99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2015 and 2016
SB1315

 

Introduced 2/18/2015, by Sen. Heather A. Steans

 

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:
 
See Index

    Amends the Nurse Practice Act. Eliminates the requirement for a written collaborative agreement for all advanced practice nurses. Eliminates the requirement for an anesthesia plan for certified registered nurse anesthetists. Removes references to a written collaborative agreement and anesthesia plan throughout the Act. Repeals certain Sections of the Act and a Section of the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 concerning written collaborative agreements. Amends various other Acts to make related changes. Effective immediately.


LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

 

 

A BILL FOR

 

SB1315LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    AN ACT concerning regulation.
 
2    Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
3represented in the General Assembly:
 
4    Section 5. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended
5by changing Section 4 as follows:
 
6    (15 ILCS 335/4)  (from Ch. 124, par. 24)
7    Sec. 4. Identification Card.
8    (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois
9Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of
10the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal
11thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification
12Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory
13supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or
14pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of
15Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by
16the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice
17under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of
18Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No
19identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a
20valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit
21unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State
22the valid foreign state identification card, license, or
23permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the

 

 

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1Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature
2or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may
3provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification
4Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide
5religious objection to being photographed or to the display of
6his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be
7used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only
8by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act,
9"photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced
10and captured image of an applicant for an identification card.
11As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as
12written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to
13the Secretary of State.
14    (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a
15current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the
16Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to
17utilize the same residence address and name on the
18identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit
19records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may
20promulgate rules to implement this provision.
21    (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in
22Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer,
23the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work
24address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence
25or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to
26implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection

 

 

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1(a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his
2or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty
3to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of
4any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to
5all violations or is limited to specific violations.
6    (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
7Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person
8with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person
9who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person
10with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who
11applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person
12with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any
13person who holds a valid foreign state identification card,
14license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the
15Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card,
16license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee
17to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by
18the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and
19signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating
20that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability
21Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible
22designation of the type and classification of the applicant's
23disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the
24Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of
25Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without
26photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious

 

 

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1objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her
2photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
3include a description of the applicant's disability and any
4information about the applicant's disability or medical
5history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the
6applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used
7in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card
8in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity
9of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability
10Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in
11any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
12    The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
13may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of
14a physician's determination of disability, a determination of
15disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated
16the authority to make this determination by his or her
17supervising physician, a determination of disability from an
18advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
19agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
20advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any
21other documentation of disability whenever any State law
22requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of
23disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability
24Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to
25participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is
26not available to all persons with like disabilities.

 

 

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1Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person
2with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the
3Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a
4Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person
5other than the person named on such card to prove that the
6person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other
7purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person
8named on such card, and the person named on such card consents
9to such use at the time the card is so used.
10    An optometrist's determination of a visual disability
11under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for
12the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability
13Identification Card.
14    When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person
15with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the
16Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken
17based upon that medical information.
18    (c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original
19or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with
20a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the
21age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois
22Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability
23Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or
24older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards
25or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for
26persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the

 

 

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1Secretary of State.
2    (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification
3Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
4issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date
5upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon
6which the person becomes 21 years of age.
7    (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify
8military veterans living in this State for the purpose of
9ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to
10which they are legally entitled, including healthcare,
11education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in
12identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services
13and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue
14Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a
15Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran"
16appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is
17predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may
18not issue any other identification card which identifies an
19occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique
20characteristics of the identification card holder which is
21unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
22    (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of
23State shall designate a space on each original or renewal
24identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the
25word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall
26be available to a person identified as a veteran under

 

 

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1subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or
2separated under honorable conditions.
3    (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
4discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the
5State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who
6applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of
7State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be
8issued in every county and applications shall be made available
9at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers
10and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
11card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed
12thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
13    (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may
14designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
15Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the
16card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the
17Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may
18specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the
19card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card
20or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.
21(Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847,
22eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463,
23eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
24    Section 10. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
25Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (20 ILCS 301/5-23)
2    Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.
3    (a) Reports of drug overdose.
4        (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and
5    Substance Abuse may publish annually a report on drug
6    overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates
7    from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or
8    rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding
9    period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also
10    provide information on interventions that would be
11    effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug
12    overdose.
13        (2) The report may include:
14            (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.
15            (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related
16        to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room
17        utilization.
18            (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and
19        emergency services and the cost impact of emergency
20        services utilization.
21            (D) Suggested improvements in data collection.
22            (E) A description of other interventions effective
23        in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug
24        overdose.
25    (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

 

 

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1        (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for
2    the production and publication, in electronic and other
3    formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and
4    response literature. The Director may develop and
5    disseminate curricula for use by professionals,
6    organizations, individuals, or committees interested in
7    the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose,
8    including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison
9    personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment
10    professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital
11    staff, families and associates of drug users, peace
12    officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle
13    exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to
14    information regarding drug overdose prevention,
15    recognition, and response, literature produced by the
16    Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and
17    highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal
18    drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall
19    provide information and resources for substance abuse
20    treatment.
21        The Director may establish or authorize programs for
22    prescribing, dispensing, or distributing naloxone
23    hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally
24    safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration
25    for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may
26    include the prescribing of naloxone hydrochloride or any

 

 

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1    other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by
2    the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of
3    drug overdose to and education about administration by
4    individuals who are not personally at risk of opioid
5    overdose.
6        (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local
7    officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including
8    the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, trends in drug
9    overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose
10    crisis.
11    (c) Grants.
12        (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with
13    this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose
14    prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local
15    health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals,
16    universities, community-based organizations, and
17    faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a
18    grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner
19    the Director prescribes.
20        (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the
21    necessity for overdose prevention projects in various
22    settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to
23    develop interventions that will be effective and viable in
24    their local areas.
25        (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to
26    proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving

 

 

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1    interventions and responses, provide information to drug
2    users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies
3    for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give
4    preference to proposals that include one or more of the
5    following elements:
6            (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons,
7        including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a
8        potentially fatal drug overdose.
9            (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and
10        response education projects in drug treatment centers,
11        outreach programs, and other organizations that work
12        with, or have access to, drug users and their families
13        and communities.
14            (C) Drug overdose recognition and response
15        training, including rescue breathing, in drug
16        treatment centers and for other organizations that
17        work with, or have access to, drug users and their
18        families and communities.
19            (D) The production and distribution of targeted or
20        mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and
21        response.
22            (E) Prescription and distribution of naloxone
23        hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and
24        equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug
25        Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.
26            (F) The institution of education and training

 

 

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1        projects on drug overdose response and treatment for
2        emergency services and law enforcement personnel.
3            (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor
4        education and mutual support groups.
5        (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General
6    Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private
7    foundations, the federal government, and other sources to
8    fund the grants under this Section and to fund an
9    evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.
10    (d) Health care professional prescription of drug overdose
11treatment medication.
12        (1) A health care professional who, acting in good
13    faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or
14    dispenses an opioid antidote to a patient who, in the
15    judgment of the health care professional, is capable of
16    administering the drug in an emergency, shall not, as a
17    result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to
18    disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical
19    Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act
20    of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act,
21    or any other professional licensing statute.
22        (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to
23    administer an opioid antidote may in an emergency
24    administer without fee an opioid antidote if the person has
25    received the patient information specified in paragraph
26    (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that

 

 

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1    another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person
2    shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be
3    liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of
4    1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the
5    Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other
6    professional licensing statute, or subject to any criminal
7    prosecution arising from or related to the unauthorized
8    practice of medicine or the possession of an opioid
9    antidote.
10        (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid
11    antidote to a patient shall ensure that the patient
12    receives the patient information specified in paragraph
13    (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided
14    by the health care professional or a community-based
15    organization, substance abuse program, or other
16    organization with which the health care professional
17    establishes a written agreement that includes a
18    description of how the organization will provide patient
19    information, how employees or volunteers providing
20    information will be trained, and standards for documenting
21    the provision of patient information to patients.
22    Provision of patient information shall be documented in the
23    patient's medical record or through similar means as
24    determined by agreement between the health care
25    professional and the organization. The Director of the
26    Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in

 

 

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1    consultation with statewide organizations representing
2    physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician
3    assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested
4    groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care
5    professionals, community-based organizations, substance
6    abuse programs, and other organizations training materials
7    in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the
8    provision of such patient information.
9        (4) For the purposes of this subsection:
10        "Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any
11    other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by
12    the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of
13    drug overdose.
14        "Health care professional" means a physician licensed
15    to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician
16    assistant who has been delegated the prescription or
17    dispensation of an opioid antidote by his or her
18    supervising physician, an advanced practice registered
19    nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
20    collaborating physician that authorizes the prescription
21    or dispensation of an opioid antidote, or an advanced
22    practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory
23    surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate
24    clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice
25    Act.
26        "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of

 

 

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1    opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician,
2    may be in a position to assist another individual during an
3    overdose and who has received patient information as
4    required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the
5    indications for and administration of an opioid antidote.
6        "Patient information" includes information provided to
7    the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition;
8    how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid
9    antidote dosage and administration; the importance of
10    calling 911; care for the overdose victim after
11    administration of the overdose antidote; and other issues
12    as necessary.
13(Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
14    Section 15. The School Code is amended by changing Sections
1522-30, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:
 
16    (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
17    Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma
18medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of
19undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.
20    (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following
21terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
22    "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.
23    "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used
24for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of

 

 

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1epinephrine into the human body.
2    "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a
3physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
4(ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority
5to prescribe asthma medications by his or her supervising
6physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a
7written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
8that delegates the authority to prescribe asthma medications,
9for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an
10individual prescription label.
11    "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school
12with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.
13    "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of
14his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine
15auto-injector.
16    "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her
17prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.
18    "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician
19licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a
20physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
21prescribe asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors by
22his or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice
23nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating
24physician that delegates authority to issue a standing protocol
25for asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors.
26    "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer

 

 

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1personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and
210-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under
3subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to
4anaphylaxis.
5    "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an
6epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school
7district, public school, or nonpublic school.
8    (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
9self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a
10pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of
11an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
12        (1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to
13    the school (i) written authorization from the parents or
14    guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry
15    of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma
16    medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and
17    self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the
18    self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written
19    authorization from the pupil's physician, physician
20    assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
21        (2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to
22    the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain
23    the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage,
24    and the time at which or circumstances under which the
25    asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the
26    self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine

 

 

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1    auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's
2    physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse
3    containing the following information:
4            (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine
5        auto-injector;
6            (B) the prescribed dosage; and
7            (C) the time or times at which or the special
8        circumstances under which the epinephrine
9        auto-injector is to be administered.
10The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of
11the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the
12school's administrator.
13    (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school
14may authorize the provision of a student-specific or
15undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any
16personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care
17Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and
18Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504
19of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an
20epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the
21student's prescription on file.
22    (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic
23school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do
24the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine
25auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any
26personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care

 

 

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1Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and
2Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504
3of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the
4student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii)
5administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that
6meets the prescription on file to any student who has an
7Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy
8Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan
9pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of
101973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector;
11and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector
12to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in
13good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction.
14    (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school
15must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing,
16that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school
17and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician
18assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing
19protocol or prescription for school epinephrine
20auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional
21discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
22of any injury arising from the administration of asthma
23medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of
24whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or
25guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or
26advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil

 

 

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1must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district,
2public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents
3are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton
4conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the
5administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine
6auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by
7the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,
8physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the
9parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the
10school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its
11employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based
12on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the
13administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine
14auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by
15the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,
16physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
17    (c-5) Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
1898th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained personnel
19administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a
20person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith
21believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, notwithstanding
22the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or
23the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement
24acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton
25conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic
26school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a

 

 

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1physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing
2standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine
3auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional
4discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
5of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated
6epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization
7was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's
8physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
9    (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry
10of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry
11of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school
12year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
13subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of
14this Section.
15    (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are
16fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and
17self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may
18self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector
19(i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity,
20(iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv)
21before or after normal school activities, such as while in
22before-school or after-school care on school-operated
23property.
24    (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are
25fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer
26an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom

 

 

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1the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to
2be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii)
3while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the
4supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal
5school activities, such as while in before-school or
6after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse
7or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine
8auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a
9school-sponsored activity.
10    (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school
11may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine
12auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person
13is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and
14lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been
15delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or
16epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of
17the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced
18practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority
19for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in
20accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may
21prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name
22of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to
23be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine
24auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the
25manufacturer's instructions.
26    (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine

 

 

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1auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic
2school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the
3student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.
4    (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an
5undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district,
6public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician,
7physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the
8standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated
9epinephrine auto-injector of its use.
10    (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated
11epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to
12his or her school's administration proof of completion of a
13training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis
14that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section.
15Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must
16also submit to his or her school's administration proof of
17cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external
18defibrillator certification. The school district, public
19school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to
20the training curriculum and trained personnel.
21    (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to
22anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated
23epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in
24person. It must include, but is not limited to:
25        (1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;
26        (2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and

 

 

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1    its related facilities;
2        (3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;
3        (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an
4    allergic reaction;
5        (5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;
6        (6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as
7    well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;
8        (7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge
9    required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an
10    epinephrine auto-injector; and
11        (8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted
12    pursuant to this Section.
13    In consultation with statewide professional organizations
14representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of
15its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the Board
16shall make available resource materials consistent with
17criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel
18to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The Board may take
19into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by
20other states, as well as any other curricular materials
21suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on
22life-threatening allergy issues. The Board is not required to
23create new resource materials. The Board shall make these
24resource materials available on its Internet website.
25    (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an
26undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse,

 

 

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1trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored
2activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and
3manner prescribed by the Board the following information:
4        (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine
5    (student, staff, visitor);
6        (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;
7        (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;
8        (4) location where symptoms developed;
9        (5) number of doses administered;
10        (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school
11    nurse, trained personnel, student); and
12        (7) any other information required by the Board.
13    (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board
14shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the
15frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration
16during the preceding academic year. This report shall be
17published on the Board's Internet website on the date the
18report is delivered to the General Assembly.
19    (k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this
20Section.
21(Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)
 
22    (105 ILCS 5/24-5)  (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)
23    Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.
24    (a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a
25school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor

 

 

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1that provides services to students or in schools, or any other
2individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or
334-18.5 of this Code.
4    (b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence
5of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from
6communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical
7examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other
8state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, an
9advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
10agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
11advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, or a
12physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
13perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician
14not more than 90 days preceding time of presentation to the
15board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the
16employee. A new or existing employee may be subject to
17additional health examinations, including screening for
18tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of
19Public Health or by order of a local public health official.
20The board may from time to time require an examination of any
21employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice
22medicine and surgery in all its branches, an advanced practice
23nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
24collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice
25nurse to perform health examinations, or a physician assistant
26who has been delegated the authority to perform health

 

 

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1examinations by his or her supervising physician and shall pay
2the expenses thereof from school funds.
3    (c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to
4furnish from time to time evidence of continued professional
5growth.
6(Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
7    (105 ILCS 5/24-6)
8    Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school
9districts, including special charter districts, but not
10including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or
11more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall
12grant such of their other employees as are eligible to
13participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the
14"600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other
15eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be
16established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter
17promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of
18the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick
19leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in
20each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use
21the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount
22shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of
23180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year.
24Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness,
25quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate

