HB4137enr 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB4137 Enrolled LRB099 07987 AMC 28127 b

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2015 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 98-590 through 98-1173 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Effective Date of Laws Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(5 ILCS 75/6) (from Ch. 1, par. 1206)

Sec. 6. As used in this Act, "Constitution" means the Constitution of the State of Illinois of 1970.

(Source: P.A. 78-85; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 10. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.27 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.27)

Sec. 4.27. Acts repealed on January 1, 2017. The following are repealed on January 1, 2017:

The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987.

The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act.

Articles II, III, IV, V, V 1/2, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI, XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-787, eff. 5-19-06; 94-870, eff. 6-16-06; 94-956, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1076, eff. 12-29-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 15. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 10-40 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/10-40) (from Ch. 127, par. 1010-40)

Sec. 10-40. Rules of evidence; official notice. In contested cases:

(a) Irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence shall be excluded. The rules of evidence and privilege as applied in civil cases in the circuit courts of this State shall be followed. Evidence not admissible under those rules of evidence may be admitted, however, (except where precluded by statute) if it is of a type commonly relied upon by reasonably prudent men in the conduct of their affairs. Objections to evidentiary offers may be made and shall be noted in the record. Subject to these requirements, when a hearing will be expedited and the interests of the parties will not be prejudiced, any part of the evidence may be received in written form.

(b) Subject to the evidentiary requirements of subsection (a) of this Section, a party may conduct cross-examination required for a full and fair disclosure of the facts.

(c) Notice may be taken of matters of which the circuit courts of this State may take judicial notice. In addition, notice may be taken of generally recognized technical or scientific facts within the agency's specialized knowledge. Parties shall be notified either before or during the hearing, or by reference in preliminary reports or otherwise, of the material noticed, including any staff memoranda or data, and they shall be afforded an opportunity to contest the material so noticed. The agency's experience, technical competence, and specialized knowledge may be utilized in the evaluation of the evidence.

(Source: P.A. 87-823; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 20. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff. 8-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 25. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/2) (from Ch. 116, par. 202)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Public body" means all legislative, executive, administrative, or advisory bodies of the State, state universities and colleges, counties, townships, cities, villages, incorporated towns, school districts and all other municipal corporations, boards, bureaus, committees, or commissions of this State, any subsidiary bodies of any of the foregoing including but not limited to committees and subcommittees thereof, and a School Finance Authority created under Article 1E of the School Code. "Public body" does not include a child death review team or the Illinois Child Death Review Teams Executive Council established under the Child Death Review Team Act, or a regional youth advisory board or the Statewide Youth Advisory Board established under the Department of Children and Family Services Statewide Youth Advisory Board Act.

(b) "Person" means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, organization or association, acting individually or as a group.

(c) "Public records" means all records, reports, forms, writings, letters, memoranda, books, papers, maps, photographs, microfilms, cards, tapes, recordings, electronic data processing records, electronic communications, recorded information and all other documentary materials pertaining to the transaction of public business, regardless of physical form or characteristics, having been prepared by or for, or having been or being used by, received by, in the possession of, or under the control of any public body.

(c-5) "Private information" means unique identifiers, including a person's social security number, driver's license number, employee identification number, biometric identifiers, personal financial information, passwords or other access codes, medical records, home or personal telephone numbers, and personal email addresses. Private information also includes home address and personal license plates, except as otherwise provided by law or when compiled without possibility of attribution to any person.

(c-10) "Commercial purpose" means the use of any part of a public record or records, or information derived from public records, in any form for sale, resale, or solicitation or advertisement for sales or services. For purposes of this definition, requests made by news media and non-profit, scientific, or academic organizations shall not be considered to be made for a "commercial purpose" when the principal purpose of the request is (i) to access and disseminate information concerning news and current or passing events, (ii) for articles of opinion or features of interest to the public, or (iii) for the purpose of academic, scientific, or public research or education.

(d) "Copying" means the reproduction of any public record by means of any photographic, electronic, mechanical or other process, device or means now known or hereafter developed and available to the public body.

(e) "Head of the public body" means the president, mayor, chairman, presiding officer, director, superintendent, manager, supervisor or individual otherwise holding primary executive and administrative authority for the public body, or such person's duly authorized designee.

(f) "News media" means a newspaper or other periodical issued at regular intervals whether in print or electronic format, a news service whether in print or electronic format, a radio station, a television station, a television network, a community antenna television service, or a person or corporation engaged in making news reels or other motion picture news for public showing.

(g) "Recurrent requester", as used in Section 3.2 of this Act, means a person that, in the 12 months immediately preceding the request, has submitted to the same public body (i) a minimum of 50 requests for records, (ii) a minimum of 15 requests for records within a 30-day period, or (iii) a minimum of 7 requests for records within a 7-day period. For purposes of this definition, requests made by news media and non-profit, scientific, or academic organizations shall not be considered in calculating the number of requests made in the time periods in this definition when the principal purpose of the requests is (i) to access and disseminate information concerning news and current or passing events, (ii) for articles of opinion or features of interest to the public, or (iii) for the purpose of academic, scientific, or public research or education.

For the purposes of this subsection (g), "request" means a written document (or oral request, if the public body chooses to honor oral requests) that is submitted to a public body via personal delivery, mail, telefax, electronic mail, or other means available to the public body and that identifies the particular public record the requester seeks. One request may identify multiple records to be inspected or copied.

(h) "Voluminous request" means a request that: (i) includes more than 5 individual requests for more than 5 different categories of records or a combination of individual requests that total requests for more than 5 different categories of records in a period of 20 business days; or (ii) requires the compilation of more than 500 letter or legal-sized pages of public records unless a single requested record exceeds 500 pages. "Single requested record" may include, but is not limited to, one report, form, e-mail, letter, memorandum, book, map, microfilm, tape, or recording.

"Voluminous request" does not include a request made by news media and non-profit, scientific, or academic organizations if the principal purpose of the request is: (1) to access and disseminate information concerning news and current or passing events; (2) for articles of opinion or features of interest to the public; or (3) for the purpose of academic, scientific, or public research or education.

For the purposes of this subsection (h), "request" means a written document, or oral request, if the public body chooses to honor oral requests, that is submitted to a public body via personal delivery, mail, telefax, electronic mail, or other means available to the public body and that identifies the particular public record or records the requester seeks. One request may identify multiple individual records to be inspected or copied.

(Source: P.A. 97-579, eff. 8-26-11; 98-806, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1129, eff. 12-3-14; revised 12-19-14.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions Exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 98-1045, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 30. The State Records Act is amended by changing Section 15b as follows:

(5 ILCS 160/15b) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.18b)

Sec. 15b. The head of each agency shall:

(1) Determine what records are "essential" for emergency government operation through consultation with all branches of government, State agencies, and with the State Civil Defense Agency.

(2) Determine what records are "essential" for post-emergency government operations and provide for their protection and preservation.

(3) Establish the manner in which essential records for emergency and post-emergency government operations shall be preserved to ensure insure emergency usability.

(4) Establish and maintain an essential records preservation program.

The Secretary may provide for security storage or relocation of essential State records in the event of an emergency arising from enemy attack or natural disaster.

(Source: P.A. 85-414; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 35. The Electronic Commerce Security Act is amended by changing Section 10-115 as follows:

(5 ILCS 175/10-115)

Sec. 10-115. Commercially reasonable; reliance.

(a) The commercial reasonableness of a security procedure is a question of law to be determined in light of the purposes of the procedure and the commercial circumstances at the time the procedure was used, including the nature of the transaction, sophistication of the parties, volume of similar transactions engaged in by either or both of the parties, availability of alternatives offered to but rejected by either of the parties, cost of alternative procedures, and procedures in general use for similar types of transactions.

(b) Whether reliance on a security procedure was reasonable and in good faith is to be determined in light of all the circumstances known to the relying party at the time of the reliance, having due regard to the:

(1) the information that the relying party knew or should have known of at the time of reliance that would suggest that reliance was or was not reasonable;

(2) the value or importance of the electronic record, if known;

(3) any course of dealing between the relying party and the purported sender and the available indicia of reliability or unreliability apart from the security procedure;

(4) any usage of trade, particularly trade conducted by trustworthy systems or other computer-based means; and

(5) whether the verification was performed with the assistance of an independent third party.

(Source: P.A. 90-759, eff. 7-1-99; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 40. The Employee Rights Violation Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 285/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b100-2)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act, the terms used herein shall have the meanings ascribed to them in this Section:

(a) "Policy making officer" means: (i) an employee of a State agency who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of such management policies and practices; or (ii) an employee of a State agency whose principal work is substantially different from that of his subordinates and who has authority in the interest of the State agency to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, or to adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend such action, if the exercise of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of independent judgment; or (iii) a Director, Assistant Director or Deputy Director of a State agency. ;

(b) "State agency" means the Departments of the Executive Branch of State government listed in Section 5-15 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-15). ;

(c) "Director" includes the Secretary of Transportation.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 45. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 10-10 and 16-6.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Within 24 hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or proposed question of public policy, as the case may be, and the objector's petition, the chairman of the electoral board other than the State Board of Elections shall send a call by registered or certified mail to each of the members of the electoral board, and to the objector who filed the objector's petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or attorney for proponents of a question of public policy, as the case may be, whose petitions are objected to, and shall also cause the sheriff of the county or counties in which such officers and persons reside to serve a copy of such call upon each of such officers and persons, which call shall set out the fact that the electoral board is required to meet to hear and pass upon the objections to nominations made for the office, designating it, and shall state the day, hour and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the purpose, which place shall be in the county court house in the county in the case of the County Officers Electoral Board, the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers Electoral Board or the Education Officers Electoral Board, except that the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers Electoral Board, and the Education Officers Electoral Board may meet at the location where the governing body of the municipality, township, or community college district, respectively, holds its regularly scheduled meetings, if that location is available; provided that voter records may be removed from the offices of an election authority only at the discretion and under the supervision of the election authority. In those cases where the State Board of Elections is the electoral board designated under Section 10-9, the chairman of the State Board of Elections shall, within 24 hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions for a proposed amendment to Article IV of the Constitution or proposed statewide question of public policy, send a call by registered or certified mail to the objector who files the objector's petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or attorney for proponents of the proposed Constitutional amendment or statewide question of public policy and shall state the day, hour and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the purpose, which place may be in the Capitol Building or in the principal or permanent branch office of the State Board. The day of the meeting shall not be less than 3 nor more than 5 days after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers and the objector's petition by the chairman of the electoral board.

The electoral board shall have the power to administer oaths and to subpoena and examine witnesses and, at the request of either party and only upon a vote by a majority of its members, may authorize the chairman to issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of such books, papers, records and documents as may be evidence of any matter under inquiry before the electoral board, in the same manner as witnesses are subpoenaed in the Circuit Court.

Service of such subpoenas shall be made by any sheriff or other person in the same manner as in cases in such court and the fees of such sheriff shall be the same as is provided by law, and shall be paid by the objector or candidate who causes the issuance of the subpoena. In case any person so served shall knowingly neglect or refuse to obey any such subpoena, or to testify, the electoral board shall at once file a petition in the circuit court of the county in which such hearing is to be heard, or has been attempted to be heard, setting forth the facts, of such knowing refusal or neglect, and accompanying the petition with a copy of the citation and the answer, if one has been filed, together with a copy of the subpoena and the return of service thereon, and shall apply for an order of court requiring such person to attend and testify, and forthwith produce books and papers, before the electoral board. Any circuit court of the state, excluding the judge who is sitting on the electoral board, upon such showing shall order such person to appear and testify, and to forthwith produce such books and papers, before the electoral board at a place to be fixed by the court. If such person shall knowingly fail or refuse to obey such order of the court without lawful excuse, the court shall punish him or her by fine and imprisonment, as the nature of the case may require and may be lawful in cases of contempt of court.

The electoral board on the first day of its meeting shall adopt rules of procedure for the introduction of evidence and the presentation of arguments and may, in its discretion, provide for the filing of briefs by the parties to the objection or by other interested persons.

In the event of a State Electoral Board hearing on objections to a petition for an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution, or to a petition for a question of public policy to be submitted to the voters of the entire State, the certificates of the county clerks and boards of election commissioners showing the results of the random sample of signatures on the petition shall be prima facie valid and accurate, and shall be presumed to establish the number of valid and invalid signatures on the petition sheets reviewed in the random sample, as prescribed in Section 28-11 and 28-12 of this Code. Either party, however, may introduce evidence at such hearing to dispute the findings as to particular signatures. In addition to the foregoing, in the absence of competent evidence presented at such hearing by a party substantially challenging the results of a random sample, or showing a different result obtained by an additional sample, this certificate of a county clerk or board of election commissioners shall be presumed to establish the ratio of valid to invalid signatures within the particular election jurisdiction.

The electoral board shall take up the question as to whether or not the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions are in proper form, and whether or not they were filed within the time and under the conditions required by law, and whether or not they are the genuine certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions which they purport to be, and whether or not in the case of the certificate of nomination in question it represents accurately the decision of the caucus or convention issuing it, and in general shall decide whether or not the certificate of nomination or nominating papers or petitions on file are valid or whether the objections thereto should be sustained and the decision of a majority of the electoral board shall be final subject to judicial review as provided in Section 10-10.1. The electoral board must state its findings in writing and must state in writing which objections, if any, it has sustained. A copy of the decision shall be served upon the parties to the proceedings in open proceedings before the electoral board. If a party does not appear for receipt of the decision, the decision shall be deemed to have been served on the absent party on the date when a copy of the decision is personally delivered or on the date when a copy of the decision is deposited in the Unites States mail, in a sealed envelope or package, with postage prepaid, addressed to each party affected by the decision or to such party's attorney of record, if any, at the address on record for such person in the files of the electoral board.

Upon the expiration of the period within which a proceeding for judicial review must be commenced under Section 10-10.1, the electoral board shall, unless a proceeding for judicial review has been commenced within such period, transmit, by registered or certified mail, a certified copy of its ruling, together with the original certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions and the original objector's petition, to the officer or board with whom the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions, as objected to, were on file, and such officer or board shall abide by and comply with the ruling so made to all intents and purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; 98-691, eff. 7-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)

(10 ILCS 5/16-6.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 16-6.1)

Sec. 16-6.1. In elections held pursuant to the provisions of Section 12 of Article VI of the Constitution relating to retention of judges in office, the form of the proposition to be submitted for each candidate shall be as provided in paragraph (1) or (2), as the election authority may choose.

(1) The names of all persons seeking retention in the same office shall be listed, in the order provided in this Section, with one proposition that reads substantially as follows: "Shall each of the persons listed be retained in office as (insert name of office and court)?". To the right of each candidate's name must be places for the voter to mark "Yes" or "No". If the list of candidates for retention in the same office exceeds one page of the ballot, the proposition must appear on each page upon which the list of candidates continues.

(2) The form of the proposition for each candidate shall be substantially as follows:

-----------------------------------------------------

Shall ....... (insert name YES of candidate) be retained in --------------

office as ..... (insert name NO of office and Court)?

-----------------------------------------------------

The names of all candidates thus submitting their names for retention in office in any particular judicial district or circuit shall appear on the same ballot which shall be separate from all other ballots voted on at the general election.

Propositions on Supreme Court judges, if any are seeking retention, shall appear on the ballot in the first group, for judges of the Appellate Court in the second group immediately under the first, and for circuit judges in the last group. The grouping of candidates for the same office shall be preceded by a heading describing the office and the court. If there are two or more candidates for each office, the names of such candidates in each group shall be listed in the order determined as follows: The name of the person with the greatest length of time served in the specified office of the specified court shall be listed first in each group. The rest of the names shall be listed in the appropriate order based on the same seniority standard. If two or more candidates for each office have served identical periods of time in the specified office, such candidates shall be listed alphabetically at the appropriate place in the order of names based on seniority in the office as described. Circuit judges shall be credited for the purposes of this section with service as associate judges prior to July 1, 1971 and with service on any court the judges of which were made associate judges on January 1, 1964 by virtue of Paragraph 4, subparagraphs (c) and (d) of the Schedule to Article VI of the former Illinois Constitution.

At the top of the ballot on the same side as the propositions on the candidates are listed shall be printed an explanation to read substantially as follows: "Vote on the proposition with respect to all or any of the judges listed on this ballot. No judge listed is running against any other judge. The sole question is whether each judge shall be retained in his or her present office".

Such separate ballot shall be printed on paper of sufficient size so that when folded once it shall be large enough to contain the following words, which shall be printed on the back, "Ballot for judicial candidates seeking retention in office". Such ballot shall be handed to the elector at the same time as the ballot containing the names of other candidates for the general election and shall be returned therewith by the elector to the proper officer in the manner designated by this Act. All provisions of this Act relating to ballots shall apply to such separate ballot, except as otherwise specifically provided in this section. Such separate ballot shall be printed upon paper of a green color. No other ballot at the same election shall be green in color.

In precincts in which voting machines are used, the special ballot containing the propositions on the retention of judges may be placed on the voting machines if such voting machines permit the casting of votes on such propositions.

An electronic voting system authorized by Article 24A may be used in voting and tabulating the judicial retention ballots. When an electronic voting system is used which utilizes a ballot label booklet and ballot card, there shall be used in the label booklet a separate ballot label page or pages as required for such proposition, which page or pages for such proposition shall be of a green color separate and distinct from the ballot label page or pages used for any other proposition or candidates.

(Source: P.A. 92-178, eff. 1-1-02; 92-465, eff. 1-1-02; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 50. The State Comptroller Act is amended by changing Section 26 as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/26)

Sec. 26. Illinois Gives Initiative.

(a) The Illinois Gives Initiative is hereby created to provide a mechanism whereby an employee or annuitant may authorize the withholding of a portion of his or her salary, wages, or annuity for payment to Illinois chapters of the American Red Cross whose territories include areas affected by a declaration of disaster issued in accordance with Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(b) The initiative shall be administered by the State Comptroller, who is authorized to:

(1) develop an electronic mechanism whereby an employee or annuitant may register with the Office of the Comptroller for the withholding to be deducted from the next available scheduled pay period;

(2) develop policies and procedures necessary for the efficient transmission of the notification of the withholding under this Section to the employee's Payroll Officer or the annuitant's Retirement Agency; and

(3) develop policies and procedures necessary for the efficient distribution of the withholdings under this Section to designated Illinois chapters of the American Red Cross.

(Source: P.A. 98-700, eff. 7-7-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 55. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Section 8.09 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/8.09)

Sec. 8.09. Unlicensed or uncertified facilities. No public official, agent, or employee may place any person in or with, or recommend that any person be placed in or with, or directly or indirectly cause any person to be placed in or with any unlicensed or uncertified: (i) board and care home as defined in the Board and Care Home Act and licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; (ii) assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; (iii) facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act; (iv) supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; (v) free-standing hospice residence licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act; or (vi) home services agency licensed under the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act if licensure or certification is required. No public official, agent, or employee may place the name of such a facility on a list of facilities to be circulated to the public, unless the facility is licensed or certified. Use of the Department of Public Health's annual list of licensed facilities shall satisfy compliance with this Section for all facilities licensed or certified by the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(Source: P.A. 96-1318, eff. 7-27-10; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 60. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 40-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/40-5)

Sec. 40-5. Election of treatment. An addict or alcoholic who is charged with or convicted of a crime or any other person charged with or convicted of a misdemeanor violation of the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act and who has not been previously convicted of a violation of that Act may elect treatment under the supervision of a licensed program designated by the Department, referred to in this Article as "designated program", unless:

(1) the crime is a crime of violence;

(2) the crime is a violation of Section 401(a), 401(b), 401(c) where the person electing treatment has been previously convicted of a non-probationable felony or the violation is non-probationable, 401(d) where the violation is non-probationable, 401.1, 402(a), 405 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 4(d), 4(e), 4(f), 4(g), 5(d), 5(e), 5(f), 5(g), 5.1, 7 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 15, 20, 55, 60(b)(3), 60(b)(4), 60(b)(5), 60(b)(6), or 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or is otherwise ineligible for probation under Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(3) the person has a record of 2 or more convictions of a crime of violence;

(4) other criminal proceedings alleging commission of a felony are pending against the person;

(5) the person is on probation or parole and the appropriate parole or probation authority does not consent to that election;

(6) the person elected and was admitted to a designated program on 2 prior occasions within any consecutive 2-year period;

(7) the person has been convicted of residential burglary and has a record of one or more felony convictions;

(8) the crime is a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(9) the crime is a reckless homicide or a reckless homicide of an unborn child, as defined in Section 9-3 or 9-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the cause of death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle by a person under the influence of alcohol or any other drug or drugs at the time of the violation.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude an individual who is charged with or convicted of a crime that is a violation of Section 60(b)(1) or 60(b)(2) of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and who is otherwise eligible to make the election provided for under this Section, from being eligible to make an election for treatment as a condition of probation as provided for under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-889, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-896, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1124, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 65. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5008)

Sec. 8. Scholarships and fee waivers. Each year the Department shall select a minimum of 53 students (at least 4 of whom shall be children of veterans) to receive scholarships and fee waivers which will enable them to attend and complete their post-secondary education at a community college, university, or college. Youth shall be selected from among the youth for whom the Department has court-ordered legal responsibility, youth who aged out of care at age 18 or older, or youth formerly under care who have been adopted or who have been placed in private guardianship. Recipients must have earned a high school diploma from an accredited institution or , a high school equivalency General Education Development certificate or diploma, or have met the State criteria for high school graduation before the start of the school year for which they are applying for the scholarship and waiver. high school equivalency Scholarships and fee waivers shall be available to students for at least 5 years, provided they are continuing to work toward graduation. Unused scholarship dollars and fee waivers shall be reallocated to new recipients. No later than January 1, 2015, the Department shall promulgate rules identifying the criteria for "continuing to work toward graduation", and for reallocating unused scholarships and fee waivers. Selection shall be made on the basis of several factors, including, but not limited to, scholastic record, aptitude, and general interest in higher education. The selection committee shall include at least 2 individuals formerly under the care of the Department who have completed their post-secondary education. In accordance with this Act, tuition scholarships and fee waivers shall be available to such students at any university or college maintained by the State of Illinois. The Department shall provide maintenance and school expenses, except tuition and fees, during the academic years to supplement the students' earnings or other resources so long as they consistently maintain scholastic records which are acceptable to their schools and to the Department. Students may attend other colleges and universities, if scholarships are awarded them, and receive the same benefits for maintenance and other expenses as those students attending any Illinois State community college, university, or college under this Section. Beginning with recipients receiving scholarships and waivers in August 2014, the Department shall collect data and report annually to the General Assembly on measures of success, including (i) the number of youth applying for and receiving scholarships, (ii) the percentage of scholarship recipients who complete their college or university degree within 5 years, (iii) the average length of time it takes for scholarship recipients to complete their college or university degree, (iv) the reasons that scholarship recipients are discharged or fail to complete their college or university degree, (v) when available, youths' outcomes 5 years and 10 years after being awarded the scholarships, and (vi) budget allocations for maintenance and school expenses incurred by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-799, eff. 7-13-12; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-805, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 70. The High Speed Internet Services and Information Technology Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 661/30)

Sec. 30. High Speed Internet Services and Information Technology Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund to be known as the High Speed Internet Services and Information Technology Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Development for purposes of providing grants to the nonprofit organization enlisted under this Act.

(b) On the effective date of this Act, $4,000,000 in the Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund shall be transferred to the High Speed Internet Services and Information Technology Fund. Nothing contained in this subsection (b) shall affect the validity of grants issued with moneys from the Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund before June 30, 2007.

(Source: P.A. 95-684, eff. 10-19-07; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 75. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 10-66 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/10-66)

Sec. 10-66. Rate reductions. Rates for medical services purchased by the Divisions of Alcoholism Alcohol and Substance Abuse, Community Health and Prevention, Developmental Disabilities, Mental Health, or Rehabilitation Services within the Department of Human Services shall not be reduced below the rates calculated on April 1, 2011 unless the Department of Human Services promulgates rules and rules are implemented authorizing rate reductions.

(Source: P.A. 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 80. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Sections 15.4 and 18.6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/15.4)

Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit direct care staff to administer medications.

(a) This Section applies to (i) all programs for persons with a developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or fewer that are funded or licensed by the Department of Human Services and that distribute or administer medications and (ii) all intermediate care facilities for the developmentally disabled with 16 beds or fewer that are licensed by the Department of Public Health. The Department of Human Services shall develop a training program for authorized direct care staff to administer medications under the supervision and monitoring of a registered professional nurse. This training program shall be developed in consultation with professional associations representing (i) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) registered professional nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons who have successfully completed a medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a nurse-trainer. This authorization is specific to an individual receiving service in a specific agency and does not transfer to another agency.

"Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes, utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged specifically for an identified individual.

"Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer. Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered by a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully completed a Department-approved advanced training program specific to insulin administration developed in consultation with professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse, prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or (ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed to do so by the registered nurse.

"Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized, competency-based medication administration train-the-trainer program provided by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a Department of Human Services master nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the supervision and monitoring of the nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, and a curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal aspects of supervising those administering medications.

"Self-administration of medications" means an individual administers his or her own medications. To be considered capable to self-administer their own medication, individuals must, at a minimum, be able to identify their medication by size, shape, or color, know when they should take the medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each time.

"Training program" means a standardized medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a registered professional nurse for the purpose of training persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, curriculum overview, including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized competency-based evaluations on administration of medications and self-administration of medication training programs.

(c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care staff by nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this subsection.

(1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to administer medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the following for each individual to whom medication will be administered by non-licensed direct care staff:

(A) An assessment of the individual's health history and physical and mental status.

(B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.

(2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall meet the following criteria:

(A) Be 18 years of age or older.

(B) Have completed high school or have a high school equivalency certificate.

(C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.

(D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and Safety component of a Department of Human Services authorized direct care staff training program.

(E) Have successfully completed the training program, pass the written portion of the comprehensive exam, and score 100% on the competency-based assessment specific to the individual and his or her medications.

(F) Have received additional competency-based assessment by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by the nurse-trainer whenever a change of medication occurs or a new individual that requires medication administration enters the program.

(3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated by a nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse. Any necessary retraining shall be to the extent that is necessary to ensure competency of the authorized direct care staff to administer medication.

(4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer medication shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the registered professional nurse, the authorized direct care staff is no longer competent to administer medication.

(5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an individual's health status at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse.

(d) Medication self-administration shall meet the following requirements:

(1) As part of the normalization process, in order for each individual to attain the highest possible level of independent functioning, all individuals shall be permitted to participate in their total health care program. This program shall include, but not be limited to, individual training in preventive health and self-medication procedures.

(A) Every program shall adopt written policies and procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining preventative health and self-medication skills in consultation with a registered professional nurse, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine their ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer through the use of the Department's required, standardized screening and assessment instruments.

(C) When the results of the screening and assessment indicate an individual not to be capable to self-administer his or her own medications, programs shall be developed in consultation with the Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team to provide individuals with self-medication administration.

(2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent to self-administer medications if:

(A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; and

(B) approved to self-administer medication by the individual's Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse.

(e) Quality Assurance.

(1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician assistant, or pharmacist shall review the following for all individuals:

(A) Medication orders.

(B) Medication labels, including medications listed on the medication administration record for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure the labels match the orders issued by the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant.

(C) Medication administration records for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure that the records are completed appropriately for:

(i) medication administered as prescribed;

(ii) refusal by the individual; and

(iii) full signatures provided for all initials used.

(2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be done more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse or advanced practice nurse.

(3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and data collection for the purpose of monitoring and recommending corrective action shall be conducted within 7 days and included in the required annual review.

(f) Programs using authorized direct care staff to administer medications are responsible for documenting and maintaining records on the training that is completed.

(g) The absence of this training program constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, and welfare and necessitates emergency rulemaking by the Departments of Human Services and Public Health under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated authority to administer medications pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall be given additional education and testing to meet criteria for delegation authority to administer medications. Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify as an authorized direct care staff after initial training and testing must within 3 months be given another opportunity for retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails to meet criteria for delegated authority to administer medication, including, but not limited to, failure of the written test on 2 occasions shall be given consideration for shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee shall be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time period following initial testing. Refusal to complete training and testing required by this Section may be grounds for immediate dismissal.

(i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to administer medication shall be subject to suspension or discharge for errors resulting from the staff person's acts or omissions when performing the functions unless the staff person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton conduct. Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede paragraph (4) of subsection (c).

(j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistant shall be on duty or on call at all times in any program covered by this Section.

(k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining liability insurance for any program covered by this Section.

(l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as authorized direct care staff pursuant to this Section shall be granted consideration for a one-time additional salary differential. The Department shall determine and provide the necessary funding for the differential in the base. This subsection (l) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2000.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-901, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(20 ILCS 1705/18.6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 18.6. Mental Health Services Strategic Planning Task Force.

(a) Task Force. The Mental Health Services Strategic Planning Task Force is created.

(b) Meeting. The Task Force shall be appointed and hold its first meeting within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(c) Composition. The Task Force shall be comprised of the following members:

(1) Two members of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate and 2 members of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(2) Two members of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and 2 members of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(3) One representative of the Division of Mental Health within the Department of Human Services.

(4) One representative of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(5) One representative of the Bureau of Long Term Care within the Department of Public Health.

(6) One representative of the Illinois Children's Mental Health Partnership.

(7) Six representatives of the mental health providers and community stakeholders selected from names submitted by associates representing the various types of providers.

(8) Three representatives of the consumer community including a primary consumer, secondary consumer, and a representative of a mental health consumer advocacy organization.

(9) An individual from a union representing State employees providing services to persons with mental illness.

(10) One academic specialist in mental health outcomes, research, and evidence-based practices.

(d) Duty. The Task Force shall meet with the Office of the Governor and the appropriate legislative committees on mental health to develop a 5-year comprehensive strategic plan for the State's mental health services. The plan shall address the following topics:

(1) Provide sufficient home and community-based services to give consumers real options in care settings.

(2) Improve access to care.

(3) Reduce regulatory redundancy.

(4) Maintain financial viability for providers in a cost-effective manner to the State.

(5) Ensure care is effective, efficient, and appropriate regardless of the setting in which it is provided.

(6) Ensure quality of care in all care settings via the use of appropriate clinical outcomes.

(7) Ensure hospitalizations and institutional care, when necessary, is available to meet demand now and in the future.

(e) The Task Force shall work in conjunction with the Department of Human Services' Division of Developmental Disabilities to ensure effective treatment for those dually diagnosed with both mental illness and developmental disabilities. The Task Force shall also work in conjunction with the Department of Human Services' Division of Alcoholism Alcohol and Substance Abuse to ensure effective treatment for those who are dually diagnosed with both mental illness as well as substance abuse challenges.

(f) Compensation. Members of the Task Force shall not receive compensation nor reimbursement for necessary expenses incurred in performing the duties associated with the Task Force.

(g) Reporting. The Task Force shall present its plan to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than 18 months after the effective date of the amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. With its approval and authorization, and subject to appropriation, the Task Force shall convene quarterly meetings during the implementation of the 5-year strategic plan to monitor progress, review outcomes, and make ongoing recommendations. These ongoing recommendations shall be presented to the Governor and the General Assembly for feedback, suggestions, support, and approval. Within one year after recommendations are presented to the Governor and the General Assembly, the General Assembly shall vote on whether the recommendations should become law.

(h) Administrative support. The Department of Human Services shall provide administrative and staff support to the Task Force.

(i) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2019.

(Source: P.A. 97-438, eff. 8-18-11; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 85. The Department of Public Health Act is amended by changing Section 2.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2305/2.1)

Sec. 2.1. Information sharing.

(a) Whenever a State or local law enforcement authority learns of a case of an illness, health condition, or unusual disease or symptom cluster, reportable pursuant to rules adopted by the Department or by a local board of health or local public health authority, or a suspicious event that may be the cause of or related to a public health emergency, as that term is defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, it shall immediately notify the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department or local board of health or local public health authority.

(b) Whenever the Department or a local board of health or local public health authority learns of a case of an illness, health condition, or unusual disease or symptom cluster, reportable pursuant to rules adopted by the Department or by a local board of health or a local public health authority, or a suspicious event that it reasonably believes has the potential to be the cause of or related to a public health emergency, as that term is defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, it shall immediately notify the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the appropriate State and local law enforcement authorities, other appropriate State agencies, and federal health and law enforcement authorities and, after that notification, it shall provide law enforcement authorities with such other information as law enforcement authorities may request for the purpose of conducting a criminal investigation or a criminal prosecution of or arising out of that matter. No information containing the identity or tending to reveal the identity of any person may be redisclosed by law enforcement, except in a prosecution of that person for the commission of a crime.

(c) Sharing of information on reportable illnesses, health conditions, unusual disease or symptom clusters, or suspicious events between and among public health and law enforcement authorities shall be restricted to the information necessary for the treatment in response to, control of, investigation of, and prevention of a public health emergency, as that term is defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, or for criminal investigation or criminal prosecution of or arising out of that matter.

(d) The operation of the language of this Section is not dependent upon a declaration of disaster by the Governor pursuant to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-829, eff. 7-28-04; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 90. The Illinois Commission on Volunteerism and Community Service Act is amended by changing Section 6.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2330/6.1) (was 20 ILCS 710/6.1)

Sec. 6.1. Functions of Commission. The Commission shall meet at least quarterly and shall advise and consult with the Department of Public Health and the Governor's Office on all matters relating to community service in Illinois. In addition, the Commission shall have the following duties:

(a) prepare a 3-year State service plan, developed through an open, public process and updated annually;

(b) prepare the financial assistance applications of the State under the National and Community Service Trust Fund Act of 1993, as amended by the Serve America Act;

(c) assist in the preparation of the application by the State Board of Education for assistance under that Act;

(d) prepare the State's application under that Act for the approval of national service positions;

(e) assist in the provision of health care and child care benefits under that Act;

(f) develop a State recruitment, placement, and information dissemination system for participants in programs that receive assistance under the national service laws;

(g) administer the State's grant program including selection, oversight, and evaluation of grant recipients;

(h) make technical assistance available to enable applicants to plan and implement service programs and to apply for assistance under the national service laws;

(i) develop projects, training methods, curriculum materials, and other activities related to service;

(j) coordinate its functions with any division of the federal Corporation for National and Community Service outlined in the National and Community Service Trust Fund Act of 1993, as amended by the Serve America Act; .

(k) publicize Commission services and promote community involvement in the activities of the Commission;

(l) promote increased visibility and support for volunteers of all ages, especially youth and senior citizens, and community service in meeting the needs of Illinois residents; and

(m) represent the Department of Public Health and the Governor's Office on such occasions and in such manner as the Department may provide.

(Source: P.A. 98-692, eff. 7-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 95. The Blind Vendors Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2421/30)

Sec. 30. Vending machine income and compliance.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), and (i) of this Section, after July 1, 2010, all vending machine income, as defined by this Act, from vending machines on State property shall accrue to (1) the blind vendor operating the vending facilities on the property or (2) in the event there is no blind vendor operating a facility on the property, the Blind Vendors Trust Fund for use exclusively as set forth in subsection (a) of Section 25 of this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, all State university cafeterias and vending machines are exempt from this Act.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, all vending facilities at the Governor Samuel H. Shapiro Developmental Center in Kankakee are exempt from this Act.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, in the event there is no blind vendor operating a vending facility on the State property, all vending machine income, as defined in this Act, from vending machines on the State property of the Department of Corrections and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall accrue to the State agency and be allocated in accordance with the commissary provisions in the Unified Code of Corrections.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, in the event a blind vendor is operating a vending facility on the State property of the Department of or Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, a commission shall be paid to the State agency equal to 10% of the net proceeds from vending machines servicing State employees and 25% of the net proceeds from vending machines servicing visitors on the State property.

(f) The Secretary, directly or by delegation of authority, shall ensure compliance with this Section and Section 15 of this Act with respect to buildings, installations, facilities, roadside rest stops, and any other State property, and shall be responsible for the collection of, and accounting for, all vending machine income on this property. The Secretary shall enforce these provisions through litigation, arbitration, or any other legal means available to the State, and each State agency in control of this property shall be subject to the enforcement. State agencies or departments failing to comply with an order of the Department may be held in contempt in any court of general jurisdiction.

(g) Any limitation on the placement or operation of a vending machine by a State agency based on a determination that such placement or operation would adversely affect the interests of the State must be explained in writing to the Secretary. The Secretary shall promptly determine whether the limitation is justified. If the Secretary determines that the limitation is not justified, the State agency seeking the limitation shall immediately remove the limitation.

(h) The amount of vending machine income accruing from vending machines on State property that may be used for the functions of the Committee shall be determined annually by a two-thirds vote of the Committee, except that no more than 25% of the annual vending machine income may be used by the Committee for this purpose, based upon the income accruing to the Blind Vendors Trust Fund in the preceding year. The Committee may establish its budget and expend funds through contract or otherwise without the approval of the Department.

(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, with respect to vending machines located on any facility or property controlled or operated by the Division of Mental Health or the Division of Developmental Disabilities within the Department of Human Services:

(1) Any written contract in place as of the effective date of this Act between the Division and the Business Enterprise Program for the Blind shall be maintained and fully adhered to including any moneys paid to the individual facilities.

(2) With respect to existing vending machines with no written contract or agreement in place as of the effective date of this Act between the Division and a private vendor, bottler, or vending machine supplier, the Business Enterprise Program for the Blind has the right to provide the vending services as provided in this Act, provided that the blind vendor must provide 10% of gross sales from those machines to the individual facilities.

(Source: P.A. 96-644, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 100. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Sections 4.5 and 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Ethnic and racial data collection.

(a) Ethnic and racial data for every adult or juvenile arrested shall be collected at the following points of contact by the entity identified in this subsection or another entity authorized and qualified to collect and report on this data:

(1) at arrest or booking, by the supervising law enforcement agency;

(2) upon admittance to the Department of Corrections, by the Department of Corrections;

(3) upon admittance to the Department of Juvenile Justice, by the Department of Juvenile Justice; and

(4) (3) upon transfer from the Department of Juvenile Justice to the Department of Corrections, by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(b) Ethnic and racial data shall be collected through selection of one of the following categories:

(1) American Indian or Alaskan Native;

(2) Asian or Pacific Islander;

(3) Black or African American;

(4) White or Caucasian;

(5) Hispanic or Latino; or

(6) Unknown.

(c) The collecting entity shall make a good-faith effort to collect race and ethnicity information as self-reported by the adult or juvenile. If the adult or juvenile is unable or unwilling to provide race and ethnicity information, the collecting entity shall make a good-faith effort to deduce the race and ethnicity of the adult or juvenile.

(Source: P.A. 98-528, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-25-14.)

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when:

(A) He or she has never been convicted of a criminal offense; and

(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Class 4 felony convictions for:

Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act.

Possession of a controlled substance under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

Offenses under the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of burglary tools under Section 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed (i) 3 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has never been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)); or (ii) 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has ever been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)).

(C) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 97-443, eff. 8-19-11; 97-698, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1026, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163, eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-635, eff. 1-1-15; 98-637, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1009, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-30-14.)

Section 105. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 12 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities, organizations, and related persons:

(1) An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(2) An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act.

(3) Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act.

(A) If a demonstration project under the Nursing Home Care Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

(B) Except as provided in item (A) of this subsection, this Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(3.5) Skilled and intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act. (A) No permit or exemption is required for a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act prior to the reduction of the number of beds at a facility. If there is a total reduction of beds at a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, this is a discontinuation or closure of the facility. If a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act reduces the number of beds or discontinues the facility, that facility must notify the Board as provided in Section 14.1 of this Act.

(3.7) Facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(4) Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof.

(5) Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act.

(A) This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis.

(B) This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home.

(C) The Board, however, may require dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes under items (A) and (B) of this subsection to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

(6) An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility.

(7) An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of a health care category of service, including, but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart surgery.

(8) An institution, place, building, or room housing major medical equipment used in the direct clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.

"Health care facilities" does not include the following entities or facility transactions:

(1) Federally-owned facilities.

(2) Facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

(3) An existing facility located on any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed residential facility.

(4) Facilities licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(5) Facilities designated as supportive living facilities that are in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(6) Facilities established and operating under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's community-based health care center children's respite care center alternative health care model demonstration program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative health care model demonstration program.

(7) The closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, with the exception of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elect to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and with the exception of a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in connection with a proposal to close a facility and re-establish the facility in another location.

(8) Any change of ownership of a health care healthcare facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, with the exception of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act. children's community-based health care center of 2013 and with the exception of a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in connection with a proposal to close a facility and re-establish the facility in another location of 2013

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups, unless the entity constructs, modifies, or establishes a health care facility as specifically defined in this Section. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site or the initiation of a category of service.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or submitted as one project by the applicant, components of construction or modification undertaken by means of a single construction contract or financed through the issuance of a single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and $3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Category of service" means a grouping by generic class of various types or levels of support functions, equipment, care, or treatment provided to patients or residents, including, but not limited to, classes such as medical-surgical, pediatrics, or cardiac catheterization. A category of service may include subcategories or levels of care that identify a particular degree or type of care within the category of service. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional while functioning in an office providing for the care, diagnosis, or treatment of patients. A category of service that is subject to the Board's jurisdiction must be designated in rules adopted by the Board.

"State Board Staff Report" means the document that sets forth the review and findings of the State Board staff, as prescribed by the State Board, regarding applications subject to Board jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-277, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-980, eff. 8-17-12; 98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-629, eff. 1-1-15; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-22-14.)

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013, the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning. The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 120 days;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a service within an existing healthcare facility, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board. Requests for a written decision shall be made within 15 days after the Board meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. State Board members shall provide their rationale when voting on an item before the State Board at a State Board meeting in order to comply with subsection (b) of Section 3-108 of the Administrative Review Law of the Code of Civil Procedure. The transcript of the State Board meeting shall be incorporated into the Board's final decision. The staff of the Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record. The Board shall consider, for approval, the written draft of the final decision no later than the next scheduled Board meeting. The written decision shall identify the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the Board when coming to a final decision. If the Board denies or fails to approve an application for permit or exemption, the Board shall include in the final decision a detailed explanation as to why the application was denied and identify what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not fulfill.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Subcommittee shall evaluate, and make recommendations to the State Board regarding, the buying, selling, and exchange of beds between long-term care facilities within a specified geographic area or drive time. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.

(16) Prescribe and provide forms pertaining to the State Board Staff Report. A State Board Staff Report shall pertain to applications that include, but are not limited to, applications for permit or exemption, applications for permit renewal, applications for extension of the obligation period, applications requesting a declaratory ruling, or applications under the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Self Referral Act. State Board Staff Reports shall compare applications to the relevant review criteria under the Board's rules.

(17) (16) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. An application for the re-establishment of a facility in connection with the relocation of the facility shall not be granted unless the applicant has a contractual relationship with at least one hospital to provide emergency and inpatient mental health services required by facility consumers, and at least one community mental health agency to provide oversight and assistance to facility consumers while living in the facility, and appropriate services, including case management, to assist them to prepare for discharge and reside stably in the community thereafter. No new facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall be established after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly except in connection with the relocation of an existing facility to a new location. An application for a new location shall not be approved unless there are adequate community services accessible to the consumers within a reasonable distance, or by use of public transportation, so as to facilitate the goal of achieving maximum individual self-care and independence. At no time shall the total number of authorized beds under this Act in facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 exceed the number of authorized beds on June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1045, eff. 8-21-13; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12; 98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 110. The Home Repair and Construction Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5050/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 20. Duties. The Task Force shall:

(1) discuss whether the residents of Illinois would benefit from legislation requiring home repair and construction service providers to obtain a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation before offering these theses services in Illinois;

(2) if it is determined that licensure is required, determine:

(A) the requirements applicants must meet to qualify for a license;

(B) grounds for denial or revocation of a license; and

(C) any other considerations relevant to a licensing requirement; and

(3) make recommendations to the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-1030, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 115. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5.855 and by changing Sections 6z-43 and 8.12 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.855)

Sec. 5.855. The Special Olympics Illinois and Special Children's Charities Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-649, eff. 6-16-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.856)

Sec. 5.856 5.855. The Supportive Living Facility Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.857)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)

Sec. 5.857 5.855. The Capital Development Board Revolving Fund. This Section is repealed July 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 98-674, eff. 6-30-14; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.858)

Sec. 5.858 5.855. The Hospital Licensure Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-683, eff. 6-30-14; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.859)

Sec. 5.859 5.855. The Illinois National Guard Billeting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-733, eff. 7-16-14; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.860)

Sec. 5.860 5.855. The Job Opportunities for Qualified Applicants Enforcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-774, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.861)

Sec. 5.861 5.855. The Distance Learning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-792, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.862)

Sec. 5.862 5.855. The State Treasurer's Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-965, eff. 8-15-14; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.863)

Sec. 5.863 5.855. The Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-1001, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.864)

Sec. 5.864 5.855. The Natural Resources Restoration Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-1010, eff. 8-19-14; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.865)

Sec. 5.865 5.855. The Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.867)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.867 5.855. The Illinois Secure Choice Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-1150, eff. 6-1-15; revised 2-2-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-43)

Sec. 6z-43. Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, which shall contain 3 accounts: (i) the General Account, (ii) the Tobacco Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and (iii) the Tobacco Settlement Residual Account. There shall be deposited into the several accounts of the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund and the Attorney General Tobacco Fund all monies paid to the State pursuant to (1) the Master Settlement Agreement entered in the case of People of the State of Illinois v. Philip Morris, et al. (Circuit Court of Cook County, No. 96-L13146) and (2) any settlement with or judgment against any tobacco product manufacturer other than one participating in the Master Settlement Agreement in satisfaction of any released claim as defined in the Master Settlement Agreement, as well as any other monies as provided by law. Moneys shall be deposited into the Tobacco Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and the Tobacco Settlement Residual Account as provided by the terms of the Railsplitter Tobacco Settlement Authority Act, provided that an annual amount not less than $2,500,000, subject to appropriation, shall be deposited into the Attorney General Tobacco Fund for use only by the Attorney General's office. The scheduled $2,500,000 deposit into the Tobacco Settlement Residual Account for fiscal year 2011 should be transferred to the Attorney General Tobacco Fund in fiscal year 2012 as soon as this fund has been established. All other moneys available to be deposited into the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund shall be deposited into the General Account. An investment made from moneys credited to a specific account constitutes part of that account and such account shall be credited with all income from the investment of such moneys. The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the several accounts the Fund in the same manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the investment of pension funds other than those established under Article 3 or 4 of the Code. Notwithstanding the foregoing, to the extent necessary to preserve the tax-exempt status of any bonds issued pursuant to the Railsplitter Tobacco Settlement Authority Act, the interest on which is intended to be excludable from the gross income of the owners for federal income tax purposes, moneys on deposit in the Tobacco Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and the Tobacco Settlement Residual Account may be invested in obligations the interest upon which is tax-exempt under the provisions of Section 103 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or any successor code or provision.

(b) Moneys on deposit in the Tobacco Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and the Tobacco Settlement Residual Account may be expended, subject to appropriation, for the purposes authorized in subsection (g) of Section 3-6 Section 6(g) of the Railsplitter Tobacco Settlement Authority Act.

(c) As soon as may be practical after June 30, 2001, upon notification from and at the direction of the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the unencumbered balance in the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund as of June 30, 2001, as determined by the Governor, into the Budget Stabilization Fund. The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the Budget Stabilization Fund in the same manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the investment of pension funds other than those established under Article 3 or 4 of the Code.

(d) All federal financial participation moneys received pursuant to expenditures from the Fund shall be deposited into the General Account.

(Source: P.A. 96-958, eff. 7-1-10; 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; revised 12-1-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.12) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.12)

Sec. 8.12. State Pensions Fund.

(a) The moneys in the State Pensions Fund shall be used exclusively for the administration of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act and for the expenses incurred by the Auditor General for administering the provisions of Section 2-8.1 of the Illinois State Auditing Act and for the funding of the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. Beginning in State fiscal year 2016, payments to the designated retirement systems under this Section shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any State contributions required under the Illinois Pension Code.

"Designated retirement systems" means:

(1) the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois;

(2) the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(3) the State Universities Retirement System;

(4) the Judges Retirement System of Illinois; and

(5) the General Assembly Retirement System.

(b) Each year the General Assembly may make appropriations from the State Pensions Fund for the administration of the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

Each month, the Commissioner of the Office of Banks and Real Estate shall certify to the State Treasurer the actual expenditures that the Office of Banks and Real Estate incurred conducting unclaimed property examinations under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act during the immediately preceding month. Within a reasonable time following the acceptance of such certification by the State Treasurer, the State Treasurer shall pay from its appropriation from the State Pensions Fund to the Bank and Trust Company Fund, the Savings Bank Regulatory Fund, and the Residential Finance Regulatory Fund an amount equal to the expenditures incurred by each Fund for that month.

Each month, the Director of Financial Institutions shall certify to the State Treasurer the actual expenditures that the Department of Financial Institutions incurred conducting unclaimed property examinations under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act during the immediately preceding month. Within a reasonable time following the acceptance of such certification by the State Treasurer, the State Treasurer shall pay from its appropriation from the State Pensions Fund to the Financial Institution Fund and the Credit Union Fund an amount equal to the expenditures incurred by each Fund for that month.

(c) As soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the General Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund (1) to the State Universities Retirement System the amount certified under Section 15-165 during the prior year, (2) to the Judges Retirement System of Illinois the amount certified under Section 18-140 during the prior year, and (3) to the General Assembly Retirement System the amount certified under Section 2-134 during the prior year as part of the required State contributions to each of those designated retirement systems; except that amounts appropriated under this subsection (c) in State fiscal year 2005 shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000. If the amount in the State Pensions Fund does not exceed the sum of the amounts certified in Sections 15-165, 18-140, and 2-134 by at least $5,000,000, the amount paid to each designated retirement system under this subsection shall be reduced in proportion to the amount certified by each of those designated retirement systems.

(c-5) For fiscal years 2006 through 2015, the General Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund to the State Universities Retirement System the amount estimated to be available during the fiscal year in the State Pensions Fund; provided, however, that the amounts appropriated under this subsection (c-5) shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.

(c-6) For fiscal year 2016 and each fiscal year thereafter, as soon as may be practical after any money is deposited into the State Pensions Fund from the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund, the State Treasurer shall apportion the deposited amount among the designated retirement systems as defined in subsection (a) to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall pay the apportioned amounts to the designated retirement systems to fund the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. The amount apportioned to each designated retirement system shall constitute a portion of the amount estimated to be available for appropriation from the State Pensions Fund that is the same as that retirement system's portion of the total actual reserve deficiency of the systems, as determined annually by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget at the request of the State Treasurer. The amounts apportioned under this subsection shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.

(d) The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the individual and total reserve deficiencies of the designated retirement systems. For this purpose, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall utilize the latest available audit and actuarial reports of each of the retirement systems and the relevant reports and statistics of the Public Employee Pension Fund Division of the Department of Insurance.

(d-1) As soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Comptroller shall direct and the Treasurer shall transfer from the State Pensions Fund to the General Revenue Fund, as funds become available, a sum equal to the amounts that would have been paid from the State Pensions Fund to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, the State Universities Retirement System, the Judges Retirement System of Illinois, the General Assembly Retirement System, and the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois after the effective date of this amendatory Act during the remainder of fiscal year 2004 to the designated retirement systems from the appropriations provided for in this Section if the transfers provided in Section 6z-61 had not occurred. The transfers described in this subsection (d-1) are to partially repay the General Revenue Fund for the costs associated with the bonds used to fund the moneys transferred to the designated retirement systems under Section 6z-61.

(e) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of 1994 shall first apply to distributions from the Fund for State fiscal year 1996.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-674, eff. 6-30-14; 98-1081, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 120. The Public Funds Investment Act is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 235/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Federally insured deposits at Illinois financial institutions.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other statute, whenever a public agency invests public funds in an interest-bearing savings account, demand deposit account, interest-bearing certificate of deposit, or interest-bearing time deposit under Section 2 of this Act, the provisions of Section 6 of this Act and any other statutory requirements pertaining to the eligibility of a bank to receive or hold public deposits or to the pledging of collateral by a bank to secure public deposits do not apply to any bank receiving or holding all or part of the invested public funds if (i) the public agency initiates the investment at or through a bank located in Illinois and (ii) the invested public funds are at all times fully insured by an agency or instrumentality of the federal government.

(b) Nothing in this Section is intended to:

(1) prohibit a public agency from requiring the bank at or through which the investment of public funds is initiated to provide the public agency with the information otherwise required by subsection (a), (b), or (c) of Section 6 of this Act as a condition of investing the public funds at or through that bank; or

(2) permit a bank to receive or hold public deposits if that bank is prohibited from doing so by any rule, sanction, or order issued by a regulatory agency or by a court.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the term "bank" includes any person doing a banking business whether subject to the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 98-703, eff. 7-7-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 125. The Illinois Coal Technology Development Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 730/3) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 8203)

Sec. 3. Transfers to Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund Funds. As soon as may be practicable after the first day of each month, the Department of Revenue shall certify to the Treasurer an amount equal to 1/64 of the revenue realized from the tax imposed by the Electricity Excise Tax Law, Section 2 of the Public Utilities Revenue Act, Section 2 of the Messages Tax Act, and Section 2 of the Gas Revenue Tax Act, during the preceding month. Upon receipt of the certification, the Treasurer shall transfer the amount shown on such certification from the General Revenue Fund to the Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund, which is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury, except that no transfer shall be made in any month in which the Fund has reached the following balance:

(1) $7,000,000 during fiscal year 1994.

(2) $8,500,000 during fiscal year 1995.

(3) $10,000,000 during fiscal years 1996 and 1997.

