1-17-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.4) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-806.4)

Sec. 3-806.4. Gold Star recipients. Commencing with the 1991 registration year and through the 2006 registration year, upon proper application, the Secretary of State shall issue one pair of registration plates to any Illinois resident, who as the surviving widow or widower, or in the absence thereof, as the surviving parent, is awarded the Gold Star by the United States in recognition of spouses or children who served in the Armed Forces of the United States and lost their lives while in service whether in peacetime or war. Commencing with the 2007 registration year, upon proper application, the Secretary of State shall issue one pair of registration plates to any Illinois resident, who as the surviving widow, widower, or parent, is awarded the Gold Star by the United States in recognition of spouses or children who served in the Armed Forces of the United States and lost their lives while in service whether in peacetime or war. If the parent no longer survives, the Secretary of State shall issue the plates to a surviving sibling, of the person who served in the Armed Forces, who is an Illinois resident. No more than one set of plates shall be issued for each Gold Star awarded, and only one surviving parent, or in the absence of a surviving parent, only one surviving sibling shall be issued a set of registration plates, except for those surviving parents who, as recipients of the Gold Star, have legally separated or divorced, in which case each surviving parent shall be allowed one set of registration plates. Registration plates issued under this Section shall be for first division vehicles and second division vehicles of 8,000 pounds or less. Through the 2006 registration year, an applicant shall be charged a $15 fee for the original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee which shall be deposited into the Road Fund to help defray the administrative processing costs. Beginning with the 2007 registration year, an applicant shall be charged only the appropriate registration fee.

(Source: P.A. 93-140, eff. 1-1-04; 94-311, eff. 1-1-06; 94-343, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-814.4)

Sec. 3-814.4. Registration of fleet vehicles. The Secretary may issue fleet vehicle registration plates to owners of vehicle fleets registered in accordance with Section 3-405.3 of this Code in bulk before plates are assigned to specific vehicles. A registration plate may not be displayed on a vehicle, however, until the plate has been activated on the Secretary's registration file and the proper fee has been forwarded to the Secretary.

(Source: P.A. 92-629, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-21-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-107) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-107)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 94-916)

Sec. 6-107. Graduated license.

(a) The purpose of the Graduated Licensing Program is to develop safe and mature driving habits in young, inexperienced drivers and reduce or prevent motor vehicle accidents, fatalities, and injuries by:

(1) providing for an increase in the time of practice period before granting permission to obtain a driver's license;

(2) strengthening driver licensing and testing standards for persons under the age of 21 years;

(3) sanctioning driving privileges of drivers under age 21 who have committed serious traffic violations or other specified offenses; and

(4) setting stricter standards to promote the public's health and safety.

(b) The application of any person under the age of 18 years, and not legally emancipated by marriage, for a drivers license or permit to operate a motor vehicle issued under the laws of this State, shall be accompanied by the written consent of either parent of the applicant; otherwise by the guardian having custody of the applicant, or in the event there is no parent or guardian, then by another responsible adult. The written consent must accompany any application for a driver's license under this subsection (b), regardless of whether or not the required written consent also accompanied the person's previous application for an instruction permit.

No graduated driver's license shall be issued to any applicant under 18 years of age, unless the applicant is at least 16 years of age and has:

(1) Held a valid instruction permit for a minimum of 3 months.

(2) Passed an approved driver education course and submits proof of having passed the course as may be required.

(3) Certification by the parent, legal guardian, or responsible adult that the applicant has had a minimum of 50 hours of behind-the-wheel practice time, at least 10 hours of which have been at night, and is sufficiently prepared and able to safely operate a motor vehicle.

(c) No graduated driver's license or permit shall be issued to any applicant under 18 years of age who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code and no graduated driver's license or permit shall be issued to any applicant under 18 years of age who has committed an offense that would otherwise result in a mandatory revocation of a license or permit as provided in Section 6-205 of this Code or who has been either convicted of or adjudicated a delinquent based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such.

(d) No graduated driver's license shall be issued for 6 months to any applicant under the age of 18 years who has been convicted of any offense defined as a serious traffic violation in this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) No graduated driver's license holder under the age of 18 years shall operate any motor vehicle, except a motor driven cycle or motorcycle, with more than one passenger in the front seat of the motor vehicle and no more passengers in the back seats than the number of available seat safety belts as set forth in Section 12-603 of this Code.

(f) No graduated driver's license holder under the age of 18 shall operate a motor vehicle unless each driver and passenger under the age of 19 is wearing a properly adjusted and fastened seat safety belt and each child under the age of 8 is protected as required under the Child Passenger Protection Act.

(g) If a graduated driver's license holder is under the age of 18 when he or she receives the license, for the first 6 months he or she holds the license or until he or she reaches the age of 18, whichever occurs sooner, the graduated license holder may not operate a motor vehicle with more than one passenger in the vehicle who is under the age of 20, unless any additional passenger or passengers are siblings, step-siblings, children, or stepchildren of the driver.

(Source: P.A. 93-101, eff. 1-1-04; 93-788, eff. 1-1-05; 94-239, eff. 1-1-06; 94-241, eff. 1-1-06; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-897, eff. 6-22-06.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 94-916)

Sec. 6-107. Graduated license.

(a) The purpose of the Graduated Licensing Program is to develop safe and mature driving habits in young, inexperienced drivers and reduce or prevent motor vehicle accidents, fatalities, and injuries by:

(1) providing for an increase in the time of practice period before granting permission to obtain a driver's license;

(2) strengthening driver licensing and testing standards for persons under the age of 21 years;

(3) sanctioning driving privileges of drivers under age 21 who have committed serious traffic violations or other specified offenses; and

(4) setting stricter standards to promote the public's health and safety.

(b) The application of any person under the age of 18 years, and not legally emancipated by marriage, for a drivers license or permit to operate a motor vehicle issued under the laws of this State, shall be accompanied by the written consent of either parent of the applicant; otherwise by the guardian having custody of the applicant, or in the event there is no parent or guardian, then by another responsible adult. The written consent must accompany any application for a driver's license under this subsection (b), regardless of whether or not the required written consent also accompanied the person's previous application for an instruction permit.

No graduated driver's license shall be issued to any applicant under 18 years of age, unless the applicant is at least 16 years of age and has:

(1) Held a valid instruction permit for a minimum of 3 months.

(2) Passed an approved driver education course and submits proof of having passed the course as may be required.

(3) Certification by the parent, legal guardian, or responsible adult that the applicant has had a minimum of 50 hours of behind-the-wheel practice time, at least 10 hours of which have been at night, and is sufficiently prepared and able to safely operate a motor vehicle.

(b-1) No graduated driver's license shall be issued to any applicant who is under 18 years of age and not legally emancipated by marriage, unless the applicant has graduated from a secondary school of this State or any other state, is enrolled in a course leading to a general educational development (GED) certificate, has obtained a GED certificate, is enrolled in an elementary or secondary school or college or university of this State or any other state and is not a chronic or habitual truant as provided in Section 26-2a of the School Code, or is receiving home instruction and submits proof of meeting any of those requirements at the time of application.

An applicant under 18 years of age who provides proof acceptable to the Secretary that the applicant has resumed regular school attendance or home instruction or that his or her application was denied in error shall be eligible to receive a graduated license if other requirements are met. The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this subsection (b-1).

(c) No graduated driver's license or permit shall be issued to any applicant under 18 years of age who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code and no graduated driver's license or permit shall be issued to any applicant under 18 years of age who has committed an offense that would otherwise result in a mandatory revocation of a license or permit as provided in Section 6-205 of this Code or who has been either convicted of or adjudicated a delinquent based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such.

(d) No graduated driver's license shall be issued for 6 months to any applicant under the age of 18 years who has been convicted of any offense defined as a serious traffic violation in this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) No graduated driver's license holder under the age of 18 years shall operate any motor vehicle, except a motor driven cycle or motorcycle, with more than one passenger in the front seat of the motor vehicle and no more passengers in the back seats than the number of available seat safety belts as set forth in Section 12-603 of this Code.

(f) No graduated driver's license holder under the age of 18 shall operate a motor vehicle unless each driver and passenger under the age of 19 is wearing a properly adjusted and fastened seat safety belt and each child under the age of 8 is protected as required under the Child Passenger Protection Act.

(g) If a graduated driver's license holder is under the age of 18 when he or she receives the license, for the first 6 months he or she holds the license or until he or she reaches the age of 18, whichever occurs sooner, the graduated license holder may not operate a motor vehicle with more than one passenger in the vehicle who is under the age of 20, unless any additional passenger or passengers are siblings, step-siblings, children, or stepchildren of the driver.

(Source: P.A. 93-101, eff. 1-1-04; 93-788, eff. 1-1-05; 94-239, eff. 1-1-06; 94-241, eff. 1-1-06; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-897, eff. 6-22-06; 94-916, eff. 7-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-108) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-108)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 94-916)

Sec. 6-108. Cancellation of license issued to minor.

(a) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or permit of any minor under the age of 18 years in any of the following events:

1. Upon the verified written request of the person who consented to the application of the minor that the license or permit be cancelled;

2. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence of the death of the person who consented to the application of the minor;

3. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence that the person who consented to the application of a minor no longer has legal custody of the minor.

After cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit until the applicant meets the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code.

(b) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or permit of any person under the age of 18 years if he or she is convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation or until the minor attains the age of 18 years, whichever is longer. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the person's residence and person's place of employment or within the scope of the person's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the person or a household member of the person's family for the receipt of necessary medical care or, if the professional evaluation indicates, provide transportation for the petitioner for alcohol remedial or rehabilitative activity, or for the person to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution; if the person is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period as he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program. Thereafter, upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or a permit as provided in Section 6-105 of this Code and upon payment of the appropriate application fee, the Secretary of State shall issue the applicant a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or shall issue the applicant a permit as provided in Section 6-105.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 94-916)

Sec. 6-108. Cancellation of license issued to minor.

(a) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or permit of any minor under the age of 18 years in any of the following events:

1. Upon the verified written request of the person who consented to the application of the minor that the license or permit be cancelled;

2. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence of the death of the person who consented to the application of the minor;

3. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence that the person who consented to the application of a minor no longer has legal custody of the minor;

4. Upon receipt of information, submitted on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State under Section 26-3a of the School Code and provided voluntarily by nonpublic schools, that a license-holding minor no longer meets the school attendance requirements defined in Section 6-107 of this Code.

A minor who provides proof acceptable to the Secretary that the minor has resumed regular school attendance or home instruction or that his or her license or permit was cancelled in error shall have his or her license reinstated. The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this subdivision (a)4.

After cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit until the applicant meets the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code.

(b) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or permit of any person under the age of 18 years if he or she is convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation or until the minor attains the age of 18 years, whichever is longer. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the person's residence and person's place of employment or within the scope of the person's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the person or a household member of the person's family for the receipt of necessary medical care or, if the professional evaluation indicates, provide transportation for the petitioner for alcohol remedial or rehabilitative activity, or for the person to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution; if the person is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period as he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program. Thereafter, upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or a permit as provided in Section 6-105 of this Code and upon payment of the appropriate application fee, the Secretary of State shall issue the applicant a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or shall issue the applicant a permit as provided in Section 6-105.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-916, eff. 7-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-201) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-201)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 94-916)

Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:

1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder; or

2. failed to give the required or correct information in his application; or

3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act and upon reasonable notice and demand; or

4. committed any fraud in the making of such application; or

5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or

6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug, and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to examination or re-examination as required under this Act; or

7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the person's residence and person's place of employment or within the scope of the person's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the person or a household member of the person's family for the receipt of necessary medical care or, if the professional evaluation indicates, provide transportation for the petitioner for alcohol remedial or rehabilitative activity, or for the person to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution; if the person is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such restricted driving permit for such period as he deems appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program; or

8. failed to submit a report as required by Section 6-116.5 of this Code; or

9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act, proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of State and the sex offender provides proof of current address to the Secretary.

(b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary of State.

(c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant, issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges, drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.

(d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-993, eff. 1-1-07.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 94-916)

Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:

1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder; or

2. failed to give the required or correct information in his application; or

3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act and upon reasonable notice and demand; or

4. committed any fraud in the making of such application; or

5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or

6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug, and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to examination or re-examination as required under this Act; or

7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year after the date of cancellation. However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the person's residence and person's place of employment or within the scope of the person's employment related duties, or to allow transportation for the person or a household member of the person's family for the receipt of necessary medical care or, if the professional evaluation indicates, provide transportation for the petitioner for alcohol remedial or rehabilitative activity, or for the person to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational institution; if the person is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship would result from a failure to issue such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such restricted driving permit for such period as he deems appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program; or

8. failed to submit a report as required by Section 6-116.5 of this Code; or

9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act, proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of State and the sex offender provides proof of current address to the Secretary; or .

10. 9. is ineligible for a license or permit under Section 6-107, 6-107.1, or 6-108 of this Code.

(b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary of State.

(c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant, issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges, drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.

(d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-916, eff. 7-1-07; 94-993, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-205.2)

Sec. 6-205.2. Suspension of driver's license of person convicted of theft of motor fuel. The driver's license of a person convicted of theft of motor fuel under Section 16K-15 16J-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be suspended by the Secretary for a period not to exceed 6 months for a first offense. Upon a second or subsequent conviction for theft of motor fuel, the suspension shall be for a period not to exceed one year. Upon conviction of a person for theft of motor fuel, the court shall order the person to surrender his or her driver's license to the clerk of the court who shall forward the suspended license to the Secretary.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-28-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-208)

Sec. 6-208. Period of Suspension - Application After Revocation.

(a) Except as otherwise provided by this Code or any other law of this State, the Secretary of State shall not suspend a driver's license, permit or privilege to drive a motor vehicle on the highways for a period of more than one year.

(b) Any person whose license, permit or privilege to drive a motor vehicle on the highways has been revoked shall not be entitled to have such license, permit or privilege renewed or restored. However, such person may, except as provided under subsection (d) of Section 6-205, make application for a license pursuant to Section 6-106 (i) if the revocation was for a cause which has been removed or (ii) as provided in the following subparagraphs:

1. Except as provided in subparagraphs 2, 3, and 4, the person may make application for a license after the expiration of one year from the effective date of the revocation or, in the case of a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, after the expiration of 3 years from the effective date of the revocation or, in the case of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph 1 of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, after the expiration of 2 years from the effective date of the revocation or after the expiration of 24 months from the date of release from a period of imprisonment as provided in Section 6-103 of this Code, whichever is later.

2. If such person is convicted of committing a second violation within a 20 year period of:

(A) Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(B) Paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(C) Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide; or

(D) any combination of the above offenses committed at different instances;

then such person may not make application for a license until after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation. The 20 year period shall be computed by using the dates the offenses were committed and shall also include similar out-of-state offenses.

3. However, except as provided in subparagraph 4, if such person is convicted of committing a third, or subsequent, violation or any combination of the above offenses, including similar out-of-state offenses, contained in subparagraph 2, then such person may not make application for a license until after the expiration of 10 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation.

4. The person may not make application for a license if the person is convicted of committing a fourth or subsequent violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, Section 11-401 of this Code, Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or a combination of these offenses or similar provisions of local ordinances or similar out-of-state offenses.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, all persons referred to in this paragraph (b) may not have their privileges restored until the Secretary receives payment of the required reinstatement fee pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 6-118.

In no event shall the Secretary issue such license unless and until such person has had a hearing pursuant to this Code and the appropriate administrative rules and the Secretary is satisfied, after a review or investigation of such person, that to grant the privilege of driving a motor vehicle on the highways will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 92-343, eff. 1-1-02; 92-418, eff. 8-17-01; 92-458, eff. 8-22-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-712, eff. 1-1-05; 93-788, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-411) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-411)

Sec. 6-411. Qualifications of Driver Training Instructors. In order to qualify for a license as an instructor for a driving school, an applicant must:

(a) Be of good moral character;

(b) Authorize an investigation to include a fingerprint based background check to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization the Secretary of State may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. Each applicant shall submit have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records record information databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The applicant shall be required to pay all related fingerprint fees including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. The Department of State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant upon request of the Secretary of State when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, the information derived from this investigation including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Secretary of State shall be provided to the applicant, or his designee, upon request to the Secretary of State, prior to any final action by the Secretary of State on the application. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Secretary of State shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the applicant. The information obtained from this investigation may be maintained by the Secretary of State or any agency to which such information was transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of a driver training instructor shall be used by the Secretary of State. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal charges and their disposition of an applicant shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section;

(c) Pass such examination as the Secretary of State shall require on (1) traffic laws, (2) safe driving practices, (3) operation of motor vehicles, and (4) qualifications of teacher;

(d) Be physically able to operate safely a motor vehicle and to train others in the operation of motor vehicles. An instructors license application must be accompanied by a medical examination report completed by a competent physician licensed to practice in the State of Illinois;

(e) Hold a valid Illinois drivers license;

(f) Have graduated from an accredited high school after at least 4 years of high school education or the equivalent; and

(g) Pay to the Secretary of State an application and license fee of $70.

If a driver training school class room instructor teaches an approved driver education course, as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code, to students under 18 years of age, he or she shall furnish to the Secretary of State a certificate issued by the State Board of Education that the said instructor is qualified and meets the minimum educational standards for teaching driver education courses in the local public or parochial school systems, except that no State Board of Education certification shall be required of any instructor who teaches exclusively in a commercial driving school. On and after July 1, 1986, the existing rules and regulations of the State Board of Education concerning commercial driving schools shall continue to remain in effect but shall be administered by the Secretary of State until such time as the Secretary of State shall amend or repeal the rules in accordance with The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Upon request, the Secretary of State shall issue a certificate of completion to a student under 18 years of age who has completed an approved driver education course at a commercial driving school.

(Source: P.A. 93-408, eff. 1-1-04; 93-418, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-15-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-500) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-500)

Sec. 6-500. Definitions of words and phrases. Notwithstanding the definitions set forth elsewhere in this Code, for purposes of the Uniform Commercial Driver's License Act (UCDLA), the words and phrases listed below have the meanings ascribed to them as follows:

(1) Alcohol. "Alcohol" means any substance containing any form of alcohol, including but not limited to ethanol, methanol, propanol, and isopropanol.

(2) Alcohol concentration. "Alcohol concentration" means:

(A) the number of grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath; or

(B) the number of grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood; or

(C) the number of grams of alcohol per 67 milliliters of urine.

Alcohol tests administered within 2 hours of the driver being "stopped or detained" shall be considered that driver's "alcohol concentration" for the purposes of enforcing this UCDLA.

(3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) Commercial Motor Vehicle.

(A) "Commercial motor vehicle" or "CMV" means a motor vehicle, except those referred to in subdivision (B), designed to transport passengers or property if:

(i) the vehicle has a GVWR of 26,001 pounds or more or such a lesser GVWR as subsequently determined by federal regulations or the Secretary of State; or any combination of vehicles with a GCWR of 26,001 pounds or more, provided the GVWR of any vehicle or vehicles being towed is 10,001 pounds or more; or

(ii) the vehicle is designed to transport 16 or more persons; or

(iii) the vehicle is transporting hazardous materials and is required to be placarded in accordance with 49 C.F.R. Part 172, subpart F.

(B) Pursuant to the interpretation of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 by the Federal Highway Administration, the definition of "commercial motor vehicle" does not include:

(i) recreational vehicles, when operated primarily for personal use;

(ii) United States Department of Defense vehicles being operated by non-civilian personnel. This includes any operator on active military duty; members of the Reserves; National Guard; personnel on part-time training; and National Guard military technicians (civilians who are required to wear military uniforms and are subject to the Code of Military Justice); or

(iii) firefighting and other emergency equipment (including, without limitation, equipment owned or operated by a HazMat or technical rescue team authorized by a county board under Section 5-1127 of the Counties Code), with audible and visual signals, owned or operated by or for a governmental entity, which is necessary to the preservation of life or property or the execution of emergency governmental functions which are normally not subject to general traffic rules and regulations.

(7) Controlled Substance. "Controlled substance" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and shall also include cannabis as defined in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(8) Conviction. "Conviction" means an unvacated adjudication of guilt or a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or an authorized administrative tribunal; an unvacated forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court; the payment of a fine or court cost regardless of whether the imposition of sentence is deferred and ultimately a judgment dismissing the underlying charge is entered; or a violation of a condition of release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is rebated, suspended or probated.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) (Blank).

(13) Driver. "Driver" means any person who drives, operates, or is in physical control of a commercial motor vehicle, any person who is required to hold a CDL, or any person who is a holder of a CDL while operating a non-commercial motor vehicle.

(14) Employee. "Employee" means a person who is employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver. A person who is self-employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver must comply with the requirements of this UCDLA pertaining to employees. An owner-operator on a long-term lease shall be considered an employee.

(15) Employer. "Employer" means a person (including the United States, a State or a local authority) who owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle or assigns employees to operate such a vehicle. A person who is self-employed as a commercial motor vehicle driver must comply with the requirements of this UCDLA.

(16) (Blank).

(16.5) Fatality. "Fatality" means the death of a person as a result of a motor vehicle accident.

(17) Foreign jurisdiction. "Foreign jurisdiction" means a sovereign jurisdiction that does not fall within the definition of "State".

(18) (Blank).

(19) (Blank).

(20) Hazardous Material. Upon a finding by the United States Secretary of Transportation, in his or her discretion, under 49 App. U.S.C. 5103(a), that the transportation of a particular quantity and form of material in commerce may pose an unreasonable risk to health and safety or property, he or she shall designate the quantity and form of material or group or class of the materials as a hazardous material. The materials so designated may include but are not limited to explosives, radioactive materials, etiologic agents, flammable liquids or solids, combustible liquids or solids, poisons, oxidizing or corrosive materials, and compressed gases.

(20.5) Imminent Hazard. "Imminent hazard" means the existence of a condition that presents a substantial likelihood that death, serious illness, severe personal injury, or a substantial endangerment to health, property, or the environment may occur before the reasonably foreseeable completion date of a formal proceeding begun to lessen the risk of that death, illness, injury or endangerment.

(21) Long-term lease. "Long-term lease" means a lease of a commercial motor vehicle by the owner-lessor to a lessee, for a period of more than 29 days.

(22) Motor Vehicle. "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle which is self-propelled, and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from over head trolley wires but not operated upon rails, except vehicles moved solely by human power and motorized wheel chairs.

(22.5) Non-CMV. "Non-CMV" means a motor vehicle or combination of motor vehicles not defined by the term "commercial motor vehicle" or "CMV" in this Section.

(23) Non-resident CDL. "Non-resident CDL" means a commercial driver's license issued by a state under either of the following two conditions:

(i) to an individual domiciled in a foreign country meeting the requirements of Part 383.23(b)(1) of 49 C.F.R. of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration.

(ii) to an individual domiciled in another state meeting the requirements of Part 383.23(b)(2) of 49 C.F.R. of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration.

(24) (Blank).

(25) (Blank).

(25.5) Railroad-Highway Grade Crossing Violation. "Railroad-highway grade crossing violation" means a violation, while operating a commercial motor vehicle, of any of the following:

(A) Section 11-1201, 11-1202, or 11-1425 of this Code.

(B) Any other similar law or local ordinance of any state relating to railroad-highway grade crossing.

(25.7) School Bus. "School bus" means a commercial motor vehicle used to transport pre-primary, primary, or secondary school students from home to school, from school to home, or to and from school-sponsored events. "School bus" does not include a bus used as a common carrier.

(26) Serious Traffic Violation. "Serious traffic violation" means:

(A) a conviction when operating a commercial motor vehicle, or when operating a non-CMV while holding a CDL, of:

(i) a violation relating to excessive speeding, involving a single speeding charge of 15 miles per hour or more above the legal speed limit; or

(ii) a violation relating to reckless driving; or

(iii) a violation of any State law or local ordinance relating to motor vehicle traffic control (other than parking violations) arising in connection with a fatal traffic accident; or

(iv) a violation of Section 6-501, relating to having multiple driver's licenses; or

(v) a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 6-507, relating to the requirement to have a valid CDL; or

(vi) a violation relating to improper or erratic traffic lane changes; or

(vii) a violation relating to following another vehicle too closely; or

(B) any other similar violation of a law or local ordinance of any state relating to motor vehicle traffic control, other than a parking violation, which the Secretary of State determines by administrative rule to be serious.

(27) State. "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia and any province or territory of Canada.

(28) (Blank).

(29) (Blank).

(30) (Blank).

(31) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 94-307, eff. 9-30-05; 94-334, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts G and H.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests specified by Federal Highway Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a commercial driver license applicant who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77 and Part 383.123.

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-6, 10-7, 11-6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-21, 11-22, 12-3.1, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-3.3, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, and 33A-2, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act; and (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this subsection (c-2).

(d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary. A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial instruction permit prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999.

(Source: P.A. 93-476, eff. 1-1-04; 93-644, eff. 6-1-04; 94-307, eff. 9-30-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-208.3)

Sec. 11-208.3. Administrative adjudication of violations of traffic regulations concerning the standing, parking, or condition of vehicles and automated traffic law violations.

(a) Any municipality may provide by ordinance for a system of administrative adjudication of vehicular standing and parking violations and vehicle compliance violations as defined in this subsection and automated traffic law violations as defined in Section 11-208.6. The administrative system shall have as its purpose the fair and efficient enforcement of municipal regulations through the administrative adjudication of automated traffic law violations and violations of municipal ordinances regulating the standing and parking of vehicles, the condition and use of vehicle equipment, and the display of municipal wheel tax licenses within the municipality's borders. The administrative system shall only have authority to adjudicate civil offenses carrying fines not in excess of $250 that occur after the effective date of the ordinance adopting such a system under this Section. For purposes of this Section, "compliance violation" means a violation of a municipal regulation governing the condition or use of equipment on a vehicle or governing the display of a municipal wheel tax license.

(b) Any ordinance establishing a system of administrative adjudication under this Section shall provide for:

(1) A traffic compliance administrator authorized to adopt, distribute and process parking, compliance, and automated traffic law violation notices and other notices required by this Section, collect money paid as fines and penalties for violation of parking and compliance ordinances and automated traffic law violations, and operate an administrative adjudication system. The traffic compliance administrator also may make a certified report to the Secretary of State under Section 6-306.5.

(2) A parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation notice that shall specify the date, time, and place of violation of a parking, standing, or compliance, or automated traffic law regulation; the particular regulation violated; the fine and any penalty that may be assessed for late payment, when so provided by ordinance; the vehicle make and state registration number; and the identification number of the person issuing the notice. With regard to automated traffic law violations, vehicle make shall be specified on the automated traffic law violation notice if the make is available and readily discernible. With regard to municipalities with a population of 1 million or more, it shall be grounds for dismissal of a parking violation if the state registration number or vehicle make specified is incorrect. The violation notice shall state that the payment of the indicated fine, and of any applicable penalty for late payment, shall operate as a final disposition of the violation. The notice also shall contain information as to the availability of a hearing in which the violation may be contested on its merits. The violation notice shall specify the time and manner in which a hearing may be had.

(3) Service of the parking, standing, or compliance violation notice by affixing the original or a facsimile of the notice to an unlawfully parked vehicle or by handing the notice to the operator of a vehicle if he or she is present and service of an automated traffic law violation notice by mail to the address of the registered owner of the cited vehicle as recorded with the Secretary of State within 30 days after the Secretary of State notifies the municipality or county of the identity of the owner of the vehicle, but in no event later than 90 days after the violation. A person authorized by ordinance to issue and serve parking, standing, and compliance violation notices shall certify as to the correctness of the facts entered on the violation notice by signing his or her name to the notice at the time of service or in the case of a notice produced by a computerized device, by signing a single certificate to be kept by the traffic compliance administrator attesting to the correctness of all notices produced by the device while it was under his or her control. In the case of an automated traffic law violation, the ordinance shall require a determination by a technician employed or contracted by the municipality or county that, based on inspection of recorded images, the motor vehicle was being operated in violation of Section 11-208.6 or a local ordinance. If the technician determines that the vehicle entered the intersection as part of a funeral procession or in order to yield the right-of-way to an emergency vehicle, a citation shall not be issued. The original or a facsimile of the violation notice or, in the case of a notice produced by a computerized device, a printed record generated by the device showing the facts entered on the notice, shall be retained by the traffic compliance administrator, and shall be a record kept in the ordinary course of business. A parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation notice issued, signed and served in accordance with this Section, a copy of the notice, or the computer generated record shall be prima facie correct and shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the facts shown on the notice. The notice, copy, or computer generated record shall be admissible in any subsequent administrative or legal proceedings.

(4) An opportunity for a hearing for the registered owner of the vehicle cited in the parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation notice in which the owner may contest the merits of the alleged violation, and during which formal or technical rules of evidence shall not apply; provided, however, that under Section 11-1306 of this Code the lessee of a vehicle cited in the violation notice likewise shall be provided an opportunity for a hearing of the same kind afforded the registered owner. The hearings shall be recorded, and the person conducting the hearing on behalf of the traffic compliance administrator shall be empowered to administer oaths and to secure by subpoena both the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant books and papers. Persons appearing at a hearing under this Section may be represented by counsel at their expense. The ordinance may also provide for internal administrative review following the decision of the hearing officer.

(5) Service of additional notices, sent by first class United States mail, postage prepaid, to the address of the registered owner of the cited vehicle as recorded with the Secretary of State or, if any notice to that address is returned as undeliverable, to the last known address recorded in a United States Post Office approved database, or, under Section 11-1306 of this Code, to the lessee of the cited vehicle at the last address known to the lessor of the cited vehicle at the time of lease or, if any notice to that address is returned as undeliverable, to the last known address recorded in a United States Post Office approved database. The service shall be deemed complete as of the date of deposit in the United States mail. The notices shall be in the following sequence and shall include but not be limited to the information specified herein:

(i) A second notice of parking, standing, or compliance violation. This notice shall specify the date and location of the violation cited in the parking, standing, or compliance violation notice, the particular regulation violated, the vehicle make and state registration number, the fine and any penalty that may be assessed for late payment when so provided by ordinance, the availability of a hearing in which the violation may be contested on its merits, and the time and manner in which the hearing may be had. The notice of violation shall also state that failure either to pay the indicated fine and any applicable penalty, or to appear at a hearing on the merits in the time and manner specified, will result in a final determination of violation liability for the cited violation in the amount of the fine or penalty indicated, and that, upon the occurrence of a final determination of violation liability for the failure, and the exhaustion of, or failure to exhaust, available administrative or judicial procedures for review, any unpaid fine or penalty will constitute a debt due and owing the municipality.

(ii) A notice of final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability. This notice shall be sent following a final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability and the conclusion of judicial review procedures taken under this Section. The notice shall state that the unpaid fine or penalty is a debt due and owing the municipality. The notice shall contain warnings that failure to pay any fine or penalty due and owing the municipality within the time specified may result in the municipality's filing of a petition in the Circuit Court to have the unpaid fine or penalty rendered a judgment as provided by this Section, or may result in suspension of the person's drivers license for failure to pay fines or penalties for 10 or more parking violations under Section 6-306.5 or 5 or more automated traffic law violations under Section 11-208.6.

(6) A Notice of impending drivers license suspension. This notice shall be sent to the person liable for any fine or penalty that remains due and owing on 10 or more parking violations or 5 or more unpaid automated traffic law violations. The notice shall state that failure to pay the fine or penalty owing within 45 days of the notice's date will result in the municipality notifying the Secretary of State that the person is eligible for initiation of suspension proceedings under Section 6-306.5 of this Code. The notice shall also state that the person may obtain a photostatic copy of an original ticket imposing a fine or penalty by sending a self addressed, stamped envelope to the municipality along with a request for the photostatic copy. The notice of impending drivers license suspension shall be sent by first class United States mail, postage prepaid, to the address recorded with the Secretary of State or, if any notice to that address is returned as undeliverable, to the last known address recorded in a United States Post Office approved database.

(7) Final determinations of violation liability. A final determination of violation liability shall occur following failure to pay the fine or penalty after a hearing officer's determination of violation liability and the exhaustion of or failure to exhaust any administrative review procedures provided by ordinance. Where a person fails to appear at a hearing to contest the alleged violation in the time and manner specified in a prior mailed notice, the hearing officer's determination of violation liability shall become final: (A) upon denial of a timely petition to set aside that determination, or (B) upon expiration of the period for filing the petition without a filing having been made.

(8) A petition to set aside a determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability that may be filed by a person owing an unpaid fine or penalty. The petition shall be filed with and ruled upon by the traffic compliance administrator in the manner and within the time specified by ordinance. The grounds for the petition may be limited to: (A) the person not having been the owner or lessee of the cited vehicle on the date the violation notice was issued, (B) the person having already paid the fine or penalty for the violation in question, and (C) excusable failure to appear at or request a new date for a hearing. With regard to municipalities with a population of 1 million or more, it shall be grounds for dismissal of a parking violation if the state registration number, or vehicle make if specified, is incorrect. After the determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability has been set aside upon a showing of just cause, the registered owner shall be provided with a hearing on the merits for that violation.

(9) Procedures for non-residents. Procedures by which persons who are not residents of the municipality may contest the merits of the alleged violation without attending a hearing.

(10) A schedule of civil fines for violations of vehicular standing, parking, compliance, or automated traffic law regulations enacted by ordinance pursuant to this Section, and a schedule of penalties for late payment of the fines, provided, however, that the total amount of the fine and penalty for any one violation shall not exceed $250, except as provided in subsection (c) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code.

(11) Other provisions as are necessary and proper to carry into effect the powers granted and purposes stated in this Section.

(c) Any municipality establishing vehicular standing, parking, compliance, or automated traffic law regulations under this Section may also provide by ordinance for a program of vehicle immobilization for the purpose of facilitating enforcement of those regulations. The program of vehicle immobilization shall provide for immobilizing any eligible vehicle upon the public way by presence of a restraint in a manner to prevent operation of the vehicle. Any ordinance establishing a program of vehicle immobilization under this Section shall provide:

(1) Criteria for the designation of vehicles eligible for immobilization. A vehicle shall be eligible for immobilization when the registered owner of the vehicle has accumulated the number of unpaid final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability as determined by ordinance.

(2) A notice of impending vehicle immobilization and a right to a hearing to challenge the validity of the notice by disproving liability for the unpaid final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability listed on the notice.

(3) The right to a prompt hearing after a vehicle has been immobilized or subsequently towed without payment of the outstanding fines and penalties on parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations for which final determinations have been issued. An order issued after the hearing is a final administrative decision within the meaning of Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(4) A post immobilization and post-towing notice advising the registered owner of the vehicle of the right to a hearing to challenge the validity of the impoundment.

(d) Judicial review of final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations and final administrative decisions issued after hearings regarding vehicle immobilization and impoundment made under this Section shall be subject to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(e) Any fine, penalty, or part of any fine or any penalty remaining unpaid after the exhaustion of, or the failure to exhaust, administrative remedies created under this Section and the conclusion of any judicial review procedures shall be a debt due and owing the municipality and, as such, may be collected in accordance with applicable law. Payment in full of any fine or penalty resulting from a standing, parking, compliance, or automated traffic law violation shall constitute a final disposition of that violation.

(f) After the expiration of the period within which judicial review may be sought for a final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation, the municipality may commence a proceeding in the Circuit Court for purposes of obtaining a judgment on the final determination of violation. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a municipality from consolidating multiple final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations against a person in a proceeding. Upon commencement of the action, the municipality shall file a certified copy or record of the final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation, which shall be accompanied by a certification that recites facts sufficient to show that the final determination of violation was issued in accordance with this Section and the applicable municipal ordinance. Service of the summons and a copy of the petition may be by any method provided by Section 2-203 of the Code of Civil Procedure or by certified mail, return receipt requested, provided that the total amount of fines and penalties for final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations does not exceed $2500. If the court is satisfied that the final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation was entered in accordance with the requirements of this Section and the applicable municipal ordinance, and that the registered owner or the lessee, as the case may be, had an opportunity for an administrative hearing and for judicial review as provided in this Section, the court shall render judgment in favor of the municipality and against the registered owner or the lessee for the amount indicated in the final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation, plus costs. The judgment shall have the same effect and may be enforced in the same manner as other judgments for the recovery of money.

(Source: P.A. 94-294, eff. 1-1-06; 94-795, eff. 5-22-06; 94-930, eff. 6-26-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1201) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1201)

Sec. 11-1201. Obedience to signal indicating approach of train.

(a) Whenever any person driving a vehicle approaches a railroad grade crossing where the driver is not always required to stop, the person must exercise due care and caution as the existence of a railroad track across a highway is a warning of danger, and under any of the circumstances stated in this Section, the driver shall stop within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad and shall not proceed until the tracks are clear and he or she can do so safely. The foregoing requirements shall apply when:

1. A clearly visible electric or mechanical signal device gives warning of the immediate approach of a railroad train;

2. A crossing gate is lowered or a human flagman gives or continues to give a signal of the approach or passage of a railroad train;

3. A railroad train approaching a highway crossing emits a warning signal and such railroad train, by reason of its speed or nearness to such crossing, is an immediate hazard;

4. An approaching railroad train is plainly visible and is in hazardous proximity to such crossing;

5. A railroad train is approaching so closely that an immediate hazard is created.

(a-5) Whenever a person driving a vehicle approaches a railroad grade crossing where the driver is not always required to stop but must slow down, the person must exercise due care and caution as the existence of a railroad track across a highway is a warning of danger, and under any of the circumstances stated in this Section, the driver shall slow down within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad and shall not proceed until he or she checks that the tracks are clear of an approaching train.

(b) No person shall drive any vehicle through, around or under any crossing gate or barrier at a railroad crossing while such gate or barrier is closed or is being opened or closed.

(c) The Department, and local authorities with the approval of the Department, are hereby authorized to designate particularly dangerous highway grade crossings of railroads and to erect stop signs thereat. When such stop signs are erected the driver of any vehicle shall stop within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of such railroad and shall proceed only upon exercising due care.

(d) At any railroad grade crossing provided with railroad crossbuck signs, without automatic, electric, or mechanical signal devices, crossing gates, or a human flagman giving a signal of the approach or passage of a train, the driver of a vehicle shall in obedience to the railroad crossbuck sign, yield the right-of-way and slow down to a speed reasonable for the existing conditions and shall stop, if required for safety, at a clearly marked stopped line, or if no stop line, within 50 feet but not less than 15 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad and shall not proceed until he or she can do so safely. If a driver is involved in a collision at a railroad crossing or interferes with the movement of a train after driving past the railroad crossbuck sign, the collision or interference is prima facie evidence of the driver's failure to yield right-of-way.

(d-1) No person shall, while driving a commercial motor vehicle, fail to negotiate a railroad-highway grade railroad crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance.

(d-5) (Blank).

(e) It is unlawful to violate any part of this Section.

(1) A violation of this Section is a petty offense for which a fine of $250 shall be imposed for a first violation, and a fine of $500 shall be imposed for a second or subsequent violation. The court may impose 25 hours of community service in place of the $250 fine for the first violation.

(2) For a second or subsequent violation, the Secretary of State may suspend the driving privileges of the offender for a minimum of 6 months.

(f) Corporate authorities of municipal corporations regulating operators of vehicles that fail to obey signals indicating the presence, approach, passage, or departure of a train shall impose fines as established in subsection (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-245, eff. 8-3-01; 92-249, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-814, eff. 1-1-03; 92-834, eff. 8-22-02; revised 8-26-02.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1414) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1414)

Sec. 11-1414. Approaching, overtaking, and passing school bus.

(a) The driver of a vehicle shall stop such vehicle before meeting or overtaking, from either direction, any school bus stopped at any location for the purpose of receiving or discharging pupils. Such stop is required before reaching the school bus when there is in operation on the school bus the visual signals as specified in Sections 12-803 and 12-805 of this Code. The driver of the vehicle shall not proceed until the school bus resumes motion or the driver of the vehicle is signaled by the school bus driver to proceed or the visual signals are no longer actuated.

(b) The stop signal arm required by Section 12-803 of this Code shall be extended after the school bus has come to a complete stop for the purpose of loading or discharging pupils and shall be closed before the school bus is placed in motion again. The stop signal arm shall not be extended at any other time.

(c) The alternately flashing red signal lamps of an 8-lamp flashing signal system required by Section 12-805 of this Code shall be actuated after the school bus has come to a complete stop for the purpose of loading or discharging pupils and shall be turned off before the school bus is placed in motion again. The red signal lamps shall not be actuated at any other time except as provided in paragraph (d) of this Section.

(d) The alternately flashing amber signal lamps of an 8-lamp flashing signal system required by Section 12-805 of this Code shall be actuated continuously during not less than the last 100 feet traveled by the school bus before stopping for the purpose of loading or discharging pupils within an urban area and during not less than the last 200 feet traveled by the school bus outside an urban area. The amber signal lamps shall remain actuated until the school bus is stopped. The amber signal lamps shall not be actuated at any other time.

(d-5) The alternately flashing head lamps permitted by Section 12-805 of this Code may be operated while the alternately flashing red or amber signal lamps required by that Section are actuated.

(e) The driver of a vehicle upon a highway having 4 or more lanes which permits at least 2 lanes of traffic to travel in opposite directions need not stop such vehicle upon meeting a school bus which is stopped in the opposing roadway; and need not stop such vehicle when driving upon a controlled access highway when passing a school bus traveling in either direction that is stopped in a loading zone adjacent to the surfaced or improved part of the controlled access highway where pedestrians are not permitted to cross.

(f) Beginning with the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, the Secretary of State shall suspend for a period of 3 months the driving privileges of any person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance; the Secretary shall suspend for a period of one year the driving privileges of any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection (a) of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the second or subsequent violation occurs within 5 years of a prior conviction for the same offense. In addition to the suspensions authorized by this Section, any person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall be subject to a mandatory fine of $150 or, upon a second or subsequent violation, $500. The Secretary may also grant, for the duration of any suspension issued under this subsection, a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the driver's residence and place of employment or within other proper limits that the Secretary of State shall find necessary to avoid any undue hardship. A restricted driving permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or cancellation of the restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. Any conviction for a violation of this subsection shall be included as an offense for the purposes of determining suspension action under any other provision of this Code, provided however, that the penalties provided under this subsection shall be imposed unless those penalties imposed under other applicable provisions are greater.

The owner of any vehicle alleged to have violated paragraph (a) of this Section shall, upon appropriate demand by the State's Attorney or other authorized prosecutor acting in response to a signed complaint, provide a written statement or deposition identifying the operator of the vehicle if such operator was not the owner at the time of the alleged violation. Failure to supply such information shall be construed to be the same as a violation of paragraph (a) and shall be subject to the same penalties herein provided. In the event the owner has assigned control for the use of the vehicle to another, the person to whom control was assigned shall comply with the provisions of this paragraph and be subject to the same penalties as herein provided.

(Source: P.A. 93-180, eff. 7-11-03; 93-181, eff. 1-1-04; revised 8-12-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-603.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-603.1)

Sec. 12-603.1. Driver and passenger required to use safety belts, exceptions and penalty.

(a) Each driver and front seat passenger of a motor vehicle operated on a street or highway in this State shall wear a properly adjusted and fastened seat safety belt; except that, a child less than 8 years of age shall be protected as required pursuant to the Child Passenger Protection Act. Each driver under the age of 18 years and each of the driver's passengers under the age of 19 years of a motor vehicle operated on a street or highway in this State shall wear a properly adjusted and fastened seat safety belt. Each driver of a motor vehicle transporting a child 8 years of age or more, but less than 16 years of age, shall secure the child in a properly adjusted and fastened seat safety belt as required under the Child Passenger Protection Act.

(b) Paragraph (a) shall not apply to any of the following:

1. A driver or passenger frequently stopping and leaving the vehicle or delivering property from the vehicle, if the speed of the vehicle between stops does not exceed 15 miles per hour.

2. A driver or passenger possessing a written statement from a physician that such person is unable, for medical or physical reasons, to wear a seat safety belt.

3. A driver or passenger possessing an official certificate or license endorsement issued by the appropriate agency in another state or country indicating that the driver is unable for medical, physical, or other valid reasons to wear a seat safety belt.

4. A driver operating a motor vehicle in reverse.

5. A motor vehicle with a model year prior to 1965.

6. A motorcycle or motor driven cycle.

7. A motorized pedalcycle.

8. A motor vehicle which is not required to be equipped with seat safety belts under federal law.

9. A motor vehicle operated by a rural letter carrier of the United States postal service while performing duties as a rural letter carrier.

(c) Failure to wear a seat safety belt in violation of this Section shall not be considered evidence of negligence, shall not limit the liability of an insurer, and shall not diminish any recovery for damages arising out of the ownership, maintenance, or operation of a motor vehicle.

(d) A violation of this Section shall be a petty offense and subject to a fine not to exceed $25.

(e) (Blank).

(f) A law enforcement officer may not search or inspect a motor vehicle, its contents, the driver, or a passenger solely because of a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-99, eff. 7-3-03; 94-239, eff. 1-1-06; 94-241, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-613)

Sec. 12-613. Possession and use of radar or laser jamming devices prohibited.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), a person may not operate or be in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while the motor vehicle is equipped with any instrument designed to interfere with microwaves or lasers at frequencies used by police radar for the purpose of monitoring vehicular speed.

(b) A person operating a motor vehicle who possesses within the vehicle a radar or laser jamming device that is contained in a locked opaque box or similar container, or that is not in the passenger compartment of the vehicle, and that is not in operation, is not in violation of this Section.

(c) Any person found guilty of violating this Section is guilty of a petty offense. A minimum fine of $50 shall be imposed for a first offense and a minimum fine of $100 for a second or subsequent offense.

(d) The radar or laser jamming device or mechanism shall be seized by the law enforcement officer at the time of the violation. This Section does not authorize the permanent forfeiture to the State of any radar or laser jamming device or mechanism. The device or mechanism shall be taken and held for the period when needed as evidence. When no longer needed for evidence, the defendant may petition the court for the return of the device or mechanism. The defendant, however, must prove to the court by a preponderance of the evidence that the device or mechanism will be used only for a legitimate and lawful purpose.

(e) (d) A law enforcement officer may not stop or search any motor vehicle or the driver of any motor vehicle solely on the basis of a violation or suspected violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-594, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-301)

Sec. 15-301. Permits for excess size and weight.

(a) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction may, in their discretion, upon application and good cause being shown therefor, issue a special permit authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in this Act or otherwise not in conformity with this Act upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the party granting such permit and for the maintenance of which the party is responsible. Applications and permits other than those in written or printed form may only be accepted from and issued to the company or individual making the movement. Except for an application to move directly across a highway, it shall be the duty of the applicant to establish in the application that the load to be moved by such vehicle or combination is composed of a single nondivisible object that cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled. For the purpose of over length movements, more than one object may be carried side by side as long as the height, width, and weight laws are not exceeded and the cause for the over length is not due to multiple objects. For the purpose of over height movements, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over height is not due to multiple objects and the length, width, and weight laws are not exceeded. For the purpose of an over width movement, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over width is not due to multiple objects and length, height, and weight laws are not exceeded. No state or local agency shall authorize the issuance of excess size or weight permits for vehicles and loads that are divisible and that can be carried, when divided, within the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter. Any excess size or weight permit issued in violation of the provisions of this Section shall be void at issue and any movement made thereunder shall not be authorized under the terms of the void permit. In any prosecution for a violation of this Chapter when the authorization of an excess size or weight permit is at issue, it is the burden of the defendant to establish that the permit was valid because the load to be moved could not reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, or was otherwise nondivisible.

(b) The application for any such permit shall: (1) state whether such permit is requested for a single trip or for limited continuous operation; (2) state if the applicant is an authorized carrier under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law, if so, his certificate, registration or permit number issued by the Illinois Commerce Commission; (3) specifically describe and identify the vehicle or vehicles and load to be operated or moved except that for vehicles or vehicle combinations registered by the Department as provided in Section 15-319 of this Chapter, only the Illinois Department of Transportation's (IDT) registration number or classification need be given; (4) state the routing requested including the points of origin and destination, and may identify and include a request for routing to the nearest certified scale in accordance with the Department's rules and regulations, provided the applicant has approval to travel on local roads; and (5) state if the vehicles or loads are being transported for hire. No permits for the movement of a vehicle or load for hire shall be issued to any applicant who is required under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law to have a certificate, registration or permit and does not have such certificate, registration or permit.

(c) The Department or local authority when not inconsistent with traffic safety is authorized to issue or withhold such permit at its discretion; or, if such permit is issued at its discretion to prescribe the route or routes to be traveled, to limit the number of trips, to establish seasonal or other time limitations within which the vehicles described may be operated on the highways indicated, or otherwise to limit or prescribe conditions of operations of such vehicle or vehicles, when necessary to assure against undue damage to the road foundations, surfaces or structures, and may require such undertaking or other security as may be deemed necessary to compensate for any injury to any roadway or road structure. The Department shall maintain a daily record of each permit issued along with the fee and the stipulated dimensions, weights, conditions and restrictions authorized and this record shall be presumed correct in any case of questions or dispute. The Department shall install an automatic device for recording applications received and permits issued by telephone. In making application by telephone, the Department and applicant waive all objections to the recording of the conversation.

(d) The Department shall, upon application in writing from any local authority, issue an annual permit authorizing the local authority to move oversize highway construction, transportation, utility and maintenance equipment over roads under the jurisdiction of the Department. The permit shall be applicable only to equipment and vehicles owned by or registered in the name of the local authority, and no fee shall be charged for the issuance of such permits.

(e) As an exception to paragraph (a) of this Section, the Department and local authorities, with respect to highways under their respective jurisdictions, in their discretion and upon application in writing may issue a special permit for limited continuous operation, authorizing the applicant to move loads of agricultural commodities on a 2 axle single vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 35%, on a 3 or 4 axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 20%, and on a 5 axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State not to exceed 10% above those provided in Section 15-111. The total gross weight of the vehicle, however, may not exceed the maximum gross weight of the registration class of the vehicle allowed under Section 3-815 or 3-818 of this Code.

As used in this Section, "agricultural commodities" means:

(1) cultivated plants or agricultural produce grown including, but is not limited to, corn, soybeans, wheat, oats, grain sorghum, canola, and rice;

(2) livestock, including but not limited to hogs, equine, sheep, and poultry;

(3) ensilage; and

(4) fruits and vegetables.

Permits may be issued for a period not to exceed 40 days and moves may be made of a distance not to exceed 50 miles from a field, an on-farm grain storage facility, a warehouse as defined in the Illinois Grain Code, or a livestock management facility as defined in the Livestock Management Facilities Act over any highway except the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The operator of the vehicle, however, must abide by posted bridge and posted highway weight limits. All implements of husbandry operating under this Section between sunset and sunrise shall be equipped as prescribed in Section 12-205.1.

(e-1) Upon a declaration by the Governor that an emergency harvest situation exists, a special permit issued by the Department under this Section shall not be required from September 1 through December 31 during harvest season emergencies, provided that the weight does not exceed 20% above the limits provided in Section 15-111. All other restrictions that apply to permits issued under this Section shall apply during the declared time period. With respect to highways under the jurisdiction of local authorities, the local authorities may, at their discretion, waive special permit requirements during harvest season emergencies. This permit exemption shall apply to all vehicles eligible to obtain permits under this Section, including commercial vehicles in use during the declared time period.

(f) The form and content of the permit shall be determined by the Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and by local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction. Every permit shall be in written form and carried in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit and no person shall violate any of the terms or conditions of such special permit. Violation of the terms and conditions of the permit shall not be deemed a revocation of the permit; however, any vehicle and load found to be off the route prescribed in the permit shall be held to be operating without a permit. Any off route vehicle and load shall be required to obtain a new permit or permits, as necessary, to authorize the movement back onto the original permit routing. No rule or regulation, nor anything herein shall be construed to authorize any police officer, court, or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit to remove the permit from the possession of the permittee unless the permittee is charged with a fraudulent permit violation as provided in paragraph (i). However, upon arrest for an offense of violation of permit, operating without a permit when the vehicle is off route, or any size or weight offense under this Chapter when the permittee plans to raise the issuance of the permit as a defense, the permittee, or his agent, must produce the permit at any court hearing concerning the alleged offense.

If the permit designates and includes a routing to a certified scale, the permitee, while enroute to the designated scale, shall be deemed in compliance with the weight provisions of the permit provided the axle or gross weights do not exceed any of the permitted limits by more than the following amounts:

Single axle 2000 pounds

Tandem axle 3000 pounds

Gross 5000 pounds

(g) The Department is authorized to adopt, amend, and to make available to interested persons a policy concerning reasonable rules, limitations and conditions or provisions of operation upon highways under its jurisdiction in addition to those contained in this Section for the movement by special permit of vehicles, combinations, or loads which cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, including manufactured and modular home sections and portions thereof. All rules, limitations and conditions or provisions adopted in the policy shall have due regard for the safety of the traveling public and the protection of the highway system and shall have been promulgated in conformity with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The requirements of the policy for flagmen and escort vehicles shall be the same for all moves of comparable size and weight. When escort vehicles are required, they shall meet the following requirements:

(1) All operators shall be 18 years of age or over and properly licensed to operate the vehicle.

(2) Vehicles escorting oversized loads more than 12-feet wide must be equipped with a rotating or flashing amber light mounted on top as specified under Section 12-215.

The Department shall establish reasonable rules and regulations regarding liability insurance or self insurance for vehicles with oversized loads promulgated under The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Police vehicles may be required for escort under circumstances as required by rules and regulations of the Department.

(h) Violation of any rule, limitation or condition or provision of any permit issued in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall not render the entire permit null and void but the violator shall be deemed guilty of violation of permit and guilty of exceeding any size, weight or load limitations in excess of those authorized by the permit. The prescribed route or routes on the permit are not mere rules, limitations, conditions, or provisions of the permit, but are also the sole extent of the authorization granted by the permit. If a vehicle and load are found to be off the route or routes prescribed by any permit authorizing movement, the vehicle and load are operating without a permit. Any off route movement shall be subject to the size and weight maximums, under the applicable provisions of this Chapter, as determined by the type or class highway upon which the vehicle and load are being operated.

(i) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made under a fraudulent permit the permit shall be void, and the person, firm, or corporation to whom such permit was granted, the driver of such vehicle in addition to the person who issued such permit and any accessory, shall be guilty of fraud and either one or all persons may be prosecuted for such violation. Any person, firm, or corporation committing such violation shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm or corporation convicted of such violation for a period of one year after the date of conviction. Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violation of other Sections of this Act.

(j) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made in violation of a permit issued in accordance with this Section, the person to whom such permit was granted, or the driver of such vehicle, is guilty of such violation and either, but not both, persons may be prosecuted for such violation as stated in this subsection (j). Any person, firm or corporation convicted of such violation shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined for the first offense, not less than $50 nor more than $200 and, for the second offense by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year, not less than $200 nor more than $300 and, for the third offense by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year after the date of the first offense, not less than $300 nor more than $500 and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm or corporation convicted of a third offense during a period of one year after the date of conviction for such third offense.

(k) Whenever any vehicle is operated on local roads under permits for excess width or length issued by local authorities, such vehicle may be moved upon a State highway for a distance not to exceed one-half mile without a permit for the purpose of crossing the State highway.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Department, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, may at their discretion authorize the movement of a vehicle in violation of any size or weight requirement, or both, that would not ordinarily be eligible for a permit, when there is a showing of extreme necessity that the vehicle and load should be moved without unnecessary delay.

For the purpose of this subsection, showing of extreme necessity shall be limited to the following: shipments of livestock, hazardous materials, liquid concrete being hauled in a mobile cement mixer, or hot asphalt.

(m) Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violating any other Section of this Code.

(n) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for continuous limited operation, authorizing the applicant to operate a tow-truck that exceeds the weight limits provided for in subsection (d) of Section 15-111, provided:

(1) no rear single axle of the tow-truck exceeds 26,000 pounds;

(2) no rear tandem axle of the tow-truck exceeds 50,000 pounds;

(2.1) no triple rear axle on a manufactured recovery unit exceeds 56,000 pounds;

(3) neither the disabled vehicle nor the disabled combination of vehicles exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15, or the weight limits imposed under a permit issued by the Department prior to hookup;

(4) the tow-truck prior to hookup does not exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15;

(5) during the tow operation the tow-truck does not violate any weight restriction sign;

(6) the tow-truck is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(7) the tow-truck is specifically designed and licensed as a tow-truck;

(8) the tow-truck has a gross vehicle weight rating of sufficient capacity to safely handle the load;

(9) the tow-truck is equipped with air brakes;

(10) the tow-truck is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles;

(11) the tow commences at the initial point of wreck or disablement and terminates at a point where the repairs are actually to occur;

(12) the permit issued to the tow-truck is carried in the tow-truck and exhibited on demand by a police officer; and

(13) the movement shall be valid only on state routes approved by the Department.

(o) The Department, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for continuous limited operation, authorizing the applicant to transport raw milk that exceeds the weight limits provided for in subsections (b) and (f) of Section 15-111 of this Code, provided:

(1) no single axle exceeds 20,000 pounds;

(2) no gross weight exceeds 80,000 pounds;

(3) permits issued by the State are good only for federal and State highways and are not applicable to interstate highways; and

(4) all road and bridge postings must be obeyed.

(Source: P.A. 93-718, eff. 1-1-05; 93-971, eff. 8-20-04; 93-1023, eff. 8-25-04; revised 10-14-04.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-308.3)

Sec. 15-308.3. Fees for special permits to transport raw milk. The fee for a special permit to transport raw milk is $12.50 quarterly and $50.00 annually.

(Source: P.A. 93-718, eff. 1-1-05; revised 9-25-06.)

(625 ILCS 5/16-104b)

Sec. 16-104b. Amounts for Trauma Center Fund. In counties that have elected not to distribute moneys under the disbursement formulas in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act, the Circuit Clerk of the County, when collecting fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount imposed upon a conviction of or an order of supervision for a violation of laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic that amounts to $55 or more, shall remit $5 of the total amount collected, less 2 1/2% of the $5 to help defray the administrative costs incurred by the Clerk, except that upon a conviction or order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs the Clerk shall remit $105 of the total amount collected ($5 for a traffic violation that amounts to $55 or more and an additional fee of $100 to be collected by the Circuit Clerk for a conviction or order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs), less the 2 1/2%, within 60 days to the State Treasurer to be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the amounts deposited into the Trauma Center Fund under this Section, 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 92-431, eff. 1-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(625 ILCS 5/18a-404) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18a-404)

Sec. 18a-404. Operator's and dispatcher's employment permits - Revocation.

(1) The Commission shall suspend or revoke the permit of an operator if it finds that:

(a) The operator or dispatcher made a false statement on the application for an operator's or dispatcher's employment permit;

(b) The operator's or dispatcher's driver's license issued by the Secretary of State has been suspended or revoked; or

(c) The operator or dispatcher has been convicted, during the preceding 5 years, of any criminal offense of the State of Illinois or any other jurisdiction involving any of the following, and the holder does not make a compelling showing that he is nevertheless fit to hold an operator's license:

(i) Bodily injury or attempt to inflict bodily injury to another;

(ii) Theft of property or attempted theft of property; or

(iii) Sexual assault or attempted sexual assault of any kind; or

(d) The operator or dispatcher has, during the preceding 5 years, violated this Chapter, Commission regulations or orders, or any other law affecting public safety, and the holder does not make a compelling showing that he or she is nevertheless fit to hold an operator's license.

(2) The Commission, upon notification and verification of any conviction described in this Section, of any person to whom license has been issued, occurring within the 5 years prior to such issuance or any time thereafter, shall immediately suspend the employment permit of such person, and issue an order setting forth the grounds for revocation. The person and his employer shall be notified of such suspension. Such person shall not thereafter be employed by a relocator until a final order is issued by the Commission either reinstating the employment permit, upon a finding that the reinstatement of an employment permit to the person constitutes no threat to the public safety, or revoking the employment permit.

(3) If the employment permit is revoked, the person shall not thereafter be employed by a relocator until he obtains an employment permit license under Article IV of this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 94-895, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 1010. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Sections 27.1a, 27.3b, and 27.3d as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.1a) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.1a)

Sec. 27.1a. The fees of the clerks of the circuit court in all counties having a population of not more than 500,000 inhabitants in the instances described in this Section shall be as provided in this Section. In those instances where a minimum and maximum fee is stated, the clerk of the circuit court must charge the minimum fee listed and may charge up to the maximum fee if the county board has by resolution increased the fee. The fees shall be paid in advance and shall be as follows:

(a) Civil Cases.

The fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action, with the following exceptions, shall be a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $160.

(A) When the amount of money or damages or the value of personal property claimed does not exceed $250, $10.

(B) When that amount exceeds $250 but does not exceed $500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(C) When that amount exceeds $500 but does not exceed $2500, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(D) When that amount exceeds $2500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(E) For the exercise of eminent domain, a minimum of $45 and a maximum of $150. For each additional lot or tract of land or right or interest therein subject to be condemned, the damages in respect to which shall require separate assessment by a jury, a minimum of $45 and a maximum of $150.

(a-1) Family.

For filing a petition under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, $25.

For filing a petition for a marriage license, $10.

For performing a marriage in court, $10.

For filing a petition under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, $40.

(b) Forcible Entry and Detainer.

In each forcible entry and detainer case when the plaintiff seeks possession only or unites with his or her claim for possession of the property a claim for rent or damages or both in the amount of $15,000 or less, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $50. When the plaintiff unites his or her claim for possession with a claim for rent or damages or both exceeding $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $160.