 

 

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1family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for
2adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a
3physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery
4in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under
5the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse
6who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
7physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to
8perform health examinations, a physician assistant who has been
9delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his
10or her supervising physician, or, if the treatment is by prayer
11or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the
12teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave
13after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for
14birth or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases.
15If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for
16pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the
17school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses
18incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the
19certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for
20adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or
21other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption
22process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days
23unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive
24bargaining representative.
25    If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school
26districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school

 

 

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1district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new
2or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher
3is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or
4different district.
5    For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall
6include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children,
7grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law,
8sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.
9(Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09;
1096-367, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
11    (105 ILCS 5/26-1)  (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)
12    Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has
13custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and
1417 years (unless the child has already graduated from high
15school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or
16(ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17
17years (unless the child has already graduated from high school)
18beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child
19to attend some public school in the district wherein the child
20resides the entire time it is in session during the regular
21school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during
22a required summer school program established under Section
2310-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be
24required to attend the public schools:
25        1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school

 

 

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1    where children are taught the branches of education taught
2    to children of corresponding age and grade in the public
3    schools, and where the instruction of the child in the
4    branches of education is in the English language;
5        2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to
6    attend school, such disability being certified to the
7    county or district truant officer by a competent physician
8    licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in
9    all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under
10    the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice
11    nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
12    collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced
13    practice nurse to perform health examinations, a physician
14    assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform
15    health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or
16    a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and
17    listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused
18    for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher
19    of the school which the child attends; the exemptions in
20    this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is
21    pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except
22    where a female is unable to attend school due to a
23    complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence
24    of such complication is certified to the county or district
25    truant officer by a competent physician;
26        3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed

 

 

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1    according to the provisions of the law regulating child
2    labor may be excused from attendance at school by the
3    county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of
4    the public school which the child should be attending, on
5    certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the
6    school board of the public school district in which the
7    child resides. In districts having part time continuation
8    schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at
9    least 8 hours each week;
10        4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in
11    attendance at confirmation classes;
12        5. Any child absent from a public school on a
13    particular day or days or at a particular time of day for
14    the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to
15    participate in any examination, study or work requirements
16    on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day,
17    because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity
18    on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day.
19    Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations
20    relative to absences for religious holidays including, but
21    not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it
22    shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this
23    paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any
24    school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on
25    any other day by reason of the observance of a religious
26    holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian

 

 

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1    of a child who is to be excused from attending school due
2    to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice,
3    not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school
4    principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from
5    attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be
6    required to submit a written excuse for such absence after
7    returning to school; and
8        6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits
9    to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful
10    employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii)
11    is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to
12    Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning
13    opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B
14    of this Code.
15(Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14.)
 
16    (105 ILCS 5/27-8.1)  (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)
17    Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.
18    (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the
19Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as
20hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a
21health examination as follows: within one year prior to
22entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public,
23private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the
24sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial
25school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or

 

 

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1parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade,
2immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private,
3or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present
4proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section
5and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child
6who received a health examination within one year prior to
7entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not
8required to receive an additional health examination in order
9to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or
10she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the
11child is attending school for the first time as provided in
12this paragraph.
13    A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a
14required part of each health examination included under this
15Section if the child resides in an area designated by the
16Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of
17tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils,
18including eye examinations, may be required when deemed
19necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have
20their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in
21time required for health examinations.
22    (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of
23Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section,
24all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of
25any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental
26examination. Each of these children shall present proof of

 

 

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1having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this
2Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of
3the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails
4to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's
5report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child
6presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the
7child presents proof that a dental examination will take place
8within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health
9shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an
10undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public,
11private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental
12examination requirement to the parents and guardians of
13students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
14    (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all
15children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or
16parochial school on or after the effective date of this
17amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student
18enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial
19school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
20the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each
21of these children shall present proof of having been examined
22by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its
23branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in
24accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this
25Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child
26fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the

 

 

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1child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the
2child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the
3child presents proof that an eye examination will take place
4within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public
5Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show
6an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to
7practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye
8examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public,
9private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye
10examination requirement to the parents and guardians of
11students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public
12Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a
13school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's
14or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the
15child.
16    (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules
17and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures
18that constitute a health examination, which shall include the
19collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum,
20date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date
21of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule
22that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules
23and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall
24specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be
25included as a required part of each health examination included
26under this Section if the child resides in an area designated

 

 

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1by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
2of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify
3that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included
4as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing
5is not required.
6    Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its
7branches, advanced practice nurses who have a written
8collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which
9authorizes them to perform health examinations, or physician
10assistants who have been delegated the performance of health
11examinations by their supervising physician shall be
12responsible for the performance of the health examinations,
13other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision
14and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required
15by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those
16portions of the health examination for which the physician,
17advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is
18responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a
19health examination, then a physician licensed to practice
20medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all
21required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all
22dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by
23subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental
24examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all
25its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye
26examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report

 

 

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1forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain
2to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye
3examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity,
4subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far,
5internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation,
6as well as any other tests or observations that in the
7professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
8hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered
9examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be
10conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the
11Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
12Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and
13regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that
14individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
15parent or guardian written notification, before the vision
16screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a
17substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye
18doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision
19screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed
20and signed a report form indicating that an examination has
21been administered within the previous 12 months."
22    (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or
23she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of
24this Section, present to the local school proof of having
25received such immunizations against preventable communicable
26diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by

 

 

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1rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and
2the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.
3    (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
4dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of
5having conducted the examination, and such additional
6information as required, including for a health examination
7data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of
8birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of
9exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health
10and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide
11use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any
12condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special
13services, including for a health examination factors relating
14to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of
15required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form
16that the immunizations were administered.
17    (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either
18the health examination or the immunization as required, then
19the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the
20case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current
21school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year
22established by a school district. To establish a date before
23October 15 of the current school year for the health
24examination or immunization as required, a school district must
25give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior
26to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or

 

 

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1more of the required immunizations must be given after October
215 of the current school year, or after an earlier established
3date of the current school year, then the child shall present,
4by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule
5for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of
6the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and
7the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice
8nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health
9department that will be responsible for administration of the
10remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by
11October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current
12school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the
13local school authority shall exclude that child from school
14until such time as the child presents proof of having had the
15health examination as required and presents proof of having
16received those required immunizations which are medically
17possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion
18from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's
19parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of
20Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section
2126-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental
22examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an
23out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof
24required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the
25current year or whatever date is set by the school district,
26then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has

 

 

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1proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has
2been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the
3required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required
4under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after
5the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is
6not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the
7vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or
8employee of a school district shall be held liable for any
9injury or illness to another person that results from admitting
10an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an
11appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).
12    (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of
13Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall
14require, the number of children who have received the necessary
15immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental
16examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of
17those who have not received the immunizations and examination
18as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
19examination and immunization requirements on religious or
20medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before
21December 1 of each year, every public school district and
22registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the
23immunization data they are required to submit to the State
24Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made
25publicly available must be identical to the data the school
26district or school has reported to the State Board of

 

 

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1Education.
2    Every school shall report to the State Board of Education
3by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the
4number of children who have received the required dental
5examination, indicating, of those who have not received the
6required dental examination, the number of children who are
7exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as
8provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of
9children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of
10this Section.
11    Every school shall report to the State Board of Education
12by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the
13number of children who have received the required eye
14examination, indicating, of those who have not received the
15required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt
16from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this
17Section, the number of children who have received a waiver
18under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number
19of children in noncompliance with the eye examination
20requirement.
21    The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be
22provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board
23of Education.
24    (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are
25required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this
26Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the

 

 

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1school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to
2Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be
3withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of
4students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable
5specified percentage or higher.
6    (8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health,
7dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, or to
8immunizations, on religious grounds shall not be required to
9submit their children or wards to the examinations or
10immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal
11guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a
12signed statement of objection, detailing the grounds for the
13objection. If the physical condition of the child is such that
14any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be
15administered, the examining physician, advanced practice
16nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance
17of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the
18health examination form. Exempting a child from the health,
19dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from
20participation in the program of physical education training
21provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.
22    (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools"
23means those nursery schools operated by elementary school
24systems or secondary level school units or institutions of
25higher learning.
26(Source: P.A. 97-216, eff. 1-1-12; 97-910, eff. 1-1-13; 98-673,

 

 

SB1315- 43 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1eff. 6-30-14.)
 
2    Section 20. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is
3amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:
 
4    (210 ILCS 5/6.5)
5    Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.
6All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed
7under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:
8    (1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be
9inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and
10consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical
11Practice Act of 1987.
12    (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only
13by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
14branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist
15licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric
16physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of
171987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical
18privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A
19licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be
20assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
21its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician,
22licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician
23assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical
24nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other

 

 

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1individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery by
2the consulting committee of the ASTC. Payment for services
3rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory
4surgical treatment center employee shall be paid at the
5appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have
6made payment had the same services been provided by a
7physician.
8    (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
9Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room
10nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as
11the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative
12procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating
13nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for
14coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the
15needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an
16invasive or operative procedure.
17    (3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess
18prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement
19meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
20advanced practice nursing services in an ambulatory surgical
21treatment center. An advanced practice nurse must possess
22clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff
23committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to
24provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also
25be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer
26medications, including controlled substances, to provide

 

 

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1delineated care. The attending physician must determine the
2advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her
3patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff
4policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall
5periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses
6granted privileges.
7    (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of
8a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches
9who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area
10or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An
11anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is
12recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered
13pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice
14medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed
15podiatric physician.
16        (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges
17    granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer
18    anesthesia services are limited to the following:
19            (i) an anesthesiologist; or
20            (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in
21        all its branches; or
22            (iii) a dentist with authority to administer
23        anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental
24        Practice Act; or
25            (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse
26        anesthetist; or

 

 

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1            (v) a podiatric physician licensed under the
2        Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
3        (B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an
4    anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of
5    and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain
6    physically present and be available on the premises during
7    the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
8    consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
9    conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of
10    anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate
11    policy (requiring participation, presence, and
12    availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine
13    in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical
14    staff consulting committee in consultation with the
15    anesthesia service and included in the medical staff
16    consulting committee policies.
17        (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not
18    required to possess prescriptive authority or a written
19    collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of
20    Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
21    anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician,
22    dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified
23    registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select,
24    order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate
25    medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services
26    under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the

 

 

SB1315- 47 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available
2    anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by
3    the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating
4    podiatric physician in accordance with the medical staff
5    consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory
6    surgical treatment center.
7(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
8    Section 25. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank
9Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
 
10    (210 ILCS 25/7-101)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
11    Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical
12laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a
13licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed
14podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a
15licensed physician assistant in accordance with the written
16supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
17Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or when authorized
18under Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
191987, (v-A) an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the
20written collaborative agreement required under Section 65-35
21of the Nurse Practice Act or when authorized under Section
2265-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (vi) an authorized law
23enforcement agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the
24request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed

 

 

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1in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois
2Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific
3authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to
4subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing
5Act. If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or
6other authorized person shall submit a written request to the
7laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive
8the written request within that period, it shall note that fact
9in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by
10electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.
11(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14;
1298-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff.
131-1-15.)
 
14    Section 30. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home
15Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section
162.05 as follows:
 
17    (210 ILCS 55/2.05)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)
18    Sec. 2.05. "Home health services" means services provided
19to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment
20for illness or infirmity prescribed by a physician licensed to
21practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant
22who has been delegated the authority to prescribe home health
23services by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced
24practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a

 

 

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1collaborating physician that delegates the authority to
2prescribe home health services. Such services include part time
3and intermittent nursing services and other therapeutic
4services such as physical therapy, occupational therapy,
5speech therapy, medical social services, or services provided
6by a home health aide.
7(Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
8    Section 35. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by
9changing Section 10.7 as follows:
 
10    (210 ILCS 85/10.7)
11    Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.
12All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the
13following requirements:
14    (1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall
15be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration
16and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical
17Practice Act of 1987.
18    (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only
19by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
20branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist
21licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric
22physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of
231987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical
24privileges granted at the hospital. A licensed physician,

 

 

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1dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician
2licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist,
3dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced
4practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed
5registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical
6assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted
7clinical privileges to assist in surgery at the hospital.
8Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is
9not a hospital employee shall be paid at the appropriate
10non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made
11payment had the same services been provided by a physician.
12    (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
13Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room
14nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as
15the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative
16procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating
17nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for
18coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the
19needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an
20invasive or operative procedure.
21    (3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess
22prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement
23meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
24advanced practice nursing services in a hospital. An advanced
25practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by
26the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to

 

 

SB1315- 51 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also
2be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer
3medications, including controlled substances, to provide
4delineated care. The attending physician must determine the
5advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her
6patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws.
7The medical staff shall periodically review the services of
8advanced practice nurses granted privileges. This review shall
9be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of
10Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice nurses employed
11by the hospital.
12    (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of
13a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches
14who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area
15or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An
16anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is
17recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered
18pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice
19medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed
20podiatric physician.
21        (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges
22    granted at the hospital, may administer anesthesia
23    services are limited to the following:
24            (i) an anesthesiologist; or
25            (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in
26        all its branches; or

 

 

SB1315- 52 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1            (iii) a dentist with authority to administer
2        anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental
3        Practice Act; or
4            (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse
5        anesthetist; or
6            (v) a podiatric physician licensed under the
7        Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
8        (B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an
9    anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of
10    and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain
11    physically present and be available on the premises during
12    the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
13    consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
14    conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of
15    anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges, an
16    alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and
17    availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine
18    in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical
19    staff and licensed hospital in consultation with the
20    anesthesia service.
21        (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not
22    required to possess prescriptive authority or a written
23    collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of
24    Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
25    anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician,
26    dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified

 

 

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1    registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select,
2    order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate
3    medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services
4    under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the
5    anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available
6    anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by
7    the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating
8    podiatric physician in accordance with the hospital's
9    alternative policy.
10(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
11    Section 40. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by
12changing Sections 356g.5 and 356z.1 as follows:
 
13    (215 ILCS 5/356g.5)
14    Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam.
15    (a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast
16examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of
17breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and
18potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of
19clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to
20reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois.
21    (b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or
22individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or
23health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are
24residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough

 

 

SB1315- 54 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of
2practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice
3medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who
4has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
5that authorizes breast examinations, or a physician assistant
6who has been delegated authority to provide breast
7examinations, to check for lumps and other changes for the
8purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer as
9follows:
10        (1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years
11    of age but less than 40 years of age; and
12        (2) annually for women 40 years of age or older.
13    (c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and
14distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all
15State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and
16private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical
17breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.
18(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07.)
 
19    (215 ILCS 5/356z.1)
20    Sec. 356z.1. Prenatal HIV testing. An individual or group
21policy of accident and health insurance that provides maternity
22coverage and is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after
23the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General
24Assembly must provide coverage for prenatal HIV testing ordered
25by an attending physician licensed to practice medicine in all

 

 

SB1315- 55 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1its branches, or by a physician assistant or advanced practice
2registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with
3a collaborating physician that authorizes these services,
4including but not limited to orders consistent with the
5recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and
6Gynecologists or the American Academy of Pediatrics.
7(Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01.)
 