(4) During fiscal year 1998 through fiscal year 2004, an amount equal to the sum of $10,000,000 plus additional moneys deposited into the Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund from the Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge under Section 6.5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997.

(5) During fiscal year 2005, an amount equal to the sum of $7,000,000 plus additional moneys deposited into the Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund from the Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge under Section 6.5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997.

(6) During fiscal year 2006 and each fiscal year thereafter, an amount equal to the sum of $10,000,000 plus additional moneys deposited into the Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund from the Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge under Section 6.5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997.

(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-1-14.)

Section 130. The Charitable Trust Stabilization Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 790/10)

Sec. 10. The Charitable Trust Stabilization Committee.

(a) The Charitable Trust Stabilization Committee is created. The Committee consists of the following members:

(1) the Attorney General or his or her designee, who shall serve as co-chair of the Committee;

(2) a member that represents the Office of the State Treasurer that is appointed by the Treasurer, who shall serve as co-chair of the Committee;

(3) the Lieutenant Governor or his or her designee;

(4) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or his or her designee;

(5) the chief executive officer of the Division of Financial Institutions in the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation Regulations or his or her designee; and

(6) six private citizens, who shall serve a term of 6 years, appointed by the State Treasurer with advice and consent of the Senate.

(b) The State Treasurer shall adopt rules, including procedures and criteria for grant awards. The Committee must meet at least once each calendar quarter, and it may establish committees and officers as it deems necessary. For purposes of Committee meetings, a quorum is a majority of the members. Meetings of the Committee are subject to the Open Meetings Act. The Committee must afford an opportunity for public comment at each of its meetings.

(c) Committee members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for their reasonable travel expenses from funds available for that purpose. The Office of the State Treasurer shall, subject to appropriation, provide staff and administrative support services to the Committee.

(d) The State Treasurer shall administer the Charitable Trust Stabilization Fund.

The State Treasurer may transfer all or a portion of the balance of the fund to a third-party administrator to fulfill the mission of the Committee and the purposes of the fund in accordance with this Act and in compliance with Section 5(c) of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-274, eff. 8-8-11; revised 12-1-14.)

Section 135. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.38 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.38)

Sec. 8.38. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 98-641, 98-666, 98-729, 98-930, or 98-1027 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-641, eff. 6-9-14; 98-666, eff. 1-1-15; 98-729, eff. 7-26-14; 98-930, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)

Section 140. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Section 901 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/901) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-901)

Sec. 901. Collection authority.

(a) In general.

The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act. The Department shall collect certified past due child support amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-650). Except as provided in subsections (c), (e), (f), (g), and (h) of this Section, money collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-650) shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Local Government Distributive Fund.

Beginning August 1, 1969, and continuing through June 30, 1994, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State treasury, to be known as the "Local Government Distributive Fund", an amount equal to 1/12 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1994, and continuing through June 30, 1995, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to 1/11 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1995 and continuing through January 31, 2011, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the net of (i) 1/10 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act during the preceding month (ii) minus, beginning July 1, 2003 and ending June 30, 2004, $6,666,666, and beginning July 1, 2004, zero. Beginning February 1, 2011, and continuing through January 31, 2015, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 6% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 5% individual income tax rate after 2010) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 6.86% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after 2010) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Beginning February 1, 2015 and continuing through January 31, 2025, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 8% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 3.75% individual income tax rate after 2014) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 9.14% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 5.25% corporate income tax rate after 2014) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Beginning February 1, 2025, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 9.23% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 3.25% individual income tax rate after 2024) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 10% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Net revenue realized for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Education Assistance Fund, the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund, the Fund for the Advancement of Education, and the Commitment to Human Services Fund during the month minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

Beginning on August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1052) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Comptroller shall perform the transfers required by this subsection (b) no later than 60 days after he or she receives the certification from the Treasurer as provided in Section 1 of the State Revenue Sharing Act.

(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3), of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 6% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999 through 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.1%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 8%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 11.7%. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Annual Percentage shall be 10% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.75%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 10%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 18% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999, 2000, and 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 19%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 27%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 32%. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Annual Percentage shall be 24% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 20%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 13.4%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000 in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and (iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.

(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act, for paying rebates under Section 208.1 in the event that the amounts in the Homeowners' Tax Relief Fund are insufficient for that purpose, and for making transfers pursuant to this subsection (d).

(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year 1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year; excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c) less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit.

(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund for the purpose of paying refunds upon the order of the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund.

On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.

(f) Deposits into the Fund for the Advancement of Education. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Fund for the Advancement of Education:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (f) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(g) Deposits into the Commitment to Human Services Fund. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Commitment to Human Services Fund:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (g) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(h) Deposits into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. Beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each month the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department from the tax imposed by subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, net of deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund made from those cash receipts.

(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-674, eff. 6-30-14; 98-1052, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1098, eff. 8-26-14; revised 9-26-14.)

Section 145. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.2)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

"Use" means the exercise by any person of any right or power over tangible personal property incident to the ownership of that property, except that it does not include the sale of such property in any form as tangible personal property in the regular course of business to the extent that such property is not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, and does not include the use of such property by its owner for demonstration purposes: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product of manufacturing. "Use" does not mean the demonstration use or interim use of tangible personal property by a retailer before he sells that tangible personal property. For watercraft or aircraft, if the period of demonstration use or interim use by the retailer exceeds 18 months, the retailer shall pay on the retailers' original cost price the tax imposed by this Act, and no credit for that tax is permitted if the watercraft or aircraft is subsequently sold by the retailer. "Use" does not mean the physical incorporation of tangible personal property, to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, as an ingredient or constituent, into other tangible personal property (a) which is sold in the regular course of business or (b) which the person incorporating such ingredient or constituent therein has undertaken at the time of such purchase to cause to be transported in interstate commerce to destinations outside the State of Illinois: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product of manufacturing.

"Watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

"Purchase at retail" means the acquisition of the ownership of or title to tangible personal property through a sale at retail.

"Purchaser" means anyone who, through a sale at retail, acquires the ownership of tangible personal property for a valuable consideration.

"Sale at retail" means any transfer of the ownership of or title to tangible personal property to a purchaser, for the purpose of use, and not for the purpose of resale in any form as tangible personal property to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, for a valuable consideration: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product of manufacturing. For this purpose, slag produced as an incident to manufacturing pig iron or steel and sold is considered to be an intentionally produced by-product of manufacturing. "Sale at retail" includes any such transfer made for resale unless made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as incorporated by reference into Section 12 of this Act. Transactions whereby the possession of the property is transferred but the seller retains the title as security for payment of the selling price are sales.

"Sale at retail" shall also be construed to include any Illinois florist's sales transaction in which the purchase order is received in Illinois by a florist and the sale is for use or consumption, but the Illinois florist has a florist in another state deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in such other state.

Nonreusable tangible personal property that is used by persons engaged in the business of operating a restaurant, cafeteria, or drive-in is a sale for resale when it is transferred to customers in the ordinary course of business as part of the sale of food or beverages and is used to deliver, package, or consume food or beverages, regardless of where consumption of the food or beverages occurs. Examples of those items include, but are not limited to nonreusable, paper and plastic cups, plates, baskets, boxes, sleeves, buckets or other containers, utensils, straws, placemats, napkins, doggie bags, and wrapping or packaging materials that are transferred to customers as part of the sale of food or beverages in the ordinary course of business.

The purchase, employment and transfer of such tangible personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a purchase, use or sale of tangible personal property.

"Selling price" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, property other than as hereinafter provided, and services, but not including the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property where the item that is traded-in is of like kind and character as that which is being sold, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include interest or finance charges which appear as separate items on the bill of sale or sales contract nor charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act", or on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax that is imposed by this Act, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit, on account of the seller's tax liability under any local occupation tax administered by the Department, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchasers, the tax that is imposed under any local use tax administered by the Department. Effective December 1, 1985, "selling price" shall include charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under the Cigarette Tax Act, on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax imposed under the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit.

Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, for any motor vehicle, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Vehicle Code, that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing the vehicle for a defined period that is longer than one year and (1) is a motor vehicle of the second division that: (A) is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat; (B) is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers; or (C) has a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,000 pounds or less or (2) is a motor vehicle of the first division, "selling price" or "amount of sale" means the consideration received by the lessor pursuant to the lease contract, including amounts due at lease signing and all monthly or other regular payments charged over the term of the lease. Also included in the selling price is any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, including, but not limited to, excess mileage charges and charges for excess wear and tear. For sales that occur in Illinois, with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle does not incur the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act on those amounts, and the retailer who makes the retail sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor is not required to collect the tax imposed by this Act or to pay the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act on those amounts. However, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle assumes the liability for reporting and paying the tax on those amounts directly to the Department in the same form (Illinois Retailers' Occupation Tax, and local retailers' occupation taxes, if applicable) in which the retailer would have reported and paid such tax if the retailer had accounted for the tax to the Department. For amounts received by the lessor from the lessee that are not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor must file the return and pay the tax to the Department by the due date otherwise required by this Act for returns other than transaction returns. If the retailer is entitled under this Act to a discount for collecting and remitting the tax imposed under this Act to the Department with respect to the sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor, then the right to the discount provided in this Act shall be transferred to the lessor with respect to the tax paid by the lessor for any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed; provided that the discount is only allowed if the return is timely filed and for amounts timely paid. The "selling price" of a motor vehicle that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year shall not be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessor, nor shall it be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessee, regardless of whether the trade-in value thereof is assigned by the lessee to the lessor. In the case of a motor vehicle that is sold for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year, the sale occurs at the time of the delivery of the vehicle, regardless of the due date of any lease payments. A lessor who incurs a Retailers' Occupation Tax liability on the sale of a motor vehicle coming off lease may not take a credit against that liability for the Use Tax the lessor paid upon the purchase of the motor vehicle (or for any tax the lessor paid with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that was not calculated at the time the lease was executed) if the selling price of the motor vehicle at the time of purchase was calculated using the definition of "selling price" as defined in this paragraph. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, lessors shall file all returns and make all payments required under this paragraph to the Department by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department. This paragraph does not apply to leases of motor vehicles for which, at the time the lease is entered into, the term of the lease is not a defined period, including leases with a defined initial period with the option to continue the lease on a month-to-month or other basis beyond the initial defined period.

The phrase "like kind and character" shall be liberally construed (including but not limited to any form of motor vehicle for any form of motor vehicle, or any kind of farm or agricultural implement for any other kind of farm or agricultural implement), while not including a kind of item which, if sold at retail by that retailer, would be exempt from retailers' occupation tax and use tax as an isolated or occasional sale.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Retailer" means and includes every person engaged in the business of making sales at retail as defined in this Section.

A person who holds himself or herself out as being engaged (or who habitually engages) in selling tangible personal property at retail is a retailer hereunder with respect to such sales (and not primarily in a service occupation) notwithstanding the fact that such person designs and produces such tangible personal property on special order for the purchaser and in such a way as to render the property of value only to such purchaser, if such tangible personal property so produced on special order serves substantially the same function as stock or standard items of tangible personal property that are sold at retail.

A person whose activities are organized and conducted primarily as a not-for-profit service enterprise, and who engages in selling tangible personal property at retail (whether to the public or merely to members and their guests) is a retailer with respect to such transactions, excepting only a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes either (1), to the extent of sales by such person to its members, students, patients or inmates of tangible personal property to be used primarily for the purposes of such person, or (2), to the extent of sales by such person of tangible personal property which is not sold or offered for sale by persons organized for profit. The selling of school books and school supplies by schools at retail to students is not "primarily for the purposes of" the school which does such selling. This paragraph does not apply to nor subject to taxation occasional dinners, social or similar activities of a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes, whether or not such activities are open to the public.

A person who is the recipient of a grant or contract under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (P.L. 92-258) and serves meals to participants in the federal Nutrition Program for the Elderly in return for contributions established in amount by the individual participant pursuant to a schedule of suggested fees as provided for in the federal Act is not a retailer under this Act with respect to such transactions.

Persons who engage in the business of transferring tangible personal property upon the redemption of trading stamps are retailers hereunder when engaged in such business.

The isolated or occasional sale of tangible personal property at retail by a person who does not hold himself out as being engaged (or who does not habitually engage) in selling such tangible personal property at retail or a sale through a bulk vending machine does not make such person a retailer hereunder. However, any person who is engaged in a business which is not subject to the tax imposed by the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" because of involving the sale of or a contract to sell real estate or a construction contract to improve real estate, but who, in the course of conducting such business, transfers tangible personal property to users or consumers in the finished form in which it was purchased, and which does not become real estate, under any provision of a construction contract or real estate sale or real estate sales agreement entered into with some other person arising out of or because of such nontaxable business, is a retailer to the extent of the value of the tangible personal property so transferred. If, in such transaction, a separate charge is made for the tangible personal property so transferred, the value of such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the amount so separately charged, but not less than the cost of such property to the transferor; if no separate charge is made, the value of such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the cost to the transferor of such tangible personal property.

"Retailer maintaining a place of business in this State", or any like term, means and includes any of the following retailers:

1. A retailer having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily, or whether such retailer or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State. However, the ownership of property that is located at the premises of a printer with which the retailer has contracted for printing and that consists of the final printed product, property that becomes a part of the final printed product, or copy from which the printed product is produced shall not result in the retailer being deemed to have or maintain an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse, or other place of business within this State.

1.1. A retailer having a contract with a person located in this State under which the person, for a commission or other consideration based upon the sale of tangible personal property by the retailer, directly or indirectly refers potential customers to the retailer by providing to the potential customers a promotional code or other mechanism that allows the retailer to track purchases referred by such persons. Examples of mechanisms that allow the retailer to track purchases referred by such persons include but are not limited to the use of a link on the person's Internet website, promotional codes distributed through the person's hand-delivered or mailed material, and promotional codes distributed by the person through radio or other broadcast media. The provisions of this paragraph 1.1 shall apply only if the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property by the retailer to customers who are referred to the retailer by all persons in this State under such contracts exceed $10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December. A retailer meeting the requirements of this paragraph 1.1 shall be presumed to be maintaining a place of business in this State but may rebut this presumption by submitting proof that the referrals or other activities pursued within this State by such persons were not sufficient to meet the nexus standards of the United States Constitution during the preceding 4 quarterly periods.

1.2. Beginning July 1, 2011, a retailer having a contract with a person located in this State under which:

A. the retailer sells the same or substantially similar line of products as the person located in this State and does so using an identical or substantially similar name, trade name, or trademark as the person located in this State; and

B. the retailer provides a commission or other consideration to the person located in this State based upon the sale of tangible personal property by the retailer.

The provisions of this paragraph 1.2 shall apply only if the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property by the retailer to customers in this State under all such contracts exceed $10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December.

2. A retailer soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of a telecommunication or television shopping system (which utilizes toll free numbers) which is intended by the retailer to be broadcast by cable television or other means of broadcasting, to consumers located in this State.

3. A retailer, pursuant to a contract with a broadcaster or publisher located in this State, soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of advertising which is disseminated primarily to consumers located in this State and only secondarily to bordering jurisdictions.

4. A retailer soliciting orders for tangible personal property by mail if the solicitations are substantial and recurring and if the retailer benefits from any banking, financing, debt collection, telecommunication, or marketing activities occurring in this State or benefits from the location in this State of authorized installation, servicing, or repair facilities.

5. A retailer that is owned or controlled by the same interests that own or control any retailer engaging in business in the same or similar line of business in this State.

6. A retailer having a franchisee or licensee operating under its trade name if the franchisee or licensee is required to collect the tax under this Section.

7. A retailer, pursuant to a contract with a cable television operator located in this State, soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of advertising which is transmitted or distributed over a cable television system in this State.

8. A retailer engaging in activities in Illinois, which activities in the state in which the retail business engaging in such activities is located would constitute maintaining a place of business in that state.

"Bulk vending machine" means a vending machine, containing unsorted confections, nuts, toys, or other items designed primarily to be used or played with by children which, when a coin or coins of a denomination not larger than $0.50 are inserted, are dispensed in equal portions, at random and without selection by the customer.

(Source: P.A. 98-628, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1080, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1089, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 150. The Cigarette Tax Act is amended by changing Section 4g as follows:

(35 ILCS 130/4g)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 4g. Retailer's license. Beginning on January 1, 2016, no person may engage in business as a retailer of cigarettes in this State without first having obtained a license from the Department. Application for license shall be made to the Department, by electronic means, in a form prescribed by the Department. Each applicant for a license under this Section shall furnish to the Department, in an electronic format established by the Department, the following information:

(1) the name and address of the applicant;

(2) the address of the location at which the applicant proposes to engage in business as a retailer of cigarettes in this State; and

(3) such other additional information as the Department may lawfully require by its rules and regulations.

The annual license fee payable to the Department for each retailer's license shall be $75. The fee shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be for the cost of tobacco retail inspection and contraband tobacco and tobacco smuggling with at least two-thirds of the money being used for contraband tobacco and tobacco smuggling operations and enforcement.

Each applicant for a license shall pay the fee to the Department at the time of submitting its application for a license to the Department. The Department shall require an applicant for a license under this Section to electronically file and pay the fee.

A separate annual license fee shall be paid for each place of business at which a person who is required to procure a retailer's license under this Section proposes to engage in business as a retailer in Illinois under this Act.

The following are ineligible to receive a retailer's license under this Act:

(1) a person who has been convicted of a felony related to the illegal transportation, sale, or distribution of cigarettes, or a tobacco-related felony, under any federal or State law, if the Department, after investigation and a hearing if requested by the applicant, determines that the person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust; or

(2) a corporation, if any officer, manager, or director thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation, would not be eligible to receive a license under this Act for any reason.

The Department, upon receipt of an application and license fee, in proper form, from a person who is eligible to receive a retailer's license under this Act, shall issue to such applicant a license in form as prescribed by the Department. That license shall permit the applicant to whom it is issued to engage in business as a retailer under this Act at the place shown in his or her application. All licenses issued by the Department under this Section shall be valid for a period not to exceed one year after issuance unless sooner revoked, canceled, or suspended as provided in this Act. No license issued under this Section is transferable or assignable. The license shall be conspicuously displayed in the place of business conducted by the licensee in Illinois under such license. The Department shall not issue a retailer's license to a retailer unless the retailer is also registered under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. A person who obtains a license as a retailer who ceases to do business as specified in the license, or who never commenced business, or who obtains a distributor's license, or whose license is suspended or revoked, shall immediately surrender the license to the Department.

Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section subsection may, within 30 days after notice of the decision, protest and request a hearing. Upon receiving a request for a hearing, the Department shall give written notice to the person requesting the hearing of the time and place fixed for the hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to that person. In the absence of a protest and request for a hearing within 30 days, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given.

(Source: P.A. 98-1055, eff. 1-1-16; revised 12-1-14.)

Section 155. The Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10-21 as follows:

(35 ILCS 143/10-21)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10-21. Retailer's license. Beginning on January 1, 2016, no person may engage in business as a retailer of tobacco products in this State without first having obtained a license from the Department. Application for license shall be made to the Department, by electronic means, in a form prescribed by the Department. Each applicant for a license under this Section shall furnish to the Department, in an electronic format established by the Department, the following information:

(1) the name and address of the applicant;

(2) the address of the location at which the applicant proposes to engage in business as a retailer of tobacco products in this State;

(3) such other additional information as the Department may lawfully require by its rules and regulations.

The annual license fee payable to the Department for each retailer's license shall be $75. The fee will be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used for the cost of tobacco retail inspection and contraband tobacco and tobacco smuggling with at least two-thirds of the money being used for contraband tobacco and tobacco smuggling operations and enforcement.

Each applicant for license shall pay such fee to the Department at the time of submitting its application for license to the Department. The Department shall require an applicant for a license under this Section to electronically file and pay the fee.

A separate annual license fee shall be paid for each place of business at which a person who is required to procure a retailer's license under this Section proposes to engage in business as a retailer in Illinois under this Act.

The following are ineligible to receive a retailer's license under this Act:

(1) a person who has been convicted of a felony under any federal or State law for smuggling cigarettes or tobacco products or tobacco tax evasion, if the Department, after investigation and a hearing if requested by the applicant, determines that such person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust; and

(2) a corporation, if any officer, manager or director thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation, would not be eligible to receive a license under this Act for any reason.

The Department, upon receipt of an application and license fee, in proper form, from a person who is eligible to receive a retailer's license under this Act, shall issue to such applicant a license in form as prescribed by the Department, which license shall permit the applicant to which it is issued to engage in business as a retailer under this Act at the place shown in his application. All licenses issued by the Department under this Section shall be valid for a period not to exceed one year after issuance unless sooner revoked, canceled or suspended as provided in this Act. No license issued under this Section is transferable or assignable. Such license shall be conspicuously displayed in the place of business conducted by the licensee in Illinois under such license. A person who obtains a license as a retailer who ceases to do business as specified in the license, or who never commenced business, or who obtains a distributor's license, or whose license is suspended or revoked, shall immediately surrender the license to the Department. The Department shall not issue a license to a retailer unless the retailer is also validly registered under the Retailers Occupation Tax Act.

A retailer as defined under this Act need not obtain an additional license under this Act, but shall be deemed to be sufficiently licensed by virtue of his being properly licensed as a retailer under Section 4g of the Cigarette Tax Act.

Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section subsection may, within 30 days after notice of the decision, protest and request a hearing. Upon receiving a request for a hearing, the Department shall give notice to the person requesting the hearing of the time and place fixed for the hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to that person. In the absence of a protest and request for a hearing within 30 days, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given.

(Source: P.A. 98-1055, eff. 1-1-16; revised 12-1-14.)

Section 160. The Local Government Disaster Service Volunteer Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 122/15)

Sec. 15. Local government disaster service volunteer leave. An employee of a local agency who is a certified disaster service volunteer of the American Red Cross or assigned to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency in accordance with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the Emergency Management Assistance Compact Act, or other applicable administrative rules may be granted leave from his or her work with pay for not more than 20 working days in any 12-month period to participate in specialized disaster relief services for the American Red Cross or for the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, as the case may be, upon the request of the American Red Cross or the Illinois Emergency Management Agency for the services of that employee and upon the approval of that employee's agency, without loss of seniority, pay, vacation time, compensatory time, personal days, sick time, or earned overtime accumulation. The agency must compensate an employee granted leave under this Section at his or her regular rate of pay for those regular work hours during which the employee is absent from work. Leave under this Act shall not be unreasonably denied for services related to a disaster within the United States or its territories.

(Source: P.A. 92-95, eff. 7-18-01; 93-893, eff. 8-10-04; revised 12-1-14.)

Section 165. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/9) (from Ch. 85, par. 509)

Sec. 9. A special fund is hereby established in the State Treasury to be known as the "The Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund" and shall be financed as provided in Section 9.1 of this Act and Section 5-9-1 of the "Unified Code of Corrections", unless the fines, costs, or additional amounts imposed are subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Moneys in this Fund shall be expended as follows:

(1) a A portion of the total amount deposited in the Fund may be used, as appropriated by the General Assembly, for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board;

(2) a A portion of the total amount deposited in the Fund shall be appropriated for the reimbursement of local governmental agencies participating in training programs certified by the Board, in an amount equaling 1/2 of the total sum paid by such agencies during the State's previous fiscal year for mandated training for probationary police officers or probationary county corrections officers and for optional advanced and specialized law enforcement or county corrections training; these . These reimbursements may include the costs for tuition at training schools, the salaries of trainees while in schools, and the necessary travel and room and board expenses for each trainee; if . If the appropriations under this paragraph (2) are not sufficient to fully reimburse the participating local governmental agencies, the available funds shall be apportioned among such agencies, with priority first given to repayment of the costs of mandatory training given to law enforcement officer or county corrections officer recruits, then to repayment of costs of advanced or specialized training for permanent police officers or permanent county corrections officers;

(3) a A portion of the total amount deposited in the Fund may be used to fund the "Intergovernmental Law Enforcement Officer's In-Service Training Act", veto overridden October 29, 1981, as now or hereafter amended, at a rate and method to be determined by the board;

(4) a A portion of the Fund also may be used by the Illinois Department of State Police for expenses incurred in the training of employees from any State, county or municipal agency whose function includes enforcement of criminal or traffic law;

(5) a A portion of the Fund may be used by the Board to fund grant-in-aid programs and services for the training of employees from any county or municipal agency whose functions include corrections or the enforcement of criminal or traffic law;

(6) for For fiscal years 2013, 2014, and 2015 only, a portion of the Fund also may be used by the Department of State Police to finance any of its lawful purposes or functions; and

(7) a A portion of the Fund may be used by the Board, subject to appropriation, to administer grants to local law enforcement agencies for the purpose of purchasing bulletproof vests under the Law Enforcement Officer Bulletproof Vest Act.

All payments from the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund shall be made each year from moneys appropriated for the purposes specified in this Section. No more than 50% of any appropriation under this Act shall be spent in any city having a population of more than 500,000. The State Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall from time to time, at the direction of the Governor, transfer from the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund to the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury such amounts as the Governor determines are in excess of the amounts required to meet the obligations of the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-674, eff. 6-30-14; 98-743, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 170. The Children's Advocacy Center Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(55 ILCS 80/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 1804)

Sec. 4. Children's Advocacy Center.

(a) A CAC may be established to coordinate the activities of the various agencies involved in the investigation, prosecution and treatment of child maltreatment. The individual county or regional Advisory Board shall set the written protocol of the CAC within the appropriate jurisdiction. The operation of the CAC may be funded through public or private grants, contracts, donations, fees, and other available sources under this Act. Each CAC shall operate to the best of its ability in accordance with available funding. In counties in which a referendum has been adopted under Section 5 of this Act, the Advisory Board, by the majority vote of its members, shall submit a proposed annual budget for the operation of the CAC to the county board, which shall appropriate funds and levy a tax sufficient to operate the CAC. The county board in each county in which a referendum has been adopted shall establish a Children's Advocacy Center Fund and shall deposit the net proceeds of the tax authorized by Section 6 of this Act in that Fund, which shall be kept separate from all other county funds and shall only be used for the purposes of this Act.

(b) The Advisory Board shall pay from the Children's Advocacy Center Fund or from other available funds the salaries of all employees of the Center and the expenses of acquiring a physical plant for the Center by construction or lease and maintaining the Center, including the expenses of administering the coordination of the investigation, prosecution and treatment referral of child maltreatment under the provisions of the protocol adopted pursuant to this Act.

(c) Every CAC shall include at least the following components:

(1) A multidisciplinary, coordinated systems approach to the investigation of child maltreatment which shall include, at a minimum: ;

(i) an interagency notification procedure;

(ii) a policy on multidisciplinary team collaboration and communication that requires MDT members share information pertinent to investigations and the safety of children;

(iii) (blank);

(iv) a description of the role each agency has in responding to a referral for services in an individual case;

(v) a dispute resolution process between the involved agencies when a conflict arises on how to proceed on the referral of a particular case;

(vi) a process for the CAC to assist in the forensic interview of children that witness alleged crimes;

(vii) a child-friendly, trauma informed space for children and their non-offending family members;

(viii) an MDT approach including law enforcement, prosecution, medical, mental health, victim advocacy, and other community resources;

(ix) medical evaluation on-site or off-site through referral;

(x) mental health services on-site or off-site through referral;

(xi) on-site forensic interviews;

(xii) culturally competent services;

(xiii) case tracking and review;

(xiv) case staffing on each investigation;

(xv) effective organizational capacity; and

(xvi) a policy or procedure to familiarize a child and his or her non-offending family members or guardians with the court process as well as preparations for testifying in court, if necessary; .

(2) A safe, separate space with assigned personnel designated for the investigation and coordination of child maltreatment cases;

(3) A multidisciplinary case review process for purposes of decision-making, problem solving, systems coordination, and information sharing;

(4) A comprehensive client tracking system to receive and coordinate information concerning child maltreatment cases from each participating agency;

(5) Multidisciplinary specialized training for all professionals involved with the victims and non-offending family members in child maltreatment cases; and

(6) A process for evaluating the effectiveness of the CAC and its operations.

(d) In the event that a CAC has been established as provided in this Section, the Advisory Board of that CAC may, by a majority vote of the members, authorize the CAC to coordinate the activities of the various agencies involved in the investigation, prosecution, and treatment referral in cases of serious or fatal injury to a child. For CACs receiving funds under Section 5 or 6 of this Act, the Advisory Board shall provide for the financial support of these activities in a manner similar to that set out in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and shall be allowed to submit a budget that includes support for physical abuse and neglect activities to the County Board, which shall appropriate funds that may be available under Section 5 of this Act. In cooperation with the Department of Children and Family Services Child Death Review Teams, the Department of Children and Family Services Office of the Inspector General, and other stakeholders, this protocol must be initially implemented in selected counties to the extent that State appropriations or funds from other sources for this purpose allow.

(e) CACI may also provide technical assistance and guidance to the Advisory Boards.

(Source: P.A. 98-809, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-2-2014.)

Section 175. The Township Code is amended by changing Section 30-50 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/30-50)

Sec. 30-50. Purchase and use of property.

(a) The electors may make all orders for the purchase, sale, conveyance, regulation, or use of the township's corporate property (including the direct sale or lease of single township road district property) that may be deemed conducive to the interests of its inhabitants, including the lease, for up to 10 years, or for up to 25 years if the lease is for a wireless telecommunications tower, at fair market value, of corporate property for which no use or need during the lease period is anticipated at the time of leasing. The property may be leased to another governmental body, however, or to a not-for-profit corporation that has contracted to construct or fund the construction of a structure or improvement upon the real estate owned by the township and that has contracted with the township to allow the township to use at least a portion of the structure or improvement to be constructed upon the real estate leased and not otherwise used by the township, for any term not exceeding 50 years and for any consideration. In the case of a not-for-profit corporation, the township shall hold a public hearing on the proposed lease. The township clerk shall give notice of the hearing by publication in a newspaper published in the township, or in a newspaper published in the county and having general circulation in the township if no newspaper is published in the township, and by posting notices in at least 5 public places at least 15 days before the public hearing.

(b) If a new tax is to be levied or an existing tax rate is to be increased above the statutory limits for the purchase of the property, however, no action otherwise authorized in subsection (a) shall be taken unless a petition signed by at least 10% of the registered voters residing in the township is presented to the township clerk. If a petition is presented to the township clerk, the clerk shall order a referendum on the proposition. The referendum shall be held at the next annual or special township meeting or at an election in accordance with the general election law. If the referendum is ordered to be held at the township meeting, the township clerk shall give notice that at the next annual or special township meeting the proposition shall be voted upon. The notice shall set forth the proposition and shall be given by publication in a newspaper published in the township. If there is no newspaper published in the township, the notice shall be published in a newspaper published in the county and having general circulation in the township. Notice also shall be given by posting notices in at least 5 public places at least 15 days before the township meeting. If the referendum is ordered to be held at an election, the township clerk shall certify that proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition at an election. The proposition shall be submitted in accordance with the general election law.

(c) If the leased property is utilized in part for private use and in part for public use, those portions of the improvements devoted to private use are fully taxable. The land is exempt from taxation to the extent that the uses on the land are public and taxable to the extent that the uses are private.

(d) Before the township makes a lease or sale of township or road district real property, the electors shall adopt a resolution stating the intent to lease or sell the real property, describing the property in full, and stating the terms and conditions the electors deem necessary and desirable for the lease or sale. A resolution stating the intent to sell real property shall also contain pertinent information concerning the size, use, and zoning of the property. The value of real property shall be determined by a State licensed real estate appraiser. The appraisal shall be available for public inspection. The resolution may direct the sale to be conducted by the staff of the township or by listing with local licensed real estate agencies (in which case the terms of the agent's compensation shall be included in the resolution).

Anytime during the year, the township or township road district may lease or sell personal property by a vote of the township board or request of the township highway commissioner.

The clerk shall thereafter publish the resolution or personal property sale notice once in a newspaper published in the township or, if no newspaper is published in the township, in a newspaper generally circulated in the township. If no newspaper is generally circulated in the township, the clerk shall post the resolution or personal property sale notice in 5 of the most public places in the township. In addition to the foregoing publication requirements, the clerk shall post the resolution or personal property sale notice at the office of the township (if township property is involved) or at the office of the road district (if road district property is involved). The following information shall be published or posted with the resolution or personal property sale notice: (i) the date by which all bids must be received by the township or road district, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of publication or posting, and (ii) the place, time, and date at which bids shall be opened, which shall be at a regular meeting of the township board.

All bids shall be opened by the clerk (or someone duly appointed to act for the clerk) at the regular meeting of the township board described in the notice. With respect to township personal property, the township board may accept the high bid or any other bid determined to be in the best interests of the township by a majority vote of the board. With respect to township real property, the township board may accept the high bid or any other bid determined to be in the best interests of the township by a vote of three-fourths of the township board then holding office, but in no event at a price less than 80% of the appraised value. With respect to road district property, the highway commissioner may accept the high bid or any other bid determined to be in the best interests of the road district. In each case, the township board or commissioner may reject any and all bids. This notice and competitive bidding procedure shall not be followed when property is leased to another governmental body. The notice and competitive bidding procedure shall not be followed when real or personal property is declared surplus by the township board or the highway commissioner and sold to another governmental body.

The township board or the highway commissioner may authorize the sale of personal property by public auction conducted by an auctioneer licensed under the Auction License Act or through an approved Internet auction service.

(e) A trade-in of machinery or equipment on new or different machinery or equipment does not constitute the sale of township or road district property.

(Source: P.A. 97-337, eff. 8-12-11; 98-549, eff. 8-26-13; 98-653, eff. 6-18-14; revised 6-24-14.)

Section 180. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 10-1-7.1, 10-2.1-6.3, 11-12-5, and 11-74.4-3.5 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7.1)

Sec. 10-1-7.1. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-1-7.2, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Civil Service Commission. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by the commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State state and federal laws. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Division 1 has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by the commission so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State state and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score set by the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum score set by the commission.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum score for passage and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a license as a paramedic may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-760, eff. 7-16-14; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6.3)

Sec. 10-2.1-6.3. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-2.1-6.4, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire and police commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the board upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the board. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State state and federal laws. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by the commission so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State state and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score as set by the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum score set by the commission.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum score for passage and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a license as a paramedic shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or any combination of those capacities shall be awarded 0.5 point for each year of successful service in one or more of those capacities, up to a maximum of 5 points. Certified Firefighter III and State of Illinois or nationally licensed paramedics shall be awarded one point per year up to a maximum of 5 points. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality for at least 2 years shall be awarded 5 experience preference points. These additional points presuppose a rating scale totaling 100 points available for the eligibility list. If more or fewer points are used in the rating scale for the eligibility list, the points awarded under this subsection shall be increased or decreased by a factor equal to the total possible points available for the examination divided by 100.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-760, eff. 7-16-14; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14, revised 10-2-14.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-12-5) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-12-5)

Sec. 11-12-5. Every plan commission and planning department authorized by this Division 12 has the following powers and whenever in this Division 12 the term plan commission is used such term shall be deemed to include the term planning department:

(1) To prepare and recommend to the corporate authorities a comprehensive plan for the present and future development or redevelopment of the municipality. Such plan may be adopted in whole or in separate geographical or functional parts, each of which, when adopted, shall be the official comprehensive plan, or part thereof, of that municipality. This plan may include reasonable requirements with reference to streets, alleys, public grounds, and other improvements hereinafter specified. The plan, as recommended by the plan commission and as thereafter adopted in any municipality in this state, may be made applicable, by the terms thereof, to land situated within the corporate limits and contiguous territory not more than one and one-half miles beyond the corporate limits and not included in any municipality. Such plan may be implemented by ordinances (a) establishing reasonable standards of design for subdivisions and for resubdivisions of unimproved land and of areas subject to redevelopment in respect to public improvements as herein defined; (b) establishing reasonable requirements governing the location, width, course, and surfacing of public streets and highways, alleys, ways for public service facilities, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, street lights, parks, playgrounds, school grounds, size of lots to be used for residential purposes, storm water drainage, water supply and distribution, sanitary sewers, and sewage collection and treatment; and (c) may designate land suitable for annexation to the municipality and the recommended zoning classification for such land upon annexation.

(2) To recommend changes, from time to time, in the official comprehensive plan.

(3) To prepare and recommend to the corporate authorities, from time to time, plans for specific improvements in pursuance of the official comprehensive plan.

(4) To give aid to the municipal officials charged with the direction of projects for improvements embraced within the official plan, to further the making of these projects, and, generally, to promote the realization of the official comprehensive plan.

(5) To prepare and recommend to the corporate authorities schemes for regulating or forbidding structures or activities which may hinder access to solar energy necessary for the proper functioning of solar energy systems, as defined in Section 1.2 of The Comprehensive Solar Energy Act of 1977, or to recommend changes in such schemes.

(6) To exercise such other powers germane to the powers granted by this article as may be conferred by the corporate authorities.

(7) For purposes of implementing ordinances regarding developer donations or impact fees, and specifically for expenditures thereof, "school grounds" is defined as including land or site improvements, which include school buildings or other infrastructure, including technological infrastructure, necessitated and specifically and uniquely attributed to the development or subdivision in question. This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly applies to all impact fees or developer donations paid into a school district or held in a separate account or escrow fund by any school district or municipality for a school district.

(Source: P.A. 98-741, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-1-14.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)

Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment projects.

(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981.

(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 32nd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on September 9, 1999 by the Village of Downs.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 28th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on October 12, 1989 by the City of Lawrenceville.

(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted:

(1) If if the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981. ;

(2) If if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989. ;

(3) If if the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport. ;

(4) If if the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County. ;

(5) If if the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law. ;

(6) If if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont. ;

(7) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997. ;

(8) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis. ;

(9) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget. ;

(10) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island. ;

(11) If if the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline. ;

(12) If if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village. ;

(13) If if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village. ;

(14) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva. ;

(15) If if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville. ;

(16) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis. ;

(17) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo. ;

(18) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton. ;

(19) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport. ;

(20) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola. ;

(21) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta. ;

(22) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown. ;

(23) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville. ;

(24) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville. ;

(25) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton. ;

(26) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington. ;

(27) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy. ;

(28) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham. ;

(29) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin. ;

(30) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign. ;

(31) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana. ;

(32) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth. ;

(33) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth. ;

(34) If if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth. ;

(35) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero. ;

(36) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham. ;

(37) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton. ;

(38) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst. ;

(39) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan. ;

(40) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan. ;

(41) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan. ;

(42) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan. ;

(43) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby. ;

(44) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion. ;

(45) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion. ;

(46) If if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect. ;

(47) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull. ;

(48) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville. ;

(49) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City. ;

(50) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard. ;

(51) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner. ;

(52) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw. ;

(53) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 17, 1986 by the Village of Franklin Park. ;

(54) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 20, 1989 by the Village of South Holland. ;

(55) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992 by the Village of Riverdale. ;

(56) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galesburg. ;

(57) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985 by the City of Galesburg. ;

(58) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by the City of West Chicago. ;

(59) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Oak Forest. ;

(60) If if the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the City of Villa Grove. ;

(61) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 13, 1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion. ;

(62) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Manteno. ;

(63) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989 by the City of Chicago Heights. ;

(64) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999 by the Village of Rosemont. ;

(65) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 19, 2000 by the Village of Stone Park. ;

(66) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of DeKalb. ;

(67) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 2, 1986 by the City of Aurora. ;

(68) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Milan. ;

(69) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 8, 1994 by the City of West Frankfort. ;

(70) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville. ;

(71) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates. ;

(72) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 17, 1986 by the Village of Sherman. ;

(73) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Macomb. ;

(74) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the West Washington Street TIF. ;

(75) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the Camp Street TIF. ;

(76) If if the ordinance was adopted on August 7, 2000 by the City of Des Plaines. ;

(77) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Washington to create the Washington Square TIF #2. ;

(78) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Morris. ;

(79) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Steeleville. ;

(80) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF I (the Main St TIF). ;

(81) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF II (the Interstate TIF). ;

(82) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 6, 2002 by the City of Chicago to create the Madden/Wells TIF District. ;

(83) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 4, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Roosevelt/Racine TIF District. ;

(84) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 10, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Stony Island Commercial/Burnside Industrial Corridors TIF District. ;

(85) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Englewood Mall TIF District. ;

(86) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 27, 1986 by the City of Mendota. ;

(87) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Cahokia. ;

(88) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1999 by the City of Belleville. ;

(89) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Bellevue to create the Bellevue TIF District 1. ;

(90) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 13, 1993 by the Village of Crete. ;

(91) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 12, 2001 by the Village of Crete. ;

(92) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 2001 by the Village of Crete. ;

(93) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Champaign. ;

(94) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1986 by the City of Charleston. ;

(95) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 6, 1989 by the Village of Romeoville. ;

(96) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 14, 1993 and amended on August 2, 2010 by the City of Venice. ;

(97) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 1, 1994 by the City of Markham. ;

(98) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 19, 1998 by the Village of Bensenville. ;

(99) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1987 by the City of Dixon. ;

(100) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1988 by the Village of Lansing. ;

(101) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 27, 1998 by the City of Moline. ;

(102) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1991 by the Village of Glenwood. ;

(103) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 28, 1992 by the City of East Peoria. ;

(104) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 14, 1998 by the City of Carlyle. ;

(105) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 17, 2000, as subsequently amended, by the City of Chicago to create the Midwest Redevelopment TIF District. ;

(106) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 13, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Michigan/Cermak Area TIF District. ;

(107) If if the ordinance was adopted on March 30, 1992 by the Village of Ohio. ;

(108) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Orangeville. ;

(109) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1997 by the Village of Germantown. ;

(110) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 28, 2003 by Gibson City. ;

(111) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 18, 1990 by the Village of Washington Park, but only after the Village of Washington Park becomes compliant with the reporting requirements under subsection (d) of Section 11-74.4-5, and after the State Comptroller's certification of such compliance. ;

(112) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 28, 2000 by the City of Harvey. ; or

(113) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 11, 1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Read/Dunning TIF District. ;

(114) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 24, 1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Sanitary and Ship Canal TIF District. ;

(115) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 4, 2007 by the City of Naperville. ;

(116) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 2002 by the Village of Arlington Heights. ;

(117) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1991 by the Village of Machesney Park. ;

(118) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1993 by the City of Ottawa. ; or

(119) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 4, 1991 by the Village of Lansing.

(120) If (119) if the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 2004 by the Village of Fox Lake. ;

(121) If (120) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1992 by the City of Fairfield. ; or

(122) If (121) if the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 1992 by the City of Mt. Sterling.

(123) If (113) if the ordinance was adopted on March 15, 2004 by the City of Batavia.

(124) If (119) if the ordinance was adopted on March 18, 2002 by the Village of Lake Zurich.

(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section, it is not the intent of the General Assembly to make any substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the completion dates for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan, the City of West Frankfort, the Village of Libertyville, and the Village of Hoffman Estates set forth under items (67), (68), (69), (70), and (71) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-93, eff. 1-1-12; 97-372, eff. 8-15-11; 97-600, eff. 8-26-11; 97-633, eff. 12-16-11; 97-635, eff. 12-16-11; 97-807, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1114, eff. 8-27-12; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-135, eff. 8-2-13; 98-230, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-614, eff. 12-27-13; 98-667, eff. 6-25-14; 98-889, eff. 8-15-14; 98-893, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1064, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1136, eff. 12-29-14; 98-1153, eff. 1-9-15; 98-1157, eff. 1-9-15; 98-1159, eff. 1-9-15; revised 2-2-15.)

Section 185. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Sections 11b and 16.06b as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/11b) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 31b)

Sec. 11b. In case any fire protection district organized hereunder is coterminous with or includes within its corporate limits in whole or in part any city, village or incorporated town authorized to provide protection from fire and to regulate the prevention and control of fire within such city, village or incorporated town and to levy taxes for any such purposes, then such city, village or incorporated town shall not exercise any such powers as necessarily conflict with the powers to be exercised by such district in respect to such fire protection and regulation within the fire protection district from and after the date that it receives written notice from the State Fire Marshal to cease or refrain from the operation of any fire protection facilities and the exercise of such powers, which notice shall be given only after the State Fire Marshal has ascertained that the Fire Protection District has placed its fire protection facilities in operation. Such city, village or incorporated town shall not thereafter own, operate, maintain, manage, control or have an interest in any fire protection facilities located within the corporate limits of the fire protection district, except water mains and hydrants and except as otherwise provided in this Act. Where any city, village, or incorporated town with 500 or more mre residents is in fact owning, operating, and maintaining a fire department or fire departments located in whole or in part within or adjacent to the corporate limits of a fire protection district organized under this Act, such city, village, or incorporated town shall not cease operating and maintaining the fire department or departments unless such proposed cessation of services is first submitted by referendum to voters, as provided by Section 15b of this Act. In addition, where any city, village, or incorporated town is in fact owning, operating, and maintaining a fire department or fire departments located within the corporate limits of a fire protection district organized under this Act, such city, village, or incorporated town shall be paid and reimbursed for its actual expenditures and for all existing obligations incurred, including all pension and annuity plans applicable to the maintenance of fire protection facilities theretofore made in establishing such facilities and in acquiring, constructing, improving or developing any such existing facilities in the manner provided for by this Act. The terms of payment shall provide for reimbursement in full within not less than 20 years from the date of such agreement.

(Source: P.A. 98-666, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-1-14.)

(70 ILCS 705/16.06b)

Sec. 16.06b. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 16.06c, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in a no less stringent manner than the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, Fire Protection District Act, fire district ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A fire protection district that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes required by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by the Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the fire district's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire commissioners, or board of trustees serving in the capacity of a board of fire commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the district shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the district, county or counties in which the district is located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State state and federal laws. Districts may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any fire protection district may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a district cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that district, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the district, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district; , or

(2) any person who has served a fire district as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the district begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service; or

(3) any person who turned 35 while serving as a member of the active or reserve components of any of the branches of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard of any state, whose service was characterized as honorable or under honorable, if separated from the military, and is currently under the age of 40.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the district or their designees and agents.

No district shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the district, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the district, or (ii) on the fire protection district's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by the appointing authorities so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State state and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score set by the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum score set by the commission.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum score for passage and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a license as a paramedic may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a district who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the district who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or municipality for at least 2 years may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the district or in the case of applicants from outside the district the governing body of any other fire protection district or any municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Section, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-760, eff. 7-16-14; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 98-995, eff. 8-18-14; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 190. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.25g, 3-15.12, 14-7.02, 19-1, 24-12, 27-23.7, 27A-4, 27A-5, 27A-6, 27A-7, 27A-11, 30-14.2, and 34-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2-3.160 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25g) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25g)

Sec. 2-3.25g. Waiver or modification of mandates within the School Code and administrative rules and regulations.

(a) In this Section:

"Board" means a school board or the governing board or administrative district, as the case may be, for a joint agreement.

"Eligible applicant" means a school district, joint agreement made up of school districts, or regional superintendent of schools on behalf of schools and programs operated by the regional office of education.

"Implementation date" has the meaning set forth in Section 24A-2.5 of this Code.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this School Code or any other law of this State to the contrary, eligible applicants may petition the State Board of Education for the waiver or modification of the mandates of this School Code or of the administrative rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education. Waivers or modifications of administrative rules and regulations and modifications of mandates of this School Code may be requested when an eligible applicant demonstrates that it can address the intent of the rule or mandate in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or when necessary to stimulate innovation or improve student performance. Waivers of mandates of the School Code may be requested when the waivers are necessary to stimulate innovation or improve student performance. Waivers may not be requested from laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to special education, teacher educator licensure, teacher tenure and seniority, or Section 5-2.1 of this Code or from compliance with the No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (Public Law 107-110). Eligible applicants may not seek a waiver or seek a modification of a mandate regarding the requirements for (i) student performance data to be a significant factor in teacher or principal evaluations or (ii) for teachers and principals to be rated using the 4 categories of "excellent", "proficient", "needs improvement", or "unsatisfactory". On September 1, 2014, any previously authorized waiver or modification from such requirements shall terminate.

(c) Eligible applicants, as a matter of inherent managerial policy, and any Independent Authority established under Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code may submit an application for a waiver or modification authorized under this Section. Each application must include a written request by the eligible applicant or Independent Authority and must demonstrate that the intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or be based upon a specific plan for improved student performance and school improvement. Any eligible applicant requesting a waiver or modification for the reason that intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more economical manner shall include in the application a fiscal analysis showing current expenditures on the mandate and projected savings resulting from the waiver or modification. Applications and plans developed by eligible applicants must be approved by the board or regional superintendent of schools applying on behalf of schools or programs operated by the regional office of education following a public hearing on the application and plan and the opportunity for the board or regional superintendent to hear testimony from staff directly involved in its implementation, parents, and students. The time period for such testimony shall be separate from the time period established by the eligible applicant for public comment on other matters. If the applicant is a school district or joint agreement requesting a waiver or modification of Section 27-6 of this Code, the public hearing shall be held on a day other than the day on which a regular meeting of the board is held.

(c-5) If the applicant is a school district, then the district shall post information that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the public hearing on its Internet website at least 14 days prior to the hearing. If the district is requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education authorized pursuant to Section 27-24.2 of this Code, the website information shall include the proposed amount of the fee the district will request. All school districts must publish a notice of the public hearing at least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the school district that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the hearing. Districts requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education shall include in the published notice the proposed amount of the fee the district will request. If the applicant is a joint agreement or regional superintendent, then the joint agreement or regional superintendent shall post information that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the public hearing on its Internet website at least 14 days prior to the hearing. If the joint agreement or regional superintendent is requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education authorized pursuant to Section 27-24.2 of this Code, the website information shall include the proposed amount of the fee the applicant will request. All joint agreements and regional superintendents must publish a notice of the public hearing at least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation in each school district that is a member of the joint agreement or that is served by the educational service region that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the hearing, provided that a notice appearing in a newspaper generally circulated in more than one school district shall be deemed to fulfill this requirement with respect to all of the affected districts. Joint agreements or regional superintendents requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education shall include in the published notice the proposed amount of the fee the applicant will request. The eligible applicant must notify in writing the affected exclusive collective bargaining agent and those State legislators representing the eligible applicant's territory of its intent to seek approval of a waiver or modification and of the hearing to be held to take testimony from staff. The affected exclusive collective bargaining agents shall be notified of such public hearing at least 7 days prior to the date of the hearing and shall be allowed to attend such public hearing. The eligible applicant shall attest to compliance with all of the notification and procedural requirements set forth in this Section.

(d) A request for a waiver or modification of administrative rules and regulations or for a modification of mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to the State Board of Education within 15 days after approval by the board or regional superintendent of schools. The application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall include a description of the public hearing. Except with respect to contracting for adaptive driver education, an eligible applicant wishing to request a modification or waiver of administrative rules of the State Board of Education regarding contracting with a commercial driver training school to provide the course of study authorized under Section 27-24.2 of this Code must provide evidence with its application that the commercial driver training school with which it will contract holds a license issued by the Secretary of State under Article IV of Chapter 6 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and that each instructor employed by the commercial driver training school to provide instruction to students served by the school district holds a valid teaching certificate or teaching license, as applicable, issued under the requirements of this Code and rules of the State Board of Education. Such evidence must include, but need not be limited to, a list of each instructor assigned to teach students served by the school district, which list shall include the instructor's name, personal identification number as required by the State Board of Education, birth date, and driver's license number. If the modification or waiver is granted, then the eligible applicant shall notify the State Board of Education of any changes in the personnel providing instruction within 15 calendar days after an instructor leaves the program or a new instructor is hired. Such notification shall include the instructor's name, personal identification number as required by the State Board of Education, birth date, and driver's license number. If a school district maintains an Internet website, then the district shall post a copy of the final contract between the district and the commercial driver training school on the district's Internet website. If no Internet website exists, then the district shall make available the contract upon request. A record of all materials in relation to the application for contracting must be maintained by the school district and made available to parents and guardians upon request. The instructor's date of birth and driver's license number and any other personally identifying information as deemed by the federal Driver's Privacy Protection Act of 1994 must be redacted from any public materials. Following receipt of the waiver or modification request, the State Board shall have 45 days to review the application and request. If the State Board fails to disapprove the application within that 45 day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted. The State Board may disapprove any request if it is not based upon sound educational practices, endangers the health or safety of students or staff, compromises equal opportunities for learning, or fails to demonstrate that the intent of the rule or mandate can be addressed in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or have improved student performance as a primary goal. Any request disapproved by the State Board may be appealed to the General Assembly by the eligible applicant as outlined in this Section.

A request for a waiver from mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to the State Board within 15 days after approval by the board or regional superintendent of schools. The application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall include a description of the public hearing. The description shall include, but need not be limited to, the means of notice, the number of people in attendance, the number of people who spoke as proponents or opponents of the waiver, a brief description of their comments, and whether there were any written statements submitted. The State Board shall review the applications and requests for completeness and shall compile the requests in reports to be filed with the General Assembly. The State Board shall file reports outlining the waivers requested by eligible applicants and appeals by eligible applicants of requests disapproved by the State Board with the Senate and the House of Representatives before each March 1 and October 1. The General Assembly may disapprove the report of the State Board in whole or in part within 60 calendar days after each house of the General Assembly next convenes after the report is filed by adoption of a resolution by a record vote of the majority of members elected in each house. If the General Assembly fails to disapprove any waiver request or appealed request within such 60 day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted. Any resolution adopted by the General Assembly disapproving a report of the State Board in whole or in part shall be binding on the State Board.