(c) Counterclaim or Joining Third Party Defendant.

When any defendant files a counterclaim as part of his or her answer or otherwise or joins another party as a third party defendant, or both, the defendant shall pay a fee for each counterclaim or third party action in an amount equal to the fee he or she would have had to pay had he or she brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or against the third party defendant, less the amount of the appearance fee, if that has been paid.

(d) Confession of Judgment.

In a confession of judgment when the amount does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $50. When the amount exceeds $1500, but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $115. When the amount exceeds $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $200.

(e) Appearance.

The fee for filing an appearance in each civil case shall be a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $60, except as follows:

(A) When the plaintiff in a forcible entry and detainer case seeks possession only, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $50.

(B) When the amount in the case does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $30.

(C) When that amount exceeds $1500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $60.

(f) Garnishment, Wage Deduction, and Citation.

In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition when the amount does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $15; when the amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $30; and when the amount exceeds $5,000, a minimum of $5 and a maximum of $50.

(g) Petition to Vacate or Modify.

(1) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except in forcible entry and detainer cases and small claims cases or a petition to reopen an estate, to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed before 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $50.

(2) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed later than 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $75.

(3) Petition to vacate order of bond forfeiture, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40.

(h) Mailing.

When the clerk is required to mail, the fee will be a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $10, plus the cost of postage.

(i) Certified Copies.

Each certified copy of a judgment after the first, except in small claims and forcible entry and detainer cases, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $10.

(j) Habeas Corpus.

For filing a petition for relief by habeas corpus, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $100.

(k) Certification, Authentication, and Reproduction.

(1) Each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $6.

(2) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, under 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $60.

(3) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $150.

(4) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 200 pages, an additional fee of a minimum of 20 cents and a maximum of 25 cents per page.

(5) For reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files:

(A) First page, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2.

(B) Next 19 pages, 50 cents per page.

(C) All remaining pages, 25 cents per page.

(l) Remands.

In any cases remanded to the Circuit Court from the Supreme Court or the Appellate Court for a new trial, the clerk shall file the remanding order and reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The Clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement the Clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. A party shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement as he or she had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(m) Record Search.

For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk shall be entitled to a search fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6 for each year searched.

(n) Hard Copy.

For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk shall be entitled to a fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6.

(o) Index Inquiry and Other Records.

No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff/defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(p) (Blank).

a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $50 (q) Alias Summons.

For each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $5.

(r) Other Fees.

Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the Circuit Court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts.

The clerk of the circuit court may provide additional services for which there is no fee specified by statute in connection with the operation of the clerk's office as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(s) Jury Services.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive, in addition to other fees allowed by law, the sum of a minimum of $62.50 and a maximum of $212.50, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the same shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(t) Voluntary Assignment.

For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20; for recording the same, a minimum of 25 cents and a maximum of 50 cents for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(u) Expungement Petition.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive a fee of a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $60 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee of a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $4 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(v) Probate.

The clerk is entitled to receive the fees specified in this subsection (v), which shall be paid in advance, except that, for good cause shown, the court may suspend, reduce, or release the costs payable under this subsection:

(1) For administration of the estate of a decedent (whether testate or intestate) or of a missing person, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $150, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) proof of heirship alone is made, (ii) a domestic or foreign will is admitted to probate without administration (including proof of heirship), or (iii) letters of office are issued for a particular purpose without administration of the estate, the fee shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40.

(C) For filing a petition to sell Real Estate, $50.

(2) For administration of the estate of a ward, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) letters of office are issued to a guardian of the person or persons, but not of the estate or (ii) letters of office are issued in the estate of a ward without administration of the estate, including filing or joining in the filing of a tax return or releasing a mortgage or consenting to the marriage of the ward, the fee shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(C) For filing a Petition to sell Real Estate, $50.

(3) In addition to the fees payable under subsection (v)(1) or (v)(2) of this Section, the following fees are payable:

(A) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $25.

(B) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is $150 or more but less than $500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $25; when the amount claimed is $500 or more but less than $10,000, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40; when the amount claimed is $10,000 or more, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $60; provided that the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(C) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60.

(D) For filing in an estate (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator, no fee.

(E) Except as provided in subsection (v)(3)(D), for filing the appearance of any person or persons, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $30.

(F) For each jury demand, a minimum of $62.50 and a maximum of $137.50.

(G) For disposition of the collection of a judgment or settlement of an action or claim for wrongful death of a decedent or of any cause of action of a ward, when there is no other administration of the estate, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50, less any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B) except that if the amount involved does not exceed $5,000, the fee, including any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B), shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(H) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order or other certification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus a minimum of 50 cents and a maximum of $1 per page in excess of 3 pages for the document certified.

(I) For each exemplification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus the fee for certification.

(4) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(5) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fee shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(6) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Criminal and Quasi-Criminal Costs and Fees.

(1) The clerk shall be entitled to costs in all criminal and quasi-criminal cases from each person convicted or sentenced to supervision therein as follows:

(A) Felony complaints, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $100.

(B) Misdemeanor complaints, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(C) Business offense complaints, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(D) Petty offense complaints, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $75.

(E) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $10.

(F) When court appearance required, $15.

(G) Motions to vacate or amend final orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(H) Motions to vacate bond forfeiture orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(I) Motions to vacate ex parte judgments, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(J) Motions to vacate judgment on forfeitures, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(K) Motions to vacate "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(2) In counties having a population of not more than 500,000 inhabitants, when the violation complaint is issued by a municipal police department, the clerk shall be entitled to costs from each person convicted therein as follows:

(A) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $10.

(B) When court appearance required, $15.

(3) In ordinance violation cases punishable by fine only, the clerk of the circuit court shall be entitled to receive, unless the fee is excused upon a finding by the court that the defendant is indigent, in addition to other fees or costs allowed or imposed by law, the sum of a minimum of $62.50 and a maximum of $137.50 as a fee for the services of a jury. The jury fee shall be paid by the defendant at the time of filing his or her jury demand. If the fee is not so paid by the defendant, no jury shall be called, and the case shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(x) Transcripts of Judgment.

For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(y) Change of Venue.

(1) For the filing of a change of case on a change of venue, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(2) The fee for the preparation and certification of a record on a change of venue to another jurisdiction, when original documents are forwarded, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $40.

(z) Tax objection complaints.

For each tax objection complaint containing one or more tax objections, regardless of the number of parcels involved or the number of taxpayers joining on the complaint, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $50.

(aa) Tax Deeds.

(1) Petition for tax deed, if only one parcel is involved, a minimum of $45 and a maximum of $200.

(2) For each additional parcel, add a fee of a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $60.

(bb) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, a sum equal to a minimum of 2% and a maximum of 2.5% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) Interest earned on any funds held by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(3) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, $25.

(4) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk, if authorized by an ordinance of the county board, may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee shall be in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex-officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

The clerk shall also be entitled to a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law and these fees shall also be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(cc) Corrections of Numbers.

For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $25.

(dd) Exceptions.

(1) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances. "Law enforcement agency" also means the Attorney General or any state's attorney.

(2) No fee provided herein shall be charged to any unit of local government or school district.

(3) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection.

(4) The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to the filing of any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of authorized involuntary treatment in the form of medication under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(ee) Adoptions.

(1) For an adoption..............................$65

(2) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive the adoption filing fee in a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" shall have the meaning ascribed to it by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(ff) Adoption exemptions.

No fee other than that set forth in subsection (ee) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding nor may any fee be charged for proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-521, eff. 6-1-02; 93-39, eff. 7-1-03; 93-385, eff. 7-25-03; 93-573, eff. 8-21-03; revised 9-5-03.)

(705 ILCS 105/27.3b) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.3b)

Sec. 27.3b. The clerk of court may accept payment of fines, penalties, or costs by credit card or debit card approved by the clerk from an offender who has been convicted of or placed on court supervision for a traffic offense, petty offense, ordinance offense, or misdemeanor or who has been convicted of a felony offense. The clerk of the circuit court may accept credit card payments over the Internet for fines, penalties, or costs from offenders on voluntary electronic pleas of guilty in minor traffic and conservation offenses to satisfy the requirement of written pleas of guilty as provided in Illinois Supreme Court Rule 529. The clerk of the court may also accept payment of statutory fees by a credit card or debit card. The clerk of the court may also accept the credit card or debit card for the cash deposit of bail bond fees.

The Clerk of the circuit court is authorized to enter into contracts with credit card or debit card companies approved by the clerk and to negotiate the payment of convenience and administrative fees normally charged by those companies for allowing the clerk of the circuit court to accept their credit cards or debit cards in payment as authorized herein. The clerk of the circuit court is authorized to enter into contracts with third party fund guarantors, facilitators, and service providers under which those entities may contract directly with customers of the clerk of the circuit court and guarantee and remit the payments to the clerk of the circuit court. Where the offender pays fines, penalties, or costs by credit card or debit card or through a third party fund guarantor, facilitator, or service provider, or anyone paying statutory fees of the circuit court clerk or the posting of cash bail, the clerk shall collect a service fee of up to $5 or the amount charged to the clerk for use of its services by the credit card or debit card issuer, third party fund guarantor, facilitator, or service provider. This service fee shall be in addition to any other fines, penalties, or costs. The clerk of the circuit court is authorized to negotiate the assessment of convenience and administrative fees by the third party fund guarantors, facilitators, and service providers with the revenue earned by the clerk of the circuit court to be remitted to the county general revenue fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-391, eff. 1-1-04; 93-760, eff. 1-1-05; 93-836, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(705 ILCS 105/27.3d)

Sec. 27.3d. Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund. Each Circuit Court Clerk shall create a Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law. The Circuit Court Clerk shall be the custodian, ex officio, of this Fund and shall use the Fund to perform the duties required by the office. The Fund shall be audited by the an auditor retained by the Clerk for the purpose of conducting the Annual Circuit Court Clerk Audit an annual audit. Expenditures shall be made from the Fund by the Circuit Court Clerk for expenses related to the cost of collection for and disbursement to entities of State and local government.

(Source: P.A. 94-980, eff. 6-30-06; 94-1009, eff. 1-1-07; revised 9-14-06.)

Section 1015. The Attorney Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(705 ILCS 205/1) (from Ch. 13, par. 1)

Sec. 1. No person shall be permitted to practice as an attorney or counselor at law within this State without having previously obtained a license for that purpose from the Supreme Court of this State.

No person shall receive any compensation directly or indirectly for any legal services other than a regularly licensed attorney, nor may an unlicensed person advertise or hold himself or herself out to provide legal services.

A license, as provided for herein, constitutes the person receiving the same an attorney and counselor at law, according to the law and customs thereof, for and during his good behavior in the practice and authorizes him to demand and receive fees for any services which he may render as an attorney and counselor at law in this State. No person shall be granted a license or renewal authorized by this Act who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission; however, a license or renewal may be issued to the aforementioned persons who have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission. No person shall be granted a license or renewal authorized by this Act who is more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order; a license or renewal may be issued, however, if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined (i) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) for cases being enforced under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) in all other cases by order of court or by written agreement between the custodial parent and non-custodial parent. No person shall be refused a license under this Act on account of sex.

Any person practicing, charging or receiving fees for legal services or advertising or holding himself or herself out to provide legal services within this State, either directly or indirectly, without being licensed to practice as herein required, is guilty of contempt of court and shall be punished accordingly, upon complaint being filed in any Circuit Court of this State. Such proceedings shall be conducted in the Courts of the respective counties where the alleged contempt has been committed in the same manner as in cases of indirect contempt and with the right of review by the parties thereto.

The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to other remedies permitted by law and shall not be construed to deprive courts of this State of their inherent right to punish for contempt or to restrain the unauthorized practice of law.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to conflict with, amend, or modify Section 5 of the Corporation Practice of Law Prohibition Act or prohibit representation of a party by a person who is not an attorney in a proceeding before either panel of the Illinois Labor Relations Board under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, as now or hereafter amended, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, as now or hereafter amended, the State Civil Service Commission, the local Civil Service Commissions, or the University Civil Service Merit Board, to the extent allowed pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated by those Boards and Commissions or the giving of information, training, or advocacy or assistance in any meetings or administrative proceedings held pursuant to the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, or the federal Social Security Act, to the extent allowed by those laws or the federal regulations or State statutes implementing those laws.

(Source: P.A. 94-659, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1020. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-3, 2-23, 3-24, 4-21, 5-805, 5-810, and 6-9 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-3)

Sec. 1-3. Definitions. Terms used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Adjudicatory hearing" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 2-13, 3-15 or 4-12 that a minor under 18 years of age is abused, neglected or dependent, or requires authoritative intervention, or addicted, respectively, are supported by a preponderance of the evidence or whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt.

(2) "Adult" means a person 21 years of age or older.

(3) "Agency" means a public or private child care facility legally authorized or licensed by this State for placement or institutional care or for both placement and institutional care.

(4) "Association" means any organization, public or private, engaged in welfare functions which include services to or on behalf of children but does not include "agency" as herein defined.

(4.05) Whenever a "best interest" determination is required, the following factors shall be considered in the context of the child's age and developmental needs:

(a) the physical safety and welfare of the child, including food, shelter, health, and clothing;

(b) the development of the child's identity;

(c) the child's background and ties, including familial, cultural, and religious;

(d) the child's sense of attachments, including:

(i) where the child actually feels love, attachment, and a sense of being valued (as opposed to where adults believe the child should feel such love, attachment, and a sense of being valued);

(ii) the child's sense of security;

(iii) the child's sense of familiarity;

(iv) continuity of affection for the child;

(v) the least disruptive placement alternative for the child;

(e) the child's wishes and long-term goals;

(f) the child's community ties, including church, school, and friends;

(g) the child's need for permanence which includes the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with parent figures and with siblings and other relatives;

(h) the uniqueness of every family and child;

(i) the risks attendant to entering and being in substitute care; and

(j) the preferences of the persons available to care for the child.

(4.1) "Chronic truant" shall have the definition ascribed to it in Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act.

(6) "Dispositional hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged to be a ward of the court, and to determine what order of disposition should be made in respect to a minor adjudged to be a ward of the court.

(7) "Emancipated minor" means any minor 16 years of age or over who has been completely or partially emancipated under the "Emancipation of Mature Minors Act", enacted by the Eighty-First General Assembly, or under this Act.

(8) "Guardianship of the person" of a minor means the duty and authority to act in the best interests of the minor, subject to residual parental rights and responsibilities, to make important decisions in matters having a permanent effect on the life and development of the minor and to be concerned with his or her general welfare. It includes but is not necessarily limited to:

(a) the authority to consent to marriage, to enlistment in the armed forces of the United States, or to a major medical, psychiatric, and surgical treatment; to represent the minor in legal actions; and to make other decisions of substantial legal significance concerning the minor;

(b) the authority and duty of reasonable visitation, except to the extent that these have been limited in the best interests of the minor by court order;

(c) the rights and responsibilities of legal custody except where legal custody has been vested in another person or agency; and

(d) the power to consent to the adoption of the minor, but only if expressly conferred on the guardian in accordance with Section 2-29, 3-30, or 4-27.

(9) "Legal custody" means the relationship created by an order of court in the best interests of the minor which imposes on the custodian the responsibility of physical possession of a minor and the duty to protect, train and discipline him and to provide him with food, shelter, education and ordinary medical care, except as these are limited by residual parental rights and responsibilities and the rights and responsibilities of the guardian of the person, if any.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Parent" means the father or mother of a child and includes any adoptive parent. It also includes a man (i) whose paternity is presumed or has been established under the law of this or another jurisdiction or (ii) who has registered with the Putative Father Registry in accordance with Section 12.1 of the Adoption Act and whose paternity has not been ruled out under the law of this or another jurisdiction. It does not include a parent whose rights in respect to the minor have been terminated in any manner provided by law.

(11.1) "Permanency goal" means a goal set by the court as defined in subdivision (2) of Section 2-28.

(11.2) "Permanency hearing" means a hearing to set the permanency goal and to review and determine (i) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (ii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iii) whether the plan and goal have been achieved.

(12) "Petition" means the petition provided for in Section 2-13, 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520, including any supplemental petitions thereunder in Section 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520.

(13) "Residual parental rights and responsibilities" means those rights and responsibilities remaining with the parent after the transfer of legal custody or guardianship of the person, including, but not necessarily limited to, the right to reasonable visitation (which may be limited by the court in the best interests of the minor as provided in subsection (8)(b) of this Section), the right to consent to adoption, the right to determine the minor's religious affiliation, and the responsibility for his support.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(15) "Station adjustment" means the informal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(16) "Ward of the court" means a minor who is so adjudged under Section 2-22, 3-23, 4-20 or 5-705, after a finding of the requisite jurisdictional facts, and thus is subject to the dispositional powers of the court under this Act.

(17) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of the Department of State Police.

(18) "Secure child care facility" means any child care facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services to provide secure living arrangements for children under 18 years of age who are subject to placement in facilities under the Children and Family Services Act and who are not subject to placement in facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. "Secure child care facility" also means a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building, or a distinct part of the building are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building.

(Source: P.A. 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; 90-87, eff. 9-1-97; 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; 90-608, eff. 6-30-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-23) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-23)

Sec. 2-23. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) The following kinds of orders of disposition may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) A minor under 18 years of age found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 may be (1) continued in the custody of his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (2) placed in accordance with Section 2-27; (3) restored to the custody of the parent, parents, guardian, or legal custodian, provided the court shall order the parent, parents, guardian, or legal custodian to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan or risk the loss of custody of the child and the possible termination of their parental rights; or (4) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

However, in any case in which a minor is found by the court to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 of this Act, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian whose acts or omissions or both have been identified, pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 2-21, as forming the basis for the court's finding of abuse or neglect, until such time as a hearing is held on the issue of the best interests of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor without endangering the minor's health or safety, and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(b) A minor under 18 years of age found to be dependent under Section 2-4 may be (1) placed in accordance with Section 2-27 or (2) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

However, in any case in which a minor is found by the court to be dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian whose acts or omissions or both have been identified, pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 2-21, as forming the basis for the court's finding of dependency, until such time as a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor without endangering the minor's health or safety, and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(c) When the court awards guardianship to the Department of Children and Family Services, the court shall order the parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions that require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 2-24 and may include an order of protection under Section 2-25.

Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification, not inconsistent with Section 2-28, until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 2-31.

(3) The court also shall enter any other orders necessary to fulfill the service plan, including, but not limited to, (i) orders requiring parties to cooperate with services, (ii) restraining orders controlling the conduct of any party likely to frustrate the achievement of the goal, and (iii) visiting orders. Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this subsection (3) to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the plan. If the court concludes that the Department of Children and Family Services has abused its discretion in setting the current service plan or permanency goal for the minor, the court shall enter specific findings in writing based on the evidence and shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new permanency goal and service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any minor adjudicated neglected with respect to his or her own injurious behavior to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 2-27 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court may terminate the parental rights of a parent at the initial dispositional hearing if all of the conditions in subsection (5) of Section 2-21 are met.

(Source: P.A. 89-17, eff. 5-31-95; 89-235, eff. 8-4-95; 90-27, eff. 1-1-98; 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; 90-608, eff. 6-30-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-24) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-24)

Sec. 3-24. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) The following kinds of orders of disposition may be made in respect to wards of the court: A minor found to be requiring authoritative intervention under Section 3-3 may be (a) committed to the Department of Children and Family Services, subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act; (b) placed under supervision and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (c) placed in accordance with Section 3-28 with or without also being placed under supervision. Conditions of supervision may be modified or terminated by the court if it deems that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby; (d) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act; or (e) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privilege suspended for such time as determined by the Court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 3-25 and may include an order of protection under Section 3-26.

(3) Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 3-32.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any person found to be a minor requiring authoritative intervention under Section 3-3 to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 3-28 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court must impose upon a minor under an order of continuance under supervision or an order of disposition under this Article III, as a condition of the order, a fee of $25 for each month or partial month of supervision with a probation officer. If the court determines the inability of the minor, or the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor to pay the fee, the court may impose a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under this Act. The fee may be imposed only upon a minor who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee must be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court must pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit into the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-329, eff. 8-9-01; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-21) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-21)

Sec. 4-21. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) A minor found to be addicted under Section 4-3 may be (a) committed to the Department of Children and Family Services, subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act; (b) placed under supervision and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (c) placed in accordance with Section 4-25 with or without also being placed under supervision. Conditions of supervision may be modified or terminated by the court if it deems that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby; (d) required to attend an approved alcohol or drug abuse treatment or counseling program on an inpatient or outpatient basis instead of or in addition to the disposition otherwise provided for in this paragraph; (e) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act; or (f) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privilege suspended for such time as determined by the Court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age. No disposition under this subsection shall provide for the minor's placement in a secure facility.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 4-22 and may include an order of protection under Section 4-23.

(3) Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 4-29.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any minor found to be addicted under this Article as neglected with respect to his or her own injurious behavior, to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is placed in accordance with Section 4-25 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court must impose upon a minor under an order of continuance under supervision or an order of disposition under this Article IV, as a condition of the order, a fee of $25 for each month or partial month of supervision with a probation officer. If the court determines the inability of the minor, or the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor to pay the fee, the court may impose a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under this Act. The fee may be imposed only upon a minor who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee must be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court must pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit into the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-329, eff. 8-9-01; revised 10-9-03.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-805)

Sec. 5-805. Transfer of jurisdiction.

(1) Mandatory transfers.

(a) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of an act that constitutes a forcible felony under the laws of this State, and if a motion by the State's Attorney to prosecute the minor under the criminal laws of Illinois for the alleged forcible felony alleges that (i) the minor has previously been adjudicated delinquent or found guilty for commission of an act that constitutes a felony under the laws of this State or any other state and (ii) the act that constitutes the offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activity by an organized gang, the Juvenile Judge assigned to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that both allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

(b) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of an act that constitutes a felony under the laws of this State, and if a motion by a State's Attorney to prosecute the minor under the criminal laws of Illinois for the alleged felony alleges that (i) the minor has previously been adjudicated delinquent or found guilty for commission of an act that constitutes a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other state and (ii) the act that constitutes the offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by an organized gang, the Juvenile Judge assigned to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that both allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

(c) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of: (i) an act that constitutes an offense enumerated in the presumptive transfer provisions of subsection (2); and (ii) the minor has previously been adjudicated delinquent or found guilty of a forcible felony, the Juvenile Judge designated to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that both allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

(d) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of an act that constitutes the offense of aggravated discharge of a firearm committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on, boarding, or departing from any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, the juvenile judge designated to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that the allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

For purposes of this paragraph (d) of subsection (1):

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(2) Presumptive transfer.

(a) If the State's Attorney files a petition, at any time prior to commencement of the minor's trial, to permit prosecution under the criminal laws and the petition alleges the commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of: (i) a Class X felony other than armed violence; (ii) aggravated discharge of a firearm; (iii) armed violence with a firearm when the predicate offense is a Class 1 or Class 2 felony and the State's Attorney's motion to transfer the case alleges that the offense committed is in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang; (iv) armed violence with a firearm when the predicate offense is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) armed violence when the weapon involved was a machine gun or other weapon described in subsection (a)(7) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (vi) an act in violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which is a Class X felony, while in a school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development; or (vii) an act in violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and the offense is alleged to have occurred while in a school or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year when the delivery or intended delivery of any amount of the controlled substance is to a person under 17 years of age, (to qualify for a presumptive transfer under paragraph (vi) or (vii) of this clause (2)(a), the violation cannot be based upon subsection (b) of Section 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act) and, if the juvenile judge assigned to hear and determine motions to transfer a case for prosecution in the criminal court determines that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition and motion are true, there is a rebuttable presumption that the minor is not a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the Juvenile Justice Reform Provisions of 1998 (Public Act 90-590), and that, except as provided in paragraph (b), the case should be transferred to the criminal court.

(b) The judge shall enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois unless the judge makes a finding based on clear and convincing evidence that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training programs available through the facilities of the juvenile court based on an evaluation of the following:

(i) the age of the minor;

(ii) the history of the minor, including:

(A) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor,

(B) any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor, and

(C) any mental health, physical or educational history of the minor or combination of these factors;

(iii) the circumstances of the offense, including:

(A) the seriousness of the offense,

(B) whether the minor is charged through accountability,

(C) whether there is evidence the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner,

(D) whether there is evidence the offense caused serious bodily harm,

(E) whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon;

(iv) the advantages of treatment within the juvenile justice system including whether there are facilities or programs, or both, particularly available in the juvenile system;

(v) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(A) the minor's history of services, including the minor's willingness to participate meaningfully in available services;

(B) whether there is a reasonable likelihood that the minor can be rehabilitated before the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction;

(C) the adequacy of the punishment or services.

In considering these factors, the court shall give greater weight to the seriousness of the alleged offense and the minor's prior record of delinquency than to the other factors listed in this subsection.

For purposes of clauses (2)(a)(vi) and (vii):

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(3) Discretionary transfer.

(a) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 13 years of age or over of an act that constitutes a crime under the laws of this State and, on motion of the State's Attorney to permit prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws, a Juvenile Judge assigned by the Chief Judge of the Circuit to hear and determine those motions, after hearing but before commencement of the trial, finds that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the motion are true and that it is not in the best interests of the public to proceed under this Act, the court may enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws.

(b) In making its determination on the motion to permit prosecution under the criminal laws, the court shall consider among other matters:

(i) the age of the minor;

(ii) the history of the minor, including:

(A) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor,

(B) any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor, and

(C) any mental health, physical, or educational history of the minor or combination of these factors;

(iii) the circumstances of the offense, including:

(A) the seriousness of the offense,

(B) whether the minor is charged through accountability,

(C) whether there is evidence the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner,

(D) whether there is evidence the offense caused serious bodily harm,

(E) whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon;

(iv) the advantages of treatment within the juvenile justice system including whether there are facilities or programs, or both, particularly available in the juvenile system;

(v) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(A) the minor's history of services, including the minor's willingness to participate meaningfully in available services;

(B) whether there is a reasonable likelihood that the minor can be rehabilitated before the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction;

(C) the adequacy of the punishment or services.

In considering these factors, the court shall give greater weight to the seriousness of the alleged offense and the minor's prior record of delinquency than to the other factors listed in this subsection.

(4) The rules of evidence for this hearing shall be the same as under Section 5-705 of this Act. A minor must be represented in court by counsel before the hearing may be commenced.

(5) If criminal proceedings are instituted, the petition for adjudication of wardship shall be dismissed insofar as the act or acts involved in the criminal proceedings. Taking of evidence in a trial on petition for adjudication of wardship is a bar to criminal proceedings based upon the conduct alleged in the petition.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-574, eff. 8-12-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-810)

Sec. 5-810. Extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecutions.

(1) (a) If the State's Attorney files a petition, at any time prior to commencement of the minor's trial, to designate the proceeding as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution and the petition alleges the commission by a minor 13 years of age or older of any offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult, and, if the juvenile judge assigned to hear and determine petitions to designate the proceeding as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution determines that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition and motion are true, there is a rebuttable presumption that the proceeding shall be designated as an extended jurisdiction juvenile proceeding.

(b) The judge shall enter an order designating the proceeding as an extended jurisdiction juvenile proceeding unless the judge makes a finding based on clear and convincing evidence that sentencing under the Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections would not be appropriate for the minor based on an evaluation of the following factors:

(i) the age of the minor;

(ii) the history of the minor, including:

(A) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor,

(B) any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor, and

(C) any mental health, physical and/or educational history of the minor;

(iii) the circumstances of the offense, including:

(A) the seriousness of the offense,

(B) whether the minor is charged through accountability,

(C) whether there is evidence the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner,

(D) whether there is evidence the offense caused serious bodily harm,

(E) whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon;

(iv) the advantages of treatment within the juvenile justice system including whether there are facilities or programs, or both, particularly available in the juvenile system;

(v) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(A) the minor's history of services, including the minor's willingness to participate meaningfully in available services;

(B) whether there is a reasonable likelihood that the minor can be rehabilitated before the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction;

(C) the adequacy of the punishment or services.

In considering these factors, the court shall give greater weight to the seriousness of the alleged offense and the minor's prior record of delinquency than to other factors listed in this subsection.

(2) Procedures for extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecutions. (a) The State's Attorney may file a written motion for a proceeding to be designated as an extended juvenile jurisdiction prior to commencement of trial. Notice of the motion shall be in compliance with Section 5-530. When the State's Attorney files a written motion that a proceeding be designated an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, the court shall commence a hearing within 30 days of the filing of the motion for designation, unless good cause is shown by the prosecution or the minor as to why the hearing could not be held within this time period. If the court finds good cause has been demonstrated, then the hearing shall be held within 60 days of the filing of the motion. The hearings shall be open to the public unless the judge finds that the hearing should be closed for the protection of any party, victim or witness. If the Juvenile Judge assigned to hear and determine a motion to designate an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution determines that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition and motion are true the court shall grant the motion for designation. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based on reliable information offered by the State or the minor. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence.

(3) Trial. A minor who is subject of an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution has the right to trial by jury. Any trial under this Section shall be open to the public.

(4) Sentencing. If an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution under subsection subsections (1) results in a guilty plea, a verdict of guilty, or a finding of guilt, the court shall impose the following:

(i) one or more juvenile sentences under Section 5-710; and

(ii) an adult criminal sentence in accordance with the provisions of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the execution of which shall be stayed on the condition that the offender not violate the provisions of the juvenile sentence.

Any sentencing hearing under this Section shall be open to the public.

(5) If, after an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution trial, a minor is convicted of a lesser-included offense or of an offense that the State's Attorney did not designate as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, the State's Attorney may file a written motion, within 10 days of the finding of guilt, that the minor be sentenced as an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution offender. The court shall rule on this motion using the factors found in paragraph (1)(b) of Section 5-805. If the court denies the State's Attorney's motion for sentencing under the extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution provision, the court shall proceed to sentence the minor under Section 5-710.

(6) When it appears that a minor convicted in an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution under subsection (1) has violated the conditions of his or her sentence, or is alleged to have committed a new offense upon the filing of a petition to revoke the stay, the court may, without notice, issue a warrant for the arrest of the minor. After a hearing, if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the minor committed a new offense, the court shall order execution of the previously imposed adult criminal sentence. After a hearing, if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the minor committed a violation of his or her sentence other than by a new offense, the court may order execution of the previously imposed adult criminal sentence or may continue him or her on the existing juvenile sentence with or without modifying or enlarging the conditions. Upon revocation of the stay of the adult criminal sentence and imposition of that sentence, the minor's extended jurisdiction juvenile status shall be terminated. The on-going jurisdiction over the minor's case shall be assumed by the adult criminal court and juvenile court jurisdiction shall be terminated and a report of the imposition of the adult sentence shall be sent to the Department of State Police.

(7) Upon successful completion of the juvenile sentence the court shall vacate the adult criminal sentence.

(8) Nothing in this Section precludes the State from filing a motion for transfer under Section 5-805.

(Source: P.A. 94-574, eff. 8-12-05; revised 9-6-05.)

(705 ILCS 405/6-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 806-9)

Sec. 6-9. Enforcement of liability of parents and others.

(1) If parentage is at issue in any proceeding under this Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 shall apply and the court shall enter orders consistent with that Act. If it appears at any hearing that a parent or any other person named in the petition, liable under the law for the support of the minor, is able to contribute to his or her support, the court shall enter an order requiring that parent or other person to pay the clerk of the court, or to the guardian or custodian appointed under Sections 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740, a reasonable sum from time to time for the care, support and necessary special care or treatment, of the minor. If the court determines at any hearing that a parent or any other person named in the petition, liable under the law for the support of the minor, is able to contribute to help defray the costs associated with the minor's detention in a county or regional detention center, the court shall enter an order requiring that parent or other person to pay the clerk of the court a reasonable sum for the care and support of the minor. The court may require reasonable security for the payments. Upon failure to pay, the court may enforce obedience to the order by a proceeding as for contempt of court.

If it appears that the person liable for the support of the minor is able to contribute to legal fees for representation of the minor, the court shall enter an order requiring that person to pay a reasonable sum for the representation, to the attorney providing the representation or to the clerk of the court for deposit in the appropriate account or fund. The sum may be paid as the court directs, and the payment thereof secured and enforced as provided in this Section for support.

If it appears at the detention or shelter care hearing of a minor before the court under Section 5-501 that a parent or any other person liable for support of the minor is able to contribute to his or her support, that parent or other person shall be required to pay a fee for room and board at a rate not to exceed $10 per day established, with the concurrence of the chief judge of the judicial circuit, by the county board of the county in which the minor is detained unless the court determines that it is in the best interest and welfare of the minor to waive the fee. The concurrence of the chief judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. Each week, on a day designated by the clerk of the circuit court, that parent or other person shall pay the clerk for the minor's room and board. All fees for room and board collected by the circuit court clerk shall be disbursed into the separate county fund under Section 6-7.

Upon application, the court shall waive liability for support or legal fees under this Section if the parent or other person establishes that he or she is indigent and unable to pay the incurred liability, and the court may reduce or waive liability if the parent or other person establishes circumstances showing that full payment of support or legal fees would result in financial hardship to the person or his or her family.

(2) When a person so ordered to pay for the care and support of a minor is employed for wages, salary or commission, the court may order him to make the support payments for which he is liable under this Act out of his wages, salary or commission and to assign so much thereof as will pay the support. The court may also order him to make discovery to the court as to his place of employment and the amounts earned by him. Upon his failure to obey the orders of court he may be punished as for contempt of court.

(3) If the minor is a recipient of public aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall order that payments made by a parent or through assignment of his wages, salary or commission be made directly to (a) the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if the minor is a recipient of aid under Article V of the Code, (b) the Department of Human Services if the minor is a recipient of aid under Article IV of the Code, or (c) the local governmental unit responsible for the support of the minor if he is a recipient under Articles VI or VII of the Code. The order shall permit the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Department of Human Services, or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, to direct that subsequent payments be made directly to the guardian or custodian of the minor, or to some other person or agency in the minor's behalf, upon removal of the minor from the public aid rolls; and upon such direction and removal of the minor from the public aid rolls, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, Department of Human Services, or local governmental unit, as the case requires, shall give written notice of such action to the court. Payments received by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, Department of Human Services, or local governmental unit are to be covered, respectively, into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury or General Assistance Fund of the governmental unit, as provided in Section 10-19 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-157, eff. 1-1-98; 90-483, eff. 1-1-98; 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1025. The Court of Claims Act is amended by changing Sections 21 and 26-1 as follows:

(705 ILCS 505/21) (from Ch. 37, par. 439.21)

Sec. 21. The court is authorized to impose, by uniform rules, a fee of $15 for the filing of a petition in any case in which the award sought is more than $50 and less than $1,000 and $35 in any case in which the award sought is $1,000 or more; and to charge and collect for copies of opinions or other documents filed in the Court of Claims such fees as may be prescribed by the rules of the Court. All fees and charges so collected shall be forthwith paid into the State Treasury.

A petitioner who is a prisoner in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility who files a pleading, motion, or other filing that purports to be a legal document against the State, the Illinois Department of Corrections, the Prisoner Review Board, or any of their officers or employees in which the court makes a specific finding that it is frivolous shall pay all filing fees and court costs in the manner provided in Article XXII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

In claims based upon lapsed appropriations or lost warrant or in claims filed under the Line of Duty Compensation Act, the Illinois National Guardsman's Compensation Act, or the Crime Victims Compensation Act or in claims filed by medical vendors for medical services rendered by the claimant to persons eligible for Medical Assistance under programs administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, no filing fee shall be required.

(Source: P.A. 93-1047, eff. 10-18-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(705 ILCS 505/26-1) (from Ch. 37, par. 439.24-6.1)

Sec. 26-1. Except as otherwise provided herein, the maximum contingent fee to be charged by an attorney practicing before the Court shall not exceed 20 percent of the amount awarded, which is in excess of the undisputed amount of the claim, unless further fees shall be allowed by the Court. In cases involving lapsed appropriations or lost warrants where there is no dispute as to the liability of the respondent, the fee, if any, for services rendered is to be fixed by the Court at a nominal amount.

Nothing herein applies to awards made under the Line of Duty Law Enforcement Officers, Civil Defense Workers, Civil Air Patrol Members, Paramedics and Firemen Compensation Act or the Illinois National Guardsman's and Naval Militiaman's Compensation Act or the "Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act", enacted by the 85th General Assembly, as heretofore or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 90-492, eff. 8-17-97; revised 11-15-04.)

Section 1030. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 1-6, 2-6.6, 2-13, 9-3.3, 10-6, 11-9.3, 12-2, 12-4, 12-20.5, 16G-15, 16G-21, 17-2, 21-3, 21-7, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.6, 24-2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 32-5.2, and 44-3, by renumbering and changing Sections 2-.5 and 5/2-7.5, and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.10 and Article 16J as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/1-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1-6)

Sec. 1-6. Place of trial.

(a) Generally.

Criminal actions shall be tried in the county where the offense was committed, except as otherwise provided by law. The State is not required to prove during trial that the alleged offense occurred in any particular county in this State. When a defendant contests the place of trial under this Section, all proceedings regarding this issue shall be conducted under Section 114-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. All objections of improper place of trial are waived by a defendant unless made before trial.

(b) Assailant and Victim in Different Counties.

If a person committing an offense upon the person of another is located in one county and his victim is located in another county at the time of the commission of the offense, trial may be had in either of said counties.

(c) Death and Cause of Death in Different Places or Undetermined.

If cause of death is inflicted in one county and death ensues in another county, the offender may be tried in either county. If neither the county in which the cause of death was inflicted nor the county in which death ensued are known before trial, the offender may be tried in the county where the body was found.

(d) Offense Commenced Outside the State.

If the commission of an offense commenced outside the State is consummated within this State, the offender shall be tried in the county where the offense is consummated.

(e) Offenses Committed in Bordering Navigable Waters.

If an offense is committed on any of the navigable waters bordering on this State, the offender may be tried in any county adjacent to such navigable water.

(f) Offenses Committed while in Transit.

If an offense is committed upon any railroad car, vehicle, watercraft or aircraft passing within this State, and it cannot readily be determined in which county the offense was committed, the offender may be tried in any county through which such railroad car, vehicle, watercraft or aircraft has passed.

(g) Theft.

A person who commits theft of property may be tried in any county in which he exerted control over such property.

(h) Bigamy.

A person who commits the offense of bigamy may be tried in any county where the bigamous marriage or bigamous cohabitation has occurred.

(i) Kidnaping.

A person who commits the offense of kidnaping may be tried in any county in which his victim has traveled or has been confined during the course of the offense.

(j) Pandering.

A person who commits the offense of pandering may be tried in any county in which the prostitution was practiced or in any county in which any act in furtherance of the offense shall have been committed.

(k) Treason.

A person who commits the offense of treason may be tried in any county.

(l) Criminal Defamation.

If criminal defamation is spoken, printed or written in one county and is received or circulated in another or other counties, the offender shall be tried in the county where the defamation is spoken, printed or written. If the defamation is spoken, printed or written outside this state, or the offender resides outside this state, the offender may be tried in any county in this state in which the defamation was circulated or received.

(m) Inchoate Offenses.

A person who commits an inchoate offense may be tried in any county in which any act which is an element of the offense, including the agreement in conspiracy, is committed.

(n) Accountability for Conduct of Another.

Where a person in one county solicits, aids, abets, agrees, or attempts to aid another in the planning or commission of an offense in another county, he may be tried for the offense in either county.

(o) Child Abduction.

A person who commits the offense of child abduction may be tried in any county in which his victim has traveled, been detained, concealed or removed to during the course of the offense. Notwithstanding the foregoing, unless for good cause shown, the preferred place of trial shall be the county of the residence of the lawful custodian.

(p) A person who commits the offense of narcotics racketeering may be tried in any county where cannabis or a controlled substance which is the basis for the charge of narcotics racketeering was used; acquired; transferred or distributed to, from or through; or any county where any act was performed to further the use; acquisition, transfer or distribution of said cannabis or controlled substance; any money, property, property interest, or any other asset generated by narcotics activities was acquired, used, sold, transferred or distributed to, from or through; or, any enterprise interest obtained as a result of narcotics racketeering was acquired, used, transferred or distributed to, from or through, or where any activity was conducted by the enterprise or any conduct to further the interests of such an enterprise.

(q) A person who commits the offense of money laundering may be tried in any county where any part of a financial transaction in criminally derived property took place or in any county where any money or monetary instrument which is the basis for the offense was acquired, used, sold, transferred or distributed to, from or through.

(r) A person who commits the offense of cannabis trafficking or controlled substance trafficking may be tried in any county.

(s) A person who commits the offense of online sale of stolen property, online theft by deception, or electronic fencing may be tried in any county where any one or more elements of the offense took place, regardless of whether the element of the offense was the result of acts by the accused, the victim or by another person, and regardless of whether the defendant was ever physically present within the boundaries of the county.

(t) (s) A person who commits the offense of identity theft or aggravated identity theft may be tried in any one of the following counties in which: (1) the offense occurred; (2) the information used to commit the offense was illegally used; or (3) the victim resides.

If a person is charged with more than one violation of identity theft or aggravated identity theft and those violations may be tried in more than one county, any of those counties is a proper venue for all of the violations.

(Source: P.A. 94-51, eff. 1-1-06; 94-179, eff. 7-12-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-0.5) (was 720 ILCS 5/2-.5)

Sec. 2-0.5 2-.5. Definitions. For the purposes of this Code, the words and phrases described in this Article have the meanings designated in this Article, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983; revised 1-22-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-6.6)

Sec. 2-6.6. Emergency management worker. "Emergency management worker" shall include the following:

(a) any person, paid or unpaid, who is a member of a local or county emergency services and disaster agency as defined by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, or who is an employee of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency or the Federal Emergency Management Agency.;

(b) any employee or volunteer of the American Red Cross.;

(c) any employee of a federal, State, county, or local government agency assisting an emergency services and disaster agency, the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, or the Federal Emergency Management Agency through mutual aid or as otherwise requested or directed in time of disaster or emergency.; and

(d) any person volunteering or directed to assist an emergency services and disaster agency, the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, or the Federal Emergency Management Agency.

(Source: P.A. 94-243, eff. 1-1-06; 94-323, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-27-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-7.5)

Sec. 2-7.5 5/2-7.5. "Firearm". Except as otherwise provided in a specific Section, "firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-404, eff. 1-1-00; revised 9-15-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-13)

Sec. 2-13. "Peace officer". "Peace officer" means (i) any person who by virtue of his office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for offenses, whether that duty extends to all offenses or is limited to specific offenses, or (ii) any person who, by statute, is granted and authorized to exercise powers similar to those conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State.

For purposes of Sections concerning unlawful use of weapons, for the purposes of assisting an Illinois peace officer in an arrest, or when the commission of a felony under Illinois law is directly observed by the person, and statutes involving the false personation of a peace officer, false personation of a peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon, and aggravated false personation of a peace officer, then officers, agents or employees of the federal government commissioned by federal statute to make arrests for violations of federal criminal laws shall be considered "peace officers" under this Code, including, but not limited to all criminal investigators of:

(1) The United States Department of Justice, The Federal Bureau of Investigation, The Drug Enforcement Agency and The Department of Immigration and Naturalization;

(2) The United States Department of the Treasury, The Secret Service, The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms and The Customs Service;

(3) The United States Internal Revenue Service;

(4) The United States General Services Administration;

(5) The United States Postal Service; and

(6) all United States Marshals or Deputy United States Marshals whose duties involve the enforcement of federal criminal laws.

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06; 94-846, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-3.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3.3)

Sec. 9-3.3. Drug-induced homicide.

(a) A person who violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or Section 55 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another, and any person's death is caused by the injection, inhalation or ingestion of any amount of that controlled substance, commits the offense of drug-induced homicide.

(b) Sentence. Drug-induced homicide is a Class X felony.

(c) A person who commits drug-induced homicide by violating subsection (a) or subsection (c) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or Section 55 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act commits a Class X felony for which the defendant shall in addition to a sentence authorized by law, be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 15 years and not more than 30 years or an extended term of not less than 30 years and not more than 60 years.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-560, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-6)

Sec. 10-6. Harboring a runaway.

(a) Any person, other than an agency or association providing crisis intervention services as defined in Section 3-5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or an operator of a youth emergency shelter as defined in Section 2.21 of the Child Care Act of 1969, who, without the knowledge and consent of the minor's parent or guardian, knowingly gives shelter to a minor, other than a mature minor who has been emancipated under the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act, for more than 48 hours without the consent of the minor's parent or guardian, and without notifying the local law enforcement authorities of the minor's name and the fact that the minor is being provided shelter commits the offense of harboring a runaway.

(b) Any person who commits the offense of harboring a runaway is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 86-278; 86-386; revised 10-9-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.3)

Sec. 11-9.3. Presence within school zone by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any school building, on real property comprising any school, or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building, on the grounds or in the conveyance, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or unless the offender has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official. A child sex offender who violates this provision is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to infringe upon the constitutional right of a child sex offender to be present in a school building that is used as a polling place for the purpose of voting.

(1) (Blank; or)

(2) (Blank.)

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter within 500 feet of a school building or real property comprising any school while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official. A child sex offender who violates this provision is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(1) (Blank; or)

(2) (Blank.)

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under the age of 18 attend. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under 18 attend if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(c) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9 (public indecency when committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or on a conveyance, owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(2.5) For the purposes of subsection (b-5) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "School" means a public or private pre-school, elementary, or secondary school.

(5) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around school property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around school property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(iii) Entering or remaining in a building in or around school property, other than the offender's residence.

(6) "School official" means the principal, a teacher, or any other certified employee of the school, the superintendent of schools or a member of the school board.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-158, eff. 7-11-05; 94-164, eff. 1-1-06; 94-170, eff. 7-11-05; revised 9-15-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) A person commits an aggravated assault, when, in committing an assault, he:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm in the direction of another person, a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional officer or a fireman or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by another person, a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional officer or a fireman while the officer or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer or fireman performing his official duties;

(2) Is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm;

(3) Knows the individual assaulted to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and such teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(4) Knows the individual assaulted to be a supervisor, director, instructor or other person employed in any park district and such supervisor, director, instructor or other employee is upon the grounds of the park or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for park purposes;

(5) Knows the individual assaulted to be a caseworker, investigator, or other person employed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly State Department of Public Aid), a County Department of Public Aid, or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) and such caseworker, investigator, or other person is upon the grounds of a public aid office or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for public aid purposes, or upon the grounds of a home of a public aid applicant, recipient or any other person being interviewed or investigated in the employees' discharge of his duties, or on grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building in which the applicant, recipient, or other such person resides or is located;

(6) Knows the individual assaulted to be a peace officer, or a community policing volunteer, or a fireman while the officer or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer, community policing volunteer, or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, community policing volunteer, or fireman performing his official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the officer or fireman or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the officer or fireman;

(7) Knows the individual assaulted to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid personnel engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his official duties;

(8) Knows the individual assaulted to be the driver, operator, employee or passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transportation of the public for hire and the individual assaulted is then performing in such capacity or then using such public transportation as a passenger or using any area of any description designated by the transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location;

(9) Or the individual assaulted is on or about a public way, public property, or public place of accommodation or amusement;

(9.5) Is, or the individual assaulted is, in or about a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park during any 24-hour period when a professional sporting event, National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)-sanctioned sporting event, United States Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event, or International Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event is taking place in this venue;

(10) Knows the individual assaulted to be an employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein or a political subdivision thereof, engaged in the performance of his authorized duties as such employee;

(11) Knowingly and without legal justification, commits an assault on a physically handicapped person;

(12) Knowingly and without legal justification, commits an assault on a person 60 years of age or older;

(13) Discharges a firearm;

(14) Knows the individual assaulted to be a correctional officer, while the officer is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer performing his or her official duties;

(15) Knows the individual assaulted to be a correctional employee or an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, while the employee is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his or her official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the employee or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the employee;

(16) Knows the individual assaulted to be an employee of a police or sheriff's department engaged in the performance of his or her official duties as such employee; or

(17) Knows the individual assaulted to be a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing the assault to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or an indoor or outdoor playing field or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility or an indoor or outdoor playing field at which the sports official or coach was an active participant in the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (17), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the athletic contest; or .

(18) Knows the individual assaulted to be an emergency management worker, while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the emergency management worker or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the emergency management worker.

(a-5) A person commits an aggravated assault when he or she knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device that is attached or affixed to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(b) Sentence.

Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (1) through (5) and (8) through (12) and (17) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (13), (14), and (15) of subsection (a) of this Section and as defined in subsection (a-5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), (16), and (18) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor if a firearm is not used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), (16), and (18) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if a firearm is used in the commission of the assault.

(Source: P.A. 93-692, eff. 1-1-05; 94-243, eff. 1-1-06; 94-482, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4)

Sec. 12-4. Aggravated Battery.

(a) A person who, in committing a battery, intentionally or knowingly causes great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement commits aggravated battery.

(b) In committing a battery, a person commits aggravated battery if he or she:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by the discharge of a firearm;

(2) Is hooded, robed or masked, in such manner as to conceal his identity;

(3) Knows the individual harmed to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and such teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(4) (Blank);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Knows the individual harmed to be a community policing volunteer while such volunteer is engaged in the execution of any official duties, or to prevent the volunteer from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the volunteer performing official duties, and the battery is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm;

(7) Knows the individual harmed to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance, first aid personnel, or hospital personnel engaged in the performance of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance, first aid personnel, or hospital personnel from performing official duties, or in retaliation for performing official duties;

(8) Is, or the person battered is, on or about a public way, public property or public place of accommodation or amusement;

(8.5) Is, or the person battered is, on a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park during any 24-hour period when a professional sporting event, National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)-sanctioned sporting event, United States Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event, or International Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event is taking place in this venue;

(9) Knows the individual harmed to be the driver, operator, employee or passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transportation of the public for hire and the individual assaulted is then performing in such capacity or then using such public transportation as a passenger or using any area of any description designated by the transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location;

(10) Knows the individual harmed to be an individual of 60 years of age or older;

(11) Knows the individual harmed is pregnant;

(12) Knows the individual harmed to be a judge whom the person intended to harm as a result of the judge's performance of his or her official duties as a judge;

(13) (Blank);

(14) Knows the individual harmed to be a person who is physically handicapped;

(15) Knowingly and without legal justification and by any means causes bodily harm to a merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16A-5 of this Code. In this item (15), "merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16A-2.4 of this Code;

(16) Is, or the person battered is, in any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or the person battered is within 500 feet of such a building or other structure while going to or from such a building or other structure. "Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. "Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act;

(17) (Blank); or

(18) Knows the individual harmed to be an officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or school district engaged in the performance of his or her authorized duties as such officer or employee; or .

(19) (18) Knows the individual harmed to be an emergency management worker engaged in the performance of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing official duties.

For the purpose of paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of this Section, a physically handicapped person is a person who suffers from a permanent and disabling physical characteristic, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition.

(c) A person who administers to an individual or causes him to take, without his consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance commits aggravated battery.

(d) A person who knowingly gives to another person any food that contains any substance or object that is intended to cause physical injury if eaten, commits aggravated battery.

(d-3) A person commits aggravated battery when he or she knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device that is attached or affixed to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(d-5) An inmate of a penal institution or a sexually dangerous person or a sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services who causes or attempts to cause a correctional employee of the penal institution or an employee of the Department of Human Services to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces, by throwing, tossing, or expelling that fluid or material commits aggravated battery. For purposes of this subsection (d-5), "correctional employee" means a person who is employed by a penal institution.

(e) Sentence.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Aggravated battery that does not cause great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement is a Class 2 felony when the person knows the individual harmed to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a correctional institution employee, an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, or a fireman while such officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman is engaged in the execution of any official duties including arrest or attempted arrest, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman performing official duties, and the battery is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm.

(3) Aggravated battery that causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement in violation of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony when the person knows the individual harmed to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a correctional institution employee, an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, or a fireman while such officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman is engaged in the execution of any official duties including arrest or attempted arrest, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman performing official duties, and the battery is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm.

(Source: P.A. 93-83, eff. 7-2-03; 94-243, eff. 1-1-06; 94-327, eff. 1-1-06; 94-333, eff. 7-26-05; 94-363, eff. 7-29-05; 94-482, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.10)

Sec. 12-4.10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-340, eff. 7-24-03. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.12)

Sec. 12-4.12 12-4.10. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 93-111, eff. 7-8-03. Repealed by P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 9-22-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-20.5)

Sec. 12-20.5. Dismembering a human body.

(a) A person commits the offense of dismembering a human body when he or she knowingly dismembers, severs, separates, dissects, or mutilates any body part of a deceased's body.

(b) This Section does not apply to:

(1) an anatomical gift made in accordance with the Illinois Uniform Anatomical Gift Act;

(2) the removal and use of a human cornea in accordance with the Illinois Anatomical Gift Corneal Transplant Act;

(3) the purchase or sale of drugs, reagents, or other substances made from human body parts, for the use in medical or scientific research, treatment, or diagnosis;

(4) persons employed by a county medical examiner's office or coroner's office acting within the scope of their employment while performing an autopsy;

(5) the acts of a licensed funeral director or embalmer while performing acts authorized by the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(6) the acts of emergency medical personnel or physicians performed in good faith and according to the usual and customary standards of medical practice in an attempt to resuscitate a life; or

(7) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or holding a visiting professor, physician, or resident permit under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, performing acts in accordance with usual and customary standards of medical practice, or a currently enrolled student in an accredited medical school in furtherance of his or her education at the accredited medical school.

(c) It is not a defense to a violation of this Section that the decedent died due to natural, accidental, or suicidal causes.

(d) Sentence. Dismembering a human body is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-339, eff. 7-24-03; revised 11-15-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/16G-15)

Sec. 16G-15. Identity theft.

(a) A person commits the offense of identity theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another person to fraudulently obtain credit, money, goods, services, or other property, or

(2) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony theft or other felony violation of State law not set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a), or

(3) obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit or to aid or abet another in committing any felony theft or other felony violation of State law, or

(4) uses, obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another knowing that such personal identification information or personal identification documents were stolen or produced without lawful authority, or

(5) uses, transfers, or possesses document-making implements to produce false identification or false documents with knowledge that they will be used by the person or another to commit any felony theft or other felony violation of State law, or

(6) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to portray himself or herself as that person, or otherwise, for the purpose of gaining access to any personal identification information or personal identification document of that person, without the prior express permission of that person, or

(7) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another for the purpose of gaining access to any record of the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of that person, without the prior express permission of that person.

(b) Knowledge shall be determined by an evaluation of all circumstances surrounding the use of the other person's identifying information or document.

(c) When a charge of identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding a specified value is brought the value of the credit, money, goods, services, or other property is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced as follows:

(A) identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 3 felony. When a person has any such prior conviction, the information or indictment charging that person shall state the prior conviction so as to give notice of the State's intention to treat the charge as a Class 3 felony. The fact of the prior conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during the trial.

(B) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value is a Class 3 felony.

(C) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(D) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(E) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(2) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(4) A person who, within a 12 month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(5) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a first offense and a Class 1 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 93-401, eff. 7-31-03; 94-39, eff. 6-16-05; 94-827, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1008, eff. 7-5-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16G-21)

Sec. 16G-21. Civil remedies. A person who is convicted of facilitating identity theft, identity theft, or aggravated identity theft is liable in a civil action to the person who suffered damages as a result of the violation. The person suffering damages may recover court costs, attorney's fees, lost wages, and actual damages. Where a person has been convicted of identity theft in violation of subsection (a)(6) or subsection (a)(7) of Section 16G-15, in the absence of proof of actual damages, the person whose personal identification information or personal identification documents were used in the violation in question may recover damages of $2,000.

(Source: P.A. 93-401, eff. 7-31-03; 94-969, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1008, eff. 7-5-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16J heading)

ARTICLE 16J. ONLINE PROPERTY OFFENSES

(Source: P.A. 94-179, eff. 7-12-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/16J-5)

Sec. 16J-5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of a computer.

"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

"Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless device to access the Internet.

(Source: P.A. 94-179, eff. 7-12-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/16J-10)

Sec. 16J-10. Online sale of stolen property. A person commits the offense of online sale of stolen property when he or she uses or accesses the Internet with the intent of selling property gained through unlawful means.

(Source: P.A. 94-179, eff. 7-12-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/16J-15)

Sec. 16J-15. Online theft by deception. A person commits the offense of online theft by deception when he or she uses the Internet to purchase or attempt to purchase property from a seller with a mode of payment that he or she knows is fictitious, stolen, or lacking the consent of the valid account holder.

(Source: P.A. 94-179, eff. 7-12-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/16J-25)

Sec. 16J-25. Sentence. A violation of this Article is a Class 4 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception does not exceed $150. A violation of this Article is a Class 2 felony if the full retail value of the stolen property or property obtained by deception exceeds $150.

(Source: P.A. 94-179, eff. 7-12-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16K heading)

ARTICLE 16K 16J . THEFT OF MOTOR FUEL

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-5)

Sec. 16K-5 16J-5. Legislative declaration. It is the public policy of this State that the substantial burden placed upon the economy of this State resulting from the rising incidence of theft of motor fuel is a matter of grave concern to the people of this State who have a right to be protected in their health, safety and welfare from the effects of this crime.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-10)

Sec. 16K-10 16J-10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:

"Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel.

"Retailer" means a person, business, or establishment that sells motor fuel at retail.

"Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for propulsion.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-15)

Sec. 16K-15 16J-15. Offense of theft of motor fuel. A person commits the offense of theft of motor fuel when he or she knowingly dispenses motor fuel into a storage container or the fuel tank of a motor vehicle at an establishment in which motor fuel is offered for retail sale and leaves the premises of the establishment without making payment or the authorized charge for the motor fuel with the intention of depriving the establishment in which the motor fuel is offered for retail sale of the possession, use, or benefit of that motor fuel without paying the full retail value of the motor fuel.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-25)

Sec. 16K-25 16J-25. Civil liability. A person who commits the offense of theft of motor fuel as described in Section 16K-15 16J-15 is civilly liable to the retailer as prescribed in Section 16A-7.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-30)

Sec. 16K-30 16J-30. Sentence.

(a) Theft of motor fuel, the full retail value of which does not exceed $150, is a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) A person who has been convicted of theft of motor fuel, the full retail value of which does not exceed $150, and who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools or home invasion is guilty of a Class 4 felony. When a person has any such prior conviction, the information or indictment charging that person shall state such prior conviction so as to give notice of the State's intention to treat the charge as a felony. The fact of such prior conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.

(c) Any theft of motor fuel, the full retail value of which exceeds $150, is a Class 3 felony. When a charge of theft of motor fuel, the full value of which exceeds $150, is brought, the value of the motor fuel involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $150.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-35)

Sec. 16K-35 16J-35. Continuation of prior law. The provisions of this Article insofar as they are the same or substantially the same as those of Article 16 of this Code shall be construed as a continuation of that Article 16 and not as a new enactment.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/16K-40)

Sec. 16K-40 16J-40. Severability. The provisions of this Article are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 94-700, eff. 6-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; use of title; solicitation; certain entities.

(a) A person commits a false personation when he or she falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when any person exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(a-5) A person commits a false personation when he or she falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this subsection, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserved Forces of the United States.

(a-6) A person commits a false personation when he or she falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States government, irrespective of branch of service: the Congressional Medal of Honor, the Distinguished Service Cross, the Navy Cross, the Air Force Cross, the Silver Star, the Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

It is a defense to a prosecution under this subsection (a-6) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(1) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(2) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(b) No person shall use the words "Chicago Police," "Chicago Police Department," "Chicago Patrolman," "Chicago Sergeant," "Chicago Lieutenant," "Chicago Peace Officer" or any other words to the same effect in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the Chicago Police Board.

(b-5) No person shall use the words "Cook County Sheriff's Police" or "Cook County Sheriff" or any other words to the same effect in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the office of the Cook County Sheriff's Merit Board. The references to names and titles in this Section may not be construed as authorizing use of the names and titles of other organizations or public safety personnel organizations otherwise prohibited by this Section or the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(b-10) No person may use, in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication, the words "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", or "state police" in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, or unit of local government.

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) No person may claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any police department, chief of a police department, fire department, chief of a fire department, sheriff's department, or sheriff when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity.

(c-2) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization, and the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers and before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization has been entered into.

(c-3) No person may solicit financial contributions or sell or deliver or offer to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements on behalf of a police, sheriff, or other law enforcement department unless that person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the department or governmental organization and has entered into a written contract with the police chief, or head of the law enforcement department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(c-4) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization, and the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, and before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization has been entered into.

(c-5) No person may solicit financial contributions or sell or deliver or offer to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements on behalf of a department or departments of fire fighters unless that person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the department or departments and has entered into a written contract with the department chief and corporate or municipal authority thereof which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(c-6) No person may claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(d) Sentence. False personation, unapproved use of a name or title, or solicitation in violation of subsection (a), (b), (b-5), or (b-10) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. False personation in violation of subsections (a-5) and (c-6) is a Class A misdemeanor. False personation in violation of subsection (a-6) of this Section is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not exceeding $200. Engaging in any activity in violation of subsection (c-1), (c-2), (c-3), (c-4), or (c-5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-548, eff. 8-11-05; 94-755, eff. 1-1-07; 94-984, eff. 6-30-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-3)

Sec. 21-3. Criminal trespass to real property.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (a-5), whoever:

(1) knowingly and without lawful authority enters or remains within or on a building; or

(2) enters upon the land of another, after receiving, prior to such entry, notice from the owner or occupant that such entry is forbidden; or

(3) remains upon the land of another, after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart; or

(3.5) presents false documents or falsely represents his or her identity orally to the owner or occupant of a building or land in order to obtain permission from the owner or occupant to enter or remain in the building or on the land; commits a Class B misdemeanor.