8    Section 42. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by
9changing Section 8.1 as follows:
 
10    (225 ILCS 25/8.1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)
11    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
12    Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and
13sedation.
14    (a) No licensed dentist shall administer general
15anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation without first
16applying for and obtaining a permit for such purpose from the
17Department. The Department shall issue such permit only after
18ascertaining that the applicant possesses the minimum
19qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person
20with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation,
21or conscious sedation in an approved hospital training program
22under the supervision of either a licensed dentist holding such
23permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
24branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.

 

 

SB1315- 56 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    (b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that
2are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by
3rule, shall:
4        (1) establish the minimum educational and training
5    requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an
6    appropriate permit;
7        (2) establish the standards for properly equipped
8    dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and
9    ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general
10    anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is
11    administered, as necessary to protect public safety;
12        (3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who
13    assist the dentist in the administration of general
14    anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation,
15    including minimum training requirements for each member of
16    the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping
17    requirements, and emergency procedures; and
18        (4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting
19    the dentist or monitoring the administration of general
20    anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain
21    current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS); and .
22        (5) establish continuing education requirements in
23    sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under
24    this Section.
25When establishing requirements under this Section, the
26Department shall consider the current American Dental

 

 

SB1315- 57 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the
2current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric
3Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and
4Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of
5Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and
6the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation
7(OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral
8and Maxillofacial Surgeons.
9    (c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit
10issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a
11nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a valid
12written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist
13and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse
14Practice Act.
15    A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued
16under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse
17anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia,
18and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between
19the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the
20Nurse Practice Act.
21    For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse
22anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse
23anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice nurse.
24(Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328,
25eff. 8-11-09.)
 

 

 

SB1315- 58 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    Section 45. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by
2changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:
 
3    (225 ILCS 60/22)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
4    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)
5    Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
6    (A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation,
7reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other
8disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
9deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person
10issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed
11$10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
12        (1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place,
13    locale, facility, or institution other than:
14            (a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory
15        Surgical Treatment Center Act;
16            (b) an institution licensed under the Hospital
17        Licensing Act;
18            (c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or
19        hospitalization or care facility maintained by the
20        State or any agency thereof, where such department or
21        agency has authority under law to establish and enforce
22        standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment
23        centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its
24        management and control;
25            (d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers,

 

 

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1        hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the
2        Federal Government; or
3            (e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers,
4        hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any
5        university or college established under the laws of
6        this State and supported principally by public funds
7        raised by taxation.
8        (2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful
9    and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the
10    time the abortion procedure was performed.
11        (3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of
12    guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing,
13    including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding
14    sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first
15    offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of
16    the United States of any crime that is a felony.
17        (4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
18        (5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
19    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
20    defraud or harm the public.
21        (6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
22    misrepresentation.
23        (7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined
24    in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any
25    other substances which results in the inability to practice
26    with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

 

 

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1        (8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
2    law, an assumed name.
3        (9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or
4    procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with
5    applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
6        (10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding
7    their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine,
8    treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction
9    in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the
10    body or mind.
11        (11) Allowing another person or organization to use
12    their license, procured under this Act, to practice.
13        (12) Adverse action taken by another state or
14    jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to
15    practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor
16    of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a
17    certified copy of the record of the action taken by the
18    other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence
19    thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State
20    or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor
21    of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of
22    chiropractic from providing services to the agency's
23    participants.
24        (13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the
25    Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or
26    violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of

 

 

SB1315- 61 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation
2    of the Disciplinary Board.
3        (14) Violation of the prohibition against fee
4    splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
5        (15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
6    registrant after having his or her license placed on
7    probationary status or subjected to conditions or
8    restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed
9    to comply with such terms or conditions.
10        (16) Abandonment of a patient.
11        (17) Prescribing, selling, administering,
12    distributing, giving or self-administering any drug
13    classified as a controlled substance (designated product)
14    or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
15    purposes.
16        (18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices,
17    appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner
18    as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the
19    physician.
20        (19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
21    disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or
22    medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any
23    human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
24    licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
25        (20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act
26    including, but not limited to, commission of an act of

 

 

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1    sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.
2        (21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports
3    in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not
4    limited to, false records to support claims against the
5    medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare
6    and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
7    under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
8        (22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully
9    impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another
10    person to omit to file or record, medical reports as
11    required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance
12    of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
13        (23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
14    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
15    under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and
16    upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
17    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
18    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
19    Child Reporting Act.
20        (24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
21    corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those
22    representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.
23        (25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for
24    professional services, including filing false statements
25    for collection of fees for which services are not rendered,
26    including, but not limited to, filing such false statements

 

 

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1    for collection of monies for services not rendered from the
2    medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare
3    and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
4    under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
5        (26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
6    demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under
7    this Act.
8        (27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
9    inability to practice under this Act with reasonable
10    judgment, skill or safety.
11        (28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
12    deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
13    skill which results in a physician's inability to practice
14    under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
15        (29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
16    examinations administered under this Act.
17        (30) Wilfully or negligently violating the
18    confidentiality between physician and patient except as
19    required by law.
20        (31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive
21    statement in any document connected with practice under
22    this Act.
23        (32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed
24    under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed
25    under this Act.
26        (33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations

 

 

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1    relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or
2    ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
3        (34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse
4    final action taken against them by another licensing
5    jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the
6    United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
7    review body, by any health care institution, by any
8    professional society or association related to practice
9    under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law
10    enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct
11    similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds
12    for action as defined in this Section.
13        (35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
14    license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a
15    doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or
16    doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or
17    surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any
18    medical or professional association or society, while
19    under disciplinary investigation by any of those
20    authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts
21    or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as
22    defined in this Section.
23        (36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse
24    judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability
25    claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct
26    which would constitute grounds for action as defined in

 

 

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1    this Section.
2        (37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as
3    required by law.
4        (38) Failure to furnish the Department, its
5    investigators or representatives, relevant information,
6    legally requested by the Department after consultation
7    with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
8    Coordinator.
9        (39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
10    Act.
11        (40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is
12    required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
13        (41) Failure to establish and maintain records of
14    patient care and treatment as required by this law.
15        (42) (Blank). Entering into an excessive number of
16    written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced
17    practice nurses resulting in an inability to adequately
18    collaborate.
19        (43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a
20    licensed advanced practice nurse.
21        (44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical
22    Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
23        (45) Entering into an excessive number of written
24    collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing
25    psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately
26    collaborate.

 

 

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1        (46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a
2    licensed prescribing psychologist.
3    Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all
4proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status,
5or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may
6deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing
7grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by
8the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
9notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described
10herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and
11(29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the
12date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this
13Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a
14pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents
15alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior
16that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act
17received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the
18complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause
19of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final
20judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such
21claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the
22allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
23in providing care, the Department shall have an additional
24period of 2 years from the date of notification to the
25Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or
26final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal

 

 

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1disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
2as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder
3of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be
4included within any period of time limiting the commencement of
5disciplinary action by the Department.
6    The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court
7establishing that any person holding a license under this Act
8is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a
9suspension of that license. That person may resume their
10practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon
11a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been
12determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and
13upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be
14permitted to resume their practice.
15    The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary
16action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a
17return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed
18return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or
19interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the
20Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
21requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by
22the Illinois Department of Revenue.
23    The Department, upon the recommendation of the
24Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards
25to be used in determining:
26        (a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently

 

 

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1    rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;
2        (b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or
3    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
4    defraud, or harm the public;
5        (c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission
6    of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an
7    act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's
8    practice; and
9        (d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice
10    of medicine.
11    However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in
12any civil action except for review of a licensing or other
13disciplinary action under this Act.
14    In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the
15Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may
16compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual
17who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to
18practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing
19Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
20pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
21examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a
22substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by
23the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of
24the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall
25specifically designate the examining physician licensed to
26practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the

 

 

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1multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or
2physical examination and evaluation, or both. The
3multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to
4practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one
5or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice
6medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic
7physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical
8social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and
9other professional and administrative staff. Any examining
10physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require
11any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation
12pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional
13supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any
14examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited
15to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or
16neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the
17Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
18physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to
19provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the
20Licensing Board any and all records, including business
21records, that relate to the examination and evaluation,
22including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary
23Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the
24examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team
25to present testimony concerning this examination and
26evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant,

 

 

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1including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or
2documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No
3information, report, record, or other documents in any way
4related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by
5reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
6communication between the licensee, permit holder, or
7applicant and the examining physician or any member of the
8multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the
9licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an
10evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any
11member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information,
12reports, records, or other documents or to provide any
13testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The
14individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense,
15another physician of his or her choice present during all
16aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit
17to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when
18directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without
19hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the
20examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds
21a physician unable to practice following an examination and
22evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section,
23the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall require such
24physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
25physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or
26designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for

 

 

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1issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
2practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to
3Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated,
4renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms,
5conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such
6terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required
7program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the
8Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators,
9shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to
10whether the licensee shall have their license suspended
11immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In
12instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license
13under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must
14be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such
15suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
16Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the
17subject physician's record of treatment and counseling
18regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable
19federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
20confidentiality of medical records.
21    An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this
22Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the
23Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance
24with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
25of their license.
26    The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of

 

 

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1fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each
2violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with
3other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the
4exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of
5conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds
6collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Medical
7Disciplinary Fund.
8    All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within
960 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine
10or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing
11the fine.
12    (B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit
13issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic
14physician who has been convicted a second time of committing
15any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the
16Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who
17has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony
18under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A
19person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection
20B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating
21human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative
22surgery.
23    (C) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
24Department civil penalties and any other appropriate
25discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a
26physician willfully performed an abortion with actual

 

 

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1knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been
2performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as
3required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
4Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose,
5for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a
6second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
7(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-601, eff. 12-30-13;
898-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14.)
 
9    (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
10    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)
11    Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician
12assistants, advanced practice nurses, and prescribing
13psychologists.
14    (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
15branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
16physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
17requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. A
18physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may
19enter into supervising physician agreements with no more than 5
20physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section
217 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
22    (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
23branches in active clinical practice may collaborate and
24consult with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the
25requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for

 

 

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1the purpose of providing medical consultation, and no
2employment relationship is required. A written collaborative
3agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of
4the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement
5shall be for services the collaborating physician generally
6provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical
7practice. A written collaborative agreement shall be adequate
8with respect to collaboration with advanced practice nurses if
9all of the following apply:
10        (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of
11    professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse
12    commensurate with his or her education and experience. The
13    agreement need not describe the exact steps that an
14    advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each
15    specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify
16    those procedures that require a physician's presence as the
17    procedures are being performed.
18        (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and
19    approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and
20    collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice
21    of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the
22    patient services provided thereunder are periodically
23    reviewed by the collaborating physician.
24        (3) The advance practice nurse provides services the
25    collaborating physician generally provides or may provide
26    in his or her clinical medical practice, except as set

 

 

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1    forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to
2    labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must
3    provide delivery services in order to participate with a
4    certified nurse midwife.
5        (4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice
6    nurse consult at least once a month to provide
7    collaboration and consultation.
8        (5) Methods of communication are available with the
9    collaborating physician in person or through
10    telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and
11    referral as needed to address patient care needs.
12        (6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice
13    for termination or change of status involving a written
14    collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given
15    for just cause.
16    (b-5) (Blank). An anesthesiologist or physician licensed
17to practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a
18certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with
19Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of
20anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of
21anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or
22physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of
23anesthesia services consistent with Department rules.
24Collaboration shall be adequate if:
25        (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in
26    the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or

 

 

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1    guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the
2    services provided patients under such orders; and
3        (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or
4    physician participates through discussion of and agreement
5    with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and
6    available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia
7    services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of
8    emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia services in a
9    hospital shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.7
10    of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
11    treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the
12    Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.
13    (b-10) (Blank). The anesthesiologist or operating
14physician must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the
15delivery of services.
16    (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
17medical records of all patients attended by a physician
18assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to the
19medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced
20practice nurse.
21    (d) (Blank).
22    (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
23omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant,
24or advanced practice nurse solely on the basis of having signed
25a supervision agreement or guidelines for a physician assistant
26or providing consultation and collaboration with an advanced

 

 

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1practice nurse, issuing or a collaborative agreement, an order,
2a standing medical order, a standing delegation order, or other
3order or guideline authorizing a prescribing psychologist,
4physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse to perform
5acts, unless the physician has reason to believe the
6prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced
7practice nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts
8or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
9    (f) (Blank). A collaborating physician may, but is not
10required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced
11practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement,
12and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to
13the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
14    (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to,
15delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as
16part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of
17prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
18Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
19    (h) For the purposes of this Section, "generally provides
20or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means
21categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties,
22that the physician provides individually or through delegation
23to other persons so that the physician has the experience and
24ability to provide collaboration and consultation. This
25definition shall not be construed to prohibit an advanced
26practice nurse from providing primary health treatment or care

 

 

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1within the scope of his or her training and experience,
2including, but not limited to, health screenings, patient
3histories, physical examinations, women's health examinations,
4or school physicals that may be provided as part of the routine
5practice of an advanced practice nurse or on a volunteer basis.
6    (i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive
7authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written
8collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive
9authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of
10the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
11(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12;
1298-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14.)
 
13    Section 50. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing
14Sections 50-10, 65-30, 65-45, and 70-5 as follows:
 
15    (225 ILCS 65/50-10)   (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)
16    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
17    Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when
18used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this
19Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:
20    "Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of
21courses at a college, university, or approved school,
22customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from
23the calendar year.
24    "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has

 

 

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1met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM);
2(ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified
3registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse
4specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All
5advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State
6of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty
7credentials after their name.
8    "Approved program of professional nursing education" and
9"approved program of practical nursing education" are programs
10of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved
11by the Department under the provisions of this Act.
12    "Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the
13Secretary.
14    "Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health
15care professionals working together, each contributing one's
16respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive
17patient care.
18    "Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced
19practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health
20care professional.
21    "Credentialed" means the process of assessing and
22validating the qualifications of a health care professional.
23    "Current nursing practice update course" means a planned
24nursing education curriculum approved by the Department
25consisting of activities that have educational objectives,
26instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical

 

 

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1practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and
2updating content and specifically planned for those nurses
3previously licensed in the United States or its territories and
4preparing for reentry into nursing practice.
5    "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry
6under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
7    "Department" means the Department of Financial and
8Professional Regulation.
9    "Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who
10is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because
11of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written
12determination or written consent based on clinical evidence,
13including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a
14psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or
15her ability to deliver competent patient care.
16    "License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a
17registered professional nurse who has completed all
18requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except
19the certification examination and has applied to take the next
20available certification exam and received a temporary license
21from the Department.
22    "License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has
23passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam
24and has applied for a license from the Department. A
25license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic
26pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

 

 

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1    "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in
2all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
3    "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice
4podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
5    "Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a
6person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and
7practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a
8practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
9title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation
10"L.P.N.".
11    "Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts
12requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment judgement, and
13skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical
14nursing education program. Practical nursing includes
15assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered
16professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical
17nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician,
18dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care
19professional determined by the Department.
20    "Privileged" means the authorization granted by the
21governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or
22organization to provide specific patient care services within
23well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the
24credentialing process.
25    "Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse"
26means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under

 

 

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1this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a
2registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
3titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse"
4and the abbreviation, "R.N.".
5    "Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific
6process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a
7learned profession based on the understanding of the human
8condition across the life span and environment and includes all
9nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing
10act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills
11acquired by means of completion of an approved professional
12nursing education program. A registered professional nurse
13provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to
14individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes
15but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs,
16nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing
17evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of
18health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education,
19and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and
20treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice
21medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed
22podiatric physician, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed
23by a physician assistant in accordance with written guidelines
24required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or
25by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of
26this Act; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing

 

 

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1plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of
2individuals who assist the registered professional nurse
3implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing
4students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those
5acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or
6corrective measures.
7    "Professional assistance program for nurses" means a
8professional assistance program that meets criteria
9established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the
10Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment
11approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to
12practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance
13addiction.
14    "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
15Professional Regulation.
16    "Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good
17standing.
18    "Written collaborative agreement" means a written
19agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a
20collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician
21pursuant to Section 65-35.
22(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
23    (225 ILCS 65/65-30)
24    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
25    Sec. 65-30. APN scope of practice.