(e) An approved waiver or modification (except a waiver from or modification to a physical education mandate) may remain in effect for a period not to exceed 5 school years and may be renewed upon application by the eligible applicant. However, such waiver or modification may be changed within that 5-year period by a board or regional superintendent of schools applying on behalf of schools or programs operated by the regional office of education following the procedure as set forth in this Section for the initial waiver or modification request. If neither the State Board of Education nor the General Assembly disapproves, the change is deemed granted.

An approved waiver from or modification to a physical education mandate may remain in effect for a period not to exceed 2 school years and may be renewed no more than 2 times upon application by the eligible applicant. An approved waiver from or modification to a physical education mandate may be changed within the 2-year period by the board or regional superintendent of schools, whichever is applicable, following the procedure set forth in this Section for the initial waiver or modification request. If neither the State Board of Education nor the General Assembly disapproves, the change is deemed granted.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-1025, eff. 1-1-13; 98-513, eff. 1-1-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1155, eff. 1-9-15; revised 2-1-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.160)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)

Sec. 2-3.160. School Security and Standards Task Force.

(a) The School Security and Standards Task Force is created within the State Board of Education to study the security of schools in this State, make recommendations, and draft minimum standards for use by schools to make them more secure and to provide a safer learning environment for the children of this State. The Task Force shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) One member of the public who is a parent and one member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(2) One member of the public who is a parent and one member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) One member of the public who is a parent and one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member of the public who is a parent and one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(5) A representative from the State Board of Education, appointed by the Chairperson of the State Board of Education.

(6) A representative from the Department of State Police, appointed by the Director of State Police.

(7) A representative from an association representing Illinois sheriffs, appointed by the Governor.

(8) A representative from an association representing Illinois chiefs of police, appointed by the Governor.

(9) A representative from an association representing Illinois firefighters, appointed by the Governor.

(10) A representative from an association representing Illinois regional superintendents of schools, appointed by the Governor.

(11) A representative from an association representing Illinois principals, appointed by the Governor.

(12) A representative from an association representing Illinois school boards, appointed by the Governor.

(13) A representative from the security consulting profession, appointed by the Governor.

(14) An architect or engineer who specializes in security issues, appointed by the Governor.

Members of the Task Force appointed by the Governor must be individuals who have knowledge, experience, and expertise in the field of security or who have worked within the school system. The appointment of members by the Governor must reflect the geographic diversity of this State.

Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation and shall not be reimbursed for their expenses.

(b) The Task Force shall meet initially at the call of the State Superintendent of Education. At this initial meeting, the Task Force shall elect a member as presiding officer of the Task Force by a majority vote of the membership of the Task Force. Thereafter, the Task Force shall meet at the call of the presiding officer.

(c) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(d) The Task Force shall make recommendations for minimum standards for security for the schools in this State. In making those recommendations, the Task Force shall do all of the following:

(1) Gather information concerning security in schools as it presently exists.

(2) Receive reports and testimony from individuals, school district superintendents, principals, teachers, security experts, architects, engineers, and the law enforcement community.

(3) Create minimum standards for securing schools.

(4) Give consideration to securing the physical structures, security staffing recommendations, communications, security equipment, alarms, video and audio monitoring, school policies, egress and ingress, security plans, emergency exits and escape, and any other areas of security that the Task Force deems appropriate for securing schools.

(5) Create a model security plan policy.

(6) Suggest possible funding recommendations for schools to access for use in implementing enhanced security measures.

(7) On or before January 1, 2015, submit a report to the General Assembly and the Governor on specific recommendations for changes to the current law or other legislative measures.

(8) On or before January 1, 2015, submit a report to the State Board of Education on specific recommendations for model security plan policies for schools to access and use as a guideline. This report is exempt from inspection and copying under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act.

The Task Force's recommendations may include proposals for specific statutory changes and methods to foster cooperation among State agencies and between this State and local government.

(e) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is repealed on July 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-695, eff. 7-3-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.161)

Sec. 2-3.161 2-3.160. Definition of dyslexia in rules; reading instruction advisory group.

(a) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules that incorporate an international definition of dyslexia into Part 226 of Title 23 of the Illinois Administrative Code.

(b) Subject to specific State appropriation or the availability of private donations, the State Board of Education shall establish an advisory group to develop a training module or training modules to provide education and professional development to teachers, school administrators, and other education professionals regarding multi-sensory, systematic, and sequential instruction in reading. This advisory group shall complete its work before July 31, 2015 and is abolished on July 31, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-705, eff. 7-14-14; revised 10-14-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.162)

Sec. 2-3.162 2-3.160. Student discipline report; school discipline improvement plan.

(a) On or before October 31, 2015 and on or before October 31 of each subsequent year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a report on student discipline in all school districts in this State, including State-authorized charter schools. This report shall include data from all public schools within school districts, including district-authorized charter schools. This report must be posted on the Internet website of the State Board of Education. The report shall include data on the issuance of out-of-school suspensions, expulsions, and removals to alternative settings in lieu of another disciplinary action, disaggregated by race and ethnicity, gender, age, grade level, limited English proficiency, incident type, and discipline duration.

(b) The State Board of Education shall analyze the data under subsection (a) of this Section on an annual basis and determine the top 20% of school districts for the following metrics:

(1) Total number of out-of-school suspensions divided by the total district enrollment by the last school day in September for the year in which the data was collected, multiplied by 100.

(2) Total number of out-of-school expulsions divided by the total district enrollment by the last school day in September for the year in which the data was collected, multiplied by 100.

(3) Racial disproportionality, defined as the overrepresentation of students of color or white students in comparison to the total number of students of color or white students on October 1st of the school year in which data are collected, with respect to the use of out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, which must be calculated using the same method as the U.S. Department of Education's Office for Civil Rights uses.

The analysis must be based on data collected over 3 consecutive school years, beginning with the 2014-2015 school year.

Beginning with the 2017-2018 school year, the State Board of Education shall require each of the school districts that are identified in the top 20% of any of the metrics described in this subsection (b) for 3 consecutive years to submit a plan identifying the strategies the school district will implement to reduce the use of exclusionary disciplinary practices or racial disproportionality or both, if applicable. School districts that no longer meet the criteria described in any of the metrics described in this subsection (b) for 3 consecutive years shall no longer be required to submit a plan.

This plan may be combined with any other improvement plans required under federal or State law.

The calculation of the top 20% of any of the metrics described in this subsection (b) shall exclude all school districts, State-authorized charter schools, and special charter districts that issued fewer than a total of 10 out-of-school suspensions or expulsions, whichever is applicable, during the school year. The calculation of the top 20% of metric described in subdivision (3) of this subsection (b) shall exclude all school districts with an enrollment of fewer than 50 white students or fewer than 50 students of color.

The plan must be approved at a public school board meeting and posted on the school district's Internet website. Within one year after being identified, the school district shall submit to the State Board of Education and post on the district's Internet website a progress report describing the implementation of the plan and the results achieved.

(Source: P.A. 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-14-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/3-15.12) (from Ch. 122, par. 3-15.12)

Sec. 3-15.12. High school equivalency testing program. The regional superintendent of schools shall make available for qualified individuals residing within the region a High School Equivalency Testing Program. For that purpose the regional superintendent alone or with other regional superintendents may establish and supervise a testing center or centers to administer the secure forms for high school equivalency testing to qualified persons. Such centers shall be under the supervision of the regional superintendent in whose region such centers are located, subject to the approval of the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board.

An individual is eligible to apply to the regional superintendent of schools for the region in which he or she resides if he or she is: (a) a person who is 17 years of age or older, has maintained residence in the State of Illinois, and is not a high school graduate; (b) a person who is successfully completing an alternative education program under Section 2-3.81, Article 13A, or Article 13B; or (c) a person who is enrolled in a youth education program sponsored by the Illinois National Guard. For purposes of this Section, residence is that abode which the applicant considers his or her home. Applicants may provide as sufficient proof of such residence and as an acceptable form of identification a driver's license, valid passport, military ID, or other form of government-issued national or foreign identification that shows the applicant's name, address, date of birth, signature, and photograph or other acceptable identification as may be allowed by law or as regulated by the Illinois Community College Board. Such regional superintendent shall determine if the applicant meets statutory and regulatory state standards. If qualified the applicant shall at the time of such application pay a fee established by the Illinois Community College Board, which fee shall be paid into a special fund under the control and supervision of the regional superintendent. Such moneys received by the regional superintendent shall be used, first, for the expenses incurred in administering and scoring the examination, and next for other educational programs that are developed and designed by the regional superintendent of schools to assist those who successfully complete high school equivalency testing in furthering their academic development or their ability to secure and retain gainful employment, including programs for the competitive award based on test scores of college or adult education scholarship grants or similar educational incentives. Any excess moneys shall be paid into the institute fund.

Any applicant who has achieved the minimum passing standards as established by the Illinois Community College Board shall be notified in writing by the regional superintendent and shall be issued a high school equivalency certificate on the forms provided by the Illinois Community College Board. The regional superintendent shall then certify to the Illinois Community College Board the score of the applicant and such other and additional information that may be required by the Illinois Community College Board. The moneys received therefrom shall be used in the same manner as provided for in this Section.

Any applicant who has attained the age of 17 years and maintained residence in the State of Illinois and is not a high school graduate, any person who has enrolled in a youth education program sponsored by the Illinois National Guard, or any person who has successfully completed an alternative education program under Section 2-3.81, Article 13A, or Article 13B is eligible to apply for a high school equivalency certificate (if he or she meets the requirements prescribed by the Illinois Community College Board) upon showing evidence that he or she has completed, successfully, high school equivalency testing, administered by the United States Armed Forces Institute, official high school equivalency testing centers established in other states, Veterans' Administration Hospitals, or the office of the State Superintendent of Education for the Illinois State Penitentiary System and the Department of Corrections. Such applicant shall apply to the regional superintendent of the region wherein he or she has maintained residence, and, upon payment of a fee established by the Illinois Community College Board, the regional superintendent shall issue a high school equivalency certificate and immediately thereafter certify to the Illinois Community College Board the score of the applicant and such other and additional information as may be required by the Illinois Community College Board.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, any applicant who has been out of school for at least one year may request the regional superintendent of schools to administer restricted high school equivalency testing upon written request of: the director of a program who certifies to the Chief Examiner of an official high school equivalency testing center that the applicant has completed a program of instruction provided by such agencies as the Job Corps, the Postal Service Academy, or an apprenticeship training program; an employer or program director for purposes of entry into apprenticeship programs; another state's department of education in order to meet regulations established by that department of education; or a post high school educational institution for purposes of admission, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for licensing purposes, or the Armed Forces for induction purposes. The regional superintendent shall administer such testing, and the applicant shall be notified in writing that he or she is eligible to receive a high school equivalency certificate upon reaching age 17, provided he or she meets the standards established by the Illinois Community College Board.

Any test administered under this Section to an applicant who does not speak and understand English may at the discretion of the administering agency be given and answered in any language in which the test is printed. The regional superintendent of schools may waive any fees required by this Section in case of hardship.

In counties of over 3,000,000 population, a high school equivalency certificate shall contain the signatures of the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board and ; the superintendent, president, or other chief executive officer of the institution where high school equivalency testing instruction occurred,; and any other signatures authorized by the Illinois Community College Board.

The regional superintendent of schools shall furnish the Illinois Community College Board with any information that the Illinois Community College Board requests with regard to testing and certificates under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-719, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-7.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-7.02)

Sec. 14-7.02. Children attending private schools, public out-of-state schools, public school residential facilities or private special education facilities. The General Assembly recognizes that non-public schools or special education facilities provide an important service in the educational system in Illinois.

If because of his or her disability the special education program of a district is unable to meet the needs of a child and the child attends a non-public school or special education facility, a public out-of-state school or a special education facility owned and operated by a county government unit that provides special educational services required by the child and is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations of the State Superintendent of Education, the school district in which the child is a resident shall pay the actual cost of tuition for special education and related services provided during the regular school term and during the summer school term if the child's educational needs so require, excluding room, board and transportation costs charged the child by that non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility, or $4,500 per year, whichever is less, and shall provide him any necessary transportation. "Nonpublic special education facility" shall include a residential facility, within or without the State of Illinois, which provides special education and related services to meet the needs of the child by utilizing private schools or public schools, whether located on the site or off the site of the residential facility.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations for determining when placement in a private special education facility is appropriate. Such rules and regulations shall take into account the various types of services needed by a child and the availability of such services to the particular child in the public school. In developing these rules and regulations the State Board of Education shall consult with the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities and hold public hearings to secure recommendations from parents, school personnel, and others concerned about this matter.

The State Board of Education shall also promulgate rules and regulations for transportation to and from a residential school. Transportation to and from home to a residential school more than once each school term shall be subject to prior approval by the State Superintendent in accordance with the rules and regulations of the State Board.

A school district making tuition payments pursuant to this Section is eligible for reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments actually made in excess of the district per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special education services. Such reimbursement shall be approved in accordance with Section 14-12.01 and each district shall file its claims, computed in accordance with rules prescribed by the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Superintendent of Education. Data used as a basis of reimbursement claims shall be for the preceding regular school term and summer school term. Each school district shall transmit its claims to the State Board of Education on or before August 15. The State Board of Education, before approving any such claims, shall determine their accuracy and whether they are based upon services and facilities provided under approved programs. Upon approval the State Board shall cause vouchers to be prepared showing the amount due for payment of reimbursement claims to school districts, for transmittal to the State Comptroller on the 30th day of September, December, and March, respectively, and the final voucher, no later than June 20. If the money appropriated by the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the claims approved.

No child shall be placed in a special education program pursuant to this Section if the tuition cost for special education and related services increases more than 10 percent over the tuition cost for the previous school year or exceeds $4,500 per year unless such costs have been approved by the Illinois Purchased Care Review Board. The Illinois Purchased Care Review Board shall consist of the following persons, or their designees: the Directors of Children and Family Services, Public Health, Public Aid, and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget; the Secretary of Human Services; the State Superintendent of Education; and such other persons as the Governor may designate. The Review Board shall also consist of one non-voting member who is an administrator of a private, nonpublic, special education school. The Review Board shall establish rules and regulations for its determination of allowable costs and payments made by local school districts for special education, room and board, and other related services provided by non-public schools or special education facilities and shall establish uniform standards and criteria which it shall follow. The Review Board shall approve the usual and customary rate or rates of a special education program that (i) is offered by an out-of-state, non-public provider of integrated autism specific educational and autism specific residential services, (ii) offers 2 or more levels of residential care, including at least one locked facility, and (iii) serves 12 or fewer Illinois students.

The Review Board shall establish uniform definitions and criteria for accounting separately by special education, room and board and other related services costs. The Board shall also establish guidelines for the coordination of services and financial assistance provided by all State agencies to assure that no otherwise qualified disabled child receiving services under Article 14 shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by any State agency.

The Review Board shall review the costs for special education and related services provided by non-public schools or special education facilities and shall approve or disapprove such facilities in accordance with the rules and regulations established by it with respect to allowable costs.

The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and staff support for the Review Board as deemed reasonable by the State Superintendent of Education. This support shall not include travel expenses or other compensation for any Review Board member other than the State Superintendent of Education.

The Review Board shall seek the advice of the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the rules and regulations to be promulgated by it relative to providing special education services.

If a child has been placed in a program in which the actual per pupil costs of tuition for special education and related services based on program enrollment, excluding room, board and transportation costs, exceed $4,500 and such costs have been approved by the Review Board, the district shall pay such total costs which exceed $4,500. A district making such tuition payments in excess of $4,500 pursuant to this Section shall be responsible for an amount in excess of $4,500 equal to the district per capita tuition charge and shall be eligible for reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments actually made in excess of the districts per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special education services.

If a child has been placed in an approved individual program and the tuition costs including room and board costs have been approved by the Review Board, then such room and board costs shall be paid by the appropriate State agency subject to the provisions of Section 14-8.01 of this Act. Room and board costs not provided by a State agency other than the State Board of Education shall be provided by the State Board of Education on a current basis. In no event, however, shall the State's liability for funding of these tuition costs begin until after the legal obligations of third party payors have been subtracted from such costs. If the money appropriated by the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the claims approved. Each district shall submit estimated claims to the State Superintendent of Education. Upon approval of such claims, the State Superintendent of Education shall direct the State Comptroller to make payments on a monthly basis. The frequency for submitting estimated claims and the method of determining payment shall be prescribed in rules and regulations adopted by the State Board of Education. Such current state reimbursement shall be reduced by an amount equal to the proceeds which the child or child's parents are eligible to receive under any public or private insurance or assistance program. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving an insurer or similar third party from an otherwise valid obligation to provide or to pay for services provided to a disabled child.

If it otherwise qualifies, a school district is eligible for the transportation reimbursement under Section 14-13.01 and for the reimbursement of tuition payments under this Section whether the non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility, attended by a child who resides in that district and requires special educational services, is within or outside of the State of Illinois. However, a district is not eligible to claim transportation reimbursement under this Section unless the district certifies to the State Superintendent of Education that the district is unable to provide special educational services required by the child for the current school year.

Nothing in this Section authorizes the reimbursement of a school district for the amount paid for tuition of a child attending a non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility unless the school district certifies to the State Superintendent of Education that the special education program of that district is unable to meet the needs of that child because of his disability and the State Superintendent of Education finds that the school district is in substantial compliance with Section 14-4.01. However, if a child is unilaterally placed by a State agency or any court in a non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school, or county special education facility, a school district shall not be required to certify to the State Superintendent of Education, for the purpose of tuition reimbursement, that the special education program of that district is unable to meet the needs of a child because of his or her disability.

Any educational or related services provided, pursuant to this Section in a non-public school or special education facility or a special education facility owned and operated by a county government unit shall be at no cost to the parent or guardian of the child. However, current law and practices relative to contributions by parents or guardians for costs other than educational or related services are not affected by this amendatory Act of 1978.

Reimbursement for children attending public school residential facilities shall be made in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a payment under this Section or under Section 14-7.02b, 14-13.01, or 29-5 of this Code may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any payments or general State aid to be classified under this paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of providing services.

(Source: P.A. 98-636, eff. 6-6-14; 98-1008, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in "An Act to limit the indebtedness of counties having a population of less than 500,000 and townships, school districts and other municipal corporations having a population of less than 300,000", approved February 15, 1928, as amended.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not handicapped accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects approved by the voters were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's prior and existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,285,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping of a new school building to be attached to and the alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is required because of the age and current condition of that school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,200,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $50,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board.

(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building, (ii) the existing school building should be demolished in its entirety or the existing school building should be demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building, and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election on February 2, 2010.

(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new elementary school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building will be demolished and the remaining portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $7,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-100) (p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the community unit school district created in the territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as approved at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-834, eff. 7-20-12; 97-1146, eff. 1-18-13; 98-617, eff. 1-7-14; 98-912, eff. 8-15-14; 98-916, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-12)

Sec. 24-12. Removal or dismissal of teachers in contractual continued service.

(a) This subsection (a) applies only to honorable dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is provided on or before the end of the 2010-2011 school term. If a teacher in contractual continued service is removed or dismissed as a result of a decision of the board to decrease the number of teachers employed by the board or to discontinue some particular type of teaching service, written notice shall be mailed to the teacher and also given the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested or personal delivery with receipt at least 60 days before the end of the school term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the reason therefor, and in all such cases the board shall first remove or dismiss all teachers who have not entered upon contractual continued service before removing or dismissing any teacher who has entered upon contractual continued service and who is legally qualified to hold a position currently held by a teacher who has not entered upon contractual continued service.

As between teachers who have entered upon contractual continued service, the teacher or teachers with the shorter length of continuing service with the district shall be dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization and except that this provision shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action program in the district, regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the board. Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or discontinuance shall be paid all earned compensation on or before the third business day following the last day of pupil attendance in the regular school term.

If the board has any vacancies for the following school term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby becoming available shall be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed so far as they are legally qualified to hold such positions; provided, however, that if the number of honorable dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number of full time equivalent positions filled by certified employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel) during the preceding school year, then if the board has any vacancies for the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the beginning of the following school term, the positions so becoming available shall be tendered to the teachers who were so notified and removed or dismissed whenever they are legally qualified to hold such positions. Each board shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, each year establish a list, categorized by positions, showing the length of continuing service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this Section, in which case a list shall be made in accordance with the alternative method. Copies of the list shall be distributed to the exclusive employee representative on or before February 1 of each year. Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic necessity exceeds 5, or 150% of the average number of teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years, whichever is more, then the board also shall hold a public hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the hearing and board review the action to approve any such reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.

(b) This subsection (b) applies only to honorable dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is provided during the 2011-2012 school term or a subsequent school term. If any teacher, whether or not in contractual continued service, is removed or dismissed as a result of a decision of a school board to decrease the number of teachers employed by the board, a decision of a school board to discontinue some particular type of teaching service, or a reduction in the number of programs or positions in a special education joint agreement, then written notice must be mailed to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery with receipt at least 45 days before the end of the school term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the reason therefor, and in all such cases the sequence of dismissal shall occur in accordance with this subsection (b); except that this subsection (b) shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action program in the school district, regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the board.

Each teacher must be categorized into one or more positions for which the teacher is qualified to hold, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the school year during which the sequence of dismissal is determined. Within each position and subject to agreements made by the joint committee on honorable dismissals that are authorized by subsection (c) of this Section, the school district or joint agreement must establish 4 groupings of teachers qualified to hold the position as follows:

(1) Grouping one shall consist of each teacher who is not in contractual continued service and who (i) has not received a performance evaluation rating, (ii) is employed for one school term or less to replace a teacher on leave, or (iii) is employed on a part-time basis. "Part-time basis" for the purposes of this subsection (b) means a teacher who is employed to teach less than a full-day, teacher workload or less than 5 days of the normal student attendance week, unless otherwise provided for in a collective bargaining agreement between the district and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers. For the purposes of this Section, a teacher (A) who is employed as a full-time teacher but who actually teaches or is otherwise present and participating in the district's educational program for less than a school term or (B) who, in the immediately previous school term, was employed on a full-time basis and actually taught or was otherwise present and participated in the district's educational program for 120 days or more is not considered employed on a part-time basis.

(2) Grouping 2 shall consist of each teacher with a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings.

(3) Grouping 3 shall consist of each teacher with a performance evaluation rating of at least Satisfactory or Proficient on both of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or on the teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one rating is available, unless the teacher qualifies for placement into grouping 4.

(4) Grouping 4 shall consist of each teacher whose last 2 performance evaluation ratings are Excellent and each teacher with 2 Excellent performance evaluation ratings out of the teacher's last 3 performance evaluation ratings with a third rating of Satisfactory or Proficient.

Among teachers qualified to hold a position, teachers must be dismissed in the order of their groupings, with teachers in grouping one dismissed first and teachers in grouping 4 dismissed last.

Within grouping one, the sequence of dismissal must be at the discretion of the school district or joint agreement. Within grouping 2, the sequence of dismissal must be based upon average performance evaluation ratings, with the teacher or teachers with the lowest average performance evaluation rating dismissed first. A teacher's average performance evaluation rating must be calculated using the average of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or the teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one rating is available, using the following numerical values: 4 for Excellent; 3 for Proficient or Satisfactory; 2 for Needs Improvement; and 1 for Unsatisfactory. As between or among teachers in grouping 2 with the same average performance evaluation rating and within each of groupings 3 and 4, the teacher or teachers with the shorter length of continuing service with the school district or joint agreement must be dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization.

Each board, including the governing board of a joint agreement, shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, each year establish a sequence of honorable dismissal list categorized by positions and the groupings defined in this subsection (b). Copies of the list showing each teacher by name and categorized by positions and the groupings defined in this subsection (b) must be distributed to the exclusive bargaining representative at least 75 days before the end of the school term, provided that the school district or joint agreement may, with notice to any exclusive employee representatives, move teachers from grouping one into another grouping during the period of time from 75 days until 45 days before the end of the school term. Each year, each board shall also establish, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, a list showing the length of continuing service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this Section, in which case a list must be made in accordance with the alternative method. Copies of the list must be distributed to the exclusive employee representative at least 75 days before the end of the school term.

Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or discontinuance must be paid all earned compensation on or before the third business day following the last day of pupil attendance in the regular school term.

If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies for the following school term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in groupings 3 or 4 of the sequence of dismissal and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming available, provided that if the number of honorable dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number of full-time equivalent positions filled by certified employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel) during the preceding school year, then the recall period is for the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the beginning of the following school term. If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies within the period from the beginning of the following school term through February 1 of the following school term (unless a date later than February 1, but no later than 6 months from the beginning of the following school term, is established in a collective bargaining agreement), the positions thereby becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in grouping 2 of the sequence of dismissal due to one "needs improvement" rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, provided that, if 2 ratings are available, the other performance evaluation rating used for grouping purposes is "satisfactory", "proficient", or "excellent", and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming available. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the preceding sentence shall apply to teachers removed or dismissed by honorable dismissal, even if notice of honorable dismissal occurred during the 2013-2014 school year. Among teachers eligible for recall pursuant to the preceding sentence, the order of recall must be in inverse order of dismissal, unless an alternative order of recall is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization. Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic necessity exceeds 5 notices or 150% of the average number of teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years, whichever is more, then the school board or governing board of a joint agreement, as applicable, shall also hold a public hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the hearing and board review, the action to approve any such reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.

For purposes of this subsection (b), subject to agreement on an alternative definition reached by the joint committee described in subsection (c) of this Section, a teacher's performance evaluation rating means the overall performance evaluation rating resulting from an annual or biennial performance evaluation conducted pursuant to Article 24A of this Code by the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal, not including any performance evaluation conducted during or at the end of a remediation period. No more than one evaluation rating each school term shall be one of the evaluation ratings used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection for any performance evaluations conducted during or at the end of a remediation period, if multiple performance evaluations are conducted in a school term, only the rating from the last evaluation conducted prior to establishing the sequence of honorable dismissal list in such school term shall be the one evaluation rating from that school term used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. Averaging ratings from multiple evaluations is not permitted unless otherwise agreed to in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization. The preceding 3 sentences are not a legislative declaration that existing law does or does not already require that only one performance evaluation each school term shall be used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. For performance evaluation ratings determined prior to September 1, 2012, any school district or joint agreement with a performance evaluation rating system that does not use either of the rating category systems specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for all teachers must establish a basis for assigning each teacher a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for all of the performance evaluation ratings that are to be used to determine the sequence of dismissal. A teacher's grouping and ranking on a sequence of honorable dismissal shall be deemed a part of the teacher's performance evaluation, and that information shall be disclosed to the exclusive bargaining representative as part of a sequence of honorable dismissal list, notwithstanding any laws prohibiting disclosure of such information. A performance evaluation rating may be used to determine the sequence of dismissal, notwithstanding the pendency of any grievance resolution or arbitration procedures relating to the performance evaluation. If a teacher has received at least one performance evaluation rating conducted by the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal and a subsequent performance evaluation is not conducted in any school year in which such evaluation is required to be conducted under Section 24A-5 of this Code, the teacher's performance evaluation rating for that school year for purposes of determining the sequence of dismissal is deemed Proficient. If a performance evaluation rating is nullified as the result of an arbitration, administrative agency, or court determination, then the school district or joint agreement is deemed to have conducted a performance evaluation for that school year, but the performance evaluation rating may not be used in determining the sequence of dismissal.

Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed as limiting the right of a school board or governing board of a joint agreement to dismiss a teacher not in contractual continued service in accordance with Section 24-11 of this Code.

Any provisions regarding the sequence of honorable dismissals and recall of honorably dismissed teachers in a collective bargaining agreement entered into on or before January 1, 2011 and in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that may conflict with this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall remain in effect through the expiration of such agreement or June 30, 2013, whichever is earlier.

(c) Each school district and special education joint agreement must use a joint committee composed of equal representation selected by the school board and its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers, to address the matters described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this subsection (c) pertaining to honorable dismissals under subsection (b) of this Section.

(1) The joint committee must consider and may agree to criteria for excluding from grouping 2 and placing into grouping 3 a teacher whose last 2 performance evaluations include a Needs Improvement and either a Proficient or Excellent.

(2) The joint committee must consider and may agree to an alternative definition for grouping 4, which definition must take into account prior performance evaluation ratings and may take into account other factors that relate to the school district's or program's educational objectives. An alternative definition for grouping 4 may not permit the inclusion of a teacher in the grouping with a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings.

(3) The joint committee may agree to including within the definition of a performance evaluation rating a performance evaluation rating administered by a school district or joint agreement other than the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal.

(4) For each school district or joint agreement that administers performance evaluation ratings that are inconsistent with either of the rating category systems specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code, the school district or joint agreement must consult with the joint committee on the basis for assigning a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code to each performance evaluation rating that will be used in a sequence of dismissal.

(5) Upon request by a joint committee member submitted to the employing board by no later than 10 days after the distribution of the sequence of honorable dismissal list, a representative of the employing board shall, within 5 days after the request, provide to members of the joint committee a list showing the most recent and prior performance evaluation ratings of each teacher identified only by length of continuing service in the district or joint agreement and not by name. If, after review of this list, a member of the joint committee has a good faith belief that a disproportionate number of teachers with greater length of continuing service with the district or joint agreement have received a recent performance evaluation rating lower than the prior rating, the member may request that the joint committee review the list to assess whether such a trend may exist. Following the joint committee's review, but by no later than the end of the applicable school term, the joint committee or any member or members of the joint committee may submit a report of the review to the employing board and exclusive bargaining representative, if any. Nothing in this paragraph (5) shall impact the order of honorable dismissal or a school district's or joint agreement's authority to carry out a dismissal in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section.

Agreement by the joint committee as to a matter requires the majority vote of all committee members, and if the joint committee does not reach agreement on a matter, then the otherwise applicable requirements of subsection (b) of this Section shall apply. Except as explicitly set forth in this subsection (c), a joint committee has no authority to agree to any further modifications to the requirements for honorable dismissals set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. The joint committee must be established, and the first meeting of the joint committee each school year must occur on or before December 1.

The joint committee must reach agreement on a matter on or before February 1 of a school year in order for the agreement of the joint committee to apply to the sequence of dismissal determined during that school year. Subject to the February 1 deadline for agreements, the agreement of a joint committee on a matter shall apply to the sequence of dismissal until the agreement is amended or terminated by the joint committee.

(d) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection (d), the requirements and dismissal procedures of Section 24-16.5 of this Code shall apply to any dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code.

(1) If a dismissal of a teacher in contractual continued service is sought for any reason or cause other than an honorable dismissal under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section or a dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code, including those under Section 10-22.4, the board must first approve a motion containing specific charges by a majority vote of all its members. Written notice of such charges, including a bill of particulars and the teacher's right to request a hearing, must be mailed to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery with receipt within 5 days of the adoption of the motion. Any written notice sent on or after July 1, 2012 shall inform the teacher of the right to request a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer split equally between the teacher and the board, or a hearing before a board-selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer paid by the board.

Before setting a hearing on charges stemming from causes that are considered remediable, a board must give the teacher reasonable warning in writing, stating specifically the causes that, if not removed, may result in charges; however, no such written warning is required if the causes have been the subject of a remediation plan pursuant to Article 24A of this Code.

If, in the opinion of the board, the interests of the school require it, the board may suspend the teacher without pay, pending the hearing, but if the board's dismissal or removal is not sustained, the teacher shall not suffer the loss of any salary or benefits by reason of the suspension.

(2) No hearing upon the charges is required unless the teacher within 17 days after receiving notice requests in writing of the board that a hearing be scheduled before a mutually selected hearing officer or a hearing officer selected by the board. The secretary of the school board shall forward a copy of the notice to the State Board of Education.

(3) Within 5 business days after receiving a notice of hearing in which either notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, the State Board of Education shall provide a list of 5 prospective, impartial hearing officers from the master list of qualified, impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education. Each person on the master list must (i) be accredited by a national arbitration organization and have had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to labor and employment relations matters between employers and employees or their exclusive bargaining representatives and (ii) beginning September 1, 2012, have participated in training provided or approved by the State Board of Education for teacher dismissal hearing officers so that he or she is familiar with issues generally involved in evaluative and non-evaluative dismissals.

If notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives within 3 business days shall alternately strike one name from the list provided by the State Board of Education until only one name remains. Unless waived by the teacher, the teacher shall have the right to proceed first with the striking. Within 3 business days of receipt of the list provided by the State Board of Education, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall each have the right to reject all prospective hearing officers named on the list and notify the State Board of Education of such rejection. Within 3 business days after receiving this notification, the State Board of Education shall appoint a qualified person from the master list who did not appear on the list sent to the parties to serve as the hearing officer, unless the parties notify it that they have chosen to alternatively select a hearing officer under paragraph (4) of this subsection (d).

If the teacher has requested a hearing before a hearing officer selected by the board, the board shall select one name from the master list of qualified impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education within 3 business days after receipt and shall notify the State Board of Education of its selection.

A hearing officer mutually selected by the parties, selected by the board, or selected through an alternative selection process under paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) (A) must not be a resident of the school district, (B) must be available to commence the hearing within 75 days and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected as the hearing officer, and (C) must issue a decision as to whether the teacher must be dismissed and give a copy of that decision to both the teacher and the board within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record, whichever is later.

(4) In the alternative to selecting a hearing officer from the list received from the State Board of Education or accepting the appointment of a hearing officer by the State Board of Education or if the State Board of Education cannot provide a list or appoint a hearing officer that meets the foregoing requirements, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives may mutually agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on the master list either by direct appointment by the parties or by using procedures for the appointment of an arbitrator established by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or the American Arbitration Association. The parties shall notify the State Board of Education of their intent to select a hearing officer using an alternative procedure within 3 business days of receipt of a list of prospective hearing officers provided by the State Board of Education, notice of appointment of a hearing officer by the State Board of Education, or receipt of notice from the State Board of Education that it cannot provide a list that meets the foregoing requirements, whichever is later.

(5) If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher before July 1, 2012, the fees and costs for the hearing officer must be paid by the State Board of Education. If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher on or after July 1, 2012, the hearing officer's fees and costs must be paid as follows in this paragraph (5). The fees and permissible costs for the hearing officer must be determined by the State Board of Education. If the board and the teacher or their legal representatives mutually agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on a list received from the State Board of Education, they may agree to supplement the fees determined by the State Board to the hearing officer, at a rate consistent with the hearing officer's published professional fees. If the hearing officer is mutually selected by the parties, then the board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall each pay 50% of the fees and costs and any supplemental allowance to which they agree. If the hearing officer is selected by the board, then the board shall pay 100% of the hearing officer's fees and costs. The fees and costs must be paid to the hearing officer within 14 days after the board and the teacher or their legal representatives receive the hearing officer's decision set forth in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d).

(6) The teacher is required to answer the bill of particulars and aver affirmative matters in his or her defense, and the time for initially doing so and the time for updating such answer and defenses after pre-hearing discovery must be set by the hearing officer. The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules so that each party has a fair opportunity to present its case and to ensure that the dismissal process proceeds in a fair and expeditious manner. These rules shall address, without limitation, discovery and hearing scheduling conferences; the teacher's initial answer and affirmative defenses to the bill of particulars and the updating of that information after pre-hearing discovery; provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents; the requirement that each party initially disclose to the other party and then update the disclosure no later than 10 calendar days prior to the commencement of the hearing, the names and addresses of persons who may be called as witnesses at the hearing, a summary of the facts or opinions each witness will testify to, and all other documents and materials, including information maintained electronically, relevant to its own as well as the other party's case (the hearing officer may exclude witnesses and exhibits not identified and shared, except those offered in rebuttal for which the party could not reasonably have anticipated prior to the hearing); pre-hearing discovery and preparation, including provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents, provided that discovery depositions are prohibited; the conduct of the hearing; the right of each party to be represented by counsel, the offer of evidence and witnesses and the cross-examination of witnesses; the authority of the hearing officer to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, provided that the hearing officer may limit the number of witnesses to be subpoenaed on behalf of each party to no more than 7; the length of post-hearing briefs; and the form, length, and content of hearing officers' decisions. The hearing officer shall hold a hearing and render a final decision for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or shall report to the school board findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher must be dismissed for conduct. The hearing officer shall commence the hearing within 75 days and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected as the hearing officer, provided that the hearing officer may modify these timelines upon the showing of good cause or mutual agreement of the parties. Good cause for the purpose of this subsection (d) shall mean the illness or otherwise unavoidable emergency of the teacher, district representative, their legal representatives, the hearing officer, or an essential witness as indicated in each party's pre-hearing submission. In a dismissal hearing pursuant to Article 24A of this Code, the hearing officer shall consider and give weight to all of the teacher's evaluations written pursuant to Article 24A that are relevant to the issues in the hearing.

Each party shall have no more than 3 days to present its case, unless extended by the hearing officer to enable a party to present adequate evidence and testimony, including due to the other party's cross-examination of the party's witnesses, for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties. The State Board of Education shall define in rules the meaning of "day" for such purposes. All testimony at the hearing shall be taken under oath administered by the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall cause a record of the proceedings to be kept and shall employ a competent reporter to take stenographic or stenotype notes of all the testimony. The costs of the reporter's attendance and services at the hearing shall be paid by the party or parties who are responsible for paying the fees and costs of the hearing officer. Either party desiring a transcript of the hearing shall pay for the cost thereof. Any post-hearing briefs must be submitted by the parties by no later than 21 days after a party's receipt of the transcript of the hearing, unless extended by the hearing officer for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties.

(7) The hearing officer shall, within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record, whichever is later, make a decision as to whether or not the teacher shall be dismissed pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or report to the school board findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher shall be dismissed for cause and shall give a copy of the decision or findings of fact and recommendation to both the teacher and the school board. If a hearing officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in writing to both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record is closed, whichever is later, the parties may mutually agree to select a hearing officer pursuant to the alternative procedure, as provided in this Section, to rehear the charges heard by the hearing officer who failed to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation or to review the record and render a decision. If any hearing officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in writing to both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record is closed, whichever is later, the hearing officer shall be removed from the master list of hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education for not more than 24 months. The parties and the State Board of Education may also take such other actions as it deems appropriate, including recovering, reducing, or withholding any fees paid or to be paid to the hearing officer. If any hearing officer repeats such failure, he or she must be permanently removed from the master list maintained by the State Board of Education and may not be selected by parties through the alternative selection process under this paragraph (7) or paragraph (4) of this subsection (d). The board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge a teacher if the hearing officer fails to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within the time specified in this Section. If the decision of the hearing officer for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board for dismissal for cause is in favor of the teacher, then the hearing officer or school board shall order reinstatement to the same or substantially equivalent position and shall determine the amount for which the school board is liable, including, but not limited to, loss of income and benefits.

(8) The school board, within 45 days after receipt of the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation as to whether (i) the conduct at issue occurred, (ii) the conduct that did occur was remediable, and (iii) the proposed dismissal should be sustained, shall issue a written order as to whether the teacher must be retained or dismissed for cause from its employ. The school board's written order shall incorporate the hearing officer's findings of fact, except that the school board may modify or supplement the findings of fact if, in its opinion, the findings of fact are against the manifest weight of the evidence.

If the school board dismisses the teacher notwithstanding the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation, the school board shall make a conclusion in its written order, giving its reasons therefor, and such conclusion and reasons must be included in its written order. The failure of the school board to strictly adhere to the timelines contained in this Section shall not render it without jurisdiction to dismiss the teacher. The school board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge the teacher for cause if the hearing officer fails to render a recommendation within the time specified in this Section. The decision of the school board is final, unless reviewed as provided in paragraph (9) of this subsection (d).

If the school board retains the teacher, the school board shall enter a written order stating the amount of back pay and lost benefits, less mitigation, to be paid to the teacher, within 45 days after its retention order. Should the teacher object to the amount of the back pay and lost benefits or amount mitigated, the teacher shall give written objections to the amount within 21 days. If the parties fail to reach resolution within 7 days, the dispute shall be referred to the hearing officer, who shall consider the school board's written order and teacher's written objection and determine the amount to which the school board is liable. The costs of the hearing officer's review and determination must be paid by the board.

(9) The decision of the hearing officer pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board's decision to dismiss for cause is final unless reviewed as provided in Section 24-16 of this Act. If the school board's decision to dismiss for cause is contrary to the hearing officer's recommendation, the court on review shall give consideration to the school board's decision and its supplemental findings of fact, if applicable, and the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation in making its decision. In the event such review is instituted, the school board shall be responsible for preparing and filing the record of proceedings, and such costs associated therewith must be divided equally between the parties.

(10) If a decision of the hearing officer for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board for dismissal for cause is adjudicated upon review or appeal in favor of the teacher, then the trial court shall order reinstatement and shall remand the matter to the school board with direction for entry of an order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less mitigation. The teacher may challenge the school board's order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less mitigation, through an expedited arbitration procedure, with the costs of the arbitrator borne by the school board.

Any teacher who is reinstated by any hearing or adjudication brought under this Section shall be assigned by the board to a position substantially similar to the one which that teacher held prior to that teacher's suspension or dismissal.

(11) Subject to any later effective date referenced in this Section for a specific aspect of the dismissal process, the changes made by Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall apply to dismissals instituted on or after September 1, 2011. Any dismissal instituted prior to September 1, 2011 must be carried out in accordance with the requirements of this Section prior to amendment by Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of 97th General Assembly.

(e) Nothing contained in this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 97-8, eff. 6-13-11; 98-513, eff. 1-1-14; 98-648, eff. 7-1-14; revised 12-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.7)

Sec. 27-23.7. Bullying prevention.

(a) The General Assembly finds that a safe and civil school environment is necessary for students to learn and achieve and that bullying causes physical, psychological, and emotional harm to students and interferes with students' ability to learn and participate in school activities. The General Assembly further finds that bullying has been linked to other forms of antisocial behavior, such as vandalism, shoplifting, skipping and dropping out of school, fighting, using drugs and alcohol, sexual harassment, and sexual violence. Because of the negative outcomes associated with bullying in schools, the General Assembly finds that school districts, charter schools, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary and secondary schools should educate students, parents, and school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school personnel about what behaviors constitute prohibited bullying.

Bullying on the basis of actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, national origin, ancestry, age, marital status, physical or mental disability, military status, sexual orientation, gender-related identity or expression, unfavorable discharge from military service, association with a person or group with one or more of the aforementioned actual or perceived characteristics, or any other distinguishing characteristic is prohibited in all school districts, charter schools, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary and secondary schools. No student shall be subjected to bullying:

(1) during any school-sponsored education program or activity;

(2) while in school, on school property, on school buses or other school vehicles, at designated school bus stops waiting for the school bus, or at school-sponsored or school-sanctioned events or activities;

(3) through the transmission of information from a school computer, a school computer network, or other similar electronic school equipment; or

(4) through the transmission of information from a computer that is accessed at a nonschool-related location, activity, function, or program or from the use of technology or an electronic device that is not owned, leased, or used by a school district or school if the bullying causes a substantial disruption to the educational process or orderly operation of a school. This item (4) applies only in cases in which a school administrator or teacher receives a report that bullying through this means has occurred and does not require a district or school to staff or monitor any nonschool-related activity, function, or program.

(a-5) Nothing in this Section is intended to infringe upon any right to exercise free expression or the free exercise of religion or religiously based views protected under the First Amendment to the United States Constitution or under Section 3 of Article I of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) In this Section:

"Bullying" includes "cyber-bullying" and means any severe or pervasive physical or verbal act or conduct, including communications made in writing or electronically, directed toward a student or students that has or can be reasonably predicted to have the effect of one or more of the following:

(1) placing the student or students in reasonable fear of harm to the student's or students' person or property;

(2) causing a substantially detrimental effect on the student's or students' physical or mental health;

(3) substantially interfering with the student's or students' academic performance; or

(4) substantially interfering with the student's or students' ability to participate in or benefit from the services, activities, or privileges provided by a school.

Bullying, as defined in this subsection (b), may take various forms, including without limitation one or more of the following: harassment, threats, intimidation, stalking, physical violence, sexual harassment, sexual violence, theft, public humiliation, destruction of property, or retaliation for asserting or alleging an act of bullying. This list is meant to be illustrative and non-exhaustive.

"Cyber-bullying" means bullying through the use of technology or any electronic communication, including without limitation any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic system, photoelectronic system, or photooptical system, including without limitation electronic mail, Internet communications, instant messages, or facsimile communications. "Cyber-bullying" includes the creation of a webpage or weblog in which the creator assumes the identity of another person or the knowing impersonation of another person as the author of posted content or messages if the creation or impersonation creates any of the effects enumerated in the definition of bullying in this Section. "Cyber-bullying" also includes the distribution by electronic means of a communication to more than one person or the posting of material on an electronic medium that may be accessed by one or more persons if the distribution or posting creates any of the effects enumerated in the definition of bullying in this Section.

"Policy on bullying" means a bullying prevention policy that meets the following criteria:

(1) Includes the bullying definition provided in this Section.

(2) Includes a statement that bullying is contrary to State law and the policy of the school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school and is consistent with subsection (a-5) of this Section.

(3) Includes procedures for promptly reporting bullying, including, but not limited to, identifying and providing the school e-mail address (if applicable) and school telephone number for the staff person or persons responsible for receiving such reports and a procedure for anonymous reporting; however, this shall not be construed to permit formal disciplinary action solely on the basis of an anonymous report.

(4) Consistent with federal and State laws and rules governing student privacy rights, includes procedures for promptly informing parents or guardians of all students involved in the alleged incident of bullying and discussing, as appropriate, the availability of social work services, counseling, school psychological services, other interventions, and restorative measures.

(5) Contains procedures for promptly investigating and addressing reports of bullying, including the following:

(A) Making all reasonable efforts to complete the investigation within 10 school days after the date the report of the incident of bullying was received and taking into consideration additional relevant information received during the course of the investigation about the reported incident of bullying.

(B) Involving appropriate school support personnel and other staff persons with knowledge, experience, and training on bullying prevention, as deemed appropriate, in the investigation process.

(C) Notifying the principal or school administrator or his or her designee of the report of the incident of bullying as soon as possible after the report is received.

(D) Consistent with federal and State laws and rules governing student privacy rights, providing parents and guardians of the students who are parties to the investigation information about the investigation and an opportunity to meet with the principal or school administrator or his or her designee to discuss the investigation, the findings of the investigation, and the actions taken to address the reported incident of bullying.

(6) Includes the interventions that can be taken to address bullying, which may include, but are not limited to, school social work services, restorative measures, social-emotional skill building, counseling, school psychological services, and community-based services.

(7) Includes a statement prohibiting reprisal or retaliation against any person who reports an act of bullying and the consequences and appropriate remedial actions for a person who engages in reprisal or retaliation.

(8) Includes consequences and appropriate remedial actions for a person found to have falsely accused another of bullying as a means of retaliation or as a means of bullying.

(9) Is based on the engagement of a range of school stakeholders, including students and parents or guardians.

(10) Is posted on the school district's, charter school's, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school's existing Internet website and is included in the student handbook, and, where applicable, posted where other policies, rules, and standards of conduct are currently posted in the school, and is distributed annually to parents, guardians, students, and school personnel, including new employees when hired.

(11) As part of the process of reviewing and re-evaluating the policy under subsection (d) of this Section, contains a policy evaluation process to assess the outcomes and effectiveness of the policy that includes, but is not limited to, factors such as the frequency of victimization; student, staff, and family observations of safety at a school; identification of areas of a school where bullying occurs; the types of bullying utilized; and bystander intervention or participation. The school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school may use relevant data and information it already collects for other purposes in the policy evaluation. The information developed as a result of the policy evaluation must be made available on the Internet website of the school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school. If an Internet website is not available, the information must be provided to school administrators, school board members, school personnel, parents, guardians, and students.

(12) Is consistent with the policies of the school board, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school.

"Restorative measures" means a continuum of school-based alternatives to exclusionary discipline, such as suspensions and expulsions, that: (i) are adapted to the particular needs of the school and community, (ii) contribute to maintaining school safety, (iii) protect the integrity of a positive and productive learning climate, (iv) teach students the personal and interpersonal skills they will need to be successful in school and society, (v) serve to build and restore relationships among students, families, schools, and communities, and (vi) reduce the likelihood of future disruption by balancing accountability with an understanding of students' behavioral health needs in order to keep students in school.

"School personnel" means persons employed by, on contract with, or who volunteer in a school district, charter school schools, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school, including without limitation school and school district administrators, teachers, school guidance counselors, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, school nurses, cafeteria workers, custodians, bus drivers, school resource officers, and security guards.

(c) (Blank).

(d) Each school district, charter school, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school shall create, maintain, and implement a policy on bullying, which policy must be filed with the State Board of Education. The policy or implementing procedure shall include a process to investigate whether a reported act of bullying is within the permissible scope of the district's or school's jurisdiction and shall require that the district or school provide the victim with information regarding services that are available within the district and community, such as counseling, support services, and other programs. Every 2 years, each school district, charter school, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school shall conduct a review and re-evaluation of its policy and make any necessary and appropriate revisions. The policy must be filed with the State Board of Education after being updated. The State Board of Education shall monitor and provide technical support for the implementation of policies created under this subsection (d).

(e) This Section shall not be interpreted to prevent a victim from seeking redress under any other available civil or criminal law.

(Source: P.A. 98-669, eff. 6-26-14; 98-801, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-4)

Sec. 27A-4. General provisions Provisions.

(a) The General Assembly does not intend to alter or amend the provisions of any court-ordered desegregation plan in effect for any school district. A charter school shall be subject to all federal and State laws and constitutional provisions prohibiting discrimination on the basis of disability, race, creed, color, gender, national origin, religion, ancestry, marital status, or need for special education services.

(b) The total number of charter schools operating under this Article at any one time shall not exceed 120. Not more than 70 charter schools shall operate at any one time in any city having a population exceeding 500,000, with at least 5 charter schools devoted exclusively to students from low-performing or overcrowded schools operating at any one time in that city; and not more than 45 charter schools shall operate at any one time in the remainder of the State, with not more than one charter school that has been initiated by a board of education, or by an intergovernmental agreement between or among boards of education, operating at any one time in the school district where the charter school is located. In addition to these charter schools, up to but no more than 5 charter schools devoted exclusively to re-enrolled high school dropouts and/or students 16 or 15 years old at risk of dropping out may operate at any one time in any city having a population exceeding 500,000. Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in subsection (b) of Section 27A-5 of this Code, each such dropout charter may operate up to 15 campuses within the city. Any of these dropout charters may have a maximum of 1,875 enrollment seats, any one of the campuses of the dropout charter may have a maximum of 165 enrollment seats, and each campus of the dropout charter must be operated, through a contract or payroll, by the same legal entity as that for which the charter is approved and certified.

For purposes of implementing this Section, the State Board shall assign a number to each charter submission it receives under Section 27A-6 for its review and certification, based on the chronological order in which the submission is received by it. The State Board shall promptly notify local school boards when the maximum numbers of certified charter schools authorized to operate have been reached.

(c) No charter shall be granted under this Article that would convert any existing private, parochial, or non-public school to a charter school.

(d) Enrollment in a charter school shall be open to any pupil who resides within the geographic boundaries of the area served by the local school board, provided that the board of education in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may designate attendance boundaries for no more than one-third of the charter schools permitted in the city if the board of education determines that attendance boundaries are needed to relieve overcrowding or to better serve low-income and at-risk students. Students residing within an attendance boundary may be given priority for enrollment, but must not be required to attend the charter school.

(e) Nothing in this Article shall prevent 2 or more local school boards from jointly issuing a charter to a single shared charter school, provided that all of the provisions of this Article are met as to those local school boards.

(f) No local school board shall require any employee of the school district to be employed in a charter school.

(g) No local school board shall require any pupil residing within the geographic boundary of its district to enroll in a charter school.

(h) If there are more eligible applicants for enrollment in a charter school than there are spaces available, successful applicants shall be selected by lottery. However, priority shall be given to siblings of pupils enrolled in the charter school and to pupils who were enrolled in the charter school the previous school year, unless expelled for cause, and priority may be given to pupils residing within the charter school's attendance boundary, if a boundary has been designated by the board of education in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

Beginning with student enrollment for the 2015-2016 school year, any lottery required under this subsection (h) must be administered and videotaped by the charter school. The authorizer or its designee must be allowed to be present or view the lottery in real time. The charter school must maintain a videotaped record of the lottery, including a time/date stamp. The charter school shall transmit copies of the videotape and all records relating to the lottery to the authorizer on or before September 1 of each year.

Subject to the requirements for priority applicant groups set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h), any lottery required under this subsection (h) must be administered in a way that provides each student an equal chance at admission. If an authorizer makes a determination that a charter school's lottery is in violation of this subsection (h), it may administer the lottery directly. After a lottery, each student randomly selected for admission to the charter school must be notified. Charter schools may not create an admissions process subsequent to a lottery that may operate as a barrier to registration or enrollment.

Charter schools may undertake additional intake activities, including without limitation student essays, school-parent compacts, or open houses, but in no event may a charter school require participation in these activities as a condition of enrollment. A charter school must submit an updated waitlist to the authorizer on a quarterly basis. A waitlist must be submitted to the authorizer at the same time as quarterly financial statements, if quarterly financial statements are required by the authorizer.