For purposes of item (1) of this subsection, this Section shall not apply to being in a building which is open to the public while the building is open to the public during its normal hours of operation; nor shall this Section apply to a person who enters a public building under the reasonable belief that the building is still open to the public.

(a-5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, whoever enters upon any of the following areas in or on a motor vehicle (including an off-road vehicle, motorcycle, moped, or any other powered two-wheel vehicle) after receiving, prior to that entry, notice from the owner or occupant that the entry is forbidden or remains upon or in the area after receiving notice from the owner or occupant to depart commits a Class A misdemeanor:

(1) A field that is used for growing crops or that is capable of being used for growing crops.

(2) An enclosed area containing livestock.

(3) An orchard.

(4) A barn or other agricultural building containing livestock.

(b) A person has received notice from the owner or occupant within the meaning of Subsection (a) if he has been notified personally, either orally or in writing including a valid court order as defined by subsection (7) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 granting remedy (2) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of that Code, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to such land or the forbidden part thereof.

(c) This Section does not apply to any person, whether a migrant worker or otherwise, living on the land with permission of the owner or of his agent having apparent authority to hire workers on such land and assign them living quarters or a place of accommodations for living thereon, nor to anyone living on such land at the request of, or by occupancy, leasing or other agreement or arrangement with the owner or his agent, nor to anyone invited by such migrant worker or other person so living on such land to visit him at the place he is so living upon the land.

(d) A person shall be exempt from prosecution under this Section if he beautifies unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial properties located within any municipality. For the purpose of this subsection, "unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property" means any real estate (1) in which the taxes have not been paid for a period of at least 2 years; and (2) which has been left unoccupied and abandoned for a period of at least one year; and "beautifies" means to landscape, clean up litter, or to repair dilapidated conditions on or to board up windows and doors.

(e) No person shall be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of unoccupied and abandoned residential and industrial property which that person beautifies pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section.

(f) This Section does not prohibit a person from entering a building or upon the land of another for emergency purposes. For purposes of this subsection (f), "emergency" means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person to be in imminent danger of serious bodily harm or in which property is or is reasonably believed to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

(g) Paragraph (3.5) of subsection (a) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a building or land in the performance of his or her official duties.

(h) (g) A person may be liable in any civil action for money damages to the owner of the land he or she entered upon with a motor vehicle as prohibited under subsection (a-5) paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. A person may also be liable to the owner for court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. The measure of damages shall be: (i) the actual damages, but not less than $250, if the vehicle is operated in a nature preserve or registered area as defined in Sections 3.11 and 3.14 of the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act; (ii) twice the actual damages if the owner has previously notified the person to cease trespassing; or (iii) in any other case, the actual damages, but not less than $50. If the person operating the vehicle is under the age of 16, the owner of the vehicle and the parent or legal guardian of the minor are jointly and severally liable. For the purposes of this subsection (h) (g):

"Land" includes, but is not limited to, land used for crop land, fallow land, orchard, pasture, feed lot, timber land, prairie land, mine spoil nature preserves and registered areas. "Land" does not include driveways or private roadways upon which the owner allows the public to drive.

"Owner" means the person who has the right to possession of the land, including the owner, operator or tenant.

"Vehicle" has the same meaning as provided under Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-263, eff. 1-1-06; 94-509, eff. 8-9-05; 94-512, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/21-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-7)

Sec. 21-7. Criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports; aggravated criminal trespass to restricted areas and restricted landing areas at airports.

(a) Whoever enters upon, or remains in, any restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State, after such person has received notice from the airport authority that such entry is forbidden commits a Class 4 felony.

(b) Whoever enters upon, or remains in, any restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State, while in possession of a weapon, replica of a weapon, or ammunition, after the person has received notice from the airport authority that the entry is forbidden commits a Class 3 felony.

(c) Notice that the area is "restricted" and entry thereto "forbidden", for purposes of this Section, means that the person or persons have been notified personally, either orally or in writing, or by a printed or written notice forbidding such entry to him or a group or an organization of which he is a member, which has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at every usable entrance to such area or the forbidden part thereof.

(d) (b) Whoever enters upon, or remains in, any restricted area or restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in this State by presenting false documents or falsely representing his or her identity orally to the airport authority commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) (b) Whoever enters upon, or remains in, any restricted area or restricted landing area as prohibited in subsection (a) of this Section, while dressed in the uniform of, improperly wearing the identification of, presenting false credentials of, or otherwise physically impersonating an airman, employee of an airline, employee of an airport, or contractor at an airport commits a Class 4 felony.

(f) (c) The terms "Restricted area" or "Restricted landing area" in this Section are defined to incorporate the meaning ascribed to those terms in Section 8 of the "Illinois Aeronautics Act", approved July 24, 1945, as amended, and also include any other area of the airport that has been designated such by the airport authority.

The terms "airman" and "airport" in this Section are defined to incorporate the meaning ascribed to those terms in Sections 6 and 12 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act.

(g) (d) Subsection (d) (b) does not apply to a peace officer or other official of a unit of government who enters a restricted area or a restricted landing area used in connection with an airport facility, or part thereof, in the performance of his or her official duties.

(Source: P.A. 94-263, eff. 1-1-06; 94-547, eff. 1-1-06; 94-548, eff. 8-11-05; revised 10-5-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank).

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), or subsection 24-1(a)(11) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-72, eff. 1-1-06; 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1)

Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful Use or Possession of Weapons by Felons or Persons in the Custody of the Department of Corrections Facilities.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the person has been granted relief by the Director of the Department of State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.

(c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (b), that such possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.

(d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this Section.

(e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and no more than 10 years and any second or subsequent violation shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person who is on parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04; 94-72, eff. 1-1-06; 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode or fixed place of business any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode or fixed place of business, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm possessed was uncased, loaded and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B) the firearm possessed was uncased, unloaded and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) the person possessing the weapon is a member of a street gang or is engaged in street gang related activity, as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act; or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had a order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun as defined in Section 24-3, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony. The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04; 94-72, eff. 1-1-06; 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. Persons exempted under this subdivision (a)(5) shall be required to have completed a course of study in firearms handling and training approved and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation as prescribed by Section 28 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004, prior to becoming eligible for this exemption. The Department of Professional Regulation shall provide suitable documentation demonstrating the successful completion of the prescribed firearms training. Such documentation shall be carried at all times when such persons are in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm authorization card by the Department of Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm authorization cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm authorization card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm authorization card by the Department of Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm authorization cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm authorization card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, those devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 92-325, eff. 8-9-01; 93-438, eff. 8-5-03; 93-439, eff. 8-5-03; 93-576, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-15-03.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful Sale of Firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is mentally retarded.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) if the transferor is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923), an approval number issued in accordance with Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of any of paragraphs (c) through (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 93-162, eff. 7-10-03; 93-906, eff. 8-11-04; 94-6, eff. 1-1-06; 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)

Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm ammunition.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearms or firearm ammunition when:

(1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person; or

(2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(3) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(4) He has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(5) He is mentally retarded and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.

For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap. ; or

(b) Sentence.

Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; revised 8-23-05.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-5.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 32-5.2)

Sec. 32-5.2. Aggravated False Personation of a Peace Officer. A person who knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a peace officer in attempting or committing a felony commits a Class 2 felony. A person who knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a peace officer of any jurisdiction in attempting or committing a forcible felony commits a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06; 94-985, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/44-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 44-3)

Sec. 44-3. (a) Seizure. Any telecommunications device possessed by a person on the real property of any elementary or secondary school without the authority of the school principal, or used in the commission of an offense prohibited by this Code, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or which constitutes evidence of the commission of such offenses may be seized and delivered forthwith to the investigating law enforcement agency. A person who is not a student of the particular elementary or secondary school, who is on school property as an invitee of the school, and who has possession of a telecommunication device for lawful and legitimate purposes, shall not need to obtain authority from the school principal to possess the telecommunication device on school property. Such telecommunication device shall not be seized unless it was used in the commission of an offense specified above, or constitutes evidence of such an offense. Within 15 days after such delivery the investigating law enforcement agency shall give notice of seizure to any known owners, lienholders and secured parties of such property. Within that 15 day period the investigating law enforcement agency shall also notify the State's Attorney of the county of seizure about the seizure.

(b) Rights of lienholders and secured parties.

The State's Attorney shall promptly release a telecommunications device seized under the provisions of this Article to any lienholder or secured party if such lienholder or secured party shows to the State's Attorney that his lien or security interest is bona fide and was created without actual knowledge that such telecommunications device was or possessed in violation of this Section or used or to be used in the commission of the offense charged.

(c) Action for forfeiture. (1) The State's Attorney in the county in which such seizure occurs if he finds that such forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner of the telecommunications device or a lienholder or secured party to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify remission of the forfeiture, may cause the investigating law enforcement agency to remit the same upon such terms and conditions as the State's Attorney deems reasonable and just. The State's Attorney shall exercise his discretion under the foregoing provision of this Section promptly after notice is given in accordance with subsection (a). If the State's Attorney does not cause the forfeiture to be remitted he shall forthwith bring an action for forfeiture in the circuit court within whose jurisdiction the seizure and confiscation has taken place. The State's Attorney shall give notice of the forfeiture proceeding by mailing a copy of the complaint in the forfeiture proceeding to the persons and in the manner set forth in subsection (a). The owner of the device or any person with any right, title, or interest in the device may within 20 days after the mailing of such notice file a verified answer to the complaint and may appear at the hearing on the action for forfeiture. The State shall show at such hearing by a preponderance of the evidence that the device was used in the commission of an offense described in subsection (a). The owner of the device or any person with any right, title, or interest in the device may show by a preponderance of the evidence that he did not know, and did not have reason to know, that the device was possessed in violation of this Section or to be used in the commission of such an offense or that any of the exceptions set forth in subsection (d) are applicable. Unless the State shall make such showing, the Court shall order the device released to the owner. Where the State has made such showing, the Court may order the device destroyed; may upon the request of the investigating law enforcement agency, order it delivered to any local, municipal or county law enforcement agency, or the Department of State Police or the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois; or may order it sold at public auction.

(2) A copy of the order shall be filed with the investigating law enforcement agency of the county in which the seizure occurs. Such order, when filed, confers ownership of the device to the department or agency to whom it is delivered or any purchaser thereof. The investigating law enforcement agency shall comply promptly with instructions to remit received from the State's Attorney or Attorney General in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection or subsection (d).

(3) The proceeds of any sale at public auction pursuant to this subsection, after payment of all liens and deduction of the reasonable charges and expenses incurred by the investigating law enforcement agency in storing and selling the device, shall be paid into the general fund of the level of government responsible for the operation of the investigating law enforcement agency.

(d) Exceptions to forfeiture. (b) No device shall be forfeited under the provisions of subsection (c) by reason of any act or omission established by the owner thereof to have been committed or omitted by any person other than the owner while the device was unlawfully in the possession of a person who acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal laws of the United States, or of any state.

(e) Remission by Attorney General. Whenever any owner of, or other person interested in, a device seized under the provisions of this Section files with the Attorney General before the sale or destruction of the device a petition for the remission of such forfeiture the Attorney General if he finds that such forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner or any person with any right, title or interest in the device to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify the remission of forfeiture, may cause the same to be remitted upon such terms and conditions as he deems reasonable and just, or order discontinuance of any forfeiture proceeding relating thereto.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 1035. The Wild Plant Conservation Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 400/1) (from Ch. 5, par. 231)

Sec. 1. Any person, firm or corporation who knowingly buys, sells, offers or exposes for sale any blood root (Sanguinaria canadensis), lady slipper (Cyprepedium parviflorum and Cyprepedium hirsutum), columbine (Aquilegia canadensis), trillium (Trillium grandiflorum and Trillium sessile), lotus (Nelumbo lutes), or gentian (Gentiana crinita crinta and Gentiana andrewsii), or any part thereof, dug, pulled up or gathered from any public or private land, unless in the case of private land the owner or person lawfully occupying such land gives his consent in writing thereto, is guilty of a petty offense.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 1040. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 201, 204, and 402 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 218 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/201) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1201)

Sec. 201. (a) The Department shall carry out the provisions of this Article. The Department or its successor agency may add substances to or delete or reschedule all controlled substances in the Schedules of Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act. In making a determination regarding the addition, deletion, or rescheduling of a substance, the Department shall consider the following:

(1) the actual or relative potential for abuse;

(2) the scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;

(3) the state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;

(4) the history and current pattern of abuse;

(5) the scope, duration, and significance of abuse;

(6) the risk to the public health;

(7) the potential of the substance to produce psychological or physiological dependence;

(8) whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under this Article;

(9) the immediate harmful effect in terms of potentially fatal dosage; and

(10) the long-range effects in terms of permanent health impairment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) If any substance is scheduled, rescheduled, or deleted as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly control the substance under this Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order scheduling a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected files with the Department substantial written objections objecting to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion. In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the substantial written objections and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the Department, similar control under this Act whether by inclusion, rescheduling or deletion is stayed until the Department publishes its ruling.

(e) The Department shall by rule exclude any non-narcotic substances from a schedule if such substance may, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription.

(f) The sale, delivery, distribution, and possession of a drug product containing dextromethorphan shall be in accordance with Section 218 of this Act..

(g) Authority to control under this section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act and the Tobacco Products Tax Act.

(h) Persons registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration to manufacture or distribute controlled substances shall maintain adequate security and provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion, but shall not otherwise be required to meet the physical security control requirements (such as cage or vault) for Schedule V controlled substances containing pseudoephedrine or Schedule II controlled substances containing dextromethorphan.

(Source: P.A. 94-800, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(720 ILCS 570/204) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1204)

Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetylmethadol;

(1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);

(2) Allylprodine;

(3) Alphacetylmethadol, except

levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-

acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

(4) Alphameprodine;

(5) Alphamethadol;

(6) Alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)

propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-

propanilido) piperidine;

(6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl

(N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);

(7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-proprionoxypiperidine (MPPP);

(7.1) PEPAP

(1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);

(8) Benzethidine;

(9) Betacetylmethadol;

(9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl

(N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(10) Betameprodine;

(11) Betamethadol;

(12) Betaprodine;

(13) Clonitazene;

(14) Dextromoramide;

(15) Diampromide;

(16) Diethylthiambutene;

(17) Difenoxin;

(18) Dimenoxadol;

(19) Dimepheptanol;

(20) Dimethylthiambutene;

(21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

(22) Dipipanone;

(23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(24) Etonitazene;

(25) Etoxeridine;

(26) Furethidine;

(27) Hydroxpethidine;

(28) Ketobemidone;

(29) Levomoramide;

(30) Levophenacylmorphan;

(31) 3-Methylfentanyl

(N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-

4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl

(N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(32) Morpheridine;

(33) Noracymethadol;

(34) Norlevorphanol;

(35) Normethadone;

(36) Norpipanone;

(36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl

(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]propanamide);

(37) Phenadoxone;

(38) Phenampromide;

(39) Phenomorphan;

(40) Phenoperidine;

(41) Piritramide;

(42) Proheptazine;

(43) Properidine;

(44) Propiram;

(45) Racemoramide;

(45.1) Thiofentanyl

(N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);

(46) Tilidine;

(47) Trimeperidine;

(48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-

N-phenylpropanamide).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine;

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) Benzylmorphine;

(4) Codeine methylbromide;

(5) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(6) Cyprenorphine;

(7) Desomorphine;

(8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);

(9) Dihydromorphine;

(10) Drotebanol;

(11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

(12) Heroin;

(13) Hydromorphinol;

(14) Methyldesorphine;

(15) Methyldihydromorphine;

(16) Morphine methylbromide;

(17) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(18) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(19) Myrophine;

(20) Nicocodeine;

(21) Nicomorphine;

(22) Normorphine;

(23) Pholcodine;

(24) Thebacon.

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):

(1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine, methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);

(1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: etryptamine; MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);

(2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl- 3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA);

(3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);

(4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);

(7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);

(8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);

(9) Ibogaine (some trade and other names:

7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-

6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]

indole; Tabernanthe iboga);

(10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);

(12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii williemaii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);

(14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine

(also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-

3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);

(15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names: 3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H- dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;

(16) Psilocybin;

(17) Psilocyn;

(18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

(19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

(20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

(20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo- 2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;

(21) 4-methoxyamphetamine

(4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

(22) (Blank);

(23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;

(24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;

(25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;

(26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine

(another name: DOET);

(27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine

(another name: TCPy);

(28) (Blank);

(29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);

(30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:

3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;

3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;

5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;

N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine).

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone; and

(3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Fenethylline;

(2) N-ethylamphetamine;

(3) Aminorex (some other names:

2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;

4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(4) Methcathinone (some other names:

2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;

Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;

alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;

methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:

2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;

2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:

N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;

N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

(7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex ((+ or -) cis-

4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine).

(g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;

(2) N-[1(2-thienyl) methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

(Source: P.A. 90-382, eff. 8-15-97; 91-714, eff. 6-2-00; revised 10-18-05.)

(720 ILCS 570/218)

Sec. 218. Dextromethorphan.

(a) A drug product containing dextromethorphan may not be sold, delivered, distributed, or possessed except in accordance with the prescription requirements of Sections 309, 312, and 313 of this Act.

(b) Possession of a drug product containing dextromethorphan in violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony. The sale, delivery, distribution, or possession with intent to sell, deliver, or distribute a drug product containing dextromethorphan in violation of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(c) This Section does not apply to a drug product containing dextromethorphan that is sold in solid, tablet, liquid, capsule, powder, thin film, or gel form and which is formulated, packaged, and sold in dosages and concentrations for use as an over-the-counter drug product. For the purposes of this Section, "over-the-counter drug product" means a drug that is available to consumers without a prescription and sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(Source: P.A. 94-800, eff. 1-1-07.)

(720 ILCS 570/219)

Sec. 219 218. Dietary supplements containing ephedrine or anabolic steroid precursors.

(a) It is a Class A misdemeanor for any manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, or other person to sell, transfer, or otherwise furnish any of the following to a person under 18 years of age:

(1) a dietary supplement containing an ephedrine group alkaloid; or

(2) a dietary supplement containing any of the following:

(A) Androstanediol;

(B) Androstanedione;

(C) Androstenedione;

(D) Norandrostenediol;

(E) Norandrostenedione; or

(F) Dehydroepiandrosterone.

(b) A seller shall request valid identification from any individual who attempts to purchase a dietary supplement set forth in subsection (a) if that individual reasonably appears to the seller to be under 18 years of age.

(Source: P.A. 94-339, eff. 7-26-05; revised 9-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 570/402) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1402)

Sec. 402. Except as otherwise authorized by this Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to possess a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog. A violation of this Act with respect to each of the controlled substances listed herein constitutes a single and separate violation of this Act. For purposes of this Section, "controlled substance analog" or "analog" means a substance which is intended for human consumption, other than a controlled substance, that has a chemical structure substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II, or that was specifically designed to produce an effect substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. Examples of chemical classes in which controlled substance analogs are found include, but are not limited to, the following: phenethylamines, N-substituted piperidines, morphinans, ecgonines, quinazolinones, substituted indoles, and arylcycloalkylamines. For purposes of this Act, a controlled substance analog shall be treated in the same manner as the controlled substance to which it is substantially similar.

(a) Any person who violates this Section with respect to the following controlled or counterfeit substances and amounts, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (c) and (d) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class 1 felony and shall, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, be sentenced as provided in this subsection (a) and fined as provided in subsection (b):

(1) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15 years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing heroin;

(B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing heroin;

(C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing heroin;

(D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing heroin;

(2) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15 years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance containing cocaine;

(B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance containing cocaine;

(C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing cocaine;

(D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing cocaine;

(3) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15 years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance containing morphine;

(B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance containing morphine;

(C) not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing morphine;

(D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing morphine;

(4) 200 grams or more of any substance containing peyote;

(5) 200 grams or more of any substance containing a derivative of barbituric acid or any of the salts of a derivative of barbituric acid;

(6) 200 grams or more of any substance containing amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine;

(6.5) (blank);

(7) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15 years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 15 or more objects or 15 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 200 objects or 200 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;

(B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 200 or more objects or 200 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 600 objects or less than 600 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;

(C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 600 or more objects or 600 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 1500 objects or 1500 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;

(D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 1500 or more objects or 1500 or more segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;

(7.5) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15 years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 15 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 200 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;

(B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 200 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 600 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;

(C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 600 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 1,500 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;

(D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 1,500 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;

(8) 30 grams or more of any substance containing pentazocine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of pentazocine, or an analog thereof;

(9) 30 grams or more of any substance containing methaqualone or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of methaqualone;

(10) 30 grams or more of any substance containing phencyclidine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of phencyclidine (PCP);

(10.5) 30 grams or more of any substance containing ketamine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of ketamine;

(11) 200 grams or more of any substance containing any substance classified as a narcotic drug in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is not otherwise included in this subsection.

(b) Any person sentenced with respect to violations of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (7), or (7.5) of subsection (a) involving 100 grams or more of the controlled substance named therein, may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not to exceed $200,000 or the full street value of the controlled or counterfeit substances, whichever is greater. The term "street value" shall have the meaning ascribed in Section 110-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Any person sentenced with respect to any other provision of subsection (a), may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not to exceed $200,000.

(c) Any person who violates this Section with regard to an amount of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine or counterfeit substance not set forth in subsection (a) or (d) is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The fine for a violation punishable under this subsection (c) shall not be more than $25,000.

(d) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any amount of anabolic steroid is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class B misdemeanor for a subsequent offense committed within 2 years of a prior conviction.

(Source: P.A. 94-324, eff. 7-26-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 1045. The Drug Paraphernalia Control Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(720 ILCS 600/4) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 2104)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. This Act does not apply to:

(a) Items used in the preparation, compounding, packaging, labeling, or other use of cannabis or a controlled substance as an incident to lawful research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(b) Items historically and customarily used in connection with, the planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, or inhaling of tobacco or any other lawful substance.

Items exempt under this subsection include, but are not limited to, garden hoes, rakes, sickles, baggies, tobacco pipes, and cigarette-rolling papers.

(c) Items listed in Section 2 of this Act which are used for decorative purposes, when such items have been rendered completely inoperable or incapable of being used for any illicit purpose prohibited by this Act.

(d) A person who is legally authorized to possess hypodermic syringes or needles under the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act.

In determining whether or not a particular item is exempt under this Section subsection, the trier of fact should consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following:

(1) the general, usual, customary, and historical use to which the item involved has been put;

(2) expert evidence concerning the ordinary or customary use of the item and the effect of any peculiarity in the design or engineering of the device upon its functioning;

(3) any written instructions accompanying the delivery of the item concerning the purposes or uses to which the item can or may be put;

(4) any oral instructions provided by the seller of the item at the time and place of sale or commercial delivery;

(5) any national or local advertising concerning the design, purpose or use of the item involved, and the entire context in which such advertising occurs;

(6) the manner, place and circumstances in which the item was displayed for sale, as well as any item or items displayed for sale or otherwise exhibited upon the premises where the sale was made;

(7) whether the owner or anyone in control of the object is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of tobacco products;

(8) the existence and scope of legitimate uses for the object in the community.

(Source: P.A. 93-392, eff. 7-25-03; 93-526, eff. 8-12-03; revised 9-22-03.)

Section 1050. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 108-4, 108B-1, 108B-3, 108B-5, 108B-11, 110-10, 112A-23, and 112A-28 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/108-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 108-4)

Sec. 108-4. Issuance of search warrant.

(a) All warrants upon written complaint shall state the time and date of issuance and be the warrants of the judge issuing the same and not the warrants of the court in which he is then sitting and such warrants need not bear the seal of the court or clerk thereof. The complaint on which the warrant is issued need not be filed with the clerk of the court nor with the court if there is no clerk until the warrant has been executed or has been returned "not executed".

The search warrant upon written complaint may be issued electronically or electromagnetically by use of a facsimile transmission machine and any such warrant shall have the same validity as a written search warrant.

(b) Warrant upon oral testimony.

(1) General rule. When the offense in connection with which a search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961, and if the circumstances make it reasonable to dispense, in whole or in part, with a written affidavit, a judge may issue a warrant based upon sworn testimony communicated by telephone or other appropriate means, including facsimile transmission.

(2) Application. The person who is requesting the warrant shall prepare a document to be known as a duplicate original warrant and shall read such duplicate original warrant, verbatim, to the judge. The judge shall enter, verbatim, what is so read to the judge on a document to be known as the original warrant. The judge may direct that the warrant be modified.

(3) Issuance. If the judge is satisfied that the offense in connection with which the search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961, that the circumstances are such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, and that grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe that they exist, the judge shall order the issuance of a warrant by directing the person requesting the warrant to sign the judge's name on the duplicate original warrant. The judge shall immediately sign the original warrant and enter on the face of the original warrant the exact time when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The finding of probable cause for a warrant upon oral testimony may be based on the same kind of evidence as is sufficient for a warrant upon affidavit.

(4) Recording and certification of testimony. When a caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to request a warrant, the judge shall immediately place under oath each person whose testimony forms a basis of the application and each person applying for that warrant. If a voice recording device is available, the judge shall record by means of the device all of the call after the caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to request a warrant, otherwise a stenographic or longhand verbatim record shall be made. If a voice recording device is used or a stenographic record made, the judge shall have the record transcribed, shall certify the accuracy of the transcription, and shall file a copy of the original record and the transcription with the court. If a longhand verbatim record is made, the judge shall file a signed copy with the court.

(5) Contents. The contents of a warrant upon oral testimony shall be the same as the contents of a warrant upon affidavit.

(6) Additional rule for execution. The person who executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant.

(7) Motion to suppress based on failure to obtain a written affidavit. Evidence obtained pursuant to a warrant issued under this subsection (b) is not subject to a motion to suppress on the ground that the circumstances were not such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, absent a finding of bad faith. All other grounds to move to suppress are preserved.

(8) This subsection (b) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005.

(9) No evidence obtained pursuant to this subsection (b) shall be inadmissible inadmissable in a court of law by virtue of subdivision (8).

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; revised 10-12-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-1)

Sec. 108B-1. Definitions. For the purpose of this Article:

(a) "Aggrieved person" means a person who was a party to any intercepted private communication or any person against whom the intercept was directed.

(b) "Chief Judge" means, when referring to a judge authorized to receive application for, and to enter orders authorizing, interceptions of private communications, the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court wherein the application for order of interception is filed, or a Circuit Judge designated by the Chief Judge to enter these orders. In circuits other than the Cook County Circuit, "Chief Judge" also means, when referring to a judge authorized to receive application for, and to enter orders authorizing, interceptions of private communications, an Associate Judge authorized by Supreme Court Rule to try felony cases who is assigned by the Chief Judge to enter these orders. After assignment by the Chief Judge, an Associate Judge shall have plenary authority to issue orders without additional authorization for each specific application made to him by the State's Attorney until the time the Associate Judge's power is rescinded by the Chief Judge.

(c) "Communications common carrier" means any person engaged as a common carrier in the transmission of communications by wire or radio, not including radio broadcasting.

(d) "Contents" includes information obtained from a private communication concerning the existence, substance, purport or meaning of the communication, or the identity of a party of the communication.

(e) "Court of competent jurisdiction" means any circuit court.

(f) "Department" means Illinois Department of State Police.

(g) "Director" means Director of the Illinois Department of State Police.

(g-1) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or part by a wire, radio, pager, computer, or electromagnetic, photo electronic, or photo optical system where the sending and receiving parties intend the electronic communication to be private and the interception, recording, or transcription of the electronic communication is accomplished by a device in a surreptitious manner contrary to the provisions of this Article. "Electronic communication" does not include:

(1) any wire or oral communication; or

(2) any communication from a tracking device.

(h) "Electronic criminal surveillance device" or "eavesdropping device" means any device or apparatus, or computer program including an induction coil, that can be used to intercept private communication other than:

(1) Any telephone, telegraph or telecommunication instrument, equipment or facility, or any component of it, furnished to the subscriber or user by a communication common carrier in the ordinary course of its business, or purchased by any person and being used by the subscriber, user or person in the ordinary course of his business, or being used by a communications common carrier in the ordinary course of its business, or by an investigative or law enforcement officer in the ordinary course of his duties; or

(2) A hearing aid or similar device being used to correct subnormal hearing to not better than normal.

(i) "Electronic criminal surveillance officer" means any law enforcement officer or retired law enforcement officer of the United States or of the State or political subdivision of it, or of another State, or of a political subdivision of it, who is certified by the Illinois Department of State Police to intercept private communications. A retired law enforcement officer may be certified by the Illinois State Police only to (i) prepare petitions for the authority to intercept private oral communications in accordance with the provisions of this Act; (ii) intercept and supervise the interception of private oral communications; (iii) handle, safeguard, and use evidence derived from such private oral communications; and (iv) operate and maintain equipment used to intercept private oral communications.

(j) "In-progress trace" means to determine the origin of a wire communication to a telephone or telegraph instrument, equipment or facility during the course of the communication.

(k) "Intercept" means the aural or other acquisition of the contents of any private communication through the use of any electronic criminal surveillance device.

(l) "Journalist" means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by news media, including newspapers, magazines, press associations, news agencies, wire services, radio, television or other similar media, for the purpose of gathering, processing, transmitting, compiling, editing or disseminating news for the general public.

(m) "Law enforcement agency" means any law enforcement agency of the United States, or the State or a political subdivision of it.

(n) "Oral communication" means human speech used to communicate by one party to another, in person, by wire communication or by any other means.

(o) "Private communication" means a wire, oral, or electronic communication uttered or transmitted by a person exhibiting an expectation that the communication is not subject to interception, under circumstances reasonably justifying the expectation. Circumstances that reasonably justify the expectation that a communication is not subject to interception include the use of a cordless telephone or cellular communication device.

(p) "Wire communication" means any human speech used to communicate by one party to another in whole or in part through the use of facilities for the transmission of communications by wire, cable or other like connection between the point of origin and the point of reception furnished or operated by a communications common carrier.

(q) "Privileged communications" means a private communication between:

(1) a licensed and practicing physician and a patient within the scope of the profession of the physician;

(2) a licensed and practicing psychologist to a patient within the scope of the profession of the psychologist;

(3) a licensed and practicing attorney-at-law and a client within the scope of the profession of the lawyer;

(4) a practicing clergyman and a confidant within the scope of the profession of the clergyman;

(5) a practicing journalist within the scope of his profession;

(6) spouses within the scope of their marital relationship; or

(7) a licensed and practicing social worker to a client within the scope of the profession of the social worker.

(r) "Retired law enforcement officer" means a person: (1) who is a graduate of a police training institute or academy, who after graduating served for at least 15 consecutive years as a sworn, full-time peace officer qualified to carry firearms for any federal or State department or agency or for any unit of local government of Illinois; (2) who has retired as a local, State, or federal peace officer in a publicly created peace officer retirement system; and (3) whose service in law enforcement was honorably terminated through retirement or disability and not as a result of discipline, suspension, or discharge.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; 92-863, eff. 1-3-03; revised 1-9-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-3)

Sec. 108B-3. Authorization for the interception of private communication.

(a) The State's Attorney, or a person designated in writing or by law to act for him and to perform his duties during his absence or disability, may authorize, in writing, an ex parte application to the chief judge of a court of competent jurisdiction for an order authorizing the interception of a private communication when no party has consented to the interception and (i) the interception may provide evidence of, or may assist in the apprehension of a person who has committed, is committing or is about to commit, a violation of Section 8-1.1 (solicitation of murder), 8-1.2 (solicitation of murder for hire), 9-1 (first degree murder), or 29B-1 (money laundering) of the Criminal Code of 1961, Section 401, 401.1 (controlled substance trafficking), 405, 405.1 (criminal drug conspiracy) or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or any Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, a violation of Section 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, or 24-5 or subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or conspiracy to commit money laundering or conspiracy to commit first degree murder; (ii) in response to a clear and present danger of imminent death or great bodily harm to persons resulting from: (1) a kidnapping or the holding of a hostage by force or the threat of the imminent use of force; or (2) the occupation by force or the threat of the imminent use of force of any premises, place, vehicle, vessel or aircraft; (iii) to aid an investigation or prosecution of a civil action brought under the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act when there is probable cause to believe the interception of the private communication will provide evidence that a streetgang is committing, has committed, or will commit a second or subsequent gang-related offense or that the interception of the private communication will aid in the collection of a judgment entered under that Act; or (iv) upon information and belief that a streetgang has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a felony.

(b) The State's Attorney or a person designated in writing or by law to act for the State's Attorney and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability, may authorize, in writing, an ex parte application to the chief judge of a circuit court for an order authorizing the interception of a private communication when no party has consented to the interception and the interception may provide evidence of, or may assist in the apprehension of a person who has committed, is committing or is about to commit, a violation of an offense under Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b-1) Subsection (b) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005.

(b-2) No conversations recorded or monitored pursuant to subsection (b) shall be made inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of subsection (b-1).

(c) As used in this Section, "streetgang" and "gang-related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-468, eff. 8-4-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-5)

Sec. 108B-5. Requirements for order of interception.

(a) Upon consideration of an application, the chief judge may enter an ex parte order, as requested or as modified, authorizing the interception of a private communication, if the chief judge determines on the basis of the application submitted by the applicant, that:

(1) There is probable cause for belief that (A) (a) the person whose private communication is to be intercepted is committing, has committed, or is about to commit an offense enumerated in Section 108B-3, or (B) (b) the facilities from which, or the place where, the private communication is to be intercepted, is, has been, or is about to be used in connection with the commission of the offense, or is leased to, listed in the name of, or commonly used by, the person; and

(2) There is probable cause for belief that a particular private communication concerning such offense may be obtained through the interception; and

(3) Normal investigative procedures with respect to the offense have been tried and have failed or reasonably appear to be unlikely to succeed if tried or too dangerous to employ; and

(4) The electronic criminal surveillance officers to be authorized to supervise the interception of the private communication have been certified by the Department.

(b) In the case of an application, other than for an extension, for an order to intercept a communication of a person or on a wire communication facility that was the subject of a previous order authorizing interception, the application shall be based upon new evidence or information different from and in addition to the evidence or information offered to support the prior order, regardless of whether the evidence was derived from prior interceptions or from other sources.

(c) The chief judge may authorize interception of a private communication anywhere in the judicial circuit. If the court authorizes the use of an eavesdropping device with respect to a vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft that is within the judicial circuit at the time the order is issued, the order may provide that the interception may continue anywhere within the State if the vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft leaves the judicial circuit.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; revised 1-20-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-11)

Sec. 108B-11. Inventory.

(a) Within a reasonable period of time but not later than 90 days after the termination of the period of the order, or its extensions, or the date of the denial of an application made under Section 108B-8, the chief judge issuing or denying the order or extension shall cause an inventory to be served on any person:

(1) named in the order;

(2) arrested as a result of the interception of his private communication;

(3) indicted or otherwise charged as a result of the interception of his private communication;

(4) Any person whose private communication was intercepted and who the judge issuing or denying the order or application may in his discretion determine should be informed in the interest of justice.

(b) The inventory under this Section shall include:

(1) notice of the entry of the order or the application for an order denied under Section 108B-8;

(2) the date of the entry of the order or the denial of an order applied for under Section 108B-8;

(3) the period of authorized or disapproved interception; and

(4) the fact that during the period a private communication was or was not intercepted.

(c) A court of competent jurisdiction, upon filing of a motion, may in its discretion make available to those persons or their attorneys for inspection those portions of the intercepted communications, applications and orders as the court determines to be in the interest of justice.

(d) On an ex parte showing of good cause to a court of competent jurisdiction, the serving of the inventories required by this Section may be postponed for a period not to exceed 12 months.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02; revised 1-20-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-10)

Sec. 110-10. Conditions of bail bond.

(a) If a person is released prior to conviction, either upon payment of bail security or on his or her own recognizance, the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he or she will:

(1) Appear to answer the charge in the court having jurisdiction on a day certain and thereafter as ordered by the court until discharged or final order of the court;

(2) Submit himself or herself to the orders and process of the court;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(5) At a time and place designated by the court, surrender all firearms in his or her possession to a law enforcement officer designated by the court to take custody of and impound the firearms and physically surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the clerk of the circuit court when the offense the person has been charged with is a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, or any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961; the court may, however, forgo the imposition of this condition when the circumstances of the case clearly do not warrant it or when its imposition would be impractical; all legally possessed firearms shall be returned to the person upon the charges being dismissed, or if the person is found not guilty, unless the finding of not guilty is by reason of insanity; and

(6) At a time and place designated by the court, submit to a psychological evaluation when the person has been charged with a violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and that violation occurred in a school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school.

Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to this Section shall be completed promptly and made available to the State, the defendant, and the court. As a further condition of bail under these circumstances, the court shall order the defendant to refrain from entering upon the property of the school, including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school. Upon receipt of the psychological evaluation, either the State or the defendant may request a change in the conditions of bail, pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code. The court may change the conditions of bail to include a requirement that the defendant follow the recommendations of the psychological evaluation, including undergoing psychiatric treatment. The conclusions of the psychological evaluation and any statements elicited from the defendant during its administration are not admissible as evidence of guilt during the course of any trial on the charged offense, unless the defendant places his or her mental competency in issue.

(b) The court may impose other conditions, such as the following, if the court finds that such conditions are reasonably necessary to assure the defendant's appearance in court, protect the public from the defendant, or prevent the defendant's unlawful interference with the orderly administration of justice:

(1) Report to or appear in person before such person or agency as the court may direct;

(2) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) Refrain from approaching or communicating with particular persons or classes of persons;

(4) Refrain from going to certain described geographical areas or premises;

(5) Refrain from engaging in certain activities or indulging in intoxicating liquors or in certain drugs;

(6) Undergo treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(7) Undergo medical or psychiatric treatment;

(8) Work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(9) Attend or reside in a facility designated by the court;

(10) Support his or her dependents;

(11) If a minor resides with his or her parents or in a foster home, attend school, attend a non-residential program for youths, and contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home;

(12) Observe any curfew ordered by the court;

(13) Remain in the custody of such designated person or organization agreeing to supervise his release. Such third party custodian shall be responsible for notifying the court if the defendant fails to observe the conditions of release which the custodian has agreed to monitor, and shall be subject to contempt of court for failure so to notify the court;

(14) Be placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with or without the use of an approved electronic monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(14.1) The court shall impose upon a defendant who is charged with any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation and is placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee that represents costs incidental to the electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code;

(14.2) The court shall impose upon all defendants, including those defendants subject to paragraph (14.1) above, placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee which shall represent costs incidental to such electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be;

(14.3) The Chief Judge of the Judicial Circuit may establish reasonable fees to be paid by a person receiving pretrial services while under supervision of a pretrial services agency, probation department, or court services department. Reasonable fees may be charged for pretrial services including, but not limited to, pretrial supervision, diversion programs, electronic monitoring, victim impact services, drug and alcohol testing, and victim mediation services. The person receiving pretrial services may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to pretrial services in accordance with his or her ability to pay those costs;

(14.4) For persons charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, refrain from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device, as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to the rules promulgated by the Secretary of State for the installation of ignition interlock devices. Under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment;

(15) Comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(16) Under Section 110-6.5 comply with the conditions of the drug testing program; and

(17) Such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense under Section 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the "Criminal Code of 1961", involving a victim who is a minor under 18 years of age living in the same household with the defendant at the time of the offense, in granting bail or releasing the defendant on his own recognizance, the judge shall impose conditions to restrict the defendant's access to the victim which may include, but are not limited to conditions that he will:

1. Vacate the Household.

2. Make payment of temporary support to his dependents.

3. Refrain from contact or communication with the child victim, except as ordered by the court.

(d) When a person is charged with a criminal offense and the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A, conditions shall be imposed at the time of the defendant's release on bond that restrict the defendant's access to the victim. Unless provided otherwise by the court, the restrictions shall include requirements that the defendant do the following:

(1) refrain from contact or communication with the victim for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release; and

(2) refrain from entering or remaining at the victim's residence for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release.

(e) Local law enforcement agencies shall develop standardized bond forms for use in cases involving family or household members as defined in Article 112A, including specific conditions of bond as provided in subsection (d). Failure of any law enforcement department to develop or use those forms shall in no way limit the applicability and enforcement of subsections (d) and (f).

(f) If the defendant is admitted to bail after conviction the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he will, in addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b) hereof:

(1) Duly prosecute his appeal;

(2) Appear at such time and place as the court may direct;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Comply with such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose; and

(5) If the judgment is affirmed or the cause reversed and remanded for a new trial, forthwith surrender to the officer from whose custody he was bailed.

(g) Upon a finding of guilty for any felony offense, the defendant shall physically surrender, at a time and place designated by the court, any and all firearms in his or her possession and his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card as a condition of remaining on bond pending sentencing.

(Source: P.A. 93-184, eff. 1-1-04; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-590, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-23) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-23)

Sec. 112A-23. Enforcement of orders of protection.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any order of protection, whether issued in a civil, quasi-criminal proceeding, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of an order of protection pursuant to Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14) or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory,

(iii) or any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961.

Prosecution for a violation of an order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6) or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14, or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the order of protection were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Article. Nothing in this Article shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid order of protection issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce orders of protection through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of an order of protection shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(c) Violation of custody or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 611 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 in the manner provided for under Parts Articles V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. An order of protection may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) By service, delivery, or notice under Section 112A-10.

(2) By notice under Section 112A-11.

(3) By service of an order of protection under Section 112A-22.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of an order of protection in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order entered under Section 112A-15.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of an order of protection has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any order of protection over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any order of protection or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any order of protection; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of an order of protection

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of an order of protection, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of an order of protection:

(i) to increase, revoke or modify the bail bond on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 93-359, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-11-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-28) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-28)

Sec. 112A-28. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Department of State Police, daily, in the form and detail the Department requires, copies of any recorded orders of protection issued by the court, and any foreign orders of protection filed by the clerk of the court, and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 112A-22 of this Act. Each order of protection shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System on the same day it is issued by the court. If an emergency order of protection was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 112A-17, the order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System as soon as possible after receipt from the clerk.

(b) The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded orders of protection issued or filed pursuant to this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of an alleged incident of abuse or violation of an order of protection of any recorded prior incident of abuse involving the abused party and the effective dates and terms of any recorded order of protection.

(c) The data, records and transmittals required under this Section shall pertain to any valid emergency, interim or plenary order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding or authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(Source: P.A. 90-392, eff. 1-1-98; 91-903, eff. 1-1-01; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 1055. The Capital Crimes Litigation Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(725 ILCS 124/19)

Sec. 19. Report; repeal.

(a) The Cook County Public Defender, the Cook County State's Attorney, the State Appellate Defender, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, and the Attorney General shall each report separately to the General Assembly by January 1, 2004 detailing the amounts of money received by them through this Act, the uses for which those funds were expended, the balances then in the Capital Litigation Trust Fund or county accounts, as the case may be, dedicated to them for the use and support of Public Defenders, appointed trial defense counsel, and State's Attorneys, as the case may be. The report shall describe and discuss the need for continued funding through the Fund and contain any suggestions for changes to this Act.

(b) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 93-605, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-9-03.)

Section 1060. The Pretrial Services Act is amended by changing Section 33 as follows:

(725 ILCS 185/33) (from Ch. 38, par. 333)

Sec. 33. The Supreme Court shall pay from funds appropriated to it for this purpose 100% of all approved costs for pretrial services, including pretrial services officers, necessary support personnel, travel costs reasonably related to the delivery of pretrial services, space costs, equipment, telecommunications, postage, commodities, printing and contractual services. Costs shall be reimbursed monthly, based on a plan and budget approved by the Supreme Court. No department may be reimbursed for costs which exceed or are not provided for in the approved plan and budget. For State fiscal years 2004, 2005, and 2006, and 2007 only, the Mandatory Arbitration Fund may be used to reimburse approved costs for pretrial services.

(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 1065. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/90)

Sec. 90. Committed persons ability to pay for services.

Each person committed or detained under this Act who receives services provided directly or funded by the Department and the estate of that person is liable for the payment of sums representing charges for services to the person at a rate to be determined by the Department. Services charges against that person take effect on the date of admission or the effective date of this Section. The Department in its rules may establish a maximum rate for the cost of services. In the case of any person who has received residential services from the Department, whether directly from the Department or through a public or private agency or entity funded by the Department, the liability shall be the same regardless of the source of services. When the person is placed in a facility outside the Department, the facility shall collect reimbursement from the person. The Department may supplement the contribution of the person to private facilities after all other sources of income have been utilized; however the supplement shall not exceed the allowable rate under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act for those persons eligible for those respective programs. The Department may pay the actual costs of services or maintenance in the facility and may collect reimbursement for the entire amount paid from the person or an amount not to exceed the maximum. Lesser or greater amounts may be accepted by the Department when conditions warrant that action or when offered by persons not liable under this Act. Nothing in this Section shall preclude the Department from applying federal benefits that are specifically provided for the care and treatment of a disabled person toward the cost of care provided by a State facility or private agency. The Department may investigate the financial condition of each person committed under this Act, may make determinations of the ability of each such person to pay sums representing services charges, and for those purposes may set a standard as a basis of judgment of ability to pay. The Department shall by rule make provisions for unusual and exceptional circumstances in the application of that standard. The Department may issue to any person liable under this Act a statement of amount due as treatment charges requiring him or her to pay monthly, quarterly, or otherwise as may be arranged, an amount not exceeding that required under this Act, plus fees to which the Department may be entitled under this Act.

(a) Whenever an individual is covered, in part or in whole, under any type of insurance arrangement, private or public, for services provided by the Department, the proceeds from the insurance shall be considered as part of the individual's ability to pay notwithstanding that the insurance contract was entered into by a person other than the individual or that the premiums for the insurance were paid for by a person other than the individual. Remittances from intermediary agencies under Title XVIII of the Federal Social Security Act for services to committed persons shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and placed in the Mental Health Fund. Payments received from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act for services to those persons shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and shall be placed in the General Revenue Fund.

(b) Any person who has been issued a Notice of Determination of sums due as services charges may petition the Department for a review of that determination. The petition must be in writing and filed with the Department within 90 days from the date of the Notice of Determination. The Department shall provide for a hearing to be held on the charges for the period covered by the petition. The Department may after the hearing, cancel, modify, or increase the former determination to an amount not to exceed the maximum provided for the person by this Act. The Department at its expense shall take testimony and preserve a record of all proceedings at the hearing upon any petition for a release from or modification of the determination. The petition and other documents in the nature of pleadings and motions filed in the case, a transcript of testimony, findings of the Department, and orders of the Secretary constitute the record. The Secretary shall furnish a transcript of the record to any person upon payment of 75¢ per page for each original transcript and 25¢ per page for each copy of the transcript. Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Department upon a hearing may, within 30 days thereafter, file a petition with the Department for review of the decision by the Board of Reimbursement Appeals established in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Board of Reimbursement Appeals may approve action taken by the Department or may remand the case to the Secretary with recommendation for redetermination of charges.

(c) Upon receiving a petition for review under subsection (b) of this Section, the Department shall thereupon notify the Board of Reimbursement Appeals which shall render its decision thereon within 30 days after the petition is filed and certify such decision to the Department. Concurrence of a majority of the Board is necessary in any such decision. Upon request of the Department, the State's Attorney of the county in which a client who is liable under this Act for payment of sums representing services charges resides, shall institute appropriate legal action against any such client, or within the time provided by law shall file a claim against the estate of the client who fails or refuses to pay those charges. The court shall order the payment of sums due for services charges for such period or periods of time as the circumstances require. The order may be entered against any defendant and may be based upon the proportionate ability of each defendant to contribute to the payment of sums representing services charges including the actual charges for services in facilities outside the Department where the Department has paid those charges. Orders for the payment of money may be enforced by attachment as for contempt against the persons of the defendants and, in addition, as other judgments for the payment of money, and costs may be adjudged against the defendants and apportioned among them.

(d) The money collected shall be deposited into the Mental Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 90-793, eff. 8-14-98; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1070. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-3-10, 3-5-4, 5-2-4, 5-4-1, 5-5-3, 5-5-6, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-8-1.3, 5-9-1.2, and 5-9-1.7 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Article 17 of Chapter III and Section 5-9-1.12 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-10)

Sec. 3-3-10. Eligibility after Revocation; Release under Supervision.

(a) A person whose parole or mandatory supervised release has been revoked may be reparoled or rereleased by the Board at any time to the full parole or mandatory supervised release term under Section 3-3-8, except that the time which the person shall remain subject to the Board shall not exceed (1) the imposed maximum term of imprisonment or confinement and the parole term for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 or (2) the term of imprisonment imposed by the court and the mandatory supervised release term for those sentenced under the law in effect on and after such effective date.

(b) If the Board sets no earlier release date:

(1) A person sentenced for any violation of law which occurred before January 1, 1973, shall be released under supervision 6 months prior to the expiration of his maximum sentence of imprisonment less good time credit under Section 3-6-3. ;

(2) Any person who has violated the conditions of his parole and been reconfined under Section 3-3-9 shall be released under supervision 6 months prior to the expiration of the term of his reconfinement under paragraph (a) of Section 3-3-9 less good time credit under Section 3-6-3. This paragraph shall not apply to persons serving terms of mandatory supervised release.

(3) Nothing herein shall require the release of a person who has violated his parole within 6 months of the date when his release under this Section would otherwise be mandatory.

(c) Persons released under this Section shall be subject to Sections 3-3-6, 3-3-7, 3-3-9, 3-14-1, 3-14-2, 3-14-2.5, 3-14-3, and 3-14-4.

(Source: P.A. 94-165, eff. 7-11-05; revised 8-29-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-5-4)

Sec. 3-5-4. Exchange of information for child support enforcement.

(a) The Department shall exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

(b) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under subsection (a) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 1-1-97; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/Ch. III Art. 17 heading)

ARTICLE 17. TRANSITIONAL HOUSING FOR SEX OFFENDERS

(Source: P.A. 94-161, eff. 7-11-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-17-1)

Sec. 3-17-1. Transitional housing for sex offenders. This Article may be cited as the Transitional Housing For Sex Offenders Law.

(Source: P.A. 94-161, eff. 7-11-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-17-5)

Sec. 3-17-5. Transitional housing; licensing.

(a) The Department of Corrections shall license transitional housing facilities for persons convicted of or placed on supervision for sex offenses as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(b) A transitional housing facility must meet the following criteria to be licensed by the Department:

(1) The facility shall provide housing to a sex offender who is in compliance with his or her parole, mandatory supervised release, probation, or supervision order for a period not to exceed 90 days, unless extended with approval from the Director or his or her designee. Notice of any extension approved shall be provided to the Prisoner Review Board.

(2) The Department of Corrections must approve a treatment plan and counseling for each sex offender residing in the transitional housing.

(3) The transitional housing facility must provide security 24 hours each day and 7 days each week as defined and approved by the Department.

(4) The facility must notify the police department, public and private elementary and secondary schools, public libraries, and each residential home and apartment complex located within 500 feet of the transitional housing facility of its initial licensure as a transitional housing facility, and of its continuing operation as a transitional housing facility annually thereafter.

(5) Upon its initial licensure as a transitional housing facility and during its licensure, each facility shall maintain at its main entrance a visible and conspicuous exterior sign identifying itself as, in letters at least 4 inches tall, a "Department of Corrections Licensed Transitional Housing Facility".

(6) Upon its initial licensure as a transitional housing facility, each facility shall file in the office of the county clerk of the county in which such facility is located, a certificate setting forth the name under which the facility is, or is to be, operated, and the true or real full name or names of the person, persons or entity operating the same, with the address of the facility. The certificate shall be executed and duly acknowledged by the person or persons so operating or intending to operate the facility. Notice of the filing of the certificate shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation published within the county in which the certificate is filed. The notice shall be published once a week for 3 consecutive weeks. The first publication shall be within 15 days after the certificate is filed in the office of the county clerk. Proof of publication shall be filed with the county clerk within 50 days from the date of filing the certificate. Upon receiving proof of publication, the clerk shall issue a receipt to the person filing the certificate, but no additional charge shall be assessed by the clerk for giving such receipt. Unless proof of publication is made to the clerk, the notification is void.

(7) Each licensed transitional housing facility shall be identified on the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry website, including the address of the facility together with the maximum possible number of sex offenders that the facility could house.

(c) The Department of Corrections shall establish rules consistent with this Section establishing licensing procedures and criteria for transitional housing facilities for sex offenders, and may create criteria for, and issue licenses for, different levels of facilities to be licensed. The Department is authorized to set and charge a licensing fee for each application for a transitional housing license. The rules shall be adopted within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. Facilities which on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly are currently housing and providing sex offender treatment to sex offenders may continue housing more than one sex offender on parole, mandatory supervised release, probation, or supervision for a period of 120 days after the adoption of licensure rules during which time the facility shall apply for a transitional housing license.

(d) The Department of Corrections shall maintain a file on each sex offender housed in a transitional housing facility. The file shall contain efforts of the Department in placing a sex offender in non-transitional housing, efforts of the Department to place the sex offender in a county from which he or she was convicted, the anticipated length of stay of each sex offender in the transitional housing facility, the number of sex offenders residing in the transitional housing facility, and the services to be provided the sex offender while he or she resides in the transitional housing facility.

(e) The Department of Corrections shall, on or before December 31 of each year, file a report with the General Assembly on the number of transitional housing facilities for sex offenders licensed by the Department, the addresses of each licensed facility, how many sex offenders are housed in each facility, and the particular sex offense that each resident of the transitional housing facility committed.

(Source: P.A. 94-161, eff. 7-11-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/Ch. III Art. 18 heading)

ARTICLE 18 17 . PROGRAM OF REENTRY INTO COMMUNITY

(Source: P.A. 94-383, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-18-5)

Sec. 3-18-5 3-17-5. Definitions. As used in this Article:

"Board" means the Prisoner Review Board.

"Department" means the Department of Corrections.

"Director" means the Director of Corrections.

"Offender" means a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State and sentenced to a term of imprisonment.

"Program" means a program established by a county or municipality under Section 3-18-10 3-17-10 for reentry of persons into the community who have been committed to the Department for commission of a felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-383, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-18-10)

Sec. 3-18-10 3-17-10. Establishment of program.

(a) A county with the approval of the county board or a municipality that maintains a jail or house of corrections with the approval of the corporate authorities may establish a program for reentry of offenders into the community who have been committed to the Department for commission of a felony. Any program shall be approved by the Director prior to placement of inmates in a program.

(b) If a county or municipality establishes a program under this Section, the sheriff in the case of a county or the police chief in the case of a municipality shall:

(1) Determine whether offenders who are referred by the Director of Corrections under Section 3-18-15 3-17-15 should be assigned to participate in a program.

(2) Supervise offenders participating in the program during their participation in the program.

(c) A county or municipality shall be liable for the well being and actions of inmates in its custody while in a program and shall indemnify the Department for any loss incurred by the Department caused while an inmate is in a program.

(d) An offender may not be assigned to participate in a program unless the Director of Corrections, in consultation with the Prisoner Review Board, grants prior approval of the assignment under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-383, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-18-15)

Sec. 3-18-15 3-17-15. Referral of person to sheriff or police chief; assignment of person by the Department.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, if a program has been established in a county or municipality in which an offender was sentenced to imprisonment for a felony, the Director may refer the offender to the county sheriff or municipal police chief if:

(1) The offender qualifies under the standards established by the Director in subsection (c);

(2) The offender has demonstrated a willingness to:

(A) engage in employment or participate in vocational rehabilitation or job skills training; and

(B) meet any existing obligation for restitution to any victim of his or her crime; and

(3) the offender is within one year of his or her probable release from prison, as determined by the Director.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, if the Director is notified by the sheriff or police chief under Section 3-18-10 3-17-10 that an offender would benefit by being assigned to the custody of the sheriff or police chief to participate in the program, the Director shall review whether the offender should be assigned to participate in a program for not longer than the remainder of his or her sentence.

(c) The Director, by rule, shall adopt standards setting forth which offenders are eligible to be assigned to the custody of the sheriff or police chief to participate in the program under this Section. The standards adopted by the Director must be approved by the Prisoner Review Board and must provide that an offender is ineligible for participation in the program who:

(1) has recently committed a serious infraction of the rules of an institution or facility of the Department;

(2) has not performed the duties assigned to him or her in a faithful and orderly manner;

(3) has, within the immediately preceding 5 years, been convicted of any crime involving the use or threatened use of force or violence against a victim that is punishable as a felony;

(4) has ever been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(5) has escaped or attempted to escape from any jail or correctional institution for adults; or

(6) has not made an effort in good faith to participate in or to complete any educational or vocational program or any program of treatment, as ordered by the Director.

(d) The Director shall adopt rules requiring offenders who are assigned to the custody of the sheriff or police chief under this Section to reimburse the Department for the cost of their participation in a program, to the extent of their ability to pay.

(e) The sheriff or police chief may return the offender to the custody of the Department at any time for any violation of the terms and conditions imposed by the Director in consultation with the Prisoner Review Board.

(f) If an offender assigned to the custody of the sheriff or police chief under this Section violates any of the terms or conditions imposed by the Director in consultation with the Prisoner Review Board and is returned to the custody of the Department, the offender forfeits all or part of the credits for good behavior earned by him or her before he or she was returned to the custody of the Department, as determined by the Director. The Director may provide for a forfeiture of credits under this subsection (f) only after proof of the violation and notice is given to the offender. The Director may restore credits so forfeited for such reasons as he or she considers proper. The Director, by rule, shall establish procedures for review of forfeiture of good behavior credit. The decision of the Director regarding such a forfeiture is final.

(g) The assignment of an offender to the custody of the sheriff or police chief under this Section shall be deemed:

(1) a continuation of his or her imprisonment and not a release on parole or mandatory supervised release; and

(2) for the purposes of Section 3-8-1, an assignment to a facility of the Department, except that the offender is not entitled to obtain any benefits or to participate in any programs provided to offenders in the custody of the Department.

(h) An offender does not have a right to be assigned to the custody of the sheriff or police chief under this Section, or to remain in that custody after such an assignment. It is not intended that the establishment or operation of a program creates any right or interest in liberty or property or establishes a basis for any cause of action against this State or its political subdivisions, agencies, boards, commissions, departments, officers, or employees.

(Source: P.A. 94-383, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-18-20)

Sec. 3-18-20 3-17-20. Director to contract for certain services for offenders in program.

(a) The Director may enter into one or more contracts with one or more public or private entities to provide any of the following services, as necessary and appropriate, to offenders participating in a program:

(1) transitional housing;

(2) treatment pertaining to substance abuse or mental health;

(3) training in life skills;

(4) vocational rehabilitation and job skills training; and

(5) any other services required by offenders who are participating in a program.

(b) The Director shall, as necessary and appropriate, provide referrals and information regarding:

(1) any of the services provided pursuant to subsection (a);

(2) access and availability of any appropriate self-help groups;

(3) social services for families and children; and

(4) permanent housing.

(c) The Director may apply for and accept any gift, donation, bequest, grant, or other source of money to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(d) As used in this Section, training in life skills includes, without limitation, training in the areas of: (1) parenting; (2) improving human relationships; (3) preventing domestic violence; (4) maintaining emotional and physical health; (5) preventing abuse of alcohol and drugs; (6) preparing for and obtaining employment; and (7) budgeting, consumerism, and personal finances.

(Source: P.A. 94-383, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-18-25)

Sec. 3-18-25 3-17-25. Monitoring of participant in program. The Department shall retain the authority to monitor each person who is participating in a program under Section 3-18-15 3-17-15. Such authority shall include site inspections, review of program activities, and access to inmate files and records.

(Source: P.A. 94-383, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/Ch. III Art. 19 heading)

ARTICLE 19 17 . METHAMPHETAMINE ABUSERS PILOT PROGRAMS

(Source: P.A. 94-549, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-19-5)

Sec. 3-19-5 3-17-5. Methamphetamine abusers pilot program; Franklin County Juvenile Detention Center.

(a) There is created the Methamphetamine Abusers Pilot Program at the Franklin County Juvenile Detention Center. The Program shall be established upon adoption of a resolution or ordinance by the Franklin County Board and with the consent of the Secretary of Human Services.

(b) A person convicted of the unlawful possession of methamphetamine under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, after an assessment by a designated program licensed under the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that the person is a methamphetamine abuser or addict and may benefit from treatment for his or her abuse or addiction, may be ordered by the court to be committed to the Program established under this Section.

(c) The Program shall consist of medical and psychiatric treatment for the abuse or addiction for a period of at least 90 days and not to exceed 180 days. A treatment plan for each person participating in the Program shall be approved by the court in consultation with the Department of Human Services. The Secretary of Human Services shall appoint a Program Administrator to operate the Program who shall be licensed to provide residential treatment for alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency.

(d) Persons committed to the Program who are 17 years of age or older shall be separated from minors under 17 years of age who are detained in the Juvenile Detention Center and there shall be no contact between them.