 

 

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1    (a) Advanced practice nursing by certified nurse
2practitioners, certified nurse anesthetists, certified nurse
3midwives, or clinical nurse specialists is based on knowledge
4and skills acquired throughout an advanced practice nurse's
5nursing education, training, and experience.
6    (b) Practice as an advanced practice nurse means a scope of
7nursing practice, with or without compensation, and includes
8the registered nurse scope of practice.
9    (c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse
10includes, but is not limited to, each of the following:
11        (1) Advanced nursing patient assessment and diagnosis.
12        (2) Ordering diagnostic and therapeutic tests and
13procedures, performing those tests and procedures when using
14health care equipment, and interpreting and using the results
15of diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures ordered by
16the advanced practice nurse or another health care
17professional.
18        (3) Ordering treatments, ordering or applying
19appropriate medical devices, and using nursing medical,
20therapeutic, and corrective measures to treat illness and
21improve health status.
22        (4) Providing palliative and end-of-life care.
23        (5) Providing advanced counseling, patient education,
24health education, and patient advocacy.
25        (6) Prescribing any Schedule II thorugh Schedule V
26controlled substance. Prescriptive authority as defined in

 

 

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1Section 65-40 of this Act.
2        (7) Delegating selected nursing activities or tasks to
3a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or
4other personnel.
5(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
6    (225 ILCS 65/65-45)   (was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)
7    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
8    Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals,
9hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.
10    (a) An advanced practice nurse may provide services in a
11hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in
12the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois
13Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center
14without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section
1565-35 of this Act. An advanced practice nurse must possess
16clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff
17and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff
18committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to
19provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff
20committee shall periodically review the services of advanced
21practice nurses granted clinical privileges, including any
22care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be
23granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and
24granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting
25medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment

 

 

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1center to individual advanced practice nurses to select, order,
2and administer medications, including controlled substances,
3to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate,
4or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending
5physician shall determine an advanced practice nurse's role in
6providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise
7provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee
8policies.
9    (a-2) (Blank). An advanced practice nurse granted
10authority to order medications including controlled substances
11may complete discharge prescriptions provided the prescription
12is in the name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending
13or discharging physician.
14    (a-3) (Blank). Advanced practice nurses practicing in a
15hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not
16required to obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to
17order controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the
18Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
19    (a-5) (Blank). For anesthesia services provided by a
20certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist,
21physician, dentist, or podiatric physician shall participate
22through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan
23and shall remain physically present and be available on the
24premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for
25diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
26conditions, unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to clause

 

 

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1(B) of subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital
2Licensing Act or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy
3adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section
46.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act provides
5otherwise. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may
6select, order, and administer medication for anesthesia
7services under the anesthesia plan agreed to by the
8anesthesiologist or the physician, in accordance with hospital
9alternative policy or the medical staff consulting committee
10policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.
11    (b) An advanced practice nurse who provides services in a
12hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the
13Hospital Licensing Act and, in an ambulatory surgical treatment
14center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory
15Surgical Treatment Center Act.
16(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
17    (225 ILCS 65/70-5)   (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)
18    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
19    Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.
20    (a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may
21revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
22disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
23deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per
24violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination
25of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines

 

 

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1collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing
2Dedicated and Professional Fund.
3    (b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:
4        (1) Material deception in furnishing information to
5    the Department.
6        (2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or
7    violation of the rules of or final administrative action of
8    the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation
9    of the Board.
10        (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
11    finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
12    sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
13    convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
14    conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
15    the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
16    is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
17    element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
18    to the practice of the profession.
19        (4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
20    demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under
21    this Act.
22        (5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in
23    violating any provision of this Act or rules.
24        (6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a
25    request for information in response to a written request
26    made by the Department by certified mail.

 

 

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1        (7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
2    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
3    defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.
4        (8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or
5    manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription
6    device.
7        (9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
8    narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
9    that could result in a licensee's inability to practice
10    with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
11        (10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or
12    foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the
13    discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
14    set forth in this Section.
15        (11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or
16    his license placed on probationary status or subject to
17    conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of
18    probation or failed to comply with such terms or
19    conditions.
20        (12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
21    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
22    and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and
23    upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
24    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
25    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
26    Child Reporting Act.

 

 

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1        (13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully
2    impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person
3    to omit to file or record medical reports as required by
4    law or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected
5    child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and
6    Neglected Child Reporting Act.
7        (14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical,
8    professional, or advanced practice nursing.
9        (15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under
10    any name other than one's own.
11        (16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department
12    any adverse final action taken against him or her by
13    another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any
14    foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health
15    care institution, any professional or nursing society or
16    association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement
17    agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related
18    to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would
19    constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.
20        (17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department
21    surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to
22    practice nursing or advanced practice nursing in another
23    state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee
24    of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or
25    advanced practice nursing or professional association or
26    society while under disciplinary investigation by any of

 

 

SB1315- 91 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to
2    acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as
3    defined by this Section.
4        (18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
5    response to a written request made by the Department.
6        (19) Failure to establish and maintain records of
7    patient care and treatment as required by law.
8        (20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying
9    for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection
10    with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
11        (21) Allowing another person or organization to use the
12    licensees' license to deceive the public.
13        (22) Willfully making or filing false records or
14    reports in the licensee's practice, including but not
15    limited to false records to support claims against the
16    medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare
17    and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
18    under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
19        (23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing
20    examination administered under this Act.
21        (24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act,
22    including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual
23    misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the
24    licensee's practice.
25        (25) Willfully or negligently violating the
26    confidentiality between nurse and patient except as

 

 

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1    required by law.
2        (26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except
3    as provided by law.
4        (27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive
5    statement in any document connected with the licensee's
6    practice.
7        (28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
8    a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a
9    fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for
10    professional services not actually or personally rendered.
11    Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide
12    independent contractor or employment arrangements among
13    health care professionals, health facilities, health care
14    providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
15    prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
16    provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
17    other employment benefits for the provision of services
18    within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
19    Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to
20    require an employment arrangement to receive professional
21    fees for services rendered.
22        (29) A violation of the Health Care Worker
23    Self-Referral Act.
24        (30) Physical illness, including but not limited to
25    deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
26    skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the

 

 

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1    inability to practice the profession with reasonable
2    judgment, skill, or safety.
3        (31) (Blank). Exceeding the terms of a collaborative
4    agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a
5    licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric
6    physician in guidelines established under a written
7    collaborative agreement.
8        (32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a
9    licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine,
10    treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course
11    of treatment.
12        (33) Prescribing, selling, administering,
13    distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug
14    classified as a controlled substance (designated product)
15    or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
16    purposes.
17        (34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices,
18    appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to
19    exploit the patient for financial gain.
20        (35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or
21    regulations relating to controlled substances.
22        (36) Willfully or negligently violating the
23    confidentiality between an advanced practice nurse,
24    collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician
25    and a patient, except as required by law.
26        (37) A violation of any provision of this Act or any

 

 

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1    rules promulgated under this Act.
2    (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
3subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
4provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
5Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The
6suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the
7patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or
8judicial admission and issues an order so finding and
9discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the
10Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume
11his or her practice.
12    (d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or
13otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to
14file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in
15a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax,
16penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by
17the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements
18of any such tax Act are satisfied.
19    (e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a
20showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual
21licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for
22licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
23examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the
24Department. The Department or Board may order the examining
25physician to present testimony concerning the mental or
26physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No

 

 

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1information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
2statutory privilege relating to communications between the
3licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
4examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
5Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at
6his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
7present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an
8individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when
9directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without
10hearing.
11    All substance-related violations shall mandate an
12automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an
13assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an
14addictionist or an advanced practice nurse with specialty
15certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic
16suspension, as defined by rule.
17    If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to
18practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in
19this Section, the Department or Board may require that
20individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or
21treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by
22the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction
23for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice;
24or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may
25file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a
26complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise

 

 

SB1315- 96 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose
2license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed,
3disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or
4restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms,
5conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary
6for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his
7or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the
8Department.
9    In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
10person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
11license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
12the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
13Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
14subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
15regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
16federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
17confidentiality of medical records.
18    An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
19this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
20the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance
21with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her
22license.
23(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
24    Section 55. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act
25is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
2    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
3    Sec. 3.1. Referrals.
4    (a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed
5occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate,
6evaluate, and monitor services for individuals, groups, and
7populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as
8indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section,
9implementation of direct occupational therapy treatment to
10individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be
11based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist,
12podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a
13written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
14to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational
15therapists, physician assistant who has been delegated
16authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed
17occupational therapists, or optometrist.
18    (b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing
19consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness,
20prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related
21ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations.
22    (c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider
23is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and
24youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy
25assistant provides services in a school-based or educational

 

 

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1environment, including the child's home.
2    (d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed
3physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse,
4physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose
5medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or
6treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of
7the occupational therapist.
8(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13;
998-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
10    Section 60. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics
11Practice Act is amended by changing Section 57 as follows:
 
12    (225 ILCS 84/57)
13    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
14    Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A
15licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide
16care or services only if the care or services are provided
17pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a
18podiatric physician, (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a
19written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
20or podiatric physician that specifically authorizes ordering
21the services of an orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist, or
22(iv) an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or
23ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses clinical
24privileges to order services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or

 

 

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1pedorthist, or (v) a physician assistant who has been delegated
2the authority to order the services of an orthotist,
3prosthetist, or pedorthist by his or her supervising physician.
4A licensed podiatric physician or advanced practice nurse
5collaborating with a podiatric physician may only order care or
6services concerning the foot from a licensed prosthetist.
7(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
8    Section 65. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by
9changing Section 4 as follows:
 
10    (225 ILCS 85/4)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)
11    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
12    Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of
13this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:
14    (a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to
15practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatric
16physician, veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically
17certified optometrist within the limits of his or her license,
18or prevent him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide
19patients such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him
20appropriate;
21    (b) the sale of compressed gases;
22    (c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and
23household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages
24only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household

 

 

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1remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and
2usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and
3nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the
4label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any
5compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which,
6according to the latest editions of the following authoritative
7pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United
8States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United
9States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the
10Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental
11Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective
12date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of
13the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the
14Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug
15Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is
16designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic,
17habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;
18    (d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original
19and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock
20medication;
21    (e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of
22poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal
23use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes;
24provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to
25content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the
26provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and

 

 

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1regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating
2thereto and governing the same, and those which are required
3under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with
4the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison"
5printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily
6obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;
7    (f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a
8physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to
9a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician
10Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under
11Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987
12may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled
13substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled
14Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision
15agreement; and
16    (g) (blank). the delegation of prescriptive authority by a
17physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or
18a licensed podiatric physician to an advanced practice nurse in
19accordance with a written collaborative agreement under
20Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
21(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 
22    Section 70. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by
23changing Section 1 as follows:
 
24    (225 ILCS 90/1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

 

 

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1    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
2    Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
3    (1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:
4        (A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who
5    may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental
6    impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or
7    other health and movement-related conditions, classifying
8    these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis
9    and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the
10    on-going effects of the interventions.
11        (B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations,
12    or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying
13    therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not
14    limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through
15    the use of the effective properties of physical measures
16    and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity,
17    sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic
18    exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures,
19    with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of
20    preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or
21    mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.
22        (C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment,
23    functional limitation, or disability, including the
24    promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and
25    wellness.
26        (D) Engaging in administration, consultation,

 

 

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1    education, and research.
2    Physical therapy includes, but is not limited to: (a)
3performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b)
4administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c)
5interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists,
6advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric
7physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical
8therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical
9medication used in generally accepted physical therapy
10procedures when such medication is prescribed by the patient's
11physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
12the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric
13medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's
14physician assistant, or the patient's dentist, and (f)
15supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy
16does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic
17technique or determination of a differential diagnosis;
18provided, however, the limitation on determining a
19differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical
20therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation
21pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a
22physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy
23techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform.
24A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician,
25advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or
26podiatric physician any patient whose medical condition

 

 

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1should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined
2to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.
3    (2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices
4physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided
5in this Act.
6    (3) "Department" means the Department of Professional
7Regulation.
8    (4) "Director" means the Director of Professional
9Regulation.
10    (5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and
11Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.
12    (6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for
13physical therapy services for a patient by a physician,
14dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or
15podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the
16patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's
17condition is such that it may be treated by a physical
18therapist.
19    (7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the
20purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by
21signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist,
22advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric
23physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be
24treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which
25diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the
26physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician

 

 

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1assistant, or podiatric physician.
2    (8) "State" includes:
3        (a) the states of the United States of America;
4        (b) the District of Columbia; and
5        (c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
6    (9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed
7to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements
8as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of
9a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the
10physical therapy treatment program as established by the
11licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities
12provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include
13the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the
14planning or major modification of patient programs.
15    (10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has
16received on the job training, specific to the facility in which
17he is employed, but who has not completed an approved physical
18therapist assistant program.
19    (11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as
20an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who has
21a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
22authorizes referrals to physical therapists.
23    (12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under
24the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been
25delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists.
26(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 75. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by
2changing Section 10 as follows:
 
3    (225 ILCS 106/10)
4    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
5    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
6    "Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse
7licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
8    "Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the
9Director.
10    "Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all
11of the following activities:
12         (1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment
13    used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a
14    licensed health care professional or other authorized
15    licensed personnel.
16        (2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of
17    respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care
18    professional or other authorized licensed personnel.
19        (3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through
20    non-invasive means, provided that the collection and
21    review does not include the individual's interpretation of
22    the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and
23    reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse
24    oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order

 

 

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1    to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health
2    care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel
3    in a timely manner.
4        (4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen
5    therapy in the proper position on the patient's face.
6        (5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen
7    therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use.
8        (6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by
9    physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the
10    oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb
11    syringe.
12        (7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency
13    resuscitation using a manual resuscitator.
14        (8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a
15    licensed health care professional or other authorized
16    licensed personnel who is present and performing routine
17    airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of
18    a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of
19    mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is
20    connected to the ventilator.
21"Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities
22that involve any of the following:
23        (1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of
24    education or training in respiratory care.
25        (2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the
26    patient.