Dual enrollment at both a charter school and a public school or non-public school shall not be allowed. A pupil who is suspended or expelled from a charter school shall be deemed to be suspended or expelled from the public schools of the school district in which the pupil resides. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection (h):

(1) any charter school with a mission exclusive to educating high school dropouts may grant priority admission to students who are high school dropouts and/or students 16 or 15 years old at risk of dropping out and any charter school with a mission exclusive to educating students from low-performing or overcrowded schools may restrict admission to students who are from low-performing or overcrowded schools; "priority admission" for charter schools exclusively devoted to re-enrolled dropouts or students at risk of dropping out means a minimum of 90% of students enrolled shall be high school dropouts; and

(2) any charter school located in a school district that contains all or part of a federal military base may set aside up to 33% of its current charter enrollment to students with parents assigned to the federal military base, with the remaining 67% subject to the general enrollment and lottery requirements of subsection (d) of this Section and this subsection (h); if a student with a parent assigned to the federal military base withdraws from the charter school during the course of a school year for reasons other than grade promotion, those students with parents assigned to the federal military base shall have preference in filling the vacancy.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 shall not have a duty to collectively bargain with an exclusive representative of its employees over decisions to grant or deny a charter school proposal under Section 27A-8 of this Code, decisions to renew or revoke a charter under Section 27A-9 of this Code, and the impact of these decisions, provided that nothing in this Section shall have the effect of negating, abrogating, replacing, reducing, diminishing, or limiting in any way employee rights, guarantees, or privileges granted in Sections 2, 3, 7, 8, 10, 14, and 15 of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(k) In this Section:

"Low-performing school" means a public school in a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code that enrolls students in any of grades kindergarten through 8 and that is ranked within the lowest 10% of schools in that district in terms of the percentage of students meeting or exceeding standards on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code.

"Overcrowded school" means a public school in a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code that (i) enrolls students in any of grades kindergarten through 8, (ii) has a percentage of low-income students of 70% or more, as identified in the most recently available School Report Card published by the State Board of Education, and (iii) is determined by the Chicago Board of Education to be in the most severely overcrowded 5% of schools in the district. On or before November 1 of each year, the Chicago Board of Education shall file a report with the State Board of Education on which schools in the district meet the definition of "overcrowded school". "Students at risk of dropping out" means students 16 or 15 years old in a public school in a district organized under Article 34 of this Code that enrolls students in any grades 9-12 who have been absent at least 90 school attendance days of the previous 180 school attendance days.

(l) For advertisements created after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-783) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, any advertisement, including a radio, television, print, Internet, social media, or billboard advertisement, purchased by a school district or public school, including a charter school, with public funds must include a disclaimer stating that the advertisement was paid for using public funds.

This disclaimer requirement does not extend to materials created by the charter school, including, but not limited to, a school website, informational pamphlets or leaflets, or clothing with affixed school logos.

(Source: P.A. 97-151, eff. 1-1-12; 97-624, eff. 11-28-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-474, eff. 8-16-13; 98-783, eff. 1-1-15; 98-972, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

On or before March 1, 2014, the Commission shall submit to the General Assembly a report on the effect of virtual-schooling, including without limitation the effect on student performance, the costs associated with virtual-schooling, and issues with oversight. The report shall include policy recommendations for virtual-schooling.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) A charter school shall comply with all applicable health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article; the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act; all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English language learners, referred to in this Code as "children of limited English-speaking ability"; and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies, except the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 24-24 and 34-84A of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act; and

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention; and .

(10) (9) Section 2-3.162 2-3.160 of this the School Code regarding student discipline reporting.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission, then the Commission charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 97-152, eff. 7-20-11; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-16, eff. 5-24-13; 98-639, eff. 6-9-14; 98-669, eff. 6-26-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-783, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1059, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-14-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-6)

Sec. 27A-6. Contract contents; applicability of laws and regulations.

(a) A certified charter shall constitute a binding contract and agreement between the charter school and a local school board under the terms of which the local school board authorizes the governing body of the charter school to operate the charter school on the terms specified in the contract.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the certified charter may not waive or release the charter school from the State goals, standards, and assessments established pursuant to Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code. Beginning with the 2003-2004 school year, the certified charter for a charter school operating in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 shall require the charter school to administer any other nationally recognized standardized tests to its students that the chartering entity administers to other students, and the results on such tests shall be included in the chartering entity's assessment reports.

(c) Subject to the provisions of subsection (e), a material revision to a previously certified contract or a renewal shall be made with the approval of both the local school board and the governing body of the charter school.

(c-5) The proposed contract shall include a provision on how both parties will address minor violations of the contract.

(d) The proposed contract between the governing body of a proposed charter school and the local school board as described in Section 27A-7 must be submitted to and certified by the State Board before it can take effect. If the State Board recommends that the proposed contract be modified for consistency with this Article before it can be certified, the modifications must be consented to by both the governing body of the charter school and the local school board, and resubmitted to the State Board for its certification. If the proposed contract is resubmitted in a form that is not consistent with this Article, the State Board may refuse to certify the charter.

The State Board shall assign a number to each submission or resubmission in chronological order of receipt, and shall determine whether the proposed contract is consistent with the provisions of this Article. If the proposed contract complies, the State Board shall so certify.

(e) No renewal of a previously certified contract is effective unless and until the State Board certifies that the renewal is consistent with the provisions of this Article. A material revision to a previously certified contract may go into effect immediately upon approval of both the local school board and the governing body of the charter school, unless either party requests in writing that the State Board certify that the material revision is consistent with the provisions of this Article. If such a request is made, the proposed material revision is not effective unless and until the State Board so certifies.

(Source: P.A. 98-972, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1048, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-7)

Sec. 27A-7. Charter submission.

(a) A proposal to establish a charter school shall be submitted to the local school board and the State Board for certification under Section 27A-6 of this Code in the form of a proposed contract entered into between the local school board and the governing body of a proposed charter school. The charter school proposal shall include:

(1) The name of the proposed charter school, which must include the words "Charter School".

(2) The age or grade range, areas of focus, minimum and maximum numbers of pupils to be enrolled in the charter school, and any other admission criteria that would be legal if used by a school district.

(3) A description of and address for the physical plant in which the charter school will be located; provided that nothing in the Article shall be deemed to justify delaying or withholding favorable action on or approval of a charter school proposal because the building or buildings in which the charter school is to be located have not been acquired or rented at the time a charter school proposal is submitted or approved or a charter school contract is entered into or submitted for certification or certified, so long as the proposal or submission identifies and names at least 2 sites that are potentially available as a charter school facility by the time the charter school is to open.

(4) The mission statement of the charter school, which must be consistent with the General Assembly's declared purposes; provided that nothing in this Article shall be construed to require that, in order to receive favorable consideration and approval, a charter school proposal demonstrate unequivocally that the charter school will be able to meet each of those declared purposes, it being the intention of the Charter Schools Law that those purposes be recognized as goals that charter schools must aspire to attain.

(5) The goals, objectives, and pupil performance standards to be achieved by the charter school.

(6) In the case of a proposal to establish a charter school by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status, evidence that the proposed formation of the charter school has received the approval of certified teachers, parents and guardians, and, if applicable, a local school council as provided in subsection (b) of Section 27A-8.

(7) A description of the charter school's educational program, pupil performance standards, curriculum, school year, school days, and hours of operation.

(8) A description of the charter school's plan for evaluating pupil performance, the types of assessments that will be used to measure pupil progress towards achievement of the school's pupil performance standards, the timeline for achievement of those standards, and the procedures for taking corrective action in the event that pupil performance at the charter school falls below those standards.

(9) Evidence that the terms of the charter as proposed are economically sound for both the charter school and the school district, a proposed budget for the term of the charter, a description of the manner in which an annual audit of the financial and administrative operations of the charter school, including any services provided by the school district, are to be conducted, and a plan for the displacement of pupils, teachers, and other employees who will not attend or be employed in the charter school.

(10) A description of the governance and operation of the charter school, including the nature and extent of parental, professional educator, and community involvement in the governance and operation of the charter school.

(11) An explanation of the relationship that will exist between the charter school and its employees, including evidence that the terms and conditions of employment have been addressed with affected employees and their recognized representative, if any. However, a bargaining unit of charter school employees shall be separate and distinct from any bargaining units formed from employees of a school district in which the charter school is located.

(12) An agreement between the parties regarding their respective legal liability and applicable insurance coverage.

(13) A description of how the charter school plans to meet the transportation needs of its pupils, and a plan for addressing the transportation needs of low-income and at-risk pupils.

(14) The proposed effective date and term of the charter; provided that the first day of the first academic year shall be no earlier than August 15 and no later than September 15 of a calendar year, and the first day of the fiscal year shall be July 1.

(15) Any other information reasonably required by the State Board of Education.

(b) A proposal to establish a charter school may be initiated by individuals or organizations that will have majority representation on the board of directors or other governing body of the corporation or other discrete legal entity that is to be established to operate the proposed charter school, by a board of education or an intergovernmental agreement between or among boards of education, or by the board of directors or other governing body of a discrete legal entity already existing or established to operate the proposed charter school. The individuals or organizations referred to in this subsection may be school teachers, school administrators, local school councils, colleges or universities or their faculty members, public community colleges or their instructors or other representatives, corporations, or other entities or their representatives. The proposal shall be submitted to the local school board for consideration and, if appropriate, for development of a proposed contract to be submitted to the State Board for certification under Section 27A-6.

(c) The local school board may not without the consent of the governing body of the charter school condition its approval of a charter school proposal on acceptance of an agreement to operate under State laws and regulations and local school board policies from which the charter school is otherwise exempted under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1048, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-11)

Sec. 27A-11. Local financing.

(a) For purposes of the School Code, pupils enrolled in a charter school shall be included in the pupil enrollment of the school district within which the pupil resides. Each charter school (i) shall determine the school district in which each pupil who is enrolled in the charter school resides, (ii) shall report the aggregate number of pupils resident of a school district who are enrolled in the charter school to the school district in which those pupils reside, and (iii) shall maintain accurate records of daily attendance that shall be deemed sufficient to file claims under Section 18-8 notwithstanding any other requirements of that Section regarding hours of instruction and teacher certification.

(b) Except for a charter school established by referendum under Section 27A-6.5, as part of a charter school contract, the charter school and the local school board shall agree on funding and any services to be provided by the school district to the charter school. Agreed funding that a charter school is to receive from the local school board for a school year shall be paid in equal quarterly installments with the payment of the installment for the first quarter being made not later than July 1, unless the charter establishes a different payment schedule. However, if a charter school dismisses a pupil from the charter school after receiving a quarterly payment, the charter school shall return to the school district, on a quarterly basis, the prorated portion of public funding provided for the education of that pupil for the time the student is not enrolled at the charter school. Likewise, if a pupil transfers to a charter school between quarterly payments, the school district shall provide, on a quarterly basis, a prorated portion of the public funding to the charter school to provide for the education of that pupil.

All services centrally or otherwise provided by the school district including, but not limited to, rent, food services, custodial services, maintenance, curriculum, media services, libraries, transportation, and warehousing shall be subject to negotiation between a charter school and the local school board and paid for out of the revenues negotiated pursuant to this subsection (b); provided that the local school board shall not attempt, by negotiation or otherwise, to obligate a charter school to provide pupil transportation for pupils for whom a district is not required to provide transportation under the criteria set forth in subsection (a)(13) of Section 27A-7.

In no event shall the funding be less than 75% or more than 125% of the school district's per capita student tuition multiplied by the number of students residing in the district who are enrolled in the charter school.

It is the intent of the General Assembly that funding and service agreements under this subsection (b) shall be neither a financial incentive nor a financial disincentive to the establishment of a charter school.

The charter school may set and collect reasonable fees. Fees collected from students enrolled at a charter school shall be retained by the charter school.

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (b) of this Section, the proportionate share of State and federal resources generated by students with disabilities or staff serving them shall be directed to charter schools enrolling those students by their school districts or administrative units. The proportionate share of moneys generated under other federal or State categorical aid programs shall be directed to charter schools serving students eligible for that aid.

(d) The governing body of a charter school is authorized to accept gifts, donations, or grants of any kind made to the charter school and to expend or use gifts, donations, or grants in accordance with the conditions prescribed by the donor; however, a gift, donation, or grant may not be accepted by the governing body if it is subject to any condition contrary to applicable law or contrary to the terms of the contract between the charter school and the local school board. Charter schools shall be encouraged to solicit and utilize community volunteer speakers and other instructional resources when providing instruction on the Holocaust and other historical events.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The Commission shall provide technical assistance to persons and groups preparing or revising charter applications.

(g) At the non-renewal or revocation of its charter, each charter school shall refund to the local board of education all unspent funds.

(h) A charter school is authorized to incur temporary, short term debt to pay operating expenses in anticipation of receipt of funds from the local school board.

(Source: P.A. 98-640, eff. 6-9-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/30-14.2) (from Ch. 122, par. 30-14.2)

Sec. 30-14.2. MIA/POW scholarships.

(a) Any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or any step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson who possesses all necessary entrance requirements shall, upon application and proper proof, be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship consisting of the equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time enrollment including summer terms, to the state supported Illinois institution of higher learning of his choice, subject to the restrictions listed below.

"Eligible veteran or serviceperson" means any veteran or serviceperson, including an Illinois National Guard member who is on active duty or is active on a training assignment, who has been declared by the U.S. Department of Defense or the U.S. Department of Veterans' Affairs to be a prisoner of war, be missing in action, have died as the result of a service-connected disability or be permanently disabled from service-connected causes with 100% disability and who (i) at the time of entering service was an Illinois resident, (ii) was an Illinois resident within 6 months after entering such service, or (iii) until July 1, 2014, became an Illinois resident within 6 months after leaving the service and can establish at least 30 years of continuous residency in the State of Illinois.

Full-time enrollment means 12 or more semester hours of courses per semester, or 12 or more quarter hours of courses per quarter, or the equivalent thereof per term. Scholarships utilized by dependents enrolled in less than full-time study shall be computed in the proportion which the number of hours so carried bears to full-time enrollment.

Scholarships awarded under this Section may be used by a spouse or child without regard to his or her age. The holder of a Scholarship awarded under this Section shall be subject to all examinations and academic standards, including the maintenance of minimum grade levels, that are applicable generally to other enrolled students at the Illinois institution of higher learning where the Scholarship is being used. If the surviving spouse remarries or if there is a divorce between the veteran or serviceperson and his or her spouse while the dependent is pursuing his or her course of study, Scholarship benefits will be terminated at the end of the term for which he or she is presently enrolled. Such dependents shall also be entitled, upon proper proof and application, to enroll in any extension course offered by a State supported Illinois institution of higher learning without payment of tuition and approved fees.

The holder of a MIA/POW Scholarship authorized under this Section shall not be required to pay any matriculation or application fees, tuition, activities fees, graduation fees or other fees, except multipurpose building fees or similar fees for supplies and materials.

Any dependent who has been or shall be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship shall be reimbursed by the appropriate institution of higher learning for any fees which he or she has paid and for which exemption is granted under this Section if application for reimbursement is made within 2 months following the end of the school term for which the fees were paid.

(b) In lieu of the benefit provided in subsection (a), any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson, which spouse or child has a physical, mental or developmental disability, shall be entitled to receive, upon application and proper proof, a benefit to be used for the purpose of defraying the cost of the attendance or treatment of such spouse or child at one or more appropriate therapeutic, rehabilitative or educational facilities. The application and proof may be made by the parent or legal guardian of the spouse or child on his or her behalf.

The total benefit provided to any beneficiary under this subsection shall not exceed the cost equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time enrollment, including summer terms, at the University of Illinois. Whenever practicable in the opinion of the Department of Veterans' Affairs, payment of benefits under this subsection shall be made directly to the facility, the cost of attendance or treatment at which is being defrayed, as such costs accrue.

(c) The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid for out of funds made available to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due to any state supported Illinois institution of higher learning shall be payable by the Comptroller to such institution on vouchers approved by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due under subsection (b) of this Section shall be payable by warrant upon vouchers issued by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and approved by the Comptroller. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall determine the eligibility of the persons who make application for the benefits provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1415, eff. 7-30-10; revised 12-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-85) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-85)

Sec. 34-85. Removal for cause; Notice and hearing; Suspension.

(a) No teacher employed by the board of education shall (after serving the probationary period specified in Section 34-84) be removed except for cause. Teachers (who have completed the probationary period specified in Section 34-84 of this Code) shall be removed for cause in accordance with the procedures set forth in this Section or, at the board's option, the procedures set forth in Section 24-16.5 of this Code or such other procedures established in an agreement entered into between the board and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers under Section 34-85c of this Code for teachers (who have completed the probationary period specified in Section 34-84 of this Code) assigned to schools identified in that agreement. No principal employed by the board of education shall be removed during the term of his or her performance contract except for cause, which may include but is not limited to the principal's repeated failure to implement the school improvement plan or to comply with the provisions of the Uniform Performance Contract, including additional criteria established by the Council for inclusion in the performance contract pursuant to Section 34-2.3.

Before service of notice of charges on account of causes that may be deemed to be remediable, the teacher or principal must be given reasonable warning in writing, stating specifically the causes that, if not removed, may result in charges; however, no such written warning is required if the causes have been the subject of a remediation plan pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or if the board and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers have entered into an agreement pursuant to Section 34-85c of this Code, pursuant to an alternative system of remediation. No written warning shall be required for conduct on the part of a teacher or principal that is cruel, immoral, negligent, or criminal or that in any way causes psychological or physical harm or injury to a student, as that conduct is deemed to be irremediable. No written warning shall be required for a material breach of the uniform principal performance contract, as that conduct is deemed to be irremediable; provided that not less than 30 days before the vote of the local school council to seek the dismissal of a principal for a material breach of a uniform principal performance contract, the local school council shall specify the nature of the alleged breach in writing and provide a copy of it to the principal.

(1) To initiate dismissal proceedings against a teacher or principal, the general superintendent must first approve written charges and specifications against the teacher or principal. A local school council may direct the general superintendent to approve written charges against its principal on behalf of the Council upon the vote of 7 members of the Council. The general superintendent must approve those charges within 45 calendar days or provide a written reason for not approving those charges. A written notice of those charges, including specifications, shall be served upon the teacher or principal within 10 business days of the approval of the charges. Any written notice sent on or after July 1, 2012 shall also inform the teacher or principal of the right to request a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer split equally between the teacher or principal and the board, or a hearing before a qualified hearing officer chosen by the general superintendent, with the cost of the hearing officer paid by the board. If the teacher or principal cannot be found upon diligent inquiry, such charges may be served upon him by mailing a copy thereof in a sealed envelope by prepaid certified mail, return receipt requested, to the teacher's or principal's last known address. A return receipt showing delivery to such address within 20 calendar days after the date of the approval of the charges shall constitute proof of service.

(2) No hearing upon the charges is required unless the teacher or principal within 17 calendar days after receiving notice requests in writing of the general superintendent that a hearing be scheduled. Pending the hearing of the charges, the general superintendent or his or her designee may suspend the teacher or principal charged without pay in accordance with rules prescribed by the board, provided that if the teacher or principal charged is not dismissed based on the charges, he or she must be made whole for lost earnings, less setoffs for mitigation.

(3) The board shall maintain a list of at least 9 qualified hearing officers who will conduct hearings on charges and specifications. The list must be developed in good faith consultation with the exclusive representative of the board's teachers and professional associations that represent the board's principals. The list may be revised on July 1st of each year or earlier as needed. To be a qualified hearing officer, the person must (i) be accredited by a national arbitration organization and have had a minimum of 5 years of experience as an arbitrator in cases involving labor and employment relations matters between employers and employees or their exclusive bargaining representatives and (ii) beginning September 1, 2012, have participated in training provided or approved by the State Board of Education for teacher dismissal hearing officers so that he or she is familiar with issues generally involved in evaluative and non-evaluative dismissals.

(3) Within 5 business days after receiving the notice of request for a hearing, the general superintendent and the teacher or principal or their legal representatives shall alternately strike one name from the list until only one name remains. Unless waived by the teacher, the teacher or principal shall have the right to proceed first with the striking. If the teacher or principal fails to participate in the striking process, the general superintendent shall either select the hearing officer from the list developed pursuant to this paragraph (3) or select another qualified hearing officer from the master list maintained by the State Board of Education pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 24-12 of this Code.

(4) If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher or principal before July 1, 2012, the fees and costs for the hearing officer shall be paid by the State Board of Education. If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher or principal on or after July 1, 2012, the hearing officer's fees and costs must be paid as follows in this paragraph (4). The fees and permissible costs for the hearing officer shall be determined by the State Board of Education. If the hearing officer is mutually selected by the parties through alternate striking in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (a), then the board and the teacher or their legal representative shall each pay 50% of the fees and costs and any supplemental allowance to which they agree. If the hearing officer is selected by the general superintendent without the participation of the teacher or principal, then the board shall pay 100% of the hearing officer fees and costs. The hearing officer shall submit for payment a billing statement to the parties that itemizes the charges and expenses and divides them in accordance with this Section.

(5) The teacher or the principal charged is required to answer the charges and specifications and aver affirmative matters in his or her defense, and the time for doing so must be set by the hearing officer. The State Board of Education shall adopt rules so that each party has a fair opportunity to present its case and to ensure that the dismissal proceeding is concluded in an expeditious manner. The rules shall address, without limitation, the teacher or principal's answer and affirmative defenses to the charges and specifications; a requirement that each party make mandatory disclosures without request to the other party and then update the disclosure no later than 10 calendar days prior to the commencement of the hearing, including a list of the names and addresses of persons who may be called as witnesses at the hearing, a summary of the facts or opinions each witness will testify to, and all other documents and materials, including information maintained electronically, relevant to its own as well as the other party's case (the hearing officer may exclude witnesses and exhibits not identified and shared, except those offered in rebuttal for which the party could not reasonably have anticipated prior to the hearing); pre-hearing discovery and preparation, including provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents, provided that discovery depositions are prohibited; the conduct of the hearing; the right of each party to be represented by counsel, the offer of evidence and witnesses and the cross-examination of witnesses; the authority of the hearing officer to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, provided that the hearing officer may limit the number of witnesses to be subpoenaed in behalf of each party to no more than 7; the length of post-hearing briefs; and the form, length, and content of hearing officers' reports and recommendations to the general superintendent.

The hearing officer shall commence the hearing within 75 calendar days and conclude the hearing within 120 calendar days after being selected by the parties as the hearing officer, provided that these timelines may be modified upon the showing of good cause or mutual agreement of the parties. Good cause for the purposes of this paragraph (5) shall mean the illness or otherwise unavoidable emergency of the teacher, district representative, their legal representatives, the hearing officer, or an essential witness as indicated in each party's pre-hearing submission. In a dismissal hearing, the hearing officer shall consider and give weight to all of the teacher's evaluations written pursuant to Article 24A that are relevant to the issues in the hearing. The teacher or principal has the privilege of being present at the hearing with counsel and of cross-examining witnesses and may offer evidence and witnesses and present defenses to the charges. Each party shall have no more than 3 days to present its case, unless extended by the hearing officer to enable a party to present adequate evidence and testimony, including due to the other party's cross-examination of the party's witnesses, for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties. The State Board of Education shall define in rules the meaning of "day" for such purposes. All testimony at the hearing shall be taken under oath administered by the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall cause a record of the proceedings to be kept and shall employ a competent reporter to take stenographic or stenotype notes of all the testimony. The costs of the reporter's attendance and services at the hearing shall be paid by the party or parties who are paying the fees and costs of the hearing officer. Either party desiring a transcript of the hearing shall pay for the cost thereof. At the close of the hearing, the hearing officer shall direct the parties to submit post-hearing briefs no later than 21 calendar days after receipt of the transcript. Either or both parties may waive submission of briefs.

(6) The hearing officer shall within 30 calendar days from the conclusion of the hearing report to the general superintendent findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher or principal shall be dismissed and shall give a copy of the report to both the teacher or principal and the general superintendent. The State Board of Education shall provide by rule the form of the hearing officer's report and recommendation.

(7) The board, within 45 days of receipt of the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation, shall make a decision as to whether the teacher or principal shall be dismissed from its employ. The failure of the board to strictly adhere to the timeliness contained herein shall not render it without jurisdiction to dismiss the teacher or principal. In the event that the board declines to dismiss the teacher or principal after review of a hearing officer's recommendation, the board shall set the amount of back pay and benefits to award the teacher or principal, which shall include offsets for interim earnings and failure to mitigate losses. The board shall establish procedures for the teacher's or principal's submission of evidence to it regarding lost earnings, lost benefits, mitigation, and offsets. The decision of the board is final unless reviewed in accordance with paragraph (8) of this subsection (a).

(8) The teacher may seek judicial review of the board's decision in accordance with the Administrative Review Law, which is specifically incorporated in this Section, except that the review must be initiated in the Illinois Appellate Court for the First District. In the event judicial review is instituted, any costs of preparing and filing the record of proceedings shall be paid by the party instituting the review. In the event the appellate court reverses a board decision to dismiss a teacher or principal and directs the board to pay the teacher or the principal back pay and benefits, the appellate court shall remand the matter to the board to issue an administrative decision as to the amount of back pay and benefits, which shall include a calculation of the lost earnings, lost benefits, mitigation, and offsets based on evidence submitted to the board in accordance with procedures established by the board.

(b) Nothing in this Section affects the validity of removal for cause hearings commenced prior to June 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-8) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

The changes made by Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall apply to dismissals instituted on or after September 1, 2011 or the effective date of Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, whichever is later. Any dismissal instituted prior to the effective date of these changes must be carried out in accordance with the requirements of this Section prior to amendment by Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-8, eff. 6-13-11; revised 12-1-14.)

Section 195. The Illinois School Student Records Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(105 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-6)

Sec. 6. (a) No school student records or information contained therein may be released, transferred, disclosed or otherwise disseminated, except as follows:

(1) to To a parent or student or person specifically designated as a representative by a parent, as provided in paragraph (a) of Section 5;

(2) to To an employee or official of the school or school district or State Board with current demonstrable educational or administrative interest in the student, in furtherance of such interest;

(3) to To the official records custodian of another school within Illinois or an official with similar responsibilities of a school outside Illinois, in which the student has enrolled, or intends to enroll, upon the request of such official or student;

(4) to To any person for the purpose of research, statistical reporting, or planning, provided that such research, statistical reporting, or planning is permissible under and undertaken in accordance with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g);

(5) pursuant Pursuant to a court order, provided that the parent shall be given prompt written notice upon receipt of such order of the terms of the order, the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released in compliance with such order and an opportunity to inspect and copy the school student records and to challenge their contents pursuant to Section 7;

(6) to To any person as specifically required by State or federal law;

(6.5) to To juvenile authorities when necessary for the discharge of their official duties who request information prior to adjudication of the student and who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court. For purposes of this Section "juvenile authorities" means: (i) a judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge; (ii) parties to the proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and their attorneys; (iii) probation officers and court appointed advocates for the juvenile authorized by the judge hearing the case; (iv) any individual, public or private agency having custody of the child pursuant to court order; (v) any individual, public or private agency providing education, medical or mental health service to the child when the requested information is needed to determine the appropriate service or treatment for the minor; (vi) any potential placement provider when such release is authorized by the court for the limited purpose of determining the appropriateness of the potential placement; (vii) law enforcement officers and prosecutors; (viii) adult and juvenile prisoner review boards; (ix) authorized military personnel; (x) individuals authorized by court;

(7) subject Subject to regulations of the State Board, in connection with an emergency, to appropriate persons if the knowledge of such information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other persons;

(8) to To any person, with the prior specific dated written consent of the parent designating the person to whom the records may be released, provided that at the time any such consent is requested or obtained, the parent shall be advised in writing that he has the right to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5, to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7 and to limit any such consent to designated records or designated portions of the information contained therein;

(9) to To a governmental agency, or social service agency contracted by a governmental agency, in furtherance of an investigation of a student's school attendance pursuant to the compulsory student attendance laws of this State, provided that the records are released to the employee or agent designated by the agency;

(10) to To those SHOCAP committee members who fall within the meaning of "state and local officials and authorities", as those terms are used within the meaning of the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, for the purposes of identifying serious habitual juvenile offenders and matching those offenders with community resources pursuant to Section 5-145 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act;

(11) to To the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in furtherance of the requirements of Section 2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of the School Code or Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act; or

(12) to To the State Board or another State government agency or between or among State government agencies in order to evaluate or audit federal and State programs or perform research and planning, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g).

(b) No information may be released pursuant to subparagraph subparagraphs (3) or (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 unless the parent receives prior written notice of the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released, and an opportunity to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5 and to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7. Provided, however, that such notice shall be sufficient if published in a local newspaper of general circulation or other publication directed generally to the parents involved where the proposed release of information is pursuant to subparagraph (6) 6 of paragraph (a) of in this Section 6 and relates to more than 25 students.

(c) A record of any release of information pursuant to this Section must be made and kept as a part of the school student record and subject to the access granted by Section 5. Such record of release shall be maintained for the life of the school student records and shall be available only to the parent and the official records custodian. Each record of release shall also include:

(1) the The nature and substance of the information released;

(2) the The name and signature of the official records custodian releasing such information;

(3) the The name of the person requesting such information, the capacity in which such a request has been made, and the purpose of such request;

(4) the The date of the release; and

(5) a A copy of any consent to such release.

(d) Except for the student and his parents, no person to whom information is released pursuant to this Section and no person specifically designated as a representative by a parent may permit any other person to have access to such information without a prior consent of the parent obtained in accordance with the requirements of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of this Section.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the publication of student directories which list student names, addresses and other identifying information and similar publications which comply with regulations issued by the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-793, eff. 1-1-09; 96-107, eff. 7-30-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 200. The Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(105 ILCS 110/2) (from Ch. 122, par. 862)

Sec. 2. Definitions. The following term has terms shall have the following meaning meanings respectively prescribed for them, except as the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Comprehensive Health Education Program": a systematic and extensive educational program designed to provide a variety of learning experiences based upon scientific knowledge of the human organism as it functions within its environment which will favorably influence the knowledge, attitudes, values and practices of Illinois school youth; and which will aid them in making wise personal decisions in matters of health.

(Source: P.A. 77-1405; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 205. The School Safety Drill Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(105 ILCS 128/25)

Sec. 25. Annual review.

(a) Each public school district, through its school board or the board's designee, shall conduct a minimum of one annual meeting at which it will review each school building's emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures and each building's compliance with the school safety drill programs. The purpose of this annual review shall be to review and update the emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures and the school safety drill programs of the district and each of its school buildings. This review must be at no cost to the school district. In updating a school building's emergency and crisis response plans, consideration may be given to making the emergency and crisis response plans available to first responders, administrators, and teachers for implementation and utilization through the use of electronic applications on electronic devices, including, but not limited to, smartphones, tablets, and laptop computers.

(b) Each school board or the board's designee is required to participate in the annual review and to invite each of the following parties to the annual review and provide each party with a minimum of 30 days' 30-days' notice before the date of the annual review:

(1) The principal of each school within the school district or his or her official designee.

(2) Representatives from any other education-related organization or association deemed appropriate by the school district.

(3) Representatives from all local first responder organizations to participate, advise, and consult in the review process, including, but not limited to:

(A) the appropriate local fire department or district;

(B) the appropriate local law enforcement agency;

(C) the appropriate local emergency medical services agency if the agency is a separate, local first responder unit; and

(D) any other member of the first responder or emergency management community that has contacted the district superintendent or his or her designee during the past year to request involvement in a school's emergency planning or drill process.

(4) The school board or its designee may also choose to invite to the annual review any other persons whom it believes will aid in the review process, including, but not limited to, any members of any other education-related organization or the first responder or emergency management community.

(c) Upon the conclusion of the annual review, the school board or the board's designee shall sign a one page report, which may be in either a check-off format or a narrative format, that does the following:

(1) summarizes the review's recommended changes to the existing school safety plans and drill plans;

(2) lists the parties that participated in the annual review, and includes the annual review's attendance record;

(3) certifies that an effective review of the emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures and the school safety drill programs of the district and each of its school buildings has occurred;

(4) states that the school district will implement those plans, protocols, procedures, and programs, during the academic year; and

(5) includes the authorization of the school board or the board's designee.

(d) The school board or its designee shall send a copy of the report to each party that participates in the annual review process and to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. If any of the participating parties have comments on the certification document, those parties shall submit their comments in writing to the appropriate regional superintendent. The regional superintendent shall maintain a record of these comments. The certification document may be in a check-off format or narrative format, at the discretion of the district superintendent.

(e) The review must occur at least once during the fiscal year, at a specific time chosen at the school district superintendent's discretion.

(f) A private school shall conduct a minimum of one annual meeting at which the school must review each school building's emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures and each building's compliance with the school safety drill programs of the school. The purpose of this annual review shall be to review and update the emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures and the school safety drill programs of the school. This review must be at no cost to the private school.

The private school shall invite representatives from all local first responder organizations to participate, advise, and consult in the review process, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) the appropriate local fire department or fire protection district;

(2) the appropriate local law enforcement agency;

(3) the appropriate local emergency medical services agency if the agency is a separate, local first responder unit; and

(4) any other member of the first responder or emergency management community that has contacted the school's chief administrative officer or his or her designee during the past year to request involvement in the school's emergency planning or drill process.

(Source: P.A. 98-661, eff. 1-1-15; 98-663, eff. 6-23-14; revised 7-15-14.)

Section 210. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Sections 46 and 57.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/46) (from Ch. 17, par. 4447)

Sec. 46. Loans and interest rate.

(1) A credit union may make loans to its members for such purpose and upon such security and terms, including rates of interest, as the credit committee, credit manager, or loan officer approves. Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law in connection with extensions of credit, a credit union may elect to contract for and receive interest and fees and other charges for extensions of credit subject only to the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under this Act, except that extensions of credit secured by residential real estate shall be subject to the laws applicable thereto. The rates of interest to be charged on loans to members shall be set by the board of directors of each individual credit union in accordance with Section 30 of this Act and such rates may be less than, but may not exceed, the maximum rate set forth in this Section. A borrower may repay his loan prior to maturity, in whole or in part, without penalty. The credit contract may provide for the payment by the member and receipt by the credit union of all costs and disbursements, including reasonable attorney's fees and collection agency charges, incurred by the credit union to collect or enforce the debt in the event of a delinquency by the member, or in the event of a breach of any obligation of the member under the credit contract. A contingency or hourly arrangement established under an agreement entered into by a credit union with an attorney or collection agency to collect a loan of a member in default shall be presumed prima facie reasonable.

(2) Credit unions may make loans based upon the security of any interest or equity in real estate, subject to rules and regulations promulgated by the Secretary. In any contract or loan which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or conveyance in the nature of a mortgage, on residential real estate, the interest which is computed, calculated, charged, or collected pursuant to such contract or loan, or pursuant to any regulation or rule promulgated pursuant to this Act, may not be computed, calculated, charged or collected for any period of time occurring after the date on which the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties, is paid in full.

For purposes of this subsection (2) of this Section 46, a prepayment shall mean the payment of the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties if incurred or charged, on any date before the date specified in the contract or loan agreement on which the total indebtedness shall be paid in full, or before the date on which all payments, if timely made, shall have been made. In the event of a prepayment of the indebtedness which is made on a date after the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged, or collected but before the next date on which interest on the indebtedness was to be calculated, computed, charged, or collected, the lender may calculate, charge and collect interest on the indebtedness for the period which elapsed between the date on which the prepayment is made and the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged or collected at a rate equal to 1/360 of the annual rate for each day which so elapsed, which rate shall be applied to the indebtedness outstanding as of the date of prepayment. The lender shall refund to the borrower any interest charged or collected which exceeds that which the lender may charge or collect pursuant to the preceding sentence. The provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 shall apply only to contracts or loans entered into on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(3) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a credit union authorized under this Act to make loans secured by an interest or equity in real estate may engage in making "reverse mortgage" loans to persons for the purpose of making home improvements or repairs, paying insurance premiums or paying real estate taxes on the homestead properties of such persons. If made, such loans shall be made on such terms and conditions as the credit union shall determine and as shall be consistent with the provisions of this Section and such rules and regulations as the Secretary shall promulgate hereunder. For purposes of this Section, a "reverse mortgage" loan shall be a loan extended on the basis of existing equity in homestead property and secured by a mortgage on such property. Such loans shall be repaid upon the sale of the property or upon the death of the owner or, if the property is in joint tenancy, upon the death of the last surviving joint tenant who had such an interest in the property at the time the loan was initiated, provided, however, that the credit union and its member may by mutual agreement, establish other repayment terms. A credit union, in making a "reverse mortgage" loan, may add deferred interest to principal or otherwise provide for the charging of interest or premiums on such deferred interest. "Homestead" property, for purposes of this Section, means the domicile and contiguous real estate owned and occupied by the mortgagor.

(4) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, a credit union authorized under this Act to make loans secured by an interest or equity in real property may engage in making revolving credit loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust on such real property or by security assignments of beneficial interests in land trusts.

For purposes of this Section, "revolving credit" has the meaning defined in Section 4.1 of the Interest Act.

Any mortgage or deed of trust given to secure a revolving credit loan may, and when so expressed therein shall, secure not only the existing indebtedness but also such future advances, whether such advances are obligatory or to be made at the option of the lender, or otherwise, as are made within twenty years from the date thereof, to the same extent as if such future advances were made on the date of the execution of such mortgage or deed of trust, although there may be no advance made at the time of execution of such mortgage or other instrument, and although there may be no indebtedness outstanding at the time any advance is made. The lien of such mortgage or deed of trust, as to third persons without actual notice thereof, shall be valid as to all such indebtedness and future advances form the time said mortgage or deed of trust is filed for record in the office of the recorder of deeds or the registrar of titles of the county where the real property described therein is located. The total amount of indebtedness that may be so secured may increase or decrease from time to time, but the total unpaid balance so secured at any one time shall not exceed a maximum principal amount which must be specified in such mortgage or deed of trust, plus interest thereon, and any disbursements made for the payment of taxes, special assessments, or insurance on said real property, with interest on such disbursements.

Any such mortgage or deed of trust shall be valid and have priority over all subsequent liens and encumbrances, including statutory liens, except taxes and assessments levied on said real property.

(4-5) For purposes of this Section, "real estate" and "real property" include a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code which is real property as defined in Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.

(5) Compliance with federal or Illinois preemptive laws or regulations governing loans made by a credit union chartered under this Act shall constitute compliance with this Act.

(6) Credit unions may make residential real estate mortgage loans on terms and conditions established by the United States Department of Agriculture through its Rural Development Housing and Community Facilities Program. The portion of any loan in excess of the appraised value of the real estate shall be allocable only to the guarantee fee required under the program.

(7) For a renewal, refinancing, or restructuring of an existing loan that is secured by an interest or equity in real estate, a new appraisal of the collateral shall not be required when the transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the credit union, no new moneys are advanced other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs, and there has been no obvious or material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the real estate that threatens the adequacy of the credit union's real estate collateral protection after the transaction.

(Source: P.A. 97-133, eff. 1-1-12; 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-784, eff. 7-24-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(205 ILCS 305/57.1)

Sec. 57.1. Services to other credit unions.

(a) A credit union may act as a representative of and enter into an agreement with credit unions or other organizations for the purposes purpose of:

(1) sharing, utilizing, renting, leasing, purchasing, selling, and joint ownership of fixed assets or engaging in activities and services that relate to the daily operations of credit unions; and

(2) providing correspondent services to other credit unions that the service provider credit union is authorized to perform for its own members or as part of its operations, including, but not limited to, loan processing, loan servicing, member check cashing services, disbursing share withdrawals and loan proceeds, cashing and selling money orders, ACH and wire transfer services, coin and currency services, performing internal audits, and automated teller machine deposit services.

(Source: P.A. 98-784, eff. 7-24-14; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 215. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 1-4 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/1-4)

Sec. 1-4. Definitions. The following words and phrases have the meanings given to them in this Section:

(a) "Residential real property" or "residential real estate" shall mean any real property located in Illinois, upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling. Those terms include a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code which is real property as defined in Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.

(b) "Making a residential mortgage loan" or "funding a residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly, advancing funds or making a commitment to advance funds to a loan applicant for a residential mortgage loan.

(c) "Soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating a residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly, accepting or offering to accept an application for a residential mortgage loan, assisting or offering to assist in the processing of an application for a residential mortgage loan on behalf of a borrower, or negotiating or offering to negotiate the terms or conditions of a residential mortgage loan with a lender on behalf of a borrower including, but not limited to, the submission of credit packages for the approval of lenders, the preparation of residential mortgage loan closing documents, including a closing in the name of a broker.

(d) "Exempt person or entity" shall mean the following:

(1) (i) Any banking organization or foreign banking corporation licensed by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the United States Comptroller of the Currency to transact business in this State; (ii) any national bank, federally chartered savings and loan association, federal savings bank, federal credit union; (iii) (blank); (iv) any bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, or credit union organized under the laws of this or any other state; (v) any Illinois Consumer Installment Loan Act licensee; (vi) any insurance company authorized to transact business in this State; (vii) any entity engaged solely in commercial mortgage lending; (viii) any service corporation of a savings and loan association or savings bank organized under the laws of this State or the service corporation of a federally chartered savings and loan association or savings bank having its principal place of business in this State, other than a service corporation licensed or entitled to reciprocity under the Real Estate License Act of 2000; or (ix) any first tier subsidiary of a bank, the charter of which is issued under the Illinois Banking Act by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, or the first tier subsidiary of a bank chartered by the United States Comptroller of the Currency and that has its principal place of business in this State, provided that the first tier subsidiary is regularly examined by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the Comptroller of the Currency, or a consumer compliance examination is regularly conducted by the Federal Reserve Board.

(1.5) Any employee of a person or entity mentioned in item (1) of this subsection, when acting for such person or entity, or any registered mortgage loan originator when acting for an entity described in subsection (tt) of this Section.

(1.8) Any person or entity that does not originate mortgage loans in the ordinary course of business, but makes or acquires residential mortgage loans with his or her own funds for his or her or its own investment without intent to make, acquire, or resell more than 3 residential mortgage loans in any one calendar year.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Any person employed by a licensee to assist in the performance of the residential mortgage licensee's activities regulated by this Act who is compensated in any manner by only one licensee.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Any individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity that originates, services, or brokers residential mortgage loans, as these activities are defined in this Act, and who or which receives no compensation for those activities, subject to the Commissioner's regulations and the federal Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008 and the rules promulgated under that Act with regard to the nature and amount of compensation.

(6) (Blank).

(e) "Licensee" or "residential mortgage licensee" shall mean a person, partnership, association, corporation, or any other entity who or which is licensed pursuant to this Act to engage in the activities regulated by this Act.

(f) "Mortgage loan" "residential mortgage loan" or "home mortgage loan" shall mean any loan primarily for personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling as defined in Section 103(v) of the federal Truth in Lending Act, or residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling.

(g) "Lender" shall mean any person, partnership, association, corporation, or any other entity who either lends or invests money in residential mortgage loans.

(h) "Ultimate equitable owner" shall mean a person who, directly or indirectly, owns or controls an ownership interest in a corporation, foreign corporation, alien business organization, trust, or any other form of business organization regardless of whether the person owns or controls the ownership interest through one or more persons or one or more proxies, powers of attorney, nominees, corporations, associations, partnerships, trusts, joint stock companies, or other entities or devices, or any combination thereof.

(i) "Residential mortgage financing transaction" shall mean the negotiation, acquisition, sale, or arrangement for or the offer to negotiate, acquire, sell, or arrange for, a residential mortgage loan or residential mortgage loan commitment.

(j) "Personal residence address" shall mean a street address and shall not include a post office box number.

(k) "Residential mortgage loan commitment" shall mean a contract for residential mortgage loan financing.

(l) "Party to a residential mortgage financing transaction" shall mean a borrower, lender, or loan broker in a residential mortgage financing transaction.

(m) "Payments" shall mean payment of all or any of the following: principal, interest and escrow reserves for taxes, insurance and other related reserves, and reimbursement for lender advances.

(n) "Commissioner" shall mean the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, except that, beginning on April 6, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1047), all references in this Act to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(n-1) "Director" shall mean the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, except that, beginning on July 31, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-112), all references in this Act to the Director are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(o) "Loan brokering", "brokering", or "brokerage service" shall mean the act of helping to obtain from another entity, for a borrower, a loan secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois or assisting a borrower in obtaining a loan secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois in return for consideration to be paid by either the borrower or the lender including, but not limited to, contracting for the delivery of residential mortgage loans to a third party lender and soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating residential mortgage loans.

(p) "Loan broker" or "broker" shall mean a person, partnership, association, corporation, or limited liability company, other than those persons, partnerships, associations, corporations, or limited liability companies exempted from licensing pursuant to Section 1-4, subsection (d), of this Act, who performs the activities described in subsections (c), (o), and (yy) of this Section.

(q) "Servicing" shall mean the collection or remittance for or the right or obligation to collect or remit for any lender, noteowner, noteholder, or for a licensee's own account, of payments, interests, principal, and trust items such as hazard insurance and taxes on a residential mortgage loan in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan; and includes loan payment follow-up, delinquency loan follow-up, loan analysis and any notifications to the borrower that are necessary to enable the borrower to keep the loan current and in good standing. "Servicing" includes management of third-party entities acting on behalf of a residential mortgage licensee for the collection of delinquent payments and the use by such third-party entities of said licensee's servicing records or information, including their use in foreclosure.

(r) "Full service office" shall mean an office, provided by the licensee and not subleased from the licensee's employees, and staff in Illinois reasonably adequate to handle efficiently communications, questions, and other matters relating to any application for, or an existing home mortgage secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois with respect to which the licensee is brokering, funding originating, purchasing, or servicing. The management and operation of each full service office must include observance of good business practices such as proper signage; adequate, organized, and accurate books and records; ample phone lines, hours of business, staff training and supervision, and provision for a mechanism to resolve consumer inquiries, complaints, and problems. The Commissioner shall issue regulations with regard to these requirements and shall include an evaluation of compliance with this Section in his or her periodic examination of each licensee.

(s) "Purchasing" shall mean the purchase of conventional or government-insured mortgage loans secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois from either the lender or from the secondary market.

(t) "Borrower" shall mean the person or persons who seek the services of a loan broker, originator, or lender.

(u) "Originating" shall mean the issuing of commitments for and funding of residential mortgage loans.

(v) "Loan brokerage agreement" shall mean a written agreement in which a broker or loan broker agrees to do either of the following:

(1) obtain a residential mortgage loan for the borrower or assist the borrower in obtaining a residential mortgage loan; or

(2) consider making a residential mortgage loan to the borrower.

(w) "Advertisement" shall mean the attempt by publication, dissemination, or circulation to induce, directly or indirectly, any person to enter into a residential mortgage loan agreement or residential mortgage loan brokerage agreement relative to a mortgage secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois.

(x) "Residential Mortgage Board" shall mean the Residential Mortgage Board created in Section 1-5 of this Act.

(y) "Government-insured mortgage loan" shall mean any mortgage loan made on the security of residential real estate insured by the Department of Housing and Urban Development or Farmers Home Loan Administration, or guaranteed by the Veterans Administration.

(z) "Annual audit" shall mean a certified audit of the licensee's books and records and systems of internal control performed by a certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and generally accepted auditing standards.

(aa) "Financial institution" shall mean a savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or a bank organized under the laws of Illinois or a savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union or a bank organized under the laws of the United States and headquartered in Illinois.

(bb) "Escrow agent" shall mean a third party, individual or entity charged with the fiduciary obligation for holding escrow funds on a residential mortgage loan pending final payout of those funds in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan.

(cc) "Net worth" shall have the meaning ascribed thereto in Section 3-5 of this Act.

(dd) "Affiliate" shall mean:

(1) any entity that directly controls or is controlled by the licensee and any other company that is directly affecting activities regulated by this Act that is controlled by the company that controls the licensee;

(2) any entity:

(A) that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a trust or otherwise, by or for the benefit of shareholders who beneficially or otherwise control, directly or indirectly, by trust or otherwise, the licensee or any company that controls the licensee; or

(B) a majority of the directors or trustees of which constitute a majority of the persons holding any such office with the licensee or any company that controls the licensee;

(3) any company, including a real estate investment trust, that is sponsored and advised on a contractual basis by the licensee or any subsidiary or affiliate of the licensee.

The Commissioner may define by rule and regulation any terms used in this Act for the efficient and clear administration of this Act.

(ee) "First tier subsidiary" shall be defined by regulation incorporating the comparable definitions used by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate.

(ff) "Gross delinquency rate" means the quotient determined by dividing (1) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by a licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent and (ii) the number of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent by (2) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year and (ii) the number of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year.

(gg) "Delinquency rate factor" means the factor set by rule of the Commissioner that is multiplied by the average gross delinquency rate of licensees, determined annually for the immediately preceding calendar year, for the purpose of determining which licensees shall be examined by the Commissioner pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 4-8 of this Act.

(hh) "Loan originator" means any natural person who, for compensation or in the expectation of compensation, either directly or indirectly makes, offers to make, solicits, places, or negotiates a residential mortgage loan. This definition applies only to Section 7-1 of this Act.

(ii) "Confidential supervisory information" means any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the Commissioner under this Act, any report of examination visitation, or investigation prepared by the state regulatory authority of another state that examines a licensee, any document or record prepared or obtained in connection with or relating to any examination, visitation, or investigation, and any record prepared or obtained by the Commissioner to the extent that the record summarizes or contains information derived from any report, document, or record described in this subsection. "Confidential supervisory information" does not include any information or record routinely prepared by a licensee and maintained in the ordinary course of business or any information or record that is required to be made publicly available pursuant to State or federal law or rule.

(jj) "Mortgage loan originator" means an individual who for compensation or gain or in the expectation of compensation or gain:

(i) takes a residential mortgage loan application; or

(ii) offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan.

"Mortgage loan originator" includes an individual engaged in loan modification activities as defined in subsection (yy) of this Section. A mortgage loan originator engaged in loan modification activities shall report those activities to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the manner provided by the Department; however, the Department shall not impose a fee for reporting, nor require any additional qualifications to engage in those activities beyond those provided pursuant to this Act for mortgage loan originators.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include an individual engaged solely as a loan processor or underwriter except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) of Section 7-1A of this Act.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed in accordance with the Real Estate License Act of 2000, unless the person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator, or by any agent of that lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or entity solely involved in extensions of credit relating to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in Section 101(53D) of Title 11, United States Code.

(kk) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in Section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and includes any credit union.

(ll) "Dwelling" means a residential structure or mobile home which contains one to 4 family housing units, or individual units of condominiums or cooperatives.

(mm) "Immediate family member" means a spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild, and includes step-parents, step-children, step-siblings, or adoptive relationships.

(nn) "Individual" means a natural person.

(oo) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who performs clerical or support duties as an employee at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a person licensed, or exempt from licensing, under this Act. "Clerical or support duties" includes subsequent to the receipt of an application:

(i) the receipt, collection, distribution, and analysis of information common for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan; and

(ii) communicating with a consumer to obtain the information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the extent that the communication does not include offering or negotiating loan rates or terms, or counseling consumers about residential mortgage loan rates or terms. An individual engaging solely in loan processor or underwriter activities shall not represent to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information, including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items, that the individual can or will perform any of the activities of a mortgage loan originator.

(pp) "Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators for the licensing and registration of licensed mortgage loan originators.

(qq) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage product other than a 30-year fixed rate mortgage.

(rr) "Person" means a natural person, corporation, company, limited liability company, partnership, or association.

(ss) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to the public, including:

(1) acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;

(2) bringing together parties interested in the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property;

(3) negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing financing with respect to any such transaction;

(4) engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in the activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; or

(5) offering to engage in any activity, or act in any capacity, described in this subsection (ss).

(tt) "Registered mortgage loan originator" means any individual that:

(1) meets the definition of mortgage loan originator and is an employee of:

(A) a depository institution;

(B) a subsidiary that is:

(i) owned and controlled by a depository institution; and

(ii) regulated by a federal banking agency; or

(C) an institution regulated by the Farm Credit Administration; and

(2) is registered with, and maintains a unique identifier through, the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.

(uu) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier assigned by protocols established by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.

(vv) "Residential mortgage license" means a license issued pursuant to Section 1-3, 2-2, or 2-6 of this Act.

(ww) "Mortgage loan originator license" means a license issued pursuant to Section 7-1A, 7-3, or 7-6 of this Act.

(xx) "Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person authorized by the Secretary or by this Act to act in the Secretary's stead.

(yy) "Loan modification" means, for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly offering or negotiating on behalf of a borrower or homeowner to adjust the terms of a residential mortgage loan in a manner not provided for in the original or previously modified mortgage loan.

(zz) "Short sale facilitation" means, for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly offering or negotiating on behalf of a borrower or homeowner to facilitate the sale of residential real estate subject to one or more residential mortgage loans or debts constituting liens on the property in which the proceeds from selling the residential real estate will fall short of the amount owed and the lien holders are contacted to agree to release their lien on the residential real estate and accept less than the full amount owed on the debt.

The Commissioner may define by rule and regulation any terms used in this Act for the efficient and clear administration of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-143, eff. 7-14-11; 97-891, eff. 8-3-12; 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1081, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)

Section 220. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/30)

Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to demonstration programs.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) There shall be no more than the total number of postsurgical recovery care centers with a certificate of need for beds as of January 1, 2008.

(a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 9 children's community-based health care center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, which shall be located as follows:

(1) Two in the City of Chicago.

(2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.

(4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).

(5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

No more than one children's community-based health care center owned and operated by a licensed skilled pediatric facility shall be located in each of the areas designated in this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) There shall be 5 authorized community-based residential rehabilitation center alternative health care models in the demonstration program.

(a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model in the demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall be located in Will County, owned by a not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by the county board before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(a-25) There shall be no more than 10 birth center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, located as follows:

(1) Four in the area comprising Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(2) Three in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more not located in the area described in paragraph (1) of this subsection, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(3) Three in rural areas, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

The first 3 birth centers authorized to operate by the Department shall be located in or predominantly serve the residents of a health professional shortage area as determined by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. There shall be no more than 2 birth centers authorized to operate in any single health planning area for obstetric services as determined under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. If a birth center is located outside of a health professional shortage area, (i) the birth center shall be located in a health planning area with a demonstrated need for obstetrical service beds, as determined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board or (ii) there must be a reduction in the existing number of obstetrical service beds in the planning area so that the establishment of the birth center does not result in an increase in the total number of obstetrical service beds in the health planning area.