(e) Upon the establishment of the Pilot Program, the Secretary of Human Services shall inform the chief judge of each judicial circuit of this State of the existence of the Program and its date of termination.

(f) The Secretary of Human Services, after consultation with the Program Administrator, shall determine the effectiveness of the Program in rehabilitating methamphetamine abusers and addicts committed to the Program. The Secretary shall prepare a report based on his or her assessment of the effectiveness of the Program and shall submit the report to the Governor and General Assembly within one year after January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-549) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and each year thereafter that the Program continues operation.

(Source: P.A. 94-549, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-29-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-19-10)

Sec. 3-19-10 3-17-10. Methamphetamine abusers pilot program; Franklin County Jail.

(a) There is created the Methamphetamine Abusers Pilot Program at the Franklin County Jail. The Program shall be established upon adoption of a resolution or ordinance by the Franklin County Board and with the consent of the Secretary of Human Services.

(b) A person convicted of the unlawful possession of methamphetamine under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, after an assessment by a designated program licensed under the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that the person is a methamphetamine abuser or addict and may benefit from treatment for his or her abuse or addiction, may be ordered by the court to be committed to the Program established under this Section.

(c) The Program shall consist of medical and psychiatric treatment for the abuse or addiction for a period of at least 90 days and not to exceed 180 days. A treatment plan for each person participating in the Program shall be approved by the court in consultation with the Department of Human Services. The Secretary of Human Services shall appoint a Program Administrator to operate the Program who shall be licensed to provide residential treatment for alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency.

(d) Upon the establishment of the Pilot Program, the Secretary of Human Services shall inform the chief judge of each judicial circuit of this State of the existence of the Program and its date of termination.

(e) The Secretary of Human Services, after consultation with the Program Administrator, shall determine the effectiveness of the Program in rehabilitating methamphetamine abusers and addicts committed to the Program. The Secretary shall prepare a report based on his or her assessment of the effectiveness of the Program and shall submit the report to the Governor and General Assembly within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and each year thereafter that the Program continues operation.

(Source: P.A. 94-549, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-21-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-2-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-2-4)

Sec. 5-2-4. Proceedings after Acquittal by Reason of Insanity.

(a) After a finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity under Sections 104-25, 115-3 or 115-4 of The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the defendant shall be ordered to the Department of Human Services for an evaluation as to whether he is in need of mental health services. The order shall specify whether the evaluation shall be conducted on an inpatient or outpatient basis. If the evaluation is to be conducted on an inpatient basis, the defendant shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons why such placement is not necessary. After the evaluation and during the period of time required to determine the appropriate placement, the defendant shall remain in jail. Upon completion of the placement process the sheriff shall be notified and shall transport the defendant to the designated facility.

The Department shall provide the Court with a report of its evaluation within 30 days of the date of this order. The Court shall hold a hearing as provided under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine if the individual is: (a) in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; (b) in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis; (c) a person not in need of mental health services. The Court shall enter its findings.

If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall order the defendant to the Department of Human Services. The defendant shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons why such placement is not necessary. Such defendants placed in a secure setting shall not be permitted outside the facility's housing unit unless escorted or accompanied by personnel of the Department of Human Services or with the prior approval of the Court for unsupervised on-grounds privileges as provided herein. Any defendant placed in a secure setting pursuant to this Section, transported to court hearings or other necessary appointments off facility grounds by personnel of the Department of Human Services, shall be placed in security devices or otherwise secured during the period of transportation to assure secure transport of the defendant and the safety of Department of Human Services personnel and others. These security measures shall not constitute restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services, but not on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall conditionally release the defendant, under such conditions as set forth in this Section as will reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress and participation in treatment or rehabilitation and the safety of the defendant and others. If the Court finds the person not in need of mental health services, then the Court shall order the defendant discharged from custody.

(a-1) (1) Definitions. : For the purposes of this Section:

(A) (Blank).

(B) "In need of mental health services on an inpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity but who due to mental illness is reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another and who would benefit from inpatient care or is in need of inpatient care.

(C) "In need of mental health services on an outpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity who is not in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, but is in need of outpatient care, drug and/or alcohol rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, or family therapy, or chemotherapy.

(D) "Conditional Release" means: the release from either the custody of the Department of Human Services or the custody of the Court of a person who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity under such conditions as the Court may impose which reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment or habilitation and the safety of the defendant and others. The Court shall consider such terms and conditions which may include, but need not be limited to, outpatient care, alcoholic and drug rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, family, and chemotherapy, random testing to ensure the defendant's timely and continuous taking of any medicines prescribed to control or manage his or her conduct or mental state, and periodic checks with the legal authorities and/or the Department of Human Services. The Court may order as a condition of conditional release that the defendant not contact the victim of the offense that resulted in the finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity or any other person. The Court may order the Department of Human Services to provide care to any person conditionally released under this Section. The Department may contract with any public or private agency in order to discharge any responsibilities imposed under this Section. The Department shall monitor the provision of services to persons conditionally released under this Section and provide periodic reports to the Court concerning the services and the condition of the defendant. Whenever a person is conditionally released pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney for the county in which the hearing is held shall designate in writing the name, telephone number, and address of a person employed by him or her who shall be notified in the event that either the reporting agency or the Department decides that the conditional release of the defendant should be revoked or modified pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section. Such conditional release shall be for a period of five years. However, the defendant, the person or facility rendering the treatment, therapy, program or outpatient care, the Department, or the State's Attorney may petition the Court for an extension of the conditional release period for an additional 5 years. Upon receipt of such a petition, the Court shall hold a hearing consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (a), this paragraph (a-1), and paragraph (f) of this Section, shall determine whether the defendant should continue to be subject to the terms of conditional release, and shall enter an order either extending the defendant's period of conditional release for an additional 5 year period or discharging the defendant. Additional 5-year periods of conditional release may be ordered following a hearing as provided in this Section. However, in no event shall the defendant's period of conditional release continue beyond the maximum period of commitment ordered by the Court pursuant to paragraph (b) of this Section. These provisions for extension of conditional release shall only apply to defendants conditionally released on or after August 8, 2003 the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly. However the extension provisions of Public Act 83-1449 apply only to defendants charged with a forcible felony.

(E) "Facility director" means the chief officer of a mental health or developmental disabilities facility or his or her designee or the supervisor of a program of treatment or habilitation or his or her designee. "Designee" may include a physician, clinical psychologist, social worker, nurse, or clinical professional counselor.

(b) If the Court finds the defendant in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, the admission, detention, care, treatment or habilitation, treatment plans, review proceedings, including review of treatment and treatment plans, and discharge of the defendant after such order shall be under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, except that the initial order for admission of a defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity shall be for an indefinite period of time. Such period of commitment shall not exceed the maximum length of time that the defendant would have been required to serve, less credit for good behavior as provided in Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, before becoming eligible for release had he been convicted of and received the maximum sentence for the most serious crime for which he has been acquitted by reason of insanity. The Court shall determine the maximum period of commitment by an appropriate order. During this period of time, the defendant shall not be permitted to be in the community in any manner, including but not limited to off-grounds privileges, with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services, unsupervised on-grounds privileges, discharge or conditional or temporary release, except by a plan as provided in this Section. In no event shall a defendant's continued unauthorized absence be a basis for discharge. Not more than 30 days after admission and every 60 days thereafter so long as the initial order remains in effect, the facility director shall file a treatment plan report in writing with the court and forward a copy of the treatment plan report to the clerk of the court, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney, if the defendant is represented by counsel, or to a person authorized by the defendant under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to be sent a copy of the report. The report shall include an opinion as to whether the defendant is currently in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis or in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis. The report shall also summarize the basis for those findings and provide a current summary of the following items from the treatment plan: (1) an assessment of the defendant's treatment needs, (2) a description of the services recommended for treatment, (3) the goals of each type of element of service, (4) an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and (5) a designation of the qualified professional responsible for the implementation of the plan. The report may also include unsupervised on-grounds privileges, off-grounds privileges (with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services), home visits and participation in work programs, but only where such privileges have been approved by specific court order, which order may include such conditions on the defendant as the Court may deem appropriate and necessary to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and the safety of the defendant and others.

(c) Every defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity and subsequently found to be in need of mental health services shall be represented by counsel in all proceedings under this Section and under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(1) The Court shall appoint as counsel the public defender or an attorney licensed by this State.

(2) Upon filing with the Court of a verified statement of legal services rendered by the private attorney appointed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Court shall determine a reasonable fee for such services. If the defendant is unable to pay the fee, the Court shall enter an order upon the State to pay the entire fee or such amount as the defendant is unable to pay from funds appropriated by the General Assembly for that purpose.

(d) When the facility director determines that:

(1) the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; and

(2) the defendant may be conditionally released because he or she is still in need of mental health services or that the defendant may be discharged as not in need of any mental health services; or

(3) the defendant no longer requires placement in a secure setting;

the facility director shall give written notice to the Court, State's Attorney and defense attorney. Such notice shall set forth in detail the basis for the recommendation of the facility director, and specify clearly the recommendations, if any, of the facility director, concerning conditional release. Any recommendation for conditional release shall include an evaluation of the defendant's need for psychotropic medication, what provisions should be made, if any, to ensure that the defendant will continue to receive psychotropic medication following discharge, and what provisions should be made to assure the safety of the defendant and others in the event the defendant is no longer receiving psychotropic medication. Within 30 days of the notification by the facility director, the Court shall set a hearing and make a finding as to whether the defendant is:

(i) (blank); or

(ii) in need of mental health services in the form of inpatient care; or

(iii) in need of mental health services but not subject to inpatient care; or

(iv) no longer in need of mental health services; or

(v) no longer requires placement in a secure setting.

Upon finding by the Court, the Court shall enter its findings and such appropriate order as provided in subsections subsection (a) and (a-1) of this Section.

(e) A defendant admitted pursuant to this Section, or any person on his behalf, may file a petition for treatment plan review, transfer to a non-secure setting within the Department of Human Services or discharge or conditional release under the standards of this Section in the Court which rendered the verdict. Upon receipt of a petition for treatment plan review, transfer to a non-secure setting or discharge or conditional release, the Court shall set a hearing to be held within 120 days. Thereafter, no new petition may be filed for 180 days without leave of the Court.

(f) The Court shall direct that notice of the time and place of the hearing be served upon the defendant, the facility director, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney. If requested by either the State or the defense or if the Court feels it is appropriate, an impartial examination of the defendant by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code who is not in the employ of the Department of Human Services shall be ordered, and the report considered at the time of the hearing.

(g) The findings of the Court shall be established by clear and convincing evidence. The burden of proof and the burden of going forth with the evidence rest with the defendant or any person on the defendant's behalf when a hearing is held to review a petition filed by or on behalf of the defendant. The evidence shall be presented in open Court with the right of confrontation and cross-examination. Such evidence may include, but is not limited to:

(1) whether the defendant appreciates the harm caused by the defendant to others and the community by his or her prior conduct that resulted in the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity;

(2) Whether the person appreciates the criminality of conduct similar similiar to the conduct for which he or she was originally charged in this matter;

(3) the current state of the defendant's illness;

(4) what, if any, medications the defendant is taking to control his or her mental illness;

(5) what, if any, adverse physical side effects the medication has on the defendant;

(6) the length of time it would take for the defendant's mental health to deteriorate if the defendant stopped taking prescribed medication;

(7) the defendant's history or potential for alcohol and drug abuse;

(8) the defendant's past criminal history;

(9) any specialized physical or medical needs of the defendant;

(10) any family participation or involvement expected upon release and what is the willingness and ability of the family to participate or be involved;

(11) the defendant's potential to be a danger to himself, herself, or others; and

(12) any other factor or factors the Court deems appropriate.

(h) Before the court orders that the defendant be discharged or conditionally released, it shall order the facility director to establish a discharge plan that includes a plan for the defendant's shelter, support, and medication. If appropriate, the court shall order that the facility director establish a program to train the defendant in self-medication under standards established by the Department of Human Services. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services it shall order the facility director to discharge the defendant. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is in need of mental health services, and no longer in need of inpatient care, it shall order the facility director to release the defendant under such conditions as the Court deems appropriate and as provided by this Section. Such conditional release shall be imposed for a period of 5 years as provided in paragraph (1) (D) of subsection (a-1) (a) and shall be subject to later modification by the Court as provided by this Section. If the Court finds consistent with the provisions in this Section that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall order the facility director not to discharge or release the defendant in accordance with paragraph (b) of this Section.

(i) If within the period of the defendant's conditional release the State's Attorney determines that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of his or her release, the State's Attorney may petition the Court to revoke or modify the conditional release of the defendant. Upon the filing of such petition the defendant may be remanded to the custody of the Department, or to any other mental health facility designated by the Department, pending the resolution of the petition. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the emergency admission of a defendant pursuant to Article VI of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the voluntary admission of the defendant pursuant to Article IV of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the Court determines, after hearing evidence, that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of release, the Court shall order a hearing to be held consistent with the provisions of paragraph (f) and (g) of this Section. At such hearing, if the Court finds that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall enter an order remanding him or her to the Department of Human Services or other facility. If the defendant is remanded to the Department of Human Services, he or she shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons that such placement is not necessary. If the Court finds that the defendant continues to be in need of mental health services but not on an inpatient basis, it may modify the conditions of the original release in order to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and his or her safety and the safety of others in accordance with the standards established in paragraph (1) (D) of subsection (a-1) (a). Nothing in this Section shall limit a Court's contempt powers or any other powers of a Court.

(j) An order of admission under this Section does not affect the remedy of habeas corpus.

(k) In the event of a conflict between this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the provisions of this Section shall govern.

(l) This amendatory Act shall apply to all persons who have been found not guilty by reason of insanity and who are presently committed to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (now the Department of Human Services).

(m) The Clerk of the Court shall, after the entry of an order of transfer to a non-secure setting of the Department of Human Services or discharge or conditional release, transmit a certified copy of the order to the Department of Human Services, and the sheriff of the county from which the defendant was admitted. The Clerk of the Court shall also transmit a certified copy of the order of discharge or conditional release to the Illinois Department of State Police, to the proper law enforcement agency for the municipality where the offense took place, and to the sheriff of the county into which the defendant is conditionally discharged. The Illinois Department of State Police shall maintain a centralized record of discharged or conditionally released defendants while they are under court supervision for access and use of appropriate law enforcement agencies.

(Source: P.A. 93-78, eff. 1-1-04; 93-473, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-15-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-1)

Sec. 5-4-1. Sentencing Hearing.

(a) Except when the death penalty is sought under hearing procedures otherwise specified, after a determination of guilt, a hearing shall be held to impose the sentence. However, prior to the imposition of sentence on an individual being sentenced for an offense based upon a charge for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the individual must undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol or other drug abuse problem exists and the extent of such a problem. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. However, if the individual is not a resident of Illinois, the court may, in its discretion, accept an evaluation from a program in the state of such individual's residence. The court may in its sentencing order approve an eligible defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections impact incarceration program as provided in Section 5-8-1.1 or 5-8-1.3. The court may in its sentencing order recommend a defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections substance abuse treatment program as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of Section 3-2-2 conditioned upon the defendant being accepted in a program by the Department of Corrections. At the hearing the court shall:

(1) consider the evidence, if any, received upon the trial;

(2) consider any presentence reports;

(3) consider the financial impact of incarceration based on the financial impact statement filed with the clerk of the court by the Department of Corrections;

(4) consider evidence and information offered by the parties in aggravation and mitigation;

(4.5) consider substance abuse treatment, eligibility screening, and an assessment, if any, of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(5) hear arguments as to sentencing alternatives;

(6) afford the defendant the opportunity to make a statement in his own behalf;

(7) afford the victim of a violent crime or a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a qualified individual affected by: (i) a violation of Section 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a violation of Section 55 or Section 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (ii) a Class 4 felony violation of Section 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, or 11-19 of the Criminal Code of 1961, committed by the defendant the opportunity to make a statement concerning the impact on the victim and to offer evidence in aggravation or mitigation; provided that the statement and evidence offered in aggravation or mitigation must first be prepared in writing in conjunction with the State's Attorney before it may be presented orally at the hearing. Any sworn testimony offered by the victim is subject to the defendant's right to cross-examine. All statements and evidence offered under this paragraph (7) shall become part of the record of the court. For the purpose of this paragraph (7), "qualified individual" means any person who (i) lived or worked within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place; and (ii) is familiar with various public places within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), "qualified individual" includes any peace officer, or any member of any duly organized State, county, or municipal peace unit assigned to the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place;

(8) in cases of reckless homicide afford the victim's spouse, guardians, parents or other immediate family members an opportunity to make oral statements; and

(9) in cases involving a felony sex offense as defined under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, consider the results of the sex offender evaluation conducted pursuant to Section 5-3-2 of this Act.

(b) All sentences shall be imposed by the judge based upon his independent assessment of the elements specified above and any agreement as to sentence reached by the parties. The judge who presided at the trial or the judge who accepted the plea of guilty shall impose the sentence unless he is no longer sitting as a judge in that court. Where the judge does not impose sentence at the same time on all defendants who are convicted as a result of being involved in the same offense, the defendant or the State's Attorney may advise the sentencing court of the disposition of any other defendants who have been sentenced.

(c) In imposing a sentence for a violent crime or for an offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, when such offense resulted in the personal injury to someone other than the defendant, the trial judge shall specify on the record the particular evidence, information, factors in mitigation and aggravation or other reasons that led to his sentencing determination. The full verbatim record of the sentencing hearing shall be filed with the clerk of the court and shall be a public record.

(c-1) In imposing a sentence for the offense of aggravated kidnapping for ransom, home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, the trial judge shall make a finding as to whether the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, and shall enter that finding and the basis for that finding in the record.

(c-2) If the defendant is sentenced to prison, other than when a sentence of natural life imprisonment or a sentence of death is imposed, at the time the sentence is imposed the judge shall state on the record in open court the approximate period of time the defendant will serve in custody according to the then current statutory rules and regulations for early release found in Section 3-6-3 and other related provisions of this Code. This statement is intended solely to inform the public, has no legal effect on the defendant's actual release, and may not be relied on by the defendant on appeal.

The judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(3) of Section 3-6-3, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her good conduct credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 180 days additional good conduct credit for meritorious service. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day good conduct credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(3) of Section 3-6-3, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3 committed on or after June 19, 1998, and other than when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and other than when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her good conduct credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 90 days additional good conduct credit for meritorious service. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day good conduct credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3, other than first degree murder, and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, and when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is entitled to no more than 4 1/2 days of good conduct credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment. Therefore, this defendant will serve at least 85% of his or her sentence. Assuming the defendant receives 4 1/2 days credit for each month of his or her sentence, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations receives lesser credit, the actual time served in prison will be longer."

When a sentence of imprisonment is imposed for first degree murder and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is not entitled to good conduct credit. Therefore, this defendant will serve 100% of his or her sentence."

When the sentencing order recommends placement in a substance abuse program for any offense that results in incarceration in a Department of Corrections facility and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the judge's statement, in addition to any other judge's statement required under this Section, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant shall receive no good conduct credit under clause (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3 until he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program or receives a waiver from the Director of Corrections pursuant to clause (4.5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3."

(d) When the defendant is committed to the Department of Corrections, the State's Attorney shall and counsel for the defendant may file a statement with the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the department, agency or institution to which the defendant is committed to furnish such department, agency or institution with the facts and circumstances of the offense for which the person was committed together with all other factual information accessible to them in regard to the person prior to his commitment relative to his habits, associates, disposition and reputation and any other facts and circumstances which may aid such department, agency or institution during its custody of such person. The clerk shall within 10 days after receiving any such statements transmit a copy to such department, agency or institution and a copy to the other party, provided, however, that this shall not be cause for delay in conveying the person to the department, agency or institution to which he has been committed.

(e) The clerk of the court shall transmit to the department, agency or institution, if any, to which the defendant is committed, the following:

(1) the sentence imposed;

(2) any statement by the court of the basis for imposing the sentence;

(3) any presentence reports;

(3.5) any sex offender evaluations;

(3.6) any substance abuse treatment eligibility screening and assessment of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(4) the number of days, if any, which the defendant has been in custody and for which he is entitled to credit against the sentence, which information shall be provided to the clerk by the sheriff;

(4.1) any finding of great bodily harm made by the court with respect to an offense enumerated in subsection (c-1);

(5) all statements filed under subsection (d) of this Section;

(6) any medical or mental health records or summaries of the defendant;

(7) the municipality where the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense has occurred, where such municipality has a population of more than 25,000 persons;

(8) all statements made and evidence offered under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of this Section; and

(9) all additional matters which the court directs the clerk to transmit.

(Source: P.A. 93-213, eff. 7-18-03; 93-317, eff. 1-1-04; 93-354, eff. 9-1-03; 93-616, eff. 1-1-04; 94-156, eff. 7-8-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 94-1035)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) Except as provided in Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, every person convicted of an offense shall be sentenced as provided in this Section.

(b) The following options shall be appropriate dispositions, alone or in combination, for all felonies and misdemeanors other than those identified in subsection (c) of this Section:

(1) A period of probation.

(2) A term of periodic imprisonment.

(3) A term of conditional discharge.

(4) A term of imprisonment.

(5) An order directing the offender to clean up and repair the damage, if the offender was convicted under paragraph (h) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (now repealed).

(6) A fine.

(7) An order directing the offender to make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(8) A sentence of participation in a county impact incarceration program under Section 5-8-1.2 of this Code.

(9) A term of imprisonment in combination with a term of probation when the offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.

Neither a fine nor restitution shall be the sole disposition for a felony and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition.

(c) (1) When a defendant is found guilty of first degree murder the State may either seek a sentence of imprisonment under Section 5-8-1 of this Code, or where appropriate seek a sentence of death under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing heroin or cocaine or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Q) A violation of Section 20-1.2 or 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraph (4.3) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraph (4.5) and paragraph (4.6) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) A minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) The court may sentence an offender convicted of a business offense or a petty offense or a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(6) In no case shall an offender be eligible for a disposition of probation or conditional discharge for a Class 1 felony committed while he was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(7) When a defendant is adjudged a habitual criminal under Article 33B of the Criminal Code of 1961, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(8) When a defendant, over the age of 21 years, is convicted of a Class 1 or Class 2 felony, after having twice been convicted in any state or federal court of an offense that contains the same elements as an offense now classified in Illinois as a Class 2 or greater Class felony and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts, such defendant shall be sentenced as a Class X offender. This paragraph shall not apply unless (1) the first felony was committed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977; and (2) the second felony was committed after conviction on the first; and (3) the third felony was committed after conviction on the second. A person sentenced as a Class X offender under this paragraph is not eligible to apply for treatment as a condition of probation as provided by Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(f) This Article shall not deprive a court in other proceedings to order a forfeiture of property, to suspend or cancel a license, to remove a person from office, or to impose any other civil penalty.

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-21, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substance Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) A court may not impose a sentence or disposition for a felony or misdemeanor that requires the defendant to be implanted or injected with or to use any form of birth control.

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional good conduct credit for meritorious service as provided under Section 3-6-6.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, or 16-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 93-44, eff. 7-1-03; 93-156, eff. 1-1-04; 93-169, eff. 7-10-03; 93-301, eff. 1-1-04; 93-419, eff. 1-1-04; 93-546, eff. 1-1-04; 93-694, eff. 7-9-04; 93-782, eff. 1-1-05; 93-800, eff. 1-1-05; 93-1014, eff. 1-1-05; 94-72, eff. 1-1-06; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-993, eff. 1-1-07.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 94-1035)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) Except as provided in Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, every person convicted of an offense shall be sentenced as provided in this Section.

(b) The following options shall be appropriate dispositions, alone or in combination, for all felonies and misdemeanors other than those identified in subsection (c) of this Section:

(1) A period of probation.

(2) A term of periodic imprisonment.

(3) A term of conditional discharge.

(4) A term of imprisonment.

(5) An order directing the offender to clean up and repair the damage, if the offender was convicted under paragraph (h) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (now repealed).

(6) A fine.

(7) An order directing the offender to make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(8) A sentence of participation in a county impact incarceration program under Section 5-8-1.2 of this Code.

(9) A term of imprisonment in combination with a term of probation when the offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.

Neither a fine nor restitution shall be the sole disposition for a felony and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition.

(c) (1) When a defendant is found guilty of first degree murder the State may either seek a sentence of imprisonment under Section 5-8-1 of this Code, or where appropriate seek a sentence of death under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing heroin or cocaine or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Q) A violation of Section 20-1.2 or 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraph (4.3) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraph (4.5) and paragraph (4.6) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) A minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) The court may sentence an offender convicted of a business offense or a petty offense or a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any penalties imposed under paragraph (5) of this subsection (c), a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) In no case shall an offender be eligible for a disposition of probation or conditional discharge for a Class 1 felony committed while he was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(7) When a defendant is adjudged a habitual criminal under Article 33B of the Criminal Code of 1961, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(8) When a defendant, over the age of 21 years, is convicted of a Class 1 or Class 2 felony, after having twice been convicted in any state or federal court of an offense that contains the same elements as an offense now classified in Illinois as a Class 2 or greater Class felony and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts, such defendant shall be sentenced as a Class X offender. This paragraph shall not apply unless (1) the first felony was committed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977; and (2) the second felony was committed after conviction on the first; and (3) the third felony was committed after conviction on the second. A person sentenced as a Class X offender under this paragraph is not eligible to apply for treatment as a condition of probation as provided by Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(f) This Article shall not deprive a court in other proceedings to order a forfeiture of property, to suspend or cancel a license, to remove a person from office, or to impose any other civil penalty.

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-21, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substance Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) A court may not impose a sentence or disposition for a felony or misdemeanor that requires the defendant to be implanted or injected with or to use any form of birth control.

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional good conduct credit for meritorious service as provided under Section 3-6-6.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, or 16-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 93-44, eff. 7-1-03; 93-156, eff. 1-1-04; 93-169, eff. 7-10-03; 93-301, eff. 1-1-04; 93-419, eff. 1-1-04; 93-546, eff. 1-1-04; 93-694, eff. 7-9-04; 93-782, eff. 1-1-05; 93-800, eff. 1-1-05; 93-1014, eff. 1-1-05; 94-72, eff. 1-1-06; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-993, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1035, eff. 7-1-07; revised 8-28-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-6)

Sec. 5-5-6. In all convictions for offenses in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 in which the person received any injury to their person or damage to their real or personal property as a result of the criminal act of the defendant, the court shall order restitution as provided in this Section. In all other cases, except cases in which restitution is required under this Section, the court must at the sentence hearing determine whether restitution is an appropriate sentence to be imposed on each defendant convicted of an offense. If the court determines that an order directing the offender to make restitution is appropriate, the offender may be sentenced to make restitution. The court may consider restitution an appropriate sentence to be imposed on each defendant convicted of an offense in addition to a sentence of imprisonment. The sentence of the defendant to a term of imprisonment is not a mitigating factor that prevents the court from ordering the defendant to pay restitution. If the offender is sentenced to make restitution the Court shall determine the restitution as hereinafter set forth:

(a) At the sentence hearing, the court shall determine whether the property may be restored in kind to the possession of the owner or the person entitled to possession thereof; or whether the defendant is possessed of sufficient skill to repair and restore property damaged; or whether the defendant should be required to make restitution in cash, for out-of-pocket expenses, damages, losses, or injuries found to have been proximately caused by the conduct of the defendant or another for whom the defendant is legally accountable under the provisions of Article V of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) In fixing the amount of restitution to be paid in cash, the court shall allow credit for property returned in kind, for property damages ordered to be repaired by the defendant, and for property ordered to be restored by the defendant; and after granting the credit, the court shall assess the actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, and injuries suffered by the victim named in the charge and any other victims who may also have suffered out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, and injuries proximately caused by the same criminal conduct of the defendant, and insurance carriers who have indemnified the named victim or other victims for the out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, provided that in no event shall restitution be ordered to be paid on account of pain and suffering. If a defendant is placed on supervision for, or convicted of, domestic battery, the defendant shall be required to pay restitution to any domestic violence shelter in which the victim and any other family or household members lived because of the domestic battery. The amount of the restitution shall equal the actual expenses of the domestic violence shelter in providing housing and any other services for the victim and any other family or household members living at the shelter. If a defendant fails to pay restitution in the manner or within the time period specified by the court, the court may enter an order directing the sheriff to seize any real or personal property of a defendant to the extent necessary to satisfy the order of restitution and dispose of the property by public sale. All proceeds from such sale in excess of the amount of restitution plus court costs and the costs of the sheriff in conducting the sale shall be paid to the defendant. The defendant convicted of domestic battery, if a person under 18 years of age was present and witnessed the domestic battery of the victim, is liable to pay restitution for the cost of any counseling required for the child at the discretion of the court.

(c) In cases where more than one defendant is accountable for the same criminal conduct that results in out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, each defendant shall be ordered to pay restitution in the amount of the total actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries to the victim proximately caused by the conduct of all of the defendants who are legally accountable for the offense.

(1) In no event shall the victim be entitled to recover restitution in excess of the actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, proximately caused by the conduct of all of the defendants.

(2) As between the defendants, the court may apportion the restitution that is payable in proportion to each co-defendant's culpability in the commission of the offense.

(3) In the absence of a specific order apportioning the restitution, each defendant shall bear his pro rata share of the restitution.

(4) As between the defendants, each defendant shall be entitled to a pro rata reduction in the total restitution required to be paid to the victim for amounts of restitution actually paid by co-defendants, and defendants who shall have paid more than their pro rata share shall be entitled to refunds to be computed by the court as additional amounts are paid by co-defendants.

(d) In instances where a defendant has more than one criminal charge pending against him in a single case, or more than one case, and the defendant stands convicted of one or more charges, a plea agreement negotiated by the State's Attorney and the defendants may require the defendant to make restitution to victims of charges that have been dismissed or which it is contemplated will be dismissed under the terms of the plea agreement, and under the agreement, the court may impose a sentence of restitution on the charge or charges of which the defendant has been convicted that would require the defendant to make restitution to victims of other offenses as provided in the plea agreement.

(e) The court may require the defendant to apply the balance of the cash bond, after payment of court costs, and any fine that may be imposed to the payment of restitution.

(f) Taking into consideration the ability of the defendant to pay, including any real or personal property or any other assets of the defendant, the court shall determine whether restitution shall be paid in a single payment or in installments, and shall fix a period of time not in excess of 5 years or the period of time specified in subsection (f-1), not including periods of incarceration, within which payment of restitution is to be paid in full. Complete restitution shall be paid in as short a time period as possible. However, if the court deems it necessary and in the best interest of the victim, the court may extend beyond 5 years the period of time within which the payment of restitution is to be paid. If the defendant is ordered to pay restitution and the court orders that restitution is to be paid over a period greater than 6 months, the court shall order that the defendant make monthly payments; the court may waive this requirement of monthly payments only if there is a specific finding of good cause for waiver.

(f-1)(1) In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law and any restitution ordered under this Section that did not include long-term physical health care costs, the court may, upon conviction of any misdemeanor or felony, order a defendant to pay restitution to a victim in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (f-1) if the victim has suffered physical injury as a result of the offense that is reasonably probable to require or has required long-term physical health care for more than 3 months. As used in this subsection (f-1) "long-term physical health care" includes mental health care.

(2) The victim's estimate of long-term physical health care costs may be made as part of a victim impact statement under Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or made separately. The court shall enter the long-term physical health care restitution order at the time of sentencing. An order of restitution made under this subsection (f-1) shall fix a monthly amount to be paid by the defendant for as long as long-term physical health care of the victim is required as a result of the offense. The order may exceed the length of any sentence imposed upon the defendant for the criminal activity. The court shall include as a special finding in the judgment of conviction its determination of the monthly cost of long-term physical health care.

(3) After a sentencing order has been entered, the court may from time to time, on the petition of either the defendant or the victim, or upon its own motion, enter an order for restitution for long-term physical care or modify the existing order for restitution for long-term physical care as to the amount of monthly payments. Any modification of the order shall be based only upon a substantial change of circumstances relating to the cost of long-term physical health care or the financial condition of either the defendant or the victim. The petition shall be filed as part of the original criminal docket.

(g) In addition to the sentences provided for in Sections 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the court may order any person who is convicted of violating any of those Sections or who was charged with any of those offenses and which charge was reduced to another charge as a result of a plea agreement under subsection (d) of this Section to meet all or any portion of the financial obligations of treatment, including but not limited to medical, psychiatric, or rehabilitative treatment or psychological counseling, prescribed for the victim or victims of the offense.

The payments shall be made by the defendant to the clerk of the circuit court and transmitted by the clerk to the appropriate person or agency as directed by the court. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f-1), the order may require such payments to be made for a period not to exceed 5 years after sentencing, not including periods of incarceration.

(h) The judge may enter an order of withholding to collect the amount of restitution owed in accordance with Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(i) A sentence of restitution may be modified or revoked by the court if the offender commits another offense, or the offender fails to make restitution as ordered by the court, but no sentence to make restitution shall be revoked unless the court shall find that the offender has had the financial ability to make restitution, and he has wilfully refused to do so. When the offender's ability to pay restitution was established at the time an order of restitution was entered or modified, or when the offender's ability to pay was based on the offender's willingness to make restitution as part of a plea agreement made at the time the order of restitution was entered or modified, there is a rebuttable presumption that the facts and circumstances considered by the court at the hearing at which the order of restitution was entered or modified regarding the offender's ability or willingness to pay restitution have not materially changed. If the court shall find that the defendant has failed to make restitution and that the failure is not wilful, the court may impose an additional period of time within which to make restitution. The length of the additional period shall not be more than 2 years. The court shall retain all of the incidents of the original sentence, including the authority to modify or enlarge the conditions, and to revoke or further modify the sentence if the conditions of payment are violated during the additional period.

(j) The procedure upon the filing of a Petition to Revoke a sentence to make restitution shall be the same as the procedures set forth in Section 5-6-4 of this Code governing violation, modification, or revocation of Probation, of Conditional Discharge, or of Supervision.

(k) Nothing contained in this Section shall preclude the right of any party to proceed in a civil action to recover for any damages incurred due to the criminal misconduct of the defendant.

(l) Restitution ordered under this Section shall not be subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(m) A restitution order under this Section is a judgment lien in favor of the victim that:

(1) Attaches to the property of the person subject to the order;

(2) May be perfected in the same manner as provided in Part 3 of Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code;

(3) May be enforced to satisfy any payment that is delinquent under the restitution order by the person in whose favor the order is issued or the person's assignee; and

(4) Expires in the same manner as a judgment lien created in a civil proceeding.

When a restitution order is issued under this Section, the issuing court shall send a certified copy of the order to the clerk of the circuit court in the county where the charge was filed. Upon receiving the order, the clerk shall enter and index the order in the circuit court judgment docket.

(n) An order of restitution under this Section does not bar a civil action for:

(1) Damages that the court did not require the person to pay to the victim under the restitution order but arise from an injury or property damages that is the basis of restitution ordered by the court; and

(2) Other damages suffered by the victim.

The restitution order is not discharged by the completion of the sentence imposed for the offense.

A restitution order under this Section is not discharged by the liquidation of a person's estate by a receiver. A restitution order under this Section may be enforced in the same manner as judgment liens are enforced under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

The provisions of Section 2-1303 of the Code of Civil Procedure, providing for interest on judgments, apply to judgments for restitution entered under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-148, eff. 1-1-06; 94-397, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders; and

(9) if convicted of a felony, physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession; and

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2. This 6 month limit does not apply to a person sentenced to probation as a result of a conviction of a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c-4) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless: (1) the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay, under guidelines developed by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts; and (2) the circuit court has authorized, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, the creation of a Crime Victim's Services Fund, to be administered by the Chief Judge or his or her designee, for services to crime victims and their families. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(Source: P.A. 93-475, eff. 8-8-03; 93-616, eff. 1-1-04; 93-970, eff. 8-20-04; 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; 94-161, eff. 7-11-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in subsection (g) of Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless: (1) the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay, under guidelines developed by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts; and (2) the circuit court has authorized, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, the creation of a Crime Victim's Services Fund, to be administered by the Chief Judge or his or her designee, for services to crime victims and their families. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of one year after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(Source: P.A. 93-475, eff. 8-8-03; 93-970, eff. 8-20-04; 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; 94-161, eff. 7-11-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1.3)

Sec. 5-8-1.3. Pilot residential and transition treatment program for women.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes:

(1) that drug-offending women with children who have been in and out of the criminal justice system for years are a serious problem;

(2) that the intergenerational cycle of women continuously being part of the criminal justice system needs to be broken;

(3) that the effects of drug offending women with children disrupts family harmony and creates an atmosphere that is not conducive to healthy childhood development;

(4) that there is a need for an effective residential community supervision model to provide help to women to become drug free, recover from trauma, focus on healthy mother-child relationships, and establish economic independence and long-term support;

(5) that certain non-violent women offenders with children eligible for sentences of incarceration, may benefit from the rehabilitative aspects of gender responsive treatment programs and services. This Section shall not be construed to allow violent offenders to participate in a treatment program.

(b) Under the direction of the sheriff and with the approval of the county board of commissioners, the sheriff, in any county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants, may operate a residential and transition treatment program for women established by the Illinois Department of Corrections if funding has been provided by federal, local or private entities. If the court finds during the sentencing hearing conducted under Section 5-4-1 that a woman convicted of a felony meets the eligibility requirements of the sheriff's residential and transition treatment program for women, the court may refer the offender to the sheriff's residential and transition treatment program for women for consideration as a participant as an alternative to incarceration in the penitentiary. The sheriff shall be responsible for supervising all women who are placed in the residential and transition treatment program for women for the 12-month period. In the event that the woman is not accepted for placement in the sheriff's residential and transition treatment program for women, the court shall proceed to sentence the woman to any other disposition authorized by this Code. If the woman does not successfully complete the residential and transition treatment program for women, the woman's failure to do so shall constitute a violation of the sentence to the residential and transition treatment program for women.

(c) In order to be eligible to be a participant in the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women, the participant shall meet all of the following conditions:

(1) The woman has not been convicted of a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, a Class X felony, first or second degree murder, armed violence, aggravated kidnapping, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, forcible detention, or arson and has not been previously convicted of any of those offenses.

(2) The woman must undergo an initial assessment evaluation to determine the treatment and program plan.

(3) The woman was recommended and accepted for placement in the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women by the Department of Corrections and has consented in writing to participation in the program under the terms and conditions of the program. The Department of Corrections may consider whether space is available.

(d) The program may include a substance abuse treatment program designed for women offenders, mental health, trauma, and medical treatment; parenting skills and family relationship counseling, preparation for a GED or vocational certificate; life skills program; job readiness and job skill training, and a community transition development plan.

(e) With the approval of the Department of Corrections, the sheriff shall issue requirements for the program and inform the participants who shall sign an agreement to adhere to all rules and all requirements for the pilot residential and transition treatment program.

(f) Participation in the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women shall be for a period not to exceed 12 months. The period may not be reduced by accumulation of good time.

(g) If the woman successfully completes the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women, the sheriff shall notify the Department of Corrections, the court, and the State's Attorney of the county of the woman's successful completion.

(h) A woman may be removed from the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women for violation of the terms and conditions of the program or in the event she is unable to participate. The failure to complete the program shall be deemed a violation of the conditions of the program. The sheriff shall give notice to the Department of Corrections, the court, and the State's Attorney of the woman's failure to complete the program. The Department of Corrections or its designee shall file a petition alleging that the woman has violated the conditions of the program with the court. The State's Attorney may proceed on the petition under Section 5-4-1 of this Code.

(i) The conditions of the pilot residential and transition treatment program for women shall include that the woman while in the program:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report or appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court, the sheriff, or Department of Corrections;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) consent to drug testing;

(5) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without prior notification and approval of the Department of Corrections;

(6) upon placement in the program, must agree to follow all requirements of the program. ;

(j) The Department of Corrections or the sheriff may terminate the program at any time by mutual agreement or with 30 days prior written notice by either the Department of Corrections or the sheriff.

(k) The Department of Corrections may enter into a joint contract with a county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants to establish and operate a pilot residential and treatment program for women.

(l) The Director of the Department of Corrections shall have the authority to develop rules to establish and operate a pilot residential and treatment program for women that shall include criteria for selection of the participants of the program in conjunction and approval by the sentencing court. Violent crime offenders are not eligible to participate in the program.

(m) The Department shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly before September 30th of each year on the pilot residential and treatment program for women, including the composition of the program by offenders, sentence, age, offense, and race.

(n) The Department of Corrections or the sheriff may terminate the program with 30 days prior written notice.

(o) A county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants is authorized to apply for funding from federal, local or private entities to create a Residential and Treatment Program for Women. This sentencing option may not go into effect until the funding is secured for the program and the program has been established.

(Source: P.A. 92-806, eff. 1-1-03; revised 1-20-03.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.2)

Sec. 5-9-1.2. (a) Twelve and one-half percent of all amounts collected as fines pursuant to Section 5-9-1.1 shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, which is hereby created in the State treasury, to be used by the Department of Human Services for the funding of programs and services for drug-abuse treatment, and prevention and education services, for juveniles.

(b) Eighty-seven and one-half percent of the proceeds of all fines received pursuant to Section 5-9-1.1 shall be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at the level of government as follows:

(1) If such seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing differing units of local government, the court levying the fine shall equitably allocate 50% of the fine among these units of local government and shall allocate 37 1/2% to the county general corporate fund. In the event that the seizure was made by law enforcement personnel representing a unit of local government from a municipality where the number of inhabitants exceeds 2 million in population, the court levying the fine shall allocate 87 1/2% of the fine to that unit of local government. If the seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing differing units of local government, and at least one of those units represents a municipality where the number of inhabitants exceeds 2 million in population, the court shall equitably allocate 87 1/2% of the proceeds of the fines received among the differing units of local government.

(2) If such seizure was made by State law enforcement personnel, then the court shall allocate 37 1/2% to the State treasury and 50% to the county general corporate fund.

(3) If a State law enforcement agency in combination with a law enforcement agency or agencies of a unit or units of local government conducted the seizure, the court shall equitably allocate 37 1/2% of the fines to or among the law enforcement agency or agencies of the unit or units of local government which conducted the seizure and shall allocate 50% to the county general corporate fund.

(c) The proceeds of all fines allocated to the law enforcement agency or agencies of the unit or units of local government pursuant to subsection (b) shall be made available to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use in the enforcement of laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis. The proceeds of fines awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund. Monies from this fund may be used by the Department of State Police for use in the enforcement of laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis; to satisfy funding provisions of the Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act; and to defray costs and expenses associated with returning violators of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act only, as provided in those Acts, when punishment of the crime shall be confinement of the criminal in the penitentiary. Moneys in the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund deposited from fines awarded as a direct result of enforcement efforts of the Illinois Conservation Police may be used by the Department of Natural Resources Office of Law Enforcement for use in enforcing laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis on Department of Natural Resources regulated lands and waterways. All other monies shall be paid into the general revenue fund in the State treasury.

(d) There is created in the State treasury the Methamphetamine Law Enforcement Fund. Moneys in the Fund shall be equitably allocated to local law enforcement agencies to: (1) reimburse those agencies for the costs of securing and cleaning up sites and facilities used for the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine; (2) defray the costs of employing full-time or part-time peace officers from a Metropolitan Enforcement Group or other local drug task force, including overtime costs for those officers; and (3) defray the costs associated with medical or dental expenses incurred by the county resulting from the incarceration of methamphetamine addicts in the county jail or County Department of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 94-550, eff. 1-1-06; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 8-19-05.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.7)

Sec. 5-9-1.7. Sexual assault fines.

(a) Definitions. The terms used in this Section shall have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Sexual assault" means the commission or attempted commission of the following: sexual exploitation of a child, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, indecent solicitation of a child, public indecency, sexual relations within families, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, patronizing a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, obscenity, child pornography, harmful material, or ritualized abuse of a child, as those offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) "Family member" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(3) "Sexual assault organization" means any not-for-profit organization providing comprehensive, community-based services to victims of sexual assault. "Community-based services" include, but are not limited to, direct crisis intervention through a 24-hour response, medical and legal advocacy, counseling, information and referral services, training, and community education.

(b) Sexual assault fine; collection by clerk.

(1) In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $200 shall be imposed upon any person who pleads guilty or who is convicted of, or who receives a disposition of court supervision for, a sexual assault or attempt of a sexual assault. Upon request of the victim or the victim's representative, the court shall determine whether the fine will impose an undue burden on the victim of the offense. For purposes of this paragraph, the defendant may not be considered the victim's representative. If the court finds that the fine would impose an undue burden on the victim, the court may reduce or waive the fine. The court shall order that the defendant may not use funds belonging solely to the victim of the offense for payment of the fine.

(2) Sexual assault fines shall be assessed by the court imposing the sentence and shall be collected by the circuit clerk. The circuit clerk shall retain 10% of the penalty to cover the costs involved in administering and enforcing this Section. The circuit clerk shall remit the remainder of each fine within one month of its receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit as follows:

(i) for family member offenders, one-half to the Sexual Assault Services Fund, and one-half to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund; and

(ii) for other than family member offenders, the full amount to the Sexual Assault Services Fund.

(c) Sexual Assault Services Fund; administration. There is created a Sexual Assault Services Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund under this Section shall be appropriated to the Department of Public Health. Upon appropriation of moneys from the Sexual Assault Services Fund, the Department of Public Health shall make grants of these moneys from the Fund to sexual assault organizations with whom the Department has contracts for the purpose of providing community-based services to victims of sexual assault. Grants made under this Section are in addition to, and are not substitutes for, other grants authorized and made by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 93-699, eff. 1-1-05; 93-810, eff. 1-1-05; revised 10-14-04.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.12)

Sec. 5-9-1.12. Arson fines.

(a) In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $500 shall be imposed upon a person convicted of the offense of arson, residential arson, or aggravated arson.

(b) The additional fine shall be assessed by the court imposing sentence and shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk in addition to the fine, if any, and costs in the case. Each such additional fine shall be remitted by the Circuit Clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Fire Prevention Fund. The Circuit Clerk shall retain 10% of such fine to cover the costs incurred in administering and enforcing this Section. The additional fine may not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing.

(c) The moneys in the Fire Prevention Fund collected as additional fines under this Section shall be distributed by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to the fire department or fire protection district that suppressed or investigated the fire that was set by the defendant and for which the defendant was convicted of arson, residential arson, or aggravated arson. If more than one fire department or fire protection district suppressed or investigated the fire, the additional fine shall be distributed equally among those departments or districts.

(d) The moneys distributed to the fire departments or fire protection districts under this Section may only be used to purchase fire suppression or fire investigation equipment.

(Source: P.A. 93-169, eff. 7-10-03.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.13)

Sec. 5-9-1.13 5-9-1.12. Applications for transfer to other states. A person subject to conditions of probation, parole, or mandatory supervised release who seeks to transfer to another state subject to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision must make provisions for the payment of any restitution awarded by the circuit court and pay a fee of $125 to the proper administrative or judicial authorities before being granted the transfer, or otherwise arrange for payment. The fee payment from persons subject to a sentence of probation shall be deposited into the general fund of the county in which the circuit has jurisdiction. The fee payment from persons subject to parole or mandatory supervised release shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund. The proceeds of this fee shall be used to defray the costs of the Department of Corrections or county sheriff departments, respectively, who will be required to retrieve offenders that violate the terms of their transfers to other states. Upon return to the State of Illinois, these persons shall also be subject to reimbursing either the State of Illinois or the county for the actual costs of returning them to Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 93-475, eff. 8-8-03; revised 9-26-03.)

Section 1075. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 6, and 7 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 222)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) As used in this Article, "sex offender" means any person who is:

(1) charged pursuant to Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with a sex offense set forth in subsection (B) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(a) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(b) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(c) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 104-25(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(d) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to Section 104-25(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(e) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to Section 104-25(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(f) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to Section 104-25(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(2) certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(3) subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act; or

(4) found to be a sexually violent person pursuant to the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(5) adjudicated a juvenile delinquent as the result of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in item (B), (C), or (C-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, or found guilty under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in item (B), (C), or (C-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Article as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Article.

For purposes of this Section, "convicted" shall have the same meaning as "adjudicated". For the purposes of this Article, a person who is defined as a sex offender as a result of being adjudicated a juvenile delinquent under paragraph (5) of this subsection (A) upon attaining 17 years of age shall be considered as having committed the sex offense on or after the sex offender's 17th birthday. Registration of juveniles upon attaining 17 years of age shall not extend the original registration of 10 years from the date of conviction.

(B) As used in this Article, "sex offense" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

11-20.1 (child pornography),

11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child),

11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child),

11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct),

11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability),

11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute),

11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute),

11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),

11-19.1 (juvenile pimping),

11-19.2 (exploitation of a child),

12-13 (criminal sexual assault),

12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault),

12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child),

12-15 (criminal sexual abuse),

12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(1.5) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age, the defendant is not a parent of the victim, the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

(1.6) First degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim was a person under 18 years of age and the defendant was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(1.7) (Blank).

(1.8) A violation or attempted violation of Section 11-11 (sexual relations within families) of the Criminal Code of 1961, and the offense was committed on or after June 1, 1997.

(1.9) Child abduction under paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(1.10) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the offense was committed on or after July 1, 1999:

10-4 (forcible detention, if the victim is under 18 years of age), provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act,

11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult),

11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

11-16 (pandering, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

11-18 (patronizing a prostitute, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

11-19 (pimping, if the victim is under 18 years of age).

(1.11) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the offense was committed on or after August 22, 2002:

11-9 (public indecency for a third or subsequent conviction).

(1.12) A violation or attempted violation of Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act (permitting sexual abuse) when the offense was committed on or after August 22, 2002.

(2) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (B) of this Section.

(C) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsections (B), (C), and (E) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person or a sexually violent person under any federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or foreign country that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Article.

(C-5) A person at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense who is convicted of first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, against a person under 18 years of age, shall be required to register for natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (C-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. This subsection (C-5) applies to a person who committed the offense before June 1, 1996 only if the person is incarcerated in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility on August 20, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-977).

(D) As used in this Article, "law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the sex offender expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(D-1) As used in this Article, "supervising officer" means the assigned Illinois Department of Corrections parole agent or county probation officer.

(E) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" means any person who, after July 1, 1999, is:

(1) Convicted for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (E) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. Convicted of a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, if the conviction occurred after July 1, 1999:

11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),

11-19.1 (juvenile pimping),

11-19.2 (exploitation of a child),

11-20.1 (child pornography),

12-13 (criminal sexual assault),

12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault),

12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child),

12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child); or

(2) (blank); or

(3) certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(4) found to be a sexually violent person pursuant to the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(5) convicted of a second or subsequent offense which requires registration pursuant to this Act. The conviction for the second or subsequent offense must have occurred after July 1, 1999. For purposes of this paragraph (5), "convicted" shall include a conviction under any substantially similar Illinois, federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law.

(F) As used in this Article, "out-of-state student" means any sex offender, as defined in this Section, or sexual predator who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(G) As used in this Article, "out-of-state employee" means any sex offender, as defined in this Section, or sexual predator who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(H) As used in this Article, "school" means any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any elementary or secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher education.

(I) As used in this Article, "fixed residence" means any and all places that a sex offender resides for an aggregate period of time of 5 or more days in a calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 93-977, eff. 8-20-04; 93-979, eff. 8-20-04; 94-166, eff. 1-1-06; 94-168, eff. 1-1-06; 94-945, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1053, eff. 7-24-06; revised 8-3-06.)

(730 ILCS 150/6) (from Ch. 38, par. 226)

Sec. 6. Duty to report; change of address, school, or employment; duty to inform. A person who has been adjudicated to be sexually dangerous or is a sexually violent person and is later released, or found to be no longer sexually dangerous or no longer a sexually violent person and discharged, or convicted of a violation of this Act after July 1, 2005, shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered no later than 90 days after the date of his or her last registration and every 90 days thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. Any person who lacks a fixed residence must report weekly, in person, to the appropriate law enforcement agency where the sex offender is located. Any other person who is required to register under this Article shall report in person to the appropriate law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered within one year from the date of last registration and every year thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. If any person required to register under this Article lacks a fixed residence or temporary domicile, he or she must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 5 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence and if the offender leaves the last jurisdiction of residence, he or she, must within 48 hours after leaving register in person with the new agency of jurisdiction. If any other person required to register under this Article changes his or her residence address, place of employment, or school, he or she shall report in person to 5 the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered of his or her new address, change in employment, or school and register, in person, with the appropriate law enforcement agency within the time period specified in Section 3. The law enforcement agency shall, within 3 days of the reporting in person by the person required to register under this Article, notify the Department of State Police of the new place of residence, change in employment, or school.

If any person required to register under this Article intends to establish a residence or employment outside of the State of Illinois, at least 10 days before establishing that residence or employment, he or she shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with which he or she last registered of his or her out-of-state intended residence or employment. The law enforcement agency with which such person last registered shall, within 3 days after the reporting in person of the person required to register under this Article of an address or employment change, notify the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police shall forward such information to the out-of-state law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 93-977, eff. 8-20-04; 94-166, eff. 1-1-06; 94-168, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(730 ILCS 150/7) (from Ch. 38, par. 227)

Sec. 7. Duration of registration. A person who has been adjudicated to be sexually dangerous and is later released or found to be no longer sexually dangerous and discharged, shall register for the period of his or her natural life. A sexually violent person or sexual predator shall register for the period of his or her natural life after conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital, or other institution or facility, and if confined, for the period of his or her natural life after parole, discharge, or release from any such facility. Any other person who is required to register under this Article shall be required to register for a period of 10 years after conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital or any other institution or facility, and if confined, for a period of 10 years after parole, discharge or release from any such facility. A sex offender who is allowed to leave a county, State, or federal facility for the purposes of work release, education, or overnight visitations shall be required to register within 5 days of beginning such a program. Liability for registration terminates at the expiration of 10 years from the date of conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital or any other institution or facility and if confined, at the expiration of 10 years from the date of parole, discharge or release from any such facility, providing such person does not, during that period, again become liable to register under the provisions of this Article. Reconfinement due to a violation of parole or other circumstances that relates to the original conviction or adjudication shall extend the period of registration to 10 years after final parole, discharge, or release. The Director of State Police, consistent with administrative rules, shall extend for 10 years the registration period of any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, who fails to comply with the provisions of this Article. The registration period for any sex offender who fails to comply with any provision of the Act shall extend the period of registration by 10 years beginning from the first date of registration after the violation. If the registration period is extended, the Department of State Police shall send a registered letter to the law enforcement agency where the sex offender resides within 3 days after the extension of the registration period. The sex offender shall report to that law enforcement agency and sign for that letter. One copy of that letter shall be kept on file with the law enforcement agency of the jurisdiction where the sex offender resides and one copy shall be returned to the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 93-979, eff. 8-20-04; 94-166, eff. 1-1-06; 94-168, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 1080. The Sex Offender Community Notification Law is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 121 as follows:

(730 ILCS 152/121)

Sec. 121. Notification regarding juvenile offenders.

(a) The Department of State Police and any law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may, in the Department's or agency's discretion, only provide the information specified in subsection (b) of Section 120 of this Act, with respect to an adjudicated juvenile delinquent, to any person when that person's safety may be compromised for some reason related to the juvenile sex offender.

(b) The local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction to register the juvenile sex offender shall ascertain from the juvenile sex offender whether the juvenile sex offender is enrolled in school; and if so, shall provide a copy of the sex offender registration form only to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him or her. The registration form shall be kept separately from any and all school records maintained on behalf of the juvenile sex offender.

(Source: P.A. 94-168, eff. 1-1-06.)

(730 ILCS 152/122)

Sec. 122 121. Special alerts. A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may provide to the public a special alert list warning parents to be aware that sex offenders may attempt to contact children during holidays involving children, such as Halloween, Christmas, and Easter and to inform parents that information containing the names and addresses of registered sex offenders are accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Sex Offender Information" on the Department of State Police's World Wide Web home page and are available for public inspection at the agency's headquarters.

(Source: P.A. 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; revised 9-27-05.)

Section 1085. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-1115.1, 2-1401, 2-1402, 4-201, 12-710, and 15-1201 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-1115.1)

(This Section was added by P.A. 89-7, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 2-1115.1. Limitations on recovery of non-economic damages.

(a) In all common law, statutory or other actions that seek damages on account of death, bodily injury, or physical damage to property based on negligence, or product liability based on any theory or doctrine, recovery of non-economic damages shall be limited to $500,000 per plaintiff. There shall be no recovery for hedonic damages.

(b) Beginning in 1997, every January 20, the liability limit established in subsection (a) shall automatically be increased or decreased, as applicable, by a percentage equal to the percentage change in the consumer price index-u during the preceding 12-month calendar year. "Consumer price index-u" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Comptroller and made available to the chief judge of each judicial circuit district.

(c) The liability limits at the time at which damages subject to such limits are awarded by final judgment or settlement shall be utilized by the courts.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a right to recover non-economic damages.

(e) This amendatory Act of 1995 applies to causes of action accruing on or after its effective date.

(Source: P.A. 89-7, eff. 3-9-95; revised 10-18-05.)

(735 ILCS 5/2-1401) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-1401)

Sec. 2-1401. Relief from judgments.

(a) Relief from final orders and judgments, after 30 days from the entry thereof, may be had upon petition as provided in this Section. Writs of error coram nobis and coram vobis, bills of review and bills in the nature of bills of review are abolished. All relief heretofore obtainable and the grounds for such relief heretofore available, whether by any of the foregoing remedies or otherwise, shall be available in every case, by proceedings hereunder, regardless of the nature of the order or judgment from which relief is sought or of the proceedings in which it was entered. Except as provided in Section 6 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, there shall be no distinction between actions and other proceedings, statutory or otherwise, as to availability of relief, grounds for relief or the relief obtainable.

(b) The petition must be filed in the same proceeding in which the order or judgment was entered but is not a continuation thereof. The petition must be supported by affidavit or other appropriate showing as to matters not of record. All parties to the petition shall be notified as provided by rule.

(c) Except as provided in Section 20b of the Adoption Act and Section 2-32 3-32 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or in a petition based upon Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the petition must be filed not later than 2 years after the entry of the order or judgment. Time during which the person seeking relief is under legal disability or duress or the ground for relief is fraudulently concealed shall be excluded in computing the period of 2 years.

(d) The filing of a petition under this Section does not affect the order or judgment, or suspend its operation.

(e) Unless lack of jurisdiction affirmatively appears from the record proper, the vacation or modification of an order or judgment pursuant to the provisions of this Section does not affect the right, title or interest in or to any real or personal property of any person, not a party to the original action, acquired for value after the entry of the order or judgment but before the filing of the petition, nor affect any right of any person not a party to the original action under any certificate of sale issued before the filing of the petition, pursuant to a sale based on the order or judgment.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section affects any existing right to relief from a void order or judgment, or to employ any existing method to procure that relief.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-27, eff. 1-1-98; 90-141, eff. 1-1-98; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 11-06-02.)

(735 ILCS 5/2-1402) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-1402)

Sec. 2-1402. Supplementary proceedings.

(a) A judgment creditor, or his or her successor in interest when that interest is made to appear of record, is entitled to prosecute supplementary proceedings for the purposes of examining the judgment debtor or any other person to discover assets or income of the debtor not exempt from the enforcement of the judgment, a deduction order or garnishment, and of compelling the application of non-exempt assets or income discovered toward the payment of the amount due under the judgment. A supplementary proceeding shall be commenced by the service of a citation issued by the clerk. The procedure for conducting supplementary proceedings shall be prescribed by rules. It is not a prerequisite to the commencement of a supplementary proceeding that a certified copy of the judgment has been returned wholly or partly unsatisfied. All citations issued by the clerk shall have the following language, or language substantially similar thereto, stated prominently on the front, in capital letters: "YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR IN COURT AS HEREIN DIRECTED MAY CAUSE YOU TO BE ARRESTED AND BROUGHT BEFORE THE COURT TO ANSWER TO A CHARGE OF CONTEMPT OF COURT, WHICH MAY BE PUNISHABLE BY IMPRISONMENT IN THE COUNTY JAIL." The court shall not grant a continuance of the supplementary proceeding except upon good cause shown.

(b) Any citation served upon a judgment debtor or any other person shall include a certification by the attorney for the judgment creditor or the judgment creditor setting forth the amount of the judgment, the date of the judgment, or its revival date, the balance due thereon, the name of the court, and the number of the case, and a copy of the citation notice required by this subsection. Whenever a citation is served upon a person or party other than the judgment debtor, the officer or person serving the citation shall send to the judgment debtor, within three business days of the service upon the cited party, a copy of the citation and the citation notice, which may be sent by regular first-class mail to the judgment debtor's last known address. In no event shall a citation hearing be held sooner than five business days after the mailing of the citation and citation notice to the judgment debtor, except by agreement of the parties. The citation notice need not be mailed to a corporation, partnership, or association. The citation notice shall be in substantially the following form:

"CITATION NOTICE

(Name and address of Court)

Name of Case: (Name of Judgment Creditor),

Judgment Creditor v.

(Name of Judgment Debtor),

Judgment Debtor.