 

 

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1        (3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning
2    patient care.
3        (4) The administration of aerosol medication or
4    oxygen.
5        (5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial
6    airway.
7        (6) Mechanical ventilatory support.
8        (7) Patient assessment.
9        (8) Patient education.
10    "Department" means the Department of Professional
11Regulation.
12    "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.
13    "Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself out
14as a respiratory care practitioner as defined in this Act.
15    "Licensed health care professional" means a physician
16licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced
17practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
18collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice
19nurse to transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner, or
20a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
21transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner by his or
22her supervising physician.
23    "Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated
24authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by
25(i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical
26supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies

 

 

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1that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by
2a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered
3nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical
4treatment center.
5    "Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed
6respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or
7a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes
8the professional to supervise an individual who is not
9licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional.
10    "Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an
11individual is responsible for directing the actions of another
12individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be
13readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.
14    "Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care" mean
15preventative services, evaluation and assessment services,
16therapeutic services, and rehabilitative services under the
17order of a licensed health care professional or a certified
18registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital for an
19individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the
20cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not
21limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring
22signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general
23physical response of individuals to respiratory care services,
24including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms,
25reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit
26abnormal characteristics; the administration of

 

 

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1pharmacological and therapeutic agents related to respiratory
2care services; the collection of blood specimens and other
3bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of,
4cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but
5not limited to, blood gas analysis; development,
6implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment
7plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary
8system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a
9licensed health care professional; application, operation, and
10management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of
11life support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under
12the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care
13practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice
14medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at
15the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond
16the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.
17    "Respiratory care education program" means a course of
18academic study leading to eligibility for registry or
19certification in respiratory care. The training is to be
20approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and
21shall include an evaluation of competence through a
22standardized testing mechanism that is determined by the Board
23to be both valid and reliable.
24    "Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is
25licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation and meets
26all of the following criteria:

 

 

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1        (1) The person is engaged in the practice of
2    cardiorespiratory care and has the knowledge and skill
3    necessary to administer respiratory care.
4        (2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to
5    the licensed health care professional in relation to the
6    technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe
7    and effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory
8    care modalities.
9        (3) The person is able to function in situations of
10    unsupervised patient contact requiring great individual
11    judgment.
12(Source: P.A. 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
13    Section 80. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended
14by changing Sections 10, 20, and 95 as follows:
 
15    (225 ILCS 135/10)
16    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)
17    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
18    "ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling.
19    "ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics.
20    "Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have
21received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their
22respective certification examinations.
23    "Address of record" means the designated address recorded
24by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application

 

 

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1file or license file as maintained by the Department's
2licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or
3licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and
4those changes must be made either through the Department's
5website or by contacting the Department.
6    "Department" means the Department of Financial and
7Professional Regulation.
8    "Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA
9that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease
10or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes
11a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic
12anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition
13or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who
14is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced
15condition.
16    "Genetic counseling" means the provision of services,
17which may include the ordering of genetic tests, pursuant to a
18referral, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and
19organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals
20to address the physical and psychological issues associated
21with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a
22genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially
23inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual
24or a family. "Genetic counseling" consists of the following:
25        (A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or
26    recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially

 

 

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1    inherited or genetically influenced condition. This
2    assessment may involve:
3            (i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health
4        history of the person and his or her family;
5            (ii) reviewing pertinent medical records;
6            (iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to
7        possible mutagens or teratogens;
8            (iv) recommending genetic testing or other
9        evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the
10        carrier status of one or more family members;
11        (B) Helping the individual, family, health care
12    provider, or health care professional (i) appreciate the
13    medical, psychological and social implications of a
14    disorder, including its features, variability, usual
15    course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic
16    factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance
17    for recurrence of the condition in other family members,
18    and (iii) understand available options for coping with,
19    preventing, or reducing the chance of occurrence or
20    recurrence of a condition.
21        (C) Facilitating an individual's or family's (i)
22    exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated
23    with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the
24    condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for
25    psychological, social, and medical support.
26    "Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act

 

 

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1to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.
2    "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or
3analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes,
4proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations,
5chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including
6carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental
7disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to
8illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether
9physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal
10damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and
11"genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements;
12chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and
13in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for
14the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of
15proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes,
16mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or
17deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are
18directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or
19pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a
20health care professional with appropriate training and
21expertise in the field of medicine involved.
22    "Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or
23corporation.
24    "Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed
25genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed
26to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified

 

 

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1supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or
2may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The
3qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with the
4Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of
5a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or
6assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor.
7    "Referral" means a written or telecommunicated
8authorization for genetic counseling services from a physician
9licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced
10practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a
11collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic
12counselor, or a physician assistant who has a supervision
13agreement with a supervising physician that authorizes
14referrals to a genetic counselor.
15    "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
16Professional Regulation.
17    "Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic
18counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the
19person under supervision.
20(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
21    (225 ILCS 135/20)
22    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)
23    Sec. 20. Restrictions and limitations.
24    (a) Except as provided in Section 15, no person shall,
25without a valid license as a genetic counselor issued by the

 

 

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1Department (i) in any manner hold himself or herself out to the
2public as a genetic counselor under this Act; (ii) use in
3connection with his or her name or place of business the title
4"genetic counselor", "licensed genetic counselor", "gene
5counselor", "genetic consultant", or "genetic associate" or
6any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or
7implying a person has met the qualifications for or has the
8license issued under this Act; or (iii) offer to render or
9render to individuals, corporations, or the public genetic
10counseling services if the words "genetic counselor" or
11"licensed genetic counselor" are used to describe the person
12offering to render or rendering them, or "genetic counseling"
13is used to describe the services rendered or offered to be
14rendered.
15    (b) No licensed genetic counselor may provide genetic
16counseling to individuals, couples, groups, or families
17without a referral from a physician licensed to practice
18medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who
19has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
20that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor, or a
21physician assistant who has been delegated authority to make
22referrals to genetic counselors. The physician, advanced
23practice nurse, or physician assistant shall maintain
24supervision of the patient and be provided timely written
25reports on the services, including genetic testing results,
26provided by the licensed genetic counselor. Genetic testing

 

 

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1shall be ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine
2in all its branches or a genetic counselor pursuant to a
3referral that gives the specific authority to order genetic
4tests. Genetic test results and reports shall be provided to
5the referring physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
6assistant. General seminars or talks to groups or organizations
7on genetic counseling that do not include individual, couple,
8or family specific counseling may be conducted without a
9referral. In clinical settings, genetic counselors who serve as
10a liaison between family members of a patient and a genetic
11research project, may, with the consent of the patient, provide
12information to family members for the purpose of gathering
13additional information, as it relates to the patient, without a
14referral. In non-clinical settings where no patient is being
15treated, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between a
16genetic research project and participants in that genetic
17research project may provide information to the participants,
18without a referral.
19    (c) No association or partnership shall practice genetic
20counseling unless every member, partner, and employee of the
21association or partnership who practices genetic counseling or
22who renders genetic counseling services holds a valid license
23issued under this Act. No license shall be issued to a
24corporation, the stated purpose of which includes or which
25practices or which holds itself out as available to practice
26genetic counseling, unless it is organized under the

 

 

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1Professional Service Corporation Act.
2    (d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as permitting
3persons licensed as genetic counselors to engage in any manner
4in the practice of medicine in all its branches as defined by
5law in this State.
6    (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a
7licensed genetic counselor to diagnose, test (unless
8authorized in a referral), or treat any genetic or other
9disease or condition.
10    (f) When, in the course of providing genetic counseling
11services to any person, a genetic counselor licensed under this
12Act finds any indication of a disease or condition that in his
13or her professional judgment requires professional service
14outside the scope of practice as defined in this Act, he or she
15shall refer that person to a physician licensed to practice
16medicine in all of its branches.
17(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
18    (225 ILCS 135/95)
19    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)
20    Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
21    (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may
22revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
23disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department
24deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to
25exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license

 

 

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1for any one or more of the following:
2        (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
3    the Department or to any other State agency.
4        (2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard
5    of this Act, or any of its rules.
6        (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
7    finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or
8    sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions,
9    preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge,
10    or first offender probation, under the laws of any
11    jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or
12    (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which
13    is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice
14    of genetic counseling.
15        (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
16    obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act
17    or its rules.
18        (5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling
19    services.
20        (6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any
21    requested information to a referring physician licensed to
22    practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice
23    nurse, or physician assistant.
24        (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
25    provision of this Act or any rules.
26        (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in

 

 

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1    response to a written request made by the Department.
2        (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
3    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
4    defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of
5    professional conduct adopted by the Department.
6        (10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any
7    information received from a client, unless otherwise
8    authorized or required by law.
9        (10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services
10    provided and provide copies to clients upon request.
11        (11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage,
12    profit, or interest.
13        (12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
14    narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
15    which results in inability to practice with reasonable
16    skill, judgment, or safety.
17        (13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit
18    of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or
19    by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the
20    discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
21    set forth in this Section.
22        (14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
23    any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association
24    any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation
25    for any professional service not actually rendered.
26    Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide

 

 

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1    independent contractor or employment arrangements among
2    health care professionals, health facilities, health care
3    providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
4    prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
5    provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
6    other employment benefits for the provision of services
7    within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
8    Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to
9    require an employment arrangement to receive professional
10    fees for services rendered.
11        (15) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
12    after having the license placed on probationary status has
13    violated the terms of probation.
14        (16) Failing to refer a client to other health care
15    professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to
16    adequately support or serve the client.
17        (17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a
18    licensee's practice, including but not limited to false
19    records filed with federal or State agencies or
20    departments.
21        (18) Willfully failing to report an instance of
22    suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused
23    and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
24        (19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
25    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
26    pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act,

 

 

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1    and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
2    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
3    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
4    Child Reporting Act.
5        (20) Physical or mental disability, including
6    deterioration through the aging process or loss of
7    abilities and skills which results in the inability to
8    practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill,
9    or safety.
10        (21) Solicitation of professional services by using
11    false or misleading advertising.
12        (22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax,
13    penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any
14    final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required
15    by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of
16    Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue
17    Service or any successor agency.
18        (23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying
19    for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection
20    with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
21        (24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name
22    other than the full name as shown on the license or any
23    other legally authorized name.
24        (25) Gross overcharging for professional services,
25    including filing statements for collection of fees or
26    monies for which services are not rendered.

 

 

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1        (26) Providing genetic counseling services to
2    individuals, couples, groups, or families without a
3    referral from either a physician licensed to practice
4    medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse
5    who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating
6    physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to
7    make referrals to a genetic counselor, or a physician
8    assistant who has been delegated authority to make
9    referrals to genetic counselors.
10        (27) Charging for professional services not rendered,
11    including filing false statements for the collection of
12    fees for which services are not rendered.
13        (28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used
14    by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
15    (b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any
16application or renewal for a license under this Act to any
17person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by
18the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the
19Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in
20default has established a satisfactory repayment record as
21determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.
22    (c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject
23to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in
24the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will
25result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The
26suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee

 

 

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1is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial
2admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging
3the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the
4licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.
5    (d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may
6suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to
7file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a
8filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax,
9penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the
10payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of
11Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in
12accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
13Administrative Code of Illinois.
14    (e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
15Services has previously determined that a licensee or a
16potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the
17payment of child support and has subsequently certified the
18delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to
19issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license
20or may take other disciplinary action against that person based
21solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the
22Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with
23item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department
24of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code
25of Illinois.
26    (f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be

 

 

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1paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order
2imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set
3forth in the order imposing the fine.
4(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
5    Section 85. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders
6Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10
7as follows:
 
8    (405 ILCS 95/10)
9    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
10    "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the
11Hospital Licensing Act.
12    "Licensed health care professional" means a physician
13licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced
14practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a
15collaborating physician that authorizes care, or a physician's
16assistant who has been delegated authority to provide care.
17    "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health
18care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the
19infant or mother.
20    "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health
21care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before
22birth.
23    "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a
24licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental

 

 

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1health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression
2Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck
3Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or
4other validated assessment methods.
5(Source: P.A. 95-469, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
6    Section 90. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by
7changing Section 6.2 as follows:
 
8    (410 ILCS 45/6.2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
9    Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.
10    (a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
11branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6
12years of age or younger shall test those children for lead
13poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high
14risk by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as
15low risk by the Department shall be evaluated for risk by the
16Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed by the Department
17and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in
18accordance with rules adopted by the Department.
19    (b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care
20facility serving children 6 years of age or younger, including,
21but not limited to, health departments, hospitals, clinics, and
22health maintenance organizations approved, registered, or
23licensed by the Department, shall take the appropriate steps to
24ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for

 

 

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1risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.
2    (c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may
3also be tested by physicians or health care providers, in
4accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and
5health care providers shall also evaluate children for lead
6poisoning in conjunction with the school health examination, as
7required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment
8judgement of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a
9written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
10that authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health
11examinations, or physician assistant who has been delegated to
12perform health examinations by the supervising physician, the
13child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.
14    (d) (Blank).
15(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
 
16    Section 95. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency
17Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 2.2, 5, and 5.5
18as follows:
 
19    (410 ILCS 70/2.2)
20    Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.
21    (a) The General Assembly finds:
22        (1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse cause
23    significant physical, emotional, and psychological trauma
24    to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's

 

 

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1    fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result
2    of the sexual assault.
3        (2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the
4    United States as the result of rape and approximately 50%
5    of these pregnancies end in abortion.
6        (3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug
7    Administration (FDA), emergency contraception can
8    significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within
9    72 hours after the sexual assault.
10        (4) By providing emergency contraception to rape
11    victims in a timely manner, the trauma of rape can be
12    significantly reduced.
13    (b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this
14amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, every hospital
15providing services to sexual assault survivors in accordance
16with a plan approved under Section 2 must develop a protocol
17that ensures that each survivor of sexual assault will receive
18medically and factually accurate and written and oral
19information about emergency contraception; the indications and
20counter-indications and risks associated with the use of
21emergency contraception; and a description of how and when
22victims may be provided emergency contraception upon the
23written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in
24all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written
25collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
26authorizes prescription of emergency contraception, or a

 

 

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1physician assistant who has been delegated authority to
2prescribe emergency contraception. The Department shall
3approve the protocol if it finds that the implementation of the
4protocol would provide sufficient protection for survivors of
5sexual assault.
6    The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by
7the Department. The Department shall adopt rules and
8regulations establishing one or more safe harbor protocols and
9setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that hospitals
10may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any
11protocol that meets those standards. The Department may provide
12a sample acceptable protocol upon request.
13(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
14    (410 ILCS 70/5)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)
15    Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing
16hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual
17assault survivors.
18    (a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services
19and forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this
20Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide,
21with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered
22by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse who has
23a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
24physician that authorizes provision of emergency services, or a
25physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide

 

 

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1hospital emergency services and forensic services, the
2following:
3        (1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory
4    tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of
5    a sexual assault survivor or which may be used as evidence
6    in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the
7    sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such
8    examinations and tests shall be maintained by the hospital
9    and made available to law enforcement officials upon the
10    request of the sexual assault survivor;
11        (2) appropriate oral and written information
12    concerning the possibility of infection, sexually
13    transmitted disease and pregnancy resulting from sexual
14    assault;
15        (3) appropriate oral and written information
16    concerning accepted medical procedures, medication, and
17    possible contraindications of such medication available
18    for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease
19    resulting from sexual assault;
20        (4) an amount of medication for treatment at the
21    hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by
22    the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a
23    physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's
24    current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;
25        (5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk
26    of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the

 

 

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1    sexual assault;
2        (6) written and oral instructions indicating the need
3    for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the
4    sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of
5    sexually transmitted disease;
6        (7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate
7    counseling; and
8        (8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an
9    initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with
10    written and oral instructions indicating the importance of
11    timely follow-up healthcare.
12    (b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks
13emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up
14healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services
15without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian,
16surrogate, or agent.
17    (c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient
18relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital
19emergency department.
20(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-318, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
21    (410 ILCS 70/5.5)
22    Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up
23healthcare.
24    (a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory,
25or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual

 

 

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1assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault
2survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced
3practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
4collaborating physician, or physician assistant who has been
5delegated authority by a supervising physician shall be
6reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided.
7Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to,
8the following:
9        (1) a physical examination;
10        (2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or
11    absence of sexually transmitted disease; and
12        (3) appropriate medications, including HIV
13    prophylaxis.
14    (b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office
15visits with a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
16assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital
17emergency services.
18    (c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health
19care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide
20follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.
21(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
22    Section 100. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures
23Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, and 3 as
24follows:
 

 

 

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1    (410 ILCS 210/1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)
2    Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of
3a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to
4practice medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who
5has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
6physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or
7a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to
8provide services for minors executed by a married person who is
9a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by a pregnant woman who is
10a minor, or by any person 18 years of age or older, is not
11voidable because of such minority, and, for such purpose, a
12married person who is a minor, a parent who is a minor, a
13pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 years of age or
14older, is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has
15the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.
16(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
 
17    (410 ILCS 210/1.5)
18    Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care
19services.
20    (a) The consent to the performance of primary care services
21by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
22branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written
23collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
24authorizes provision of services for minors, or a physician
25assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services

 

 

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1for minors executed by a minor seeking care is not voidable
2because of such minority, and for such purpose, a minor seeking
3care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has
4the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age
5under the following circumstances:
6        (1) the health care professional reasonably believes
7    that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and
8    risks of any proposed primary care or services; and
9        (2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as
10    a minor seeking care by:
11            (A) an adult relative;
12            (B) a representative of a homeless service agency
13        that receives federal, State, county, or municipal
14        funding to provide those services or that is otherwise
15        sanctioned by a local continuum of care;
16            (C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this
17        State;
18            (D) a public school homeless liaison or school
19        social worker;
20            (E) a social service agency providing services to
21        at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or
22            (F) a representative of a religious organization.
23    (b) A health care professional rendering primary care
24services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal
25liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional
26discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she

 

 

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1relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor
2or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection
3(a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall
4be presumed.
5    (c) The confidential nature of any communication between a
6health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and
7a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the
8time of communication, of any additional persons present at the
9request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care
10professional's disclosure of confidential information to the
11additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care,
12when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which
13the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care
14professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under
15which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has
16coverage for the services provided.
17    (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or
18expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any
19federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be
20construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of
211995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of
22a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or
23otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a
24minor in their absence.
25    (e) For the purposes of this Section:
26        "Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years

 

 

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1    of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate
2    and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian,
3    whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal
4    guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the
5    residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal
6    affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who
7    are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or
8    guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
9    Services.
10        "Primary care services" means health care services
11    that include screening, counseling, immunizations,
12    medication, and treatment of illness and conditions
13    customarily provided by licensed health care professionals
14    in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not
15    include invasive care, beyond standard injections,
16    laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.
17(Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14.)
 
18    (410 ILCS 210/2)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)
19    Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may
20consent to the performance upon his or her child of a medical
21or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice
22medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a
23written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
24that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a
25physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide

 

 

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1services for minors or a dental procedure by a licensed
2dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall not be
3voidable because of such minority, but, for such purpose, a
4parent who is a minor shall be deemed to have the same legal
5capacity to act and shall have the same powers and obligations
6as has a person of legal age.
7(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
 
8    (410 ILCS 210/3)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)
9    Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to
10practice medicine or surgery, an advanced practice nurse who
11has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
12physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or
13a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to
14provide services for minors renders emergency treatment or
15first aid or a licensed dentist renders emergency dental
16treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent or legal
17guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the
18physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant,
19dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not
20reasonably feasible under the circumstances without adversely
21affecting the condition of such minor's health.
22    (b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal
23sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault,
24criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or
25criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through

 

 

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111-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent of the
2minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to
3authorize a hospital, physician, advanced practice nurse,
4physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish
5medical care or counseling related to the diagnosis or
6treatment of any disease or injury arising from such offense.
7The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis or
8treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of
9majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to
10later disaffirmance, because of minority.
11(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
 
12    Section 105. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended
13by changing Section 2 as follows:
 
14    (410 ILCS 225/2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)
15    Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
16context otherwise requires:
17    "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means an advanced
18practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a
19written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
20that authorizes the provision of prenatal and newborn care.
21    "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
22Services.
23    "Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment
24(EPSDT)" means the provision of preventative health care under

 

 

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142 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq., including medical and dental
2services, needed to assess growth and development and detect
3and treat health problems.
4    "Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital
5Licensing Act.
6    "Local health authority" means the full-time official
7health department or board of health, as recognized by the
8Illinois Department of Public Health, having jurisdiction over
9a particular area.
10    "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
11Act.
12    "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice
13medicine in all of its branches.
14    "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed
15under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been
16delegated authority to provide prenatal and newborn care.
17    "Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with
18reference to the newborn.
19    "Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.
20    "Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program
21established pursuant to this Act.
22(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
23    Section 110. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by
24changing Section 3 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (410 ILCS 305/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)
2    Sec. 3. When used in this Act:
3    (a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
4    (b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information
5Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health
6Information Exchange and Technology Act.
7    (c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it
8under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
9    (d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under
10HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
11    (e) "De-identified information" means health information
12that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA,
13as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).
14    (f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public
15Health or its designated agents.
16    (g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under
17HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
18    (h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it
19under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
20    (i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed
21physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician
22assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision
23of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced
24practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative
25agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the
26provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iv) a

 

 

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1licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vi)
2an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling
3by a state or local public health department.
4    (j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it
5under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
6    (k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood
7bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care
8institution, including any "health facility" as that term is
9defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.
10    (l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health
11information exchange or health information organization that
12oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health
13information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois
14Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any
15subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules
16adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing
17arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013,
18was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was
19represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health
20Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation
21shall not require the establishment of a data sharing
22arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health
23Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain
24circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a
25business associate.
26    (m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to

 

 

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1it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
2    (n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and
3Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by
4the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical
5Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent
6amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
7    (o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus.
8    (p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a
9person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an
10HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription
11information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including
12such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related
13information" does not include information that has been
14de-identified in accordance with HIPAA.
15    (q) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal agreement
16by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized
17representative without undue inducement or any element of
18force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or
19coercion, which entails at least the following pre-test
20information:
21        (1) a fair explanation of the test, including its
22    purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of
23    its results;
24        (2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be
25    followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the
26    right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any

 

 

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1    time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law
2    with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of
3    test results, and the right to confidential treatment of
4    information identifying the subject of the test and the
5    results of the test, to the extent provided by law; and
6        (3) where the person providing informed consent is a
7    participant in an HIE, a fair explanation that the results
8    of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE
9    and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right
10    under Section 9.6 of this Act.
11    Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally,
12or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be
13offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and
14decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health
15care provider or health care professional from combining a form
16used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used
17to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other
18medical test or procedure provided that the forms make it clear
19that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or
20medical procedures without being required to consent to HIV
21testing and clearly explain how the subject may opt out of HIV
22testing.
23    (r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under
24HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).
25    (s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using,
26disclosing, and requesting protected health information found

 

 

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1in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).
2    (t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning
3ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
4    (u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to
5it under 42 CFR 3.20.
6    (v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA,
7as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
8    (w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership,
9association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public
10or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.
11    (x) "Protected health information" has the meaning
12ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
13    (y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA,
14as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
15    (z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of
16Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that,
17pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an
18instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect
19the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.
20    (aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the
21presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV
22infection.
23    (bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under
24HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
25    (cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
26specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
2    Section 115. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease
3Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:
 
4    (410 ILCS 325/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)
5    Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
6context clearly requires otherwise:
7    (1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
8    (2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official
9health department of board of health, as recognized by the
10Department, having jurisdiction over a particular area.
11    (3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial,
12viral, fungal or parasitic disease, determined by rule of the
13Department to be sexually transmissible, to be a threat to the
14public health and welfare, and to be a disease for which a
15legitimate public interest will be served by providing for
16regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to
17be designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department
18shall consider such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea,
19granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma venereum, genital herpes
20simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), pelvic
21inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute Salpingitis, syphilis,
22Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human
23Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall
24consider the recommendations and classifications of the

 

 

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1Centers for Disease Control and other nationally recognized
2medical authorities. Not all diseases that are sexually
3transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.
4    (4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed
5to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant
6who has been delegated the provision of sexually transmissible
7disease therapy services or expedited partner therapy services
8by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice
9nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
10collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of
11sexually transmissible disease therapy services or expedited
12partner therapy services, or an advanced practice nurse who
13practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center
14and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance
15with the Nurse Practice Act.
16    (5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe,
17dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription
18antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons
19clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible
20disease, without physical examination of the partner or
21partners.
22(Source: P.A. 96-613, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
23    (410 ILCS 325/4)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)
24    Sec. 4. Reporting required.
25    (a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the

 

 

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1Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse
2licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act who has
3a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
4physician that authorizes the provision of services for a
5sexually transmissible disease, or a physician assistant
6licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant
7Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to
8provide services for a sexually transmissible disease who makes
9a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually transmissible
10disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually
11transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result
12shall report such facts as may be required by the Department by
13rule, within such time period as the Department may require by
14rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.
15    (b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the
16information required in reporting a sexually transmissible
17disease, the method of reporting and specifying a minimum time
18period for reporting. In adopting such rules, the Department
19shall consider the need for information, protections for the
20privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the practical
21abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable
22fashion.
23    (c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates
24any false information or report concerning the existence of any
25sexually transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of
26a Class A misdemeanor.

 

 

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1    (d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section
2or the rules adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department
3up to $500 for each violation. The Department shall report each
4violation of this Section to the regulatory agency responsible
5for licensing a health care professional or a laboratory to
6which these provisions apply.
7(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
8    Section 120. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by
9changing Section 5 as follows:
 
10    (410 ILCS 335/5)
11    Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
12    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
13    "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to
14practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant
15who has been delegated the provision of health services by his
16or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice
17registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with
18a collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of
19health services.
20    "Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or
21other institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to
22deliver health care services.
23    "Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or
24labor or delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn

 

 

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1infant, including hospitalization.
2(Source: P.A. 93-566, eff. 8-20-03; 94-910, eff. 6-23-06.)
 
3    Section 125. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended
4by changing Section 10 as follows:
 
5    (410 ILCS 513/10)
6    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
7    "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange
8Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health
9Information Exchange and Technology Act.
10    "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under
11HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
12    "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under
13HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
14    "De-identified information" means health information that
15is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as
16specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).
17    "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
18specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
19    "Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local
20government, and any board, commission, department,
21institution, or school district, any party to a public
22contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee
23within the State, and every other person employing employees
24within the State.

 

 

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1    "Employment agency" means both public and private
2employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or
3labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly
4undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure
5opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place
6employees.
7    "Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i)
8the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the
9individual, including a child who is born to or placed for
10adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying
11as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all
12other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or
13the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii)
14of this definition.
15    "Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under
16HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
17    "Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of
18employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic
19material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased
20occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course
21of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the
22workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to
23effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the
24workplace.
25    "Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under
26HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

 

 

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1    "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning
2ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR
3160.103.
4    "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it
5under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
6    "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician,
7(ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's
8supervising physician has delegated the provision of genetic
9testing or genetic counseling-related services, (iii) an
10advanced practice registered nurse who has a written
11collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which
12authorizes the provision of genetic testing or genetic
13counseling-related health services, (iv) a licensed dentist,
14(v) a licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic counselor,
15or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic testing by
16a state or local public health department.
17    "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under
18HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
19    "Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood
20center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including
21any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois
22Finance Authority Act.
23    "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health
24information exchange or health information organization that
25exchanges health information electronically that (i) is
26established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information

 

 

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1Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments
2thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder;
3(ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the
4Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by
5the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the
6Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange
7Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the
8establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other
9participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or
10the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance
11with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.
12    "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it
13under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
14    "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and
15Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by
16the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical
17Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent
18amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
19    "Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the
20jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a managed
21care plan.
22    "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor
23union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated
24association designed to further the cause of the rights of
25union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in
26part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers

 

 

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1concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or
2apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of
3other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment,
4including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.
5    "Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee,
6council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in
7this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant,
8deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a
9license or certificate of registration.
10    "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under
11HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).
12    "Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes,
13operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that
14have entered into agreements with the plan to provide health
15care services to enrollees where the plan has the ultimate and
16direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for
17the provision of or pay for services through:
18        (1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality
19    assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute
20    resolution; or
21        (2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the
22    plan to use the participating providers and procedures
23    covered by the plan.
24    A managed care plan may be established or operated by any
25entity including a licensed insurance company, hospital or
26medical service plan, health maintenance organization, limited

 

 

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1health service organization, preferred provider organization,
2third party administrator, or an employer or employee
3organization.
4    "Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using,
5disclosing, and requesting protected health information found
6in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).
7    "Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not
8intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the
9individual whom the information concerns.
10    "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning
11ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
12    "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it
13under 42 CFR 3.20.
14    "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
15specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
16    "Person" includes any natural person, partnership,
17association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public
18or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.
19    "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to
20it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103.
21    "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
22specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
23    "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of
24Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which
25pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an
26instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect

 

 

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1the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons.
2    "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
3specified in 45 CFR 164.501.
4    "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as
5specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.
6(Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15.)
 