(b) Alternative health care models, other than a model authorized under subsection (a-10) or (a-20), shall obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act before receiving a license by the Department. If, after obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative health care delivery model that is a community based residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board before increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in medically underserved areas shall receive priority in obtaining a certificate of need.

(c) An alternative health care model license shall be issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed alternative health care model that continues to be in substantial compliance after the conclusion of the demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals unless and until a different licensure program for that type of health care model is established by legislation, except that a postsurgical recovery care center meeting the following requirements may apply within 3 years after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-669) for a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital:

(1) The postsurgical recovery care center shall apply to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board for a Certificate of Need permit to discontinue the postsurgical recovery care center and to establish a hospital.

(2) If the postsurgical recovery care center obtains a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital, it shall apply for licensure as a hospital under the Hospital Licensing Act and shall meet all statutory and regulatory requirements of a hospital.

(3) After obtaining licensure as a hospital, any license as an ambulatory surgical treatment center and any license as a postsurgical recovery care center shall be null and void.

(4) The former postsurgical recovery care center that receives a hospital license must seek and use its best efforts to maintain certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

The Department may issue a provisional license to any alternative health care model that does not substantially comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which upon completion will render the alternative health care model in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the health and safety of the patients of the alternative health care model will be protected during the period for which the provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections necessary for the alternative health care model to substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be completed.

(d) Alternative health care models shall seek certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall provide charitable care consistent with that provided by comparable health care providers in the geographic area.

(d-5) (Blank).

(e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health care facilities.

(f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at reasonable cost.

(Source: P.A. 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-629, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-3-14.)

Section 225. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-125.1 and 3-206.01 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/1-125.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-125.1)

Sec. 1-125.1. "Student intern" means any person whose total term of employment in any facility during any 12-month period is equal to or less than 90 continuous days, and whose term of employment: is either,

(1) is an academic credit requirement in a high school or undergraduate or graduate institution;

(2) immediately succeeds a full quarter, semester, or trimester of academic enrollment in either a high school or undergraduate or graduate institution, provided that such person is registered for another full quarter, semester, or trimester of academic enrollment in either a high school or undergraduate or graduate institution, which quarter, semester, or trimester will commence immediately following the term of employment; or

(3) immediately succeeds graduation from the high school or undergraduate or graduate institution.

(Source: P.A. 98-121, eff. 7-30-13; revised 11-25-14.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-206.01) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-206.01)

Sec. 3-206.01. Health care worker registry.

(a) The Department shall establish and maintain a registry of all individuals who (i) have satisfactorily completed the training required by Section 3-206, (ii) have begun a current course of training as set forth in Section 3-206, or (iii) are otherwise acting as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, psychiatric services rehabilitation aide, or child care aide. The registry shall include the individual's name, his or her current address, Social Security number, and the date and location of the training course completed by the individual, and whether the individual has any of the disqualifying convictions listed in Section 25 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act from the date of the individual's last criminal records check. Any individual placed on the registry is required to inform the Department of any change of address within 30 days. A facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, psychiatric services rehabilitation aide, or child care aide, or newly hired as an individual who may have access to a resident, a resident's living quarters, or a resident's personal, financial, or medical records, unless the facility has inquired of the Department's health care worker registry as to information in the registry concerning the individual. The facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide if that individual is not on the registry unless the individual is enrolled in a training program under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-206 of this Act.

If the Department finds that a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, psychiatric services rehabilitation aide, or child care aide, or an unlicensed individual, has abused or neglected a resident or an individual under his or her care or misappropriated property of a resident or an individual under his or her care, the Department shall notify the individual of this finding by certified mail sent to the address contained in the registry. The notice shall give the individual an opportunity to contest the finding in a hearing before the Department or to submit a written response to the findings in lieu of requesting a hearing. If, after a hearing or if the individual does not request a hearing, the Department finds that the individual abused a resident, neglected a resident, or misappropriated resident property in a facility, the finding shall be included as part of the registry as well as a clear and accurate summary from the individual, if he or she chooses to make such a statement. The Department shall make the following information in the registry available to the public: an individual's full name; the date an individual successfully completed a nurse aide training or competency evaluation; and whether the Department has made a finding that an individual has been guilty of abuse or neglect of a resident or misappropriation of resident property. In the case of inquiries to the registry concerning an individual listed in the registry, any information disclosed concerning such a finding shall also include disclosure of the individual's statement in the registry relating to the finding or a clear and accurate summary of the statement.

(b) The Department shall add to the health care worker registry records of findings as reported by the Inspector General or remove from the health care worker registry records of findings as reported by the Department of Human Services, under subsection (s) (g-5) of Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-545, eff. 8-28-07; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 230. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-206.01 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/3-206.01)

Sec. 3-206.01. Health care worker registry.

(a) The Department shall establish and maintain a registry of all individuals who (i) have satisfactorily completed the training required by Section 3-206, (ii) have begun a current course of training as set forth in Section 3-206, or (iii) are otherwise acting as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide. The registry shall include the individual's name, his or her current address, Social Security number, and whether the individual has any of the disqualifying convictions listed in Section 25 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act from the date and location of the training course completed by the individual, and the date of the individual's last criminal records check. Any individual placed on the registry is required to inform the Department of any change of address within 30 days. A facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide, or newly hired as an individual who may have access to a resident, a resident's living quarters, or a resident's personal, financial, or medical records, unless the facility has inquired of the Department's health care worker registry as to information in the registry concerning the individual. The facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide if that individual is not on the registry unless the individual is enrolled in a training program under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-206 of this Act.

If the Department finds that a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, child care aide, or an unlicensed individual, has abused or neglected a resident or an individual under his or her care, or misappropriated property of a resident or an individual under his or her care in a facility, the Department shall notify the individual of this finding by certified mail sent to the address contained in the registry. The notice shall give the individual an opportunity to contest the finding in a hearing before the Department or to submit a written response to the findings in lieu of requesting a hearing. If, after a hearing or if the individual does not request a hearing, the Department finds that the individual abused a resident, neglected a resident, or misappropriated resident property in a facility, the finding shall be included as part of the registry as well as a clear and accurate summary statement from the individual, if he or she chooses to make such a statement. The Department shall make the following information in the registry available to the public: an individual's full name; the date an individual successfully completed a nurse aide training or competency evaluation; and whether the Department has made a finding that an individual has been guilty of abuse or neglect of a resident or misappropriation of resident's property. In the case of inquiries to the registry concerning an individual listed in the registry, any information disclosed concerning such a finding shall also include disclosure of the individual's statement in the registry relating to the finding or a clear and accurate summary of the statement.

(b) The Department shall add to the health care worker registry records of findings as reported by the Inspector General or remove from the health care worker registry records of findings as reported by the Department of Human Services, under subsection (s) (g-5) of Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 235. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 is amended by changing Section 1-101.6 as follows:

(210 ILCS 49/1-101.6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)

Sec. 1-101.6. Mental health system planning. The General Assembly finds the services contained in this Act are necessary for the effective delivery of mental health services for the citizens of the State of Illinois.

The General Assembly also finds that the mental health and substance use system in the State requires further review to develop additional needed services.

To ensure the adequacy of community-based services and to offer choice to all individuals with serious mental illness and substance use disorders or conditions who choose to live in the community, and for whom the community is the appropriate setting, but are at risk of institutional care, the Governor's Office of Health Innovation and Transformation shall oversee a process for (i) identifying needed services in the different geographic regions in the State and (ii) identifying the financing strategies for developing those needed services.

The process shall address or examine the need and financing strategies for the following:

(1) Network adequacy in all 102 counties of the State for: (i) health homes authorized under Section 2703 of the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act; (ii) systems of care for children; (iii) care coordination; and (iv) access to a full continuum of quality care, treatment, services, and supports for persons with serious emotional disturbance, serious mental illness, or substance use disorder.

(2) Workforce development for the workforce of community providers of care, treatment, services, and supports for persons with mental health and substance use disorders and conditions.

(3) Information technology to manage the delivery of integrated services for persons with mental health and substance use disorders and medical conditions.

(4) The needed continuum of statewide community health care, treatment, services, and supports for persons with mental health and substance use disorders and conditions.

(5) Reducing health care disparities in access to a continuum of care, care coordination, and engagement in networks.

The Governor's Office of Health Innovation and Transformation shall include the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse and the Division of Mental Health in the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Public Health, community mental health and substance use providers, statewide associations of mental health and substance use providers, mental health and substance use advocacy groups, and any other entity as deemed appropriate for participation in the process of identifying needed services and financing strategies as described in this Section.

The Office of Health Innovation and Transformation shall report its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly by July 1, 2015.

This Section is repealed on July 1, 2016.

Before September 1, 2014, the State shall develop and implement a service authorization system available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week for approval of services in the following 3 levels of care under this Act: crisis stabilization; recovery and rehabilitation supports; and transitional living units.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-878, eff. 8-11-14; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 240. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.87 and 3.210 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.87)

Sec. 3.87. Ambulance service provider and vehicle service provider upgrades; rural population.

(a) In this Section, "rural ambulance service provider" means an ambulance service provider licensed under this Act that serves a rural population of 7,500 or fewer inhabitants.

In this Section, "rural vehicle service provider" means an entity that serves a rural population of 7,500 or fewer inhabitants and is licensed by the Department to provide emergency or non-emergency medical services in compliance with this Act, the rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and an operational plan approved by the entity's EMS System, utilizing at least an ambulance, alternate response vehicle as defined by the Department in rules, or specialized emergency medical services vehicle.

(b) A rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle service provider may submit a proposal to the EMS System Medical Director requesting approval of either or both of the following:

(1) Rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle service provider in-field service level upgrade.

(A) An ambulance operated by a rural ambulance service provider or a specialized emergency medical services vehicle or alternate response vehicle operated by a rural vehicle service provider may be upgraded, as defined by the EMS System Medical Director in a policy or procedure, as long as the EMS System Medical Director and the Department have approved the proposal, to the highest level of EMT license (advanced life support/paramedic, intermediate life support, or basic life support) or Pre-Hospital RN certification held by any person staffing that ambulance, specialized emergency medical services vehicle, or alternate response vehicle. The ambulance service provider's or rural vehicle service provider's proposal for an upgrade must include all of the following:

(i) The manner in which the provider will secure and store advanced life support equipment, supplies, and medications.

(ii) The type of quality assurance the provider will perform.

(iii) An assurance that the provider will advertise only the level of care that can be provided 24 hours a day.

(iv) A statement that the provider will have that vehicle inspected by the Department annually.

(B) If a rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle service provider is approved to provide an in-field service level upgrade based on the licensed personnel on the vehicle, all the advanced life support medical supplies, durable medical equipment, and medications must be environmentally controlled, secured, and locked with access by only the personnel who have been authorized by the EMS System Medical Director to utilize those supplies.

(C) The EMS System shall routinely perform quality assurance, in compliance with the EMS System's quality assurance plan approved by the Department, on in-field service level upgrades authorized under this Section to ensure compliance with the EMS System plan.

(2) Rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle service provider in-field service level upgrade. The EMS System Medical Director may define what constitutes an in-field service level upgrade through an EMS System policy or procedure. An in-field service level upgrade may include, but need not be limited to, an upgrade to a licensed ambulance, alternate response vehicle, or specialized emergency medical services vehicle.

(c) If the EMS System Medical Director approves a proposal for a rural in-field service level upgrade under this Section, he or she shall submit the proposal to the Department along with a statement of approval signed by him or her. Once the Department has approved the proposal, the rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle service provider will be authorized to function at the highest level of EMT license (advanced life support/paramedic, intermediate life support, or basic life support) or Pre-Hospital RN certification held by any person staffing the vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 98-608, eff. 12-27-13; 98-880, eff. 1-1-15; 98-881, eff. 8-13-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.210)

Sec. 3.210. EMS Medical Consultant. If the Chief of the Department's Division of Emergency Medical Services and Highway Safety is not a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, with extensive emergency medical services experience, and certified by the American Board of Emergency Medicine or the Osteopathic American Osteopathic Board of Emergency Medicine, then the Director shall appoint such a physician to serve as EMS Medical Consultant to the Division Chief.

(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 245. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 1-2 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/1-2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1402)

Sec. 1-2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Advertisement" means any printed or published material, audiovisual material and descriptive literature of the health care plan used in direct mail, newspapers, magazines, radio scripts, television scripts, billboards and similar displays; and any descriptive literature or sales aids of all kinds disseminated by a representative of the health care plan for presentation to the public including, but not limited to, circulars, leaflets, booklets, depictions, illustrations, form letters and prepared sales presentations.

(2) "Director" means the Director of Insurance.

(3) "Basic health care services" means emergency care, and inpatient hospital and physician care, outpatient medical services, mental health services and care for alcohol and drug abuse, including any reasonable deductibles and co-payments, all of which are subject to the limitations described in Section 4-20 of this Act and as determined by the Director pursuant to rule.

(4) "Enrollee" means an individual who has been enrolled in a health care plan.

(5) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, or contract issued to an enrollee setting out the coverage to which he is entitled in exchange for a per capita prepaid sum.

(6) "Group contract" means a contract for health care services which by its terms limits eligibility to members of a specified group.

(7) "Health care plan" means any arrangement whereby any organization undertakes to provide or arrange for and pay for or reimburse the cost of basic health care services, excluding any reasonable deductibles and copayments, from providers selected by the Health Maintenance Organization and such arrangement consists of arranging for or the provision of such health care services, as distinguished from mere indemnification against the cost of such services, except as otherwise authorized by Section 2-3 of this Act, on a per capita prepaid basis, through insurance or otherwise. A "health care plan" also includes any arrangement whereby an organization undertakes to provide or arrange for or pay for or reimburse the cost of any health care service for persons who are enrolled under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act through providers selected by the organization and the arrangement consists of making provision for the delivery of health care services, as distinguished from mere indemnification. A "health care plan" also includes any arrangement pursuant to Section 4-17. Nothing in this definition, however, affects the total medical services available to persons eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(8) "Health care services" means any services included in the furnishing to any individual of medical or dental care, or the hospitalization or incident to the furnishing of such care or hospitalization as well as the furnishing to any person of any and all other services for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing or healing human illness or injury.

(9) "Health Maintenance Organization" means any organization formed under the laws of this or another state to provide or arrange for one or more health care plans under a system which causes any part of the risk of health care delivery to be borne by the organization or its providers.

(10) "Net worth" means admitted assets, as defined in Section 1-3 of this Act, minus liabilities.

(11) "Organization" means any insurance company, a nonprofit corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, or a corporation organized under the laws of this or another state for the purpose of operating one or more health care plans and doing no business other than that of a Health Maintenance Organization or an insurance company. "Organization" shall also mean the University of Illinois Hospital as defined in the University of Illinois Hospital Act or a unit of local government health system operating within a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more.

(12) "Provider" means any physician, hospital facility, facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, or facility or long-term care facility as those terms are defined in the Nursing Home Care Act or other person which is licensed or otherwise authorized to furnish health care services and also includes any other entity that arranges for the delivery or furnishing of health care service.

(13) "Producer" means a person directly or indirectly associated with a health care plan who engages in solicitation or enrollment.

(14) "Per capita prepaid" means a basis of prepayment by which a fixed amount of money is prepaid per individual or any other enrollment unit to the Health Maintenance Organization or for health care services which are provided during a definite time period regardless of the frequency or extent of the services rendered by the Health Maintenance Organization, except for copayments and deductibles and except as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-3 of this Act.

(15) "Subscriber" means a person who has entered into a contractual relationship with the Health Maintenance Organization for the provision of or arrangement of at least basic health care services to the beneficiaries of such contract.

(Source: P.A. 97-1148, eff. 1-24-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-841, eff. 8-1-14; revised 10-24-14.)

Section 250. The Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 134/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. :

"Adverse determination" means a determination by a health care plan under Section 45 or by a utilization review program under Section 85 that a health care service is not medically necessary.

"Clinical peer" means a health care professional who is in the same profession and the same or similar specialty as the health care provider who typically manages the medical condition, procedures, or treatment under review.

"Department" means the Department of Insurance.

"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including, but not limited to, severe pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in:

(1) placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy;

(2) serious impairment to bodily functions; or

(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.

"Emergency medical screening examination" means a medical screening examination and evaluation by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or to the extent permitted by applicable laws, by other appropriately licensed personnel under the supervision of or in collaboration with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to determine whether the need for emergency services exists.

"Emergency services" means, with respect to an enrollee of a health care plan, transportation services, including but not limited to ambulance services, and covered inpatient and outpatient hospital services furnished by a provider qualified to furnish those services that are needed to evaluate or stabilize an emergency medical condition. "Emergency services" does not refer to post-stabilization medical services.

"Enrollee" means any person and his or her dependents enrolled in or covered by a health care plan.

"Health care plan" means a plan, including, but not limited to, a health maintenance organization, a managed care community network as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code, or an accountable care entity as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code that receives capitated payments to cover medical services from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that establishes, operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that has entered into an agreement with the plan to provide health care services to enrollees to whom the plan has the ultimate obligation to arrange for the provision of or payment for services through organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute resolution. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to mean that an independent practice association or a physician hospital organization that subcontracts with a health care plan is, for purposes of that subcontract, a health care plan.

For purposes of this definition, "health care plan" shall not include the following:

(1) indemnity health insurance policies including those using a contracted provider network;

(2) health care plans that offer only dental or only vision coverage;

(3) preferred provider administrators, as defined in Section 370g(g) of the Illinois Insurance Code;

(4) employee or employer self-insured health benefit plans under the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974;

(5) health care provided pursuant to the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act; and

(6) not-for-profit voluntary health services plans with health maintenance organization authority in existence as of January 1, 1999 that are affiliated with a union and that only extend coverage to union members and their dependents.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a registered professional nurse, or other individual appropriately licensed or registered to provide health care services.

"Health care provider" means any physician, hospital facility, facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, or other person that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to define Independent Practice Associations or Physician-Hospital Organizations as health care providers.

"Health care services" means any services included in the furnishing to any individual of medical care, or the hospitalization incident to the furnishing of such care, as well as the furnishing to any person of any and all other services for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing, or healing human illness or injury including home health and pharmaceutical services and products.

"Medical director" means a physician licensed in any state to practice medicine in all its branches appointed by a health care plan.

"Person" means a corporation, association, partnership, limited liability company, sole proprietorship, or any other legal entity.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Post-stabilization medical services" means health care services provided to an enrollee that are furnished in a licensed hospital by a provider that is qualified to furnish such services, and determined to be medically necessary and directly related to the emergency medical condition following stabilization.

"Stabilization" means, with respect to an emergency medical condition, to provide such medical treatment of the condition as may be necessary to assure, within reasonable medical probability, that no material deterioration of the condition is likely to result.

"Utilization review" means the evaluation of the medical necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of health care services, procedures, and facilities.

"Utilization review program" means a program established by a person to perform utilization review.

(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-841, eff. 8-1-14; revised 10-24-14.)

Section 255. The Service Contract Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(215 ILCS 152/45)

Sec. 45. Record keeping requirements.

(a) The service contract provider shall keep accurate accounts, books, and records concerning transactions regulated under this Act.

(b) The service contract provider's accounts, books, and records shall include the following:

(1) copies of each type of service contract sold;

(2) the name and address of each service contract holder, to the extent extend that the name and address has been furnished by the service contract holder;

(3) a list of the locations where service contracts are marketed, sold, or offered for sale; and

(4) written claims files which shall contain at least the date and description of claims related to the service contracts.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (e) of this Section, the service contract provider shall retain all records required to be maintained by Section 45 for at least 3 years after the specified period of coverage has expired.

(d) The records required under this Act may be, but are not required to be, maintained on a computer disk or other record keeping technology. If the records are maintained in other than hard copy, the records shall be capable of duplication to legible hard copy at the request of the Director.

(e) A service contract provider discontinuing business in this State shall maintain its records until it furnishes the Director satisfactory proof that it has discharged all obligations to service contract holders in this State.

(Source: P.A. 90-711, eff. 8-7-98; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 260. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 2.04 and 2.17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.04) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.04)

Sec. 2.04. "Related" means any of the following relationships by blood, marriage, civil union, or adoption: parent, grandparent, great-grandparent, great-uncle, great-aunt, brother, sister, stepgrandparent, stepparent, stepbrother, stepsister, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, fictive kin as defined in Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act, or first cousin or second cousin. A person is related to a child as a first cousin or a second cousin if they are both related to the same ancestor as either grandchild or great-grandchild. A child whose parent has executed a consent, a surrender, or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of the Adoption Act, whose parent has signed a denial of paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or Section 12a of the Adoption Act, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights terminated is not a related child to that person, unless (1) the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10 of the Adoption Act; or (2) the parent of the child executed a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons pursuant to subsection A-1 of Section 10 of the Adoption Act and a court finds that the consent is void; or (3) the order terminating the parental rights of the parent is vacated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 98-804, eff. 1-1-15; 98-846, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(225 ILCS 10/2.17) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.17)

Sec. 2.17. "Foster family home" means a facility for child care in residences of families who receive no more than 8 children unrelated to them, unless all the children are of common parentage, or residences of relatives who receive no more than 8 related children placed by the Department, unless the children are of common parentage, for the purpose of providing family care and training for the children on a full-time basis, except the Director of Children and Family Services, pursuant to Department regulations, may waive the limit of 8 children unrelated to an adoptive family for good cause and only to facilitate an adoptive placement. The family's or relative's own children, under 18 years of age, shall be included in determining the maximum number of children served. For purposes of this Section, a "relative" includes any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is a child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; or (iv) is a fictive kin; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. For purposes of placement of children pursuant to Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act and for purposes of licensing requirements set forth in Section 4 of this Act, for children under the custody or guardianship of the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after a parent signs a consent, surrender, or waiver or after a parent's rights are otherwise terminated, and while the child remains in the custody or guardianship of the Department, the child is considered to be related to those to whom the child was related under this Section prior to the signing of the consent, surrender, or waiver or the order of termination of parental rights. The term "foster family home" includes homes receiving children from any State-operated institution for child care; or from any agency established by a municipality or other political subdivision of the State of Illinois authorized to provide care for children outside their own homes. The term "foster family home" does not include an "adoption-only home" as defined in Section 2.23 of this Act. The types of foster family homes are defined as follows:

(a) "Boarding home" means a foster family home which receives payment for regular full-time care of a child or children.

(b) "Free home" means a foster family home other than an adoptive home which does not receive payments for the care of a child or children.

(c) "Adoptive home" means a foster family home which receives a child or children for the purpose of adopting the child or children.

(d) "Work-wage home" means a foster family home which receives a child or children who pay part or all of their board by rendering some services to the family not prohibited by the Child Labor Law or by standards or regulations of the Department prescribed under this Act. The child or children may receive a wage in connection with the services rendered the foster family.

(e) "Agency-supervised home" means a foster family home under the direct and regular supervision of a licensed child welfare agency, of the Department of Children and Family Services, of a circuit court, or of any other State agency which has authority to place children in child care facilities, and which receives no more than 8 children, unless of common parentage, who are placed and are regularly supervised by one of the specified agencies.

(f) "Independent home" means a foster family home, other than an adoptive home, which receives no more than 4 children, unless of common parentage, directly from parents, or other legally responsible persons, by independent arrangement and which is not subject to direct and regular supervision of a specified agency except as such supervision pertains to licensing by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-804, eff. 1-1-15; 98-846, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 265. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/70)

Sec. 70. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS) grant; Voluntary FBI Fingerprint Demonstration Project.

(a) The General Assembly authorizes the establishment of the Voluntary FBI Fingerprint Demonstration Project (Demonstration Project), which shall be consistent with the provisions of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services grant awarded to and distributed by the Department of Public Health pursuant to Title VI, Subtitle B, Part III, Subtitle C, Section 6201 of the Affordable Care Act of 2010. The Demonstration Project is authorized to operate for the period of January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014 and shall operate until the conclusion of this grant period or until the long-term care facility terminates its participation in the Demonstration Project, whichever occurs sooner.

(b) The Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board established under the Nursing Home Care Act shall act in an advisory capacity to the Demonstration Project.

(c) Long-term care facilities voluntarily participating in the Demonstration Project shall, in addition to the provisions of this Section, comply with all requirements set forth in this Act. When conflict between the Act and the provisions of this Section occurs, the provisions of this Section shall supersede until the conclusion of the grant period or until the long-term care facility terminates its participation in the Demonstration Project, whichever occurs sooner.

(d) The Department of Public Health shall select at least one facility in the State to participate in the Demonstration Project.

(e) For the purposes of determining who shall be required to undergo a State and an FBI fingerprint-based criminal history records check under the Demonstration Project, "direct access employee" means any individual who has access to a patient or resident of a long-term care facility or provider through employment or through a contract with a long-term care facility or provider and has duties that involve or may involve one-on-one contact with a resident of the facility or provider, as determined by the State for purposes of the Demonstration Project.

(f) All long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act are qualified to volunteer for the Demonstration Project.

(g) The Department of Public Health shall notify qualified long-term care facilities within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly of the opportunity to volunteer for the Demonstration Project. The notice shall include information concerning application procedures and deadlines, termination rights, requirements for participation, the selection process, and a question-and-answer document addressing potential conflicts between this Act and the provisions of this Section.

(h) Qualified long-term care facilities shall be given a minimum of 30 days after the date of receiving the notice to inform the Department of Public Health, in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of Public Health, of their interest in volunteering for the Demonstration Project. Facilities selected for the Demonstration Project shall be notified, within 30 days after the date of application, of the effective date that their participation in the Demonstration Project will begin, which may vary.

(i) The individual applicant shall be responsible for the cost of each individual fingerprint inquiry, which may be offset with grant funds, if available. Community-Integrated

(j) Each applicant seeking employment in a position described in subsection (e) of this Section with a selected health care employer shall, as a condition of employment, have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record information by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history records check. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check and shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois convictions to the Department of Public Health.

(k) A fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section shall be submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(l) A long-term care facility may terminate its participation in the Demonstration Project without prejudice by providing the Department of Public Health with notice of its intent to terminate at least 30 days prior to its voluntary termination.

(m) This Section shall be inapplicable upon the conclusion of the CMMS grant period.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1041, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 270. The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(225 ILCS 51/35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 35. Qualifications for licensure.

(a) An entity is qualified to receive a license as a home medical equipment and services provider if the entity meets each of the following requirements:

(1) complies with all applicable federal and State licensure and regulatory requirements;

(2) maintains a physical facility and medical equipment inventory. There shall only be one license permitted at each address;

(3) establishes proof of commercial general liability insurance, including but not limited to coverage for products liability and professional liability;

(4) establishes and provides records of annual continuing education for personnel engaged in the delivery, maintenance, repair, cleaning, inventory control, and financial management of home medical equipment and services;

(5) maintains records on all patients to whom it provides home medical equipment and services;

(6) establishes equipment management and personnel policies;

(7) makes life-sustaining life sustaining home medical equipment and services available 24 hours per day and 7 days per week;

(8) complies with any additional qualifications for licensure as determined by rule of the Department.

(b) The Department may request a personal interview of an applicant before the Board to further evaluate the entity's qualifications for licensure.

(Source: P.A. 90-532, eff. 11-14-97; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 275. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 80-40 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/80-40)

Sec. 80-40. Licensure by examination. An applicant for licensure by examination to practice as a licensed medication aide must:

(1) submit a completed written application on forms provided by the Department and fees as established by the Department;

(2) be age 18 or older;

(3) have a high school diploma or a high school equivalency certificate of general education development (GED);

(4) demonstrate the ability able to speak, read, and write the English language, as determined by rule;

(5) demonstrate competency in math, as determined by rule;

(6) be currently certified in good standing as a certified nursing assistant and provide proof of 2,000 hours of practice as a certified nursing assistant within 3 years before application for licensure;

(7) submit to the criminal history records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act;

(8) have not engaged in conduct or behavior determined to be grounds for discipline under this Act;

(9) be currently certified to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation by the American Heart Association or American Red Cross;

(10) have successfully completed a course of study approved by the Department as defined by rule; to be approved, the program must include a minimum of 60 hours of classroom-based medication aide education, a minimum of 10 hours of simulation laboratory study, and a minimum of 30 hours of registered nurse-supervised clinical practicum with progressive responsibility of patient medication assistance;

(11) have successfully completed the Medication Aide Certification Examination or other examination authorized by the Department; and

(12) submit proof of employment by a qualifying facility.

(Source: P.A. 98-990, eff. 8-18-14; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 280. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/25) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 25. Disciplinary actions.

1. The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided for in Section 25.3 of this Act, with regard to any license or certificate for any one or combination of the following:

A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

B. Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

C. Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

D. Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

E. Professional incompetence.

F. Malpractice.

G. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

H. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

I. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

J. Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

K. Discipline by another state, unit of government, government agency, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

L. Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

M. A finding by the Board that the licensee or certificate holder, after having his license or certificate placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

N. Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments.

O. Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

P. Solicitation of professional services other than permitted advertising.

Q. Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

R. Conviction of or cash compromise of a charge or violation of the Harrison Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, regulating narcotics.

S. Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating, or reporting on tuberculin or other biological tests.

T. Failing to report, as required by law, or making false report of any contagious or infectious diseases.

U. Fraudulent use or misuse of any health certificate, shipping certificate, brand inspection certificate, or other blank forms used in practice that might lead to the dissemination of disease or the transportation of diseased animals dead or alive; or dilatory methods, willful neglect, or misrepresentation in the inspection of milk, meat, poultry, and the by-products thereof.

V. Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals.

W. Failure to keep one's premises and all equipment therein in a clean and sanitary condition.

X. Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having participated in approved continuing education programs.

Y. Mental illness or disability that results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

Z. Conviction by any court of competent jurisdiction, either within or outside this State, of any violation of any law governing the practice of veterinary medicine, if the Department determines, after investigation, that the person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.

AA. Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner to exploit the client for financial gain of the veterinarian.

BB. Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services.

CC. Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

DD. Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances or legend drugs.

EE. Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

FF. Using, prescribing, or selling a prescription drug or the extra-label use of a prescription drug by any means in the absence of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship.

GG. Failing to report a case of suspected aggravated cruelty, torture, or animal fighting pursuant to Section 3.07 or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

2. The determination by a circuit court that a licensee or certificate holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient. In any case where a license is suspended under this provision, the licensee shall file a petition for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable to the Department that the licensee can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of his or her their profession.

3. All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license or certificate on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described in this Section. Except for proceedings brought for violations of items (CC), (DD), or (EE), no action shall be commenced more than 5 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, the claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed or certified under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of one year from the date of the settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and begin formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 25.2 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license or certificate was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

4. The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

5. In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is registered under this Act or any individual who has applied for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination or evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a registrant unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require such registrant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed registration.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals registered under this Act who that are affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their registration.

6. The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

7. In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-339, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 285. The Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(225 ILCS 325/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 5211)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 11. Minimum standards for examination for enrollment as engineer intern. Each of the following is considered a minimum standard that an applicant must satisfy to qualify for enrollment as an engineer intern: .

(a) A graduate of an approved engineering curriculum of at least 4 years, who has passed an examination in the fundamentals of engineering as defined by rule, shall be enrolled as an engineer intern, if the applicant is otherwise qualified; or

(b) An applicant in the last year of an approved engineering curriculum who passes an examination in the fundamentals of engineering as defined by rule and furnishes proof that the applicant graduated within a 12 month period following the examination shall be enrolled as an engineer intern, if the applicant is otherwise qualified; or

(c) A graduate of a non-approved engineering curriculum or a related science curriculum of at least 4 years and which meets the requirements as set forth by rule by submitting an application to the Department for its review and approval, who submits acceptable evidence to the Board of an additional 4 years or more of progressive experience in engineering work, and who has passed an examination in the fundamentals of engineering as defined by rule shall be enrolled as an engineer intern, if the applicant is otherwise qualified.

(Source: P.A. 98-713, eff. 7-16-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 290. The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 2-4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 410/2-4) (from Ch. 111, par. 1702-4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 2-4. Licensure as a barber teacher; qualifications. A person is qualified to receive a license as a barber teacher if that person files an application on forms provided by the Department, pays the required fee, and:

a. Is at least 18 years of age;

b. Has graduated from high school or its equivalent;

c. Has a current license as a barber or cosmetologist;

d. Has graduated from a barber school or school of cosmetology approved by the Department having:

(1) completed a total of 500 hours in barber teacher training extending over a period of not less than 3 months nor more than 2 years and has had 3 years of practical experience as a licensed barber;

(2) completed a total of 1,000 hours of barber teacher training extending over a period of not less than 6 months nor more than 2 years; or

(3) completed the cosmetology teacher training as specified in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 3-4 of this Act and completed a supplemental barbering course as established by rule; and

e. Has passed an examination authorized by the Department to determine fitness to receive a license as a barber teacher or a cosmetology teacher; and

f. Has met any other requirements set forth in this Act.

An applicant who is issued a license as a Barber Teacher is not required to maintain a barber license in order to practice barbering as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-777, eff. 7-13-12; 98-911, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 295. The Cemetery Oversight Act is amended by changing Section 5-25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 411/5-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 5-25. Powers of the Department. Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Department may exercise the following powers:

(1) Authorize certification programs to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants for licensing as a licensed cemetery manager or as a customer service employee to ascertain whether they possess the requisite level of knowledge for such position.

(2) Examine a licensed cemetery authority's records from any year or any other aspects of cemetery operation as the Department deems appropriate.

(3) Investigate any and all cemetery operations.

(4) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to issue or renew licenses or to revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or otherwise discipline a license under this Act or take other non-disciplinary action.

(5) Adopt reasonable rules required for the administration of this Act.

(6) Prescribe forms to be issued for the administration and enforcement of this Act.

(7) Maintain rosters of the names and addresses of all licensees and all persons whose licenses have been suspended, revoked, denied renewal, or otherwise disciplined within the previous calendar year. These rosters shall be available upon written request and payment of the required fee as established by rule.

(8) Work with the Office of the Comptroller and the Department of Public Health, Division of Vital Records to exchange information and request additional information relating to a licensed cemetery authority. ;

(9) Investigate cemetery contracts, grounds, or employee records.

If the Department exercises its authority to conduct investigations under this Section, the Department shall provide the cemetery authority with information sufficient to challenge the allegation. If the complainant consents, then the Department shall provide the cemetery authority with the identity of and contact information for the complainant so as to allow the cemetery authority and the complainant to resolve the complaint directly. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, any complaint received by the Department and any information collected to investigate the complaint shall be maintained by the Department for the confidential use of the Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose the information to anyone other than law enforcement officials or other regulatory agencies or persons that have an appropriate regulatory interest, as determined by the Secretary, or to a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal, state, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the Department or any order issued by the Department against a licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise prohibited by law.

(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 300. The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 155 as follows:

(225 ILCS 427/155)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 155. Violations; penalties.

(a) A person who violates any of the following provisions shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; a person who commits a second or subsequent violation of these provisions is guilty of a Class 4 felony:

(1) The practice of or attempted practice of or holding out as available to practice as a community association manager, or supervising community association manager without a license.

(2) Operation of or attempt to operate a community association management firm without a firm license or a designated supervising community association manager.

(3) The obtaining of or the attempt to obtain any license or authorization issued under this Act by fraudulent misrepresentation.

(b) Whenever a licensee is convicted of a felony related to the violations set forth in this Section, the clerk of the court in any jurisdiction shall promptly report the conviction to the Department and the Department shall immediately revoke any license authorized under this Act held by that licensee. The licensee shall not be eligible for licensure under this Act until at least 10 years have elapsed since the time of full discharge from any sentence imposed for a felony conviction. If any person in making any oath or affidavit required by this Act swears falsely, the person is guilty of perjury and may be punished accordingly.

(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 305. The Illinois Public Accounting Act is amended by changing Sections 0.02, 0.03, and 14.4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 450/0.02) (from Ch. 111, par. 5500.02)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 0.02. Declaration of public policy. It is the policy of this State and the purpose of this Act:

(a) to To promote the dependability of information which is used for guidance in financial transactions or for accounting for or assessing the status or performance of commercial and noncommercial enterprises, whether public, private, or governmental; and

(b) to To protect the public interest by requiring that persons engaged in the practice of public accounting be qualified; that a public authority competent to prescribe and assess the qualifications of public accountants be established; and that

(c) that preparing Preparing, auditing, or examining financial statements and issuing a report expressing or disclaiming an opinion on such statements or expressing assurance on such statements be reserved to persons who demonstrate their ability and fitness to observe and apply the standards of the accounting profession; and that the use of accounting titles likely to confuse the public be prohibited.

(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-25-14.)

(225 ILCS 450/0.03) (from Ch. 111, par. 5500.03)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 0.03. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Accountancy activities" means the services as set forth in Section 8.05 of the Act.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's, licensee's, or registrant's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant, licensee, or registrant to inform the Department of any change of address, and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by directly contacting the Department.

"Certificate" means a certificate issued by the Board or University or similar jurisdictions specifying an individual has successfully passed all sections and requirements of the Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination. A certificate issued by the Board or University or similar jurisdiction does not confer the ability to use the CPA title and is not equivalent to a registration or license under this Act.

"Compilation" means providing a service to be performed in accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services that is presented in the form of financial statements or information that is the representation of management or owners without undertaking to express any assurance on the statements.

"CPA" or "C.P.A." means a certified public accountant who holds a license or registration issued by the Department or an individual authorized to use the CPA title under Section 5.2 of this Act.

"CPA firm" means a sole proprietorship, a corporation, registered limited liability partnership, limited liability company, partnership, professional service corporation, or any other form of organization issued a license in accordance with this Act.

"CPA (inactive)" means a licensed certified public accountant who elects to have the Department place his or her license on inactive status pursuant to Section 17.2 of this Act.

"Financial statement" means a structured presentation of historical financial information, including, but not limited to, related notes intended to communicate an entity's economic resources and obligations at a point in time or the changes therein for a period of time in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) or other comprehensive basis of accounting (OCBOA).

"Other attestation engagements" means an engagement performed in accordance with the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements.

"Registered Certified Public Accountant" or "registered CPA" means any person who has been issued a registration under this Act as a Registered Certified Public Accountant.

"Report", when used with reference to financial statements, means an opinion, report, or other form of language that states or implies assurance as to the reliability of any financial statements and that also includes or is accompanied by any statement or implication that the person or firm issuing it has special knowledge or competence in accounting or auditing. Such a statement or implication of special knowledge or competence may arise from use by the issuer of the report of names or titles indicating that the person or firm is an accountant or auditor, or from the language of the report itself. "Report" includes any form of language that disclaims an opinion when the form of language is conventionally understood to imply any positive assurance as to the reliability of the financial statements referred to or special competence on the part of the person or firm issuing such language; it includes any other form of language that is conventionally understood to imply such assurance or such special knowledge or competence.

"Licensed Certified Public Accountant" or "licensed CPA" means any person licensed under this Act as a Licensed Certified Public Accountant.

"Committee" means the Public Accountant Registration and Licensure Committee appointed by the Secretary.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"License", "licensee", and "licensure" refer refers to the authorization to practice under the provisions of this Act.

"Peer review" means a study, appraisal, or review of one or more aspects of a CPA firm's or sole practitioner's compliance with applicable accounting, auditing, and other attestation standards adopted by generally recognized standard-setting bodies.

"Principal place of business" means the office location designated by the licensee from which the person directs, controls, and coordinates his or her professional services.

"Review committee" means any person or persons conducting, reviewing, administering, or supervising a peer review program.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"University" means the University of Illinois.

"Board" means the Board of Examiners established under Section 2.

"Registration", "registrant", and "registered" refer to the authorization to hold oneself out as or use the title "Registered Certified Public Accountant" or "Certified Public Accountant", unless the context otherwise requires.

"Peer Review Administrator" means an organization designated by the Department that meets the requirements of subsection (f) of Section 16 of this Act and other rules that the Department may adopt.

(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-25-14.)

(225 ILCS 450/14.4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 14.4. Qualifications for licensure as a CPA firm. The Department may license as licensed CPA firms individuals or entities meeting the following requirements:

(1) A majority of the ownership of the firm, in terms of financial interests and voting rights of all partners, officers, shareholders, or members, belongs to persons licensed or registered in some state. All partners, officers, shareholders, or members, whose principal place of business is in this State and who have overall responsibility for accountancy activities in this State, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 of this Act, must hold a valid license as a licensed CPA issued by this State. An individual exercising the practice privilege afforded under Section 5.2 who performs services for which a firm license is required under subsection (d) of Section 5.2 shall not be required to obtain an individual license under this Act.

(2) All owners of the CPA firm, whether licensed as a licensed CPA or not, shall be active participants in the CPA firm or its affiliated entities and shall comply with the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) It shall be lawful for a nonprofit cooperative association engaged in rendering an auditing and accounting service to its members only to continue to render that service provided that the rendering of an auditing and accounting service by the cooperative association shall at all times be under the control and supervision of licensed CPAs.

(4) An individual who supervises services for which a license is required under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 of this Act, who signs or authorizes another to sign any report for which a license is required under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 of this Act, or who supervises services for which a CPA firm license is required under subsection (d) of Section 5.2 of this Act shall hold a valid, active licensed CPA license from this State or another state considered to be substantially equivalent under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 5.2.

(5) The CPA firm shall designate to the Department in writing an individual licensed as a licensed CPA under this Act or, in the case of a firm that must have a CPA firm license pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act, a licensee of another state who meets the requirements set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5.2 of this Act, who shall be responsible for the proper licensure of the CPA firm.

(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-730, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 310. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Section 5-5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/5-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 5-5. Necessity of license; use of title; exemptions.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to (i) act, offer services, or advertise services as a State certified general real estate appraiser, State certified residential real estate appraiser, or associate real estate trainee appraiser, (ii) develop a real estate appraisal, (iii) practice as a real estate appraiser, or (iv) advertise or hold himself or herself out to be a real estate appraiser without a license issued under this Act. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any subsequent offense.

(a-5) It is unlawful for a person, unless registered as an appraisal management company, to solicit clients or enter into an appraisal engagement with clients without either a certified residential real estate appraiser license or a certified general real estate appraiser license issued under this Act. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any subsequent offense.

(b) It is unlawful for a person, other than a person who holds a valid license issued pursuant to this Act as a State certified general real estate appraiser, a State certified residential real estate appraiser, or an associate real estate trainee appraiser to use these titles or any other title, designation, or abbreviation likely to create the impression that the person is licensed as a real estate appraiser pursuant to this Act. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any subsequent offense.

(c) This Act does not apply to a person who holds a valid license as a real estate broker or managing broker pursuant to the Real Estate License Act of 2000 who prepares or provides a broker price opinion or comparative market analysis in compliance with Section 10-45 of the Real Estate License Act of 2000.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall preclude a State certified general real estate appraiser, a State certified residential real estate appraiser, or an associate real estate trainee appraiser from rendering appraisals for or on behalf of a partnership, association, corporation, firm, or group. However, no State appraisal license or certification shall be issued under this Act to a partnership, association, corporation, firm, or group.

(e) This Act does not apply to a county assessor, township assessor, multi-township assessor, county supervisor of assessments, or any deputy or employee of any county assessor, township assessor, multi-township assessor, or county supervisor of assessments who is performing his or her respective duties in accordance with the provisions of the Property Tax Code.

(e-5) For the purposes of this Act, valuation waivers may be prepared by a licensed appraiser notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, and the following types of valuations are not appraisals and may not be represented to be appraisals, and a license is not required under this Act to perform such valuations if the valuations are performed by (1) an employee of the Illinois Department of Transportation who has completed a minimum of 45 hours of course work in real estate appraisal, including the principals of real estate appraisals, appraisal of partial acquisitions, easement valuation, reviewing appraisals in eminent domain, appraisal for federal aid highway programs, and appraisal review for federal aid highway programs and has at least 2 years' experience in a field closely related to real estate; (2) a county engineer who is a registered professional engineer under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989; (3) an employee of a municipality who has (i) completed a minimum of 45 hours of coursework in real estate appraisal, including the principals of real estate appraisals, appraisal of partial acquisitions, easement valuation, reviewing appraisals in eminent domain, appraisal for federal aid highway programs, and appraisal review for federal aid highway programs and (ii) has either 2 years' experience in a field clearly related to real estate or has completed 20 hours of additional coursework that is sufficient for a person to complete waiver valuations as approved by the Federal Highway Administration; or (4) a municipal engineer who has completed coursework that is sufficient for his or her waiver valuations to be approved by the Federal Highway Administration and who is a registered professional engineer under the Professional Engineering Act of 1989, under the following circumstances:

(A) a valuation waiver in an amount not to exceed $10,000 prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, or prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition for Federal and Federally-Assisted Programs regulations and which is performed by (1) an employee of the Illinois Department of Transportation and co-signed, with a license number affixed, by another employee of the Illinois Department of Transportation who is a registered professional engineer under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 or (2) an employee of a municipality and co-signed with a license number affixed by a county or municipal engineer who is a registered professional engineer under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989; and

(B) a valuation waiver in an amount not to exceed $10,000 prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, or prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition for Federal and Federally-Assisted Programs regulations and which is performed by a county or municipal engineer who is employed by a county or municipality and is a registered professional engineer under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989. In addition to his or her signature, the county or municipal engineer shall affix his or her license number to the valuation.

Nothing in this subsection (e-5) shall be construed to allow the State of Illinois, a political subdivision thereof, or any public body to acquire real estate by eminent domain in any manner other than provided for in the Eminent Domain Act.

(f) A State real estate appraisal certification or license is not required under this Act for any of the following:

(1) A person, partnership, association, or corporation that performs appraisals of property owned by that person, partnership, association, or corporation for the sole use of that person, partnership, association, or corporation.

(2) A court-appointed commissioner who conducts an appraisal pursuant to a judicially ordered evaluation of property. However, any person who is certified or licensed under this Act and who performs any of the activities set forth in this subsection (f) must comply with the provisions of this Act. A person who violates this subsection (f) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any subsequent offense.

(g) This Act does not apply to an employee, officer, director, or member of a credit or loan committee of a financial institution or any other person engaged by a financial institution when performing an evaluation of real property for the sole use of the financial institution in a transaction for which the financial institution would not be required to use the services of a State licensed or State certified appraiser pursuant to federal regulations adopted under Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, nor does this Act apply to the procurement of an automated valuation model.

"Automated valuation model" means an automated system that is used to derive a property value through the use of publicly available property records and various analytic methodologies such as comparable sales prices, home characteristics, and historical home price appreciations.

(Source: P.A. 97-602, eff. 8-26-11; 98-444, eff. 8-16-13; 98-933, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 315. The Illinois Oil and Gas Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 725/1) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 5401)

Sec. 1. Unless the context otherwise requires, the words defined in this Section have the following meanings as used in this Act.

"Person" means any natural person, corporation, association, partnership, governmental agency or other legal entity, receiver, trustee, guardian, executor, administrator, fiduciary or representative of any kind.

"Oil" means natural crude oil or petroleum and other hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, which are produced at the well in liquid form by ordinary production methods or by the use of an oil and gas separator and which are not the result of condensation of gas after it leaves the underground reservoir.

"Gas" means all natural gas, including casinghead gas, and all other natural hydrocarbons not defined above as oil.

"Pool" means a natural, underground reservoir containing in whole or in part, a natural accumulation of oil or gas, or both. Each productive zone or stratum of a general structure, which is completely separated from any other zone or stratum in the structure, is deemed a separate "pool" as used herein.

"Field" means the same general surface area which is underlaid or appears to be underlaid by one or more pools.

"Permit" means the Department's written authorization allowing a well to be drilled, deepened, converted, or operated by an owner.

"Permittee" means the owner holding or required to hold the permit, and who is also responsible for paying assessments in accordance with Section 19.7 of this Act and, where applicable, executing and filing the bond associated with the well as principal and who is responsible for compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements pertaining to the well.

When the right and responsibility for operating a well is vested in a receiver or trustee appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction, the permit shall be issued to the receiver or trustee.

"Orphan Well" means a well for which: (1) no fee assessment under Section 19.7 of this Act has been paid or no other bond coverage has been provided for 2 consecutive years; (2) no oil or gas has been produced from the well or from the lease or unit on which the well is located for 2 consecutive years; and (3) no permittee or owner can be identified or located by the Department. Orphaned wells include wells that may have been drilled for purposes other than those for which a permit is required under this Act if the well is a conduit for oil or salt water intrusions into fresh water zones or onto the surface which may be caused by oil and gas operations.

"Owner" means the person who has the right to drill into and produce from any pool, and to appropriate the production either for the person or for the person and another, or others, or solely for others, excluding the mineral owner's royalty if the right to drill and produce has been granted under an oil and gas lease. An owner may also be a person granted the right to drill and operate an injection (Class II UIC) well independent of the right to drill for and produce oil or gas. When the right to drill, produce, and appropriate production is held by more than one person, then all persons holding these rights may designate the owner by a written operating agreement or similar written agreement. In the absence of such an agreement, and subject to the provisions of Sections 22.2 and 23.1 through 23.16 of this Act, the owner shall be the person designated in writing by a majority in interest of the persons holding these rights.

"Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.

"Director" means the Director of Natural Resources.

"Mining Board" means the State Mining Board in the Department of Natural Resources, Office of Mines and Minerals.

"Mineral Owner's Royalty" means the share of oil and gas production reserved in an oil and gas lease free of all costs by an owner of the minerals whether denominated royalty or overriding royalty.

"Waste" means "physical waste" as that term is generally understood in the oil and gas industry, and further includes:

(1) the locating, drilling, and producing of any oil or gas well or wells drilled contrary to the valid order, rules and regulations adopted by the Department under the provisions of this Act; .

(2) permitting the migration of oil, gas, or water from the stratum in which it is found, into other strata, thereby ultimately resulting in the loss of recoverable oil, gas or both;

(3) the drowning with water of any stratum or part thereof capable of producing oil or gas, except for secondary recovery purposes;

(4) the unreasonable damage to underground, fresh or mineral water supply, workable coal seams, or other mineral deposits in the operations for the discovery, development, production, or handling of oil and gas;

(5) the unnecessary or excessive surface loss or destruction of oil or gas resulting from evaporation, seepage, leakage or fire, especially such loss or destruction incident to or resulting from the escape of gas into the open air in excessive or unreasonable amounts, provided, however, it shall not be unlawful for the operator or owner of any well producing both oil and gas to burn such gas in flares when such gas is, under the other provisions of this Act, lawfully produced, and where there is no market at the well for such escaping gas; and where the same is used for the extraction of casinghead gas, it shall not be unlawful for the operator of the plant after the process of extraction is completed, to burn such residue in flares when there is no market at such plant for such residue gas;

(6) permitting unnecessary fire hazards;

(7) permitting unnecessary damage to or destruction of the surface, soil, animal, fish or aquatic life or property from oil or gas operations.

"Drilling Unit" means the surface area allocated by an order or regulation of the Department to the drilling of a single well for the production of oil or gas from an individual pool.

"Enhanced Recovery Method" means any method used in an effort to recover hydrocarbons from a pool by injection of fluids, gases or other substances to maintain, restore or augment natural reservoir energy, or by introducing immiscible or miscible gases, chemicals, other substances or heat or by in-situ combustion, or by any combination thereof.

"Well-Site Equipment" means any production-related equipment or materials specific to the well, including motors, pumps, pump jacks, tanks, tank batteries, separators, compressors, casing, tubing, and rods.

(Source: P.A. 89-243, eff. 8-4-95; 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 320. The Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act is amended by changing Sections 1-40, 1-96, 1-100, 1-101, and 1-110 as follows:

(225 ILCS 732/1-40)

Sec. 1-40. Public notice.

(a) Within 5 calendar days after the Department's receipt of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing application, the Department shall post notice of its receipt and a copy of the permit application on its website. The notice shall include the dates of the public comment period and directions for interested parties to submit comments.

(b) Within 5 calendar days after the Department's receipt of the permit application and notice to the applicant that the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application was received, the Department shall provide the Agency, the Office of the State Fire Marshal, the Illinois State Water Survey, and the Illinois State Geological Survey with notice of the application.

(c) The applicant shall provide the following public notice:

(1) Applicants shall mail specific public notice by U.S. Postal Service certified mail, return receipt requested, within 3 calendar days after submittal of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application to the Department, to all persons identified as owners of real property within 1,500 feet of the proposed well site, as disclosed by the records in the office of the recorder of the county or counties, and to each municipality and county in which the well site is proposed to be located.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (2) of subsection (c), applicants shall provide general public notice by publication, once each week for 2 consecutive weeks, beginning no later than 3 calendar days after submittal of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application to the Department, in a newspaper of general circulation published in each county where the well proposed for high volume hydraulic fracturing operations is proposed to be located.

If a well is proposed for high volume hydraulic fracturing operations in a county where there is no daily newspaper of general circulation, the applicant shall provide general public notice, by publication, once each week for 2 consecutive weeks, in a weekly newspaper of general circulation in that county beginning as soon as the publication schedule of the weekly newspaper permits, but in no case later than 10 days after submittal of the high volume hydraulic fracturing permit application to the Department.