Address of Judgment Debtor: (Insert last known

address)

Name and address of Attorney for Judgment

Creditor or of Judgment Creditor (If no

attorney is listed): (Insert name and address)

Amount of Judgment: $ (Insert amount)

Name of Person Receiving Citation: (Insert name)

Court Date and Time: (Insert return date and time

specified in citation)

NOTICE: The court has issued a citation against the person named above. The citation directs that person to appear in court to be examined for the purpose of allowing the judgment creditor to discover income and assets belonging to the judgment debtor or in which the judgment debtor has an interest. The citation was issued on the basis of a judgment against the judgment debtor in favor of the judgment creditor in the amount stated above. On or after the court date stated above, the court may compel the application of any discovered income or assets toward payment on the judgment.

The amount of income or assets that may be applied toward the judgment is limited by federal and Illinois law. The JUDGMENT DEBTOR HAS THE RIGHT TO ASSERT STATUTORY EXEMPTIONS AGAINST CERTAIN INCOME OR ASSETS OF THE JUDGMENT DEBTOR WHICH MAY NOT BE USED TO SATISFY THE JUDGMENT IN THE AMOUNT STATED ABOVE:

(1) Under Illinois or federal law, the exemptions of personal property owned by the debtor include the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $4,000 in value, in any personal property as chosen by the debtor; Social Security and SSI benefits; public assistance benefits; unemployment compensation benefits; worker's compensation benefits; veteran's benefits; circuit breaker property tax relief benefits; the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $2,400 in value, in any one motor vehicle, and the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $1,500 in value, in any implements, professional books, or tools of the trade of the debtor.

(2) Under Illinois law, every person is entitled to an estate in homestead, when it is owned and occupied as a residence, to the extent in value of $15,000, which homestead is exempt from judgment.

(3) Under Illinois law, the amount of wages that may be applied toward a judgment is limited to the lesser of (i) 15% of gross weekly wages or (ii) the amount by which disposable earnings for a week exceed the total of 45 times the federal minimum hourly wage or, under a wage deduction summons served on or after January 1, 2006, the Illinois minimum hourly wage, whichever is greater.

(4) Under federal law, the amount of wages that may be applied toward a judgment is limited to the lesser of (i) 25% of disposable earnings for a week or (ii) the amount by which disposable earnings for a week exceed 30 times the federal minimum hourly wage.

(5) Pension and retirement benefits and refunds may be claimed as exempt under Illinois law.

The judgment debtor may have other possible exemptions under the law.

THE JUDGMENT DEBTOR HAS THE RIGHT AT THE CITATION HEARING TO DECLARE EXEMPT CERTAIN INCOME OR ASSETS OR BOTH. The judgment debtor also has the right to seek a declaration at an earlier date, by notifying the clerk in writing at (insert address of clerk). When so notified, the Clerk of the Court will obtain a prompt hearing date from the court and will provide the necessary forms that must be prepared by the judgment debtor or the attorney for the judgment debtor and sent to the judgment creditor and the judgment creditor's attorney regarding the time and location of the hearing. This notice may be sent by regular first class mail."

(c) When assets or income of the judgment debtor not exempt from the satisfaction of a judgment, a deduction order or garnishment are discovered, the court may, by appropriate order or judgment:

(1) Compel the judgment debtor to deliver up, to be applied in satisfaction of the judgment, in whole or in part, money, choses in action, property or effects in his or her possession or control, so discovered, capable of delivery and to which his or her title or right of possession is not substantially disputed.

(2) Compel the judgment debtor to pay to the judgment creditor or apply on the judgment, in installments, a portion of his or her income, however or whenever earned or acquired, as the court may deem proper, having due regard for the reasonable requirements of the judgment debtor and his or her family, if dependent upon him or her, as well as any payments required to be made by prior order of court or under wage assignments outstanding; provided that the judgment debtor shall not be compelled to pay income which would be considered exempt as wages under the Wage Deduction Statute. The court may modify an order for installment payments, from time to time, upon application of either party upon notice to the other.

(3) Compel any person cited, other than the judgment debtor, to deliver up any assets so discovered, to be applied in satisfaction of the judgment, in whole or in part, when those assets are held under such circumstances that in an action by the judgment debtor he or she could recover them in specie or obtain a judgment for the proceeds or value thereof as for conversion or embezzlement.

(4) Enter any order upon or judgment against the person cited that could be entered in any garnishment proceeding.

(5) Compel any person cited to execute an assignment of any chose in action or a conveyance of title to real or personal property, in the same manner and to the same extent as a court could do in any proceeding by a judgment creditor to enforce payment of a judgment or in aid of the enforcement of a judgment.

(6) Authorize the judgment creditor to maintain an action against any person or corporation that, it appears upon proof satisfactory to the court, is indebted to the judgment debtor, for the recovery of the debt, forbid the transfer or other disposition of the debt until an action can be commenced and prosecuted to judgment, direct that the papers or proof in the possession or control of the debtor and necessary in the prosecution of the action be delivered to the creditor or impounded in court, and provide for the disposition of any moneys in excess of the sum required to pay the judgment creditor's judgment and costs allowed by the court.

(d) No order or judgment shall be entered under subsection (c) in favor of the judgment creditor unless there appears of record a certification of mailing showing that a copy of the citation and a copy of the citation notice was mailed to the judgment debtor as required by subsection (b).

(e) All property ordered to be delivered up shall, except as otherwise provided in this Section, be delivered to the sheriff to be collected by the sheriff or sold at public sale and the proceeds thereof applied towards the payment of costs and the satisfaction of the judgment.

(f) (1) The citation may prohibit the party to whom it is directed from making or allowing any transfer or other disposition of, or interfering with, any property not exempt from the enforcement of a judgment therefrom, a deduction order or garnishment, belonging to the judgment debtor or to which he or she may be entitled or which may thereafter be acquired by or become due to him or her, and from paying over or otherwise disposing of any moneys not so exempt which are due or to become due to the judgment debtor, until the further order of the court or the termination of the proceeding, whichever occurs first. The third party may not be obliged to withhold the payment of any moneys beyond double the amount of the balance due sought to be enforced by the judgment creditor. The court may punish any party who violates the restraining provision of a citation as and for a contempt, or if the party is a third party may enter judgment against him or her in the amount of the unpaid portion of the judgment and costs allowable under this Section, or in the amount of the value of the property transferred, whichever is lesser.

(2) The court may enjoin any person, whether or not a party to the supplementary proceeding, from making or allowing any transfer or other disposition of, or interference with, the property of the judgment debtor not exempt from the enforcement of a judgment, a deduction order or garnishment, or the property or debt not so exempt concerning which any person is required to attend and be examined until further direction in the premises. The injunction order shall remain in effect until vacated by the court or until the proceeding is terminated, whichever first occurs.

(g) If it appears that any property, chose in action, credit or effect discovered, or any interest therein, is claimed by any person, the court shall, as in garnishment proceedings, permit or require the claimant to appear and maintain his or her right. The rights of the person cited and the rights of any adverse claimant shall be asserted and determined pursuant to the law relating to garnishment proceedings.

(h) Costs in proceedings authorized by this Section shall be allowed, assessed and paid in accordance with rules, provided that if the court determines, in its discretion, that costs incurred by the judgment creditor were improperly incurred, those costs shall be paid by the judgment creditor.

(i) This Section is in addition to and does not affect enforcement of judgments or proceedings supplementary thereto, by any other methods now or hereafter provided by law.

(j) This Section does not grant the power to any court to order installment or other payments from, or compel the sale, delivery, surrender, assignment or conveyance of any property exempt by statute from the enforcement of a judgment thereon, a deduction order, garnishment, attachment, sequestration, process or other levy or seizure.

(k) (Blank).

(l) At any citation hearing at which the judgment debtor appears and seeks a declaration that certain of his or her income or assets are exempt, the court shall proceed to determine whether the property which the judgment debtor declares to be exempt is exempt from judgment. At any time before the return date specified on the citation, the judgment debtor may request, in writing, a hearing to declare exempt certain income and assets by notifying the clerk of the court before that time, using forms as may be provided by the clerk of the court. The clerk of the court will obtain a prompt hearing date from the court and will provide the necessary forms that must be prepared by the judgment debtor or the attorney for the judgment debtor and sent to the judgment creditor, or the judgment creditor's attorney, regarding the time and location of the hearing. This notice may be sent by regular first class mail. At the hearing, the court shall immediately, unless for good cause shown that the hearing is to be continued, shall proceed to determine whether the property which the judgment debtor declares to be exempt is exempt from judgment. The restraining provisions of subsection (f) shall not apply to any property determined by the court to be exempt.

(m) The judgment or balance due on the judgment becomes a lien when a citation is served in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section. The lien binds nonexempt personal property, including money, choses in action, and effects of the judgment debtor as follows:

(1) When the citation is directed against the judgment debtor, upon all personal property belonging to the judgment debtor in the possession or control of the judgment debtor or which may thereafter be acquired or come due to the judgment debtor to the time of the disposition of the citation.

(2) When the citation is directed against a third party, upon all personal property belonging to the judgment debtor in the possession or control of the third party or which thereafter may be acquired or come due the judgment debtor and comes into the possession or control of the third party to the time of the disposition of the citation.

The lien established under this Section does not affect the rights of citation respondents in property prior to the service of the citation upon them and does not affect the rights of bona fide purchasers or lenders without notice of the citation. The lien is effective for the period specified by Supreme Court Rule.

This subsection (m), as added by Public Act 88-48, is a declaration of existing law.

(n) If any provision of this Act or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision or application does not affect the provisions or applications of the Act that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

(Source: P.A. 94-293, eff. 1-1-06; 94-306, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-19-05.)

(735 ILCS 5/4-201) (from Ch. 110, par. 4-201)

Sec. 4-201. Liens in general. Every sail vessel, steamboat, steam dredge, tug boat, scow, canal boat, barge, lighter, and other water craft of above five tons burthen, used or intended to be used in navigating the waters or canals of this State, or used in trade and commerce between ports and places within this State, or having their home port in this State, shall be subject to a lien thereon, which lien shall extend to the tackle, apparel and furniture of such craft, as follows:

1. For all debts contracted by the owner or part owner, master, clerk, steward, agent or ship's husband shipshusband of such craft, on account of supplies and provisions furnished for the use of such water craft, on account of work done or services rendered on board of such craft by any seaman, master or other employee thereof, or on account of work done or materials furnished by mechanics, tradesmen or others, in or about the building, repairing, fitting, furnishing or equipping such craft.

2. For all sums due for wharfage, anchorage or dock hire, including the use of dry docks.

3. For sums due for towage, labor at pumping out or raising, when sunk or disabled, and to shipshusband or agent of such water craft, for disbursement due by the owner on account of such water craft.

4. For all damages arising for the nonperformance of any contract of affreightment, or of any contract touching the transportation of property entered into by the master, owner, agent or consignee of such water craft, where any such contract is made in this state.

5. For all damages arising from injuries done to persons or property by such water craft, whether the same are aboard said vessel or not, where the same shall have occurred through the negligence or misconduct of the owner, agent, master or employee thereon; but the craft shall not be liable for any injury or damage received by one of the crew from another member of the crew.

(Source: P.A. 82-280; revised 10-19-05.)

(735 ILCS 5/12-710) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-710)

Sec. 12-710. Adverse claims; Trial.

(a) In the event any indebtedness or other property due from or in the possession of a garnishee is claimed by any other person, the court shall permit the claimant to appear and maintain his or her claim. A claimant not voluntarily appearing shall be served with notice as the court shall direct. If a claimant fails to appear after being served with notice in the manner directed, he or she shall be concluded by the judgment entered in the garnishment proceeding.

(b) If the adverse claimant appears and, within the time the court allows, files his or her claim and serves a copy thereof upon the judgment creditor, the judgment debtor, and the garnishee, he or she is then a party to the garnishment proceeding; and his or her claim shall be tried and determined with the other issues in the garnishment action. Upon certification by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) that a person who is receiving support payments under this Section is a public aid recipient, any support payments subsequently received by the clerk of the court shall be transmitted to the Illinois Department of Public Aid until the Department gives notice to cease such transmittal. If the adverse claimant is entitled to all or part of the indebtedness or other property, the court shall enter judgment in accordance with the interests of the parties.

(c) Claims for the support of a spouse or dependent children shall be superior to all other claims for garnishment of property.

(Source: P.A. 87-1252; revised 12-15-05.)

(735 ILCS 5/15-1201) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1201)

Sec. 15-1201. Agricultural Real Estate. "Agricultural real estate" means real estate which is used primarily (i) for the growing and harvesting of crops, (ii) for the feeding, breeding and management of livestock, (iii) for dairying, or (iv) for any other agricultural or horticultural use or combination thereof, including without limitation, aquaculture, silviculture, silvaculture and any other activities customarily engaged in by persons engaged in the business of farming.

(Source: P.A. 84-1462; revised 10-19-05.)

Section 1090. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing Sections 10-5-10, 10-5-105, 25-7-103.3, and 25-7-103.63 and by adding Section 25-7-103.125 (incorporating and renumbering Section 7-103.113 of the Code of Civil Procedure from Public Act 94-898) as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/10-5-10) (was 735 ILCS 5/7-102)

Sec. 10-5-10. Parties.

(a) When the right (i) to take private property for public use, without the owner's consent, (ii) to construct or maintain any public road, railroad, plankroad, turnpike road, canal, or other public work or improvement, or (iii) to damage property not actually taken has been or is conferred by general law or special charter upon any corporate or municipal authority, public body, officer or agent, person, commissioner, or corporation and when (i) the compensation to be paid for or in respect of the property sought to be appropriated or damaged for the purposes mentioned cannot be agreed upon by the parties interested, (ii) the owner of the property is incapable of consenting, (iii) the owner's name or residence is unknown, or (iv) the owner is a nonresident of the State, then the party authorized to take or damage the property so required, or to construct, operate, and maintain any public road, railroad, plankroad, turnpike road, canal, or other public work or improvement, may apply to the circuit court of the county where the property or any part of the property is situated, by filing with the clerk a complaint. The complaint shall set forth, by reference, (i) the complainant's authority in the premises, (ii) the purpose for which the property is sought to be taken or damaged, (iii) a description of the property, and (iv) the names of all persons interested in the property as owners or otherwise, as appearing of record, if known, or if not known stating that fact; and shall pray the court to cause the compensation to be paid to the owner to be assessed.

(b) If it appears that any person not in being, upon coming into being, is, or may become or may claim to be, entitled to any interest in the property sought to be appropriated or damaged, the court shall appoint some competent and disinterested person as guardian ad litem to appear for and represent that interest in the proceeding and to defend the proceeding on behalf of the person not in being. Any judgment entered in the proceeding shall be as effectual for all purposes as though the person was in being and was a party to the proceeding.

(c) If the proceeding seeks to affect the property of persons under guardianship, the guardians shall be made parties defendant.

(d) Any interested persons whose names are unknown may be made parties defendant by the same descriptions and in the same manner as provided in other civil cases.

(e) When the property to be taken or damaged is a common element of property subject to a declaration of condominium ownership, pursuant to the Condominium Property Act, or of a common interest community, the complaint shall name the unit owners' association in lieu of naming the individual unit owners and lienholders on individual units. Unit owners, mortgagees, and other lienholders may intervene as parties defendant. For the purposes of this Section, "common interest community" has the same meaning as set forth in subsection (c) of Section 9-102 of the Code of Civil Procedure. "Unit owners' association" or "association" shall refer to both the definition contained in Section 2 of the Condominium Property Act and subsection (c) of Section 9-102 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(f) When the property is sought to be taken or damaged by the State for the purposes of establishing, operating, or maintaining any State house or State charitable or other institutions or improvements, the complaint shall be signed by the Governor, or the Governor's designee, or as otherwise provided by law.

(g) No property, except property described in Section 3 of the Sports Stadium Act, property to be acquired in furtherance of actions under Article 11, Divisions 124, 126, 128, 130, 135, 136, and 139, of the Illinois Municipal Code, property to be acquired in furtherance of actions under Section 3.1 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, property to be acquired that is a water system or waterworks pursuant to the home rule powers of a unit of local government, and property described as Site B in Section 2 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, belonging to a railroad or other public utility subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission may be taken or damaged, pursuant to the provisions of this Act, without the prior approval of the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; incorporates P.A. 94-1007, eff. 1-1-07; revised 9-13-06.)

(735 ILCS 30/10-5-105)

Sec. 10-5-105. Sale of certain property acquired by condemnation.

(a) This Section applies only to property that (i) has been acquired after the effective date of this Act by condemnation or threat of condemnation, (ii) was acquired for public ownership and control by the condemning authority or another public entity, and (iii) has been under the ownership and control of the condemning authority or that other public entity for a total of less than 5 years.

As used in this Section, "threat of condemnation" means that the condemning authority has made an offer to purchase property and has the authority to exercise the power of eminent domain with respect to that property.

(b) Any governmental entity seeking to dispose of property to which this Section applies must dispose of that property in accordance with this Section, unless disposition of that property is otherwise specifically authorized or prohibited by law enacted by the General Assembly before, on, or after the effective date of this Act.

(c) The sale or public auction by the State of property to which this Section applies must be conducted in the manner provided in the State Property Control Act for the disposition of surplus property.

(d) The sale or public auction by a municipality of property to which this Section applies must be conducted in accordance with Section 11-76-4.1 or 11-76-4.2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(e) The sale or public auction by any other unit of local government or school district of property to which this Section applies must be conducted in accordance with this subsection (e). The corporate authorities of the the unit of local government or school district, by resolution, may authorize the sale or public auction of the property as surplus public real estate. The value of the real estate shall be determined by a written MAI-certified appraisal or by a written certified appraisal of a State-certified or State-licensed real estate appraiser. The appraisal shall be available for public inspection. The resolution may direct the sale to be conducted by the staff of the unit of local government or school district; by listing with local licensed real estate agencies, in which case the terms of the agent's compensation shall be included in the resolution; or by public auction. The resolution shall be published at the first opportunity following its passage in a newspaper or newspapers published in the county or counties in which the unit of local government or school district is located. The resolution shall also contain pertinent information concerning the size, use, and zoning of the real estate and the terms of sale. The corporate authorities of the unit of local government or school district may accept any contract proposal determined by them to be in the best interest of the unit of local government or school district by a vote of two-thirds of the members of the corporate authority of the unit of local government or school district then holding office, but in no event at a price less than 80% of the appraised value.

(f) This Section does not apply to the acquisition or damaging of property under the O'Hare Modernization Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 9-13-06.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-7-103.3) (was 735 ILCS 5/7-103.3)

Sec. 25-7-103.3. Quick-take; coal development purposes.

Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity for the purpose specified in the Illinois Coal Development Bond Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; incorporates P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 9-13-06.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-7-103.63) (was 735 ILCS 5/7-103.63)

Sec. 25-7-103.63. Quick-take; City of Peru. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of 24 months after July 30, 1998 by the City of Peru for removal of existing residential deed restrictions on the use of property, and the rights of other property owners in the subdivision to enforce those restrictions, as they apply to lots 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, and 16 in Urbanowski's Subdivision to the City of Peru, all of which are owned by the Illinois Valley Community Hospital and adjacent to the existing hospital building, for the limited purpose of allowing the Illinois Valley Community Hospital to expand its hospital facility, including expansion for needed emergency room and outpatient services; under this Section 7-103.63 compensation shall be paid to those other property owners for the removal of their rights to enforce the residential deed restrictions on property owned by the Illinois Valley Community Hospital, but no real estate owned by those other property owners may be taken.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 10-6-06.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-7-103.125) (was 735 ILCS 5/7-103.113 from

P.A. 94-898)

Sec. 25-7-103.125 7-103.113. Quick-take; City of Mount Vernon. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 Section 7-103 may be used for a period of 12 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly by the City of Mount Vernon for roadway extension purposes for acquisition of the property described in Parcel 4, Parcel 10, and Parcel 12, and for the acquisition of an easement in the property described as Parcel 12TE, each described as follows:

PARCEL 4

A part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 36, Township 2 South, Range 2 East of the Third Principal Meridian, Jefferson County, Illinois, more particularly described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of Lot 5 in Parkway Pointe Subdivision, thence South 00 degrees 44 minutes 12 seconds West along the west line of Lot 5, a distance of 13.84 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence South 03 degrees 01 minutes 34 seconds East, 323.26 feet; thence South 12 degrees 21 minutes 36 seconds East, 177.55 feet; thence South 42 degrees 33 minutes 50 seconds East, 65.08 feet; thence South 84 degrees 41 minutes 25 seconds East, 200.97 feet; thence South 88 degrees 53 minutes 09 seconds East, 475.09 feet; thence South 77 degrees 33 minutes 00 seconds East, 127.43 feet; thence South 87 degrees 51 minutes 48 seconds East, 290.09 feet to a point of the existing north right-of-way of Veteran's Memorial Drive; thence South 01 degree 03 minutes 41 seconds West along the existing north right-of-way line, 5.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 56 minutes 19 seconds West along the existing north right-of-way line, 1,055.47 feet to the southeast corner of Lot 8 in Parkway Pointe Subdivision; thence continuing North 88 degrees 56 minutes 19 seconds West along the existing north right-of-way line and the south line of Lot 8, a distance of 69.90 feet; thence North 44 degrees 02 minutes 40 seconds West along the existing north right-of-way line and the south line of Lot 8, a distance of 99.52 feet to the existing east right-of-way line of South 42nd Street and the Southwest corner of Lot 8; thence North 00 degrees 44 minutes 11 seconds East along the east right-of-way line of South 42nd Street and the west line of Lots 5, 6, 7 and 8, a distance of 523.73 feet to the Point of Beginning, containing 1.11 acres (48,299 square feet), more or less.

PARCEL 10

A part of Lot 9 in the Division of Lands of Paulina E. Davidson, located in the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 3 South, Range 2 East of the Third Principal Meridian and more particularly described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of Lot 9 in the Division of Lands of Paulina E. Davidson; thence South 89 degrees 22 minutes 46 seconds East along the north line of Lot 9, a distance of 220.27 feet to the west right-of-way line of Interstates 57 and 64; thence South 18 degrees 17 minutes 35 seconds East along the west right-of-way line, 198.37 feet; thence South 87 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds West, 234.54 feet; thence North 87 degrees 56 minutes 05 seconds East, 49.82 feet to the west line of Lot 9 in the Division of Lands of Paulina E. Davidson; thence North 00 degrees 25 minutes 29 seconds East, 201.09 feet to the Point of Beginning, containing 1.14 acres (49,727 square feet), more or less.

PARCEL 12

A part of Lot 1 in Charles Starrett Subdivision in the Southeast Quarter of Section 35, Township 2 South, Range 2 East of the Third Principal Meridian, Jefferson County, Illinois and more particularly described as follows:

Beginning at the Southwest corner of Lot 1 in Charles Starrett Subdivision; thence North 00 degrees 37 minutes 30 seconds East along the west line of Lot 1, a distance of 22.91 feet; thence North 83 degrees 02 minutes 40 seconds East, 131.58 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds East, 198.71 feet to the west right-of-way line of Interstates 57 and 64; thence South 18 degrees 00 minutes 35 seconds East along the west right-of-way line, 29.32 feet to the South line of Lot 1 in Charles Starrett Subdivision; thence North 89 degrees 31 minutes 48 seconds West along the south line of Lot 1, a distance of 207.89 feet; thence South 00 degrees 02 minutes 53 seconds East along the south line of Lot 1, a distance of 19.80 feet; thence North 89 degrees 31 minutes 54 seconds West along the south line of Lot 1, a distance of 130.68 feet to the Point of Beginning, containing 0.21 acres (8,988 square feet), more or less.

PARCEL 12 TE (Easement)

A part of Lot 1 in Charles Starrett Subdivision in the Southeast Quarter of Section 35, Township 2 South, Range 2 East of the Third Principal Meridian, Jefferson County, Illinois and more particularly described as follows:

Beginning at the Southwest corner of Lot 1 in Charles Starrett Subdivision; thence North 00 degrees 37 minutes 32 seconds East along the west line of Lot 1, a distance of 212.31 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 00 degrees 37 minutes 32 seconds East along the west line of Lot 1, a distance of 105.00 feet to the northwest corner of Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 29 minutes 58 seconds East along the north line of Lot 1, a distance of 25.38 feet; thence South 05 degrees 26 minutes 16 seconds West, 105.39 feet; thence North 89 degrees 29 minutes 58 seconds West, 16.54 feet to the Point of Beginning, containing 0.05 acres (2,200 square feet), more or less.

(Source: Incorporates P.A. 94-898, eff. 6-22-06; revised 12-12-06.)

Section 1095. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 6.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/6.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 76.1)

Sec. 6.1. Right to compensation. A person is entitled to compensation under this Act if:

(a) Within 2 years of the occurrence of the crime upon which the claim is based, he files an application, under oath, with the Court of Claims and on a form prescribed in accordance with Section 7.1 furnished by the Attorney General. If the person entitled to compensation is under 18 years of age or under other legal disability at the time of the occurrence or becomes legally disabled as a result of the occurrence, he may file the application required by this subsection within 2 years after he attains the age of 18 years or the disability is removed, as the case may be. Legal disability includes a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder.

(b) For all crimes of violence, except those listed in subsection (b-1) of this Section, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 72 hours of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing the death or injury to the victim or, in the event such notification was made more than 72 hours after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that such notice was timely under the circumstances.

(b-1) For victims of offenses defined in Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 7 days of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing death or injury to the victim or, in the event that the notification was made more than 7 days after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that the notice was timely under the circumstances. (b-2) If the applicant has obtained an order of protection or a civil no contact order or has presented himself or herself to a hospital for sexual assault evidence collection and medical care, such action shall constitute appropriate notification under this subsection (b-1) or subsection (b) or (b-1) of this Section.

(c) The applicant has cooperated with law enforcement officials in the apprehension and prosecution of the assailant. (c-1) If the applicant has obtained an order of protection or a civil no contact order or has presented himself or herself to a hospital for sexual assault evidence collection and medical care, such action shall constitute cooperation under this subsection (c) of this Section.

(d) The applicant is not the offender or an accomplice of the offender and the award would not unjustly benefit the offender or his accomplice.

(e) The injury to or death of the victim was not substantially attributable to his own wrongful act and was not substantially provoked by the victim.

(Source: P.A. 94-192, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-16-05.)

Section 1100. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Sections 7.1 and 11 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/7.1)

Sec. 7.1. Interagency disclosures.

(a) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent the interagency disclosure of the name, social security number, and information concerning services rendered, currently being rendered, or proposed to be rendered regarding a recipient of services. This disclosure may be made only between agencies or departments of the State including, but not limited to: (i) the Department of Human Services, (ii) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, (iii) the Department of Public Health, (iv) the State Board of Education, and (v) the Department of Children and Family Services for the purpose of a diligent search for a missing parent pursuant to Sections 2-15 and 2-16 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 if the Department of Children and Family Services has reason to believe the parent is residing in a mental health facility, when one or more agencies or departments of the State have entered into a prior interagency agreement, memorandum of understanding, or similar agreement to jointly provide or cooperate in the provision of or funding of mental health or developmental disabilities services.

The Department of Children and Family Services shall not redisclose the information received under this Section other than for purposes of service provision or as necessary for proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) This Section applies to, but is not limited to, interagency disclosures under interagency agreements entered into in compliance with the Early Intervention Services System Act.

(c) Information disclosed under this Section shall be for the limited purpose of coordinating State efforts in providing efficient interagency service systems and avoiding duplication of interagency services.

(d) Information disclosed under this Section shall be limited to the recipient's name, address, social security number or other individually assigned identifying number, or information generally descriptive of services rendered or to be rendered. The disclosure of individual clinical or treatment records or other confidential information is not authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-608, eff. 6-30-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(740 ILCS 110/11) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 811)

Sec. 11. Disclosure of records and communications. Records and communications may be disclosed:

(i) in accordance with the provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, subsection (u) of Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act, or Section 7.4 of the Child Care Act of 1969;

(ii) when, and to the extent, a therapist, in his or her sole discretion, determines that disclosure is necessary to initiate or continue civil commitment proceedings under the laws of this State or to otherwise protect the recipient or other person against a clear, imminent risk of serious physical or mental injury or disease or death being inflicted upon the recipient or by the recipient on himself or another;

(iii) when, and to the extent disclosure is, in the sole discretion of the therapist, necessary to the provision of emergency medical care to a recipient who is unable to assert or waive his or her rights hereunder;

(iv) when disclosure is necessary to collect sums or receive third party payment representing charges for mental health or developmental disabilities services provided by a therapist or agency to a recipient under Chapter V of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or to transfer debts under the Uncollected State Claims Act; however, disclosure shall be limited to information needed to pursue collection, and the information so disclosed shall not be used for any other purposes nor shall it be redisclosed except in connection with collection activities;

(v) when requested by a family member, the Department of Human Services may assist in the location of the interment site of a deceased recipient who is interred in a cemetery established under Section 100-26 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act;

(vi) in judicial proceedings under Article VIII of Chapter III and Article V of Chapter IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code and proceedings and investigations preliminary thereto, to the State's Attorney for the county or residence of a person who is the subject of such proceedings, or in which the person is found, or in which the facility is located, to the attorney representing the recipient in the judicial proceedings, to any person or agency providing mental health services that are the subject of the proceedings and to that person's or agency's attorney, to any court personnel, including but not limited to judges and circuit court clerks, and to a guardian ad litem if one has been appointed by the court, provided that the information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the proceedings or investigations;

(vii) when, and to the extent disclosure is necessary to comply with the requirements of the Census Bureau in taking the federal Decennial Census;

(viii) when, and to the extent, in the therapist's sole discretion, disclosure is necessary to warn or protect a specific individual against whom a recipient has made a specific threat of violence where there exists a therapist-recipient relationship or a special recipient-individual relationship;

(ix) in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(x) in accordance with the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act;

(xi) in accordance with Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act; and

(xii) in accordance with Section 55 of the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act.

Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act, participating in good faith in the making of a report under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or in the disclosure of records and communications under this Section, shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of such action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, arising out of a report or disclosure under this Section, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed.

(Source: P.A. 94-852, eff. 6-13-06; 94-1010, eff. 10-1-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 1105. The Predator Accountability Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(740 ILCS 128/20)

Sec. 20. Relief. (a) A prevailing victim of the sex trade shall be entitled to all relief that would make him or her whole. This includes, but is not limited to:

(1) declaratory relief;

(2) injunctive relief;

(3) recovery of costs and attorney fees including, but not limited to, costs for expert testimony and witness fees;

(4) compensatory damages including, but not limited to:

(A) economic loss, including damage, destruction, or loss of use of personal property, and loss of past or future earning capacity; and

(B) damages for death, personal injury, disease, and mental and emotional harm, including medical, rehabilitation, burial expenses, pain and suffering, and physical impairment;

(5) punitive damages; and

(6) damages in the amount of the gross revenues received by the defendant from, or related to, the sex trade activities of the plaintiff.

(Source: P.A. 94-998, eff. 7-3-06; revised 8-3-06.)

Section 1110. The State Lawsuit Immunity Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(745 ILCS 5/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 801)

Sec. 1. Except as provided in the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, the Court of Claims Act, and the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and or Section 1.5 of this Act, the State of Illinois shall not be made a defendant or party in any court.

(Source: P.A. 93-414, eff. 1-1-04; 93-615, eff. 11-19-03; revised 12-19-03.)

Section 1115. The Federal Law Enforcement Officer Immunity Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(745 ILCS 22/5)

Sec. 5. Definition. As used in this Act, "federal law enforcement officer" means any officer, agent or employee of the federal government commissioned by federal statute to make arrests for violations of federal criminal laws, including but not limited to, all criminal investigators of:

(a) The United States Department of Justice, The Federal Bureau of Investigation, The Drug Enforcement Agency and The Department of Immigration and Naturalization;

(b) The United States Department of the Treasury, The Secret Service, The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms and The Customs Service;

(c) The United States Internal Revenue Service;

(d) The United States General Services Administration;

(e) The United States Postal Service; and

(f) All United States Marshals Marshalls or Deputy United States Marshals Marshalls whose duties involve the enforcement of federal criminal laws.

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94; revised 10-13-05.)

Section 1120. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(745 ILCS 49/20)

Sec. 20. Free dental clinic; exemption from civil liability for services performed without compensation. Any person licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act to practice dentistry or to practice as a dental hygienist who, in good faith, provides dental treatment, dental services, diagnoses, or advice as part of the services of an established free dental clinic providing care to medically indigent patients which is limited to care which does not require the services of a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, and who receives no fee or compensation from that source shall not, as a result of any acts or omissions, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the licensee, in providing dental treatment, dental services, diagnoses or advice, be liable for civil damages. For purposes of this Section, a "free dental clinic" is an organized program providing, without charge, dental care to individuals unable to pay for their care. For purposes of this Section, an "organized program" is a program sponsored by a community, public health, charitable, voluntary, or organized dental organization. Free dental services provided under this Section may be provided at a clinic or private dental office. A free dental clinic may receive reimbursement from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or may receive partial reimbursement from a patient based upon ability to pay, provided any such reimbursements shall be used only to pay overhead expenses of operating the free dental clinic and may not be used, in whole or in part, to provide a fee, reimbursement, or other compensation to any person licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act who is receiving an exemption under this Section or to any entity that the person owns or controls or in which the person has an ownership interest or from which the person receives a fee, reimbursement, or compensation of any kind. Dental care shall not include the use of general anesthesia or require an overnight stay in a health care facility.

The provisions of this Section shall not apply in any case unless the free dental clinic has posted in a conspicuous place on its premises an explanation of the immunity from civil liability provided in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-83, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1125. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Sections 505, 505.1, 505.2, 505.3, 506, 507, 507.1, 510, 516, 517, 601.5, 602, 704, 705, 709, and 712 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/505) (from Ch. 40, par. 505)

Sec. 505. Child support; contempt; penalties.

(a) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, declaration of invalidity of marriage, a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, a proceeding for modification of a previous order for child support under Section 510 of this Act, or any proceeding authorized under Section 501 or 601 of this Act, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to pay an amount reasonable and necessary for his support, without regard to marital misconduct. The duty of support owed to a child includes the obligation to provide for the reasonable and necessary physical, mental and emotional health needs of the child. For purposes of this Section, the term "child" shall include any child under age 18 and any child under age 19 who is still attending high school.

(1) The Court shall determine the minimum amount of support by using the following guidelines:

(2) The above guidelines shall be applied in each case unless the court makes a finding that application of the guidelines would be inappropriate, after considering the best interests of the child in light of evidence including but not limited to one or more of the following relevant factors:

(a) the financial resources and needs of the child;

(b) the financial resources and needs of the custodial parent;

(c) the standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved;

(d) the physical and emotional condition of the child, and his educational needs; and

(e) the financial resources and needs of the non-custodial parent.

If the court deviates from the guidelines, the court's finding shall state the amount of support that would have been required under the guidelines, if determinable. The court shall include the reason or reasons for the variance from the guidelines.

(3) "Net income" is defined as the total of all income from all sources, minus the following deductions:

(a) Federal income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(b) State income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(c) Social Security (FICA payments);

(d) Mandatory retirement contributions required by law or as a condition of employment;

(e) Union dues;

(f) Dependent and individual health/hospitalization insurance premiums;

(g) Prior obligations of support or maintenance actually paid pursuant to a court order;

(h) Expenditures for repayment of debts that represent reasonable and necessary expenses for the production of income, medical expenditures necessary to preserve life or health, reasonable expenditures for the benefit of the child and the other parent, exclusive of gifts. The court shall reduce net income in determining the minimum amount of support to be ordered only for the period that such payments are due and shall enter an order containing provisions for its self-executing modification upon termination of such payment period.

(4) In cases where the court order provides for health/hospitalization insurance coverage pursuant to Section 505.2 of this Act, the premiums for that insurance, or that portion of the premiums for which the supporting party is responsible in the case of insurance provided through an employer's health insurance plan where the employer pays a portion of the premiums, shall be subtracted from net income in determining the minimum amount of support to be ordered.

(4.5) In a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, and in which the court is requiring payment of support for the period before the date an order for current support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the supporting party's net income for the prior period was the same as his or her net income at the time the order for current support is entered.

(5) If the net income cannot be determined because of default or any other reason, the court shall order support in an amount considered reasonable in the particular case. The final order in all cases shall state the support level in dollar amounts. However, if the court finds that the child support amount cannot be expressed exclusively as a dollar amount because all or a portion of the payor's net income is uncertain as to source, time of payment, or amount, the court may order a percentage amount of support in addition to a specific dollar amount and enter such other orders as may be necessary to determine and enforce, on a timely basis, the applicable support ordered.

(6) If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(a-5) In an action to enforce an order for support based on the respondent's failure to make support payments as required by the order, notice of proceedings to hold the respondent in contempt for that failure may be served on the respondent by personal service or by regular mail addressed to the respondent's last known address. The respondent's last known address may be determined from records of the clerk of the court, from the Federal Case Registry of Child Support Orders, or by any other reasonable means.

(b) Failure of either parent to comply with an order to pay support shall be punishable as in other cases of contempt. In addition to other penalties provided by law the Court may, after finding the parent guilty of contempt, order that the parent be:

(1) placed on probation with such conditions of probation as the Court deems advisable;

(2) sentenced to periodic imprisonment for a period not to exceed 6 months; provided, however, that the Court may permit the parent to be released for periods of time during the day or night to:

(A) work; or

(B) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation.

The Court may further order any part or all of the earnings of a parent during a sentence of periodic imprisonment paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court or to the parent having custody or to the guardian having custody of the children of the sentenced parent for the support of said children until further order of the Court.

If there is a unity of interest and ownership sufficient to render no financial separation between a non-custodial parent and another person or persons or business entity, the court may pierce the ownership veil of the person, persons, or business entity to discover assets of the non-custodial parent held in the name of that person, those persons, or that business entity. The following circumstances are sufficient to authorize a court to order discovery of the assets of a person, persons, or business entity and to compel the application of any discovered assets toward payment on the judgment for support:

(1) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity maintain records together.

(2) the non-custodial parent and the person, persons, or business entity fail to maintain an arms length relationship between themselves with regard to any assets.

(3) the non-custodial parent transfers assets to the person, persons, or business entity with the intent to perpetrate a fraud on the custodial parent.

With respect to assets which are real property, no order entered under this paragraph shall affect the rights of bona fide purchasers, mortgagees, judgment creditors, or other lien holders who acquire their interests in the property prior to the time a notice of lis pendens pursuant to the Code of Civil Procedure or a copy of the order is placed of record in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the real property is located.

The court may also order in cases where the parent is 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days obligation or more, that the parent's Illinois driving privileges be suspended until the court determines that the parent is in compliance with the order of support. The court may also order that the parent be issued a family financial responsibility driving permit that would allow limited driving privileges for employment and medical purposes in accordance with Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The clerk of the circuit court shall certify the order suspending the driving privileges of the parent or granting the issuance of a family financial responsibility driving permit to the Secretary of State on forms prescribed by the Secretary. Upon receipt of the authenticated documents, the Secretary of State shall suspend the parent's driving privileges until further order of the court and shall, if ordered by the court, subject to the provisions of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, issue a family financial responsibility driving permit to the parent.

In addition to the penalties or punishment that may be imposed under this Section, any person whose conduct constitutes a violation of Section 15 of the Non-Support Punishment Act may be prosecuted under that Act, and a person convicted under that Act may be sentenced in accordance with that Act. The sentence may include but need not be limited to a requirement that the person perform community service under Section 50 of that Act or participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act. A person may not be required to participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act if the person is currently participating in a work program pursuant to Section 505.1 of this Act.

A support obligation, or any portion of a support obligation, which becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. An order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2006 shall contain a statement that a support obligation required under the order, or any portion of a support obligation required under the order, that becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the accrual of interest as provided in this Section.

(c) A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

(d) Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(e) When child support is to be paid through the clerk of the court in a county of 1,000,000 inhabitants or less, the order shall direct the obligor to pay to the clerk, in addition to the child support payments, all fees imposed by the county board under paragraph (3) of subsection (u) of Section 27.1 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Unless paid in cash or pursuant to an order for withholding, the payment of the fee shall be by a separate instrument from the support payment and shall be made to the order of the Clerk.

(f) All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the obligor to notify the court and, in cases in which a party is receiving child and spouse services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, within 7 days, (i) of the name and address of any new employer of the obligor, (ii) whether the obligor has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(g) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(g-5) If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this subsection. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this subsection with regard to the order. This subsection shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of this Act.

(h) An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(i) The court does not lose the powers of contempt, driver's license suspension, or other child support enforcement mechanisms, including, but not limited to, criminal prosecution as set forth in this Act, upon the emancipation of the minor child or children.

(Source: P.A. 93-148, eff. 7-10-03; 93-1061, eff. 1-1-05; 94-90, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/505.1) (from Ch. 40, par. 505.1)

Sec. 505.1. (a) Whenever it is determined in a proceeding to establish or enforce a child support or maintenance obligation that the person owing a duty of support is unemployed, the court may order the person to seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing or other memorandum of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. Additionally, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training or work programs and where the duty of support is owed to a child receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as amended, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for participation in job search, training or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of that Code.

(b) Whenever it is determined that a person owes past-due support for a child or for a child and the parent with whom the child is living, and the child is receiving assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall order at the request of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) that the person pay the past-due support in accordance with a plan approved by the court; or

(2) if the person owing past-due support is unemployed, is subject to such a plan, and is not incapacitated, that the person participate in such job search, training, or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of the Illinois Public Aid Code as the court deems appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/505.2) (from Ch. 40, par. 505.2)

Sec. 505.2. Health insurance.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

(1) "Obligee" means the individual to whom the duty of support is owed or the individual's legal representative.

(2) "Obligor" means the individual who owes a duty of support pursuant to an order for support.

(3) "Public office" means any elected official or any State or local agency which is or may become responsible by law for enforcement of, or which is or may become authorized to enforce, an order for support, including, but not limited to: the Attorney General, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Illinois Department of Human Services, the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, and the various State's Attorneys, Clerks of the Circuit Court and supervisors of general assistance.

(4) "Child" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 505.

(b) Order.

(1) Whenever the court establishes, modifies or enforces an order for child support or for child support and maintenance the court shall include in the order a provision for the health care coverage of the child which shall, upon request of the obligee or Public Office, require that any child covered by the order be named as a beneficiary of any health insurance plan that is available to the obligor through an employer or labor union or trade union. If the court finds that such a plan is not available to the obligor, or that the plan is not accessible to the obligee, the court may, upon request of the obligee or Public Office, order the obligor to name the child covered by the order as a beneficiary of any health insurance plan that is available to the obligor on a group basis, or as a beneficiary of an independent health insurance plan to be obtained by the obligor, after considering the following factors:

(A) the medical needs of the child;

(B) the availability of a plan to meet those needs; and

(C) the cost of such a plan to the obligor.

(2) If the employer or labor union or trade union offers more than one plan, the order shall require the obligor to name the child as a beneficiary of the plan in which the obligor is enrolled.

(3) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the authority of the court to establish or modify a support order to provide for payment of expenses, including deductibles, copayments and any other health expenses, which are in addition to expenses covered by an insurance plan of which a child is ordered to be named a beneficiary pursuant to this Section.

(c) Implementation and enforcement.

(1) When the court order requires that a minor child be named as a beneficiary of a health insurance plan, other than a health insurance plan available through an employer or labor union or trade union, the obligor shall provide written proof to the obligee or Public Office that the required insurance has been obtained, or that application for insurability has been made, within 30 days of receiving notice of the court order. Unless the obligor was present in court when the order was issued, notice of the order shall be given pursuant to Illinois Supreme Court Rules. If an obligor fails to provide the required proof, he may be held in contempt of court.

(2) When the court requires that a child be named as a beneficiary of a health insurance plan available through an employer or labor union or trade union, the court's order shall be implemented in accordance with the Income Withholding for Support Act.

(2.5) The court shall order the obligor to reimburse the obligee for 50% of the premium for placing the child on his or her health insurance policy if:

(i) a health insurance plan is not available to the obligor through an employer or labor union or trade union and the court does not order the obligor to cover the child as a beneficiary of any health insurance plan that is available to the obligor on a group basis or as a beneficiary of an independent health insurance plan to be obtained by the obligor; or

(ii) the obligor does not obtain medical insurance for the child within 90 days of the date of the court order requiring the obligor to obtain insurance for the child.

The provisions of subparagraph (i) of paragraph 2.5 of subsection (c) shall be applied, unless the court makes a finding that to apply those provisions would be inappropriate after considering all of the factors listed in paragraph 2 of subsection (a) of Section 505.

The court may order the obligor to reimburse the obligee for 100% of the premium for placing the child on his or her health insurance policy.

(d) Failure to maintain insurance. The dollar amount of the premiums for court-ordered health insurance, or that portion of the premiums for which the obligor is responsible in the case of insurance provided under a group health insurance plan through an employer or labor union or trade union where the employer or labor union or trade union pays a portion of the premiums, shall be considered an additional child support obligation owed by the obligor. Whenever the obligor fails to provide or maintain health insurance pursuant to an order for support, the obligor shall be liable to the obligee for the dollar amount of the premiums which were not paid, and shall also be liable for all medical expenses incurred by the child which would have been paid or reimbursed by the health insurance which the obligor was ordered to provide or maintain. In addition, the obligee may petition the court to modify the order based solely on the obligor's failure to pay the premiums for court-ordered health insurance.

(e) Authorization for payment. The signature of the obligee is a valid authorization to the insurer to process a claim for payment under the insurance plan to the provider of the health care services or to the obligee.

(f) Disclosure of information. The obligor's employer or labor union or trade union shall disclose to the obligee or Public Office, upon request, information concerning any dependent coverage plans which would be made available to a new employee or labor union member or trade union member. The employer or labor union or trade union shall disclose such information whether or not a court order for medical support has been entered.

(g) Employer obligations. If a parent is required by an order for support to provide coverage for a child's health care expenses and if that coverage is available to the parent through an employer who does business in this State, the employer must do all of the following upon receipt of a copy of the order of support or order for withholding:

(1) The employer shall, upon the parent's request, permit the parent to include in that coverage a child who is otherwise eligible for that coverage, without regard to any enrollment season restrictions that might otherwise be applicable as to the time period within which the child may be added to that coverage.

(2) If the parent has health care coverage through the employer but fails to apply for coverage of the child, the employer shall include the child in the parent's coverage upon application by the child's other parent or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(3) The employer may not eliminate any child from the parent's health care coverage unless the employee is no longer employed by the employer and no longer covered under the employer's group health plan or unless the employer is provided with satisfactory written evidence of either of the following:

(A) The order for support is no longer in effect.

(B) The child is or will be included in a comparable health care plan obtained by the parent under such order that is currently in effect or will take effect no later than the date the prior coverage is terminated.

The employer may eliminate a child from a parent's health care plan obtained by the parent under such order if the employer has eliminated dependent health care coverage for all of its employees.

(Source: P.A. 94-923, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-28-06.)

(750 ILCS 5/505.3)

Sec. 505.3. Information to State Case Registry.

(a) In this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "business day" are defined as set forth in the Income Withholding for Support Act.

"State Case Registry" means the State Case Registry established under Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) Each order for support entered or modified by the circuit court under this Act shall require that the obligor and obligee (i) file with the clerk of the circuit court the information required by this Section (and any other information required under Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act or by the federal Department of Health and Human Services) at the time of entry or modification of the order for support and (ii) file updated information with the clerk within 5 business days of any change. Failure of the obligor or obligee to file or update the required information shall be punishable as in cases of contempt. The failure shall not prevent the court from entering or modifying the order for support, however.

(c) The obligor shall file the following information: the obligor's name, date of birth, social security number, and mailing address.

If either the obligor or the obligee receives child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the obligor shall also file the following information: the obligor's telephone number, driver's license number, and residential address (if different from the obligor's mailing address), and the name, address, and telephone number of the obligor's employer or employers.

(d) The obligee shall file the following information:

(1) The names of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(2) The dates of birth of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(3) The social security numbers of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(4) The obligee's mailing address.

(e) In cases in which the obligee receives child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the order for support shall (i) require that the obligee file the information required under subsection (d) with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for inclusion in the State Case Registry, rather than file the information with the clerk, and (ii) require that the obligee include the following additional information:

(1) The obligee's telephone and driver's license numbers.

(2) The obligee's residential address, if different from the obligee's mailing address.

(3) The name, address, and telephone number of the obligee's employer or employers.

The order for support shall also require that the obligee update the information filed with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid within 5 business days of any change.

(f) The clerk shall provide the information filed under this Section, together with the court docket number and county in which the order for support was entered, to the State Case Registry within 5 business days after receipt of the information.

(g) In a case in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the clerk shall provide the following additional information to the State Case Registry within 5 business days after entry or modification of an order for support or request from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) The amount of monthly or other periodic support owed under the order for support and other amounts, including arrearage, interest, or late payment penalties and fees, due or overdue under the order.

(2) Any such amounts that have been received by the clerk, and the distribution of those amounts by the clerk.

(h) Information filed by the obligor and obligee under this Section that is not specifically required to be included in the body of an order for support under other laws is not a public record and shall be treated as confidential and subject to disclosure only in accordance with the provisions of this Section, Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-463, eff. 8-22-01; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/506) (from Ch. 40, par. 506)

Sec. 506. Representation of child.

(a) Duties. In any proceedings involving the support, custody, visitation, education, parentage, property interest, or general welfare of a minor or dependent child, the court may, on its own motion or that of any party, appoint an attorney to serve in one of the following capacities to address the issues the court delineates:

(1) Attorney. The attorney shall provide independent legal counsel for the child and shall owe the same duties of undivided loyalty, confidentiality, and competent representation as are due an adult client.

(2) Guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall testify or submit a written report to the court regarding his or her recommendations in accordance with the best interest of the child. The report shall be made available to all parties. The guardian ad litem may be called as a witness for purposes of cross-examination regarding the guardian ad litem's report or recommendations. The guardian ad litem shall investigate the facts of the case and interview the child and the parties.

(3) Child representative. The child representative shall advocate what the child representative finds to be in the best interests of the child after reviewing the facts and circumstances of the case. The child representative shall meet with the child and the parties, investigate the facts of the case, and encourage settlement and the use of alternative forms of dispute resolution. The child representative shall have the same authority and obligation to participate in the litigation as does an attorney for a party and shall possess all the powers of investigation as does a guardian ad litem. The child representative shall consider, but not be bound by, the expressed wishes of the child. A child representative shall have received training in child advocacy or shall possess such experience as determined to be equivalent to such training by the chief judge of the circuit where the child representative has been appointed. The child representative shall not disclose confidential communications made by the child, except as required by law or by the Rules of Professional Conduct. The child representative shall not render an opinion, recommendation, or report to the court and shall not be called as a witness, but shall offer evidence-based legal arguments. The child representative shall disclose the position as to what the child representative intends to advocate in a pre-trial memorandum that shall be served upon all counsel of record prior to the trial. The position disclosed in the pre-trial memorandum shall not be considered evidence. The court and the parties may consider the position of the child representative for purposes of a settlement conference.

(a-3) Additional appointments. During the proceedings the court may appoint an additional attorney to serve in the capacity described in subdivision (a)(1) or an additional attorney to serve in another of the capacities described in subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) on the court's own motion or that of a party only for good cause shown and when the reasons for the additional appointment are set forth in specific findings.

(a-5) Appointment considerations. In deciding whether to make an appointment of an attorney for the minor child, a guardian ad litem, or a child representative, the court shall consider the nature and adequacy of the evidence to be presented by the parties and the availability of other methods of obtaining information, including social service organizations and evaluations by mental health professions, as well as resources for payment.

In no event is this Section intended to or designed to abrogate the decision making power of the trier of fact. Any appointment made under this Section is not intended to nor should it serve to place any appointed individual in the role of a surrogate judge.

(b) Fees and costs. The court shall enter an order as appropriate for costs, fees, and disbursements, including a retainer, when the attorney, guardian ad litem, or child's representative is appointed. Any person appointed under this Section shall file with the court within 90 days of his or her appointment, and every subsequent 90-day period thereafter during the course of his or her representation, a detailed invoice for services rendered with a copy being sent to each party. The court shall review the invoice submitted and approve the fees, if they are reasonable and necessary. Any order approving the fees shall require payment by either or both parents, by any other party or source, or from the marital estate or the child's separate estate. The court may not order payment by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in cases in which the Department is providing child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. Unless otherwise ordered by the court at the time fees and costs are approved, all fees and costs payable to an attorney, guardian ad litem, or child representative under this Section are by implication deemed to be in the nature of support of the child and are within the exceptions to discharge in bankruptcy under 11 U.S.C.A. 523. The provisions of Sections 501 and 508 of this Act shall apply to fees and costs for attorneys appointed under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-640, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/507) (from Ch. 40, par. 507)

Sec. 507. Payment of maintenance or support to court.

(a) In actions instituted under this Act, the court shall order that maintenance and support payments be made to the clerk of court as trustee for remittance to the person entitled to receive the payments. However, the court in its discretion may direct otherwise where circumstances so warrant.

(b) The clerk of court shall maintain records listing the amount of payments, the date payments are required to be made and the names and addresses of the parties affected by the order. For those cases in which support is payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by order of the court or upon notification of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), and the Illinois Department of Public Aid collects support by assignment, offset, withholding, deduction or other process permitted by law, the Illinois Department shall notify the clerk of the date and amount of such collection. Upon notification, the clerk shall record the collection on the payment record for the case.

(c) The parties affected by the order shall inform the clerk of court of any change of address or of other condition that may affect the administration of the order.

(d) The provisions of this Section shall not apply to cases that come under the provisions of Sections 709 through 712.

(e) To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Section 507.1 of this Act and Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/507.1)

Sec. 507.1. Payment of Support to State Disbursement Unit.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "payor" mean those terms as defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act, except that "order for support" shall not mean orders providing for spousal maintenance under which there is no child support obligation.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, each order for support entered or modified on or after October 1, 1999 shall require that support payments be made to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code if:

(1) a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, but the support payments are made through income withholding.

(c) Support payments shall be made to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(1) the order for support was entered before October 1, 1999, and a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, and the support payments are being made through income withholding.

(c-5) If no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and the support payments are not made through income withholding, then support payments shall be made as directed by the order for support.

(c-10) At any time, and notwithstanding the existence of an order directing payments to be made elsewhere, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice to the obligor and, where applicable, to the obligor's payor:

(1) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(A) a party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(B) no party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, but the support payments are made through income withholding; or

(2) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit of another state upon request of another state's Title IV-D child support enforcement agency, in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated under that Part D.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee and to the clerk of the circuit court.

(c-15) Within 15 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the clerk of the circuit court shall provide written notice to the obligor to make payments directly to the clerk of the circuit court if no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the support payments are not made through income withholding, and the order for support requires support payments to be made directly to the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee.

(c-20) If the State Disbursement Unit receives a support payment that was not appropriately made to the Unit under this Section, the Unit shall immediately return the payment to the sender, including, if possible, instructions detailing where to send the support payment.

(d) The notices under subsections (c-10) and (c-15) may be sent by ordinary mail, certified mail, return receipt requested, facsimile transmission, or other electronic process, or may be served upon the obligor or payor using any method provided by law for service of a summons.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 91-677, eff. 1-5-00; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/510) (from Ch. 40, par. 510)

Sec. 510. Modification and termination of provisions for maintenance, support, educational expenses, and property disposition.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of Section 502 and in subsection (b), clause (3) of Section 505.2, the provisions of any judgment respecting maintenance or support may be modified only as to installments accruing subsequent to due notice by the moving party of the filing of the motion for modification. An order for child support may be modified as follows:

(1) upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances; and

(2) without the necessity of showing a substantial change in circumstances, as follows:

(A) upon a showing of an inconsistency of at least 20%, but no less than $10 per month, between the amount of the existing order and the amount of child support that results from application of the guidelines specified in Section 505 of this Act unless the inconsistency is due to the fact that the amount of the existing order resulted from a deviation from the guideline amount and there has not been a change in the circumstances that resulted in that deviation; or

(B) Upon a showing of a need to provide for the health care needs of the child under the order through health insurance or other means. In no event shall the eligibility for or receipt of medical assistance be considered to meet the need to provide for the child's health care needs.

The provisions of subparagraph (a)(2)(A) shall apply only in cases in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and only when at least 36 months have elapsed since the order for child support was entered or last modified.

(a-5) An order for maintenance may be modified or terminated only upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances. In all such proceedings, as well as in proceedings in which maintenance is being reviewed, the court shall consider the applicable factors set forth in subsection (a) of Section 504 and the following factors:

(1) any change in the employment status of either party and whether the change has been made in good faith;

(2) the efforts, if any, made by the party receiving maintenance to become self-supporting, and the reasonableness of the efforts where they are appropriate;

(3) any impairment of the present and future earning capacity of either party;

(4) the tax consequences of the maintenance payments upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties;

(5) the duration of the maintenance payments previously paid (and remaining to be paid) relative to the length of the marriage;

(6) the property, including retirement benefits, awarded to each party under the judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of declaration of invalidity of marriage and the present status of the property;

(7) the increase or decrease in each party's income since the prior judgment or order from which a review, modification, or termination is being sought;

(8) the property acquired and currently owned by each party after the entry of the judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of declaration of invalidity of marriage; and

(9) any other factor that the court expressly finds to be just and equitable.

(b) The provisions as to property disposition may not be revoked or modified, unless the court finds the existence of conditions that justify the reopening of a judgment under the laws of this State.

(c) Unless otherwise agreed by the parties in a written agreement set forth in the judgment or otherwise approved by the court, the obligation to pay future maintenance is terminated upon the death of either party, or the remarriage of the party receiving maintenance, or if the party receiving maintenance cohabits with another person on a resident, continuing conjugal basis.

(d) Unless otherwise provided in this Act, or as agreed in writing or expressly provided in the judgment, provisions for the support of a child are terminated by emancipation of the child, or if the child has attained the age of 18 and is still attending high school, provisions for the support of the child are terminated upon the date that the child graduates from high school or the date the child attains the age of 19, whichever is earlier, but not by the death of a parent obligated to support or educate the child. An existing obligation to pay for support or educational expenses, or both, is not terminated by the death of a parent. When a parent obligated to pay support or educational expenses, or both, dies, the amount of support or educational expenses, or both, may be enforced, modified, revoked or commuted to a lump sum payment, as equity may require, and that determination may be provided for at the time of the dissolution of the marriage or thereafter.

(e) The right to petition for support or educational expenses, or both, under Sections 505 and 513 is not extinguished by the death of a parent. Upon a petition filed before or after a parent's death, the court may award sums of money out of the decedent's estate for the child's support or educational expenses, or both, as equity may require. The time within which a claim may be filed against the estate of a decedent under Sections 505 and 513 and subsection (d) and this subsection shall be governed by the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975, as a barrable, noncontingent claim.

(f) A petition to modify or terminate child support, custody, or visitation shall not delay any child support enforcement litigation or supplementary proceeding on behalf of the obligee, including, but not limited to, a petition for a rule to show cause, for non-wage garnishment, or for a restraining order.

(Source: P.A. 92-289, eff. 8-9-01; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; 93-353, eff. 1-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/516) (from Ch. 40, par. 516)

Sec. 516. Public Aid collection fee. In all cases instituted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) on behalf of a child or spouse, other than one receiving a grant of financial aid under Article IV of The Illinois Public Aid Code, on whose behalf an application has been made and approved for child support enforcement services as provided by Section 10-1 of that Code, the court shall impose a collection fee on the individual who owes a child or spouse support obligation in an amount equal to 10% of the amount so owed as long as such collection is required by federal law, which fee shall be in addition to the support obligation. The imposition of such fee shall be in accordance with provisions of Title IV, Part D, of the Social Security Act and regulations duly promulgated thereunder. The fee shall be payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and shall continue until child support enforcement services are terminated by that Department.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/517)

Sec. 517. Notice of child support enforcement services. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice at any time to the parties to an action filed under this Act that child support enforcement services are being provided by the Illinois Department under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The notice shall be sent by regular mail to the party's last known address on file with the clerk of the court or the State Case Registry established under Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. After notice is provided pursuant to this Section, the Illinois Department shall be entitled, as if it were a party, to notice of any further proceedings brought in the case. The Illinois Department shall provide the clerk of the court with copies of the notices sent to the parties. The clerk shall file the copies in the court file.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/601.5)

Sec. 601.5. Training. The chief circuit judge or designated presiding judge may approve 3 hours of training for guardians ad litem guardian ad litems appointed under Section 601 of this Act, professional personnel appointed under Section 604 of this Act, evaluators appointed under Section 604.5 of this Act, and investigators appointed under Section 605 of this Act. This training shall include a component on the dynamics of domestic violence and its effect on parents and children.

(Source: P.A. 94-377, eff. 7-29-05; revised 9-15-06.)

(750 ILCS 5/602) (from Ch. 40, par. 602)

Sec. 602. Best Interest of Child.

(a) The court shall determine custody in accordance with the best interest of the child. The court shall consider all relevant factors including:

(1) the wishes of the child's parent or parents as to his custody;

(2) the wishes of the child as to his custodian;

(3) the interaction and interrelationship of the child with his parent or parents, his siblings and any other person who may significantly affect the child's best interest;

(4) the child's adjustment to his home, school and community;

(5) the mental and physical health of all individuals involved;

(6) the physical violence or threat of physical violence by the child's potential custodian, whether directed against the child or directed against another person;

(7) the occurrence of ongoing or repeated abuse as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, whether directed against the child or directed against another person;

(8) the willingness and ability of each parent to facilitate and encourage a close and continuing relationship between the other parent and the child; and

(9) whether one of the parents is a sex offender.

In the case of a custody proceeding in which a stepparent has standing under Section 601, it is presumed to be in the best interest of the minor child that the natural parent have the custody of the minor child unless the presumption is rebutted by the stepparent.