7    Section 130. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation
8and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as
9follows:
 
10    (410 ILCS 642/10)
11    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
12    "Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or
13advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act,
14who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in
15this State.
16    "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to
17practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice
18nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
19collaborating physician that authorizes services under this
20Act, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the
21authority to perform services under this Act by his or her
22supervising physician.
23    "Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in
24Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home

 

 

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1Nursing Agency Licensing Act.
2    "Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of
3the Hospice Program Licensing Act.
4    "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical
5Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.
6(Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07;
795-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
8    Section 135. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
9changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, and 6-901 as
10follows:
 
11    (625 ILCS 5/1-159.1)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)
12    Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person
13who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a physician
14assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this
15determination by his or her supervising physician, or by an
16advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
17agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
18advanced practice nurse to make this determination: (1) cannot
19walk without the use of, or assistance from, a brace, cane,
20crutch, another person, prosthetic device, wheelchair, or
21other assistive device; (2) is restricted by lung disease to
22such an extent that his or her forced (respiratory) expiratory
23volume for one second, when measured by spirometry, is less
24than one liter, or the arterial oxygen tension is less than 60

 

 

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1mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) uses portable oxygen; (4) has a
2cardiac condition to the extent that the person's functional
3limitations are classified in severity as Class III or Class
4IV, according to standards set by the American Heart
5Association; (5) is severely limited in the person's ability to
6walk due to an arthritic, neurological, oncological, or
7orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet without stopping
8to rest because of one of the above 5 conditions; or (7) is
9missing a hand or arm or has permanently lost the use of a hand
10or arm.
11(Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14.)
 
12    (625 ILCS 5/3-616)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)
13    Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.
14    (a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of
15registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a
16motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than
178,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees
18required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a
19person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State,
20if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates
21as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with
22disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not
23be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under
24subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further
25provided that any person making such a request must submit a

 

 

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1statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a physician
2assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this
3certification by his or her supervising physician, or by an
4advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
5agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
6advanced practice nurse to make this certification, to the
7effect that such person is a person with disabilities as
8defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively
9provide adequate documentation that such person has a Class 1A,
10Class 2A or Type Four disability under the provisions of
11Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For
12purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability
13Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois
14Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon
15named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such
16a disability.
17    (b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to
18a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the
19person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability
20as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card
21Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section
221-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered
23in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities
24relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for
25transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered
26under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in

 

 

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1writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person
2requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit
3such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's,
4or advanced practice nurse's statement as is required in
5subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances
6qualifying for issuance of special plates under this
7subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual
8Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
9Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person
10with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.
11    (c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a
12person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without
13regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a
14driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person
15with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided
16such person with disabilities making such a request has been
17issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
18indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or
19Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement
20certified by a licensed physician, or by a physician assistant
21or an advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), to
22the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as
23defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class
242A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
25Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person
26with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this

 

 

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1subsection.
2    (d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations
3procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the
4eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than
5permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices
6issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided
7under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates,
8decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to
9or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person
10is certified as meeting the definition of a person with
11disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the
12requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section
134A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of
14time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced
15practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the
16applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months
17from the date of certification or recertification.
18    (e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section
19may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as
20provided under Section 3-405.1.
21    (f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue
22disability registration plates or a parking decal to
23corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies,
24limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent
25homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport
26persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by

 

 

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1rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of
2organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to
3designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall
4be placed on qualifying vehicles.
5    (g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into
6agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign
7jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the
8extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to
9permanently disabled residents of this State who display a
10special license plate or parking device that contains the
11International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and
12to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other
13jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking
14privileges which are granted to disabled residents of this
15State to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in
16another state, district, territory or foreign country if such
17vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a
18distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device
19issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state,
20district, territory or foreign country.
21(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)
 
22    (625 ILCS 5/6-103)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)
23    Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers
24or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue,
25renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue

 

 

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1any permit under this Code:
2        1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of
3    18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except
4    that an instruction permit may be issued under Section
5    6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if
6    the child is enrolled in an approved driver education
7    course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
8    requires an instruction permit to participate therein,
9    except that an instruction permit may be issued under the
10    provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years
11    and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an
12    approved driver education course and except that an
13    instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least
14    15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets
15    the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act,
16    and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his
17    or her discretion may prescribe;
18        1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less
19    than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to
20    any other requirements of this Code, successfully
21    completed an adult driver education course as provided in
22    Section 6-107.5 of this Code;
23        2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an
24    operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle
25    unless the person has, in addition to meeting the
26    provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully

 

 

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1    completed a motorcycle training course approved by the
2    Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully
3    completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle
4    driver's examination;
5        3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license
6    or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to
7    any person whose driver's license or permit has been
8    revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
9    6-208;
10        4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol
11    or any other drug to a degree that renders the person
12    incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;
13        5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been
14    adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental
15    or physical disability or disease and who has not at the
16    time of application been restored to competency by the
17    methods provided by law;
18        6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the
19    Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation
20    or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the
21    person has successfully passed the examination and
22    submitted any required evaluation;
23        7. To any person who is required under the provisions
24    of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of
25    financial responsibility and who has not deposited the
26    security or proof;

 

 

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1        8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good
2    cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or
3    mental disability would not be able to safely operate a
4    motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall
5    furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
6    statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a
7    competent medical specialist, a licensed physician
8    assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical
9    examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a
10    licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written
11    collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
12    which authorizes him or her to perform medical
13    examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor
14    vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public
15    safety;
16        9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age
17    or older, unless the person has successfully complied with
18    the provisions of Section 6-109;
19        10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of
20    application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses
21    enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section
22    6-205;
23        11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with
24    a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section
25    6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years
26    with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of

 

 

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1    Section 6-104;
2        12. To any person who has been either convicted of or
3    adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon
4    a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
5    Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control
6    and Community Protection Act while that person was in
7    actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of
8    this Section, any person placed on probation under Section
9    10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois
10    Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the
11    Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall
12    not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of
13    this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor
14    vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by
15    the judge that this offense did occur while the person was
16    in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the
17    clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary
18    of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a
19    new license or permit for a period of one year;
20        13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and
21    who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle
22    without a valid license or permit in violation of Section
23    6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
24        14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in
25    court ordered child support payments or has been
26    adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days'

 

 

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1    obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of
2    court for failure to pay the support, subject to the
3    requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of
4    the Illinois Vehicle Code;
5        14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois
6    Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90
7    days or more delinquent in payment of support under an
8    order of support entered by a court or administrative body
9    of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and
10    procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code
11    regarding those certifications;
12        15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment
13    for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
14    the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law
15    of another state relating to reckless homicide or for
16    violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection
17    (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated
18    driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or
19    drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any
20    combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate
21    cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term
22    of imprisonment;
23        16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act
24    related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit,
25    by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the
26    owner or employee of any commercial driver training school

 

 

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1    licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual
2    authorized by the laws of this State to give driving
3    instructions or administer all or part of a driver's
4    license examination, promises or tenders to that person any
5    property or personal advantage which that person is not
6    authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or
7    tendering such property or personal advantage shall be
8    disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or
9    permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State
10    shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing
11    this period of disqualification and the procedures by which
12    persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review
13    of the decision to disqualify;
14        17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State
15    cannot verify the accuracy of any information or
16    documentation submitted in application for a driver's
17    license; or
18        18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the
19    Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is
20    determined by the court to have been committed in
21    furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized
22    gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that
23    involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use
24    of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied
25    a license or permit for the period determined by the court.
26    The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction

 

 

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1information, if the information is required to be held
2confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
3(Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
498-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 
5    (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)
6    Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.
7    (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver
8permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of
9the application and screening process under this Section to
10insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported
11on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants
12shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary
13of State from their prospective or current employer and submit
14the completed application to the prospective or current
15employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as
16required by the Department of State Police to conduct
17fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and
18future information available in the state system and current
19information available through the Federal Bureau of
20Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the
21fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the
22fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or
23submitting proof of successful completion of the annual
24refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this
25Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been

 

 

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1previously issued by the appropriate Regional School
2Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting
3provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid
4and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all
5related application and fingerprinting fees as established by
6rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by
7the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of
8Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background
9investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing
10services under this Section shall be deposited into the State
11Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the
12fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All
13other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the
14Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the
15Secretary of State in administering this Section. All
16applicants must:
17        1. be 21 years of age or older;
18        2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's
19    license issued by the Secretary of State;
20        3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been
21    revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately
22    prior to the date of application, or have not had his or
23    her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges
24    disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the
25    date of application;
26        4. successfully pass a written test, administered by

 

 

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1    the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus
2    safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses
3    and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by
4    the Secretary of State at the time the written test is
5    given;
6        5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in
7    the operation of school buses in accordance with rules
8    promulgated by the Secretary of State;
9        6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school
10    buses by submitting the results of a medical examination,
11    including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject
12    to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a
13    licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a
14    written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
15    physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical
16    examinations, or a physician assistant who has been
17    delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or
18    her supervising physician within 90 days of the date of
19    application according to standards promulgated by the
20    Secretary of State;
21        7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has
22    not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a
23    material fact in any application for permit;
24        8. have completed an initial classroom course,
25    including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety
26    as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after

 

 

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1    satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual
2    refresher course; such courses and the agency or
3    organization conducting such courses shall be approved by
4    the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual
5    refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the
6    permit until such course is completed;
7        9. not have been under an order of court supervision
8    for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as
9    defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of
10    application that may endanger the life or safety of any of
11    the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit
12    period;
13        10. not have been under an order of court supervision
14    for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless
15    driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol,
16    other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or
17    any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting
18    from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the
19    date of application;
20        11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting
21    to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i)
22    those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2,
23    9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5,
24    10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40,
25    11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1,
26    11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15,

 

 

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1    11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19,
2    11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3,
3    11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6,
4    12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4,
5    12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2,
6    12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14,
7    12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33,
8    12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1,
9    18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2,
10    20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6,
11    24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1,
12    31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section
13    8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1),
14    (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and
15    in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of
16    Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b),
17    of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article
18    29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
19    2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control
20    Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and
21    (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the
22    Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the
23    Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses
24    defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
25    Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in
26    any other state or against the laws of the United States,

 

 

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1    which if committed or attempted in this State would be
2    punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi)
3    the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs
4    to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of
5    1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses
6    defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;
7    and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine
8    Precursor Control Act;
9        12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in
10    motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of
11    offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the
12    movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of
13    ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
14    safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the
15    traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the
16    highway;
17        13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor
18    vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any
19    person;
20        14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to
21    be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability
22    or disease; and
23        15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of
24    reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under
25    Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the
26    applicant to the Secretary of State.

 

 

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1    (b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period
2specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It
3shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this
4Section.
5    (c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's
6driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip
7code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and
8a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a
9suitable photograph of the holder.
10    (d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a
11pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver
12candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and
13medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting
14the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State
15Police that are required for the criminal background
16investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the
17Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been
18successfully completed including the successful completion of
19an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through
20the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary
21fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for
22criminal history information available through the Federal
23Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the
24certification to the Secretary of State at the time of
25submitting the school bus driver permit application.
26    (e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving

 

 

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1certification from the employer that all pre-employment
2conditions have been successfully completed, and upon
3successful completion of all training and examination
4requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be
5operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a
6School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a
7provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau
8of Investigation's criminal background investigation based
9upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau
10of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal
11Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to
12the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the
13bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's
14successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's
15criminal background investigation.
16    (f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the
17employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an
18order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of
19an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit
20under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification
21shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court
22supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to
23provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a
24first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or
25subsequent violation.
26    (g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

 

 

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1        (1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
2    driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background
3    investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance
4    with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.
5        (2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
6    driver permit when he or she receives notice that the
7    permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this
8    Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of
9    this Section.
10        (3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
11    driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial
12    or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or
13    otherwise invalidated.
14        (4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus
15    driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who
16    fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as
17    required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or
18    under federal law.
19        (5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a
20    school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon
21    receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a
22    negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of
23    subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.
24        (6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus
25    driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice
26    from the employer that the holder failed to perform the

 

 

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1    inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of
2    Section 12-816 of this Code.
3        (7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus
4    driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice
5    from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an
6    alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has
7    submitted to a test required by that Section which
8    disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or
9    disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug
10    Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set
11    forth in 49 CFR 40.87.
12    The Secretary of State shall notify the State
13Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's
14prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has
15failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer
16eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related
17cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver
18permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the
19outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code.
20The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance
21criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A
22petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the
23Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual
24feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The
25permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the
26Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal

 

 

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1of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the
2start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing
3school board that fails to remove the offending school bus
4driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in
5Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who
6violates a provision of this Section is subject to the
7penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.
8    All valid school bus driver permits issued under this
9Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until
10their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.
11    (h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service
12member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit
13holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of
14notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has
15been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this
16subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the
17permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as
18provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a
19permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this
20Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State
21shall not characterize the permit as invalid.
22    (i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service
23member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a
24permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of
25this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of
26subsection (b) of this Section.

 

 

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1    (j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this
2Section:
3    "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive
4order of the President of the United States, an act of the
5Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.
6    "Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or
7reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois
8National Guard.
9(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09;
1096-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff.
117-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551,
12Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11;
1397-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff.
141-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150,
15eff. 1-25-13.)
 
16    (625 ILCS 5/6-901)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)
17    Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:
18    "Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.
19    "Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means:
20        (i) any person licensed to practice medicine in all its
21    branches in the State of Illinois or any other state;
22        (ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been
23    delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or
24    her supervising physician; or
25        (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a

 

 

SB1315- 180 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
2    physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical
3    examinations.
4(Source: P.A. 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11.)
 