(3) The specific and general public notices required under this subsection shall contain the following information:

(A) the name and address of the applicant;

(B) the date the application for a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit was filed;

(C) the dates for the public comment period and a statement that anyone may file written comments about any portion of the applicant's submitted high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application with the Department during the public comment period;

(D) the proposed well name, reference number assigned by the Department, and the address and legal description of the well site and its unit area;

(E) a statement that the information filed by the applicant in their application for a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit is available from the Department through its website;

(F) the Department's website and the address and telephone number for the Department's Oil and Gas Division;

(G) a statement that any person having an interest that is or may be adversely affected, any government agency that is or may be affected, or the county board of a county to be affected under a proposed permit, may file written objections to a permit application and may request a public hearing.

(d) After providing the public notice as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section, the applicant shall supplement its permit application by providing the Department with a certification and documentation that the applicant fulfilled the public notice requirements of this Section. The Department shall not issue a permit until the applicant has provided the supplemental material required under this subsection.

(e) If multiple applications are submitted at the same time for wells located on the same well site, the applicant may use one public notice for all applications provided the notice is clear that it pertains to multiple applications and conforms to the requirements of this Section. Notice shall not constitute standing for purposes of requesting a public hearing or for standing to appeal the decision of the Department in accordance with the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-25-14.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-96)

Sec. 1-96. Seismicity.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "induced seismicity" means an earthquake event that is felt, recorded by the national seismic network, and attributable to a Class II injection well used for disposal of flowback flow-back and produced fluid from hydraulic fracturing operations.

(b) The Department shall adopt rules, in consultation with the Illinois State Geological Survey, establishing a protocol for controlling operational activity of Class II injection wells in an instance of induced seismicity.

(c) The rules adopted by the Department under this Section shall employ a "traffic light" control system allowing for low levels of seismicity while including additional monitoring and mitigation requirements when seismic events are of sufficient intensity to result in a concern for public health and safety.

(d) The additional mitigation requirements referenced in subsection (c) of this Section shall provide for either the scaling back of injection operations with monitoring for establishment of a potentially safe operation level or the immediate cessation of injection operations.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-25-14.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-100)

Sec. 1-100. Criminal offenses; penalties.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, it shall be a Class A misdemeanor to knowingly violate this Act, its rules, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or knowingly to submit any false information under this Act or regulations adopted thereunder, or under any permit or term or condition thereof. A person convicted or sentenced under this subsection (a) shall be subject to a fine of not to exceed $10,000 for each day of violation.

(b) It is unlawful for a person knowingly to violate:

(1) subsection (c) of Section 1-25 of this Act;

(2) subsection (d) of Section 1-25 of this Act;

(3) subsection (a) of Section 1-30 of this Act;

(4) paragraph (9) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act; or

(5) subsection (a) of Section 1-87 of this Act.

A person convicted or sentenced for any knowing violation of the requirements or prohibitions listed in this subsection (b) commits a Class 4 felony, and in addition to any other penalty prescribed by law is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of violation. A person who commits a second or subsequent knowing violation of the requirements or prohibitions listed in this subsection (b) commits a Class 3 felony and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of violation.

(c) Any person who knowingly makes a false, fictitious, or fraudulent material statement, orally or in writing, to the Department or Agency as required by this Act, its rules, or any permit, term, or condition of a permit, commits a Class 4 felony, and each false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or writing shall be considered a separate violation. In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law, a person persons in violation of this subsection (c) is subject to a fine of not to exceed $25,000 for each day of violation. A person who commits a second or subsequent knowing violation of this subsection (c) commits a Class 3 felony and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of violation.

(d) Any criminal action provided for under this Section shall be brought by the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred or by the Attorney General and shall be conducted in accordance with the applicable provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. For criminal conduct in this Section, the period for commencing prosecution shall not begin to run until the offense is discovered by or reported to a State or local agency having authority to investigate violations of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-26-14.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-101)

Sec. 1-101. Violations; civil penalties and injunctions.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any person who violates any provision of this Act or any rule or order adopted under this Act or any permit issued under this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $50,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 for each day during which the violation continues.

(b) Any person who violates any requirements or prohibitions of provisions listed in this subsection (b) is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $100,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty not to exceed $20,000 for each day during which the violation continues. The following are violations are subject to the penalties of this subsection (b):

(1) subsection (c) of Section 1-25 of this Act;

(2) subsection (d) of Section 1-25 of this Act;

(3) subsection (a) of Section 1-30 of this Act;

(4) paragraph (9) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act; or

(5) subsection (a) of Section 1-87 of this Act.

(c) Any person who knowingly makes, submits, causes to be made, or causes to be submitted a false report of pollution, diminution, or water pollution attributable to high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations that results in an investigation by the Department or Agency under this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 for the violation.

(d) The penalty shall be recovered by a civil action before the circuit court of the county in which the well site is located or in the circuit court of Sangamon County. Venue shall be considered proper in either court. These penalties may, upon the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act.

(e) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the request of the Department or on his or her own motion, institute a civil action for the recovery of costs, an injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to restrain violations of this Act, any rule adopted under this Act, the permit or term or condition of the permit, or to require other actions as may be necessary to address violations of this Act, any rule adopted under this Act, or the permit or term or condition of the permit.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, shall bring actions under this Section in the name of the People of the State of Illinois. Without limiting any other authority that may exist for the awarding of attorney's fees and costs, a court of competent jurisdiction may award costs and reasonable attorney's fees, including the reasonable costs of expert witnesses and consultants, to the State's Attorney or the Attorney General in a case where he or she has prevailed against a person who has committed a knowing or repeated violation of this Act, any rule adopted under this Act, or the permit or term or condition of the permit.

(g) All final orders imposing civil penalties under this Section shall prescribe the time for payment of those penalties. If any penalty is not paid within the time prescribed, interest on the penalty at the rate set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1003 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, shall be paid for the period from the date payment is due until the date payment is received. However, if the time for payment is stayed during the pendency of an appeal, interest shall not accrue during the stay.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-26-14.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-110)

Sec. 1-110. Public information; website.

(a) All information submitted to the Department under this Act is deemed public information, except information deemed to constitute a trade secret under Section 1-77 of this Act and private information and personal information as defined in the Freedom of Information Act.

(b) To provide the public and concerned citizens with a centralized repository of information, the Department shall create and maintain a comprehensive website dedicated to providing information concerning high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The website shall contain, assemble, and link the documents and information required by this Act to be posted on the Department's or other agencies' websites. The Department shall also create and maintain an online searchable database that provides information related to high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations on wells that, at a minimum, includes include, for each well it permits, the identity of its operators, its waste disposal, its chemical disclosure information, and any complaints or violations under this Act. The website created under this Section shall allow users to search for completion reports by well name and location, dates of fracturing and drilling operations, operator, and by chemical additives.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 325. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 12.2 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/12.2)

Sec. 12.2. Business enterprise program.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, the terms "minority", "minority owned business", "female", "female owned business", "person with a disability", and "business owned by a person with a disability" have the meanings meaning ascribed to them in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(b) The Board shall, by rule, establish goals for the award of contracts by each organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, expressed as percentages of an organization licensee's or inter-track wagering licensee's total dollar amount of contracts awarded during each calendar year. Each organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee must make every effort to meet the goals established by the Board pursuant to this Section. When setting the goals for the award of contracts, the Board shall not include contracts where: (1) licensees are purchasing goods or services from vendors or suppliers or in markets where there are no or a limited number of minority owned businesses, women owned businesses, or businesses owned by persons with disabilities that would be sufficient to satisfy the goal; (2) there are no or a limited number of suppliers licensed by the Board; (3) the licensee or its parent company owns a company that provides the goods or services; or (4) the goods or services are provided to the licensee by a publicly traded company.

(c) Each organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee shall file with the Board an annual report of its utilization of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities during the preceding calendar year. The reports shall include a self-evaluation of the efforts of the organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee to meet its goals under this Section.

(d) The organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee shall have the right to request a waiver from the requirements of this Section. The Board shall grant the waiver where the organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee demonstrates that there has been made a good faith effort to comply with the goals for participation by minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities.

(e) If the Board determines that its goals and policies are not being met by any organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee, then the Board may:

(1) adopt remedies for such violations; and

(2) recommend that the organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee provide additional opportunities for participation by minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities; such recommendations may include, but shall not be limited to:

(A) assurances of stronger and better focused solicitation efforts to obtain more minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities as potential sources of supply;

(B) division of job or project requirements, when economically feasible, into tasks or quantities to permit participation of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities;

(C) elimination of extended experience or capitalization requirements, when programmatically feasible, to permit participation of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities;

(D) identification of specific proposed contracts as particularly attractive or appropriate for participation by minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities, such identification to result from and be coupled with the efforts of items (A) through (C); and

(E) implementation of regulations established for the use of the sheltered market process.

(f) The Board shall file, no later than March 1 of each year, an annual report that shall detail the level of achievement toward the goals specified in this Section over the 3 most recent fiscal years. The annual report shall include, but need not be limited to:

(1) a summary detailing expenditures subject to the goals, the actual goals specified, and the goals attained by each organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee;

(2) a summary of the number of contracts awarded and the average contract amount by each organization licensee or inter-track wagering licensee;

(3) an analysis of the level of overall goal achievement concerning purchases from minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities;

(4) an analysis of the number of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities that are certified under the program as well as the number of those businesses that received State procurement contracts; and

(5) a summary of the number of contracts awarded to businesses with annual gross sales of less than $1,000,000; of $1,000,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000; of $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000; and of $10,000,000 or more.

(Source: P.A. 98-490, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 330. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by changing Section 7.6 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/7.6)

Sec. 7.6. Business enterprise program.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, the terms "minority", "minority owned business", "female", "female owned business", "person with a disability", and "business owned by a person with a disability" have the meanings meaning ascribed to them in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(b) The Board shall, by rule, establish goals for the award of contracts by each owners licensee to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, expressed as percentages of an owners licensee's total dollar amount of contracts awarded during each calendar year. Each owners licensee must make every effort to meet the goals established by the Board pursuant to this Section. When setting the goals for the award of contracts, the Board shall not include contracts where: (1) any purchasing mandates would be dependent upon the availability of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities ready, willing, and able with capacity to provide quality goods and services to a gaming operation at reasonable prices; (2) there are no or a limited number of licensed suppliers as defined by this Act for the goods or services provided to the licensee; (3) the licensee or its parent company owns a company that provides the goods or services; or (4) the goods or services are provided to the licensee by a publicly traded company.

(c) Each owners licensee shall file with the Board an annual report of its utilization of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities during the preceding calendar year. The reports shall include a self-evaluation of the efforts of the owners licensee to meet its goals under this Section.

(d) The owners licensee shall have the right to request a waiver from the requirements of this Section. The Board shall grant the waiver where the owners licensee demonstrates that there has been made a good faith effort to comply with the goals for participation by minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities.

(e) If the Board determines that its goals and policies are not being met by any owners licensee, then the Board may:

(1) adopt remedies for such violations; and

(2) recommend that the owners licensee provide additional opportunities for participation by minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities; such recommendations may include, but shall not be limited to:

(A) assurances of stronger and better focused solicitation efforts to obtain more minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities as potential sources of supply;

(B) division of job or project requirements, when economically feasible, into tasks or quantities to permit participation of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities;

(C) elimination of extended experience or capitalization requirements, when programmatically feasible, to permit participation of minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities;

(D) identification of specific proposed contracts as particularly attractive or appropriate for participation by minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities, such identification to result from and be coupled with the efforts of items (A) through (C); and

(E) implementation of regulations established for the use of the sheltered market process.

(f) The Board shall file, no later than March 1 of each year, an annual report that shall detail the level of achievement toward the goals specified in this Section over the 3 most recent fiscal years. The annual report shall include, but need not be limited to:

(1) a summary detailing expenditures subject to the goals, the actual goals specified, and the goals attained by each owners licensee; and

(2) an analysis of the level of overall goal achievement concerning purchases from minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 98-490, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 335. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 3-12, 6-15, and 6-36 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/3-12)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-939)

Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.

(a) The State commission shall have the following powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors, distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers, non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes, boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend or revoke such licenses upon the State commission's determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5, or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license for the specific premises where the violation occurred.

In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the commission may impose a fine, upon the State commission's determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation.

For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 was committed.

The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed $500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed $20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.

(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to carry on its functions and duties to the end that the health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and regulations to all licensees affected thereby.

(3) To call upon other administrative departments of the State, county and municipal governments, county and city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for such information and assistance as it deems necessary in the performance of its duties.

(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the State.

(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured, distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act authorizes an agent of the Commission to inspect private areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed desks.

(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred, or initiate an investigation with the appropriate law enforcement officials.

(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of this Act.

(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee as provided in this Act.

(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a local commission in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at whichever location is the more convenient for the majority of persons who are parties to the hearing.

(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms, records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable times for inspection by authorized representatives of the State commission or by any local liquor control commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal, in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the form and manner of keeping accounts.

(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving complex issues or issues that will require a protracted period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to hear testimony and take proof material for its information in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, which shall be effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to implement its powers under this paragraph (8).

Any Circuit Court may by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books subpoenaed by the State commission and the court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.

(9) To investigate the administration of laws in relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it may think desirable and as will serve to further the general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.

(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or other similar occurrence.

(11) To develop industry educational programs related to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.

(11.1) To license persons providing education and training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers under the Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a license shall be made on forms provided by the State Commission.

(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license and regulatory information.

(13) On or before January 15, 1994, the Commission shall issue a written report to the Governor and General Assembly that is to be based on a comprehensive study of the impact on and implications for the State of Illinois of Section 1926 of the Federal ADAMHA Reorganization Act of 1992 (Public Law 102-321). This study shall address the extent to which Illinois currently complies with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the rules promulgated pursuant thereto.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following essential information:

(i) the number of retail distributors of tobacco products, by type and geographic area, in the State;

(ii) the number of reported citations and successful convictions, categorized by type and location of retail distributor, for violation of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act and the Smokeless Tobacco Limitation Act;

(iii) the extent and nature of organized educational and governmental activities that are intended to promote, encourage or otherwise secure compliance with any Illinois laws that prohibit the sale or distribution of tobacco products to minors; and

(iv) the level of access and availability of tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18.

To obtain the data necessary to comply with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the requirements of this report, the Commission shall conduct random, unannounced inspections of a geographically and scientifically representative sample of the State's retail tobacco distributors.

The Commission shall consult with the Department of Public Health, the Department of Human Services, the Illinois State Police and any other executive branch agency, and private organizations that may have information relevant to this report.

The Commission may contract with the Food and Drug Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.

(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State. As part of its report, the Commission shall provide all of the following information:

(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated.

(B) The amount of licensing fees received.

(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations conducted.

(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses issued.

(F) The number of each of the following: reported violations; cease and desist notices issued by the Commission; notices of violations issued by the Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials, including, without limitation, the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol compliance operations to investigate whether businesses that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside or outside of this State directly to residents of this State are licensed by this State or are selling or attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act.

(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(17) (A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws of another state who has a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of production and sales for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its wine to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its production of wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated production and sales for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or become part of an affiliated group producing more than 25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.

(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act or amendatory Act or a bona fide investigation by duly sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or its agents, the Commission shall maintain the production and sales information of a self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and shall not release such information to any person.

(F) The Commission shall issue regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Section and this Act.

(G) Nothing in this subsection (17) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois distributor.

(H) It is the intent of this subsection (17) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system it is necessary to create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes, vintages, and taste to find and create market niches sometimes too small for distributor or importing distributor business strategies. Limited self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(18) (A) A craft brewer licensee, who must also be either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer, may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 232,500 gallons of the exemption holder's beer to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the craft brewer licensee shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the Commission's website at least 45 days prior to action by the Commission. The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the craft brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that manufacturers more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum or produces any other alcoholic beverages; (3) shall not annually manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer; and (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500 gallons of its beer to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its manufacture of beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer in any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer or any other alcoholic beverage.

(E) The Commission shall issue rules and regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned distribution rights to an importing distributor or distributor, then the self-distribution exemption holder's distribution rights in the assigned territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to exceed 60 days.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of 1998 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following information:

(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;

(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;

(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the number of notices of violations issued to the Department of Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials.

(Source: P.A. 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-941, eff. 1-1-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-939)

Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.

(a) The State commission shall have the following powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors, distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers, non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes, boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend or revoke such licenses upon the State commission's determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5, or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license for the specific premises where the violation occurred.

In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the commission may impose a fine, upon the State commission's determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation.

For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 was committed.

The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed $500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed $20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.

(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to carry on its functions and duties to the end that the health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and regulations to all licensees affected thereby.

(3) To call upon other administrative departments of the State, county and municipal governments, county and city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for such information and assistance as it deems necessary in the performance of its duties.

(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the State.

(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured, distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act authorizes an agent of the Commission to inspect private areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed desks.

(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred, or initiate an investigation with the appropriate law enforcement officials.

(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of this Act.

(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee as provided in this Act.

(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a local commission in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at whichever location is the more convenient for the majority of persons who are parties to the hearing.

(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms, records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable times for inspection by authorized representatives of the State commission or by any local liquor control commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal, in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the form and manner of keeping accounts.

(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving complex issues or issues that will require a protracted period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to hear testimony and take proof material for its information in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, which shall be effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to implement its powers under this paragraph (8).

Any Circuit Court may by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books subpoenaed by the State commission and the court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.

(9) To investigate the administration of laws in relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it may think desirable and as will serve to further the general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.

(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or other similar occurrence.

(11) To develop industry educational programs related to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.

(11.1) To license persons providing education and training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers for mandatory and non-mandatory training under the Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a license shall be made on forms provided by the State Commission.

(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license and regulatory information.

(13) On or before January 15, 1994, the Commission shall issue a written report to the Governor and General Assembly that is to be based on a comprehensive study of the impact on and implications for the State of Illinois of Section 1926 of the Federal ADAMHA Reorganization Act of 1992 (Public Law 102-321). This study shall address the extent to which Illinois currently complies with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the rules promulgated pursuant thereto.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following essential information:

(i) the number of retail distributors of tobacco products, by type and geographic area, in the State;

(ii) the number of reported citations and successful convictions, categorized by type and location of retail distributor, for violation of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act and the Smokeless Tobacco Limitation Act;

(iii) the extent and nature of organized educational and governmental activities that are intended to promote, encourage or otherwise secure compliance with any Illinois laws that prohibit the sale or distribution of tobacco products to minors; and

(iv) the level of access and availability of tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18.

To obtain the data necessary to comply with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the requirements of this report, the Commission shall conduct random, unannounced inspections of a geographically and scientifically representative sample of the State's retail tobacco distributors.

The Commission shall consult with the Department of Public Health, the Department of Human Services, the Illinois State Police and any other executive branch agency, and private organizations that may have information relevant to this report.

The Commission may contract with the Food and Drug Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.

(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State. As part of its report, the Commission shall provide all of the following information:

(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated.

(B) The amount of licensing fees received.

(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations conducted.

(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses issued.

(F) The number of each of the following: reported violations; cease and desist notices issued by the Commission; notices of violations issued by the Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials, including, without limitation, the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol compliance operations to investigate whether businesses that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside or outside of this State directly to residents of this State are licensed by this State or are selling or attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act.

(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(17) (A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws of another state who has a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of production and sales for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its wine to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its production of wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated production and sales for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or become part of an affiliated group producing more than 25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.

(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act or amendatory Act or a bona fide investigation by duly sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or its agents, the Commission shall maintain the production and sales information of a self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and shall not release such information to any person.

(F) The Commission shall issue regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Section and this Act.

(G) Nothing in this subsection (17) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois distributor.

(H) It is the intent of this subsection (17) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system it is necessary to create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes, vintages, and taste to find and create market niches sometimes too small for distributor or importing distributor business strategies. Limited self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(18) (A) A craft brewer licensee, who must also be either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer, may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 232,500 gallons of the exemption holder's beer to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the craft brewer licensee shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the Commission's website at least 45 days prior to action by the Commission. The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the craft brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that manufacturers more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum or produces any other alcoholic beverages; (3) shall not annually manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer; and (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500 gallons of its beer to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its manufacture of beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer in any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer or any other alcoholic beverage.

(E) The Commission shall issue rules and regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned distribution rights to an importing distributor or distributor, then the self-distribution exemption holder's distribution rights in the assigned territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to exceed 60 days.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of 1998 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following information:

(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;

(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;

(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the number of notices of violations issued to the Department of Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials.

(Source: P.A. 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-939, eff. 7-1-15; 98-941, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town, township, or county may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality, township, or county, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality, township, or county; provided that such township or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special use permit on any property owned by a conservation district organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that (i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the property is located, and (iii) the special use permit authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana, Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street, Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois State University in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer being utilized for fire protection purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public events and not related student activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall require the prior written approval of the Office of the Chancellor for the University campus where the event is located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event, or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources during events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. (blank), and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an individual or organization provided that such individual or organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the individual or organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by the Six Mile Regional Library District, provided that the delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the Six Mile Regional Library District and the delivery and sale is limited to a maximum of 6 library district events per year. The Six Mile Regional Library District shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the library district from all financial loss, damage, or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River, Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District, and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the Apple River Community Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple River Community Association from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago, Illinois Community College District No. 508.

(Source: P.A. 97-33, eff. 6-28-11; 97-45, eff. 6-28-11; 97-51, eff. 6-28-11; 97-167, eff. 7-22-11; 97-250, eff. 8-4-11; 97-395, eff. 8-16-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1166, eff. 3-1-13; 98-132, eff. 8-2-13; 98-201, eff. 8-9-13; 98-692, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1092, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-3-14.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-36)

Sec. 6-36. Homemade brewed beverages.

(a) No license or permit is required under this Act for the making of homemade brewed beverages or for the possession, transportation, or storage of homemade brewed beverages by any person 21 years of age or older, if all of the following apply:

(1) the person who makes the homemade brewed beverages receives no compensation;

(2) the homemade brewed beverages are is not sold or offered for sale; and

(3) the total quantity of homemade brewed beverages made, in a calendar year, by the person does not exceed 100 gallons if the household has only one person 21 years of age or older or 200 gallons if the household has 2 or more persons 21 years of age or older.

(b) A person who makes, possesses, transports, or stores homemade brewed beverages in compliance with the limitations specified in subsection (a) is not a brewer, craft brewer, wholesaler, retailer, or a manufacturer of beer for the purposes of this Act.

(c) Homemade brewed beverages made in compliance with the limitations specified in subsection (a) may be consumed by the person who made it and his or her family, neighbors, and friends at any private residence or other private location where the possession and consumption of alcohol are is permissible under this Act, local ordinances, and other applicable law, provided that the homemade brewed beverages are not made available for consumption by the general public.

(d) Homemade brewed beverages made in compliance with the limitations specified in subsection (a) may be used for purposes of a public exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or sampling with sampling sizes as authorized by Section 6-31, if the event is held at a private residence or at a location other than a retail licensed premises. If the public event is not held at a private residence, the event organizer shall obtain a homebrewer special event permit for each location, and is subject to the provisions in subsection (a) of Section 6-21. Homemade brewed beverages used for purposes described in this subsection (d), including the submission or consumption of the homemade brewed beverages, are not considered sold or offered for sale under this Act. A public exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or sampling with sampling sizes as authorized by Section 6-31 held by a licensee on a location other than a retail licensed premises may require an admission charge to the event, but no separate or additional fee may be charged for the consumption of a person's homemade brewed beverages at the public exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or sampling with sampling sizes as authorized by Section 6-31. Event admission charges that are collected may be partially used to provide prizes to makers of homemade brewed beverages, but the admission charges may not be divided in any fashion among the makers of the homemade brewed beverages who participate in the event. Homemade brewed beverages used for purposes described in this subsection (d) are not considered sold or offered for sale under this Act if a maker of homemade brewed beverages receives free event admission or discounted event admission in return for the maker's donation of the homemade brewed beverages to an event specified in this subsection (d) that collects event admission charges; free admission or discounted admission to the event is not considered compensation under this Act. No admission fee and no charge for the consumption of a person's homemade brewed beverage may be collected if the public exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or sampling with sampling sizes as authorized by Section 6-31 is held at a private residence.

(e) A person who is not a licensee under this Act may at a private residence, and a person who is a licensee under this Act may on the licensed premises, conduct, sponsor, or host a contest, competition, or other event for the exhibition, demonstration, judging, tasting, or sampling of homemade brewed beverages made in compliance with the limitations specified in subsection (a), if the person does not sell the homemade brewed beverages and, unless the person is the brewer of the homemade brewed beverages, does not acquire any ownership interest in the homemade brewed beverages. If the contest, competition, exhibition, demonstration, or judging is not held at a private residence, the consumption of the homemade brewed beverages is limited to qualified judges and stewards as defined by a national or international beer judging program, who are identified by the event organizer in advance of the contest, competition, exhibition, demonstration, or judging. Homemade brewed beverages used for the purposes described in this subsection (e), including the submission or consumption of the homemade brewed beverages, are not considered sold or offered for sale under this Act and any prize awarded at a contest or competition or as a result of an exhibition, demonstration, or judging is not considered compensation under this Act. An exhibition, demonstration, judging, contest, or competition held by a licensee on a licensed premises may require an admission charge to the event, but no separate or additional fee may be charged for the consumption of a person's homemade brewed beverage at the exhibition, demonstration, judging, contest, or competition. A portion of event admission charges that are collected may be used to provide prizes to makers of homemade brewed beverages, but the admission charges may not be divided in any fashion among the makers of the homemade brewed beverages who participate in the event. Homemade brewed beverages used for purposes described in this subsection (e) are not considered sold or offered for sale under this Act if a maker of homemade brewed beverages receives free event admission or discounted event admission in return for the maker's donation of the homemade brewed beverages to an event specified in this subsection (e) that collects event admission charges; free admission or discounted admission to the event is not considered compensation under this Act. No admission fee and no charge for the consumption of a person's homemade brewed beverage may be charged if the exhibition, demonstration, judging, contest, or competition is held at a private residence. The fact that a person is acting in a manner authorized by this Section is not, by itself, sufficient to constitute a public nuisance under Section 10-7 of this Act. If the contest, competition, or other event is held on licensed premises, the licensee may allow the homemade brewed beverages to be stored on the premises if the homemade brewed beverages are clearly identified and , kept separate from any alcohol beverages owned by the licensee. If the contest, competition, or other event is held on licensed premises, other provisions of this Act not inconsistent with this Section apply.

(f) A commercial enterprise engaged primarily in selling supplies and equipment to the public for use by homebrewers may manufacture homemade brewed beverages for the purpose of tasting the homemade brewed beverages at the location of the commercial enterprise, provided that the homemade brewed beverages are not sold or offered for sale. Homemade brewed beverages provided at a commercial enterprise for tasting under this subsection (f) shall be in compliance with Sections 6-16, 6-21, and 6-31 of this Act. A commercial enterprise engaged solely in selling supplies and equipment for use by homebrewers shall not be required to secure a license under this Act, however, such commercial enterprise shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(g) Homemade brewed beverages are not subject to Section 8-1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-55, eff. 7-5-13; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 340. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5, 5-5.2, 5A-5, and 5A-8 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.47 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013, (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, admission documents shall be submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

(Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.2)

Sec. 5-5.2. Payment.

(a) All nursing facilities that are grouped pursuant to Section 5-5.1 of this Act shall receive the same rate of payment for similar services.

(b) It shall be a matter of State policy that the Illinois Department shall utilize a uniform billing cycle throughout the State for the long-term care providers.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing services as provided under this Article shall no longer be applicable for bills payable for nursing services rendered on or after a new reimbursement system based on the Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) has been fully operationalized, which shall take effect for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.

(d) The new nursing services reimbursement methodology utilizing RUG-IV 48 grouper model, which shall be referred to as the RUGs reimbursement system, taking effect January 1, 2014, shall be based on the following:

(1) The methodology shall be resident-driven, facility-specific, and cost-based.

(2) Costs shall be annually rebased and case mix index quarterly updated. The nursing services methodology will be assigned to the Medicaid enrolled residents on record as of 30 days prior to the beginning of the rate period in the Department's Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS) as present on the last day of the second quarter preceding the rate period based upon the Assessment Reference Date of the Minimum Data Set (MDS).

(3) Regional wage adjustors based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and adjusters in effect on April 30, 2012 shall be included.

(4) Case mix index shall be assigned to each resident class based on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services staff time measurement study in effect on July 1, 2013, utilizing an index maximization approach.

(5) The pool of funds available for distribution by case mix and the base facility rate shall be determined using the formula contained in subsection (d-1).

(d-1) Calculation of base year Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate.

(1) Base rate spending pool shall be:

(A) The base year resident days which are calculated by multiplying the number of Medicaid residents in each nursing home as indicated in the MDS data defined in paragraph (4) by 365.

(B) Each facility's nursing component per diem in effect on July 1, 2012 shall be multiplied by subsection (A).

(C) Thirteen million is added to the product of subparagraph (A) and subparagraph (B) to adjust for the exclusion of nursing homes defined in paragraph (5).

(2) For each nursing home with Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4), weighted days adjusted for case mix and regional wage adjustment shall be calculated. For each home this calculation is the product of:

(A) Base year resident days as calculated in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).

(B) The nursing home's regional wage adjustor based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and adjustors in effect on April 30, 2012.

(C) Facility weighted case mix which is the number of Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4) multiplied by the associated case weight for the RUG-IV 48 grouper model using standard RUG-IV procedures for index maximization.

(D) The sum of the products calculated for each nursing home in subparagraphs (A) through (C) above shall be the base year case mix, rate adjusted weighted days.

(3) The Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate:

(A) on January 1, 2014 shall be the quotient of the paragraph (1) divided by the sum calculated under subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2); and

(B) on and after July 1, 2014, shall be the amount calculated under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3) plus $1.76.

(4) Minimum Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessments for Medicaid residents on the last day of the quarter used to establish the base rate.

(5) Nursing facilities designated as of July 1, 2012 by the Department as "Institutions for Mental Disease" shall be excluded from all calculations under this subsection. The data from these facilities shall not be used in the computations described in paragraphs (1) through (4) above to establish the base rate.

(e) Beginning July 1, 2014, the Department shall allocate funding in the amount up to $10,000,000 for per diem add-ons to the RUGS methodology for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014:

(1) $0.63 for each resident who scores in I4200 Alzheimer's Disease or I4800 non-Alzheimer's Dementia.

(2) $2.67 for each resident who scores either a "1" or "2" in any items S1200A through S1200I and also scores in RUG groups PA1, PA2, BA1, or BA2.

(e-1) (Blank).

(e-2) For dates of services beginning January 1, 2014, the RUG-IV nursing component per diem for a nursing home shall be the product of the statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate, the facility average case mix index, and the regional wage adjustor. Transition rates for services provided between January 1, 2014 and December 31, 2014 shall be as follows:

(1) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection (e-2) is greater than the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:

(A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012; plus

(B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 multiplied by 0.88.

(2) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection (e-2) is less than the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:

(A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012; plus

(B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012 multiplied by 0.13.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, reimbursement rates associated with the nursing or support components of the current nursing facility rate methodology shall not increase beyond the level effective May 1, 2011 until a new reimbursement system based on the RUGs IV 48 grouper model has been fully operationalized.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, for facilities not designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease", rates effective May 1, 2011 shall be adjusted as follows:

(1) Individual nursing rates for residents classified in RUG IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 during the quarter ending March 31, 2012 shall be reduced by 10%;

(2) Individual nursing rates for residents classified in all other RUG IV groups shall be reduced by 1.0%;

(3) Facility rates for the capital and support components shall be reduced by 1.7%.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, nursing facilities designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease" and "Institutions for Mental Disease" that are facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall have the nursing, socio-developmental, capital, and support components of their reimbursement rate effective May 1, 2011 reduced in total by 2.7%.

(i) On and after July 1, 2014, the reimbursement rates for the support component of the nursing facility rate for facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled or intermediate care facilities shall be the rate in effect on June 30, 2014 increased by 8.17%.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, Article 6, Section 6-240, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 11, Section 11-35, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-727, eff. 7-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-5)

Sec. 5A-5. Notice; penalty; maintenance of records.

(a) The Illinois Department shall send a notice of assessment to every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article. The notice of assessment shall notify the hospital of its assessment and shall be sent after receipt by the Department of notification from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that the payment methodologies required under this Article and, if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 have been approved. The notice shall be on a form prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the following:

(1) The name of the hospital provider.

(2) The address of the hospital provider's principal place of business from which the provider engages in the occupation of hospital provider in this State, and the name and address of each hospital operated, conducted, or maintained by the provider in this State.

(3) The occupied bed days, occupied bed days less Medicare days, adjusted gross hospital revenue, or outpatient gross revenue of the hospital provider (whichever is applicable), the amount of assessment imposed under Section 5A-2 for the State fiscal year for which the notice is sent, and the amount of each installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Other reasonable information as determined by the Illinois Department.

(b) If a hospital provider conducts, operates, or maintains more than one hospital licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health, the provider shall pay the assessment for each hospital separately.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in the case of a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in respect of which the person is subject to assessment under this Article as a hospital provider, the assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in the year during which the provider conducts, operates, or maintains the hospital and the denominator of which is 365. Immediately upon ceasing to conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital, the person shall pay the assessment for the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a hospital, upon notice by the Illinois Department, shall pay the assessment computed under Section 5A-2 and subsection (e) in installments on the due dates stated in the notice and on the regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year occurring after the due dates of the initial notice.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for State fiscal years 2009 through 2018 2015, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2005, the assessment for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical occupied bed days for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department. Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012, and for State fiscal years 2013 through 2018, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2009, the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical gross outpatient revenue for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois Department.

(f) Every hospital provider subject to assessment under this Article shall keep sufficient records to permit the determination of adjusted gross hospital revenue for the hospital's fiscal year. All such records shall be kept in the English language and shall, at all times during regular business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and employees.

(g) The Illinois Department may, by rule, provide a hospital provider a reasonable opportunity to request a clarification or correction of any clerical or computational errors contained in the calculation of its assessment, but such corrections shall not extend to updating the cost report information used to calculate the assessment.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-8)

Sec. 5A-8. Hospital Provider Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Hospital Provider Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving moneys in accordance with Section 5A-6 and disbursing moneys only for the following purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(1) For making payments to hospitals as required under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Illinois Department from hospitals or hospital providers through error or mistake in performing the activities authorized under this Code.

(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Illinois Department or its agent in performing activities under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government for payments from this Fund which are required to be paid by State warrant.

(5) For making transfers, as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of moneys to be deposited into the Fund.

(6) For making transfers to any other fund in the State treasury, but transfers made under this paragraph (6) shall not exceed the amount transferred previously from that other fund into the Hospital Provider Fund plus any interest that would have been earned by that fund on the monies that had been transferred.

(6.5) For making transfers to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, except that transfers made under this paragraph (6.5) shall not exceed $60,000,000 in the aggregate.

(7) For making transfers not exceeding the following amounts, related to State fiscal years 2013 through 2018 in each State fiscal year during which an assessment is imposed pursuant to Section 5A-2, to the following designated funds:

Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust

Fund..............................$20,000,000

Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$30,000,000

General Revenue Fund.................$80,000,000.

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.1) (Blank).

(7.5) (Blank).

(7.8) (Blank).

(7.9) (Blank).

(7.10) For State fiscal year 2014, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund.....$100,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

The additional amount of transfers in this paragraph (7.10), authorized by Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall be made within 10 State business days after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. That authority shall remain in effect even if Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly does not become law until State fiscal year 2015.

(7.10a) For State fiscal years 2015 through 2018, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts related to each State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund ....$50,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.11) (Blank).

(7.12) For State fiscal year 2013, for increasing by 21/365ths the transfer of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$2,870,000

Since the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services approval of the assessment authorized under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2, received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and the payment methodologies to hospitals required under Section 5A-12.4 was not received by the Department until State fiscal year 2014 and since the Department made retroactive payments during State fiscal year 2014 related to the referenced period of June 2012, the transfer authority granted in this paragraph (7.12) is extended through the date that is 10 State business days after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(8) For making refunds to hospital providers pursuant to Section 5A-10.

(9) For making payment to capitated managed care organizations as described in subsections (s) and (t) of Section 5A-12.2 of this Code.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers authorized under paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection, shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois Department from the hospital provider assessment imposed by this Article.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with the administration of this Article.

(3.5) As applicable, proceeds from surety bond payments payable to the Department as referenced in subsection (s) of Section 5A-12.2 of this Code.

(4) Moneys transferred from another fund in the State treasury.

(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.47)

Sec. 12-4.47. Continued eligibility for developmental disability services for dependents of military service members.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Dependent" means a spouse, birth child, adopted child, or stepchild of a military service member.

"Legal resident" means a person who maintains Illinois as his or her principal establishment, home of record, or permanent home and to where, whenever absent due to military obligation, he or she intends to return.

"Military service" means service in the armed forces or armed forces reserves of the United States, or membership in the Illinois National Guard.

"Military service member" means a person who is currently in military service or who has separated from military service in the previous 18 months through either retirement or military separation.

(b) A dependent, who is a legal resident of the State, having previously been determined to be eligible for developmental disability services provided by the Department of Human Services, including waiver services provided under the home and community based services programs authorized under Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act, shall retain eligibility for those developmental disability services as long as he or she remains a legal resident of the State, regardless of having left the State due to the military service member's military assignment outside the State, and as long as he or she is otherwise eligible for such services.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall permit a dependent who resides out-of-state to be placed on the waiting list for developmental disabilities services if the dependent left the State due to the military service member's military assignment outside the State, is otherwise eligible for those services, and furnishes the following:

(1) a copy of the military service member's DD-214 or other equivalent discharge paperwork; and

(2) proof of the military service member's legal residence in the State, as prescribed by the Department.

(d) For dependents who received developmental disability services and who left the State due to the military service member's military assignment outside the State, upon the dependent's return to the State and when a request for services is made, the Department shall:

(1) determine the dependent's eligibility for services, which may include a request for waiver services provided under the home and community based services programs authorized under Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act;

(2) provide to the dependent notification of the determination of eligibility for services, which includes notification of a denial of services if applicable;

(3) provide the dependent an opportunity to contest the Department's determination through the appeals processes established by the Department; and

(4) resume services if the individual remains eligible.

(e) As a condition of continued eligibility for services under subsection (b) of this Section, a dependent must inform the Department of his or her current address and provide updates as requested by the Department.

(f) No payment pursuant to this Section shall be made for developmental disability services authorized under the Illinois Title XIX State Plan and provided outside the State unless those services satisfy the conditions specified in 42 CFR 431.52. No payment pursuant to this Section shall be made for home and community based services provided outside the State of Illinois.

(g) The Department shall request a waiver from the appropriate federal agency if a waiver is necessary to implement the provisions of this Section.

(h) The Department may adopt rules necessary to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-1000, eff. 8-18-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.48)

Sec. 12-4.48 12-4.47. Long-Term Services and Supports Disparities Task Force.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall establish a Long-Term Services and Supports Disparities Task Force.

(b) Members of the Task Force shall be appointed by the Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and shall include representatives of the following agencies, organizations, or groups:

(1) The Governor's office.

(2) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(3) The Department of Human Services.

(4) The Department on Aging.

(5) The Department of Human Rights.

(6) Area Agencies on Aging.

(7) The Department of Public Health.

(8) Managed Care Plans.

(9) The for-profit urban nursing home or assisted living industry.

(10) The for-profit rural nursing home or assisted living industry.

(11) The not-for-profit nursing home or assisted living industry.

(12) The home care association or home care industry.

(13) The adult day care association or adult day care industry.

(14) An association representing workers who provide long-term services and supports.

(15) A representative of providers that serve the predominantly ethnic minority populations.

(16) Case Management Organizations.

(17) Three consumer representatives which may include a consumer of long-term services and supports or an individual who advocates for such consumers. For purposes of this provision, "consumer representative" means a person who is not an elected official and who has no financial interest in a health or long-term care delivery system.

(c) The Task Force shall not meet unless all consumer representative positions are filled. The Task Force shall reflect diversity in race, ethnicity, and gender.

(d) The Chair of the Task Force shall be appointed by the Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(e) The Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assign appropriate staff and resources to support the efforts of the Task Force. The Task Force shall meet as often as necessary but not less than 4 times per calendar year.

(f) The Task Force shall promote and facilitate communication, coordination, and collaboration among relevant State agencies and communities of color, limited English-speaking communities, and the private and public entities providing services to those communities.

(g) The Task Force shall do all of the following:

(1) Document the number and types of Long-Term Services and Supports (LTSS) providers in the State and the number of clients served in each setting.

(2) Document the number and racial profiles of residents using LTSS, including, but not limited to, residential nursing facilities, assisted living facilities, adult day care, home health services, and other home and community based long-term care services.

(3) Document the number and profiles of family or informal caregivers who provide care for minority elders.

(4) Compare data over multiple years to identify trends in the delivery of LTSS for each racial or ethnic category including: Alaskan Native or American Indian, Asian or Pacific Islander, black or African American, Hispanic, or white.

(5) Identify any racial disparities in the provision of care in various LTSS settings and determine factors that might influence the disparities found.

(6) Identify any disparities uniquely experienced in metropolitan or rural areas and make recommendations to address these areas.

(7) Assess whether the LTSS industry, including managed care plans and independent providers, is equipped to offer culturally sensitive, competent, and linguistically appropriate care to meet the needs of a diverse aging population and their informal and formal caregivers.

(8) Consider whether to recommend that the State require all home and community based services as a condition of licensure to report data similar to that gathered under the Minimum Data Set and required when a new resident is admitted to a nursing home.

(9) Identify and prioritize recommendations for actions to be taken by the State to address disparity issues identified in the course of these studies.

(10) Monitor the progress of the State in eliminating racial disparities in the delivery of LTSS.

(h) The Task Force shall conduct public hearings, inquiries, studies, and other forms of information gathering to identify how the actions of State government contribute to or reduce racial disparities in long-term care settings.

(i) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Annual reports shall be issued every year thereafter and shall include documentation of progress made to eliminate disparities in long-term care service settings.

(Source: P.A. 98-825, eff. 8-1-14; revised 10-14-14.)

Section 345. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended by changing Sections 7.5 and 15 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Registry.

(a) To protect individuals receiving in-home and community-based services, the Department on Aging shall establish an Adult Protective Service Registry that will be hosted by the Department of Public Health on its website effective January 1, 2015, and, if practicable, shall propose rules for the Registry by January 1, 2015.

(a-5) The Registry shall identify caregivers against whom a verified and substantiated finding was made under this Act of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

The information in the Registry shall be confidential except as specifically authorized in this Act and shall not be deemed a public record.

(a-10) Reporting to the Registry. The Department on Aging shall report to the Registry the identity of the caregiver when a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult under this Act is made against a caregiver, and all appeals, challenges, and reviews, if any, have been completed and a finding for placement on the Registry has been sustained or upheld.

A finding against a caregiver that is placed in the Registry shall preclude that caregiver from providing direct care, as defined in this Section, in a position with or that is regulated by or paid with public funds from the Department on Aging, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, or the Department of Public Health or with an entity or provider licensed, certified, or regulated by or paid with public funds from any of these State agencies.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Direct care" includes, but is not limited to, direct access to a person aged 60 or older or to an adult with disabilities aged 18 through 59, his or her living quarters, or his or her personal, financial, or medical records for the purpose of providing nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, other personal needs and activities of daily living or instrumental activities of daily living, or assistance with financial transactions.

"Participant" means an individual who uses the services of an in-home care program funded through the Department on Aging, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, or the Department of Public Health.

(c) Access to and use of the Registry. Access to the Registry shall be limited to the Department on Aging, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health and providers of direct care as described in subsection (a-10) of this Section. These State agencies and providers shall not hire, compensate either directly or on behalf of a participant, or utilize the services of any person seeking to provide direct care without first conducting an online check of whether the person has been placed on the Registry. These State agencies and providers shall maintain a copy of the results of the online check to demonstrate compliance with this requirement. These State agencies and providers are prohibited from retaining, hiring, compensating either directly or on behalf of a participant, or utilizing the services of a person to provide direct care if the online check of the person reveals a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation that has been placed on the Registry or when the State agencies or providers otherwise gain knowledge of such placement on the Registry. Failure to comply with this requirement may subject such a provider to corrective action by the appropriate regulatory agency or other lawful remedies provided under the applicable licensure, certification, or regulatory laws and rules.

(d) Notice to caregiver. The Department on Aging shall establish rules concerning notice to the caregiver in cases of a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation against him or her that may make him or her eligible for placement on the Registry.

(e) Notification to eligible adults, guardians, or agents. As part of its investigation, the Department on Aging shall notify an eligible adult, or an eligible adult's guardian or agent, that his or her caregiver's name may be placed on the Registry based on a finding as described in subsection (a-10) (a) of this Section.

(f) Notification to employer. The Department on Aging shall notify the appropriate State agency or provider of direct care, as described in subsection (a-10), when there is a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation in a case under this Act that is reported on the Registry and that involves one of its caregivers. That State agency or provider is prohibited from retaining or compensating that individual in a position that involves direct care, and if there is an imminent risk of danger to the victim or an imminent risk of misuse of personal, medical, or financial information, that caregiver shall immediately be barred from providing direct care to the victim pending the outcome of any challenge, appeal, criminal prosecution, or other type of collateral action.

(g) Challenges and appeals. The Department on Aging shall establish, by rule, procedures concerning challenges and appeals to placement on the Registry pursuant to legislative intent. The Department shall not make any report to the Registry pending challenges or appeals.

(h) Caregiver's rights to collateral action. The Department on Aging shall not make any report to the Registry if a caregiver notifies the Department in writing that he or she is formally challenging an adverse employment action resulting from a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or by another means which seeks to enforce the caregiver's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against a caregiver as a result of such a finding is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement after that caregiver's name has already been sent to the Registry, the caregiver's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(i) Removal from Registry. At any time after a report to the Registry, but no more than once in each successive 3-year period thereafter, for a maximum of 3 such requests, a caregiver may request removal of his or her name from the Registry in relationship to a single incident. The caregiver shall bear the burden of establishing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of his or her name from the Registry is in the public interest. Upon receiving such a request, the Department on Aging shall conduct an investigation and consider any evidentiary material provided. The Department shall issue a decision either granting or denying removal to the caregiver and report it to the Registry. The Department shall, by rule, establish standards and a process for requesting the removal of a name from the Registry.

(j) Referral of Registry reports to health care facilities. In the event an eligible adult receiving services from a provider agency changes his or her residence from a domestic living situation to that of a health care or long term care facility, the provider agency shall use reasonable efforts to promptly inform the facility and the appropriate Regional Long Term Care Ombudsman about any Registry reports relating to the eligible adult. For purposes of this Section, a health care or long term care facility includes, but is not limited to, any residential facility licensed, certified, or regulated by the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services.

(k) The Department on Aging and its employees and agents shall have immunity, except for intentional willful and wanton misconduct, from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, for reporting information to and maintaining the Registry.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(320 ILCS 20/15)

Sec. 15. Fatality Review Teams.

(a) State policy.

(1) Both the State and the community maintain a commitment to preventing the abuse, neglect, and financial exploitation of at-risk adults. This includes a charge to bring perpetrators of crimes against at-risk adults to justice and prevent untimely deaths in the community.

(2) When an at-risk adult dies, the response to the death by the community, law enforcement, and the State must include an accurate and complete determination of the cause of death, and the development and implementation of measures to prevent future deaths from similar causes.

(3) Multidisciplinary and multi-agency reviews of deaths can assist the State and counties in developing a greater understanding of the incidence and causes of premature deaths and the methods for preventing those deaths, improving methods for investigating deaths, and identifying gaps in services to at-risk adults.

(4) Access to information regarding the deceased person and his or her family by multidisciplinary and multi-agency fatality review teams is necessary in order to fulfill their purposes and duties.

(a-5) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Advisory Council" means the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council.

"Review Team" means a regional interagency fatality review team.

(b) The Director, in consultation with the Advisory Council, law enforcement, and other professionals who work in the fields of investigating, treating, or preventing abuse or neglect of at-risk adults, shall appoint members to a minimum of one review team in each of the Department's planning and service areas. Each member of a review team shall be appointed for a 2-year term and shall be eligible for reappointment upon the expiration of the term. A review team's purpose in conducting review of at-risk adult deaths is: (i) to assist local agencies in identifying and reviewing suspicious deaths of adult victims of alleged, suspected, or substantiated abuse or neglect in domestic living situations; (ii) to facilitate communications between officials responsible for autopsies and inquests and persons involved in reporting or investigating alleged or suspected cases of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of at-risk adults and persons involved in providing services to at-risk adults; (iii) to evaluate means by which the death might have been prevented; and (iv) to report its findings to the appropriate agencies and the Advisory Council and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of at-risk adult deaths caused by abuse and neglect and that may help to improve the investigations of deaths of at-risk adults and increase prosecutions, if appropriate.

(b-5) Each such team shall be composed of representatives of entities and individuals including, but not limited to:

(1) the Department on Aging;

(2) coroners or medical examiners (or both);

(3) State's Attorneys;

(4) local police departments;

(5) forensic units;

(6) local health departments;

(7) a social service or health care agency that provides services to persons with mental illness, in a program whose accreditation to provide such services is recognized by the Division of Mental Health within the Department of Human Services;

(8) a social service or health care agency that provides services to persons with developmental disabilities, in a program whose accreditation to provide such services is recognized by the Division of Developmental Disabilities within the Department of Human Services;

(9) a local hospital, trauma center, or provider of emergency medicine;

(10) providers of services for eligible adults in domestic living situations; and

(11) a physician, psychiatrist, or other health care provider knowledgeable about abuse and neglect of at-risk adults.

(c) A review team shall review cases of deaths of at-risk adults occurring in its planning and service area (i) involving blunt force trauma or an undetermined manner or suspicious cause of death; , (ii) if requested by the deceased's attending physician or an emergency room physician; , (iii) upon referral by a health care provider; , (iv) upon referral by a coroner or medical examiner; , (v) constituting an open or closed case from an adult protective services agency, law enforcement agency, State's Attorney's office, or the Department of Human Services' Office of the Inspector General that involves alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation; or (vi) upon referral by a law enforcement agency or State's Attorney's office. If such a death occurs in a planning and service area where a review team has not yet been established, the Director shall request that the Advisory Council or another review team review that death. A team may also review deaths of at-risk adults if the alleged abuse or neglect occurred while the person was residing in a domestic living situation.

A review team shall meet not less than 6 times a year to discuss cases for its possible review. Each review team, with the advice and consent of the Department, shall establish criteria to be used in discussing cases of alleged, suspected, or substantiated abuse or neglect for review and shall conduct its activities in accordance with any applicable policies and procedures established by the Department.

(c-5) The Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council, consisting of one member from each review team in Illinois, shall be the coordinating and oversight body for review teams and activities in Illinois. The Director may appoint to the Advisory Council any ex-officio members deemed necessary. Persons with expertise needed by the Advisory Council may be invited to meetings. The Advisory Council must select from its members a chairperson and a vice-chairperson, each to serve a 2-year term. The chairperson or vice-chairperson may be selected to serve additional, subsequent terms. The Advisory Council must meet at least 4 times during each calendar year.

The Department may provide or arrange for the staff support necessary for the Advisory Council to carry out its duties. The Director, in cooperation and consultation with the Advisory Council, shall appoint, reappoint, and remove review team members.

The Advisory Council has, but is not limited to, the following duties:

(1) To serve as the voice of review teams in Illinois.

(2) To oversee the review teams in order to ensure that the review teams' work is coordinated and in compliance with State statutes and the operating protocol.

(3) To ensure that the data, results, findings, and recommendations of the review teams are adequately used in a timely manner to make any necessary changes to the policies, procedures, and State statutes in order to protect at-risk adults.

(4) To collaborate with the Department in order to develop any legislation needed to prevent unnecessary deaths of at-risk adults.

(5) To ensure that the review teams' review processes are standardized in order to convey data, findings, and recommendations in a usable format.

(6) To serve as a link with review teams throughout the country and to participate in national review team activities.

(7) To provide the review teams with the most current information and practices concerning at-risk adult death review and related topics.

(8) To perform any other functions necessary to enhance the capability of the review teams to reduce and prevent at-risk adult fatalities.

The Advisory Council may prepare an annual report, in consultation with the Department, using aggregate data gathered by review teams and using the review teams' recommendations to develop education, prevention, prosecution, or other strategies designed to improve the coordination of services for at-risk adults and their families.

In any instance where a review team does not operate in accordance with established protocol, the Director, in consultation and cooperation with the Advisory Council, must take any necessary actions to bring the review team into compliance with the protocol.

(d) Any document or oral or written communication shared within or produced by the review team relating to a case discussed or reviewed by the review team is confidential and is not admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding, except for use by a State's Attorney's office in prosecuting a criminal case against a caregiver. Those records and information are, however, subject to discovery or subpoena, and are admissible as evidence, to the extent they are otherwise available to the public.

Any document or oral or written communication provided to a review team by an individual or entity, and created by that individual or entity solely for the use of the review team, is confidential, is not subject to disclosure to or discoverable by another party, and is not admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding, except for use by a State's Attorney's office in prosecuting a criminal case against a caregiver. Those records and information are, however, subject to discovery or subpoena, and are admissible as evidence, to the extent they are otherwise available to the public.

Each entity or individual represented on the fatality review team may share with other members of the team information in the entity's or individual's possession concerning the decedent who is the subject of the review or concerning any person who was in contact with the decedent, as well as any other information deemed by the entity or individual to be pertinent to the review. Any such information shared by an entity or individual with other members of the review team is confidential. The intent of this paragraph is to permit the disclosure to members of the review team of any information deemed confidential or privileged or prohibited from disclosure by any other provision of law. Release of confidential communication between domestic violence advocates and a domestic violence victim shall follow subsection (d) of Section 227 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 which allows for the waiver of privilege afforded to guardians, executors, or administrators of the estate of the domestic violence victim. This provision relating to the release of confidential communication between domestic violence advocates and a domestic violence victim shall exclude adult protective service providers.