(b) The court shall not consider conduct of a present or proposed custodian that does not affect his relationship to the child.

(c) Unless the court finds the occurrence of ongoing abuse as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the court shall presume that the maximum involvement and cooperation of both parents regarding the physical, mental, moral, and emotional well-being of their child is in the best interest of the child. There shall be no presumption in favor of or against joint custody.

(Source: P.A. 94-377, eff. 7-29-05; 94-643, eff. 1-1-06; revised 8-29-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/704) (from Ch. 40, par. 704)

Sec. 704. Public Aid Provisions.) Except as provided in Sections 709 through 712, if maintenance, child support or both, is awarded to persons who are recipients of aid under "The Illinois Public Aid Code", the court shall direct the husband or wife, as the case may be, to make the payments to (1) the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if the persons are recipients under Articles III, IV or V of the Code, or (2) the local governmental unit responsible for their support if they are recipients under Article VI or VII of the Code. The order shall permit the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, to direct that subsequent payments be made directly to the former spouse, the children, or both, or to some person or agency in their behalf, upon removal of the former spouse or children from the public aid rolls; and upon such direction and removal of the recipients from the public aid rolls, the Illinois Department or local governmental unit, as the case requires, shall give written notice of such action to the court.

(Source: P.A. 81-1474; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/705) (from Ch. 40, par. 705)

Sec. 705. Support payments; receiving and disbursing agents.

(1) The provisions of this Section shall apply, except as provided in Sections 709 through 712.

(2) In a dissolution of marriage action filed in a county of less than 3 million population in which an order or judgment for child support is entered, and in supplementary proceedings in any such county to enforce or vary the terms of such order or judgment arising out of an action for dissolution of marriage filed in such county, the court, except as it otherwise orders, under subsection (4) of this Section, may direct that child support payments be made to the clerk of the court.

(3) In a dissolution of marriage action filed in any county of 3 million or more population in which an order or judgment for child support is entered, and in supplementary proceedings in any such county to enforce or vary the terms of such order or judgment arising out of an action for dissolution of marriage filed in such county, the court, except as it otherwise orders under subsection (4) of this Section, may direct that child support payments be made either to the clerk of the court or to the Court Service Division of the County Department of Public Aid. After the effective date of this Act, the court, except as it otherwise orders under subsection (4) of this Section, may direct that child support payments be made either to the clerk of the court or to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(4) In a dissolution of marriage action or supplementary proceedings involving maintenance or child support payments, or both, to persons who are recipients of aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall direct that such payments be made to (a) the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if the persons are recipients under Articles III, IV, or V of the Code, or (b) the local governmental unit responsible for their support if they are recipients under Articles VI or VII of the Code. In accordance with federal law and regulations, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may continue to collect current maintenance payments or child support payments, or both, after those persons cease to receive public assistance and until termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall pay the net amount collected to those persons after deducting any costs incurred in making the collection or any collection fee from the amount of any recovery made. The order shall permit the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, to direct that payments be made directly to the former spouse, the children, or both, or to some person or agency in their behalf, upon removal of the former spouse or children from the public aid rolls or upon termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; and upon such direction, the Illinois Department or local governmental unit, as the case requires, shall give notice of such action to the court in writing or by electronic transmission.

(5) All clerks of the court and the Court Service Division of a County Department of Public Aid and, after the effective date of this Act, all clerks of the court and the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, receiving child support payments under subsections (2) and (3) of this Section shall disburse the payments to the person or persons entitled thereto under the terms of the order or judgment. They shall establish and maintain current records of all moneys received and disbursed and of defaults and delinquencies in required payments. The court, by order or rule, shall make provision for the carrying out of these duties.

Payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. All payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Human Services shall be deposited in the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund. Disbursements from these funds shall be as provided in the Illinois Public Aid Code. Payments received by a local governmental unit shall be deposited in that unit's General Assistance Fund. Any order of court directing payment of child support to a clerk of court or the Court Service Division of a County Department of Public Aid, which order has been entered on or after August 14, 1961, and prior to the effective date of this Act, may be amended by the court in line with this Act; and orders involving payments of maintenance or child support to recipients of public aid may in like manner be amended to conform to this Act.

(6) No filing fee or costs will be required in any action brought at the request of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in any proceeding under this Act. However, any such fees or costs may be assessed by the court against the respondent in the court's order of support or any modification thereof in a proceeding under this Act.

(7) For those cases in which child support is payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by order of court or upon notification by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), the clerk shall transmit all such payments, within 4 working days of receipt, to insure that funds are available for immediate distribution by the Department to the person or entity entitled thereto in accordance with standards of the Child Support Enforcement Program established under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act. The clerk shall notify the Department of the date of receipt and amount thereof at the time of transmittal. Where the clerk has entered into an agreement of cooperation with the Department to record the terms of child support orders and payments made thereunder directly into the Department's automated data processing system, the clerk shall account for, transmit and otherwise distribute child support payments in accordance with such agreement in lieu of the requirements contained herein.

In any action filed in a county with a population of 1,000,000 or less, the court shall assess against the respondent in any order of maintenance or child support any sum up to $36 annually authorized by ordinance of the county board to be collected by the clerk of the court as costs for administering the collection and disbursement of maintenance and child support payments. Such sum shall be in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support.

(8) To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Section 507.1 of this Act and Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/709) (from Ch. 40, par. 709)

Sec. 709. Mandatory child support payments to clerk.

(a) As of January 1, 1982, child support orders entered in any county covered by this subsection shall be made pursuant to the provisions of Sections 709 through 712 of this Act. For purposes of these Sections, the term "child support payment" or "payment" shall include any payment ordered to be made solely for the purpose of the support of a child or children or any payment ordered for general support which includes any amount for support of any child or children.

The provisions of Sections 709 through 712 shall be applicable to any county with a population of 2 million or more and to any other county which notifies the Supreme Court of its desire to be included within the coverage of these Sections and is certified pursuant to Supreme Court Rules.

The effective date of inclusion, however, shall be subject to approval of the application for reimbursement of the costs of the support program by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid as provided in Section 712.

(b) In any proceeding for a dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity of marriage, or in any supplementary proceedings in which a judgment or modification thereof for the payment of child support is entered on or after January 1, 1982, in any county covered by Sections 709 through 712, and the person entitled to payment is receiving a grant of financial aid under Article IV of the Illinois Public Aid Code or has applied and qualified for child support enforcement services under Section 10-1 of that Code, the court shall direct: (1) that such payments be made to the clerk of the court and (2) that the parties affected shall each thereafter notify the clerk of any change of address or change in other conditions that may affect the administration of the order, including the fact that a party who was previously not on public aid has become a recipient of public aid, within 10 days of such change. All notices sent to the obligor's last known address on file with the clerk shall be deemed sufficient to proceed with enforcement pursuant to the provisions of Sections 709 through 712.

In all other cases, the court may direct that payments be made to the clerk of the court.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this Section, the clerk shall disburse the payments to the person or persons entitled thereto under the terms of the order or judgment.

(d) The court shall determine, prior to the entry of the support order, if the party who is to receive the support is presently receiving public aid or has a current application for public aid pending and shall enter the finding on the record.

If the person entitled to payment is a recipient of aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the clerk, upon being informed of this fact by finding of the court, by notification by the party entitled to payment, by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or by the local governmental unit, shall make all payments to: (1) the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if the person is a recipient under Article III, IV, or V of the Code or (2) the local governmental unit responsible for his or her support if the person is a recipient under Article VI or VII of the Code. In accordance with federal law and regulations, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may continue to collect current maintenance payments or child support payments, or both, after those persons cease to receive public assistance and until termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall pay the net amount collected to those persons after deducting any costs incurred in making the collection or any collection fee from the amount of any recovery made. Upon termination of public aid payments to such a recipient or termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the appropriate local governmental unit shall notify the clerk in writing or by electronic transmission that all subsequent payments are to be sent directly to the person entitled thereto.

Payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. All payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Human Services shall be deposited in the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund. Disbursements from these funds shall be as provided in the Illinois Public Aid Code. Payments received by a local governmental unit shall be deposited in that unit's General Assistance Fund.

(e) Any order or judgment may be amended by the court, upon its own motion or upon the motion of either party, to conform with the provisions of Sections 709 through 712, either as to the requirement of making payments to the clerk or, where payments are already being made to the clerk, as to the statutory fees provided for under Section 711.

(f) The clerk may invest in any interest bearing account or in any securities, monies collected for the benefit of a payee, where such payee cannot be found; however, the investment may be only for the period until the clerk is able to locate and present the payee with such monies. The clerk may invest in any interest bearing account, or in any securities, monies collected for the benefit of any other payee; however, this does not alter the clerk's obligation to make payments to the payee in a timely manner. Any interest or capital gains accrued shall be for the benefit of the county and shall be paid into the special fund established in subsection (b) of Section 711.

(g) The clerk shall establish and maintain a payment record of all monies received and disbursed and such record shall constitute prima facie evidence of such payment and non-payment, as the case may be.

(h) For those cases in which child support is payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by order of court or upon notification by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), the clerk shall transmit all such payments, within 4 working days of receipt, to insure that funds are available for immediate distribution by the Department to the person or entity entitled thereto in accordance with standards of the Child Support Enforcement Program established under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act. The clerk shall notify the Department of the date of receipt and amount thereof at the time of transmittal. Where the clerk has entered into an agreement of cooperation with the Department to record the terms of child support orders and payments made thereunder directly into the Department's automated data processing system, the clerk shall account for, transmit and otherwise distribute child support payments in accordance with such agreement in lieu of the requirements contained herein.

(i) To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Section 507.1 of this Act and Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/712) (from Ch. 40, par. 712)

Sec. 712. (a) The Supreme Court may make Rules concerning the certification of counties for inclusion in the child support enforcement program and the application of the procedures created by Sections 709 through 712 in the various counties.

The Supreme Court shall inform each circuit court and clerk of the court of the availability of the program to reimburse counties desiring to participate in the program of enforcement of child support payments.

The Supreme Court shall also distribute to each circuit court and clerk of the court any materials prepared by the Child and Spouse Support Unit comparing child support enforcement in counties included and not included in this program.

(b) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, through the Child and Spouse Support Unit provided for by Section 10-3.1 of The Illinois Public Aid Code, shall have general supervision of the child support programs created by Sections 709 through 712 and shall have the powers and duties provided in this Section, including the following:

(1) to make advance payments to any county included in the program for expenses in preparing programs to enforce payment of child support to the clerk from appropriations made for such purposes by the General Assembly;

(2) to make payments to each covered county to pay for its reasonable expenses actually necessary to maintain a continuing program not paid for by fees, penalties, or other monies; provided that, with respect to that portion of the program on behalf of dependent children included in a grant of financial aid under Article IV of The Illinois Public Aid Code the Unit shall pay only such expenses as is its current practice or as it may deem appropriate; provided further that the Unit shall only pay expenses of the entire program subject to the availability of federal monies to pay the majority of expenses of the entire child support enforcement program; provided further that the Unit or Department may set standards relating to enforcement which have to be met by any county seeking to enter a contract with the Department for reimbursement of expenses of the entire enforcement program prior to an application for reimbursement being approved and the contract granted; and provided further that such standards may relate to, but are not limited to the following factors: maintenance of the payment record, the definition of delinquency; the period of time in which a delinquency must be determined, the payor notified, the remittance received, the referral to the state's attorney made, and the payment remitted by the clerk to the payee or other party entitled to the payment; the conditions under which referral will not be made to the state's attorney; and the definitions and procedures for other matters necessary for the conduct and operation of the program;

(3) to monitor the various local programs for enforcement of child support payments to the clerk;

(4) to act to encourage enforcement whenever local enforcement procedures are inadequate;

(5) to receive monies from any source for assistance in enforcement of child support; and

(6) to assist any county desirous of assistance in establishing and maintaining a child support enforcement program.

(c) Any county may apply for financial assistance to the Unit to initiate or maintain a program of child support enforcement. Every county which desires such assistance shall apply according to procedures established by the Unit. In its application, it shall state the following: financial needs, personnel requirements, anticipated caseloads, any amounts collected or anticipated in fees or penalties, and any other information required by the Unit.

(d) In the case that any advance money is given to any county under this Section to initiate an enforcement system, the county shall reimburse the state within 2 years from the date such monies are given to it. The Unit may establish an appropriate schedule of reimbursement for any county.

(e) In the event of the unavailability of federal monies to pay for the greater part of the costs to a county of the child support enforcement program under Sections 709 through 712 and the resulting cessation of state participation, the operation of the child support enforcement program under Sections 709 through 712 shall terminate. The date and the method of termination shall be determined by Supreme Court Rule.

(Source: P.A. 84-1395; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1130. The Non-Support Punishment Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 20, 25, 30, 35, and 60 as follows:

(750 ILCS 16/7)

Sec. 7. Prosecutions by Attorney General. In addition to enforcement proceedings by the several State's Attorneys, a proceeding for the enforcement of this Act may be instituted and prosecuted by the Attorney General in cases referred by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid involving persons receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. Before referring a case to the Attorney General for enforcement under this Act, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall notify the person receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code of the Department's intent to refer the case to the Attorney General under this Section for prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 16/20)

Sec. 20. Entry of order for support; income withholding.

(a) In a case in which no court or administrative order for support is in effect against the defendant:

(1) at any time before the trial, upon motion of the State's Attorney, or of the Attorney General if the action has been instituted by his office, and upon notice to the defendant, or at the time of arraignment or as a condition of postponement of arraignment, the court may enter such temporary order for support as may seem just, providing for the support or maintenance of the spouse or child or children of the defendant, or both, pendente lite; or

(2) before trial with the consent of the defendant, or at the trial on entry of a plea of guilty, or after conviction, instead of imposing the penalty provided in this Act, or in addition thereto, the court may enter an order for support, subject to modification by the court from time to time as circumstances may require, directing the defendant to pay a certain sum for maintenance of the spouse, or for support of the child or children, or both.

(b) The court shall determine the amount of child support by using the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(c) The court shall determine the amount of maintenance using the standards set forth in Section 504 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) The court may, for violation of any order under this Section, punish the offender as for a contempt of court, but no pendente lite order shall remain in effect longer than 4 months, or after the discharge of any panel of jurors summoned for service thereafter in such court, whichever is sooner.

(e) Any order for support entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support under the judgments, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each judgment shall have the full force, effect, and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Each judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(f) An order for support entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of the court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer.

Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment, bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment.

An order for support entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(g) An order for support entered or modified in a case in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall include a provision requiring the noncustodial parent to notify the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, within 7 days, of the name and address of any new employer of the noncustodial parent, whether the noncustodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy.

(h) In any subsequent action to enforce an order for support entered under this Act, upon sufficient showing that diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the noncustodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in that action may be made at the last known address of the noncustodial parent, in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or in this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(i) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(i-5) If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this subsection. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this subsection with regard to the order. This subsection shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(j) A support obligation, or any portion of a support obligation, which becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. An order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2006 shall contain a statement that a support obligation required under the order, or any portion of a support obligation required under the order, that becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the accrual of interest as provided in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-1061, eff. 1-1-05; 94-90, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 16/25)

Sec. 25. Payment of support to State Disbursement Unit; clerk of the court.

(a) As used in this Section, "order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "payor" mean those terms as defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act.

(b) Each order for support entered or modified under Section 20 of this Act shall require that support payments be made to the State Disbursement Unit established under the Illinois Public Aid Code, under the following circumstances:

(1) when a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) when no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, but the support payments are made through income withholding.

(c) When no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, and payments are not being made through income withholding, the court shall order the obligor to make support payments to the clerk of the court.

(d) At any time, and notwithstanding the existence of an order directing payments to be made elsewhere, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice to the obligor and, where applicable, to the obligor's payor:

(1) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(A) a party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(B) no party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, but the support payments are made through income withholding; or

(2) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit of another state upon request of another state's Title IV-D child support enforcement agency, in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated under that Part D.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee and to the clerk of the circuit court.

(e) If a State Disbursement Unit as specified by federal law has not been created in Illinois upon the effective date of this Act, then, until the creation of a State Disbursement Unit as specified by federal law, the following provisions regarding payment and disbursement of support payments shall control and the provisions in subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) shall be inoperative. Upon the creation of a State Disbursement Unit as specified by federal law, the payment and disbursement provisions of subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) shall control, and this subsection (e) shall be inoperative to the extent that it conflicts with those subsections.

(1) In cases in which an order for support is entered under Section 20 of this Act, the court shall order that maintenance and support payments be made to the clerk of the court for remittance to the person or agency entitled to receive the payments. However, the court in its discretion may direct otherwise where exceptional circumstances so warrant.

(2) The court shall direct that support payments be sent by the clerk to (i) the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if the person in whose behalf payments are made is receiving aid under Articles III, IV, or V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, or child support enforcement services under Article X of the Code, or (ii) to the local governmental unit responsible for the support of the person if he or she is a recipient under Article VI of the Code. In accordance with federal law and regulations, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may continue to collect current maintenance payments or child support payments, or both, after those persons cease to receive public assistance and until termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Illinois Department shall pay the net amount collected to those persons after deducting any costs incurred in making the collection or any collection fee from the amount of any recovery made. The order shall permit the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, to direct that support payments be made directly to the spouse, children, or both, or to some person or agency in their behalf, upon removal of the spouse or children from the public aid rolls or upon termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; and upon such direction, the Illinois Department or the local governmental unit, as the case requires, shall give notice of such action to the court in writing or by electronic transmission.

(3) The clerk of the court shall establish and maintain current records of all moneys received and disbursed and of delinquencies and defaults in required payments. The court, by order or rule, shall make provision for the carrying out of these duties.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. All other payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall be deposited in the Public Assistance Recoveries Trust Fund. Disbursements from these funds shall be as provided in the Illinois Public Aid Code. Payments received by a local governmental unit shall be deposited in that unit's General Assistance Fund.

(6) For those cases in which child support is payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by order of court or upon notification by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), the clerk shall transmit all such payments, within 4 working days of receipt, to insure that funds are available for immediate distribution by the Department to the person or entity entitled thereto in accordance with standards of the Child Support Enforcement Program established under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act. The clerk shall notify the Department of the date of receipt and amount thereof at the time of transmittal. Where the clerk has entered into an agreement of cooperation with the Department to record the terms of child support orders and payments made thereunder directly into the Department's automated data processing system, the clerk shall account for, transmit and otherwise distribute child support payments in accordance with such agreement in lieu of the requirements contained herein.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 16/30)

Sec. 30. Information to State Case Registry.

(a) In this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "business day" are defined as set forth in the Income Withholding for Support Act.

"State Case Registry" means the State Case Registry established under Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) Each order for support entered or modified by the circuit court under this Act shall require that the obligor and obligee (i) file with the clerk of the circuit court the information required by this Section (and any other information required under Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act or by the federal Department of Health and Human Services) at the time of entry or modification of the order for support and (ii) file updated information with the clerk within 5 business days of any change. Failure of the obligor or obligee to file or update the required information shall be punishable as in cases of contempt. The failure shall not prevent the court from entering or modifying the order for support, however.

(c) The obligor shall file the following information: the obligor's name, date of birth, social security number, and mailing address.

If either the obligor or the obligee receives child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the obligor shall also file the following information: the obligor's telephone number, driver's license number, and residential address (if different from the obligor's mailing address), and the name, address, and telephone number of the obligor's employer or employers.

(d) The obligee shall file the following information:

(1) The names of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(2) The dates of birth of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(3) The social security numbers of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(4) The obligee's mailing address.

(e) In cases in which the obligee receives child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the order for support shall (i) require that the obligee file the information required under subsection (d) with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for inclusion in the State Case Registry, rather than file the information with the clerk, and (ii) require that the obligee include the following additional information:

(1) The obligee's telephone and driver's license numbers.

(2) The obligee's residential address, if different from the obligee's mailing address.

(3) The name, address, and telephone number of the obligee's employer or employers.

The order for support shall also require that the obligee update the information filed with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid within 5 business days of any change.

(f) The clerk shall provide the information filed under this Section, together with the court docket number and county in which the order for support was entered, to the State Case Registry within 5 business days after receipt of the information.

(g) In a case in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the clerk shall provide the following additional information to the State Case Registry within 5 business days after entry or modification of an order for support or request from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) The amount of monthly or other periodic support owed under the order for support and other amounts, including arrearage, interest, or late payment penalties and fees, due or overdue under the order.

(2) Any such amounts that have been received by the clerk, and the distribution of those amounts by the clerk.

(h) Information filed by the obligor and obligee under this Section that is not specifically required to be included in the body of an order for support under other laws is not a public record and shall be treated as confidential and subject to disclosure only in accordance with the provisions of this Section, Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; 92-463, eff. 8-22-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 16/35)

Sec. 35. Fine; release of defendant on probation; violation of order for support; forfeiture of recognizance.

(a) Whenever a fine is imposed it may be directed by the court to be paid, in whole or in part, to the spouse, ex-spouse, or if the support of a child or children is involved, to the custodial parent, to the clerk, probation officer, or to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if a recipient of child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code is involved as the case requires, to be disbursed by such officers or agency under the terms of the order.

(b) The court may also relieve the defendant from custody on probation for the period fixed in the order or judgment upon his or her entering into a recognizance, with or without surety, in the sum as the court orders and approves. The condition of the recognizance shall be such that if the defendant makes his or her personal appearance in court whenever ordered to do so by the court, during such period as may be so fixed, and further complies with the terms of the order for support, or any subsequent modification of the order, then the recognizance shall be void; otherwise it will remain in full force and effect.

(c) If the court is satisfied by testimony in open court, that at any time during the period of one year the defendant has violated the terms of the order for support, it may proceed with the trial of the defendant under the original charge, or sentence him or her under the original conviction, or enforce the suspended sentence, as the case may be. In case of forfeiture of recognizance, and enforcement of recognizance by execution, the sum so recovered may, in the discretion of the court, be paid, in whole or in part, to the spouse, ex-spouse, or if the support of a child or children is involved, to the custodial parent, to the clerk, or to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if a recipient of child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code is involved as the case requires, to be disbursed by the clerk or the Department under the terms of the order.

(Source: P.A. 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 16/60)

Sec. 60. Unemployed persons owing duty of support.

(a) Whenever it is determined in a proceeding to establish or enforce a child support or maintenance obligation that the person owing a duty of support is unemployed, the court may order the person to seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing or other memorandum of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. Additionally, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training, or work programs and where the duty of support is owed to a child receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for participation in job search, training, or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of that Code.

(b) Whenever it is determined that a person owes past due support for a child or for a child and the parent with whom the child is living, and the child is receiving assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall order at the request of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) that the person pay the past-due support in accordance with a plan approved by the court; or

(2) if the person owing past-due support is unemployed, is subject to such a plan, and is not incapacitated, that the person participate in such job search, training, or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of the Illinois Public Aid Code as the court deems appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1135. The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act is amended by changing Sections 103, 310, and 320 as follows:

(750 ILCS 22/103) (was 750 ILCS 22/102)

Sec. 103. Tribunal of State. The circuit court is a tribunal of this State. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is an initiating tribunal. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is also a responding tribunal of this State to the extent that it can administratively establish paternity and establish, modify, and enforce an administrative child-support order under authority of Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-479, eff. 1-1-04, operative 7-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 22/310)

Sec. 310. Duties of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(a) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid is the state information agency under this Act.

(b) The state information agency shall:

(1) compile and maintain a current list, including addresses, of the tribunals in this State which have jurisdiction under this Act and any support enforcement agencies in this State and transmit a copy to the state information agency of every other state;

(2) maintain a register of names and addresses of tribunals and support enforcement agencies received from other states;

(3) forward to the appropriate tribunal in the county in this State in which the obligee who is an individual or the obligor resides, or in which the obligor's property is believed to be located, all documents concerning a proceeding under this Act received from an initiating tribunal or the state information agency of the initiating state; and

(4) obtain information concerning the location of the obligor and the obligor's property within this State not exempt from execution, by such means as postal verification and federal or state locator services, examination of telephone directories, requests for the obligor's address from employers, and examination of governmental records, including, to the extent not prohibited by other law, those relating to real property, vital statistics, law enforcement, taxation, motor vehicles, driver's licenses, and social security.

(c) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may determine that a foreign country or political subdivision has established a reciprocal arrangement for child support with Illinois and take appropriate action for notification of this determination.

(Source: P.A. 93-479, eff. 1-1-04, operative 7-1-04; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 22/320)

Sec. 320. Payment of Support to State Disbursement Unit.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "payor" mean those terms as defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act, except that "order for support" means an order entered by any tribunal of this State but shall not mean orders providing for spousal maintenance under which there is no child support obligation.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, each order for support entered or modified on or after October 1, 1999 shall require that support payments be made to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code if:

(1) a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, but the support payments are made through income withholding.

(c) Support payments shall be made to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(1) the order for support was entered before October 1, 1999, and a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, and the support payments are being made through income withholding.

(c-5) If no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and the support payments are not made through income withholding, then support payments shall be made as directed by the order for support.

(c-10) At any time, and notwithstanding the existence of an order directing payments to be made elsewhere, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice to the obligor and, where applicable, to the obligor's payor:

(1) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(A) a party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(B) no party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, but the support payments are made through income withholding; or

(2) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit of another state upon request of another state's Title IV-D child support enforcement agency, in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated under that Part D.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee and to the clerk of the circuit court.

(c-15) Within 15 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the clerk of the circuit court shall provide written notice to the obligor to make payments directly to the clerk of the circuit court if no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the support payments are not made through income withholding, and the order for support requires support payments to be made directly to the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee.

(c-20) If the State Disbursement Unit receives a support payment that was not appropriately made to the Unit under this Section, the Unit shall immediately return the payment to the sender, including, if possible, instructions detailing where to send the support payments.

(d) The notices under subsections (c-10) and (c-15) may be sent by ordinary mail, certified mail, return receipt requested, facsimile transmission, or other electronic process, or may be served upon the obligor or payor using any method provided by law for service of a summons.

(Source: P.A. 91-677, eff. 1-5-00; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1140. The Unified Child Support Services Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(750 ILCS 24/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Child support services" mean any services provided with respect to parentage establishment, support establishment, medical support establishment, support modification, or support enforcement.

"Child support specialist" means a paralegal, attorney, or other staff member with specialized training in child support services.

"Current child support case" means a case that is pending in the IV-D Child Support Program for which any action is being taken by a Unified Child Support Services Program.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

"IV-D Child Support Program" means the child support enforcement program established pursuant to Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act and Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"KIDS" means the Key Information Delivery System that includes a statewide database of all cases in the IV-D Child Support Program.

"Medicaid" means the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Obligor" and "obligee" mean those terms as defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act.

"Plan" means a plan for a Unified Child Support Services Program.

"Program" means the Unified Child Support Services Program in a county or group of counties.

"State Disbursement Unit" means the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"State's Attorney" means the duly elected State's Attorney of an Illinois county or 2 or more State's Attorneys who have formed a consortium for purposes of managing a Unified Child Support Services Program within a specific region of the State.

"Temporary Assistance for Needy Families" means the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program under Article IV of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-876, eff. 6-1-03; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1145. The Expedited Child Support Act of 1990 is amended by changing Sections 3 and 6 as follows:

(750 ILCS 25/3) (from Ch. 40, par. 2703)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, the following terms shall have the following meaning:

(a) "Administrative Hearing Officer" shall mean the person employed by the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court of each county establishing an Expedited Child Support System for the purpose of hearing child support and parentage matters and making recommendations.

(b) "Administrative expenses" shall mean, but not be limited to, the costs of personnel, travel, equipment, telecommunications, postage, space, contractual services, and other related costs necessary to implement the provisions of this Act.

(c) "Arrearage" shall mean the total amount of unpaid child support obligations.

(d) "Department" shall mean the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(e) "Expedited child support hearing" shall mean a hearing before an Administrative Hearing Officer pursuant to this Act.

(f) "Federal time frames" shall mean the time frames established for the IV-D program in regulations promulgated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Child Support Enforcement, (codified at 45 C.F.R. 303), for the disposition of parentage and child support cases and shall, for purposes of this Act, apply to all parentage and child support matters, whether IV-D or non-IV-D.

(g) "System" shall mean the procedures and personnel created by this Act for the expedited establishment, modification, and enforcement of child support orders, and for the expedited establishment of parentage.

(h) "IV-D program" shall mean the Child Support Enforcement Program established pursuant to Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act, (42 U.S.C. 651 et seq.) as administered by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(i) "Medical support" shall mean support provided pursuant to Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(j) "Obligee" shall mean the individual to whom a duty of support is owed or that individual's legal representative.

(k) "Obligor" shall mean the individual who owes a duty to make payments under an order of support.

(l) "Plan" shall mean the plan submitted by the Chief Judge of a Judicial Circuit to the Supreme Court for the creation of an Expedited Child Support System in such circuit pursuant to this Act.

(m) "Pre-hearing motions" shall mean all motions, the disposition of which requires a court order, except motions for the ultimate relief requested in the petition to commence the action.

(n) "Recommendations" shall mean the Administrative Hearing Officer's proposed findings of fact, recommended orders and any other recommendations made by the Administrative Hearing Officer.

(Source: P.A. 86-1401; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 25/6) (from Ch. 40, par. 2706)

Sec. 6. Authority of hearing officers.

(a) With the exception of judicial functions exclusively retained by the court in Section 8 of this Act and in accordance with Supreme Court rules promulgated pursuant to this Act, Administrative Hearing Officers shall be authorized to:

(1) Accept voluntary agreements reached by the parties setting the amount of child support to be paid and medical support liability and recommend the entry of orders incorporating such agreements.

(2) Accept voluntary acknowledgments of parentage and recommend entry of an order establishing parentage based on such acknowledgement. Prior to accepting such acknowledgment, the Administrative Hearing Officer shall advise the putative father of his rights and obligations in accordance with Supreme Court rules promulgated pursuant to this Act.

(3) Manage all stages of discovery, including setting deadlines by which discovery must be completed; and directing the parties to submit to appropriate tests pursuant to Section 11 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

(4) Cause notices to be issued requiring the Obligor to appear either before the Administrative Hearing Officer or in court.

(5) Administer the oath or affirmation and take testimony under oath or affirmation.

(6) Analyze the evidence and prepare written recommendations based on such evidence, including but not limited to: (i) proposed findings as to the amount of the Obligor's income; (ii) proposed findings as to the amount and nature of appropriate deductions from the Obligor's income to determine the Obligor's net income; (iii) proposed findings as to the existence of relevant factors as set forth in subsection (a)(2) of Section 505 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which justify setting child support payment levels above or below the guidelines; (iv) recommended orders for temporary child support; (v) recommended orders setting the amount of current child support to be paid; (vi) proposed findings as to the existence and amount of any arrearages; (vii) recommended orders reducing any arrearages to judgement and for the payment of amounts towards such arrearages; (viii) proposed findings as to whether there has been a substantial change of circumstances since the entry of the last child support order, or other circumstances justifying a modification of the child support order; and (ix) proposed findings as to whether the Obligor is employed.

(7) With respect to any unemployed Obligor who is not making child support payments or is otherwise unable to provide support, recommend that the Obligor be ordered to seek employment and report periodically of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. Additionally, the Administrative Hearing Officer may recommend that the Obligor be ordered to report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training or work programs and, where the duty of support is owed to a child receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Administrative Hearing Officer may recommend that the Obligor be ordered to report to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for participation in the job search, training or work programs established under Section 9-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(8) Recommend the registration of any foreign support judgments or orders as the judgments or orders of Illinois.

(b) In any case in which the Obligee is not participating in the IV-D program or has not applied to participate in the IV-D program, the Administrative Hearing Officer shall:

(1) inform the Obligee of the existence of the IV-D program and provide applications on request; and

(2) inform the Obligee and the Obligor of the option of requesting payment to be made through the Clerk of the Circuit Court.

If a request for payment through the Clerk is made, the Administrative Hearing Officer shall note this fact in the recommendations to the court.

(c) The Administrative Hearing Officer may make recommendations in addition to the proposed findings of fact and recommended order to which the parties have agreed.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1150. The Income Withholding for Support Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 22, and 45 as follows:

(750 ILCS 28/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions.

(a) "Order for support" means any order of the court which provides for periodic payment of funds for the support of a child or maintenance of a spouse, whether temporary or final, and includes any such order which provides for:

(1) modification or resumption of, or payment of arrearage, including interest, accrued under, a previously existing order;

(2) reimbursement of support;

(3) payment or reimbursement of the expenses of pregnancy and delivery (for orders for support entered under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or its predecessor the Paternity Act); or

(4) enrollment in a health insurance plan that is available to the obligor through an employer or labor union or trade union.

(b) "Arrearage" means the total amount of unpaid support obligations, including interest, as determined by the court and incorporated into an order for support.

(b-5) "Business day" means a day on which State offices are open for regular business.

(c) "Delinquency" means any payment, including a payment of interest, under an order for support which becomes due and remains unpaid after entry of the order for support.

(d) "Income" means any form of periodic payment to an individual, regardless of source, including, but not limited to: wages, salary, commission, compensation as an independent contractor, workers' compensation, disability, annuity, pension, and retirement benefits, lottery prize awards, insurance proceeds, vacation pay, bonuses, profit-sharing payments, interest, and any other payments, made by any person, private entity, federal or state government, any unit of local government, school district or any entity created by Public Act; however, "income" excludes:

(1) any amounts required by law to be withheld, other than creditor claims, including, but not limited to, federal, State and local taxes, Social Security and other retirement and disability contributions;

(2) union dues;

(3) any amounts exempted by the federal Consumer Credit Protection Act;

(4) public assistance payments; and

(5) unemployment insurance benefits except as provided by law.

Any other State or local laws which limit or exempt income or the amount or percentage of income that can be withheld shall not apply.

(e) "Obligor" means the individual who owes a duty to make payments under an order for support.

(f) "Obligee" means the individual to whom a duty of support is owed or the individual's legal representative.

(g) "Payor" means any payor of income to an obligor.

(h) "Public office" means any elected official or any State or local agency which is or may become responsible by law for enforcement of, or which is or may become authorized to enforce, an order for support, including, but not limited to: the Attorney General, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the Illinois Department of Human Services, the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, and the various State's Attorneys, Clerks of the Circuit Court and supervisors of general assistance.

(i) "Premium" means the dollar amount for which the obligor is liable to his employer or labor union or trade union and which must be paid to enroll or maintain a child in a health insurance plan that is available to the obligor through an employer or labor union or trade union.

(j) "State Disbursement Unit" means the unit established to collect and disburse support payments in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(k) "Title IV-D Agency" means the agency of this State charged by law with the duty to administer the child support enforcement program established under Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(l) "Title IV-D case" means a case in which an obligee or obligor is receiving child support enforcement services under Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(m) "National Medical Support Notice" means the notice required for enforcement of orders for support providing for health insurance coverage of a child under Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act, the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, and federal regulations promulgated under those Acts.

(n) "Employer" means a payor or labor union or trade union with an employee group health insurance plan and, for purposes of the National Medical Support Notice, also includes but is not limited to:

(1) any State or local governmental agency with a group health plan; and

(2) any payor with a group health plan or "church plan" covered under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.

(Source: P.A. 94-90, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 28/22)

Sec. 22. Use of National Medical Support Notice to enforce health insurance coverage.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (c)(4) of Section 20, when an order for support is being enforced by the Title IV-D Agency under this Act, any requirement for health insurance coverage to be provided through an employer, including withholding of premiums from the income of the obligor, shall be enforced through use of a National Medical Support Notice instead of through provisions in an income withholding notice.

(b) A National Medical Support Notice may be served on the employer in the manner and under the circumstances provided for serving an income withholding notice under this Act, except that an order for support that conditions service of an income withholding notice on the obligor becoming delinquent in paying the order for support, as provided under subdivision (a)(1) of Section 20, shall not prevent immediate service of a National Medical Support Notice by the Title IV-D Agency. The Title IV-D Agency may serve a National Medical Support Notice on an employer in conjunction with service of an income withholding notice. Service of an income withholding notice is not a condition for service of a National Medical Support Notice, however.

(c) At the time of service of a National Medical Support Notice on the employer, the Title IV-D Agency shall serve a copy of the Notice on the obligor by ordinary mail addressed to the obligor's last known address. The Title IV-D Agency shall file a copy of the National Medical Support Notice, together with proofs of service on the employer and the obligor, with the clerk of the circuit court.

(d) Within 20 business days after the date of a National Medical Support Notice, an employer served with the Notice shall transfer the severable notice to plan administrator to the appropriate group health plan providing any health insurance coverage for which the child is eligible. As required in the part of the National Medical Support Notice directed to the employer, the employer shall withhold any employee premium necessary for coverage of the child and shall send any amount withheld directly to the plan. The employer shall commence the withholding no later than the next payment of income that occurs 14 days following the date the National Medical Support Notice was mailed, sent by facsimile or other electronic means, or placed for personal delivery to or service on the employer.

Notwithstanding the requirement to withhold premiums from the obligor's income, if the plan administrator informs the employer that the child is enrolled in an option under the plan for which the employer has determined that the obligor's premium exceeds the amount that may be withheld from the obligor's income due to the withholding limitation or prioritization contained in Section 35 of this Act, the employer shall complete the appropriate item in the part of the National Medical Support Notice directed to the employer according to the instructions in the Notice and shall return that part to the Title IV-D Agency.

(e) If one of the following circumstances exists, an employer served with a National Medical Support Notice shall complete the part of the Notice directed to the employer in accordance with the instructions in the Notice and shall return that part to the Title IV-D Agency within 20 business days after the date of the Notice:

(1) The employer does not maintain or contribute to plans providing dependent or family health insurance coverage.

(2) The obligor is among a class of employees that is not eligible for family health insurance coverage under any group health plan maintained by the employer or to which the employer contributes.

(3) Health insurance coverage is not available because the obligor is no longer employed by the employer.

(f) The administrator of a health insurance plan to whom an employer has transferred the severable notice to plan administrator part of a National Medical Support Notice shall complete that part with the health insurance coverage information required under the instructions in the Notice and shall return that part to the Title IV-D Agency within 40 business days after the date of the Notice.

(g) The obligor may contest withholding under this Section based only on a mistake of fact and may contest withholding by filing a petition with the clerk of the circuit court within 20 days after service of a copy of the National Medical Support Notice on the obligor. The obligor must serve a copy of the petition on the Title IV-D Agency at the address stated in the National Medical Support Notice. The National Medical Support Notice, including the requirement to withhold any required premium, shall continue to be binding on the employer until the employer is served with a court order resolving the contest or until notified by the Title IV-D Agency.

(h) Whenever the obligor is no longer receiving income from the employer, the employer shall return a copy of the National Medical Support Notice to the Title IV-D Agency and shall provide information for the purpose of enforcing health insurance coverage under this Section.

(i) The Title IV-D Agency shall promptly notify the employer when there is no longer a current order for health insurance coverage in effect which the Title IV-D Agency is responsible for enforcing.

(j) Unless stated otherwise in this Section, all of the provisions of this Act relating to income withholding for support shall pertain to income withholding for health insurance coverage under a National Medical Support Notice, including but not limited to the duties of the employer and obligor, and the penalties contained in Section 35 and Section 50. In addition, an employer who willfully fails to transfer the severable notice to plan administrator part of a National Medical Support Notice to the appropriate group health plan providing health insurance coverage for which the child is eligible, within 20 business days after the date of the Notice, is liable for the full amount of medical expenses incurred by or on behalf of the child which would have been paid or reimbursed by the health insurance coverage had the severable notice to plan administrator part of the Notice been timely transferred to the group health insurance plan. This penalty may be collected in a civil action that may be brought against the employer in favor of the obligee or the Title IV-D Agency.

(k) To the extent that any other State or local law may be construed to limit or prevent compliance by an employer or health insurance plan administrator with the requirements of this Section and federal law and regulations pertaining to the National Medical Support Notice, that State or local law shall not apply.

(l) As the Title IV-D Agency, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall adopt any rules necessary for use of and compliance with the National Medical Support Notice.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 28/45)

Sec. 45. Additional duties.

(a) An obligee who is receiving income withholding payments under this Act shall notify the State Disbursement Unit and the Clerk of the Circuit Court of any change of address within 7 days of such change.

(b) An obligee who is a recipient of public aid shall send a copy of any income withholding notice served by the obligee to the Division of Child Support Enforcement of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid.

(c) Each obligor shall notify the obligee, the public office, and the Clerk of the Circuit Court of any change of address within 7 days.

(d) An obligor whose income is being withheld pursuant to this Act shall notify the obligee, the public office, and the Clerk of the Circuit Court of any new payor, within 7 days.

(e) (Blank.)

(f) The obligee or public office shall provide notice to the payor and Clerk of the Circuit Court of any other support payment made, including but not limited to, a set-off under federal and State law or partial payment of the delinquency or arrearage, or both.

(g) The State Disbursement Unit shall maintain complete, accurate, and clear records of all income withholding payments and their disbursements. Certified copies of payment records maintained by the State Disbursement Unit, a public office, or the Clerk of the Circuit Court shall, without further proof, be admitted into evidence in any legal proceedings under this Act.

(h) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall design suggested legal forms for proceeding under this Act and shall make available to the courts such forms and informational materials which describe the procedures and remedies set forth herein for distribution to all parties in support actions.

(i) At the time of transmitting each support payment, the State Disbursement Unit shall provide the obligee or public office, as appropriate, with any information furnished by the payor as to the date the amount would (but for the duty to withhold income) have been paid or credited to the obligor.

(Source: P.A. 90-673, eff. 1-1-99; incorporates P.A. 90-790, eff. 8-14-98; 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1155. The Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 is amended by changing Sections 4.1, 5, 7, 8, 13.1, 14, 14.1, 15.1, 18, 21, 21.1, 22, 23, and 28 as follows:

(750 ILCS 45/4.1)

Sec. 4.1. Administrative paternity determinations. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may make administrative determinations of paternity and nonpaternity in accordance with Section 10-17.7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. These determinations of paternity or nonpaternity shall have the full force and effect of judgments entered under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-687, eff. 1-24-95; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/5) (from Ch. 40, par. 2505)

Sec. 5. Presumption of Paternity.

(a) A man is presumed to be the natural father of a child if:

(1) he and the child's natural mother are or have been married to each other, even though the marriage is or could be declared invalid, and the child is born or conceived during such marriage;

(2) after the child's birth, he and the child's natural mother have married each other, even though the marriage is or could be declared invalid, and he is named, with his written consent, as the child's father on the child's birth certificate;

(3) he and the child's natural mother have signed an acknowledgment of paternity in accordance with rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Section 10-17.7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(4) he and the child's natural mother have signed an acknowledgment of parentage or, if the natural father is someone other than one presumed to be the father under this Section, an acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity in accordance with Section 12 of the Vital Records Act.

(b) A presumption under subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this Section may be rebutted only by clear and convincing evidence. A presumption under subdivision (a)(3) or (a)(4) is conclusive, unless the acknowledgment of parentage is rescinded under the process provided in Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, upon the earlier of:

(1) 60 days after the date the acknowledgment of parentage is signed, or

(2) the date of an administrative or judicial proceeding relating to the child (including a proceeding to establish a support order) in which the signatory is a party;

except that if a minor has signed the acknowledgment of paternity or acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity, the presumption becomes conclusive 6 months after the minor reaches majority or is otherwise emancipated.

(Source: P.A. 89-641, eff. 8-9-96; 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/7) (from Ch. 40, par. 2507)

Sec. 7. Determination of Father and Child Relationship; Who May Bring Action; Parties.

(a) An action to determine the existence of the father and child relationship, whether or not such a relationship is already presumed under Section 5 of this Act, may be brought by the child; the mother; a pregnant woman; any person or public agency who has custody of, or is providing or has provided financial support to, the child; the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if it is providing or has provided financial support to the child or if it is assisting with child support collection services; or a man presumed or alleging himself to be the father of the child or expected child. The complaint shall be verified and shall name the person or persons alleged to be the father of the child.

(b) An action to declare the non-existence of the parent and child relationship may be brought by the child, the natural mother, or a man presumed to be the father under subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2) of Section 5 of this Act. Actions brought by the child, the natural mother or a presumed father shall be brought by verified complaint.

After the presumption that a man presumed to be the father under subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2) of Section 5 has been rebutted, paternity of the child by another man may be determined in the same action, if he has been made a party.

(b-5) An action to declare the non-existence of the parent and child relationship may be brought subsequent to an adjudication of paternity in any judgment by the man adjudicated to be the father pursuant to the presumptions in Section 5 of this Act if, as a result of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) tests, it is discovered that the man adjudicated to be the father is not the natural father of the child. Actions brought by the adjudicated father shall be brought by verified complaint. If, as a result of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) tests, the plaintiff is determined not to be the father of the child, the adjudication of paternity and any orders regarding custody, visitation, and future payments of support may be vacated.

(c) If any party is a minor, he or she may be represented by his or her general guardian or a guardian ad litem appointed by the court, which may include an appropriate agency. The court may align the parties.

(d) Regardless of its terms, an agreement, other than a settlement approved by the court, between an alleged or presumed father and the mother or child, does not bar an action under this Section.

(e) If an action under this Section is brought before the birth of the child, all proceedings shall be stayed until after the birth, except for service or process, the taking of depositions to perpetuate testimony, and the ordering of blood tests under appropriate circumstances.

(Source: P.A. 89-674, eff. 8-14-96; 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-715, eff. 8-7-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/8) (from Ch. 40, par. 2508)

Sec. 8. Statute of limitations.

(a) (1) An action brought by or on behalf of a child, an action brought by a party alleging that he or she is the child's natural parent, or an action brought by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), if it is providing or has provided financial support to the child or if it is assisting with child support collection services, shall be barred if brought later than 2 years after the child reaches the age of majority; however, if the action on behalf of the child is brought by a public agency, other than the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) if it is providing or has provided financial support to the child or if it is assisting with child support collection services, it shall be barred 2 years after the agency has ceased to provide assistance to the child.

(2) Failure to bring an action within 2 years shall not bar any party from asserting a defense in any action to declare the non-existence of the parent and child relationship.

(3) An action to declare the non-existence of the parent and child relationship brought under subsection (b) of Section 7 of this Act shall be barred if brought later than 2 years after the petitioner obtains knowledge of relevant facts. The 2-year period for bringing an action to declare the nonexistence of the parent and child relationship shall not extend beyond the date on which the child reaches the age of 18 years. Failure to bring an action within 2 years shall not bar any party from asserting a defense in any action to declare the existence of the parent and child relationship.

(4) An action to declare the non-existence of the parent and child relationship brought under subsection (b-5) of Section 7 of this Act shall be barred if brought more than 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998 or more than 2 years after the petitioner obtains actual knowledge of relevant facts, whichever is later. The 2-year period shall not apply to periods of time where the natural mother or the child refuses to submit to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) tests. The 2-year period for bringing an action to declare the nonexistence of the parent and child relationship shall not extend beyond the date on which the child reaches the age of 18 years. Failure to bring an action within 2 years shall not bar any party from asserting a defense in any action to declare the existence of the parent and child relationship.

(b) The time during which any party is not subject to service of process or is otherwise not subject to the jurisdiction of the courts of this State shall toll the aforementioned periods.

(c) This Act does not affect the time within which any rights under the Probate Act of 1975 may be asserted beyond the time provided by law relating to distribution and closing of decedent's estates or to the determination of heirship, or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 89-674, eff. 8-14-96; 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-715, eff. 8-7-98; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/13.1)

Sec. 13.1. Temporary order for child support. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, pending the outcome of a judicial determination of parentage, the court shall issue a temporary order for child support, upon motion by a party and a showing of clear and convincing evidence of paternity. In determining the amount of the temporary child support award, the court shall use the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect, and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Any such judgment is subject to modification or termination only in accordance with Section 510 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the non-custodial parent to notify the court, and in cases in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, within 7 days, (i) of the name, address, and telephone number of any new employer of the non-custodial parent, (ii) whether the non-custodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage, and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent.

In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon sufficient showing that diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in that action may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent, in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or in this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order.

If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, then the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for the enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this paragraph. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this paragraph with regard to the order. This paragraph shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for the support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for the support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; 93-1061, eff. 1-1-05; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/14) (from Ch. 40, par. 2514)

Sec. 14. Judgment.

(a) (1) The judgment shall contain or explicitly reserve provisions concerning any duty and amount of child support and may contain provisions concerning the custody and guardianship of the child, visitation privileges with the child, the furnishing of bond or other security for the payment of the judgment, which the court shall determine in accordance with the relevant factors set forth in the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act and any other applicable law of Illinois, to guide the court in a finding in the best interests of the child. In determining custody, joint custody, removal, or visitation, the court shall apply the relevant standards of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, including Section 609. Specifically, in determining the amount of any child support award or child health insurance coverage, the court shall use the guidelines and standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 505 and in Section 505.2 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. For purposes of Section 505 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, "net income" of the non-custodial parent shall include any benefits available to that person under the Illinois Public Aid Code or from other federal, State or local government-funded programs. The court shall, in any event and regardless of the amount of the non-custodial parent's net income, in its judgment order the non-custodial parent to pay child support to the custodial parent in a minimum amount of not less than $10 per month, as long as such an order is consistent with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act. In an action brought within 2 years after a child's birth, the judgment or order may direct either parent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred by either parent related to the mother's pregnancy and the delivery of the child. The judgment or order shall contain the father's social security number, which the father shall disclose to the court; however, failure to include the father's social security number on the judgment or order does not invalidate the judgment or order.

(2) If a judgment of parentage contains no explicit award of custody, the establishment of a support obligation or of visitation rights in one parent shall be considered a judgment granting custody to the other parent. If the parentage judgment contains no such provisions, custody shall be presumed to be with the mother; however, the presumption shall not apply if the father has had physical custody for at least 6 months prior to the date that the mother seeks to enforce custodial rights.

(b) The court shall order all child support payments, determined in accordance with such guidelines, to commence with the date summons is served. The level of current periodic support payments shall not be reduced because of payments set for the period prior to the date of entry of the support order. The Court may order any child support payments to be made for a period prior to the commencement of the action. In determining whether and the extent to which the payments shall be made for any prior period, the court shall consider all relevant facts, including the factors for determining the amount of support specified in the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act and other equitable factors including but not limited to:

(1) The father's prior knowledge of the fact and circumstances of the child's birth.

(2) The father's prior willingness or refusal to help raise or support the child.

(3) The extent to which the mother or the public agency bringing the action previously informed the father of the child's needs or attempted to seek or require his help in raising or supporting the child.

(4) The reasons the mother or the public agency did not file the action earlier.

(5) The extent to which the father would be prejudiced by the delay in bringing the action.

For purposes of determining the amount of child support to be paid for any period before the date the order for current child support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the father's net income for the prior period was the same as his net income at the time the order for current child support is entered.

If (i) the non-custodial parent was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support, (ii) the non-custodial parent failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the non-custodial parent is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the non-custodial parent's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(c) Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. A lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the noncustodial parent for each installment of overdue support owed by the noncustodial parent.

(d) If the judgment or order of the court is at variance with the child's birth certificate, the court shall order that a new birth certificate be issued under the Vital Records Act.

(e) On request of the mother and the father, the court shall order a change in the child's name. After hearing evidence the court may stay payment of support during the period of the father's minority or period of disability.

(f) If, upon a showing of proper service, the father fails to appear in court, or otherwise appear as provided by law, the court may proceed to hear the cause upon testimony of the mother or other parties taken in open court and shall enter a judgment by default. The court may reserve any order as to the amount of child support until the father has received notice, by regular mail, of a hearing on the matter.

(g) A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

(h) All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the non-custodial parent to notify the court and, in cases in which party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, within 7 days, (i) of the name and address of any new employer of the non-custodial parent, (ii) whether the non-custodial parent has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the non-custodial parent. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the non-custodial parent, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the non-custodial parent in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(i) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(i-5) If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this subsection. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this subsection with regard to the order. This subsection shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(j) An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring the obligor to report to the obligee and to the clerk of court within 10 days each time the obligor obtains new employment, and each time the obligor's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For any obligor arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring the obligor and obligee parents to advise each other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a minor child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(Source: P.A. 93-139, eff. 7-10-03; 93-1061, eff. 1-1-05; 94-923, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1061, eff. 1-1-07; revised 8-3-06.)

(750 ILCS 45/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Information to State Case Registry.

(a) In this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "business day" are defined as set forth in the Income Withholding for Support Act.

"State Case Registry" means the State Case Registry established under Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) Each order for support entered or modified by the circuit court under this Act shall require that the obligor and obligee (i) file with the clerk of the circuit court the information required by this Section (and any other information required under Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act or by the federal Department of Health and Human Services) at the time of entry or modification of the order for support and (ii) file updated information with the clerk within 5 business days of any change. Failure of the obligor or obligee to file or update the required information shall be punishable as in cases of contempt. The failure shall not prevent the court from entering or modifying the order for support, however.

(c) The obligor shall file the following information: the obligor's name, date of birth, social security number, and mailing address.

If either the obligor or the obligee receives child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the obligor shall also file the following information: the obligor's telephone number, driver's license number, and residential address (if different from the obligor's mailing address), and the name, address, and telephone number of the obligor's employer or employers.

(d) The obligee shall file the following information:

(1) The names of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(2) The dates of birth of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(3) The social security numbers of the obligee and the child or children covered by the order for support.

(4) The obligee's mailing address.

(e) In cases in which the obligee receives child support enforcement services from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the order for support shall (i) require that the obligee file the information required under subsection (d) with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for inclusion in the State Case Registry, rather than file the information with the clerk, and (ii) require that the obligee include the following additional information:

(1) The obligee's telephone and driver's license numbers.

(2) The obligee's residential address, if different from the obligee's mailing address.

(3) The name, address, and telephone number of the obligee's employer or employers.

The order for support shall also require that the obligee update the information filed with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid within 5 business days of any change.

(f) The clerk shall provide the information filed under this Section, together with the court docket number and county in which the order for support was entered, to the State Case Registry within 5 business days after receipt of the information.

(g) In a case in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the clerk shall provide the following additional information to the State Case Registry within 5 business days after entry or modification of an order for support or request from the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) The amount of monthly or other periodic support owed under the order for support and other amounts, including arrearage, interest, or late payment penalties and fees, due or overdue under the order.

(2) Any such amounts that have been received by the clerk, and the distribution of those amounts by the clerk.

(h) Information filed by the obligor and obligee under this Section that is not specifically required to be included in the body of an order for support under other laws is not a public record and shall be treated as confidential and subject to disclosure only in accordance with the provisions of this Section, Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 92-463, eff. 8-22-01; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/15.1) (from Ch. 40, par. 2515.1)

Sec. 15.1. (a) Whenever it is determined in a proceeding to establish or enforce a child support obligation that the person owing a duty of support is unemployed, the court may order the person to seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing or other memorandum of his or her efforts in accordance with such order. Additionally, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services or to make application with the local Job Training Partnership Act provider for participation in job search, training or work programs and where the duty of support is owed to a child receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as amended, the court may order the unemployed person to report to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for participation in job search, training or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of that Code.

(b) Whenever it is determined that a person owes past-due support for a child, and the child is receiving assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall order the following at the request of the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid:

(1) that the person pay the past-due support in accordance with a plan approved by the court; or

(2) if the person owing past-due support is unemployed, is subject to such a plan, and is not incapacitated, that the person participate in such job search, training, or work programs established under Section 9-6 and Article IXA of the Illinois Public Aid Code as the court deems appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/18) (from Ch. 40, par. 2518)

Sec. 18. Right to Counsel; Free Transcript on Appeal.

(a) Any party may be represented by counsel at all proceedings under this Act.

(a-5) In any proceedings involving the support, custody, visitation, education, parentage, property interest, or general welfare of a minor or dependent child, the court may, on its own motion or that of any party, and subject to the terms or specifications the court determines, appoint an attorney to serve in one of the following capacities:

(1) as an attorney to represent the child;

(2) as a guardian ad litem to address issues the court delineates;

(3) as a child's representative whose duty shall be to advocate what the representative finds to be in the best interests of the child after reviewing the facts and circumstances of the case. The child's representative shall have the same power and authority to take part in the conduct of the litigation as does an attorney for a party and shall possess all the powers of investigation and recommendation as does a guardian ad litem. The child's representative shall consider, but not be bound by, the expressed wishes of the child. A child's representative shall have received training in child advocacy or shall possess such experience as determined to be equivalent to such training by the chief judge of the circuit where the child's representative has been appointed. The child's representative shall not disclose confidential communications made by the child, except as required by law or by the Rules of Professional Conduct. The child's representative shall not be called as a witness regarding the issues set forth in this subsection.

During the proceedings the court may appoint an additional attorney to serve in another of the capacities described in subdivisions (1), (2), or (3) of the preceding paragraph on its own motion or that of a party only for good cause shown and when the reasons for the additional appointment are set forth in specific findings.

The court shall enter an order as appropriate for costs, fees, and disbursements, including a retainer, when the attorney, guardian ad litem, or child's representative is appointed, and thereafter as necessary. Such orders shall require payment by either or both parents, by any other party or source, or from the marital estate or the child's separate estate. The court may not order payment by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid in cases in which the Department is providing child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. Unless otherwise ordered by the court at the time fees and costs are approved, all fees and costs payable to an attorney, guardian ad litem, or child's representative under this Section are by implication deemed to be in the nature of support of the child and are within the exceptions to discharge in bankruptcy under 11 U.S.C.A. 523. The provisions of Sections 501 and 508 of this Act shall apply to fees and costs for attorneys appointed under this Section.

(b) Upon the request of a mother or child seeking to establish the existence of a father and child relationship, the State's Attorney shall represent the mother or child in the trial court. If the child is an applicant for or a recipient of assistance as defined in Section 2-6 of "The Illinois Public Aid Code", approved April 11, 1967, as amended, or has applied to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) for services under Article X of such Code, the Department may file a complaint in the child's behalf under this Act. The Department shall refer the complaint to the Public Aid Claims Enforcement Division of the Office of the Attorney General as provided in Section 12-16 of "The Illinois Public Aid Code" for enforcement by the Attorney General. Legal representation by the State's Attorney or the Attorney General shall be limited to the establishment and enforcement of an order for support, and shall not extend to visitation, custody, property or other matters. If visitation, custody, property or other matters are raised by a party and considered by the court in any proceeding under this Act, the court shall provide a continuance sufficient to enable the mother or child to obtain representation for such matters.

(c) The Court may appoint counsel to represent any indigent defendant in the trial court, except that this representation shall be limited to the establishment of a parent and child relationship and an order for support, and shall not extend to visitation, custody, property, enforcement of an order for support, or other matters. If visitation, custody, property or other matters are raised by a party and considered by the court in any proceeding under this Act, the court shall provide a continuance sufficient to enable the defendant to obtain representation for such matters.

(d) The court shall furnish on request of any indigent party a transcript for purposes of appeal.

(Source: P.A. 91-410, eff. 1-1-00; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/21) (from Ch. 40, par. 2521)

Sec. 21. Support payments; receiving and disbursing agents.

(1) In an action filed in a county of less than 3 million population in which an order for child support is entered, and in supplementary proceedings in such a county to enforce or vary the terms of such order arising out of an action filed in such a county, the court, except in actions or supplementary proceedings in which the pregnancy and delivery expenses of the mother or the child support payments are for a recipient of aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, shall direct that child support payments be made to the clerk of the court unless in the discretion of the court exceptional circumstances warrant otherwise. In cases where payment is to be made to persons other than the clerk of the court the judgment or order of support shall set forth the facts of the exceptional circumstances.

(2) In an action filed in a county of 3 million or more population in which an order for child support is entered, and in supplementary proceedings in such a county to enforce or vary the terms of such order arising out of an action filed in such a county, the court, except in actions or supplementary proceedings in which the pregnancy and delivery expenses of the mother or the child support payments are for a recipient of aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, shall direct that child support payments be made either to the clerk of the court or to the Court Service Division of the County Department of Public Aid, or to the clerk of the court or to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, unless in the discretion of the court exceptional circumstances warrant otherwise. In cases where payment is to be made to persons other than the clerk of the court, the Court Service Division of the County Department of Public Aid, or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, the judgment or order of support shall set forth the facts of the exceptional circumstances.

(3) Where the action or supplementary proceeding is in behalf of a mother for pregnancy and delivery expenses or for child support, or both, and the mother, child, or both, are recipients of aid under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the court shall order that the payments be made directly to (a) the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid if the mother or child, or both, are recipients under Articles IV or V of the Code, or (b) the local governmental unit responsible for the support of the mother or child, or both, if they are recipients under Articles VI or VII of the Code. In accordance with federal law and regulations, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may continue to collect current maintenance payments or child support payments, or both, after those persons cease to receive public assistance and until termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall pay the net amount collected to those persons after deducting any costs incurred in making the collection or any collection fee from the amount of any recovery made. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, may direct that payments be made directly to the mother of the child, or to some other person or agency in the child's behalf, upon the removal of the mother and child from the public aid rolls or upon termination of services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; and upon such direction, the Illinois Department or the local governmental unit, as the case requires, shall give notice of such action to the court in writing or by electronic transmission.

(4) All clerks of the court and the Court Service Division of a County Department of Public Aid and the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, receiving child support payments under paragraphs (1) or (2) shall disburse the same to the person or persons entitled thereto under the terms of the order. They shall establish and maintain clear and current records of all moneys received and disbursed and of defaults and delinquencies in required payments. The court, by order or rule, shall make provision for the carrying out of these duties.

Payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund. All payments under this Section to the Illinois Department of Human Services shall be deposited in the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund. Disbursement from these funds shall be as provided in the Illinois Public Aid Code. Payments received by a local governmental unit shall be deposited in that unit's General Assistance Fund.

(5) The moneys received by persons or agencies designated by the court shall be disbursed by them in accordance with the order. However, the court, on petition of the state's attorney, may enter new orders designating the clerk of the court or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, as the person or agency authorized to receive and disburse child support payments and, in the case of recipients of public aid, the court, on petition of the Attorney General or State's Attorney, shall direct subsequent payments to be paid to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or to the appropriate local governmental unit, as provided in paragraph (3). Payments of child support by principals or sureties on bonds, or proceeds of any sale for the enforcement of a judgment shall be made to the clerk of the court, the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the appropriate local governmental unit, as the respective provisions of this Section require.

(6) For those cases in which child support is payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by order of court or upon notification by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), the clerk shall transmit all such payments, within 4 working days of receipt, to insure that funds are available for immediate distribution by the Department to the person or entity entitled thereto in accordance with standards of the Child Support Enforcement Program established under Title IV-D of the Social Security Act. The clerk shall notify the Department of the date of receipt and amount thereof at the time of transmittal. Where the clerk has entered into an agreement of cooperation with the Department to record the terms of child support orders and payments made thereunder directly into the Department's automated data processing system, the clerk shall account for, transmit and otherwise distribute child support payments in accordance with such agreement in lieu of the requirements contained herein.

(7) To the extent the provisions of this Section are inconsistent with the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit under Section 21.1 of this Act and Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the requirements pertaining to the State Disbursement Unit shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/21.1)

Sec. 21.1. Payment of Support to State Disbursement Unit.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Order for support", "obligor", "obligee", and "payor" mean those terms as defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act, except that "order for support" shall not mean orders providing for spousal maintenance under which there is no child support obligation.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, each order for support entered or modified on or after October 1, 1999 shall require that support payments be made to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code if:

(1) a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, but the support payments are made through income withholding.

(c) Support payments shall be made to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(1) the order for support was entered before October 1, 1999, and a party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services, and the support payments are being made through income withholding.

(c-5) If no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and the support payments are not made through income withholding, then support payments shall be made as directed by the order for support.

(c-10) At any time, and notwithstanding the existence of an order directing payments to be made elsewhere, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice to the obligor and, where applicable, to the obligor's payor:

(1) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit if:

(A) a party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(B) no party to the order for support is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, but the support payments are made through income withholding; or

(2) to make support payments to the State Disbursement Unit of another state upon request of another state's Title IV-D child support enforcement agency, in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act and regulations promulgated under that Part D.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee and to the clerk of the circuit court.

(c-15) Within 15 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the clerk of the circuit court shall provide written notice to the obligor to directly to the clerk of the circuit court if no party to the order is receiving child support enforcement services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the support payments are not made through income withholding, and the order for support requires support payments to be made directly to the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk shall provide a copy of the notice to the obligee.

(c-20) If the State Disbursement Unit receives a support payment that was not appropriately made to the Unit under this Section, the Unit shall immediately return the payment to the sender, including, if possible, instructions detailing where to send the support payments.

(d) The notices under subsections (c-10) and (c-15) may be sent by ordinary mail, certified mail, return receipt requested, facsimile transmission, or other electronic process, or may be served upon the obligor or payor using any method provided by law for service of a summons.

(Source: P.A. 91-212, eff. 7-20-99; 91-677, eff. 1-5-00; 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/22) (from Ch. 40, par. 2522)

Sec. 22. In all cases instituted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) on behalf of a child or spouse, other than one receiving a grant of financial aid under Article IV of The Illinois Public Aid Code, on whose behalf an application has been made and approved for child support enforcement services as provided by Section 10-1 of that Code, the court shall impose a collection fee on the individual who owes a child or spouse support obligation in an amount equal to 10% of the amount so owed as long as such collection is required by federal law, which fee shall be in addition to the support obligation. The imposition of such fee shall be in accordance with provisions of Title IV, Part D, of the Social Security Act and regulations duly promulgated thereunder. The fee shall be payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid and shall continue until support services are terminated by that Department.

(Source: P.A. 92-590, eff. 7-1-02; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/23) (from Ch. 40, par. 2523)

Sec. 23. Notice to Clerk of Circuit Court of Payment Received by Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for Recording. For those cases in which support is payable to the clerk of the circuit court for transmittal to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) by order of court, and the Illinois Department of Public Aid collects support by assignment, offset, withhold, deduction or other process permitted by law, the Illinois Department of Public Aid shall notify the clerk of the date and amount of such collection. Upon notification, the clerk shall record the collection on the payment record for the case.

(Source: P.A. 83-1372; revised 12-15-05.)

(750 ILCS 45/28)

Sec. 28. Notice of child support enforcement services. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid may provide notice at any time to the parties to an action filed under this Act that child support enforcement services are being provided by the Illinois Department under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The notice shall be sent by regular mail to the party's last known address on file with the clerk of the court or the State Case Registry established under Section 10-27 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. After notice is provided pursuant to this Section, the Illinois Department shall be entitled, as if it were a party, to notice of any further proceedings brought in the case. The Illinois Department shall provide the clerk of the court with copies of the notices sent to the parties. The clerk shall file the copies in the court file.

(Source: P.A. 94-88, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1160. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 18.05 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/18.05)

Sec. 18.05. The Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange.

(a) General function. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Public Health shall administer the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange in the manner outlined in subsections (b) and (c) for the purpose of facilitating the voluntary exchange of medical information between mutually consenting members of birth and adoptive families. The Department shall establish rules for the confidential operation of the Illinois Adoption Registry. The Department shall conduct a public information campaign through public service announcements and other forms of media coverage and, until December 31, 2010, through notices enclosed with driver's license renewal applications, shall inform the public of the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange. The Illinois Adoption Registry shall also maintain an informational Internet site where interested parties may access information about the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange and download all necessary application forms. The Illinois Adoption Registry shall maintain statistical records regarding Registry participation and publish and circulate to the public informational material about the function and operation of the Registry.

(b) Establishment of the Adoption/Surrender Records File. When a person has voluntarily registered with the Illinois Adoption Registry and completed an Illinois Adoption Registry Application or a Registration Identification Form, the Registry shall establish a new Adoption/Surrender Records File. Such file may concern an adoption that was finalized by a court action in the State of Illinois, an adoption of a person born in Illinois finalized by a court action in a state other than Illinois or in a foreign country, a surrender taken in the State of Illinois, or an adoption filed according to Section 16.1 of the Vital Records Act under a Record of Foreign Birth that was not finalized by a court action in the State of Illinois. Such file may be established for adoptions or surrenders finalized prior to as well as after the effective date of this amendatory Act. A file may be created in any manner to preserve documents including but not limited to microfilm, optical imaging, or electronic documents.

(c) Contents of the Adoption/Surrender Records File. An established Adoption/Surrender Records File shall be limited to the following items, to the extent that they are available:

(1) The General Information Section and Medical Information Exchange Questionnaire of any Illinois Adoption Registry Application or a Registration Identification Form which has been voluntarily completed by any registered party.

(2) Any photographs voluntarily provided by any registrant for any other registered party at the time of registration or any time thereafter. All such photographs shall be submitted in an unsealed envelope no larger than 8 1/2" x 11", and shall not include identifying information pertaining to any person other than the registrant who submitted them. Any such identifying information shall be redacted by the Department or the information shall be returned for removal of identifying information.

(3) Any Information Exchange Authorization or Denial of Information Exchange which has been filed by a registrant.

(4) For all adoptions finalized after January 1, 2000, copies of the original certificate of live birth and the certificate of adoption.

(5) Any updated address submitted by any registered party about himself or herself.

(6) Any proof of death which has been submitted by a registrant.

(7) Any birth certificate that has been submitted by a registrant.

(8) Any marriage certificate that has been submitted by a registrant.

(9) Any proof of guardianship that has been submitted by a registrant.

(d) An established Adoption/Surrender Records File for an adoption filed in Illinois under a Record of Foreign Birth that was not finalized in a court action in the State of Illinois shall be limited to the following items submitted to the State Registrar of Vital Records under Section 16.1 of the Vital Records Act, to the extent that they are available:

(1) Evidence as to the child's birth date and birthplace (including the country of birth and, if available, the city and province of birth) provided by the original birth certificate, or by a certified copy, extract, or translation thereof or by other document essentially equivalent thereto (the records of the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization Service or of the U.S. Department of State to be considered essentially equivalent thereto).

(2) A certified copy, extract, or translation of the adoption decree or other document essentially equivalent thereto (the records of the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization Service or of the U.S. Department of State to be considered essentially equivalent thereto).

(3) A copy of the IR-3 visa.

(4) The name and address of the adoption agency that handled the adoption.

(Source: P.A. 94-173, eff. 1-1-06; 94-430, eff. 8-2-05; revised 8-19-05.)

Section 1165. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 219, 223, 224, and 302 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/219) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-19)

Sec. 219. Plenary order of protection. A plenary order of protection shall issue if petitioner has served notice of the hearing for that order on respondent, in accordance with Section 211, and satisfies the requirements of this Section for one or more of the requested remedies. For each remedy requested, petitioner must establish that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 208;

(2) the requirements of Section 214 are satisfied; and

(3) a general appearance was made or filed by or for respondent or process was served on respondent in the manner required by Section 210; and

(4) respondent has answered or is in default.

(Source: P.A. 84-1305; revised 2-25-02.)

(750 ILCS 60/223) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-23)

Sec. 223. Enforcement of orders of protection.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of an order of protection pursuant to Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act; or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), and (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act, in a valid order of protection which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory; or

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961.

Prosecution for a violation of an order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6) or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act; or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act, in a valid order of protection which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid Illinois order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the order of protection were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Act. Nothing in this Act shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid order of protection issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce orders of protection through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of an order of protection shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(c) Violation of custody or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 611 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 214 in the manner provided for under Parts Articles V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. An order of protection may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after the respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) By service, delivery, or notice under Section 210.

(2) By notice under Section 210.1 or 211.

(3) By service of an order of protection under Section 222.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of an order of protection in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order, entered under Section 215.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of an order of protection has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any order of protection over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any order of protection or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any order of protection; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of an order of protection

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of an order of protection, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of an order of protection:

(i) to increase, revoke or modify the bail bond on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(5) In addition to any other penalties, the court shall impose an additional fine of $20 as authorized by Section 5-9-1.11 of the Unified Code of Corrections upon any person convicted of or placed on supervision for a violation of an order of protection. The additional fine shall be imposed for each violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-359, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-11-05.)

(750 ILCS 60/224) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-24)

Sec. 224. Modification and re-opening of orders.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, upon motion by petitioner, the court may modify an emergency, interim, or plenary order of protection:

(1) If respondent has abused petitioner since the hearing for that order, by adding or altering one or more remedies, as authorized by Section 214; and

(2) Otherwise, by adding any remedy authorized by Section 214 which was:

(i) reserved in that order of protection;

(ii) not requested for inclusion in that order of protection; or

(iii) denied on procedural grounds, but not on the merits.

(b) Upon motion by petitioner or respondent, the court may modify any prior order of protection's remedy for custody, visitation or payment of support in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. Each order of protection shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System on the same day it is issued by the court.

(c) After 30 days following entry of a plenary order of protection, a court may modify that order only when changes in the applicable law or facts since that plenary order was entered warrant a modification of its terms.

(d) Upon 2 days' notice to petitioner, in accordance with Section 211 of this Act, or such shorter notice as the court may prescribe, a respondent subject to an emergency or interim order of protection issued under this Act may appear and petition the court to re-hear the original or amended petition. Any petition to re-hear shall be verified and shall allege the following:

(1) that respondent did not receive prior notice of the initial hearing in which the emergency, interim, or plenary order was entered under Sections 211 and 217; and

(2) that respondent had a meritorious defense to the order or any of its remedies or that the order or any of its remedies was not authorized by this Act.

(e) In the event that the emergency or interim order granted petitioner exclusive possession and the petition of respondent seeks to re-open or vacate that grant, the court shall set a date for hearing within 14 days on all issues relating to exclusive possession. Under no circumstances shall a court continue a hearing concerning exclusive possession beyond the 14th day, except by agreement of the parties. Other issues raised by the pleadings may be consolidated for the hearing if neither party nor the court objects.

(f) This Section does not limit the means, otherwise available by law, for vacating or modifying orders of protection.

(Source: P.A. 87-1186; revised 2-17-03.)

(750 ILCS 60/302) (from Ch. 40, par. 2313-2)

Sec. 302. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Department of State Police, on the same day as received, in the form and detail the Department requires, copies of any recorded emergency, interim, or plenary orders of protection issued by the court, and any foreign orders of protection filed by the clerk of the court, and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 222 of this Act. Each order of protection shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System on the same day it is issued by the court. If an emergency order of protection was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 217, the order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Automated Data System as soon as possible after receipt from the clerk.

(b) The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded orders of protection issued pursuant to this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of an alleged incident of abuse, neglect, or exploitation or violation of an order of protection of any recorded prior incident of abuse, neglect, or exploitation involving the abused, neglected, or exploited party and the effective dates and terms of any recorded order of protection.

(c) The data, records and transmittals required under this Section shall pertain to any valid emergency, interim or plenary order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding or authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(Source: P.A. 90-392, eff. 1-1-98; 91-903, eff. 1-1-01; revised 2-17-03.)

Section 1170. The Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 70/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of a woman known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of a child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus.

"Actual notice" means the giving of notice directly, in person, or by telephone.

"Adult family member" means a person over 21 years of age who is the parent, grandparent, step-parent living in the household, or legal guardian.

"Constructive notice" means notice by certified mail to the last known address of the person entitled to notice with delivery deemed to have occurred 48 hours after the certified notice is mailed.

"Incompetent" means any person who has been adjudged as mentally ill or developmentally disabled and who, because of her mental illness or developmental disability, is not fully able to manage her person and for whom a guardian of the person has been appointed under Section 11a-3(a)(1) of the Probate Act of 1975.

"Medical emergency" means a condition that, on the basis of the physician's good faith clinical judgment, so complicates the medical condition of a pregnant woman as to necessitate the immediate abortion of her pregnancy to avert her death or for which a delay will create serious risk of substantial and irreversible impairment of major bodily function.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age who is not or has not been married or who has not been emancipated under the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

"Neglect" means the failure of an adult family member to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care when reasonably able to do so or the failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that imminently and seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so.

"Physical abuse" means any physical injury intentionally inflicted by an adult family member on a child.

"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Illinois Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 that is prohibited by the criminal laws of the State of Illinois and committed against a minor by an adult family member as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-18, eff. 6-1-95; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 1175. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 6-5 and 11a-18 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/6-5) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-5)

Sec. 6-5. Deposition of witness.) When a witness to a will resides outside the county in which the will is offered for probate or is unable to attend court and can be found and is mentally and physically capable of testifying, the court, upon the petition of any person seeking probate of the will and upon such notice of the petition to persons interested as the court directs, may issue a commission with the will or a photographic copy thereof attached. The commission shall be directed to any judge, notary public, mayor or other chief magistrate of a city or United States State consul, vice-consul, consular agent, secretary of legation or commissioned officer in active service of the armed forces of the United States and shall authorize and require him to cause that witness to come before him at such time and place as he designates and to take the deposition of the witness on oath or affirmation and upon all such written interrogatories and cross-interrogatories as may be enclosed with the commission. With the least possible delay the person taking the deposition shall certify it, the commission, and the interrogatories to the court from which the commission issued. When the deposition of a witness is so taken and returned to the court, his testimony has the same effect as if he testified in the court from which the commission issued. When the commission is issued to the officer by his official title only and not by name, the seal of his office attached to his certificate is sufficient evidence of his identity and official character.

(Source: P.A. 81-213; revised 10-11-05.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-18)

Sec. 11a-18. Duties of the estate guardian.

(a) To the extent specified in the order establishing the guardianship, the guardian of the estate shall have the care, management and investment of the estate, shall manage the estate frugally and shall apply the income and principal of the estate so far as necessary for the comfort and suitable support and education of the ward, his minor and adult dependent children, and persons related by blood or marriage who are dependent upon or entitled to support from him, or for any other purpose which the court deems to be for the best interests of the ward, and the court may approve the making on behalf of the ward of such agreements as the court determines to be for the ward's best interests. The guardian may make disbursement of his ward's funds and estate directly to the ward or other distributee or in such other manner and in such amounts as the court directs. If the estate of a ward is derived in whole or in part from payments of compensation, adjusted compensation, pension, insurance or other similar benefits made directly to the estate by the Veterans Administration, notice of the application for leave to invest or expend the ward's funds or estate, together with a copy of the petition and proposed order, shall be given to the Veterans' Administration Regional Office in this State at least 7 days before the hearing on the application.

(a-5) The probate court, upon petition of a guardian, other than the guardian of a minor, and after notice to all other persons interested as the court directs, may authorize the guardian to exercise any or all powers over the estate and business affairs of the ward that the ward could exercise if present and not under disability. The court may authorize the taking of an action or the application of funds not required for the ward's current and future maintenance and support in any manner approved by the court as being in keeping with the ward's wishes so far as they can be ascertained. The court must consider the permanence of the ward's disabling condition and the natural objects of the ward's bounty. In ascertaining and carrying out the ward's wishes the court may consider, but shall not be limited to, minimization of State or federal income, estate, or inheritance taxes; and providing gifts to charities, relatives, and friends that would be likely recipients of donations from the ward. The ward's wishes as best they can be ascertained shall be carried out, whether or not tax savings are involved. Actions or applications of funds may include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) making gifts of income or principal, or both, of the estate, either outright or in trust;

(2) conveying, releasing, or disclaiming his or her contingent and expectant interests in property, including marital property rights and any right of survivorship incident to joint tenancy or tenancy by the entirety;

(3) releasing or disclaiming his or her powers as trustee, personal representative, custodian for minors, or guardian;

(4) exercising, releasing, or disclaiming his or her powers as donee of a power of appointment;

(5) entering into contracts;

(6) creating for the benefit of the ward or others, revocable or irrevocable trusts of his or her property that may extend beyond his or her disability or life; .

(7) exercising options of the ward to purchase or exchange securities or other property;

(8) exercising the rights of the ward to elect benefit or payment options, to terminate, to change beneficiaries or ownership, to assign rights, to borrow, or to receive cash value in return for a surrender of rights under any one or more of the following:

(i) life insurance policies, plans, or benefits, .

(ii) annuity policies, plans, or benefits, .

(iii) mutual fund and other dividend investment plans, .

(iv) retirement, profit sharing, and employee welfare plans and benefits;

(9) exercising his or her right to claim or disclaim an elective share in the estate of his or her deceased spouse and to renounce any interest by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transfer;

(10) changing the ward's residence or domicile; or

(11) modifying by means of codicil or trust amendment the terms of the ward's will or any revocable trust created by the ward, as the court may consider advisable in light of changes in applicable tax laws.

The guardian in his or her petition shall briefly outline the action or application of funds for which he or she seeks approval, the results expected to be accomplished thereby, and the tax savings, if any, expected to accrue. The proposed action or application of funds may include gifts of the ward's personal property or real estate, but transfers of real estate shall be subject to the requirements of Section 20 of this Act. Gifts may be for the benefit of prospective legatees, devisees, or heirs apparent of the ward or may be made to individuals or charities in which the ward is believed to have an interest. The guardian shall also indicate in the petition that any planned disposition is consistent with the intentions of the ward insofar as they can be ascertained, and if the ward's intentions cannot be ascertained, the ward will be presumed to favor reduction in the incidents of various forms of taxation and the partial distribution of his or her estate as provided in this subsection. The guardian shall not, however, be required to include as a beneficiary or fiduciary any person who he has reason to believe would be excluded by the ward. A guardian shall be required to investigate and pursue a ward's eligibility for governmental benefits.

(b) Upon the direction of the court which issued his letters, a guardian may perform the contracts of his ward which were legally subsisting at the time of the commencement of the ward's disability. The court may authorize the guardian to execute and deliver any bill of sale, deed or other instrument.

(c) The guardian of the estate of a ward shall appear for and represent the ward in all legal proceedings unless another person is appointed for that purpose as guardian or next friend. This does not impair the power of any court to appoint a guardian ad litem or next friend to defend the interests of the ward in that court, or to appoint or allow any person as the next friend of a ward to commence, prosecute or defend any proceeding in his behalf. Without impairing the power of the court in any respect, if the guardian of the estate of a ward and another person as next friend shall appear for and represent the ward in a legal proceeding in which the compensation of the attorney or attorneys representing the guardian and next friend is solely determined under a contingent fee arrangement, the guardian of the estate of the ward shall not participate in or have any duty to review the prosecution of the action, to participate in or review the appropriateness of any settlement of the action, or to participate in or review any determination of the appropriateness of any fees awarded to the attorney or attorneys employed in the prosecution of the action.

(d) Adjudication of disability shall not revoke or otherwise terminate a trust which is revocable by the ward. A guardian of the estate shall have no authority to revoke a trust that is revocable by the ward, except that the court may authorize a guardian to revoke a Totten trust or similar deposit or withdrawable capital account in trust to the extent necessary to provide funds for the purposes specified in paragraph (a) of this Section. If the trustee of any trust for the benefit of the ward has discretionary power to apply income or principal for the ward's benefit, the trustee shall not be required to distribute any of the income or principal to the guardian of the ward's estate, but the guardian may bring an action on behalf of the ward to compel the trustee to exercise the trustee's discretion or to seek relief from an abuse of discretion. This paragraph shall not limit the right of a guardian of the estate to receive accountings from the trustee on behalf of the ward.

(e) Absent court order pursuant to the "Illinois Power of Attorney Act" enacted by the 85th General Assembly directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, the guardian will have no power, duty or liability with respect to any property subject to the agency. This subsection (e) applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(f) Upon petition by any interested person (including the standby or short-term guardian), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that it is in the best interest of the disabled person, the court may terminate or limit the authority of a standby or short-term guardian or may enter such other orders as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interest of the disabled person. The petition for termination or limitation of the authority of a standby or short-term guardian may, but need not, be combined with a petition to have another guardian appointed for the disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 89-672, eff. 8-14-96; 90-345, eff. 8-8-97; 90-796, eff. 12-15-98; revised 1-20-03.)

Section 1180. The Illinois Living Will Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 3 as follows:

(755 ILCS 35/2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 702)

Sec. 2. Definitions:

(a) "Attending physician" means the physician selected by, or assigned to, the patient who has primary responsibility for the treatment and care of the patient.

(b) "Declaration" means a witnessed document in writing, voluntarily executed by the declarant in accordance with the requirements of Section 3.

(c) "Health-care provider" means a person who is licensed, certified or otherwise authorized by the law of this State to administer health care in the ordinary course of business or practice of a profession.

(d) "Death delaying procedure" means any medical procedure or intervention which, when applied to a qualified patient, in the judgement of the attending physician would serve only to postpone the moment of death. In appropriate circumstances, such procedures include, but are not limited to, assisted ventilation, artificial kidney treatments, intravenous feeding or medication, blood transfusions, tube feeding and other procedures of greater or lesser magnitude that serve only to delay death. However, this Act does not affect the responsibility of the attending physician or other health care provider to provide treatment for a patient's comfort care or alleviation of pain. Nutrition and hydration shall not be withdrawn or withheld from a qualified patient if the withdrawal or withholding would result in death solely from dehydration or starvation rather than from the existing terminal condition.

(e) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, association, government, governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal entity.

(f) ) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(g) "Qualified patient" means a patient who has executed a declaration in accordance with this Act and who has been diagnosed and verified in writing to be afflicted with a terminal condition by his or her attending physician who has personally examined the patient. A qualified patient has the right to make decisions regarding death delaying procedures as long as he or she is able to do so.

(h) "Terminal condition" means an incurable and irreversible condition which is such that death is imminent and the application of death delaying procedures serves only to prolong the dying process.

(Source: P.A. 85-860; revised 9-15-06.)

(755 ILCS 35/3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 703)

Sec. 3. Execution of a Document.

(a) An individual of sound mind and having reached the age of majority or having obtained the status of an emancipated person pursuant to the "Emancipation of Mature Minors Act", as now or hereafter amended, may execute a document directing that if he is suffering from a terminal condition, then death delaying procedures shall not be utilized for the prolongation of his life.

(b) The declaration must be signed by the declarant, or another at the declarant's direction, and witnessed by 2 individuals 18 years of age or older.

(c) The declaration of a qualified patient diagnosed as pregnant by the attending physician shall be given no force and effect as long as in the opinion of the attending physician it is possible that the fetus could develop to the point of live birth with the continued application of death delaying procedures.

(d) If the patient is able, it shall be the responsibility of the patient to provide for notification to his or her attending physician of the existence of a declaration, to provide the declaration to the physician and to ask the attending physician whether he or she is willing to comply with its provisions. An attending physician who is so notified shall make the declaration, or copy of the declaration, a part of the patient's medical records. If the physician is at any time unwilling to comply with its provisions, the physician shall promptly so advise the declarant. If the physician is unwilling to comply with its provisions and the patient is able, it is the patient's responsibility to initiate the transfer to another physician of the patient's choosing. If the physician is unwilling to comply with its provisions and the patient is at any time not able to initiate the transfer, then the attending physician shall without delay notify the person with the highest priority, as set forth in this subsection, who is available, able, and willing to make arrangements for the transfer of the patient and the appropriate medical records to another physician for the effectuation of the patient's declaration. The order of priority is as follows: (1) any person authorized by the patient to make such arrangements, (2) a guardian of the person of the patient, without the necessity of obtaining a court order to do so, and (3) any member of the patient's family.

(e) The declaration may, but need not, be in the following form, and in addition may include other specific directions. Should any specific direction be determined to be invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other directions of the declaration which can be given effect without the invalid direction, and to this end the directions in the declaration are severable.

DECLARATION

This declaration is made this ............. day of ............. (month, year). I, .................., being of sound mind, willfully and voluntarily make known my desires that my moment of death shall not be artificially postponed.

If at any time I should have an incurable and irreversible injury, disease, or illness judged to be a terminal condition by my attending physician who has personally examined me and has determined that my death is imminent except for death delaying procedures, I direct that such procedures which would only prolong the dying process be withheld or withdrawn, and that I be permitted to die naturally with only the administration of medication, sustenance, or the performance of any medical procedure deemed necessary by my attending physician to provide me with comfort care.

In the absence of my ability to give directions regarding the use of such death delaying procedures, it is my intention that this declaration shall be honored by my family and physician as the final expression of my legal right to refuse medical or surgical treatment and accept the consequences from such refusal.

Signed ....................

City, County and State of Residence .........................

The declarant is personally known to me and I believe him or her to be of sound mind. I saw the declarant sign the declaration in my presence (or the declarant acknowledged in my presence that he or she had signed the declaration) and I signed the declaration as a witness in the presence of the declarant. I did not sign the declarant's signature above for or at the direction of the declarant. At the date of this instrument, I am not entitled to any portion of the estate of the declarant according to the laws of intestate succession or, to the best of my knowledge and belief, under any will of declarant or other instrument taking effect at declarant's death, or directly financially responsible for declarant's medical care.

Witness ..................

Witness ..................

(Source: P.A. 85-1209; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 1185. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 40/10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 851-10)

Sec. 10. Definitions.

"Adult" means a person who is (i) 18 years of age or older or (ii) an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Mature Minors Act.

"Artificial nutrition and hydration" means supplying food and water through a conduit, such as a tube or intravenous line, where the recipient is not required to chew or swallow voluntarily, including, but not limited to, nasogastric tubes, gastrostomies, jejunostomies, and intravenous infusions. Artificial nutrition and hydration does not include assisted feeding, such as spoon or bottle feeding.

"Available" means that a person is not "unavailable". A person is unavailable if (i) the person's existence is not known, (ii) the person has not been able to be contacted by telephone or mail, or (iii) the person lacks decisional capacity, refuses to accept the office of surrogate, or is unwilling to respond in a manner that indicates a choice among the treatment matters at issue.

"Attending physician" means the physician selected by or assigned to the patient who has primary responsibility for treatment and care of the patient and who is a licensed physician in Illinois. If more than one physician shares that responsibility, any of those physicians may act as the attending physician under this Act.

"Close friend" means any person 18 years of age or older who has exhibited special care and concern for the patient and who presents an affidavit to the attending physician stating that he or she (i) is a close friend of the patient, (ii) is willing and able to become involved in the patient's health care, and (iii) has maintained such regular contact with the patient as to be familiar with the patient's activities, health, and religious and moral beliefs. The affidavit must also state facts and circumstances that demonstrate that familiarity.

"Death" means when, according to accepted medical standards, there is (i) an irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions or (ii) an irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem.

"Decisional capacity" means the ability to understand and appreciate the nature and consequences of a decision regarding medical treatment or forgoing life-sustaining treatment and the ability to reach and communicate an informed decision in the matter as determined by the attending physician.

"Forgo life-sustaining treatment" means to withhold, withdraw, or terminate all or any portion of life-sustaining treatment with knowledge that the patient's death is likely to result.

"Guardian" means a court appointed guardian of the person who serves as a representative of a minor or as a representative of a person under legal disability.

"Health care facility" means a type of health care provider commonly known by a wide variety of titles, including but not limited to, hospitals, medical centers, nursing homes, rehabilitation centers, long term or tertiary care facilities, and other facilities established to administer health care and provide overnight stays in their ordinary course of business or practice.

"Health care provider" means a person that is licensed, certified, or otherwise authorized or permitted by the law of this State to administer health care in the ordinary course of business or practice of a profession, including, but not limited to, physicians, nurses, health care facilities, and any employee, officer, director, agent, or person under contract with such a person.

"Imminent" (as in "death is imminent") means a determination made by the attending physician according to accepted medical standards that death will occur in a relatively short period of time, even if life-sustaining treatment is initiated or continued.

"Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical treatment, procedure, or intervention that, in the judgment of the attending physician, when applied to a patient with a qualifying condition, would not be effective to remove the qualifying condition or would serve only to prolong the dying process. Those procedures can include, but are not limited to, assisted ventilation, renal dialysis, surgical procedures, blood transfusions, and the administration of drugs, antibiotics, and artificial nutrition and hydration.

"Minor" means an individual who is not an adult as defined in this Act.

"Parent" means a person who is the natural or adoptive mother or father of the child and whose parental rights have not been terminated by a court of law.

"Patient" means an adult or minor individual, unless otherwise specified, under the care or treatment of a licensed physician or other health care provider.

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a business trust, a trust, a partnership, an association, a government, a governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal entity.

"Qualifying condition" means the existence of one or more of the following conditions in a patient certified in writing in the patient's medical record by the attending physician and by at least one other qualified physician:

(1) "Terminal condition" means an illness or injury for which there is no reasonable prospect of cure or recovery, death is imminent, and the application of life-sustaining treatment would only prolong the dying process.

(2) "Permanent unconsciousness" means a condition that, to a high degree of medical certainty, (i) will last permanently, without improvement, (ii) in which thought, sensation, purposeful action, social interaction, and awareness of self and environment are absent, and (iii) for which initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment, in light of the patient's medical condition, provides only minimal medical benefit.

(3) "Incurable or irreversible condition" means an illness or injury (i) for which there is no reasonable prospect of cure or recovery, (ii) that ultimately will cause the patient's death even if life-sustaining treatment is initiated or continued, (iii) that imposes severe pain or otherwise imposes an inhumane burden on the patient, and (iv) for which initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment, in light of the patient's medical condition, provides only minimal medical benefit.

The determination that a patient has a qualifying condition creates no presumption regarding the application or non-application of life-sustaining treatment. It is only after a determination by the attending physician that the patient has a qualifying condition that the surrogate decision maker may consider whether or not to forgo life-sustaining treatment. In making this decision, the surrogate shall weigh the burdens on the patient of initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment against the benefits of that treatment.

"Qualified physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in Illinois who has personally examined the patient.

"Surrogate decision maker" means an adult individual or individuals who (i) have decisional capacity, (ii) are available upon reasonable inquiry, (iii) are willing to make medical treatment decisions on behalf of a patient who lacks decisional capacity, and (iv) are identified by the attending physician in accordance with the provisions of this Act as the person or persons who are to make those decisions in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-246, eff. 1-1-98; 90-538, eff. 12-1-97; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-9-03.)

Section 1190. The Illinois Anatomical Gift Act is amended by adding Section 5-27 (incorporating and renumbering Section 3.5 of the Organ Donation Request Act from Public Act 93-888) as follows:

(755 ILCS 50/5-27) (was 755 ILCS 60/3.5)

Sec. 5-27 3.5. Notification of patient; family rights and options.

(a) In this Section, "donation after cardiac death" means the donation of organs from a ventilated patient without a certification of brain death and with a do-not-resuscitate order, if a decision has been reached by the physician and the family to withdraw life support and if the donation does not occur until after the declaration of cardiac death.

(b) If (i) a potential organ donor, or an individual given authority under subsection (b) of Section 5-25 2 to consent to an organ donation, expresses an interest in organ donation, (ii) there has not been a certification of brain death for the potential donor, and (iii) the potential donor is a patient at a hospital that does not allow donation after cardiac death, then the organ procurement agency shall inform the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation that the hospital does not allow donation after cardiac death.

(c) In addition to providing oral notification, the organ procurement agency shall develop a written form that indicates to the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation, at a minimum, the following information:

(1) That the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation has received literature and has been counseled by (representative's name) of the (organ procurement agency name).

(2) That all organ donation options have been explained to the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation, including the option of donation after cardiac death.

(3) That the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation is aware that the hospital where the potential donor is a patient does not allow donation after cardiac death.

(4) That the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation has been informed of the right to request a patient transfer to a facility allowing donation after cardiac death.

(5) That the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation has been informed of another hospital that will allow donation after cardiac death and will accept a patient transfer for the purpose of donation after cardiac death; and that the cost of transferring the patient to that other hospital will be covered by the organ procurement agency, with no additional cost to the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation.

The form required under this subsection must include a place for the signatures of the patient or the individual given authority to consent to organ donation and the representative of the organ procurement agency and space to provide the date that the form was signed.

(Source: Incorporates P.A. 93-888, eff. 8-9-04; revised 1-16-05.)

Section 1195. The Cemetery Perpetual Trust Authorization Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(760 ILCS 95/2) (from Ch. 21, par. 64)

Sec. 2. Any incorporated cemetery association incorporated not for pecuniary profit, may if it elects to do so, receive and hold money, funds and property in perpetual trust pursuant to the provisions of this act. Such election shall be evidenced by a by-law or resolution adopted by the board of directors, or board of trustees of the incorporated cemetery association. Any person is authorized to give, donate or bequeath any sum of money or any funds, securities, or property of any kind to the cemetery association, in perpetual trust, for the maintenance, care, repair, upkeep or ornamentation of the cemetery, or any lot or lots, or grave or graves in the cemetery, specified in the instrument making the gift, donation or legacy. The cemetery association may receive and hold in perpetual trust, any such money, funds, securities and property so given, donated or bequeathed to it, and may convert the property, funds and securities into money and shall invest and keep invested the proceeds thereof and the money so given, donated and bequeathed, in safe and secure income bearing investments, including investments in income producing real estate, provided the purchase price of the real estate shall not exceed the fair market value thereof on the date of its purchase as such value is determined by the board of directors or board of trustees of the association. The principal of the trust fund shall be kept intact and the income arising therefrom shall be perpetually applied for the uses and purposes specified in the instrument making the gift, donation or legacy and for no other purpose.

The by-laws of the cemetery association shall provide for a permanent committee to manage and control the trust funds so given, donated and bequeathed to it. The members of the committee shall be appointed by the board of directors, or board of trustees of the cemetery association from among the members of the board of directors or board of trustees. The committee shall choose a chairman, a secretary and a treasurer from among the members, and shall have the management and control of the trust funds of the cemetery association so given, donated and bequeathed in trust, under the supervision of the board of directors or board of trustees. The treasurer of the committee shall execute a bond to the People of the State of Illinois for the use of the cemetery association, in a penal sum of not less than double the amount of the trust funds coming into his possession as treasurer, conditioned for the faithful performance of his duties and the faithful accounting for all money or funds which by virtue of his treasurership treasureship come into his possession, and be in such form and with such securities as may be prescribed and approved by the board of directors, or board of trustees, and shall be approved by such board of directors, or board of trustees, and filed with the secretary of the cemetery association.

The treasurer of the committee shall have the custody of all money, funds and property received in trust by the cemetery association and shall invest the same in accordance with the directions of the committee as approved by the board of directors or board of trustees of the cemetery association, and shall receive and have the custody of all of the income arising from such investments and as the income is received by him, he shall pay it to the treasurer of the cemetery association, and he shall keep permanent books of record of all such trust funds and of all receipts arising therefrom and disbursements thereof, and shall annually make a written report to the board of directors or board of trustees of the cemetery association, under oath, showing receipts and disbursements, including a statement showing the amount and principal of trust funds on hand and how invested, which report shall be audited by the board of directors, or board of trustees, and if found correct, shall be approved, and filed with the secretary of the cemetery association.

The secretary of the committee shall keep, in a book provided for such purpose, a permanent record of the proceedings of the committee, signed by the president and attested by the secretary, and shall also keep a permanent record of the several trust funds, the amounts thereof, and for what uses and purposes, respectively, and he shall annually, at the time the treasurer makes his report, make a written report under oath, to the board of directors or board of trustees, stating therein substantially the same matter required to be reported by the treasurer of the committee, which report, if found to be correct, shall be approved, and filed with the secretary of the association.

The treasurer shall execute a bond to the People of the State of Illinois, in a penal sum of not less than double the amount of money or funds coming into his possession as such treasurer, conditioned for the faithful performance of his duties and the faithful accounting of all money or funds which by virtue of his office come into his possession and be in such form and with such securities as may be prescribed and approved by the board of directors, or board of trustees, and shall be approved by such board of directors or board of trustees and filed with the secretary of the cemetery association.

The trust funds, gifts and legacies mentioned in this section and the income arising therefrom shall be exempt from taxation and from the operation of all laws of mortmain, and the laws against perpetuities and accumulations.

Where the cemetery is a privately operated cemetery, as defined in section 2 of the Cemetery Care Act, approved July 21, 1947, as amended, or where the lot or lots or grave or graves are in a privately operated cemetery, as defined in section 2 of that Act, then such cemetery association or such committee, shall also comply with the provisions of the Cemetery Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 83-388; revised 10-19-05.)

Section 1200. The Drilling Operations Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(765 ILCS 530/4) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 9654)

Sec. 4. Notice.

(a) Prior to commencement of the drilling of a well, the operator shall give written notice to the surface owner of the operator's intent to commence drilling operations.

(b) The operator shall, for the purpose of giving notice as herein required, secure from the assessor's office within 90 days prior to the giving of the notice, a certification which shall identify the person in whose name the lands on which drilling operations are to be commenced and who is assessed at the time the certification is made. The written certification made by the assessor of the surface owner shall be conclusive evidence of the surface ownership and of the operator's compliance with the provisions of this Act.

(c) The notice required to be given by the operator to the surface owner shall identify the following:

(1) The location of the proposed entry on the surface for drilling operations, and the date on or after which drilling operations shall be commenced.

(2) A photocopy of the drilling application to the Department of Natural Resources for the well to be drilled.

(3) The name, address and telephone number of the operator.

(4) An offer to discuss with the surface owner those matters set forth in Section 5 hereof prior to commencement of drilling operations.

(5) If the surface owner elects to meet the operator, the surface owner shall request the operator to schedule a meeting at a mutually agreed time and place within the limitations set forth herein. Failure of the surface owner to contact the operator at least 5 days prior to the proposed commencement of drilling operations shall be conclusively deemed a waiver of the right to meet by the surface owner.

(6) The meeting shall be scheduled between the hours of 9:00 in the morning and the setting of the sun of the same day and shall be at least 3 days prior to commencement of drilling operations. Unless agreed to otherwise, the place shall be located within the county in which drilling operations are to be commenced where the operator or his agent shall be available to discuss with the surface owner or his agent those matters set forth in Section 5 hereof.

(7) The notice herein required shall be given to the surface owner by either:

(A) certified mail addressed to the surface owner at the address shown in the certification obtained from the assessor, which shall be postmarked at least 10 days prior to the commencement of drilling operations; or

(B) personal delivery to the surface owner at least 8 days prior to the commencement of drilling operations.

(C) Notice to the surface owner as defined in this Act shall be deemed conclusive notice to the record owners of all interest in the surface.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised 10-19-05.)

Section 1205. The Cemetery Protection Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(765 ILCS 835/1) (from Ch. 21, par. 15)

Sec. 1. (a) Any person who acts without proper legal authority and who willfully and knowingly destroys or damages the remains of a deceased human being or who desecrates human remains is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(a-5) Any person who acts without proper legal authority and who willfully and knowingly removes any portion of the remains of a deceased human being from a burial ground where skeletal remains are buried or from a grave, crypt, vault, mausoleum, or other repository of human remains is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) Any person who acts without proper legal authority and who willfully and knowingly:

(1) obliterates, vandalizes, or desecrates a burial ground where skeletal remains are buried or a grave, crypt, vault, mausoleum, or other repository of human remains;

(2) obliterates, vandalizes, or desecrates a park or other area clearly designated to preserve and perpetuate the memory of a deceased person or group of persons;

(3) obliterates, vandalizes, or desecrates plants, trees, shrubs, or flowers located upon or around a repository for human remains or within a human graveyard or cemetery; or

(4) obliterates, vandalizes, or desecrates a fence, rail, curb, or other structure of a similar nature intended for the protection or for the ornamentation of any tomb, monument, gravestone, or other structure of like character;

is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the amount of the damage is less than $500, a Class 4 felony if the amount of the damage is at least $500 and less than $10,000, a Class 3 felony if the amount of the damage is at least $10,000 and less than $100,000, or a Class 2 felony if the damage is $100,000 or more and shall provide restitution to the cemetery authority or property owner for the amount of any damage caused.

(b-5) Any person who acts without proper legal authority and who willfully and knowingly defaces, vandalizes, injures, or removes a gravestone or other memorial, monument, or marker commemorating a deceased person or group of persons, whether located within or outside of a recognized cemetery, memorial park, or battlefield is guilty of a Class 4 felony for damaging at least one but no more than 4 gravestones, a Class 3 felony for damaging at least 5 but no more than 10 gravestones, or a Class 2 felony for damaging more than 10 gravestones and shall provide restitution to the cemetery authority or property owner for the amount of any damage caused.

(b-7) Any person who acts without proper legal authority and who willfully and knowingly removes with the intent to resell a gravestone or other memorial, monument, or marker commemorating a deceased person or group of persons, whether located within or outside a recognized cemetery, memorial park, or battlefield, is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(c) The provisions of this Section shall not apply to the removal or unavoidable breakage or injury by a cemetery authority of anything placed in or upon any portion of its cemetery in violation of any of the rules and regulations of the cemetery authority, nor to the removal of anything placed in the cemetery by or with the consent of the cemetery authority that in the judgment of the cemetery authority has become wrecked, unsightly, or dilapidated.

(d) If an unemancipated minor is found guilty of violating any of the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section and is unable to provide restitution to the cemetery authority or property owner, the parents or legal guardians of that minor shall provide restitution to the cemetery authority or property owner for the amount of any damage caused, up to the total amount allowed under the Parental Responsibility Law.

(d-5) Any person who commits any of the following:

(1) any unauthorized, non-related third party or person who enters any sheds, crematories, or employee areas;

(2) any non-cemetery personnel who solicits cemetery mourners or funeral directors on the grounds or in the offices or chapels of a cemetery before, during, or after a burial;

(3) any person who harasses or threatens any employee of a cemetery on cemetery grounds; or

(4) any unauthorized person who removes, destroys, or disturbs any cemetery devices or property placed for safety of visitors and cemetery employees; is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and of a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(e) Any person who shall hunt, shoot or discharge any gun, pistol or other missile, within the limits of any cemetery, or shall cause any shot or missile to be discharged into or over any portion thereof, or shall violate any of the rules made and established by the board of directors of such cemetery, for the protection or government thereof, is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(f) Any person who knowingly enters or knowingly remains upon the premises of a public or private cemetery without authorization during hours that the cemetery is posted as closed to the public is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) All fines when recovered, shall be paid over by the court or officer receiving the same to the cemetery authority and be applied, as far as possible in repairing the injury, if any, caused by such offense. Provided, nothing contained in this Act shall deprive such cemetery authority, or the owner of any interment, entombment, or inurement right or monument from maintaining an action for the recovery of damages caused by any injury caused by a violation of the provisions of this Act, or of the rules established by the board of directors of such cemetery authority. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the discharge of firearms loaded with blank ammunition as part of any funeral, any memorial observance or any other patriotic or military ceremony.

(Source: P.A. 94-44, eff. 6-17-05; 94-608, eff. 8-16-05; revised 8-29-05.)

Section 1210. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Sections 2-104 and 4-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/2-104) (from Ch. 68, par. 2-104)

Sec. 2-104. Exemptions.

(A) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit an employer, employment agency or labor organization from:

(1) Bona Fide Qualification. Hiring or selecting between persons for bona fide occupational qualifications or any reason except those civil-rights violations specifically identified in this Article.

(2) Veterans. Giving preferential treatment to veterans and their relatives as required by the laws or regulations of the United States or this State or a unit of local government.

(3) Unfavorable Discharge From Military Service. Using unfavorable discharge from military service as a valid employment criterion when authorized by federal law or regulation or when a position of employment involves the exercise of fiduciary responsibilities as defined by rules and regulations which the Department shall adopt.

(4) Ability Tests. Giving or acting upon the results of any professionally developed ability test provided that such test, its administration, or action upon the results, is not used as a subterfuge for or does not have the effect of unlawful discrimination.

(5) Merit and Retirement Systems.

(a) Applying different standards of compensation, or different terms, conditions or privileges of employment pursuant to a merit or retirement system provided that such system or its administration is not used as a subterfuge for or does not have the effect of unlawful discrimination.

(b) Effecting compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 65 years of age and who, for the 2-year period immediately preceding retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, if such employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan, or any combination of such plans of the employer of such employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at least $44,000. If any such retirement benefit is in a form other than a straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) or if the employees contribute to any such plan or make rollover contributions, the retirement benefit shall be adjusted in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Department, so that the benefit is the equivalent of a straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) under a plan to which employees do not contribute and under which no rollover contributions are made.

(c) Until January 1, 1994, effecting compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 70 years of age, and who is serving under a contract of unlimited tenure (or similar arrangement providing for unlimited tenure) at an institution of higher education as defined by Section 1201(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.

(6) Training and Apprenticeship programs. Establishing an educational requirement as a prerequisite to selection for a training or apprenticeship program, provided such requirement does not operate to discriminate on the basis of any prohibited classification except age.

(7) Police and Firefighter/Paramedic Retirement. Imposing a mandatory retirement age for firefighters/paramedics or law enforcement officers and discharging or retiring such individuals pursuant to the mandatory retirement age if such action is taken pursuant to a bona fide retirement plan provided that the law enforcement officer or firefighter/paramedic has attained:

(a) the age of retirement in effect under applicable State or local law on March 3, 1983; or

(b) if the applicable State or local law was enacted after the date of enactment of the federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1996 (P.L. 104-208), the age of retirement in effect on the date of such discharge under such law.

This paragraph (7) shall not apply with respect to any cause of action arising under the Illinois Human Rights Act as in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997.

(8) Police and Firefighter/Paramedic Appointment. Failing or refusing to hire any individual because of such individual's age if such action is taken with respect to the employment of an individual as a firefighter/paramedic or as a law enforcement officer and the individual has attained:

(a) the age of hiring or appointment in effect under applicable State or local law on March 3, 1983; or

(b) the age of hiring in effect on the date of such failure or refusal to hire under applicable State or local law enacted after the date of enactment of the federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1996 (P.L. 104-208).

As used in paragraph (7) or (8):

"Firefighter/paramedic" means an employee, the duties of whose position are primarily to perform work directly connected with the control and extinguishment of fires or the maintenance and use of firefighting apparatus and equipment, or to provide emergency medical services, including an employee engaged in this activity who is transferred to a supervisory or administrative position.

"Law enforcement officer" means an employee, the duties of whose position are primarily the investigation, apprehension, or detention of individuals suspected or convicted of criminal offenses, including an employee engaged in this activity who is transferred to a supervisory or administrative position.

(9) Citizenship Status. Making legitimate distinctions based on citizenship status if specifically authorized or required by State or federal law.

(B) With respect to any employee who is subject to a collective bargaining agreement:

(a) which is in effect on June 30, 1986,

(b) which terminates after January 1, 1987,

(c) any provision of which was entered into by a labor organization as defined by Section 6(d)(4) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 206(d)(4)), and

(d) which contains any provision that would be superseded by this amendatory Act of 1987 (Public Act 85-748),

such amendatory Act of 1987 shall not apply until the termination of such collective bargaining agreement or January 1, 1990, whichever occurs first.

(C)(1) For purposes of this Act, the term "handicap" shall not include any employee or applicant who is currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs, when an employer acts on the basis of such use.

(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply where an employee or applicant for employment:

(a) has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs, or has otherwise been rehabilitated successfully and is no longer engaging in such use;

(b) is participating in a supervised rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in such use; or

(c) is erroneously regarded as engaging in such use, but is not engaging in such use.

It shall not be a violation of this Act for an employer to adopt or administer reasonable policies or procedures, including but not limited to drug testing, designed to ensure that an individual described in subparagraph (a) or (b) is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs.

(3) An employer:

(a) may prohibit the illegal use of drugs and the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;

(b) may require that employees shall not be under the influence of alcohol or be engaging in the illegal use of drugs at the workplace;

(c) may require that employees behave in conformance with the requirements established under the federal Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 11 U.S.C. 701 et seq.) and the Drug Free Workplace Act;

(d) may hold an employee who engages in the illegal use of drugs or who is an alcoholic to the same qualification standards for employment or job performance and behavior that such employer holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to the drug use or alcoholism of such employee; and

(e) may, with respect to federal regulations regarding alcohol and the illegal use of drugs, require that:

(i) employees comply with the standards established in such regulations of the United States Department of Defense, if the employees of the employer are employed in an industry subject to such regulations, including complying with regulations (if any) that apply to employment in sensitive positions in such an industry, in the case of employees of the employer who are employed in such positions (as defined in the regulations of the Department of Defense);

(ii) employees comply with the standards established in such regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, if the employees of the employer are employed in an industry subject to such regulations, including complying with regulations (if any) that apply to employment in sensitive positions in such an industry, in the case of employees of the employer who are employed in such positions (as defined in the regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission); and

(iii) employees comply with the standards established in such regulations of the United States Department of Transportation, if the employees of the employer are employed in a transportation industry subject to such regulations, including complying with such regulations (if any) that apply to employment in sensitive positions in such an industry, in the case of employees of the employer who are employed in such positions (as defined in the regulations of the United States Department of Transportation).

(4) For purposes of this Act, a test to determine the illegal use of drugs shall not be considered a medical examination. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to encourage, prohibit, or authorize the conducting of drug testing for the illegal use of drugs by job applicants or employees or making employment decisions based on such test results.

(5) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to encourage, prohibit, restrict, or authorize the otherwise lawful exercise by an employer subject to the jurisdiction of the United States Department of Transportation of authority to:

(a) test employees of such employer in, and applicants for, positions involving safety-sensitive duties for the illegal use of drugs and for on-duty impairment by alcohol; and

(b) remove such persons who test positive for illegal use of drugs and on-duty impairment by alcohol pursuant to subparagraph (a) from safety-sensitive duties in implementing paragraph (3).

(Source: P.A. 90-481, eff. 8-17-97; revised 10-11-05.)

(775 ILCS 5/4-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 4-101)

Sec. 4-101. Definitions. ) The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article:

(A) Credit Card. "Credit card" has the meaning set forth in Section 2.03 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

(B) Financial Institution. "Financial institution" means any bank, credit union, insurance company, mortgage banking company or savings and loan association which operates or has a place of business in this State.

(C) Loan. "Loan" includes, but is not limited to, the providing of funds, for consideration, which are sought for: (1) the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a housing accommodation as that term is defined in paragraph (C) of Section 3-101; or (2) any commercial or industrial purposes.

(D) Varying Terms. "Varying the terms of a loan" includes, but is not limited to, the following practices:

(1) Requiring a greater down payment than is usual for the particular type of a loan involved.

(2) Requiring a shorter period of amortization than is usual for the particular type of loan involved.

(3) Charging a higher interest rate than is usual for the particular type of loan involved.

(4) An under appraisal of real estate or other item of property offered as security.

(Source: P.A. 84-880; revised 9-15-06.)

Section 1215. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Sections 1.25, 15.10, and 15.95 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/1.25) (from Ch. 32, par. 1.25)

Sec. 1.25. List of corporations; exchange of information.

(a) The Secretary of State shall publish each year a list of corporations filing an annual report for the preceding year in accordance with the provisions of this Act, which report shall state the name of the corporation and the respective names and addresses of the president, secretary, and registered agent thereof and the address of the registered office in this State of each such corporation. The Secretary of State shall furnish without charge a copy of such report to each recorder of this State, and to each member of the General Assembly and to each State agency or department requesting the same. The Secretary of State shall, upon receipt of a written request and a fee as determined by the Secretary, furnish such report to anyone else.

(b) (1) The Secretary of State shall publish daily a list of all newly formed corporations, business and not for profit, chartered by him on that day issued after receipt of the application. The daily list shall contain the same information as to each corporation as is provided for the corporation list published under subsection (a) of this Section. The daily list may be obtained at the Secretary's office by any person, newspaper, State department or agency, or local government for a reasonable charge to be determined by the Secretary. Inspection of the daily list may be made at the Secretary's office during normal business hours without charge by any person, newspaper, State department or agency, or local government.

(2) The Secretary shall compile the daily list mentioned in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section monthly, or more often at the Secretary's discretion. The compilation shall be immediately mailed free of charge to all local governments requesting in writing receipt of such publication, or shall be automatically mailed by the Secretary without charge to local governments as determined by the Secretary. The Secretary shall mail a copy of the compilations free of charge to all State departments or agencies making a written request. A request for a compilation of the daily list once made by a local government or State department or agency need not be renewed. However, the Secretary may request from time to time whether the local governments or State departments or agencies desire to continue receiving the compilation.

(3) The compilations of the daily list mentioned in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be mailed to newspapers, or any other person not included as a recipient in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section, upon receipt of a written application signed by the applicant and accompanied by the payment of a fee as determined by the Secretary.

(c) If a domestic or foreign corporation has filed with the Secretary of State an annual report for the preceding year or has been newly formed or is otherwise and in any manner registered with the Secretary of State, the Secretary of State shall exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid any information concerning that corporation that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

Notwithstanding any provisions in this Act to the contrary, the Secretary of State shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this subsection or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(805 ILCS 5/15.10) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.10)

Sec. 15.10. Fees for filing documents. The Secretary of State shall charge and collect for:

(a) Filing articles of incorporation, $150.

(b) Filing articles of amendment, $50, unless the amendment is a restatement of the articles of incorporation, in which case the fee shall be $150.

(c) Filing articles of merger or consolidation, $100, but if the merger or consolidation involves more than 2 corporations, $50 for each additional corporation.

(d) Filing articles of share exchange, $100.

(e) Filing articles of dissolution, $5.

(f) Filing application to reserve a corporate name, $25.

(g) Filing a notice of transfer of a reserved corporate name, $25.

(h) Filing statement of change of address of registered office or change of registered agent, or both, $25.

(i) Filing statement of the establishment of a series of shares, $25.

(j) Filing an application of a foreign corporation for authority to transact business in this State, $150.

(k) Filing an application of a foreign corporation for amended authority to transact business in this State, $25.

(l) Filing a copy of amendment to the articles of incorporation of a foreign corporation holding authority to transact business in this State, $50, unless the amendment is a restatement of the articles of incorporation, in which case the fee shall be $150.

(m) Filing a copy of articles of merger of a foreign corporation holding a certificate of authority to transact business in this State, $100, but if the merger involves more than 2 corporations, $50 for each additional corporation.

(n) Filing an application for withdrawal and final report or a copy of articles of dissolution of a foreign corporation, $25.

(o) Filing an annual report, interim annual report, or final transition annual report of a domestic or foreign corporation, $75.

(p) Filing an application for reinstatement of a domestic or a foreign corporation, $200.

(q) Filing an application for use of an assumed corporate name, $150 for each year or part thereof ending in 0 or 5, $120 for each year or part thereof ending in 1 or 6, $90 for each year or part thereof ending in 2 or 7, $60 for each year or part thereof ending in 3 or 8, $30 for each year or part thereof ending in 4 or 9, between the date of filing the application and the date of the renewal of the assumed corporate name; and a renewal fee for each assumed corporate name, $150.

(r) To change an assumed corporate name for the period remaining until the renewal date of the original assumed name, $25.

(s) Filing an application for cancellation of an assumed corporate name, $5.

(t) Filing an application to register the corporate name of a foreign corporation, $50; and an annual renewal fee for the registered name, $50.

(u) Filing an application for cancellation of a registered name of a foreign corporation, $25.

(v) Filing a statement of correction, $50.

(w) Filing a petition for refund or adjustment, $5.

(x) Filing a statement of election of an extended filing month, $25.

(y) Filing any other statement or report, $5.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 12-1-03; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-5-03.)

(805 ILCS 5/15.95) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.95)

Sec. 15.95. Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund.

(a) A special fund in the State treasury known as the Division of Corporations Special Operations Fund is renamed the Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Business Services of the Office of the Secretary of State, hereinafter "Department", to create and maintain the capability to perform expedited services in response to special requests made by the public for same day or 24 hour service. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used for, but not limited to, expenditures for personal services, retirement, social security, contractual services, equipment, electronic data processing, and telecommunications.

(b) The balance in the Fund at the end of any fiscal year shall not exceed $600,000 and any amount in excess thereof shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(c) All fees payable to the Secretary of State under this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. No other fees or taxes collected under this Act shall be deposited into the Fund.

(d) "Expedited services" means services rendered within the same day, or within 24 hours from the time, the request therefor is submitted by the filer, law firm, service company, or messenger physically in person or, at the Secretary of State's discretion, by electronic means, to the Department's Springfield Office and includes requests for certified copies, photocopies, and certificates of good standing or fact made to the Department's Springfield Office in person or by telephone, or requests for certificates of good standing or fact made in person or by telephone to the Department's Chicago Office.

(e) Fees for expedited services shall be as follows:

Restatement of articles, $200;

Merger, consolidation or exchange, $200;

Articles of incorporation, $100;

Articles of amendment, $100;

Revocation of dissolution, $100;

Reinstatement, $100;

Application for authority, $100;

Cumulative report of changes in issued shares or paid-in capital, $100;

Report following merger or consolidation, $100;

Certificate of good standing or fact, $20;

All other filings, copies of documents, annual reports filed on or after January 1, 1984, and copies of documents of dissolved or revoked corporations having a file number over 5199, $50.

(f) Expedited services shall not be available for a statement of correction, a petition for refund or adjustment, or a request involving annual reports filed before January 1, 1984 or involving dissolved corporations with a file number below 5200.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 9-1-03; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; revised 9-5-03.)

Section 1220. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 101.25 as follows:

(805 ILCS 105/101.25) (from Ch. 32, par. 101.25)

Sec. 101.25. Lists of corporations; exchange of information.

(a) The Secretary of State shall include in his or her daily publication lists of business corporations formed on that day as provided in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 1.25 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 all not-for-profit corporations formed on the day of publication of such lists.

(b) The Secretary of State shall include among information to be exchanged with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, as provided in subsection (c) of Section 1.25 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983, information regarding all not-for-profit corporations formed pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 1225. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Sections 1-25, 15-3, 50-5, and 50-10 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/1-25)

Sec. 1-25. Nature of business. A limited liability company may be formed for any lawful purpose or business except:

(1) (blank);

(2) insurance unless, for the purpose of carrying on business as a member of a group including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters, the Director of Insurance finds that the group meets the requirements of subsection (3) of Section 86 of the Illinois Insurance Code and the limited liability company, if insolvent, is subject to liquidation by the Director of Insurance under Article XIII of the Illinois Insurance Code;

(3) the practice of dentistry unless all the members and managers are licensed as dentists under the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(4) the practice of medicine unless all the managers, if any, are licensed to practice medicine under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and each member is either:

(A) licensed to practice medicine under the Medical Practice Act of 1987; or

(B) a registered medical corporation or corporations organized pursuant to the Medical Corporation Act; or

(C) a professional corporation organized pursuant to the Professional Service Corporation Act of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(D) a limited liability company that satisfies the requirements of subparagraph (A), (B), or (C).

(Source: P.A. 92-144, eff. 7-24-01; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-5-03.)

(805 ILCS 180/15-3)

Sec. 15-3. General standards of member and manager's conduct.

(a) The fiduciary duties a member owes to a member-managed company and its other members include the duty of loyalty and the duty of care referred to in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section.

(b) A member's duty of loyalty to a member-managed company and its other members includes the following:

(1) to account to the company and to hold as trustee for it any property, profit, or benefit derived by the member in the conduct or winding up of the company's business or derived from a use by the member of the company's property, including the appropriation of a company's opportunity;

(2) to act fairly when a member deals with the company in the conduct or winding up of the company's business as or on behalf of a party having an interest adverse to the company; and

(3) to refrain from competing with the company in the conduct of the company's business before the dissolution of the company.