5    Section 140. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is
6amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:
 
7    (720 ILCS 570/102)  (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
8    Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
9context otherwise requires:
10    (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug,
11chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as
12to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who
13is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled
14substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self
15control with reference to his or her addiction.
16    (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a
17controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,
18ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,
19research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane
20Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
21        (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his
22    or her authorized agent),
23        (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
24    order, or

 

 

SB1315- 181 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1        (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
2    Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
3    (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf
4of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,
5dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a
6common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
7the carrier or warehouseman.
8    (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal
9substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
10testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,
11corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
12    (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
13    (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
14    (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, 
15    (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], 
16        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
17    (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], 
18        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
19    (vi) 4-androstenediol  
20        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), 
21    (vii) 5-androstenediol  
22        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), 
23    (viii) 1-androstenedione  
24        ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), 
25    (ix) 4-androstenedione  
26        (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), 

 

 

SB1315- 182 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    (x) 5-androstenedione  
2        (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), 
3    (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
4        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
5    (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
6        1,4,-diene-3-one), 
7    (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- 
8        diene-3,17-dione), 
9    (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 
10        [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
11    (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
12        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
13    (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- 
14        17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- 
15        androst-1,4-dien-3-one), 
16    (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone 
17    (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] 
18        -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), 
19    (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  
20        '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
21        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
22    (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
23        androstan-3-one), 
24    (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- 
25        5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
26    (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 

 

 

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1        hydroxyestr-4-ene), 
2    (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- 
3        1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
4    (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], 
5        17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
6    (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
7        hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), 
8    (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) 
9    (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- 
10        androst-4-en-3-one), 
11    (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- 
12        dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), 
13    (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
14        hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), 
15    (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
16        [5a]-androstan-3-one), 
17    (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
18        hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
19    (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
20        dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), 
21    (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
22        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
23    (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- 
24        dihydroxy-5a-androstane), 
25    (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy 
26        -5a-androstane), 

 

 

SB1315- 184 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
2        dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), 
3    (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- 
4        methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
5    (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
6        hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), 
7    (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
8        hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), 
9    (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
10        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
11    (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
12        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
13    (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  
14        (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- 
15        androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- 
16        1-testosterone'), 
17    (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
18    (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
19        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
20    (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
21        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
22    (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
23        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
24    (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
25        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
26    (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  

 

 

SB1315- 185 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1        (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), 
2    (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- 
3        en-3,17-dione), 
4    (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- 
5        en-3,17-dione), 
6    (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- 
7        hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), 
8    (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
9        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
10    (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
11        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
12    (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
13        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
14    (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
15        2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
16    (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- 
17        dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
18    (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- 
19        17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
20    (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
21        (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), 
22    (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- 
23        (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
24    (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- 
25        secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic 
26        acid lactone), 

 

 

SB1315- 186 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
2        4-en-3-one), 
3    (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- 
4        diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- 
5        4,9,11-trien-3-one), 
6    (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, 
7        11-trien-3-one). 
8    Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an
9anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,
10distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to
11deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is
12expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered
13through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
14which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services
15for such administration, and which the person intends to
16administer or have administered through such implants, shall
17not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to
18unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or
19possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
20purposes of this Act.
21    (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement
22Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its
23successor agency.
24    (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"
25means a Department of Human Services administrative employee
26licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances

 

 

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1who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human
2Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription
3Information Library.
4    (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
5components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
6prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
7prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
8professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
9to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
10or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
11or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
12orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
13patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
14for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the
15following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
16reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a
17timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
18prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
19compounded.
20    (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or
21immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from
22another Schedule or otherwise.
23    (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or
24immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act
25or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor,
26designated as a controlled substance by the Department through

 

 

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1administrative rule. The term does not include distilled
2spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
3defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the
4Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
5    (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
6        (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
7    similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance
8    in Schedule I or II;
9        (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
10    hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is
11    substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,
12    depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
13    nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or
14    II; or
15        (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
16    person represents or intends to have a stimulant,
17    depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
18    nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater
19    than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect
20    on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in
21    Schedule I or II.
22    (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,
23which, or the container or labeling of which, without
24authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other
25identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness
26thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other

 

 

SB1315- 189 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or
2dispensed the substance.
3    (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive
4or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,
5with or without consideration, whether or not there is an
6agency relationship.
7    (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
8Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and
9Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
10    (j) (Blank).
11    (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of
12Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
13    (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"
14means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
15of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
16    (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall
17depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes
18impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
19habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
20but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles
21and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs,
22barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and
23synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar
24sedative hypnotics.
25    (n) (Blank).
26    (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State

 

 

SB1315- 190 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1Police or his or her designated agents.
2    (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to
3an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the
4lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,
5administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary
6to prepare the substance for that delivery.
7    (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
8    (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by
9administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
10    (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
11    (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the
12official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic
13Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National
14Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances
15intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or
16prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other
17than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
18the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use
19as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or
20(3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their
21components, parts, or accessories.
22    (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the
23Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
24purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control
25facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal
26Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,

 

 

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1store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
2Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal
3euthanasia.
4    (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III
5substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used
6by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
7    (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a
8controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of
9professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or
10her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that
11individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or
12addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein:
13and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the
14dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
15prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the
16pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by
17accepted professional standards including, but not limited to
18the following, in making the judgment:
19        (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
20    relationship,
21        (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
22    prescriber for large numbers of patients,
23        (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
24        (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
25    clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual
26    dose may be used legitimately),

 

 

SB1315- 192 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1        (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
2    pharmacist and prescriber,
3        (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
4    (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly
5altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any
6type.
7    (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a
8pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to
9a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or
10hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,
11intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
12    (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the
13State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
14    (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
15        (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
16    designated as being a principal compound used, or produced
17    primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled
18    substance;
19        (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or
20    likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled
21    substance; and
22        (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
23    curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled
24    substance.
25    (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,
26educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled

 

 

SB1315- 193 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1substances within educational facilities approved by the State
2Board of Education or its successor agency.
3    (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,
4County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
5    (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a
6controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit
7appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack
8thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical
9characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person
10to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2)
11is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled
12substance or is distributed under circumstances which would
13lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a
14controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether
15the representations made or the circumstances of the
16distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the
17substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of
18subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the
19following factors in addition to any other factor that may be
20relevant:
21        (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
22    of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
23        (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the
24    substance may be resold for profit;
25        (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
26    normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled

 

 

SB1315- 194 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    substances;
2        (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution
3    included an exchange of or demand for money or other
4    property as consideration, and whether the amount of the
5    consideration was substantially greater than the
6    reasonable retail market value of the substance.
7    Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a
8noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was
9initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial
10introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its
11finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
12    Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or
13distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized
14to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this
15Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried
16out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances
17involved were controlled substances.
18    Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the
19manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,
20processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or
21drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the
22Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
23    (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is
24located in a state of the United States that delivers,
25dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal
26Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any

 

 

SB1315- 195 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1substance which requires a prescription.
2    (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,
3propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a
4controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
5directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of
6natural origin, or independently by means of chemical
7synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
8synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the
9substance or labeling of its container, except that this term
10does not include:
11        (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding
12    of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
13        (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
14    under his or her supervision, the preparation,
15    compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled
16    substance:
17            (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
18        dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of
19        his or her professional practice; or
20            (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or
21        chemical analysis and not for sale.
22    (z-1) (Blank).
23    (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited
24under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
25    (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician
26assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through

 

 

SB1315- 196 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to
2practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with
3Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987,
4(ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated
5authority to prescribe through a written delegation of
6authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
7of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with
8Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal
9euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist.
10    (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether
11produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances
12of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical
13synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
14synthesis:
15        (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
16    including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts
17    of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of
18    such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
19    the specific chemical designation; however the term
20    "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline
21    alkaloids of opium;
22        (2) (blank);
23        (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
24        (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
25    coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and
26    ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have

 

 

SB1315- 197 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    been removed;
2        (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,
3    and salts of isomers;
4        (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
5    and salts of isomers;
6        (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
7    contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to
8    in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
9    (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
10Nurse Practice Act.
11    (cc) (Blank).
12    (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction
13forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine
14or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction
15forming or addiction sustaining liability.
16    (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
17somniferum L., except its seeds.
18    (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or
19solution or other liquid form of medication intended for
20administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form
21of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal
22administration.
23    (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon
24Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
25    (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
26mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or

 

 

SB1315- 198 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or
2association, or any other entity.
3    (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or
4certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local
5registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist
6under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
7    (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in
8which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy
9Practice Act.
10    (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited
11under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
12    (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise
13requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all
14of its branches.
15    (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of
16the opium poppy, after mowing.
17    (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice
18medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric
19physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,
20physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed
21practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or
22pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise
23lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to
24distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to,
25administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
26controlled substance in the course of professional practice or

 

 

SB1315- 199 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1research.
2    (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written
3prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated
4prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written
5prescription that is individually generated by machine or
6computer in the prescriber's office.
7    (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice
8medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist,
9prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the
10Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive
11authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical
12Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
13veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant
14who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
15accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
16written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
17Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced
18practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under
19Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with
20Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written
21collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse
22Practice Act.
23    (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral
24order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable
25federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice
26medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or

 

 

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1veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist
2for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in
3accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric
4Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed
5under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act
6with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the
7Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant
8for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a
9written delegation, and a written supervision agreement
10required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice
11Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive
12authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
13Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
14accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
15written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the
16Nurse Practice Act when required by law.
17    (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an
18electronic library that contains reported controlled substance
19data.
20    (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the
21entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on
22controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
23    (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,
24planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled
25substance other than methamphetamine.
26    (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to

 

 

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1register under Section 302 of this Act.
2    (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each
3person authorized to handle controlled substances under the
4laws of the United States and of this State.
5    (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either
6the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the
7Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the
8Secretary's designated agents.
9    (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,
10district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,
11and any area subject to the legal authority of the United
12States of America.
13    (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an
14overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)
15causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
16habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
17but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs,
18methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine
19and its analogs.
20    (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses
21a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of
22a member of his or her household or for administering to an
23animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her
24household.
25(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668,
26eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14;

 

 

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1revised 10-1-14.)
 
2    (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
3    Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
4    (a) The Department of Financial and Professional
5Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants,
6licensed advanced practice nurses, and prescribing
7psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical
8Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense
9controlled substances under Section 303 and animal euthanasia
10agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia
11drugs under the following circumstances:
12        (1) with respect to physician assistants,
13            (A) the physician assistant has been delegated
14        written authority to prescribe any Schedule III
15        through V controlled substances by a physician
16        licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
17        accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant
18        Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has
19        completed the appropriate application forms and has
20        paid the required fees as set by rule; or
21            (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
22        authority by a supervising physician licensed to
23        practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or
24        dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a
25        written delegation of authority and under the

 

 

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1        following conditions:
2                (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances
3            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
4            application may be delegated, provided that the
5            delegated Schedule II controlled substances are
6            routinely prescribed by the supervising physician.
7            This delegation must identify the specific
8            Schedule II controlled substances by either brand
9            name or generic name. Schedule II controlled
10            substances to be delivered by injection or other
11            route of administration may not be delegated;
12                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
13            substances prescribed by the supervising
14            physician;
15                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
16            more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation
17            authorized only after prior approval of the
18            supervising physician;
19                (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the
20            condition of any patients for whom a controlled
21            substance is prescribed monthly with the
22            delegating physician;
23                (v) the physician assistant must have
24            completed the appropriate application forms and
25            paid the required fees as set by rule;
26                (vi) the physician assistant must provide

 

 

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1            evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact
2            hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant
3            program accredited by the Accreditation Review
4            Commission on Education for the Physician
5            Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for
6            any new license issued with Schedule II authority
7            after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
8            the 97th General Assembly; and
9                (vii) the physician assistant must annually
10            complete at least 5 hours of continuing education
11            in pharmacology;
12        (2) (blank); with respect to advanced practice nurses,
13            (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
14        authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V
15        controlled substances by a collaborating physician
16        licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a
17        collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with
18        Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced
19        practice nurse has completed the appropriate
20        application forms and has paid the required fees as set
21        by rule; or
22            (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
23        authority by a collaborating physician licensed to
24        practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating
25        podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule
26        II controlled substances through a written delegation

 

 

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1        of authority and under the following conditions:
2                (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances
3            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
4            application may be delegated, provided that the
5            delegated Schedule II controlled substances are
6            routinely prescribed by the collaborating
7            physician or podiatric physician. This delegation
8            must identify the specific Schedule II controlled
9            substances by either brand name or generic name.
10            Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered
11            by injection or other route of administration may
12            not be delegated;
13                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
14            substances prescribed by the collaborating
15            physician or podiatric physician;
16                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
17            more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation
18            authorized only after prior approval of the
19            collaborating physician or podiatric physician;
20                (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss
21            the condition of any patients for whom a controlled
22            substance is prescribed monthly with the
23            delegating physician or podiatric physician or in
24            the course of review as required by Section 65-40
25            of the Nurse Practice Act;
26                (v) the advanced practice nurse must have

 

 

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1            completed the appropriate application forms and
2            paid the required fees as set by rule;
3                (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide
4            evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45
5            graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new
6            license issued with Schedule II authority after
7            the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
8            97th General Assembly; and
9                (vii) the advanced practice nurse must
10            annually complete 5 hours of continuing education
11            in pharmacology;
12        (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the
13    euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the
14    Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and
15    obtained a registration number from the Department; or
16        (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the
17    prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to
18    prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V
19    controlled substances by a collaborating physician
20    licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
21    accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist
22    Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has
23    completed the appropriate application forms and has paid
24    the required fees as set by rule.
25    (b) The physician assistant mid-level practitioner shall
26only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled

 

 

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1substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatric
2physician has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an
3animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive
4authority. A physician assistant is and an advanced practice
5nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and
6controlled substances not set forth in the required written
7delegation of authority.
8    An advanced practice nurse shall only be licensed to
9prescribe Schedule II through V controlled substances.
10    (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements,
11physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal
12euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner
13controlled substances license for Illinois.
14    (d) (Blank). A collaborating physician or podiatric
15physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive
16authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written
17collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive
18authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of
19the Nurse Practice Act.
20    (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to,
21delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as
22part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of
23prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
24Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
25    (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit
26generic substitution.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11;
297-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff.
36-25-14.)
 
4    (225 ILCS 65/65-35 rep.)
5    (225 ILCS 65/65-40 rep.)
6    Section 145. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by repealing
7Sections 65-35 and 65-40.
 
8    (225 ILCS 100/20.5 rep.)
9    Section 150. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is
10amended by repealing Section 20.5.
 
11    Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
12becoming law.

 

 

SB1315- 209 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1 INDEX
2 Statutes amended in order of appearance
3    15 ILCS 335/4from Ch. 124, par. 24
4    20 ILCS 301/5-23
5    105 ILCS 5/22-30
6    105 ILCS 5/24-5from Ch. 122, par. 24-5
7    105 ILCS 5/24-6
8    105 ILCS 5/26-1from Ch. 122, par. 26-1
9    105 ILCS 5/27-8.1from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1
10    210 ILCS 5/6.5
11    210 ILCS 25/7-101from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101
12    210 ILCS 55/2.05from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05
13    210 ILCS 85/10.7
14    215 ILCS 5/356g.5
15    215 ILCS 5/356z.1
16    225 ILCS 25/8.1from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1
17    225 ILCS 60/22from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22
18    225 ILCS 60/54.5
19    225 ILCS 65/50-10was 225 ILCS 65/5-10
20    225 ILCS 65/65-30
21    225 ILCS 65/65-45was 225 ILCS 65/15-25
22    225 ILCS 65/70-5was 225 ILCS 65/10-45
23    225 ILCS 75/3.1
24    225 ILCS 84/57
25    225 ILCS 85/4from Ch. 111, par. 4124

 

 

SB1315- 210 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    225 ILCS 90/1from Ch. 111, par. 4251
2    225 ILCS 106/10
3    225 ILCS 135/10
4    225 ILCS 135/20
5    225 ILCS 135/95
6    405 ILCS 95/10
7    410 ILCS 45/6.2from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2
8    410 ILCS 70/2.2
9    410 ILCS 70/5from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5
10    410 ILCS 70/5.5
11    410 ILCS 210/1from Ch. 111, par. 4501
12    410 ILCS 210/1.5
13    410 ILCS 210/2from Ch. 111, par. 4502
14    410 ILCS 210/3from Ch. 111, par. 4503
15    410 ILCS 225/2from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022
16    410 ILCS 305/3from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303
17    410 ILCS 325/3from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403
18    410 ILCS 325/4from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404
19    410 ILCS 335/5
20    410 ILCS 513/10
21    410 ILCS 642/10
22    625 ILCS 5/1-159.1from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1
23    625 ILCS 5/3-616from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616
24    625 ILCS 5/6-103from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103
25    625 ILCS 5/6-106.1
26    625 ILCS 5/6-901from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901

 

 

SB1315- 211 -LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

1    720 ILCS 570/102from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102
2    720 ILCS 570/303.05
3    225 ILCS 65/65-35 rep.
4    225 ILCS 65/65-40 rep.
5    225 ILCS 100/20.5 rep.