A coroner's or medical examiner's office may share with the review team medical records that have been made available to the coroner's or medical examiner's office in connection with that office's investigation of a death.

Members of a review team and the Advisory Council are not subject to examination, in any civil or criminal proceeding, concerning information presented to members of the review team or the Advisory Council or opinions formed by members of the review team or the Advisory Council based on that information. A person may, however, be examined concerning information provided to a review team or the Advisory Council.

(d-5) Meetings of the review teams and the Advisory Council may be closed to the public under the Open Meetings Act. Records and information provided to a review team and the Advisory Council, and records maintained by a team or the Advisory Council, are exempt from release under the Freedom of Information Act.

(e) A review team's recommendation in relation to a case discussed or reviewed by the review team, including, but not limited to, a recommendation concerning an investigation or prosecution, may be disclosed by the review team upon the completion of its review and at the discretion of a majority of its members who reviewed the case.

(e-5) The State shall indemnify and hold harmless members of a review team and the Advisory Council for all their acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct arising out of the scope of their service on the review team or Advisory Council, except those involving willful or wanton misconduct. The method of providing indemnification shall be as provided in the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(f) The Department, in consultation with coroners, medical examiners, and law enforcement agencies, shall use aggregate data gathered by and recommendations from the Advisory Council and the review teams to create an annual report and may use those data and recommendations to develop education, prevention, prosecution, or other strategies designed to improve the coordination of services for at-risk adults and their families. The Department or other State or county agency, in consultation with coroners, medical examiners, and law enforcement agencies, also may use aggregate data gathered by the review teams to create a database of at-risk individuals.

(g) The Department shall adopt such rules and regulations as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 350. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 7.8 and 7.14 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/7.8) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.8)

Sec. 7.8. Upon receiving an oral or written report of suspected child abuse or neglect, the Department shall immediately notify, either orally or electronically, the Child Protective Service Unit of a previous report concerning a subject of the present report or other pertinent information. In addition, upon satisfactory identification procedures, to be established by Department regulation, any person authorized to have access to records under Section 11.1 relating to child abuse and neglect may request and shall be immediately provided the information requested in accordance with this Act. However, no information shall be released unless it prominently states the report is "indicated", and only information from "indicated" reports shall be released, except that information concerning pending reports may be released pursuant to Sections 7.14 and 7.22 of this Act to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and to any person authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3) and (11) of Section 11.1. In addition, State's Attorneys are authorized to receive unfounded reports for prosecution purposes related to the transmission of false reports of child abuse or neglect in violation of subsection (a), paragraph (7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and attorneys and guardians ad litem appointed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall receive the reports set forth in Section 7.14 of this Act in conformance with paragraph (19) of Section 11.1 and Section 7.14 of this Act. The names and other identifying data and the dates and the circumstances of any persons requesting or receiving information from the central register shall be entered in the register record.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-807, eff. 8-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.14) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.14)

Sec. 7.14. All reports in the central register shall be classified in one of three categories: "indicated", "unfounded" or "undetermined", as the case may be. Prior to classifying the report, the person making the classification shall determine whether the child named in the report is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If the child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department intends to classify the report as indicated, the Department shall, within 45 days of classification of the report, transmit a copy of the report to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed for the child under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If the child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department intends to classify the report as unfounded, the Department shall, within 45 days of deciding its intent to classify the report as unfounded, transmit a copy of the report and written notice of the Department's intent to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed for the child under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. All information identifying the subjects of an unfounded report shall be expunged from the register forthwith, except as provided in Section 7.7. Unfounded reports may only be made available to the Child Protective Service Unit when investigating a subsequent report of suspected abuse or maltreatment involving a child named in the unfounded report; and to the subject of the report, provided the Department has not expunged the file in accordance with Section 7.7. The Child Protective Service Unit shall not indicate the subsequent report solely based upon the existence of the prior unfounded report or reports. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, an unfounded report shall not be admissible in any judicial or administrative proceeding or action. Identifying information on all other records shall be removed from the register no later than 5 years after the report is indicated. However, if another report is received involving the same child, his sibling or offspring, or a child in the care of the persons responsible for the child's welfare, or involving the same alleged offender, the identifying information may be maintained in the register until 5 years after the subsequent case or report is closed.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, identifying information in indicated reports involving serious physical injury to a child as defined by the Department in rules, may be retained longer than 5 years after the report is indicated or after the subsequent case or report is closed, and may not be removed from the register except as provided by the Department in rules. Identifying information in indicated reports involving sexual penetration of a child, sexual molestation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, torture of a child, or the death of a child, as defined by the Department in rules, shall be retained for a period of not less than 50 years after the report is indicated or after the subsequent case or report is closed.

For purposes of this Section "child" includes an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-453, eff. 8-16-13; 98-807, eff. 8-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)

Section 355. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Sections 4, 5, 6.2, 7.2, 9.4, and 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1304)

Sec. 4. Sale of items containing lead-bearing substance. No person shall sell, have, offer for sale, or transfer toys, furniture, clothing, accessories, jewelry, decorative objects, edible items, candy, food, dietary supplements, or other articles used by or intended to be chewable by children that contain contains a lead-bearing substance.

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(410 ILCS 45/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1305)

Sec. 5. Sale of objects containing lead-bearing substance. No person shall sell or transfer or offer for sale or transfer any fixtures or other objects intended to be used, installed, or located in or upon any surface of a regulated facility, that contain contains a lead-bearing substance and that, in the ordinary course of use, are accessible to or chewable by children.

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)

Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.

(a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6 years of age or younger shall test those children for lead poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high risk by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as low risk by the Department shall be evaluated for risk by the Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed by the Department and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in accordance with rules adopted by the Department.

(b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care facility serving children 6 years of age or younger, including, but not limited to, health departments, hospitals, clinics, and health maintenance organizations approved, registered, or licensed by the Department, shall take the appropriate steps to ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.

(c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may also be tested by physicians or health care providers, in accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and health care providers shall also evaluate children for lead poisoning in conjunction with the school health examination, as required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgement of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health examinations, or physician assistant who has been delegated to perform health examinations by the supervising physician, the child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(410 ILCS 45/7.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1307.2)

Sec. 7.2. Fees; reimbursement; Lead Poisoning Screening, Prevention, and Abatement Fund.

(a) The Department may establish fees according to a reasonable fee structure to cover the cost of providing a testing service for laboratory analysis of blood lead tests and any necessary follow-up. Fees collected from the Department's testing service shall be placed in a special fund in the State treasury known as the Lead Poisoning Screening, Prevention, and Abatement Fund. Other State and federal funds for expenses related to lead poisoning screening, follow-up, treatment, and abatement programs may also be placed in the Fund. Moneys shall be appropriated from the Fund to the Department for the implementation and enforcement of this Act.

(b) The Department shall certify, as required by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, any non-reimbursed public expenditures for all approved lead testing and evaluation activities for Medicaid-eligible children expended by the Department from the non-federal portion of funds, including, but not limited to, assessment of home, physical, and family environments; comprehensive environmental lead investigation; and laboratory services for Medicaid-eligible children. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide appropriate Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Codes for all billable services and claim federal financial participation for the properly certified public expenditures submitted to it by the Department. Any federal financial participation revenue received pursuant to this Act shall be deposited in the Lead Poisoning Screening, Prevention, and Abatement Fund.

(c) Any delegate agency may establish fees, according to a reasonable fee structure, to cover the costs of drawing blood for blood lead testing and evaluation and any necessary follow-up.

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(410 ILCS 45/9.4)

Sec. 9.4. Owner's obligation to post notice. The owner of a regulated facility who has received a mitigation notice under Section 9 of this Act shall post notices at all entrances to the regulated facility specifying the identified lead hazards. The posted notices, drafted by the Department and sent to the property owner with the notification of lead hazards, shall indicate the following:

(1) that a unit or units in the building have been found to have lead hazards;

(2) that other units in the building may have lead hazards;

(3) that the Department recommends that children 6 years of age or younger receive a blood lead testing;

(4) where to seek further information; and

(5) whether 2 or more mitigation notices have been issued for the regulated facility within a 5-year period of time.

Once the owner has complied with a mitigation notice or mitigation order issued by the Department, the owner may remove the notices posted pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(410 ILCS 45/10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1310)

Sec. 10. The Department, or representative of a unit of local government or health department approved by the Department for this purpose, shall report any violation of this Act to the State's Attorney of the county in which the regulated facility is located. The State's Attorney has the authority to charge the owner with a Class A misdemeanor, and who shall take additional measures to ensure that rent is withheld from the owner by the occupants of the dwelling units affected, until the mitigation requirements under Section 9 of this Act are complied with.

No tenant shall be evicted because rent is withheld under the provisions of this Act, or because of any action required of the owner of the regulated facility as a result of enforcement of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 360. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Sections 9 and 9.7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7309)

Sec. 9. (1) No person may disclose or be compelled to disclose HIV-related information, except to the following persons:

(a) The subject of an HIV test or the subject's legally authorized representative. A physician may notify the spouse of the test subject, if the test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the Department, provided that the physician has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the patient to notify the spouse or that, a reasonable time after the patient has agreed to make the notification, the physician has reason to believe that the patient has not provided the notification. This paragraph shall not create a duty or obligation under which a physician must notify the spouse of the test results, nor shall such duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any disclosure or non-disclosure of a test result to a spouse by a physician acting in good faith under this paragraph. For the purpose of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of any physician acting under this paragraph shall be presumed.

(b) Any person designated in a legally effective authorization for release of the HIV-related information executed by the subject of the HIV-related information or the subject's legally authorized representative.

(c) An authorized agent or employee of a health facility or health care provider if the health facility or health care provider itself is authorized to obtain the test results, the agent or employee provides patient care or handles or processes specimens of body fluids or tissues, and the agent or employee has a need to know such information.

(d) The Department and local health authorities serving a population of over 1,000,000 residents or other local health authorities as designated by the Department, in accordance with rules for reporting, preventing, and controlling the spread of disease and the conduct of public health surveillance, public health investigations, and public health interventions, as otherwise provided by State law. The Department, local health authorities, and authorized representatives shall not disclose HIV test results and HIV-related information, publicly or in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, or agency. HIV test results and HIV-related information shall be protected from disclosure in accordance with the provisions of Sections 8-2101 through 8-2105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) A health facility, health care provider, or health care professional which procures, processes, distributes or uses: (i) a human body part from a deceased person with respect to medical information regarding that person; or (ii) semen provided prior to the effective date of this Act for the purpose of artificial insemination.

(f) Health facility staff committees for the purposes of conducting program monitoring, program evaluation or service reviews.

(f-5) A court in accordance with the provisions of Section 12-5.01 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Any health care provider, health care professional, or employee of a health facility, and any firefighter or EMR, EMT, A-EMT, paramedic, PHRN, or EMT-I, involved in an accidental direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his medical judgment.

(i) Any law enforcement officer, as defined in subsection (c) of Section 7, involved in the line of duty in a direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his medical judgment.

(j) A temporary caretaker of a child taken into temporary protective custody by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to Section 5 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(k) In the case of a minor under 18 years of age whose test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the Department, the health care professional who ordered the test shall make a reasonable effort to notify the minor's parent or legal guardian if, in the professional judgment of the health care professional, notification would be in the best interest of the child and the health care professional has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the minor to notify the parent or legal guardian or a reasonable time after the minor has agreed to notify the parent or legal guardian, the health care professional has reason to believe that the minor has not made the notification. This subsection shall not create a duty or obligation under which a health care professional must notify the minor's parent or legal guardian of the test results, nor shall a duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any notification or non-notification of a minor's test result by a health care professional acting in good faith under this subsection. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, the good faith of any health care professional acting under this subsection shall be presumed.

(2) All information and records held by a State agency, local health authority, or health oversight agency pertaining to HIV-related information shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. The information and records shall not be released or made public by the State agency, local health authority, or health oversight agency, shall not be admissible as evidence nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency, or person, and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except under the following circumstances:

(A) when made with the written consent of all persons to whom the information pertains; or

(B) when authorized by Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

Disclosure shall be limited to those who have a need to know the information, and no additional disclosures may be made.

(Source: P.A. 97-1046, eff. 8-21-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(410 ILCS 305/9.7)

Sec. 9.7. Record locator service to support HIE. Section 9.9 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities and Confidentiality Act is herein incorporated by reference.

(Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 365. The Health Care Professional Credentials Data Collection Act is amended by changing Section 51 as follows:

(410 ILCS 517/51)

Sec. 51. Licensure records. Licensure records designated confidential and considered expunged for reporting purposes by the licensee under Section 2105-207 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois are not reportable under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-816, eff. 8-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 370. The Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act is amended by changing Section 3.21 as follows:

(410 ILCS 620/3.21) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 503.21)

Sec. 3.21. Except as authorized by this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Dental Practice Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, or Section 22-30 of the School Code, to sell or dispense a prescription drug without a prescription.

(Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 375. The Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 3.06 and setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 3.4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 625/3.06)

Sec. 3.06. Food handler training; restaurants.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "restaurant" means any business that is primarily engaged in the sale of ready-to-eat food for immediate consumption. "Primarily engaged" means having sales of ready-to-eat food for immediate consumption comprising at least 51% of the total sales, excluding the sale of liquor.

(b) Unless otherwise provided, all food handlers employed by a restaurant, other than someone holding a food service sanitation manager certificate, must receive or obtain American National Standards Institute-accredited training in basic safe food handling principles within 30 days after employment and every 3 years thereafter. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 3.05 of this Act, food handlers employed in nursing homes, licensed day care homes and facilities, hospitals, schools, and long-term care facilities must renew their training every 3 years. There is no limit to how many times an employee may take the training. The training indicated in subsections (e) and (f) of this Section is transferable between employers, but not individuals. The training indicated in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section is not transferable between individuals or employers. Proof that a food handler has been trained must be available upon reasonable request by a State or local health department inspector and may be provided electronically.

(c) If a business with an internal training program is approved in another state prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the business's training program and assessment shall be automatically approved by the Department upon the business providing proof that the program is approved in said state.

(d) The Department shall approve the training program of any multi-state business with a plan that follows the guidelines in subsection (b) of Section 3.05 of this Act and is on file with the Department by May 15, 2013.

(e) If an entity uses an American National Standards Institute food handler training accredited program, that training program shall be automatically approved by the Department.

(f) Certified local health departments in counties serving jurisdictions with a population of 100,000 or less, as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population, may have a training program. The training program must meet the requirements of Section 3.05(b) and be approved by the Department. This Section notwithstanding, certified local health departments in the following counties may have a training program:

(1) a county with a population of 677,560 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(2) a county with a population of 308,760 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(3) a county with a population of 515,269 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(4) a county with a population of 114,736 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(5) a county with a population of 110,768 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;

(6) a county with a population of 135,394 as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population.

The certified local health departments in paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection (f) must have their training programs program on file with the Department no later than 90 days after the effective date of this Act. Any modules that meet the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3.05 of this Act and are not approved within 180 days after the Department's receipt of the application of the entity seeking to conduct the training shall automatically be considered approved by the Department.

(g) Any and all documents, materials, or information related to a restaurant or business food handler training module submitted to the Department is confidential and shall not be open to public inspection or dissemination and is exempt from disclosure under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. Training may be conducted by any means available, including, but not limited to, on-line, computer, classroom, live trainers, remote trainers, and certified food service sanitation managers. There must be at least one commercially available, approved food handler training module at a cost of no more than $15 per employee; if an approved food handler training module is not available at that cost, then the provisions of this Section 3.06 shall not apply.

(h) The regulation of food handler training is considered to be an exclusive function of the State, and local regulation is prohibited. This subsection (h) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(i) The provisions of this Section apply beginning July 1, 2014. From July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, enforcement of the provisions of this Section shall be limited to education and notification of requirements to encourage compliance.

(Source: P.A. 98-566, eff. 8-27-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(410 ILCS 625/3.4)

Sec. 3.4. Product samples.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "food product sampling" means food product samples distributed free of charge for promotional or educational purposes only.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section, a vendor who engages in food product sampling at a farmers' market may do so without obtaining a State or local permit to provide those food product samples, provided the vendor complies with the State and local permit requirements to sell the food product to be sampled and with the food preparation, food handling, food storage, and food sampling requirements specified in the administrative rules adopted by the Department to implement Section 3.3 and Section 3.4 of this Act.

The Department of Public Health is instructed to work with the Farmers' Market Task Force as created in Section 3.3 of this Act to establish a food sampling at farmers' market training and certification program to fulfill this requirement. The Department shall adopt rules for the food sampling training and certification program and product sampling requirements at farmers' markets in accordance with subsection (j) of Section 3.3. The Department may charge a reasonable fee for the training and certification program. The Department may delegate or contract authority to administer the food sampling training to other qualified public and private entities.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, a local municipal health department, or a certified local health department may inspect a vendor at a farmers' market to ensure compliance with the provisions in this Section. If an imminent health hazard exists or a vendor's product has been found to be misbranded, adulterated, or not in compliance with the permit exemption for vendors pursuant to this Section, then the regulatory authority may invoke cessation of sales until it deems that the situation has been addressed.

(Source: P.A. 98-660, eff. 6-23-14.)

(410 ILCS 625/3.6)

Sec. 3.6 3.4. Home kitchen operation.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, "home kitchen operation" means a person who produces or packages non-potentially hazardous food in a kitchen of that person's primary domestic residence for direct sale by the owner or a family member, or for sale by a religious, charitable, or nonprofit organization, stored in the residence where the food is made. The following conditions must be met in order to qualify as a home kitchen operation:

(1) Monthly gross sales do not exceed $1,000.

(2) The food is not a potentially hazardous baked food, as defined in Section 4 of this Act.

(3) A notice is provided to the purchaser that the product was produced in a home kitchen.

(b) The Department of Public Health or the health department of a unit of local government may inspect a home kitchen operation in the event of a complaint or disease outbreak.

(c) This Section applies only to a home kitchen operation located in a municipality, township, or county where the local governing body has adopted an ordinance authorizing the direct sale of baked goods as described in Section 4 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-643, eff. 6-10-14; revised 10-20-14.)

Section 380. The Public Water Supply Operations Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 13 as follows:

(415 ILCS 45/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 501)

Sec. 1. (1) In order to safeguard the health and well-being of the populace, every community water supply in Illinois, other than an exempt community water supply as specified in Section 9.1, shall have on its operational staff, and shall designate to the Agency in writing, either (i) one Responsible Operator in Charge who directly supervises both the treatment and distribution facilities of the community water supply or (ii) one Responsible Operator in Charge who directly supervises the treatment facilities of the community water supply and one Responsible Operator in Charge who directly supervises the distribution facilities of the community water supply.

Except for exempt community water supplies as specified in Section 9.1 of this Act, all portions of a community water supply system shall be under the direct supervision of a Responsible Operator in Charge.

(2) The following class requirements apply:

(a) Each Class A community water supply shall have in its employ at least one individual certified as competent as a Class A community water supply operator.

(b) Each Class B community water supply shall have in its employ at least one individual certified as competent as a Class B or Class A community water supply operator.

(c) Each Class C community water supply shall have in its employ at least one individual certified as competent as a Class C, Class B, or Class A community water supply operator.

(d) Each Class D community water supply shall have in its employ at least one individual certified as competent as a Class D, Class C, Class B, or Class A community water supply operator.

(2.5) The Agency may adopt rules that classify or reclassify community water supplies as Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D community water supplies. A community water supply that cannot be clearly classified under Section 5.1 or Agency rules shall be considered individually and designated, in writing, by the Agency, as a Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D community water supply. Classifications made under this subsection (2.5) shall be based on the nature of the community water supply and on the education and experience necessary to operate it.

(3) A community water supply may satisfy the requirements of this Section by contracting the services of an individual who is a properly qualified certified operator of the required class or higher, and will directly supervise the operation of the community water supply. That individual shall serve as the Responsible Operator in Charge of the community water supply. A written agreement to this effect must be on file with the Agency certifying that such an agreement exists, and delegating responsibility and authority to the contracted party. This written agreement shall be signed by both the certified operator to be contracted and the responsible community water supply owner or official custodian and must be approved in writing by the Agency.

(Source: P.A. 98-822, eff. 8-1-14; 98-856, eff. 8-4-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(415 ILCS 45/13) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 513)

Sec. 13. Community Water Supply Operators shall be certified in accordance with the following classifications:

(a) A "Class A" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment that are necessary to operate a Class A community water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption, as well as the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment necessary to operate Class B, Class C, and Class D community water supplies in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption.

(b) A "Class B" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment that are necessary to operate a Class B community water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption, as well as the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment necessary to operate Class C and Class D community water supplies in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption.

(c) A "Class C" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment that are necessary to operate a Class C community water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption, as well as the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment necessary to operate a Class D community water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption.

(d) A "Class D" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and judgment that are necessary to operate a Class D community water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable water for human consumption.

(Source: P.A. 98-822, eff. 8-1-14; 98-856, eff. 8-4-14; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 385. The Illinois Pesticide Act is amended by changing Section 19.3 as follows:

(415 ILCS 60/19.3)

Sec. 19.3. Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program.

(a) It is the policy of the State of Illinois that an Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program be implemented to reduce potential agrichemical pollution and minimize environmental degradation risk potential at these sites. In this Section, "agrichemical facility" means a site where agrichemicals are stored or handled, or both, in preparation for end use. "Agrichemical facility" does not include basic manufacturing or central distribution sites utilized only for wholesale purposes. As used in this Section, "agrichemical" means pesticides or commercial fertilizers at an agrichemical facility.

The program shall provide guidance for assessing the threat of soil agrichemical contaminants to groundwater and recommending which sites need to establish a voluntary corrective action program.

The program shall establish appropriate site-specific soil cleanup objectives, which shall be based on the potential for the agrichemical contaminants to move from the soil to groundwater and the potential of the specific soil agrichemical contaminants to cause an exceedence of a Class I or Class III groundwater quality standard or a health advisory level. The Department shall use the information found and procedures developed in the Agrichemical Facility Site Contamination Study or other appropriate physical evidence to establish the soil agrichemical contaminant levels of concern to groundwater in the various hydrological settings to establish site-specific cleanup objectives.

No remediation of a site may be recommended unless (i) the agrichemical contamination level in the soil exceeds the site-specific cleanup objectives or (ii) the agrichemical contaminant level in the soil exceeds levels where physical evidence and risk evaluation indicates probability of the site causing an exceedence of a groundwater quality standard.

When a remediation plan must be carried out over a number of years due to limited financial resources of the owner or operator of the agrichemical facility, those soil agrichemical contaminated areas that have the greatest potential to adversely impact vulnerable Class I groundwater aquifers and adjacent potable water wells shall receive the highest priority rating and be remediated first.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Director has the authority to do the following:

(1) When requested by the owner or operator of an agrichemical facility, may investigate the agrichemical facility site contamination.

(2) After completion of the investigation under item (1) of this subsection, recommend to the owner or operator of an agrichemical facility that a voluntary assessment be made of the soil agrichemical contaminant when there is evidence that the evaluation of risk indicates that groundwater could be adversely impacted.

(3) Review and make recommendations on any corrective action plan submitted by the owner or operator of an agrichemical facility.

(4) On approval by the Director, issue an order to the owner or operator of an agrichemical facility that has filed a voluntary corrective action plan that the owner or operator may proceed with that plan.

(5) Provide remedial project oversight and monitor remedial work progress.

(6) Provide staff to support program activities.

(7) (Blank).

(8) Incorporate the following into a handbook or manual: the procedures for site assessment; pesticide constituents of concern and associated parameters; guidance on remediation techniques, land application, and corrective action plans; and other information or instructions that the Department may find necessary.

(9) Coordinate preventive response actions at agrichemical facilities pursuant to the Groundwater Quality Standards adopted pursuant to Section 8 of the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act to mitigate resource groundwater impairment.

Upon completion of the corrective action plan, the Department shall issue a notice of closure stating that site-specific cleanup objectives have been met and no further remedial action is required to remedy the past agrichemical contamination.

When a soil agrichemical contaminant assessment confirms that remedial action is not required in accordance with the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program, a notice of closure shall be issued by the Department stating that no further remedial action is required to remedy the past agrichemical contamination.

(e) Upon receipt of notification of an agrichemical contaminant in groundwater pursuant to the Groundwater Quality Standards, the Department shall evaluate the severity of the agrichemical contamination and shall submit to the Environmental Protection Agency an informational notice characterizing it as follows:

(1) An agrichemical contaminant in Class I or Class III groundwater has exceeded the levels of a standard adopted pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act or a health advisory established by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or the United States Environmental Protection Agency; or

(2) An agrichemical has been detected at a level that requires preventive notification pursuant to a standard adopted pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act.

(f) When agrichemical contamination is characterized as in subsection (e)(1) of this Section, a facility may elect to participate in the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program. In these instances, the scope of the corrective action plans developed, approved, and completed under this program shall be limited to the soil agrichemical contamination present at the site unless implementation of the plan is coordinated with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency as follows:

(1) Upon receipt of notice of intent to include groundwater in an action by a facility, the Department shall also notify the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.

(2) Upon receipt of the corrective action plan, the Department shall coordinate a joint review of the plan with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.

(3) The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency may provide a written endorsement of the corrective action plan.

(4) The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency may approve a groundwater management zone for a period of 5 years after the implementation of the corrective action plan to allow for groundwater impairment mitigation results.

(5) (Blank).

(6) The Department, in cooperation with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, shall provide remedial project oversight and , monitor remedial work progress.

(7) The Department shall, upon completion of the corrective action plan, issue a notice of closure stating that no further remedial action is required to remedy the past agrichemical contamination.

(g) When an owner or operator of an agrichemical facility initiates a soil contamination assessment on the owner's or operator's own volition and independent of any requirement under this Section 19.3, information contained in that assessment may be held as confidential information by the owner or operator of the facility.

(h) Except as otherwise provided by Department rule, on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, any Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program requirement that may be satisfied by an industrial hygienist licensed pursuant to the Industrial Hygienists Licensure Act repealed in this amendatory Act may be satisfied by a Certified Industrial Hygienist certified by the American Board of Industrial Hygiene.

(Source: P.A. 98-78, eff. 7-15-13; 98-692, eff. 7-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 390. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)

Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial, revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court shall determine whether substantial justice has been done. Should the court determine that substantial justice has not been done, the court shall issue an order directing the Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is established by the applicant to the court's or Director's satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney has been served with a written copy of the petition at least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction, where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police requesting relief if the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified examiner, and:

(A) the officer has not received treatment involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30 days and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years; and

(B) the officer has not left the mental institution against medical advice.

(2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited relief to active law enforcement officers described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety. The Director shall act on the request for relief within 30 business days of receipt of:

(A) a notarized statement from the officer in the form prescribed by the Director detailing the circumstances that led to the hospitalization;

(B) all documentation regarding the admission, evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the officer;

(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the person completed after the time of discharge; and

(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by the Director from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person successfully completed treatment, and their professional opinion regarding the person's ability to possess firearms.

(3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on eligibility and must provide all information required. The Director may not consider granting expedited relief until the proof and information is received.

(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in Chapter I 1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court shall notify the Department of State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18 U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred under the laws of this State or who was determined to be subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning (i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv) changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct, modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the Department of State Police makes available to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United States Attorney General that the basis for the record being made available no longer applies. The Department of State Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 395. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(430 ILCS 66/40)

Sec. 40. Non-resident license applications.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30 days and resides in another state or territory.

(b) The Department shall by rule allow for non-resident license applications from any state or territory of the United States with laws related to firearm ownership, possession, and carrying, that are substantially similar to the requirements to obtain a license under this Act.

(c) A resident of a state or territory approved by the Department under subsection (b) of this Section may apply for a non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to the Department and must meet all of the qualifications established in Section 25 of this Act, except for the Illinois residency requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The applicant shall submit:

(1) the application and documentation required under Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee;

(2) a notarized document stating that the applicant:

(A) is eligible under federal law and the laws of his or her state or territory of residence to own or possess a firearm;

(B) if applicable, has a license or permit to carry a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or her state or territory of residence and attach a copy of the license or permit to the application;

(C) understands Illinois laws pertaining to the possession and transport of firearms; , and

(D) acknowledges that the applicant is subject to the jurisdiction of the Department and Illinois courts for any violation of this Act; and

(3) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence of compliance with the training requirements under Section 75 of this Act; and

(4) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size specified by the Department taken within the 30 days preceding the date of the application.

(d) In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide similar documentation from his or her state or territory of residence. In lieu of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the applicant shall submit documentation and information required by the Department to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, including an affidavit that the non-resident meets the mental health standards to obtain a firearm under Illinois law, and the Department shall ensure that the applicant would meet the eligibility criteria to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if he or she was a resident of this State.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her vehicle and the non-resident:

(1) is not prohibited from owning or possessing a firearm under federal law;

(2) is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the laws of his or her state or territory of residence, as evidenced by the possession of a concealed carry license or permit issued by his or her state of residence, if applicable; and

(3) is not in possession of a license under this Act.

If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended, he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or locked container within the vehicle in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 400. The Amusement Ride and Attraction Safety Act is amended by changing Section 2-12 as follows:

(430 ILCS 85/2-12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4062)

Sec. 2-12. Order for cessation of operation of amusement ride or attraction.

(a) The Department of Labor may order, in writing, a temporary and immediate cessation of operation of any amusement ride or amusement attraction if it:

(1) it has been determined after inspection to be hazardous or unsafe;

(2) it is in operation before the Director has issued a permit to operate such equipment; or

(3) the owner or operator is not in compliance with the insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder.

(b) Operation of the amusement ride or amusement attraction shall not resume until:

(1) the unsafe or hazardous condition is corrected to the satisfaction of the Director or such inspector;

(2) the Director has issued a permit to operate such equipment; or

(3) the owner or operator is in compliance with the insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder, respectively.

(c) The Department shall notify the owner or operator in writing of the grounds for the cessation of operation of the amusement ride or attraction and of the conditions in need of correction at the time the order for cessation is issued.

(d) The owner or operator may appeal an order of cessation by filing a request for a hearing. The Department shall afford the owner or operator 10 working days after the date of the notice to request a hearing. Upon written request for hearing, the Department shall schedule a formal administrative hearing in compliance with Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and pursuant to the provisions of the Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings, except that formal discovery, such as production requests, interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions will not be allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness lists prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to be issued.

(e) The final determination by the Department of Labor shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing.

(f) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of a final determination under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 405. The Illinois Modular Dwelling and Mobile Structure Safety Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(430 ILCS 115/2) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 502)

Sec. 2. Unless clearly indicated otherwise by the context, the following words and terms when used in this Act, for the purpose of this Act, shall have the following meanings:

(a) (Blank) a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code. "Mobile home" means a factory-assembled, completely integrated structure, constructed on or before June 30, 1976, designed for permanent habitation, with a permanent chassis, and so constructed as to permit its transport, on wheels temporarily or permanently attached to its frame, that is a movable or portable unit that is constructed to be towed on its own chassis (comprised of frame and wheels) from the place of its construction to the location, or subsequent locations, at which it is connected to utilities for year-round occupancy for use as a permanent habitation, and designed and situated so as to permit its occupancy as a dwelling place for one or more persons. terms "manufactured home" and "mobile home" otherwise meeting their respective definitions terms "mobile home" and "manufactured home" exclude.

(b) "Person" means any individual, group of individuals, association, trust, partnership, limited liability company, corporation, person doing business under an assumed name, county, municipality, the State of Illinois, or any political subdivision or department thereof, or any other entity.

(c) "Manufacturer" means any person who manufactures mobile structures or modular dwellings at the place or places, either on or away from the building site, at which machinery, equipment, and other capital goods are assembled and operated for the purpose of making, fabricating, forming, or assembling mobile structures or modular dwellings.

(d) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.

(e) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Health.

(f) (Blank).

(g) "Codes" means the safety codes for modular dwellings and mobile structures adopted by the Department and is synonymous with "rules". The Codes shall contain the standards and requirements for modular dwellings and mobile structures so that adequate performance for the intended use is made the test of acceptability. The Code of Standards shall permit the use of new technology, techniques, methods and materials, for both modular dwellings and mobile structures, consistent with recognized and accepted codes and standards developed by the International Code Council (ICC) or by the organizations that formed the ICC in 1994, the National Fire Protection Association, the International Association of Plumbing and Mechanical Officials, the American National Standards Institute, and the Illinois State Plumbing Code.

(h) "Seal" means a device or insignia issued by the Department to be displayed on the exterior of the mobile structure or the interior of a modular dwelling unit to evidence compliance with the applicable safety code.

(i) "Modular dwelling" means a building assembly or system of building sub-assemblies, designed for habitation as a dwelling for one or more persons, including the necessary electrical, plumbing, heating, ventilating and other service systems, which is of closed construction and which is made or assembled by a manufacturer, on or off the building site, for installation, or assembly and installation, on the building site, installed and set up according to the manufacturer's instructions on an approved foundation and support system. The construction of modular dwelling units located in Illinois is regulated by the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(j) "Closed construction" is any building, component, assembly or system manufactured in such a manner that all portions cannot readily be inspected at the installation site without disassembly, damage to, or destruction thereof.

(k) (Blank).

(l) "Approved foundation and support system" means, for a modular dwelling unit, a closed perimeter formation consisting of materials such as concrete, mortared concrete block, mortared brick, steel, or treated lumber extending into the ground below the frost line which shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, cellars, basements, or crawl spaces, and does include the use of piers supporting the marriage wall of the home that extend below the frost line.

(m) "Code compliance certificate" means the certificate provided by the manufacturer to the Department that warrants that the modular dwelling unit or mobile structure complies with the applicable code.

(n) "Mobile structure" means a movable or portable unit, which, when assembled, is 8 feet or more in width and is 32 body feet in length, constructed to be towed on its own chassis (comprised of frame and wheels), and designed for occupancy with or without a permanent foundation. "Mobile structure" includes units designed to be used for multi-family residential, commercial, educational, or industrial purposes, excluding, however, recreational vehicles and single family residences.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-959, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 410. The Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 4 and 20 as follows:

(505 ILCS 80/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.4)

Sec. 4. License and product registration.

(a) Each brand and grade of fertilizer shall be registered by the entity whose name appears upon the label before being distributed in this State. The application for registration shall be submitted with a label or facsimile of same to the Director on forms furnished by the Director, and shall be accompanied by a fee of $20 per grade within a brand. Upon approval by the Director a copy of the registration shall be furnished to the applicant. All registrations expire on December 31 of each year.

The application shall include the following information:

(1) The net weight.

(2) The brand and grade.

(3) The guaranteed analysis.

(4) The name and address of the registrant.

(a-5) No entity whose name appears on the label shall distribute a fertilizer in the State unless the entity has secured a license under this Act on forms provided by the Director. The license application shall be accompanied by a fee of $100. Entities that store anhydrous ammonia as a fertilizer, store bulk fertilizer, or custom blend a fertilizer at more than one site under the same entity's name shall list any and all additional sites with a complete address for each site and remit a license fee of $50 for each site identified. Entities performing lawn care applications for hire are exempt from obtaining a license under this Act. All licenses expire on December 31 of each year.

(b) A distributor shall not be required to register any brand of fertilizer or a custom blend which is already registered under this Act by another entity.

(c) The plant nutrient content of each and every fertilizer must remain uniform for the period of registration and, in no case, shall the percentage of any guaranteed plant nutrient element be changed in such a manner that the crop-producing quality of the fertilizer is lowered.

(d) (Blank).

(e) A custom blend, as defined in Section 3, prepared for one consumer or end user shall not be co-mingled with the custom blended fertilizer prepared for another consumer or end user.

(f) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be paid to the Fertilizer Control Fund for activities related to the administration and enforcement of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(505 ILCS 80/20) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.20)

Sec. 20. Administrative hearings; notice. Any entity so notified of violating this Act or its rules, shall be given the opportunity to be heard as may be prescribed by the Director. When an administrative hearing is held, the hearing officer, upon determination of a violation of this Act, shall levy and the Department shall collect administrative penalties in addition to any initial penalty levied by this Act as follows:

(1) A penalty of $1,000 shall be imposed for:

(A) neglect or refusal by any entity, after notice in writing, to comply with provisions of this Act or its rules or any lawful order of the Director;

(B) every sale, disposal, or distribution of a fertilizer that is under a stop-sale order; or

(C) concealing facts or conditions, impeding, obstructing, hindering, or otherwise preventing or attempting to prevent the Director, or his or her duly authorized agent, in the performance of his or her duty in connection with the provisions of this Act.

(2) A penalty of $500 shall be imposed for the following violations:

(A) distribution of a fertilizer that is misbranded or adulterated;

(B) distribution of a fertilizer that does not have an accompanying label attached or displayed;

(C) failure to comply with any provisions of this Act or its rules other than described under this Section.

The Department, over the signature of the Director, is authorized to issue subpoenas and bring before the Department any entity in this State to take testimony orally, by deposition, or by exhibit, in the same manner prescribed by law in judicial proceedings or civil cases in the circuit courts of this State. The Director is authorized to issue subpoenas duces tecum for records relating to a fertilizer distributor's or registrant's business.

When a fertilizer-soil amendment combination labeled in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 211.40 Subpart (b) is subject to penalties, the larger penalty shall be assessed.

All penalties collected by the Department under this Section shall be deposited into the Fertilizer Control Fund. Any penalty not paid within 60 days after receiving the notice from the Department shall be submitted to the Attorney General's office for collection.

(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 415. The Illinois Seed Law is amended by changing Section 4.1 as follows:

(505 ILCS 110/4.1) (from Ch. 5, par. 404.1)

Sec. 4.1. All seeds named and treated as defined in this Act (for which a separate label may be used) must be labeled with:

(1) A word or statement indicating that the seed has been treated.

(2) The commonly accepted, coined, chemical or abbreviated chemical (generic) name of the applied substance or description of the process used.

(3) If the substance in the amount present with the seed is harmful to human or other vertebrate animals, a caution statement such as "Do not use for food, feed, oil purposes" or otherwise as required by the Uniform Hazardous Substances Substance Act of Illinois. The caution for toxic substances shall be a poison statement or symbol.

(4) If the seed is treated with an inoculant, the date beyond which the inoculant is not to be considered effective (date of expiration).

(5) Require symbol statement and the appropriate Environmental Protection Agency signal word -- DANGER, CAUTION OR WARNING.

(6) All treated seeds are required to be stained so that they are easily distinguished by the ordinary observer when examined regardless of the proportion of treated to untreated seeds. The color used on treated seed shall persist as long as seed bear pesticide residue.

(Source: P.A. 85-717; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 420. The Illinois Bovine Brucellosis Eradication Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(510 ILCS 30/1) (from Ch. 8, par. 134)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, words and phrases have the meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 2 Sections 1.1 to 1.12, inclusive.

(Source: P.A. 78-818; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 425. The Herptiles-Herps Act is amended by changing Section 105-95 as follows:

(510 ILCS 68/105-95)

Sec. 105-95. Financial value of herptiles.

(a) For purposes of this Section, the financial value of all reptiles and amphibians described under this Act taken, possessed, or used in violation of this Act, whether in whole or in part, is as follows:

(1) for processed turtle parts, $8 for each pound or fraction of a pound; for each non-processed turtle, $15 per whole turtle or fair market value, whichever is greater;

(2) for frogs, toads, salamanders, lizards, and snakes, $5 per herptile or fair market value, whichever is greater, in whole or in part, unless specified as a special use herptile;

(3) for any special use herptile, the value shall be no less than $250 per special use herptile or fair market value, whichever is greater;

(4) for any endangered or threatened herptile, the value shall be no less than $150 per endangered or threatened threatend herptile or fair market value, whichever is greater; and

(5) any person who, for profit or commercial purposes, knowingly captures or kills, possesses, offers for sale, sells, offers to barter, barters, offers to purchase, purchases, delivers for shipment, ships, exports, imports, causes to be shipped, exported, or imported, delivers for transportation, transports, or causes to be transported, carries or causes to be carried, or receives for shipment, transportation, carriage, or export any reptile or amphibian life, in part or in whole, of any of the reptiles and amphibians protected by this Act, and that reptile or amphibian life, in whole or in part, is valued at or in excess of a total of $300 or fair market value, whichever is greater, as per value specified in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4) of this subsection commits a Class 3 felony.

(b) The trier of fact may infer that a person "knowingly possesses" a reptile or amphibian, in whole or in part, captured or killed in violation of this Act, valued at or in excess of $600, as per value specified in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-752, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 430. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/2) (from Ch. 8, par. 702)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.07 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 78-905; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 435. The Illinois Swine Brucellosis Eradication Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(510 ILCS 95/1) (from Ch. 8, par. 148f)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, words and phrases have the meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 2 Sections 1.1 to 1.7, inclusive.

(Source: Laws 1959, p. 2259; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 440. The Fish and Aquatic Life Code is amended by changing Sections 1-20, 15-155, and 20-55 as follows:

(515 ILCS 5/1-20) (from Ch. 56, par. 1-20)

Sec. 1-20. Aquatic life. "Aquatic life" means all fish, mollusks, crustaceans, algae, aquatic plants, aquatic invertebrates, and any other aquatic animals or plants that the Department identifies in rules adopted after consultation with biologists, zoologists, or other wildlife experts. "Aquatic life" does not mean any herptiles that are found in the Herptiles-Herps Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-752, eff. 1-1-15; 98-771, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(515 ILCS 5/15-155)

Sec. 15-155. Watercraft used as a primary collection device for commercial fishes. Any person licensed as a commercial fisherman who wishes to use his or her their watercraft as a primary collection device for commercial fishes must first obtain a commercial watercraft device tag. All watercraft used as a primary collection device must be legally licensed by the State and be in compliance with all Coast Guard boating regulations. This Section does not apply to any person taking Asian Carp by the aid of a boat for non-commercial purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-336, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(515 ILCS 5/20-55) (from Ch. 56, par. 20-55)

Sec. 20-55. License fees for non-residents. Fees for licenses for non-residents of the State of Illinois are as follows:

(a) For sport fishing devices as defined by Section 10-95, or spearing devices as defined in Section 10-110, non-residents age 16 or older shall be charged $31 for a fishing license to fish. For sport fishing devices as defined by Section 10-95, or spearing devices as defined in Section 10-110, for a period not to exceed 3 consecutive days fishing in the State of Illinois the fee is $15.00.

For sport fishing devices as defined in Section 10-95, or spearing devices as defined in Section 10-110, for 24 hours of fishing the fee is $10. This license does not exempt the licensee from the salmon or inland trout stamp requirement.

(b) All non-residents before using any commercial fishing device shall obtain a non-resident commercial fishing license, the fee for which shall be $300, and a non-resident fishing license licensing. Each and every commercial device shall be licensed by a non-resident commercial fisherman as follows:

(1) For each 100 lineal yards, or fraction thereof, of seine (excluding minnow seines) the fee is $36.

(2) For each device to fish with a 100 hook trot line device, basket trap, hoop net, or dip net the fee is $6.

(3) For each 100 lineal yards, or fraction thereof, of trammel net the fee is $36.

(4) For each 100 lineal yards, or fraction thereof, of gill net the fee is $36.

All persons required to have and failing to have the license provided for in subsection (a) of this Section shall be fined under Section 20-35 of this Code. Each person required to have and failing to have the licenses required under subsection (b) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

All licenses provided for in this Section shall expire on March 31 of each year; except that the 24-hour license for sport fishing devices or spearing devices shall expire 24 hours after the effective date and time listed on the face of the license and licenses for sport fishing devices or spearing devices for a period not to exceed 3 consecutive days fishing in the State of Illinois as provided in subsection (a) of this Section shall expire at midnight on the tenth day after issued, not counting the day issued.

(Source: P.A. 96-831, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 445. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.2b, 2.5, and 3.1-9 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.2b)

Sec. 2.2b. Imminent threat; nuisance permits.

(a) It shall not be illegal for an owner or tenant of land, or his or her their designated agent, to immediately take on his or her property a gray wolf, Canis lupus; American black bear, Ursus americanus; or cougar, Puma concolor if, at any time, the gray wolf, American black bear, or cougar is stalking or , causing an imminent threat, or there is a reasonable expectation that it causes an imminent threat of physical harm or death to a human, livestock, or domestic animals or harm to structures or other property on the owner's or tenant's land.

(b) The Department may grant a nuisance permit to the owner or tenant of land, or his or her their designated agent, for the taking of a gray wolf, American black bear, or cougar that is causing a threat to an owner or tenant of land or his or her property that is not an immediate threat under subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) The Department shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-1033, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-26-14.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Crossbow conditions. A person may use a crossbow if one or more of the following conditions are met:

(1) the user is a person age 62 and older;

(2) the user is a handicapped person to whom the Director has issued a permit to use a crossbow, as provided by administrative rule; or

(3) the date of using the crossbow is during the period of the second Monday following the Thanksgiving holiday through the last day of the archery deer hunting season (both inclusive) set annually by the Director.

As used in this Section, "handicapped person" means a person who has a physical impairment due to injury or disease, congenital or acquired, which renders the person them so severely disabled as to be unable to use a longbow, recurve bow, or compound bow. Permits must be issued only after the receipt of a physician's statement confirming the applicant is handicapped as defined above.

(Source: P.A. 97-907, eff. 8-7-12; revised 12-10-14.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.1-9)

Sec. 3.1-9. Youth Hunting License. Any resident youth age 16 and under may apply to the Department for a Youth Hunting License, which extends limited hunting privileges. The Youth Hunting License shall be a renewable license that shall expire on the March 31 following the date of issuance.

For youth age 16 and under, the Youth Hunting License shall entitle the licensee to hunt while supervised by a parent, grandparent, or guardian who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid Illinois hunting license. Possession of a Youth Hunting License shall serve in lieu of a valid hunting license, but does not exempt the licensee from compliance with the requirements of this Code and any rules adopted under this Code.

A youth licensed under this Section shall not hunt or carry a hunting device, including, but not limited to, a firearm, bow and arrow, or crossbow unless the youth is accompanied by and under the close personal supervision of a parent, grandparent, or guardian who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid Illinois hunting license.

At age 17 years or when the youth chooses to hunt by himself or herself, he or she is themselves, they are required to successfully complete a hunter safety course approved by the Department prior to being able to obtain a full hunting license and subsequently hunt by himself or herself themselves.

In order to be approved for the Youth Hunting License, the applicant must request a Youth Hunting License from the Department and submit a $7 fee, which shall be separate from and additional to any other stamp, permit, tag, or license fee that may be required for hunting under this Code. The Department shall adopt rules for the administration of the program, but shall not require any certificate of competency or other hunting education as a condition of the Youth Hunting License.

(Source: P.A. 98-620, eff. 1-7-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 450. The Railroad Police Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(610 ILCS 80/2) (from Ch. 114, par. 98)

Sec. 2. Conductors of all railroad trains, and the captain or master of any boat carrying passengers within the jurisdiction of this State state, are is vested with police powers while on duty on their respective trains and boats, and may wear an appropriate badge indicative of this authority.

In the policing of its properties any registered rail carrier, as defined in Section 18c-7201 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, may provide for the appointment and maintenance of a police force to aid and supplement the police forces of any municipality in the protection of its property and the protection of the persons and property of its passengers and employees, or in furtherance of the purposes for which the railroad was organized. While engaged in the conduct of their employment, the members of the railroad police force have and may exercise the same police powers conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State, including the authority to issue administrative citations in accordance with the provisions of county or municipal ordinances.

Any registered rail carrier that appoints and maintains a police force shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) Establish an internal policy that includes procedures to ensure objective oversight in addressing allegations of abuse of authority or other misconduct on the part of its police officers.

(2) Adopt appropriate policies and guidelines for employee investigations by police officers. These policies and guidelines shall provide for initiating employee investigations only under the following conditions:

(A) There is reason to believe criminal misconduct has occurred.

(B) In response to an employee accident.

(C) There is reason to believe that the interview of an employee could result in workplace violence.

(D) There is a legitimate concern for the personal safety of one or more employees.

These policies and guidelines shall provide for the right of an employee to request a representative to be present during any interview concerning a non-criminal matter.

(3) File copies of the policies and guidelines adopted under paragraphs (1) and (2) with the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, which shall make them available for public inspection. The Board shall review the policies and guidelines, and approve them if they comply with the Act.

(4) Appeal of a rail carrier's decision. A person adversely affected or aggrieved by a decision of a rail carrier's internal investigation under this Act may appeal the decision to the Illinois State Police. The appeal shall be filed no later than 90 days after the issuance of the decision. The State Police shall review the depth, completeness, and objectivity of the rail carrier's investigation, and may conduct its own investigation of the complaint. The State Police may uphold, overturn, or modify the rail carrier's decision by filing a report of its findings and recommendations with the Illinois Commerce Commission. Consistent with authority under Chapter 18C of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the Commission rules of practice, the Commission shall have the power to conduct evidentiary hearings, make findings, and issue and enforce orders, including sanctions under Section 18c-1704 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 98-791, eff. 7-25-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 455. The Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act is amended by changing Section 18j as follows:

(615 ILCS 5/18j)

Sec. 18j. ESDA critical facility evacuation plans. Any critical facility that gives shelter to a person who would be unable to evacuate without assistance during a flooding event, and that is located in an area deemed by operation of law not to be within the 100-year floodplain because the area in which the critical facility is located lies within an area protected by a federal levee and is located in a flood prevention district established in accordance with the Flood Prevention District Act shall develop an evacuation plan and certify to the Emergency Services and Disaster Agency (ESDA), as defined by Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, on a form provided by the ESDA, that it has developed an evacuation plan which the critical facility has or will implement prior to or concurrent with occupancy of the facility to evacuate persons who need assistance evacuating the facility and the flooded area.

(Source: P.A. 96-1395, eff. 7-29-10; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 460. The Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act is amended by changing Section 2-15 as follows:

(620 ILCS 75/2-15)

Sec. 2-15. General airport powers.

(a) The Department has the power to plan, develop, secure permits, licenses, and approvals for, acquire, develop, construct, equip, own, and operate the South Suburban Airport. The Department also has the power to own, operate, acquire facilities for, construct, improve, repair, maintain, renovate, and expand the South Suburban Airport, including any facilities located on the site of the South Suburban Airport for use by any individual or entity other than the Department. The development of the South Suburban Airport shall also include all land, highways, waterways, mass transit facilities, and other infrastructure that, in the determination of the Department, are necessary or appropriate in connection with the development or operation of the South Suburban Airport. The development of the South Suburban Airport also includes acquisition and development of any land or facilities for (i) relocation of persons, including providing replacement housing or facilities for persons and entities displaced by that development, (ii) protecting or reclaiming the environment with respect to the South Suburban Airport, (iii) providing substitute or replacement property or facilities, including, without limitation, for areas of recreation, conservation, open space, and wetlands, (iv) providing navigational aids, or (v) utilities to serve the airport, whether or not located on the site of the South Suburban Airport.

(b) The Department shall have the authority to undertake and complete all ongoing projects related to the South Suburban Airport, including the South Suburban Airport Master Plan, and assisting the Federal Aviation Administration in preparing and approving the Environmental Impact Statement and Record of Decision.

(c) The Department has the power to enter into all contracts useful for carrying out its purposes and powers, including, without limitation, public-private agreements pursuant to the provisions of this Act, ; leases of any of its property or facilities, use agreements with airlines or other airport users relating to the South Suburban Airport, agreements with South Suburban Airport concessionaires, and franchise agreements for use of or access to South Suburban Airport facilities.

(d) The Department has the power to apply to the proper authorities of the United States, the State of Illinois, and other governmental entities, as permitted or authorized by applicable law, to obtain any licenses, approvals, or permits reasonably necessary to achieve the purposes of this Act. All applications to the Federal Aviation Administration, or any successor agency, shall be made by the Department.

(e) The Department may take all steps consistent with applicable laws to maximize funding for the costs of the South Suburban Airport from grants by the Federal Aviation Administration or any successor agency, or any other federal governmental agency.

(f) The Department has the power to apply to the proper authorities of the United States pursuant to appropriate law for permission to establish, operate, maintain, and lease foreign trade zones and sub-zones within the areas of the South Suburban Airport and to establish, operate, maintain, and lease foreign trade zones and sub-zones.

(g) The Department may publicize, advertise, and promote the activities of the South Suburban Airport, including, to make known the advantages, facilities, resources, products, attractions, and attributes of the South Suburban Airport.

(h) The Department may, at any time, acquire any land, any interests in land, other property, and interests in property needed for the South Suburban Airport or necessary to carry out the Department's powers and functions under this Act, including by exercise of the power of eminent domain pursuant to Section 2-100 of this Act. The Department shall also have the power to dispose of any such lands, interests, and property upon terms it deems appropriate.

(i) The Department may adopt any reasonable rules for the administration of this Act in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 465. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 3-102, 3-109, 3-400, 3-413, 3-701, 5-101, 5-102, 6-113, 7-311, 11-601, 11-709.2, 12-215, and 15-111 and the heading of Chapter 11 of Article V as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/3-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-102)

Sec. 3-102. Exclusions. No certificate of title need be obtained for:

1. a A vehicle owned by the State of Illinois; or a vehicle owned by the United States unless it is registered in this State;

2. a A vehicle owned by a manufacturer or dealer and held for sale, even though incidentally moved on the highway or used for purposes of testing or demonstration, provided a dealer reassignment area is still available on the manufacturer's certificate of origin or the Illinois title; or a vehicle used by a manufacturer solely for testing;

3. a A vehicle owned by a non-resident of this State and not required by law to be registered in this State;

4. a A motor vehicle regularly engaged in the interstate transportation of persons or property for which a currently effective certificate of title has been issued in another State;

5. a A vehicle moved solely by animal power;

6. an An implement of husbandry;

7. special Special mobile equipment;

8. an An apportionable trailer or an apportionable semitrailer registered in the State prior to April 1, 1998; .