(c) A member's duty of care to a member-managed company and its other members in the conduct of and a winding up of the company's business is limited to refraining from engaging in grossly negligent or reckless conduct, intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law.

(d) A member shall discharge his or her duties to a member-managed company and its other members under this Act or under the operating agreement and exercise any rights consistent with the obligation of good faith and fair dealing.

(e) A member of a member-managed company does not violate a duty or obligation under this Act or under the operating agreement merely because the member's conduct furthers the member's own interest.

(f) This Section applies to a person winding up the limited liability company's business as the personal or legal representative of the last surviving member as if the person were a member.

(g) In a manager-managed company:

(1) a member who is not also a manager owes no duties to the company or to the other members solely by reason of being a member;

(2) a manager is held to the same standards of conduct prescribed for members in subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this Section;

(3) a member who pursuant to the operating agreement exercises some or all of the authority of a manager in the management and conduct of the company's business is held to the standards of conduct in subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this Section to the extent that the member exercises the managerial authority vested in a manager by this Act; and

(4) a manager is relieved of liability imposed by law for violations of the standards prescribed by subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e) to the extent of the managerial authority delegated to the members by the operating agreement.

(Source: P.A. 90-424, eff. 1-1-98; revised 10-18-05.)

(805 ILCS 180/50-5)

Sec. 50-5. List of limited liability companies; exchange of information.

(a) The Secretary of State may publish a list or lists of limited liability companies and foreign limited liability companies, as often, in the format, and for the fees as the Secretary of State may in his or her discretion provide by rule. The Secretary of State may disseminate information concerning limited liability companies and foreign limited liability companies by computer network in the format and for the fees as may be determined by rule.

(b) Upon written request, any list published under subsection (a) shall be free to each member of the General Assembly, to each State agency or department, and to each recorder in this State. An appropriate fee established by rule to cover the cost of producing the list shall be charged to all others.

(c) If a domestic or foreign limited liability company has filed with the Secretary of State an annual report for the preceding year or has been newly formed or is otherwise and in any manner registered with the Secretary of State, the Secretary of State shall exchange with the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid any information concerning that limited liability company that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

Notwithstanding any provisions in this Act to the contrary, the Secretary of State shall not be liable to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this subsection or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 91-613, eff. 10-1-99; revised 12-15-05.)

(805 ILCS 180/50-10)

Sec. 50-10. Fees.

(a) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under its authority all of the following:

(1) Fees for filing documents.

(2) Miscellaneous charges.

(3) Fees for the sale of lists of filings and for copies of any documents.

(b) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect for all of the following:

(1) Filing articles of organization (domestic), application for admission (foreign), and restated articles of organization (domestic), $500. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the fee for filing articles of organization (domestic), application for admission (foreign), and restated articles of organization (domestic) in connection with a limited liability company with a series pursuant to Section 37-40 of this Act is $750.

(2) Filing amendments (domestic or foreign), $150.

(3) Filing articles of dissolution or application for withdrawal, $100.

(4) Filing an application to reserve a name, $300.

(5) Renewal fee for reserved name, $100.

(6) Filing a notice of a transfer of a reserved name, $100.

(7) Registration of a name, $300.

(8) Renewal of registration of a name, $100.

(9) Filing an application for use of an assumed name under Section 1-20 of this Act, $150 for each year or part thereof ending in 0 or 5, $120 for each year or part thereof ending in 1 or 6, $90 for each year or part thereof ending in 2 or 7, $60 for each year or part thereof ending in 3 or 8, $30 for each year or part thereof ending in 4 or 9, and a renewal for each assumed name, $150.

(10) Filing an application for change of an assumed name, $100.

(11) Filing an annual report of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, $250, if filed as required by this Act, plus a penalty if delinquent. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the fee for filing an annual report of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company is $250 plus $50 for each series for which a certificate of designation has been filed pursuant to Section 37-40 of this Act, plus a penalty if delinquent.

(12) Filing an application for reinstatement of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company $500.

(13) Filing Articles of Merger, $100 plus $50 for each party to the merger in excess of the first 2 parties.

(14) Filing an Agreement of Conversion or Statement of Conversion, $100.

(15) Filing a statement of change of address of registered office or change of registered agent, or both, or filing a statement of correction, $25.

(16) Filing a petition for refund, $15.

(17) Filing any other document, $100.

(18) Filing a certificate of designation of a limited liability company with a series pursuant to Section 37-40 of this Act, $50.

(c) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect all of the following:

(1) For furnishing a copy or certified copy of any document, instrument, or paper relating to a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, or for a certificate, $25.

(2) For the transfer of information by computer process media to any purchaser, fees established by rule.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 12-1-03; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; 94-605, eff. 1-1-06; 94-607, eff. 8-16-05; revised 8-29-05.)

Section 1230. The Uniform Commercial Code is amended by changing Section 8-106 as follows:

(810 ILCS 5/8-106) (from Ch. 26, par. 8-106)

Sec. 8-106. Control.

(a) A purchaser has "control" of a certificated security in bearer form if the certificated security is delivered to the purchaser.

(b) A purchaser has "control" of a certificated security in registered form if the certificated security is delivered to the purchaser, and:

(1) the certificate is indorsed to the purchaser or in blank by an effective indorsement; or

(2) the certificate is registered in the name of the purchaser, upon original issue or registration of transfer by the issuer.

(c) A purchaser has "control" of an uncertificated security if:

(1) the uncertificated security is delivered to the purchaser; or

(2) the issuer has agreed that it will comply with instructions originated by the purchaser without further consent by the registered owner. ; or

(3) another person has control of the security entitlement on behalf of the purchaser or, having previously acquired control of the security entitlement, acknowledges that it has control on behalf of the purchaser.

(d) A purchaser has "control" of a security entitlement if:

(1) the purchaser becomes the entitlement holder; or

(2) the securities intermediary has agreed that it will comply with entitlement orders originated by the purchaser without further consent by the entitlement holder; or .

(3) another person has control of the security entitlement on behalf of the purchaser or, having previously acquired control of the security entitlement, acknowledges that it has control on behalf of the purchaser.

(e) If an interest in a security entitlement is granted by the entitlement holder to the entitlement holder's own securities intermediary, the securities intermediary has control.

(f) A purchaser who has satisfied the requirements of subsection (c) or (d) has control even if the registered owner in the case of subsection (c) or the entitlement holder in the case of subsection (d) retains the right to make substitutions for the uncertificated security or security entitlement, to originate instructions or entitlement orders to the issuer or securities intermediary, or otherwise to deal with the uncertificated security or security entitlement.

(g) An issuer or a securities intermediary may not enter into an agreement of the kind described in subsection (c)(2) or (d)(2) without the consent of the registered owner or entitlement holder, but an issuer or a securities intermediary is not required to enter into such an agreement even though the registered owner or entitlement holder so directs. An issuer or securities intermediary that has entered into such an agreement is not required to confirm the existence of the agreement to another party unless requested to do so by the registered owner or entitlement holder.

(Source: P.A. 91-893, eff. 7-1-01; revised 2-27-02.)

Section 1235. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended by changing Section 2.29 as follows:

(815 ILCS 5/2.29)

Sec. 2.29. Covered security. "Covered security" means any security that is a covered security under Section 18(b) of the Federal 1933 Act or rules or regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 90-70, eff. 7-8-97; revised 9-20-06.)

Section 1240. The Payday Loan Reform Act is amended by renumbering Section 99 as follows:

(815 ILCS 122/99-99) (was 815 ILCS 122/99)

Sec. 99-99 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect 180 days after becoming law.

(Source: P.A. 94-13, eff. 12-6-05; revised 9-22-05.)

Section 1245. The Credit Card Liability Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 145/1) (from Ch. 17, par. 6101)

Sec. 1. (a) No person in whose name a credit card is issued without his having requested or applied for the card or for the extension of the credit or establishment of a charge account which that card evidences is liable to the issuer of the card for any purchases made or other amounts owing by a use of that card from which he or a member of his family or household derive no benefit unless he has indicated his acceptance of the card by signing or using the card or by permitting or authorizing use of the card by another. A mere failure to destroy or return an unsolicited card is not such an indication. As used in this Act, "credit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.03 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act, except that it does not include a card issued by any telephone company that is subject to supervision or regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission or other public authority.

(b) When an action is brought by an issuer against the person named on the card, the burden of proving the request, application, authorization, permission, use or benefit as set forth in Section 1 hereof shall be upon plaintiff if put in issue by defendant. In the event of judgment for defendant, the court shall allow defendant a reasonable attorney's fee, to be taxed as costs.

(Source: P.A. 78-777; revised 9-15-06.)

Section 1250. The Interest Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 4.1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 205/4) (from Ch. 17, par. 6404)

Sec. 4. General interest rate.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this Section 4.05, in all written contracts it shall be lawful for the parties to stipulate or agree that 9% per annum, or any less sum of interest, shall be taken and paid upon every $100 of money loaned or in any manner due and owing from any person to any other person or corporation in this state, and after that rate for a greater or less sum, or for a longer or shorter time, except as herein provided.

The maximum rate of interest that may lawfully be contracted for is determined by the law applicable thereto at the time the contract is made. Any provision in any contract, whether made before or after July 1, 1969, which provides for or purports to authorize, contingent upon a change in the Illinois law after the contract is made, any rate of interest greater than the maximum lawful rate at the time the contract is made, is void.

It is lawful for a state bank or a branch of an out-of-state bank, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Banking Act, to receive or to contract to receive and collect interest and charges at any rate or rates agreed upon by the bank or branch and the borrower. It is lawful for a savings bank chartered under the Savings Bank Act or a savings association chartered under the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 to receive or contract to receive and collect interest and charges at any rate agreed upon by the savings bank or savings association and the borrower.

It is lawful to receive or to contract to receive and collect interest and charges as authorized by this Act and as authorized by the Consumer Installment Loan Act and by the "Consumer Finance Act", approved July 10, 1935, as now or hereafter amended, or by the Payday Loan Reform Act. It is lawful to charge, contract for, and receive any rate or amount of interest or compensation with respect to the following transactions:

(a) Any loan made to a corporation;

(b) Advances of money, repayable on demand, to an amount not less than $5,000, which are made upon warehouse receipts, bills of lading, certificates of stock, certificates of deposit, bills of exchange, bonds or other negotiable instruments pledged as collateral security for such repayment, if evidenced by a writing;

(c) Any credit transaction between a merchandise wholesaler and retailer; any business loan to a business association or copartnership or to a person owning and operating a business as sole proprietor or to any persons owning and operating a business as joint venturers, joint tenants or tenants in common, or to any limited partnership, or to any trustee owning and operating a business or whose beneficiaries own and operate a business, except that any loan which is secured (1) by an assignment of an individual obligor's salary, wages, commissions or other compensation for services, or (2) by his household furniture or other goods used for his personal, family or household purposes shall be deemed not to be a loan within the meaning of this subsection; and provided further that a loan which otherwise qualifies as a business loan within the meaning of this subsection shall not be deemed as not so qualifying because of the inclusion, with other security consisting of business assets of any such obligor, of real estate occupied by an individual obligor solely as his residence. The term "business" shall be deemed to mean a commercial, agricultural or industrial enterprise which is carried on for the purpose of investment or profit, but shall not be deemed to mean the ownership or maintenance of real estate occupied by an individual obligor solely as his residence;

(d) Any loan made in accordance with the provisions of Subchapter I of Chapter 13 of Title 12 of the United States Code, which is designated as "Housing Renovation and Modernization";

(e) Any mortgage loan insured or upon which a commitment to insure has been issued under the provisions of the National Housing Act, Chapter 13 of Title 12 of the United States Code;

(f) Any mortgage loan guaranteed or upon which a commitment to guaranty has been issued under the provisions of the Veterans' Benefits Act, Subchapter II of Chapter 37 of Title 38 of the United States Code;

(g) Interest charged by a broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, or registered under the Illinois Securities Law of 1953, approved July 13, 1953, as now or hereafter amended, on a debit balance in an account for a customer if such debit balance is payable at will without penalty and is secured by securities as defined in Uniform Commercial Code-Investment Securities;

(h) Any loan made by a participating bank as part of any loan guarantee program which provides for loans and for the refinancing of such loans to medical students, interns and residents and which are guaranteed by the American Medical Association Education and Research Foundation;

(i) Any loan made, guaranteed, or insured in accordance with the provisions of the Housing Act of 1949, Subchapter III of Chapter 8A of Title 42 of the United States Code and the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act, Subchapters I, II, and III of Chapter 50 of Title 7 of the United States Code;

(j) Any loan by an employee pension benefit plan, as defined in Section 3 (2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C.A. Sec. 1002), to an individual participating in such plan, provided that such loan satisfies the prohibited transaction exemption requirements of Section 408 (b) (1) (29 U.S.C.A. Sec. 1108 (b) (1)) or Section 2003 (a) (26 U.S.C.A. Sec. 4975 (d) (1)) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974;

(k) Written contracts, agreements or bonds for deed providing for installment purchase of real estate;

(1) Loans secured by a mortgage on real estate;

(m) Loans made by a sole proprietorship, partnership, or corporation to an employee or to a person who has been offered employment by such sole proprietorship, partnership, or corporation made for the sole purpose of transferring an employee or person who has been offered employment to another office maintained and operated by the same sole proprietorship, partnership, or corporation;

(n) Loans to or for the benefit of students made by an institution of higher education.

(2) Except for loans described in subparagraph (a), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (i) of subsection (1) of this Section, and except to the extent permitted by the applicable statute for loans made pursuant to Section 4a or pursuant to the Consumer Installment Loan Act:

(a) Whenever the rate of interest exceeds 8% per annum on any written contract, agreement or bond for deed providing for the installment purchase of residential real estate, or on any loan secured by a mortgage on residential real estate, it shall be unlawful to provide for a prepayment penalty or other charge for prepayment.

(b) No agreement, note or other instrument evidencing a loan secured by a mortgage on residential real estate, or written contract, agreement or bond for deed providing for the installment purchase of residential real estate, may provide for any change in the contract rate of interest during the term thereof. However, if the Congress of the United States or any federal agency authorizes any class of lender to enter, within limitations, into mortgage contracts or written contracts, agreements or bonds for deed in which the rate of interest may be changed during the term of the contract, any person, firm, corporation or other entity not otherwise prohibited from entering into mortgage contracts or written contracts, agreements or bonds for deed in Illinois may enter into mortgage contracts or written contracts, agreements or bonds for deed in which the rate of interest may be changed during the term of the contract, within the same limitations.

(3) In any contract or loan which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or conveyance in the nature of a mortgage, on residential real estate, the interest which is computed, calculated, charged, or collected pursuant to such contract or loan, or pursuant to any regulation or rule promulgated pursuant to this Act, may not be computed, calculated, charged or collected for any period of time occurring after the date on which the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties, is paid in full.

For purposes of this Section, a prepayment shall mean the payment of the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties if incurred or charged, on any date before the date specified in the contract or loan agreement on which the total indebtedness shall be paid in full, or before the date on which all payments, if timely made, shall have been made. In the event of a prepayment of the indebtedness which is made on a date after the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged, or collected but before the next date on which interest on the indebtedness was to be calculated, computed, charged, or collected, the lender may calculate, charge and collect interest on the indebtedness for the period which elapsed between the date on which the prepayment is made and the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged or collected at a rate equal to 1/360 of the annual rate for each day which so elapsed, which rate shall be applied to the indebtedness outstanding as of the date of prepayment. The lender shall refund to the borrower any interest charged or collected which exceeds that which the lender may charge or collect pursuant to the preceding sentence. The provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 shall apply only to contracts or loans entered into on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act, but shall not apply to contracts or loans entered into on or after that date that are subject to Section 4a of this Act, the Consumer Installment Loan Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, or the Retail Installment Sales Act, or that provide for the refund of precomputed interest on prepayment in the manner provided by such Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-13, eff. 12-6-05; 94-635, eff. 8-22-05; revised 8-29-05.)

(815 ILCS 205/4.1) (from Ch. 17, par. 6405)

Sec. 4.1. The term "revolving credit" means an arrangement, including by means of a credit card as defined in Section 2.03 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act between a lender and debtor pursuant to which it is contemplated or provided that the lender may from time to time make loans or advances to or for the account of the debtor through the means of drafts, items, orders for the payment of money, evidences of debt or similar written instruments, whether or not negotiable, signed by the debtor or by any person authorized or permitted so to do on behalf of the debtor, which loans or advances are charged to an account in respect of which account the lender is to render bills or statements to the debtor at regular intervals (hereinafter sometimes referred to as the "billing cycle") the amount of which bills or statements is payable by and due from the debtor on a specified date stated in such bill or statement or at the debtor's option, may be payable by the debtor in installments. A revolving credit arrangement which grants the debtor a line of credit in excess of $5,000 may include provisions granting the lender a security interest in real property or in a beneficial interest in a land trust to secure amounts of credit extended by the lender. Credit extended or available under a revolving credit plan operated in accordance with the Illinois Financial Services Development Act shall be deemed to be "revolving credit" as defined in this Section 4.1 but shall not be subject to Sections 4.1a, 4.2 or 4.3 hereof.

Whenever a lender is granted a security interest in real property or in a beneficial interest in a land trust, the lender shall disclose the existence of such interest to the borrower in compliance with the Federal Truth in Lending Act, amendments thereto, and any regulations issued or which may be issued thereunder, and shall agree to pay all expenses, including recording fees and otherwise, to release any such security interest of record whenever it no longer secures any credit under a revolving credit arrangement. A lender shall not be granted a security interest in any real property or in any beneficial interest in a land trust under a revolving credit arrangement, or if any such security interest exists, such interest shall be released, if a borrower renders payment of the total outstanding balance due under the revolving credit arrangement and requests in writing to reduce the line of credit below that amount for which a security interest in real property or in a beneficial interest in a land trust may be required by a lender. Any request by a borrower to release a security interest under a revolving credit arrangement shall be granted by the lender provided the borrower renders payment of the total outstanding balance as required by this Section before the security interest of record may be released.

(Source: P.A. 85-1432; revised 9-15-06.)

Section 1255. The Automotive Collision Repair Act is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(815 ILCS 308/50)

Sec. 50. Consumer disclosures; required signs. Every motor vehicle repair facility shall post in a prominent place on the business premises one or more signs, readily visible to customers, in the following form:

YOUR CUSTOMER RIGHTS. UNLESS THE FACILITY PROVIDES A FIRM PRICE QUOTATION, YOU ARE ENTITLED BY LAW TO:

1. A WRITTEN ESTIMATE FOR REPAIRS THAT WILL COST MORE THAN $100 UNLESS ABSENT FACE-TO-FACE CONTACT (SEE ITEM 3 BELOW).

2. AUTHORIZE ORALLY OR IN WRITING ANY REPAIRS THAT EXCEED THE ESTIMATED TOTAL PRE-SALES-TAX COST BY MORE THAN 10% OR THAT EXCEED THE LIMITED PRICE ESTIMATE.

3. AUTHORIZE ANY REPAIRS ORALLY OR IN WRITING IF YOUR MOTOR VEHICLE IS LEFT WITH THE COLLISION REPAIR FACILITY WITHOUT FACE-TO-FACE CONTACT BETWEEN YOU AND THE COLLISION REPAIR FACILITY PERSONNEL.

IF YOU HAVE AUTHORIZED A REPAIR IN ACCORDANCE ACCORANCE WITH THE ABOVE INFORMATION, YOU ARE REQUIRED TO PAY FOR THE COSTS OF THE REPAIR PRIOR TO TAKING THE VEHICLE FROM THE PREMISES.

The first line of each sign shall be in letters not less than 1.5 inches in height, and the remaining lines shall be in letters not less than 0.5 inch in height.

(Source: P.A. 93-565, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-11-05.)

Section 1260. The Telephone Solicitations Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 413/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Caller ID" means the display to the recipient of the call of the caller's telephone number or identity.

"Emergency telephone number" means any telephone number which accesses or calls a fire department, law enforcement agency, ambulance, hospital, medical center, poison control center, rape crisis center, suicide prevention center, rescue service, the 911 emergency access number provided by law enforcement agencies and police departments.

"Subscriber" means:

(1) A person who has subscribed to telephone service from a telephone company; or

(2) Other persons living or residing with the subscribing person.

"Telephone solicitation" means any communication through the use of a telephone by live operators for soliciting the sale of goods or services.

(Source: P.A. 90-541, eff. 6-1-98; 91-182, eff. 1-1-00; revised 9-20-06.)

Section 1265. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 2LL and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 2MM, 2QQ, 2VV, and 2XX as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/1) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 261)

Sec. 1. (a) The term "advertisement" includes the attempt by publication, dissemination, solicitation or circulation to induce directly or indirectly any person to enter into any obligation or acquire any title or interest in any merchandise and includes every work device to disguise any form of business solicitation by using such terms as "renewal", "invoice", "bill", "statement", or "reminder", to create an impression of existing obligation when there is none, or other language to mislead any person in relation to any sought after commercial transaction. ;

(b) The term "merchandise" includes any objects, wares, goods, commodities, intangibles, real estate situated outside the State of Illinois, or services. ;

(c) The term "person" includes any natural person or his legal representative, partnership, corporation (domestic and foreign), company, trust, business entity or association, and any agent, employee, salesman, partner, officer, director, member, stockholder, associate, trustee or cestui que trust thereof. ;

(d) The term "sale" includes any sale, offer for sale, or attempt to sell any merchandise for cash or on credit.

(e) The term "consumer" means any person who purchases or contracts for the purchase of merchandise not for resale in the ordinary course of his trade or business but for his use or that of a member of his household.

(f) The terms "trade" and "commerce" mean the advertising, offering for sale, sale, or distribution of any services and any property, tangible or intangible, real, personal or mixed, and any other article, commodity, or thing of value wherever situated, and shall include any trade or commerce directly or indirectly affecting the people of this State.

(g) The term "pyramid sales scheme" includes any plan or operation whereby a person in exchange for money or other thing of value acquires the opportunity to receive a benefit or thing of value, which is primarily based upon the inducement of additional persons, by himself or others, regardless of number, to participate in the same plan or operation and is not primarily contingent on the volume or quantity of goods, services, or other property sold or distributed or to be sold or distributed to persons for purposes of resale to consumers. For purposes of this subsection, "money or other thing of value" shall not include payments made for sales demonstration equipment and materials furnished on a nonprofit basis for use in making sales and not for resale.

(Source: P.A. 83-808; revised 10-18-05.)

(815 ILCS 505/2LL)

Sec. 2LL. Halal food; disclosure.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Dealer" means any establishment that advertises, represents, or holds itself out as growing animals in a halal way or selling, preparing, or maintaining food as halal, including, but not limited to, manufacturers, animals' farms, slaughterhouses, wholesalers, stores, restaurants, hotels, catering facilities, butcher shops, summer camps, bakeries, delicatessens, supermarkets, grocery stores, licensed health care facilities, freezer dealers, and food plan companies. These establishments may also sell, prepare or maintain food not represented as halal.

"Director" means the Director of Agriculture.

"Food" means an animal grown to become food for human consumption, a food, a food product, a food ingredient, a dietary supplement, or a beverage.

"Halal" means prepared under and maintained in strict compliance with the laws and customs of the Islamic religion including but not limited to those laws and customs of zabiha/zabeeha zabiha/zebeeha (slaughtered according to appropriate Islamic codes), and as expressed by reliable recognized Islamic entities and scholars.

(b) Any dealer who grows animals represented to be grown in a halal way or who prepares, distributes, sells, or exposes for sale any food represented to be halal shall disclose the basis upon which those representations are made by posting the information required by the Director, in accordance with rules adopted by the Director, on a sign of a type and size specified by the Director, in a conspicuous place upon the premises at which the food is sold or exposed for sale, as required by the Director.

(c) Any person subject to the requirements of subsection (b) does not commit an unlawful practice if the person shows by a preponderance of the evidence that the person relied in good faith upon the representations of an animals' farm, slaughterhouse, manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor of any food represented to be halal.

(d) Possession by a dealer of any animal grown to become food for consumption or any food not in conformance with the disclosure required by subsection (b) with respect to that food is presumptive evidence that the person is in possession of that food with the intent to sell.

(e) Any dealer who grows animals represented to be grown in a halal way or who prepares, distributes, sells, or exposes for sale any food represented to be halal shall comply with all requirements of the Director, including, but not limited to, recordkeeping, labeling and filing, in accordance with rules adopted by the Director.

(f) Neither an animal represented to be grown in a halal way to become food for human consumption, nor a food commodity represented as halal, may be offered for sale by a dealer until the dealer has registered, with the Director, documenting information of the certifying Islamic entity specialized in halal food or the supervising Muslim Inspector of Halal Food.

(g) The Director shall adopt rules to carry out this Section in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(h) It is an unlawful practice under this Act to violate this Section or the rules adopted by the Director to carry out this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-394, eff. 1-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 10-18-05.)

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze on credit reports.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such requests. This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.

(d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business days after receiving a written request from the consumer:

(1) a written request described in subsection (c);

(2) proper identification; and

(3) payment of a fee, if applicable.

(e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the placement of the security freeze and a unique personal identification number or password or similar device, other than the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her credit report for a specific party or period of time.

(f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be temporarily lifted, and provide the following:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(3) The proper information regarding the third party or time period for which the report shall be available to users of the credit report; and

(4) A fee, if applicable.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact method to receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f) in an expedited manner.

A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.

(h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no later than 3 business days after receiving the request.

(i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

(1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f) or subsection (l) of this Section; or

(2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.

If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

(j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any other use, and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third party may treat the application as incomplete.

(k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the process for allowing access to information from the consumer's credit report for a specific party or period of time while the freeze is in place.

(l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer requests, using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request for removal from the consumer, who provides:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency; and

(3) A fee, if applicable.

(m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person making a request to place or remove a security freeze.

(n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by any of the following:

(1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to assignment an account or contract, including a demand deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account" includes activities related to account maintenance, monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes of facilitating the extension of credit or other permissible use.

(3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency, trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title IV-D of the Social Security Act.

(5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to investigate fraud.

(6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities.

(7) The use of credit information for the purposes of prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act.

(8) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription or similar service to which the consumer has subscribed.

(9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score upon the consumer's request.

(10) Any person using the information in connection with the underwriting of insurance.

(n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze, regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to (i) a consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a freeze, or (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report, investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her personal information by another person.

(o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency shall not change any of the following official information in a credit report without sending a written confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii) date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address. Written confirmation is not required for technical modifications of a consumer's official information, including name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new address and to the former address.

(p) The following entities are not required to place a security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:

(1) A check services or fraud prevention services company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payment.

(2) A deposit account information service company, which issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.

(3) A consumer reporting agency that:

(A) acts only to resell credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of one or more consumer reporting agencies; and

(B) does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new credit reports are produced.

(q) For purposes of this Section:

"Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report", as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).

"Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score relating to an extension of credit, without the express authorization of the consumer.

"Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

"Proper identification" means information generally deemed sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information described above, may a consumer reporting agency require additional information concerning the consumer's employment and personal or family history in order to verify his or her identity.

(r) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-195, eff. 1-1-04; 94-74, eff. 1-1-06; 94-799, eff. 1-1-07.)

(815 ILCS 505/2NN)

Sec. 2NN 2MM. Receipts; credit card and debit card account numbers.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Cardholder" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Credit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.03 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Debit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.15 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Issuer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.08 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Person" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act.

"Provider" means a person who furnishes money, goods, services, or anything else of value upon presentation, whether physically, in writing, verbally, electronically, or otherwise, of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of that person.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no provider may print or otherwise produce or reproduce or permit the printing or other production or reproduction of the following: (i) any part of the credit card or debit card account number, other than the last 4 digits or other characters, (ii) the credit card or debit card expiration date on any receipt provided or made available to the cardholder.

(c) This Section does not apply to a credit card or debit card transaction in which the sole means available to the provider of recording the credit card or debit card account number is by handwriting or by imprint of the card.

(d) This Section does not apply to receipts issued for transactions on the electronic benefits transfer card system in accordance with 7 CFR 274.12(g)(3).

(e) A violation of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(f) This Section is operative on January 1, 2005.

(Source: P.A. 93-231, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-26-03.)

(815 ILCS 505/2PP)

Sec. 2PP 2MM. Mail; disclosure. It is an unlawful practice under this Act to knowingly mail or send or cause to be mailed or sent a postcard or letter to a recipient in this State if:

(1) the postcard or letter contains a request that the recipient call a telephone number; and

(2) the postcard or letter is mailed or sent to induce the recipient to call the telephone number so that goods, services, or other merchandise, as defined in Section 1, may be offered for sale to the recipient; and

(3) the postcard or letter does not disclose that goods, services, or other merchandise, as defined in Section 1, may be offered for sale if the recipient calls the telephone number.

(Source: P.A. 93-459, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-26-03.)

(815 ILCS 505/2QQ)

Sec. 2QQ. Insurance cards; social security number.

(a) As used in this Section, "insurance card" means a card that a person or entity provides to an individual so that the individual may present the card to establish the eligibility of the individual or his or her dependents to receive health, dental, optical, or accident insurance benefits, prescription drug benefits, or benefits under a managed care plan or a plan provided by a health maintenance organization, a health services plan corporation, or a similar entity.

(b) A person or entity may not print an individual's social security number on an insurance card. A person or entity that provides an insurance card must print on the card an identification number unique to the holder of the card in the format prescribed by Section 15 of the Uniform Prescription Drug Information Card Act.

(c) An insurance card issued to an individual before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly that does not comply with subsection (b) must be replaced by January 1, 2006 with an insurance card that complies with subsection (b) if the individual's eligibility for benefits continues after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

(d) A violation of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-728, eff. 1-1-05.)

(815 ILCS 505/2RR)

Sec. 2RR 2QQ. Use of Social Security numbers.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a person may not do any of the following:

(1) Publicly post or publicly display in any manner an individual's social security number. As used in this Section, "publicly post" or "publicly display" means to intentionally communicate or otherwise make available to the general public.

(2) Print an individual's social security number on any card required for the individual to access products or services provided by the person or entity; however, a person or entity that provides an insurance card must print on the card an identification number unique to the holder of the card in the format prescribed by Section 15 of the Uniform Prescription Drug Information Card Act.

(3) Require an individual to transmit his or her social security number over the Internet, unless the connection is secure or the social security number is encrypted.

(4) Require an individual to use his or her social security number to access an Internet web site, unless a password or unique personal identification number or other authentication device is also required to access the Internet Web site.

(5) Print an individual's social security number on any materials that are mailed to the individual, unless State or federal law requires the social security number to be on the document to be mailed. Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, social security numbers may be included in applications and forms sent by mail, including documents sent as part of an application or enrollment process or to establish, amend, or terminate an account, contract, or policy or to confirm the accuracy of the social security number. A social security number that may permissibly be mailed under this Section may not be printed, in whole or in part, on a postcard or other mailer that does not require an envelope or be visible on an envelope or visible without the envelope having been opened.

(b) A person that used, before July 1, 2005, an individual's social security number in a manner inconsistent with subsection (a) may continue using that individual's social security number in the same manner on or after July 1, 2005 if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The use of the social security number is continuous. If the use is stopped for any reason, subsection (a) shall apply.

(2) The individual is provided an annual disclosure that informs the individual that he or she has the right to stop the use of his or her social security number in a manner prohibited by subsection (a).

A written request by an individual to stop the use of his or her social security number in a manner prohibited by subsection (a) shall be implemented within 30 days of the receipt of the request. There shall be no fee or charge for implementing the request. A person shall not deny services to an individual because the individual makes such a written request.

(c) This Section does not apply to the collection, use, or release of a social security number as required by State or federal law or the use of a social security number for internal verification or administrative purposes. This Section does not apply to the collection, use, or release of a social security number by the State, a subdivision of the State, or an individual in the employ of the State or a subdivision of the State in connection with his or her official duties.

(d) This Section does not apply to documents that are recorded or required to be open to the public under State or federal law, applicable case law, Supreme Court Rule, or the Constitution of the State of Illinois.

(e) If a federal law takes effect requiring the United States Department of Health and Human Services to establish a national unique patient health identifier program, any person who complies with the federal law shall be deemed to be in compliance with this Section.

(f) A person may not encode or embed a social security number in or on a card or document, including, but not limited to, using a bar code, chip, magnetic strip, or other technology, in place of removing the social security number as required by this Section.

(g) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-739, eff. 7-1-06; revised 9-14-06.)

(815 ILCS 505/2SS)

Sec. 2SS 2QQ. Gift certificates.

(a) "Gift certificate" means a record evidencing a promise, made for consideration, by the seller or issuer of the record that goods or services will be provided to the holder of the record for the value shown in the record and includes, but is not limited to, a record that contains a microprocessor chip, magnetic stripe or other means for the storage of information that is prefunded and for which the value is decremented upon each use, a gift card, an electronic gift card, stored-value card or certificate, a store card or a similar record or card. For purposes of this Act, the term "gift certificate" does not include any of the following:

(i) prepaid telecommunications and technology cards including, but not limited to, prepaid telephone calling cards, prepaid technical support cards, and prepaid Internet disks that are distributed to or purchased by a consumer;

(ii) prepaid telecommunications and technology cards including, but not limited to, prepaid telephone calling cards, prepaid technical support cards, and prepaid Internet disks that are provided to a consumer pursuant to any award, loyalty, or promotion program without any money or other thing of value being given in exchange for the card; or

(iii) any gift certificate usable with multiple sellers of goods or services.

(b) Any gift certificate subject to a fee must contain a statement clearly and conspicuously printed on the gift certificate stating whether there is a fee, the amount of the fee, how often the fee will occur, that the fee is triggered by inactivity of the gift certificate, and at what point the fee will be charged. The statement may appear on the front or back of the gift certificate in a location where it is visible to any purchaser prior to the purchase.

(c) Any gift certificate subject to an expiration date must contain a statement clearly and conspicuously printed on the gift certificate stating the expiration date. The statement may appear on the front or back of the gift certificate in a location where it is visible to any purchaser prior to the purchase.

(d) Subsection (c) does not apply to any gift certificate that contains a toll free phone number and a statement clearly and conspicuously printed on the gift certificate stating that holders can call the toll free number to find out the balance on the gift certificate, if applicable, and the expiration date. The toll free number and statement may appear on the front or back of the gift certificate in a location where it is visible to any purchaser prior to the purchase.

(e) This Section does not apply to any of the following gift certificates:

(i) Gift certificates that are distributed by the issuer to a consumer pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional program without any money or thing of value being given in exchange for the gift certificate by the consumer.

(ii) Gift certificates that are sold below face value at a volume discount to employers or to nonprofit and charitable organizations for fundraising purposes if the expiration date on those gift certificates is not more than 30 days after the date of sale.

(iii) Gift certificates that are issued for a food product.

(Source: P.A. 93-945, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-10-04.)

(815 ILCS 505/2TT)

Sec. 2TT 2QQ. Prepaid calling service.

(a) For purposes of this Section 2QQ, the terms "Prepaid Calling Service", "Prepaid Calling Service Provider", "Prepaid Calling Service Retailer", and "Prepaid Calling Service Reseller" shall have the same definitions as those in Sections 13-230, 13-231, 13-232, and 13-233, respectively, of the Public Utilities Act.

For the purposes of this Section, "international preferred destination" means a prepaid calling service that advertises a specific international destination either on the card, the packaging material accompanying the card, or through an offering of sale of the service.

(b) On and after July 1, 2005, it is an unlawful practice under this Act for any prepaid calling service provider or prepaid calling service reseller to sell or offer to sell prepaid calling service to any prepaid calling service retailer unless the prepaid calling service provider has applied for and received a Certificate of Prepaid Calling Service Provider Authority from the Illinois Commerce Commission pursuant to the Public Utilities Act and the prepaid calling service provider or prepaid calling service reseller shows proof of the prepaid calling service provider's Certificate of Prepaid Calling Service Provider Authority to the prepaid calling service retailer.

(c) On and after July 1, 2005, it is an unlawful practice under this Act for any prepaid calling service retailer to sell or offer to sell prepaid calling service to any consumer unless the prepaid calling service retailer retains proof of certification of the prepaid calling service provider by the Illinois Commerce Commission pursuant to the Public Utilities Act. The prepaid calling service retailer must retain proof of certification for one year or the duration of the contract with the reseller, whichever is longer. A prepaid calling service retailer with multiple locations selling prepaid calling cards under contract with a prepaid calling service provider may keep the certification at a central location provided, however, that the prepaid calling service retailer make a copy of the certification available upon reasonable request within 48 hours.

(d) On and after July 1, 2005, no prepaid calling service provider or prepaid calling service reseller shall sell or offer to sell prepaid calling service, as those terms are defined in Article XIII of the Public Utilities Act, to any Illinois consumer, either directly or through a prepaid calling service retailer, unless the following disclosures are made clearly and conspicuously:

(1) At a minimum, the following terms and conditions shall be disclosed clearly and conspicuously on the prepaid calling card, if applicable:

(A) the full name of the Prepaid Calling Service Provider as certificated by the Illinois Commerce Commission;

(B) the toll-free customer service number;

(C) an access number that is toll-free or a number local to the prepaid calling retailer; and

(D) the refund policy or a statement that the refund policy is located on the packaging materials.

(2) At a minimum, all the material terms and conditions pertaining to the specific prepaid calling card shall be disclosed clearly and conspicuously on the packaging materials accompanying the prepaid calling card including, but not limited to, the following, if applicable:

(A) the value of the card in minutes or the domestic rate per minute of the card;

(B) all surcharges and fees applicable to the use of the domestic prepaid calling service;

(C) all applicable rates for international preferred destinations;

(D) all applicable surcharges and fees for international preferred destinations;

(E) a disclosure statement indicating that all rates, surcharges, and fees applicable to international calls are available through the toll-free customer service number and a statement disclosing if international rates vary from domestic rates; and

(F) the expiration policy.

(3) At a minimum, the following information shall be disclosed clearly and conspicuously and accurately through the toll-free customer service telephone number through which the customer is able to speak with a live customer service representative:

(A) the Illinois Commerce Commission certificate number of the Prepaid Calling Service Provider;

(B) all applicable rates, terms, surcharges, and fees for domestic and international calls;

(C) all information necessary to determine the cost of a given call;

(D) the balance of use in the consumer's account; and

(E) the applicable expiration date or period.

The disclosures required under this subsection (d) do not apply to the recharging of dollars or minutes to a previously purchased card allowing prepaid calling service.

(Source: P.A. 93-1002, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-10-04.)

(815 ILCS 505/2UU)

Sec. 2UU 2QQ. Internet service; cancellation.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Internet service provider" means a person who provides a service that combines computer processing, information storage, protocol conversion, and routing with transmission to enable a consumer to access Internet content and services.

(b) This Section applies only to agreements under which an Internet service provider provides service to consumers, for home and personal use, for a one-year term that is automatically renewed for another one-year term unless a consumer cancels the service.

(c) An Internet service provider must give a consumer who is an Illinois resident the following: (1) a secure method at the Internet service provider's web site that the consumer may use to cancel the service, which method shall not require the consumer to make a telephone call or send U.S. Postal Service mail to effectuate the cancellation; and (2) instructions that the consumer may follow to cancel the service at the Internet service provider's web site.

(d) A person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-1016, eff. 1-1-05; revised 11-10-04.)

(815 ILCS 505/2VV)

Sec. 2VV. Credit and public utility service; identity theft. It is an unlawful practice for a person to deny credit or public utility service to or reduce the credit limit of a consumer solely because the consumer has been a victim of identity theft as defined in Section 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if the consumer:

(1) has provided a copy of an identity theft report as defined under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act and implementing regulations evidencing the consumer's claim of identity theft;

(2) has provided a properly completed copy of a standardized affidavit of identity theft developed and made available by the Federal Trade Commission pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681g or an affidavit of fact that is acceptable to the person for that purpose;

(3) has obtained placement of an extended fraud alert in his or her file maintained by a nationwide consumer reporting agency, in accordance with the requirements of the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act; and

(4) is able to establish his or her identity and address to the satisfaction of the person providing credit or utility services.

(Source: P.A. 94-37, eff. 6-16-05.)

(815 ILCS 505/2WW)

Sec. 2WW 2VV. Wireless telephone service provider; third party billings. A wireless telephone service provider shall provide a contact telephone number and brief description of the service for all third-party billings on the consumer's bill, to the extent allowed by federal law, or through a customer service representative. For purposes of this Section, "third-party billings" means any billing done by a wireless telephone service provider on behalf of a third party where the wireless telephone service provider is merely the billing agent for the third party with no ability to provide refunds, credits, or otherwise adjust the billings.

(Source: P.A. 94-567, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-22-05.)

(815 ILCS 505/2XX)

Sec. 2XX. Performing groups.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Performing group" means a vocal or instrumental group seeking to use the name of another group that has previously released a commercial sound recording under that name.

"Recording group" means a vocal or instrumental group at least one of whose members has previously released a commercial sound recording under that group's name and in which the member or members have a legal right by virtue of use or operation under the group name without having abandoned the name or affiliation with the group.

"Sound recording" means a work that results from the fixation on a material object of a series of musical, spoken, or other sounds regardless of the nature of the material object, such as a disc, tape, or other phono-record, in which the sounds are embodied.

(b) It is an unlawful practice for a person to advertise or conduct a live musical performance or production in this State through the use of a false, deceptive, or misleading affiliation, connection, or association between the performing group and the recording group. This Section does not apply if:

(1) the performing group is the authorized registrant and owner of a Federal service mark for that group registered in the United States Patent and Trademark Office;

(2) at least one member of the performing group was a member of the recording group and has a legal right by virtue of use or operation under the group name without having abandoned the name or affiliation with the group;

(3) the live musical performance or production is identified in all advertising and promotion as a salute or tribute;

(4) the advertising does not relate to a live musical performance or production taking place in this State; or

(5) the performance or production is expressly authorized by the recording group.

(Source: P.A. 94-854, eff. 1-1-07.)

(815 ILCS 505/2YY)

Sec. 2YY 2XX. Work-at-home solicitations. No person shall advertise, represent or imply that any person can earn money working at home by stuffing envelopes, addressing envelopes, mailing circulars, clipping newspaper and magazine articles, assembling products, bill processing, or performing similar work, unless the person making the advertisement or representation:

(1) actually pays the advertised wage, salary, set fee, or commission to others for performing the represented tasks;

(2) at no time requires the person who will perform the represented tasks to purchase instructional booklets, brochures, kits, programs, materials, mailing lists, directories, memberships in cooperative associations, or other similar items or services;

(3) discloses the legal name under which business is conducted and the complete street address from which business is actually conducted in all advertising and promotional materials, including order blanks and forms; and

(4) discloses in writing to the person who will perform the represented tasks an exact description of the work to be performed, the amount of any wage, salary, set fee, or commission to be paid for the performance of the represented tasks, and all terms and conditions for earning such wage, salary, set fee, or commission.

No person shall require an individual to solicit or induce other individuals to participate in a work-at-home program.

A person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-999, eff. 7-3-06; revised 9-1-06.)

Section 1270. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/4) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-4)

Sec. 4. (a) The public body awarding any contract for public work or otherwise undertaking any public works, shall ascertain the general prevailing rate of hourly wages in the locality in which the work is to be performed, for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract, and where the public body performs the work without letting a contract therefor, shall ascertain the prevailing rate of wages on a per hour basis in the locality, and such public body shall specify in the resolution or ordinance and in the call for bids for the contract, that the general prevailing rate of wages in the locality for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or perform such work, also the general prevailing rate for legal holiday and overtime work, as ascertained by the public body or by the Department of Labor shall be paid for each craft or type of worker needed to execute the contract or to perform such work, and it shall be mandatory upon the contractor to whom the contract is awarded and upon any subcontractor under him, and where the public body performs the work, upon the public body, to pay not less than the specified rates to all laborers, workers and mechanics employed by them in the execution of the contract or such work; provided, however, that if the public body desires that the Department of Labor ascertain the prevailing rate of wages, it shall notify the Department of Labor to ascertain the general prevailing rate of hourly wages for work under contract, or for work performed by a public body without letting a contract as required in the locality in which the work is to be performed, for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or project or work to be performed. Upon such notification the Department of Labor shall ascertain such general prevailing rate of wages, and certify the prevailing wage to such public body. The public body awarding the contract shall cause to be inserted in the project specifications and the contract a stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages as found by the public body or Department of Labor or determined by the court on review shall be paid to all laborers, workers and mechanics performing work under the contract.

(b) It shall also be mandatory upon the contractor to whom the contract is awarded to insert into each subcontract and into the project specifications for each subcontract a written stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages shall be paid to all laborers, workers, and mechanics performing work under the contract. It shall also be mandatory upon each subcontractor to cause to be inserted into each lower tiered subcontract and into the project specifications for each lower tiered subcontract a stipulation to the effect that not less than the prevailing rate of wages shall be paid to all laborers, workers, and mechanics performing work under the contract. A contractor or subcontractor who fails to comply with this subsection (b) is in violation of this Act.

(c) It shall also require in all such contractor's bonds that the contractor include such provision as will guarantee the faithful performance of such prevailing wage clause as provided by contract. All bid specifications shall list the specified rates to all laborers, workers and mechanics in the locality for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract.

(d) If the Department of Labor revises the prevailing rate of hourly wages to be paid by the public body, the revised rate shall apply to such contract, and the public body shall be responsible to notify the contractor and each subcontractor, of the revised rate.

(e) Two or more investigatory hearings under this Section on the issue of establishing a new prevailing wage classification for a particular craft or type of worker shall be consolidated in a single hearing before the Department. Such consolidation shall occur whether each separate investigatory hearing is conducted by a public body or the Department. The party requesting a consolidated investigatory hearing shall have the burden of establishing that there is no existing prevailing wage classification for the particular craft or type of worker in any of the localities under consideration.

(f) It shall be mandatory upon the contractor or construction manager to whom a contract for public works is awarded to post, at a location on the project site of the public works that is easily accessible to the workers engaged on the project, the prevailing wage rates for each craft or type of worker or mechanic needed to execute the contract or project or work to be performed. A failure to post a prevailing wage rate as required by this Section is a violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-783, eff. 8-6-02; 93-15, eff. 6-11-03; 93-16, eff. 1-1-04; 93-38, eff. 6-1-04; revised 10-29-04.)

Section 1275. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 4d as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/4d)

Sec. 4d. Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Fee.

(a) As of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, each employer that self-insures its liabilities arising under this Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act shall pay a fee measured by the annual actual wages paid in this State of such an employer in the manner provided in this Section. Such proceeds shall be deposited in the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund. If an employer survives or was formed by a merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation, the actual wages paid in this State of all employers party to the merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation shall, for purposes of determining the amount of the fee imposed by this Section, be regarded as those of the surviving or new employer.

(b) Beginning on July 30, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-840) this amendatory Act of 2004 and on July 1 of each year thereafter, the Chairman shall charge and collect an annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Fee from every employer subject to subsection (a) of this Section equal to 0.0075% of its annual actual wages paid in this State as reported in each employer's annual self-insurance renewal filed for the previous year as required by Section 4 of this Act and Section 4 of the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. All sums collected by the Commission under the provisions of this Section shall be paid promptly after the receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund. The fee due pursuant to Public Act 93-840 this amendatory Act of 2004 shall be collected instead of the fee due on July 1, 2004 under Public Act 93-32. Payment of the fee due under Public Act 93-840 this amendatory Act of 2004 shall discharge the employer's obligations due on July 1, 2004.

(c) In addition to the authority specifically granted under Section 16, the Chairman shall have such authority to adopt rules or establish forms as may be reasonably necessary for purposes of enforcing this Section. The Commission shall have authority to defer, waive, or abate the fee or any penalties imposed by this Section if in the Commission's opinion the employer's solvency and ability to meet its obligations to pay workers' compensation benefits would be immediately threatened by payment of the fee due.

(d) When an employer fails to pay the full amount of any annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Fee of $100 or more due under this Section, there shall be added to the amount due as a penalty the greater of $1,000 or an amount equal to 5% of the deficiency for each month or part of a month that the deficiency remains unpaid.

(e) The Commission may enforce the collection of any delinquent payment, penalty or portion thereof by legal action or in any other manner by which the collection of debts due the State of Illinois may be enforced under the laws of this State.

(f) Whenever it appears to the satisfaction of the Chairman that an employer has paid pursuant to this Act an Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Fee in an amount in excess of the amount legally collectable from the employer, the Chairman shall issue a credit memorandum for an amount equal to the amount of such overpayment. A credit memorandum may be applied for the 2-year period from the date of issuance against the payment of any amount due during that period under the fee imposed by this Section or, subject to reasonable rule of the Commission including requirement of notification, may be assigned to any other employer subject to regulation under this Act. Any application of credit memoranda after the period provided for in this Section is void.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 6-20-03; 93-721, eff. 1-1-05; 93-840, eff. 7-30-04; revised 10-25-04.)

Section 1280. The Workers' Occupational Diseases Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(820 ILCS 310/1) (from Ch. 48, par. 172.36)

Sec. 1. This Act shall be known and may be cited as the "Workers' Occupational Diseases Act".

(a) The term "employer" as used in this Act shall be construed to be:

1. The State and each county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic, or municipal corporation therein.

2. Every person, firm, public or private corporation, including hospitals, public service, eleemosynary, religious or charitable corporations or associations, who has any person in service or under any contract for hire, express or implied, oral or written.

3. Where an employer operating under and subject to the provisions of this Act loans an employee to another such employer and such loaned employee sustains a compensable occupational disease in the employment of such borrowing employer and where such borrowing employer does not provide or pay the benefits or payments due such employee, such loaning employer shall be liable to provide or pay all benefits or payments due such employee under this Act and as to such employee the liability of such loaning and borrowing employers shall be joint and several, provided that such loaning employer shall in the absence of agreement to the contrary be entitled to receive from such borrowing employer full reimbursement for all sums paid or incurred pursuant to this paragraph together with reasonable attorneys' fees and expenses in any hearings before the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or in any action to secure such reimbursement. Where any benefit is provided or paid by such loaning employer, the employee shall have the duty of rendering reasonable co-operation in any hearings, trials or proceedings in the case, including such proceedings for reimbursement.

Where an employee files an Application for Adjustment of Claim with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission alleging that his or her claim is covered by the provisions of the preceding paragraph, and joining both the alleged loaning and borrowing employers, they and each of them, upon written demand by the employee and within 7 days after receipt of such demand, shall have the duty of filing with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission a written admission or denial of the allegation that the claim is covered by the provisions of the preceding paragraph and in default of such filing or if any such denial be ultimately determined not to have been bona fide then the provisions of Paragraph K of Section 19 of this Act shall apply.

An employer whose business or enterprise or a substantial part thereof consists of hiring, procuring or furnishing employees to or for other employers operating under and subject to the provisions of this Act for the performance of the work of such other employers and who pays such employees their salary or wage notwithstanding that they are doing the work of such other employers shall be deemed a loaning employer within the meaning and provisions of this Section.

(b) The term "employee" as used in this Act, shall be construed to mean:

1. Every person in the service of the State, county, city, town, township, incorporated village or school district, body politic or municipal corporation therein, whether by election, appointment or contract of hire, express or implied, oral or written, including any official of the State, or of any county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic or municipal corporation therein and except any duly appointed member of the fire department in any city whose population exceeds 500,000 according to the last Federal or State census, and except any member of a fire insurance patrol maintained by a board of underwriters in this State. One employed by a contractor who has contracted with the State, or a county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic or municipal corporation therein, through its representatives, shall not be considered as an employee of the State, county, city, town, township, incorporated village, school district, body politic or municipal corporation which made the contract.

2. Every person in the service of another under any contract of hire, express or implied, oral or written, who contracts an occupational disease while working in the State of Illinois, or who contracts an occupational disease while working outside of the State of Illinois but where the contract of hire is made within the State of Illinois, and any person whose employment is principally localized within the State of Illinois, regardless of the place where the disease was contracted or place where the contract of hire was made, including aliens, and minors who, for the purpose of this Act, except Section 3 hereof, shall be considered the same and have the same power to contract, receive payments and give quittances therefor, as adult employees. An employee or his or her dependents under this Act who shall have a cause of action by reason of an occupational disease, disablement or death arising out of and in the course of his or her employment may elect or pursue his or her remedy in the State where the disease was contracted, or in the State where the contract of hire is made, or in the State where the employment is principally localized.

(c) "Commission" means the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission created by the Workers' Compensation Act, approved July 9, 1951, as amended.

(d) In this Act the term "Occupational Disease" means a disease arising out of and in the course of the employment or which has become aggravated and rendered disabling as a result of the exposure of the employment. Such aggravation shall arise out of a risk peculiar to or increased by the employment and not common to the general public.

A disease shall be deemed to arise out of the employment if there is apparent to the rational mind, upon consideration of all the circumstances, a causal connection between the conditions under which the work is performed and the occupational disease. The disease need not to have been foreseen or expected but after its contraction it must appear to have had its origin or aggravation in a risk connected with the employment and to have flowed from that source as a rational consequence.

An employee shall be conclusively deemed to have been exposed to the hazards of an occupational disease when, for any length of time however short, he or she is employed in an occupation or process in which the hazard of the disease exists; provided however, that in a claim of exposure to atomic radiation, the fact of such exposure must be verified by the records of the central registry of radiation exposure maintained by the Department of Public Health or by some other recognized governmental agency maintaining records of such exposures whenever and to the extent that the records are on file with the Department of Public Health or the agency.

Any injury to or disease or death of an employee arising from the administration of a vaccine, including without limitation smallpox vaccine, to prepare for, or as a response to, a threatened or potential bioterrorist incident to the employee as part of a voluntary inoculation program in connection with the person's employment or in connection with any governmental program or recommendation for the inoculation of workers in the employee's occupation, geographical area, or other category that includes the employee is deemed to arise out of and in the course of the employment for all purposes under this Act. This paragraph added by Public Act 93-829 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment.

The employer liable for the compensation in this Act provided shall be the employer in whose employment the employee was last exposed to the hazard of the occupational disease claimed upon regardless of the length of time of such last exposure, except, in cases of silicosis or asbestosis, the only employer liable shall be the last employer in whose employment the employee was last exposed during a period of 60 days or more after the effective date of this Act, to the hazard of such occupational disease, and, in such cases, an exposure during a period of less than 60 days, after the effective date of this Act, shall not be deemed a last exposure. If a miner who is suffering or suffered from pneumoconiosis was employed for 10 years or more in one or more coal mines there shall, effective July 1, 1973 be a rebuttable presumption that his or her pneumoconiosis arose out of such employment.

If a deceased miner was employed for 10 years or more in one or more coal mines and died from a respirable disease there shall, effective July 1, 1973, be a rebuttable presumption that his or her death was due to pneumoconiosis.

The insurance carrier liable shall be the carrier whose policy was in effect covering the employer liable on the last day of the exposure rendering such employer liable in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(e) "Disablement" means an impairment or partial impairment, temporary or permanent, in the function of the body or any of the members of the body, or the event of becoming disabled from earning full wages at the work in which the employee was engaged when last exposed to the hazards of the occupational disease by the employer from whom he or she claims compensation, or equal wages in other suitable employment; and "disability" means the state of being so incapacitated.

(f) No compensation shall be payable for or on account of any occupational disease unless disablement, as herein defined, occurs within two years after the last day of the last exposure to the hazards of the disease, except in cases of occupational disease caused by berylliosis or by the inhalation of silica dust or asbestos dust and, in such cases, within 3 years after the last day of the last exposure to the hazards of such disease and except in the case of occupational disease caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment, and in such case, within 25 years after the last day of last exposure to the hazards of such disease.

(Source: P.A. 93-721, eff. 1-1-05; 93-829, eff. 7-28-04; revised 10-25-04.)

Section 1285. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 1300 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/1300) (from Ch. 48, par. 540)

Sec. 1300. Waiver or transfer of benefit rights - Partial exemption.

(A) Except as otherwise provided herein any agreement by an individual to waive, release or commute his rights under this Act shall be void.

(B) Benefits due under this Act shall not be assigned, pledged, encumbered, released or commuted and shall be exempt from all claims of creditors and from levy, execution and attachment or other remedy for recovery or collection of a debt. However, nothing in this Section shall prohibit a specified or agreed upon deduction from benefits by an individual, or a court or administrative order for withholding of income, for payment of past due child support from being enforced and collected by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid on behalf of persons receiving a grant of financial aid under Article IV of the Illinois Public Aid Code, persons for whom an application has been made and approved for child support enforcement services under Section 10-1 of such Code, or persons similarly situated and receiving like services in other states. It is provided that:

(1) The aforementioned deduction of benefits and order for withholding of income apply only if appropriate arrangements have been made for reimbursement to the Director by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid for any administrative costs incurred by the Director under this Section.

(2) The Director shall deduct and withhold from benefits payable under this Act, or under any arrangement for the payment of benefits entered into by the Director pursuant to the powers granted under Section 2700 of this Act, the amount specified or agreed upon. In the case of a court or administrative order for withholding of income, the Director shall withhold the amount of the order.

(3) Any amount deducted and withheld by the Director shall be paid to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid, on behalf of the individual.

(4) Any amount deducted and withheld under subsection (3) shall for all purposes be treated as if it were paid to the individual as benefits and paid by such individual to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services Public Aid or the State Disbursement Unit in satisfaction of the individual's child support obligations.

(5) For the purpose of this Section, child support is defined as those obligations which are being enforced pursuant to a plan described in Title IV, Part D, Section 454 of the Social Security Act and approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services.

(6) The deduction of benefits and order for withholding of income for child support shall be governed by Titles III and IV of the Social Security Act and all regulations duly promulgated thereunder.

(C) Nothing in this Section prohibits an individual from voluntarily electing to have federal income tax deducted and withheld from his or her unemployment insurance benefit payments.

(1) The Director shall, at the time that an individual files his or her claim for benefits that establishes his or her benefit year, inform the individual that:

(a) unemployment insurance is subject to federal, State, and local income taxes;

(b) requirements exist pertaining to estimated tax payments;

(c) the individual may elect to have federal income tax deducted and withheld from his or her payments of unemployment insurance in the amount specified in the federal Internal Revenue Code; and

(d) the individual is permitted to change a previously elected withholding status.

(2) Amounts deducted and withheld from unemployment insurance shall remain in the unemployment fund until transferred to the federal taxing authority as a payment of income tax.

(3) The Director shall follow all procedures specified by the United States Department of Labor and the federal Internal Revenue Service pertaining to the deducting and withholding of income tax.

(4) Amounts shall be deducted and withheld in accordance with the priorities established in rules promulgated by the Director.

(D) Nothing in this Section prohibits an individual from voluntarily electing to have State of Illinois income tax deducted and withheld from his or her unemployment insurance benefit payments.

(1) The Director shall, at the time that an individual files his or her claim for benefits that establishes his or her benefit year, in addition to providing the notice required under subsection C, inform the individual that:

(a) the individual may elect to have State of Illinois income tax deducted and withheld from his or her payments of unemployment insurance; and

(b) the individual is permitted to change a previously elected withholding status.

(2) Amounts deducted and withheld from unemployment insurance shall remain in the unemployment fund until transferred to the Department of Revenue as a payment of State of Illinois income tax.

(3) Amounts shall be deducted and withheld in accordance with the priorities established in rules promulgated by the Director.

(E) Nothing in this Section prohibits the deduction and withholding of an uncollected overissuance of food stamp coupons from unemployment insurance benefits pursuant to this subsection (E).

(1) At the time that an individual files a claim for benefits that establishes his or her benefit year, that individual must disclose whether or not he or she owes an uncollected overissuance (as defined in Section 13(c)(1) of the federal Food Stamp Act of 1977) of food stamp coupons. The Director shall notify the State food stamp agency enforcing such obligation of any individual who discloses that he or she owes an uncollected overissuance of food stamp coupons and who meets the monetary eligibility requirements of subsection E of Section 500.

(2) The Director shall deduct and withhold from any unemployment insurance benefits payable to an individual who owes an uncollected overissuance of food stamp coupons:

(a) the amount specified by the individual to the Director to be deducted and withheld under this subsection (E);

(b) the amount (if any) determined pursuant to an agreement submitted to the State food stamp agency under Section 13(c)(3)(A) of the federal Food Stamp Act of 1977; or

(c) any amount otherwise required to be deducted and withheld from unemployment insurance benefits pursuant to Section 13(c)(3)(B) of the federal Food Stamp Act of 1977.

(3) Any amount deducted and withheld pursuant to this subsection (E) shall be paid by the Director to the State food stamp agency.

(4) Any amount deducted and withheld pursuant to this subsection (E) shall for all purposes be treated as if it were paid to the individual as unemployment insurance benefits and paid by the individual to the State food stamp agency as repayment of the individual's uncollected overissuance of food stamp coupons.

(5) For purposes of this subsection (E), "unemployment insurance benefits" means any compensation payable under this Act including amounts payable by the Director pursuant to an agreement under any federal law providing for compensation, assistance, or allowances with respect to unemployment.

(6) This subsection (E) applies only if arrangements have been made for reimbursement by the State food stamp agency for the administrative costs incurred by the Director under this subsection (E) which are attributable to the repayment of uncollected overissuances of food stamp coupons to the State food stamp agency.

(Source: P.A. 94-237, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-15-05.)

Section 9995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 9996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 9999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.