9. a A manufactured home for which an affidavit of affixation has been recorded pursuant to the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act unless with respect to the same manufactured home there has been recorded an affidavit of severance pursuant to that Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-109) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-109)

Sec. 3-109. Registration without certificate of title; bond. If the Secretary of State is not satisfied as to the ownership of the vehicle, including, but not limited to, in the case of a manufactured home, a circumstance in which the manufactured home is covered by a Manufacturer's Statement of Origin that the owner of the manufactured home, after diligent search and inquiry, is unable to produce, or that there are no undisclosed security interests in it, the Secretary of State may register the vehicle but shall:

(a) Withhold issuance of a certificate of title until the applicant presents documents reasonably sufficient to satisfy the Secretary of State as to the applicant's ownership of the vehicle and that there are no undisclosed security interests in it;

(b) As a condition of issuing a certificate of title, require the applicant to file with the Secretary of State a bond in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State and executed by the applicant, and either accompanied by the deposit of cash with the Secretary of State or also executed by a person authorized to conduct a surety business in this State. The bond shall be in an amount equal to one and one-half times the value of the vehicle as determined by the Secretary of State and conditioned to indemnify any prior owner and lienholder and any subsequent purchaser of the vehicle or person acquiring any security interest in it, and their respective successors in interest, against any expense, loss or damage, including reasonable attorney's fees, by reason of the issuance of the certificate of title of the vehicle or on account of any defect in or undisclosed security interest upon the right, title and interest of the applicant in and to the vehicle. Any such interested person has a right of action to recover on the bond for any breach of its conditions, but the aggregate liability of the surety to all persons shall not exceed the amount of the bond. The bond, and any deposit accompanying it, shall be returned at the end of 3 three (3) years or prior thereto if (i) the vehicle is no longer registered in this State and the currently valid certificate of title is surrendered to the Secretary of State or (ii), in the case of a certificate of title to a manufactured home, the currently valid certificate of title is surrendered to the Secretary of State in accordance with Section 3-116.2; , unless the Secretary of State has been notified of the pendency of an action to recover on the bond; or

(b-5) Require the applicant to file with the Secretary of State an application for a provisional title in the form prescribed by the Secretary and executed by the applicant, and accompanied by a $50 fee to be deposited in the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund. The Secretary shall designate by rule the documentation acceptable for an individual to apply for a provisional title. A provisional title shall be valid for 3 years and is nontransferable for the 3-year period. A provisional title shall be clearly marked and otherwise distinguished from a certificate of title. Three years after the issuance of a provisional title, the provisional title holder shall apply for the appropriate transferrable title in the applicant's name. If a claim of ownership for the vehicle is brought against a holder of a provisional title, then the provisional title holder shall apply for a bond under subsection (b) of this Section for the amount of time remaining on the provisional title. A provisional title holder or an individual who asserts a claim to the motor vehicle may petition a circuit court of competent jurisdiction for an order to determine the ownership of the vehicle. A provisional title shall not be available to individuals or entities that rebuild, repair, store, or tow vehicles or have a claim against the vehicle under the Labor and Storage Lien Act or the Labor and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act.

Security deposited as a bond hereunder shall be placed by the Secretary of State in the custody of the State Treasurer.

(c) During July, annually, the Secretary shall compile a list of all bonds on deposit, pursuant to this Section, for more than 3 years and concerning which he has received no notice as to the pendency of any judicial proceeding that could affect the disposition thereof. Thereupon, he shall promptly send a notice by certified mail to the last known address of each depositor advising him that his bond will be subject to escheat to the State of Illinois if not claimed within 30 days after the mailing date of such notice. At the expiration of such time, the Secretary of State shall file with the State Treasurer an order directing the transfer of such deposit to the Road Fund in the State Treasury. Upon receipt of such order, the State Treasurer shall make such transfer, after converting to cash any other type of security. Thereafter any person having a legal claim against such deposit may enforce it by appropriate proceedings in the Court of Claims subject to the limitations prescribed for such Court. At the expiration of such limitation period such deposit shall escheat to the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-777, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-400) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-400)

Sec. 3-400. Definitions. Notwithstanding the definitions definition set forth in Chapter 1 of this Act, for the purposes of this Article, the following words shall have the meaning ascribed to them as follows:

"Apportionable Fee" means any periodic recurring fee required for licensing or registering vehicles, such as, but not limited to, registration fees, license or weight fees.

"Apportionable Vehicle" means any vehicle, except recreational vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pickup and delivery vehicles, buses used in transportation of chartered parties, and government owned vehicles that are used or intended for use in 2 or more member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register vehicles, in a fleet which is used for the transportation of persons for hire or the transportation of property and which has a gross vehicle weight in excess of 26,000 pounds; or has three or more axles regardless of weight; or is used in combination when the weight of such combination exceeds 26,000 pounds gross vehicle weight. Vehicles, or combinations having a gross vehicle weight of 26,000 pounds or less and two-axle vehicles may be proportionally registered at the option of such owner.

"Base Jurisdiction" means, for purposes of fleet registration, the jurisdiction where the registrant has an established place of business, where operational records of the fleet are maintained and where mileage is accrued by the fleet. In case a registrant operates more than one fleet, and maintains records for each fleet in different places, the "base jurisdiction" for a fleet shall be the jurisdiction where an established place of business is maintained, where records of the operation of that fleet are maintained and where mileage is accrued by that fleet.

"Operational Records" means documents supporting miles traveled in each jurisdiction and total miles traveled, such as fuel reports, trip leases, and logs.

"Owner" means a Owner. A person who holds legal title of a motor vehicle, or in the event a motor vehicle is the subject of an agreement for the conditional sale or lease thereof with the right of purchase upon performance of the conditions stated in the agreement and with an immediate right of possession vested in the conditional vendee or lessee with right of purchase, or in the event a mortgagor of such motor vehicle is entitled to possession, or in the event a lessee of such motor vehicle is entitled to possession or control, then such conditional vendee or lessee with right of purchase or mortgagor or lessee is considered to be the owner for the purpose of this Act.

"Registration plate cover" means any tinted, colored, painted, marked, clear, or illuminated object that is designed to (i) cover any of the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate; or (ii) distort a recorded image of any of the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate recorded by an automated enforcement system as defined in Section 11-208.6, 11-208.8, or 11-1201.1 of this Code or recorded by an automated traffic control system as defined in Section 15 of the Automated Traffic Control Systems in Highway Construction or Maintenance Zones Act.

"Rental Owner" means an owner principally engaged, with respect to one or more rental fleets, in renting to others or offering for rental the vehicles of such fleets, without drivers.

"Restricted Plates" shall include, but is are not limited to, dealer, manufacturer, transporter, farm, repossessor, and permanently mounted type plates. Vehicles displaying any of these type plates from a foreign jurisdiction that is a member of the International Registration Plan shall be granted reciprocity but shall be subject to the same limitations as similar plated Illinois registered vehicles.

(Source: P.A. 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 2-7-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-413) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-413)

Sec. 3-413. Display of registration plates, registration stickers, and drive-away permits; registration plate covers.

(a) Registration plates issued for a motor vehicle other than a motorcycle, autocycle, trailer, semitrailer, truck-tractor, apportioned bus, or apportioned truck shall be attached thereto, one in the front and one in the rear. The registration plate issued for a motorcycle, autocycle, trailer or semitrailer required to be registered hereunder and any apportionment plate issued to a bus under the provisions of this Code shall be attached to the rear thereof. The registration plate issued for a truck-tractor or an apportioned truck required to be registered hereunder shall be attached to the front thereof.

(b) Every registration plate shall at all times be securely fastened in a horizontal position to the vehicle for which it is issued so as to prevent the plate from swinging and at a height of not less than 5 inches from the ground, measuring from the bottom of such plate, in a place and position to be clearly visible and shall be maintained in a condition to be clearly legible, free from any materials that would obstruct the visibility of the plate. A registration plate on a motorcycle may be mounted vertically as long as it is otherwise clearly visible. Registration stickers issued as evidence of renewed annual registration shall be attached to registration plates as required by the Secretary of State, and be clearly visible at all times.

(c) Every drive-away permit issued pursuant to this Code shall be firmly attached to the motor vehicle in the manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. If a drive-away permit is affixed to a motor vehicle in any other manner the permit shall be void and of no effect.

(d) The Illinois prorate decal issued to a foreign registered vehicle part of a fleet prorated or apportioned with Illinois, shall be displayed on a registration plate and displayed on the front of such vehicle in the same manner as an Illinois registration plate.

(e) The registration plate issued for a camper body mounted on a truck displaying registration plates shall be attached to the rear of the camper body.

(f) No person shall operate a vehicle, nor permit the operation of a vehicle, upon which is displayed an Illinois registration plate, plates or registration stickers, except as provided for in subsection (b) of Section 3-701 of this Code, after the termination of the registration period for which issued or after the expiration date set pursuant to Sections 3-414 and 3-414.1 of this Code.

(g) A person may not operate any motor vehicle that is equipped with registration plate covers. A violation of this subsection (g) or a similar provision of a local ordinance is an offense against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic.

(h) A person may not sell or offer for sale a registration plate cover. A violation of this subsection (h) is a business offense.

(i) A person may not advertise for the purpose of promoting the sale of registration plate covers. A violation of this subsection (i) is a business offense.

(j) A person may not modify the original manufacturer's mounting location of the rear registration plate on any vehicle so as to conceal the registration or to knowingly cause it to be obstructed in an effort to hinder a peace officer from obtaining the registration for the enforcement of a violation of this Code, Section 27.1 of the Toll Highway Act concerning toll evasion, or any municipal ordinance. Modifications prohibited by this subsection (j) include but are not limited to the use of an electronic device. A violation of this subsection (j) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 98-777, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1103, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-701) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-701)

Sec. 3-701. Operation of vehicles without evidence of registration - Operation under mileage plates when odometer broken or disconnected.

(a) No person shall operate, nor shall an owner knowingly permit to be operated, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, a vehicle upon any highway unless there shall be attached thereto and displayed thereon when and as required by law, proper evidence of registration in Illinois, as follows:

(1) A vehicle required to be registered in Illinois. A current and valid Illinois registration sticker or stickers and plate or plates, or an Illinois temporary registration permit, or a drive-away or in-transit permit, issued therefor by the Secretary of State. ; or

(2) A vehicle eligible for Reciprocity. A current and valid reciprocal foreign registration plate or plates properly issued to such vehicle or a temporary registration issued therefor, by the reciprocal State, and, in addition, when required by the Secretary, a current and valid Illinois Reciprocity Permit or Prorate Decal issued therefor by the Secretary of State; or except as otherwise expressly provided for in this Chapter.

(3) A vehicle commuting for repairs in Illinois. A dealer plate issued by a foreign state shall exempt a vehicle from the requirements of this Section if the vehicle is being operated for the purpose of transport to a repair facility in Illinois to have repairs performed on the vehicle displaying foreign dealer plates. The driver of the motor vehicle bearing dealer plates shall provide a work order or contract with the repair facility to a law enforcement officer upon request.

(b) A person may operate or permit operation of a vehicle upon any highway a vehicle that has been properly registered but does not display a current and valid Illinois registration sticker if he or she has proof, in the form of a printed receipt from the Secretary, that he or she registered the vehicle before the previous registration's expiration but has not received a new registration sticker from the Secretary. This printed proof of registration is valid for 30 days from the expiration of the previous registration sticker's date.

(c) No person shall operate, nor shall any owner knowingly permit to be operated, any vehicle of the second division for which the owner has made an election to pay the mileage tax in lieu of the annual flat weight tax, at any time when the odometer of such vehicle is broken or disconnected, or is inoperable or not operating.

(Source: P.A. 98-971, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1103, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-3-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-101)

Sec. 5-101. New vehicle dealers must be licensed.

(a) No person shall engage in this State in the business of selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, new vehicles of any make, or act as an intermediary or agent or broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser other than as a salesperson, or represent or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless licensed to do so in writing by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Section.

(b) An application for a new vehicle dealer's license shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, on such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization of the applicant and his established and additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the name and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee, or manager.

3. The make or makes of new vehicles which the applicant will offer for sale at retail in this State.

4. The name of each manufacturer or franchised distributor, if any, of new vehicles with whom the applicant has contracted for the sale of such new vehicles. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a signed statement from each such manufacturer or franchised distributor. If the applicant is in the business of offering for sale new conversion vehicles, trucks or vans, except for trucks modified to serve a special purpose which includes but is not limited to the following vehicles: street sweepers, fertilizer spreaders, emergency vehicles, implements of husbandry or maintenance type vehicles, he must furnish evidence of a sales and service agreement from both the chassis manufacturer and second stage manufacturer.

5. A statement that the applicant has been approved for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the Department of Revenue: Provided that this requirement does not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a certification from the Department of Revenue showing that that Department has approved the applicant for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

6. A statement that the applicant has complied with the appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois shall be included with each application covering each location at which he proposes to act as a new vehicle dealer. The policy must provide liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability under the policy arising during the period for which the policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are exempt from this requirement.

If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.

When a permitted user is "test driving" a new vehicle dealer's automobile, the new vehicle dealer's insurance shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall be secondary.

As used in this paragraph 6, a "permitted user" is a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer or an employee of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also includes a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

As used in this paragraph 6, "test driving" occurs when a permitted user who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer or an employee of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a new vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle.

As used in this paragraph 6, "loaner purposes" means when a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

7. (A) An application for a new motor vehicle dealer's license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(i) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $100 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. All moneys received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (i) prior to applications for the 2004 licensing year shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund and shall be used to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (i) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 10% shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund and shall be used to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act and 90% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(ii) Except for dealers selling 25 or fewer automobiles or as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. For a license renewal application, the fee shall be based on the amount of automobiles sold in the past year according to the following formula:

(1) $0 for dealers selling 25 or less automobiles;

(2) $150 for dealers selling more than 25 but less than 200 automobiles;

(3) $300 for dealers selling 200 or more automobiles but less than 300 automobiles; and

(4) $500 for dealers selling 300 or more automobiles.

License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (ii) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

(B) An application for a new vehicle dealer's license, other than for a new motor vehicle dealer's license, shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(i) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (i) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(ii) Except as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (ii) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

8. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, a partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in the past 3 years any one violation as determined in any civil, criminal or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(A) The Anti-Theft Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(C) The Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

9. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil, criminal or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(A) The Consumer Finance Act;

(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(E) The Interest Act;

(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(H) The Consumer Fraud Act.

10. A bond or certificate of deposit in the amount of $20,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to act as a new vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term of the license, or its renewal, for which application is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act) accepted by the applicant as a new vehicle dealer.

11. Such other information concerning the business of the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe.

12. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 One through Chapter 5 Five of this Code.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a new vehicle dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of such change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this Chapter 5 to the contrary notwithstanding no person shall be licensed as a new vehicle dealer unless:

1. He is authorized by contract in writing between himself and the manufacturer or franchised distributor of such make of vehicle to so sell the same in this State, and

2. Such person shall maintain an established place of business as defined in this Act.

(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under this Section and unless he makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform with the requirements of this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application, under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, grant the applicant an original new vehicle dealer's license in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager;

3. In the case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

4. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains;

5. The make or makes of new vehicles which the licensee is licensed to sell.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State, shall be kept posted conspicuously in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) hereof, all new vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section shall expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under the provisions of Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) A new vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein, and submission of proof of coverage under an approved bond under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an original license, but in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, the effective license shall remain in force until the application is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All persons licensed as a new vehicle dealer are required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:

1. In the case of a new vehicle a manufacturer's statement of origin and in the case of a used motor vehicle a certificate of title, in either case properly assigned to the purchaser;

2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate of title or manufacturer's statement of origin;

3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such person;

4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting return referred to in Section 5-402 hereof;

5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and

6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.

(j) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the vehicle, no person licensed as a new vehicle dealer may issue any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the new vehicle dealer makes a copy of the driver's license or State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining the newly created key. The new vehicle dealer must retain the copy for 30 days.

A new vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (j) is guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (j) is not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the new vehicle dealer's license.

This amendatory Act of 1983 shall be applicable to the 1984 registration year and thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 97-480, eff. 10-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-450, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-102)

Sec. 5-102. Used vehicle dealers must be licensed.

(a) No person, other than a licensed new vehicle dealer, shall engage in the business of selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, 5 or more used vehicles of any make during the year (except house trailers as authorized by paragraph (j) of this Section and rebuilt salvage vehicles sold by their rebuilders to persons licensed under this Chapter), or act as an intermediary, agent or broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser (other than as a salesperson) or represent or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless licensed to do so by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Section.

(b) An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization established and additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the names and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager.

3. A statement that the applicant has been approved for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the Department of Revenue. However, this requirement does not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a certification from the Department of Revenue showing that the Department has approved the applicant for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

4. A statement that the applicant has complied with the appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois shall be included with each application covering each location at which he proposes to act as a used vehicle dealer. The policy must provide liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability under the policy arising during the period for which the policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are exempt from this requirement.

If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.

When a permitted user is "test driving" a used vehicle dealer's automobile, the used vehicle dealer's insurance shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall be secondary.

As used in this paragraph 4, a "permitted user" is a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also includes a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

As used in this paragraph 4, "test driving" occurs when a permitted user who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a used vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle.

As used in this paragraph 4, "loaner purposes" means when a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

5. An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(A) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; however, if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (A) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(B) Except for dealers selling 25 or fewer automobiles or as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. For a license renewal application, the fee shall be based on the amount of automobiles sold in the past year according to the following formula:

(1) $0 for dealers selling 25 or less automobiles;

(2) $150 for dealers selling more than 25 but less than 200 automobiles;

(3) $300 for dealers selling 200 or more automobiles but less than 300 automobiles; and

(4) $500 for dealers selling 300 or more automobiles.

License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

6. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in the past 3 years any one violation as determined in any civil, criminal or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(A) The Anti-Theft Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(C) The Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) Section 21-2 of the Illinois Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

7. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil or criminal or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(A) The Consumer Finance Act;

(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(E) The Interest Act;

(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(H) The Consumer Fraud Act.

8. A bond or Certificate of Deposit in the amount of $20,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to act as a used vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term of the license, or its renewal, for which application is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act) accepted by the applicant as a used vehicle dealer.

9. Such other information concerning the business of the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe.

10. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.

11. A copy of the certification from the prelicensing education program.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of each change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this Chapter to the contrary notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed as a used vehicle dealer unless such person maintains an established place of business as defined in this Chapter.

(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under this Section. Unless the Secretary makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform to this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, he must grant the applicant an original used vehicle dealer's license in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager;

3. In case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

4. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State shall be kept posted, conspicuously, in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this Section, all used vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) A used vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein, and submission of proof of coverage by an approved bond under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an original license, but in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, the effective license shall remain in force until the application for renewal is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All persons licensed as a used vehicle dealer are required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:

1. A certificate of title properly assigned to the purchaser;

2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate of title;

3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such person;

4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting return referred to in Section 5-402 of this Chapter;

5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and

6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.

(j) A real estate broker holding a valid certificate of registration issued pursuant to "The Real Estate Brokers and Salesmen License Act" may engage in the business of selling or dealing in house trailers not his own without being licensed as a used vehicle dealer under this Section; however such broker shall maintain a record of the transaction including the following:

(1) the name and address of the buyer and seller,

(2) the date of sale,

(3) a description of the mobile home, including the vehicle identification number, make, model, and year, and

(4) the Illinois certificate of title number.

The foregoing records shall be available for inspection by any officer of the Secretary of State's Office at any reasonable hour.

(k) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the vehicle, no person licensed as a used vehicle dealer may issue any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the used vehicle dealer makes a copy of the driver's license or State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining the newly created key. The used vehicle dealer must retain the copy for 30 days.

A used vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (k) is guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (k) is not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the used vehicle dealer's license.

(l) Used vehicle dealers licensed under this Section shall provide the Secretary of State a register for the sale at auction of each salvage or junk certificate vehicle. Each register shall include the following information:

1. The year, make, model, style and color of the vehicle;

2. The vehicle's manufacturer's identification number or, if applicable, the Secretary of State or Illinois Department of State Police identification number;

3. The date of acquisition of the vehicle;

4. The name and address of the person from whom the vehicle was acquired;

5. The name and address of the person to whom any vehicle was disposed, the person's Illinois license number or if the person is an out-of-state salvage vehicle buyer, the license number from the state or jurisdiction where the buyer is licensed; and

6. The purchase price of the vehicle.

The register shall be submitted to the Secretary of State via written or electronic means within 10 calendar days from the date of the auction.

(Source: P.A. 97-480, eff. 10-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-450, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-113) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-113)

Sec. 6-113. Restricted licenses and permits.

(a) The Secretary of State upon issuing a drivers license or permit shall have the authority whenever good cause appears to impose restrictions suitable to the licensee's driving ability with respect to the type of, or special mechanical control devices required on, a motor vehicle which the licensee may operate or such other restrictions applicable to the licensee as the Secretary of State may determine to be appropriate to assure the safe operation of a motor vehicle by the licensee.

(b) The Secretary of State may either issue a special restricted license or permit or may set forth such restrictions upon the usual license or permit form.

(c) The Secretary of State may issue a probationary license to a person whose driving privileges have been suspended pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section or subsection (a)(2) of Section 6-206 of this Code. This subsection (c) does not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle. The Secretary of State shall promulgate rules pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, setting forth the conditions and criteria for the issuance and cancellation of probationary licenses.

(d) The Secretary of State may upon receiving satisfactory evidence of any violation of the restrictions of such license or permit suspend, revoke or cancel the same without preliminary hearing, but the licensee or permittee shall be entitled to a hearing as in the case of a suspension or revocation.

(e) It is unlawful for any person to operate a motor vehicle in any manner in violation of the restrictions imposed on a restricted license or permit issued to him.

(f) Whenever the holder of a restricted driving permit is issued a citation for any of the following offenses including similar local ordinances, the restricted driving permit is immediately invalidated:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Act relating to the operation of a motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or narcotic drugs;

3. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Act relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or injury;

4. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Act relating to the offense of drag racing; or

5. Violation of Section 11-506 of this Act relating to the offense of street racing.

The police officer issuing the citation shall confiscate the restricted driving permit and forward it, along with the citation, to the Clerk of the Circuit Court of the county in which the citation was issued.

(g) The Secretary of State may issue a special restricted license for a period of 48 months to individuals using vision aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact lenses, allowing the operation of a motor vehicle during nighttime hours. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules defining the terms and conditions by which the individual may obtain and renew this special restricted license. At a minimum, all drivers must meet the following requirements:

1. Possess a valid driver's license and have operated a motor vehicle during daylight hours for a period of 12 months using vision aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact lenses.

2. Have a driving record that does not include any traffic accidents that occurred during nighttime hours, for which the driver has been found to be at fault, during the 12 months before he or she applied for the special restricted license.

3. Successfully complete a road test administered during nighttime hours.

The special restricted license holder must submit to the Secretary annually a vision specialist report from his or her ophthalmologist or optometrist that the special restricted license holder's vision has not changed. If the special restricted license holder fails to submit this vision specialist report, the special restricted license shall be cancelled under Section 6-201 of this Code.

At a minimum, all drivers renewing this license must meet the following requirements:

1. Successfully complete a road test administered during nighttime hours.

2. Have a driving record that does not include any traffic accidents that occurred during nighttime hours, for which the driver has been found to be at fault, during the 12 months before he or she applied for the special restricted license.

(h) Any driver issued a special restricted license as defined in subsection (g) whose privilege to drive during nighttime hours has been suspended due to an accident occurring during nighttime hours may request a hearing as provided in Section 2-118 of this Code to contest that suspension. If it is determined that the accident for which the driver was at fault was not influenced by the driver's use of vision aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact lenses, the Secretary may reinstate that driver's privilege to drive during nighttime hours.

(i) The Secretary of State may issue a special restricted training permit for a period of 6 months to individuals using vision aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact lenses, allowing the operation of a motor vehicle between sunset and 10:00 p.m. provided the driver is accompanied by a person holding a valid driver's license without nighttime operation restrictions. The Secretary may adopt rules defining the terms and conditions by which the individual may obtain and renew this special restricted training permit. At a minimum, all persons applying for a special restricted training permit must meet the following requirements:

1. Possess a valid driver's license and have operated a motor vehicle during daylight hours for a period of 6 months using vision aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact lenses.

2. Have a driving record that does not include any traffic accidents, for which the person has been found to be at fault, during the 6 months before he or she applied for the special restricted training permit.

(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 98-746, eff. 1-1-15; 98-747, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/7-311) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 7-311)

Sec. 7-311. Payments sufficient to satisfy requirements.

(a) Judgments herein referred to arising out of motor vehicle accidents occurring on or after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public 98-519) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall for the purpose of this Chapter be deemed satisfied:

1. When $25,000 has been credited upon any judgment or judgments rendered in excess of that amount for bodily injury to or the death of one person as the result of any one motor vehicle accident; or

2. When, subject to said limit of $25,000 as to any one person, the sum of $50,000 has been credited upon any judgment or judgments rendered in excess of that amount for bodily injury to or the death of more than one person as the result of any one motor vehicle accident; or

3. When $20,000 has been credited upon any judgment or judgments, rendered in excess of that amount for damages to property of others as a result of any one motor vehicle accident.

The changes to this subsection made by Public Act 98-519 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply only to policies issued or renewed on or after January 1, 2015.

(b) Credit for such amounts shall be deemed a satisfaction of any such judgment or judgments in excess of said amounts only for the purposes of this Chapter.

(c) Whenever payment has been made in settlement of any claim for bodily injury, death or property damage arising from a motor vehicle accident resulting in injury, death or property damage to two or more persons in such accident, any such payment shall be credited in reduction of the amounts provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-519, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/Ch. 11 Art. V heading)

ARTICLE V. DRIVING WHILE UNDER THE INFLUENCE INTOXICATED ,

TRANSPORTING ALCOHOLIC LIQUOR,

AND RECKLESS DRIVING

(625 ILCS 5/11-601) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-601)

Sec. 11-601. General speed restrictions.

(a) No vehicle may be driven upon any highway of this State at a speed which is greater than is reasonable and proper with regard to traffic conditions and the use of the highway, or endangers the safety of any person or property. The fact that the speed of a vehicle does not exceed the applicable maximum speed limit does not relieve the driver from the duty to decrease speed when approaching and crossing an intersection, approaching and going around a curve, when approaching a hill crest, when traveling upon any narrow or winding roadway, or when special hazard exists with respect to pedestrians or other traffic or by reason of weather or highway conditions. Speed must be decreased as may be necessary to avoid colliding with any person or vehicle on or entering the highway in compliance with legal requirements and the duty of all persons to use due care.

(a-5) For purposes of this Section, "urban district" does not include any interstate highway as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code which includes all highways under the jurisdiction of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority.

(b) No person may drive a vehicle upon any highway of this State at a speed which is greater than the applicable statutory maximum speed limit established by paragraphs (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of this Section, by Section 11-605 or by a regulation or ordinance made under this Chapter.

(c) Unless some other speed restriction is established under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit in an urban district for all vehicles is:

1. 30 miles per hour; and

2. 15 miles per hour in an alley.

(d) Unless some other speed restriction is established under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban district for any vehicle is (1) 65 miles per hour for all or part of highways that are designated by the Department, have at least 4 lanes of traffic, and have a separation between the roadways moving in opposite directions and (2) 55 miles per hour for all other highways, roads, and streets.

(d-1) Unless some other speed restriction is established under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban district for any vehicle is (1) 70 miles per hour on any interstate highway as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code which includes all highways under the jurisdiction of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority; (2) 65 miles per hour for all or part of highways that are designated by the Department, have at least 4 lanes of traffic, and have a separation between the roadways moving in opposite directions; and (3) 55 miles per hour for all other highways, roads, and streets. The counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, Madison, McHenry, St. Clair, and Will may adopt ordinances setting a maximum speed limit on highways, roads, and streets that is lower than the limits established by this Section.

(e) In the counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will, unless some lesser speed restriction is established under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban district for a second division vehicle designed or used for the carrying of a gross weight of 8,001 pounds or more (including the weight of the vehicle and maximum load) is 60 miles per hour on any interstate highway as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code and 55 miles per hour on all other highways, roads, and streets.

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) Unless some other speed restriction is established under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban district for a bus is:

1. 65 miles per hour upon any highway which has at least 4 lanes of traffic and of which the roadways for traffic moving in opposite directions are separated by a strip of ground which is not surfaced or suitable for vehicular traffic, except that the maximum speed limit for a bus on all highways, roads, or streets not under the jurisdiction of the Department or the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority is 55 miles per hour;

1.5. 70 miles per hour upon any interstate highway as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code outside the counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will; and

2. 55 miles per hour on any other highway.

(g) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-202, eff. 1-1-12; 98-511, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1126, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1128, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-709.2)

Sec. 11-709.2. Bus on shoulder program.

(a) The use of specifically designated shoulders of roadways by transit buses may be authorized by the Department in cooperation with the Regional Transportation Authority and the Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation Authority. The Department shall prescribe by rule which transit buses are authorized to operate on shoulders, as well as times and locations. The Department may erect signage to indicate times and locations of designated shoulder usage.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank) Transportation.

(Source: P.A. 97-292, eff. 8-11-11; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-871, eff. 8-11-14; revised 10-1-147.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)

Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:

(a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local authorities;

2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle;

2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief who has completed an emergency vehicle operation training course approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department vehicle; however, the designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the lights may be visible or activated only when responding to a bona fide emergency;

3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles;

4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;

5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the State of Illinois;

6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice;

7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act;

8. School buses operating alternately flashing head lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;

9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization;

10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response; and

11. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency; and

12. Vehicles of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority identified as Highway Emergency Lane Patrol; the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency.

(b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph 1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are actually being used at the scene of an accident or disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway during all times when the use of headlights is required under Section 12-201 of this Code; in addition, these vehicles may use white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights in combination with amber oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights as provided in this paragraph;

2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, local authorities and contractors; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance or construction operations within the limits of construction projects;

3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a highway;

4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or other construction, maintenance or automotive service vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance, service or construction on a highway;

5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;

6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and operated by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways;

6.1. The front and rear of motorized equipment or vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;

7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state, furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;

8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local authorities;

9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights;

9.5. Propane delivery trucks;

10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for the United States Postal Service provided that such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;

11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;

12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage or refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm responder, control agency, or the Illinois Department of Corrections;

14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except when being used for security related purposes under the direction of the superintendent of the facility where the vehicle is located; and

15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within the limits of a construction project.

(c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department and vehicles owned or operated by a:

voluntary firefighter;

paid firefighter;

part-paid firefighter;

call firefighter;

member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district;

paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;

paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance unit; or

paid or unpaid members of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and carrying that designation or authorization in the vehicle.

However, such lights are not to be lighted except when responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

Any person using these lights in accordance with this subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an identification card or letter identifying the bona fide member of a fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The card or letter must include:

(A) the name of the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(B) the member's position within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(C) the member's term of service; and

(D) the name of a person within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency to contact to verify the information provided.

2. Police department vehicles in cities having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.

3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call.

6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization.

7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

(c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

(c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or unpaid member of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.

(d) The use of a combination of amber and white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities, contractors, and union representatives; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or vehicles of the State of Illinois, local authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are engaged in a tow operation, highway maintenance, or construction operations within the limits of highway construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles of union representatives except when those vehicles are within the limits of a construction project.

(e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his representative or authorized vendor from temporarily mounting such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only. If the lights are not covered while the vehicle is operated upon a highway, the vehicle shall display signage indicating that the vehicle is out of service or not an emergency vehicle. The signage shall be displayed on all sides of the vehicle in letters at least 2 inches tall and one-half inch wide. A vehicle authorized to have oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights mounted for demonstration purposes may not activate the lights while the vehicle is operated upon a highway.

(g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-39, eff. 1-1-12; 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1173, eff. 1-1-14; 98-80, eff. 7-15-13; 98-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-873, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-111) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-111)

Sec. 15-111. Wheel and axle loads and gross weights.

(a) No vehicle or combination of vehicles with pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, when the total weight on the road surface exceeds the following: 20,000 pounds on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle with no axle within the tandem exceeding 20,000 pounds; 80,000 pounds gross weight for vehicle combinations of 5 or more axles; or a total weight on a group of 2 or more consecutive axles in excess of that weight produced by the application of the following formula: W = 500 times the sum of (LN divided by N-1) + 12N + 36, where "W" equals overall total weight on any group of 2 or more consecutive axles to the nearest 500 pounds, "L" equals the distance measured to the nearest foot between extremes of any group of 2 or more consecutive axles, and "N" equals the number of axles in the group under consideration.

The above formula when expressed in tabular form results in allowable loads as follows:

Distance measured to the nearest foot between the extremes of any Maximum weight in pounds group of 2 or of any group of more consecutive 2 or more consecutive axles axles

*If the distance between 2 axles is 96 inches or less, the 2 axles are tandem axles and the maximum total weight may not exceed 34,000 pounds, notwithstanding the higher limit resulting from the application of the formula.

Vehicles not in a combination having more than 4 axles may not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 4 axles measured between the extreme axles of the vehicle.

Vehicles in a combination having more than 6 axles may not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 6 axles measured between the extreme axles of the combination.

Local authorities, with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction, without additional fees, may also by ordinance or resolution allow the weight limitations of this subsection, provided the maximum gross weight on any one axle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds and the maximum total weight on any tandem axle shall not exceed 34,000 pounds, on designated highways when appropriate regulatory signs giving notice are erected upon the street or highway or portion of any street or highway affected by the ordinance or resolution.

The following are exceptions to the above formula:

(1) Vehicles for which a different limit is established and posted in accordance with Section 15-316 of this Code.

(2) Vehicles for which the Department of Transportation and local authorities issue overweight permits under authority of Section 15-301 of this Code. These vehicles are not subject to the bridge formula.

(3) Cities having a population of more than 50,000 may permit by ordinance axle loads on 2-axle 2 axle motor vehicles 33 1/2% above those provided for herein, but the increase shall not become effective until the city has officially notified the Department of the passage of the ordinance and shall not apply to those vehicles when outside of the limits of the city, nor shall the gross weight of any 2-axle 2 axle motor vehicle operating over any street of the city exceed 40,000 pounds.

(4) Weight limitations shall not apply to vehicles (including loads) operated by a public utility when transporting equipment required for emergency repair of public utility facilities or properties or water wells.

(4.5) A 3-axle or 4-axle 3 or 4 axle vehicle (including when laden) operated or hired by a municipality within Cook, Lake, McHenry, Kane, DuPage, or Will county being operated for the purpose of performing emergency sewer repair that would be subject to a weight limitation less than 66,000 pounds under the formula in this subsection (a) shall have a weight limitation of 66,000 pounds or the vehicle's gross vehicle weight rating, whichever is less. This paragraph (4.5) does not apply to vehicles being operated on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, or to vehicles being operated on bridges or other elevated structures constituting a part of a highway.

(5) Two consecutive sets of tandem axles may carry a total weight of 34,000 pounds each if the overall distance between the first and last axles of the consecutive sets of tandem axles is 36 feet or more, notwithstanding the lower limit resulting from the application of the above formula.

(6) A truck, not in combination and used exclusively for the collection of rendering materials, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle.

(7) A truck not in combination, equipped with a self compactor or an industrial roll-off hoist and roll-off container, used exclusively for garbage, refuse, or recycling operations, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 40,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle vehicle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(7.5) A 3-axle rear discharge truck mixer registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and transportation of concrete in the plastic state, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(8) Except as provided in paragraph (7.5) of this subsection (a), tandem axles on a 3-axle truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2024 and first registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2025, with a distance greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches between any series of 2 axles, is allowed a combined weight on the series not to exceed 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may exceed 20,000 pounds. Any vehicle of this type manufactured after the model year of 2024 or first registered in Illinois after December 31, 2024 may not exceed a combined weight of 34,000 pounds through the series of 2 axles and neither axle of the series may exceed 20,000 pounds.

A 3-axle combination sewer cleaning jetting vacuum truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the transportation of non-hazardous solid waste, manufactured before or in the model year of 2014, first registered in Illinois before January 1, 2015, may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.

(9) A 4-axle truck mixer registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and transportation of concrete in the plastic state, and not operated on a highway that is part of the National System of Interstate Highways, is allowed the following maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on any single axle; 36,000 pounds on a series of axles greater than 72 inches but not more than 96 inches; and 34,000 pounds on any series of 2 axles greater than 40 inches but not more than 72 inches. The gross weight of this vehicle may not exceed the weights allowed by the bridge formula for 4 axles. The bridge formula does not apply to any series of 3 axles while the vehicle is transporting concrete in the plastic state, but no axle or tandem axle of the series may exceed the maximum weight permitted under this paragraph (9) of subsection (a).

(10) Combinations of vehicles, registered as Special Hauling Vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured prior to or in the model year of 2024, and registered in Illinois prior to January 1, 2025, having 5 axles with a distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, may not exceed the following maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle; and 72,000 pounds gross weight. This combination of vehicles is not subject to the bridge formula. For all those combinations of vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured after the effective date of P.A. 92-0417, the overall distance between the first and last axles of the 2 sets of tandems must be 18 feet 6 inches or more. Any combination of vehicles that has had its cargo container replaced in its entirety after December 31, 2024 may not exceed the weights allowed by the bridge formula.

(11) The maximum weight allowed on a vehicle with crawler type tracks is 40,000 pounds.

(12) A combination of vehicles, including a tow truck and a disabled vehicle or disabled combination of vehicles, that exceeds the weight restriction imposed by this Code, may be operated on a public highway in this State provided that neither the disabled vehicle nor any vehicle being towed nor the tow truck itself shall exceed the weight limitations permitted under this Chapter. During the towing operation, neither the tow truck nor the vehicle combination shall exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear axle and 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle, provided the towing vehicle:

(i) is specifically designed as a tow truck having a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds and is equipped with air brakes, provided that air brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer combination that is equipped with air brakes;

(ii) is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(iii) is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles; and

(iv) does not engage in a tow exceeding 20 miles from the initial point of wreck or disablement. Any additional movement of the vehicles may occur only upon issuance of authorization for that movement under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Code. The towing vehicle, however, may tow any disabled vehicle to a point where repairs are actually to occur. This movement shall be valid only on State routes. The tower must abide by posted bridge weight limits.

(13) Upon and during a declaration of an emergency propane supply disaster by the Governor under Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act:

(i) a truck not in combination, equipped with a cargo tank, used exclusively for the transportation of propane or liquefied petroleum gas may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 40,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle vehicle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle; and

(ii) a truck when in combination with a trailer equipped with a cargo tank used exclusively for the transportation of propane or liquefied petroleum gas may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 90,000 pounds gross weight on a 5-axle 5 or 6-axle vehicle.

Vehicles operating under this paragraph (13) are not subject to the bridge formula.

(14) (13) A vehicle or combination of vehicles that uses natural gas or propane gas as a motor fuel may exceed the above weight limitations by 2,000 pounds, except on interstate highways as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code. This paragraph (14) (13) shall not allow a vehicle to exceed any posted weight limit on a highway or structure.

Gross weight limits shall not apply to the combination of the tow truck and vehicles being towed. The tow truck license plate must cover the operating empty weight of the tow truck only. The weight of each vehicle being towed shall be covered by a valid license plate issued to the owner or operator of the vehicle being towed and displayed on that vehicle. If no valid plate issued to the owner or operator of that vehicle is displayed on that vehicle, or the plate displayed on that vehicle does not cover the weight of the vehicle, the weight of the vehicle shall be covered by the third tow truck plate issued to the owner or operator of the tow truck and temporarily affixed to the vehicle being towed. If a roll-back carrier is registered and being used as a tow truck, however, the license plate or plates for the tow truck must cover the gross vehicle weight, including any load carried on the bed of the roll-back carrier.

The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe additional requirements. However, nothing in this Code shall prohibit a tow truck under instructions of a police officer from legally clearing a disabled vehicle, that may be in violation of weight limitations of this Chapter, from the roadway to the berm or shoulder of the highway. If in the opinion of the police officer that location is unsafe, the officer is authorized to have the disabled vehicle towed to the nearest place of safety.

For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight rating, or GVWR, means the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of the tow truck.

(b) As used in this Section, "recycling haul" or "recycling operation" means the hauling of non-hazardous, non-special, non-putrescible materials, such as paper, glass, cans, or plastic, for subsequent use in the secondary materials market.

(c) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with pneumatic tires shall be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State in violation of the provisions of any permit issued under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Chapter.

(d) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with other than pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with load, upon the highways of this State when the gross weight on the road surface through any wheel exceeds 800 pounds per inch width of tire tread or when the gross weight on the road surface through any axle exceeds 16,000 pounds.

(e) No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of vehicles over a bridge or other elevated structure constituting part of a highway with a gross weight that is greater than the maximum weight permitted by the Department, when the structure is sign posted as provided in this Section.

(f) The Department upon request from any local authority shall, or upon its own initiative may, conduct an investigation of any bridge or other elevated structure constituting a part of a highway, and if it finds that the structure cannot with safety to itself withstand the weight of vehicles otherwise permissible under this Code the Department shall determine and declare the maximum weight of vehicles that the structures can withstand, and shall cause or permit suitable signs stating maximum weight to be erected and maintained before each end of the structure. No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of vehicles over any structure with a gross weight that is greater than the posted maximum weight.

(g) Upon the trial of any person charged with a violation of subsection (e) or (f) of this Section, proof of the determination of the maximum allowable weight by the Department and the existence of the signs, constitutes conclusive evidence of the maximum weight that can be maintained with safety to the bridge or structure.

(Source: P.A. 97-201, eff. 1-1-12; 98-409, eff. 1-1-14; 98-410, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-942, eff. 1-1-15; 98-956, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1029, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 470. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 5-18 as follows:

(625 ILCS 45/5-18) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 315-13)

Sec. 5-18. (a) Beginning on January 1, 2016, no person born on or after January 1, 1998, unless exempted by subsection (i), shall operate a motorboat with over 10 horse power unless that person has a valid Boating Safety Certificate issued by the Department of Natural Resources or an entity or organization recognized and approved by the Department.

(b) No person under 10 years of age may operate a motorboat.

(c) Prior to January 1, 2016, persons at least 10 years of age and less than 12 years of age may operate a motorboat with over 10 horse power only if they are accompanied on the motorboat and under the direct control of a parent or guardian or a person at least 18 years of age designated by a parent or guardian. Beginning on January 1, 2016, persons at least 10 years of age and less than 12 years of age may operate a motorboat with over 10 horse power only if the person is under the direct on-board supervision of a parent or guardian who meets the requirements of subsection (a) or a person at least 18 years of age who meets the requirements of subsection (a) and is designated by a parent or guardian.

(d) Prior to January 1, 2016, persons at least 12 years of age and less than 18 years of age may operate a motorboat with over 10 horse power only if they are accompanied on the motorboat and under the direct control of a parent or guardian or a person at least 18 years of age designated by a parent or guardian, or the motorboat operator is in possession of a Boating Safety Certificate issued by the Department of Natural Resources, Division of Law Enforcement, authorizing the holder to operate motorboats. Beginning on January 1, 2016, persons at least 12 years and less than 18 years of age may operate a motorboat with over 10 horse power only if the person meets the requirements of subsection (a) or is under the direct on-board supervision of a parent or guardian who meets the requirements of subsection (a) or a person at least 18 years of age who meets the requirements of subsection (a) and is designated by a parent or guardian.

(e) Beginning January 1, 2016, the owner of a motorboat or a person given supervisory authority over a motorboat shall not permit a motorboat with over 10 horse power to be operated by a person who does not meet the Boating Safety Certificate requirements of this Section.

(f) Licensed boat liveries shall offer abbreviated operating and safety instruction covering core boat safety rules to all renters, unless the renter can demonstrate compliance with the Illinois Boating Safety Certificate requirements of this Section, or is exempt under subsection (i) of this Section. A person who completes abbreviated operating and safety instruction may operate a motorboat rented from the livery providing the abbreviated operating and safety instruction without having a Boating Safety Certificate for up to one year from the date of instruction. The Department shall adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(g) Violations.

(1) A person who is operating a motorboat with over 10 horse power and is required to have a valid Boating Safety Certificate under the provisions of this Section shall present the certificate to a law enforcement officer upon request. Failure of the person to present the certificate upon request is a petty offense.

(2) A person who provides false or fictitious information in an application for a Boating Safety Certificate; or who alters, forges, counterfeits, or falsifies a Boating Safety Certificate; or who possesses a Boating Safety Certificate that has been altered, forged, counterfeited, or falsified is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) A person who loans or permits his or her their Boating Safety Certificate to be used by another person; or who operates a motorboat with over 10 horse power using a Boating Safety Certificate that has not been issued to that person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(4) A violation Violations of this Section done with the knowledge of a parent or guardian shall be deemed a violation by the parent or guardian and punishable under Section 11A-1.

(h) The Department of Natural Resources shall establish a program of instruction on boating safety, laws, regulations and administrative laws, and any other subject matter which might be related to the subject of general boat safety. The program shall be conducted by instructors certified by the Department of Natural Resources. The course of instruction for persons certified to teach boating safety shall be not less than 8 hours in length, and the Department shall have the authority to revoke the certification of any instructor who has demonstrated his inability to conduct courses on the subject matter. The Department of Natural Resources shall develop and provide a method for students to complete the program online. Students satisfactorily completing a program of not less than 8 hours in length shall receive a certificate of safety from the Department of Natural Resources. The Department may cooperate with schools, online vendors, private clubs and other organizations in offering boating safety courses throughout the State of Illinois.

The Department shall issue certificates of boating safety to persons 10 years of age or older successfully completing the prescribed course of instruction and passing such tests as may be prescribed by the Department. The Department may charge each person who enrolls in a course of instruction a fee not to exceed $5. If a fee is authorized by the Department, the Department shall authorize instructors conducting such courses meeting standards established by it to charge for the rental of facilities or for the cost of materials utilized in the course. Fees retained by the Department shall be utilized to defray a part of its expenses to operate the safety and accident reporting programs of the Department.

(i) A Boating Safety Certificate is not required by:

(1) a person who possesses a valid United States Coast Guard commercial vessel operator's license or a marine certificate issued by the Canadian government;

(2) a person employed by the United States, this State, another state, or a subdivision thereof while in performance of his or her official duties;

(3) a person who is not a resident, is temporarily using the waters of this State for a period not to exceed 90 days, and meets any applicable boating safety education requirements of his or her state of residency or possesses a Canadian Pleasure Craft Operator's Card;

(4) a person who is a resident of this State who has met the applicable boating safety education requirements of another state or possesses a Canadian Pleasure Craft Operator's Card;

(5) a person who has assumed operation of the motorboat due to the illness or physical impairment of the operator, and is returning the motorboat or personal watercraft to shore in order to provide assistance or care for that operator;

(6) a person who is registered as a commercial fisherman or a person who is under the onboard direct supervision of the commercial fisherman while operating the commercial fisherman's vessel;

(7) a person who is serving or has qualified as a surface warfare officer or enlisted surface warfare specialist in the United States Navy;

(8) a person who has assumed operation of the motorboat for the purpose of completing a watercraft safety course approved by the Department, the U.S. Coast Guard, or the National Association of State Boating Law Administrators;

(9) a person using only an electric motor to propel the motorboat;

(10) a person operating a motorboat on private property; or

(11) a person over the age of 12 years who holds a valid certificate issued by another state, a province of the Dominion of Canada, the United States Coast Guard Auxiliary or the United States Power Squadron need not obtain a certificate from the Department if the course content of the program in such other state, province or organization substantially meets that established by the Department under this Section. A certificate issued by the Department or by another state, province of the Dominion of Canada or approved organization shall not constitute an operator's license, but shall certify only that the student has successfully passed a course in boating safety instruction.

(j) The Department of Natural Resources shall adopt rules necessary to implement this Section. The Department of Natural Resources shall consult and coordinate with the boating public, professional organizations for recreational boating safety, and the boating retail, leasing, and dealer business community in the adoption of these rules.

(Source: P.A. 98-698, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 475. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.6 as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.6)

(Section as amended by P.A. 96-286, 96-576, 96-578, 96-625, 96-667, 96-1175, 96-1342, 97-434, 97-1051, 97-1108, 97-1150, 98-658, and 98-1013)

Sec. 27.6. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk equalling an amount of $55 or more, except the fine imposed by Section 5-9-1.15 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the additional fee required by subsections (b) and (c), restitution under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, contributions to a local anti-crime program ordered pursuant to Section 5-6-3(b)(13) or Section 5-6-3.1(c)(13) of the Unified Code of Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002 of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this Section shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the circuit clerk as follows: 44.5% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case; 16.825% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and 38.675% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund. Of the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 2/17 shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 5.052/17 shall be deposited into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, 3/17 shall be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund, and 6.948/17 shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the 6.948/17 deposited into the Trauma Center Fund from the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. For fiscal year 1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding year based upon independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall be subject to this Section, except that counties with a population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section, judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(b-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted for a violation of Sections 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(d) The following amounts must be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:

(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(e) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court. If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(f) This Section does not apply to the additional child pornography fines assessed and collected under Section 5-9-1.14 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (b) of Section 3-712 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, 99% shall be deposited into the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(j) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (j) becomes inoperative on January 1, 2020.

(k) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(m) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (c) of Section 411.4 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or subsection (c) of Section 90 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, 99% shall be deposited to the law enforcement agency or fund specified and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(n) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall pay an additional fee of $15 to the clerk of the circuit court. This additional fee of $15 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. This amount, less 2.5% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the State Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the State Police Merit Board Public Safety Fund.

(o) The amounts collected as fines under Sections 10-9, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, and 11-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be collected by the circuit clerk and distributed as provided under Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections in lieu of any disbursement under subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-434, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-658, eff. 6-23-14; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(Section as amended by P.A. 96-576, 96-578, 96-625, 96-667, 96-735, 96-1175, 96-1342, 97-434, 97-1051, 97-1108, 97-1150, 98-658, and 98-1013)

Sec. 27.6. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk equalling an amount of $55 or more, except the fine imposed by Section 5-9-1.15 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the additional fee required by subsections (b) and (c), restitution under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, contributions to a local anti-crime program ordered pursuant to Section 5-6-3(b)(13) or Section 5-6-3.1(c)(13) of the Unified Code of Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002 of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this Section shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the circuit clerk as follows: 44.5% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case; 16.825% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and 38.675% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund. Of the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 2/17 shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 5.052/17 shall be deposited into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, 3/17 shall be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund, and 6.948/17 shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the 6.948/17 deposited into the Trauma Center Fund from the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. For fiscal year 1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding year based upon independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall be subject to this Section, except that counties with a population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section, judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act, Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and subsection (a) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or fee requirements are waived pursuant to court order, the clerk of the court may add to any unpaid fees and costs a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the circuit clerk in performing the duties required to collect and disburse funds. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(b-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted for a violation of Sections 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(d) The following amounts must be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:

(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(e) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court. If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(f) This Section does not apply to the additional child pornography fines assessed and collected under Section 5-9-1.14 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g) Any person convicted of or pleading guilty to a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code. This subsection (g) becomes inoperative on January 1, 2020.

(h) In all counties having a population of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants,

(1) A person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, including any person placed on court supervision for violating subsection (a), shall be fined $750 as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2) When a crime laboratory DUI analysis fee of $150, provided for by Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections is assessed, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided by subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(3) When a fine for a violation of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $250 or greater, the person who violated that Section shall be charged an additional $125 as provided for by subsection (e) of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, which shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a State or county Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund as provided by subsection (e) of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (f) of Section 11-605.

(5) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(6) When a mandatory drug court fee of up to $5 is assessed as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(7) When a mandatory teen court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program fee is assessed as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(8) When a Children's Advocacy Center fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(9) When a victim impact panel fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 11-501.01 of the Vehicle Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to the victim impact panel to be attended by the defendant.

(10) When a new fee collected in traffic cases is enacted after the effective date of this subsection (h), it shall be excluded from the percentage disbursement provisions of this Section unless otherwise indicated by law.

(i) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (b) of Section 3-712 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, 99% shall be deposited into the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(j) (Blank).

(k) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(m) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (c) of Section 411.4 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or subsection (c) of Section 90 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, 99% shall be deposited to the law enforcement agency or fund specified and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(n) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall pay an additional fee of $15 to the clerk of the circuit court. This additional fee of $15 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. This amount, less 2.5% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the State Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the State Police Merit Board Public Safety Fund.

(o) The amounts collected as fines under Sections 10-9, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, and 11-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be collected by the circuit clerk and distributed as provided under Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections in lieu of any disbursement under subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-434, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-658, eff. 6-23-14; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 480. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 3-40, 5-105, and 5-301 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/3-40)

Sec. 3-40. Minors involved in electronic dissemination of indecent visual depictions in need of supervision.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including but not limited to a wireless telephone, personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer, that is capable of transmitting images or pictures.

"Indecent visual depiction" means a depiction or portrayal in any pose, posture, or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the person.

"Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.

(b) A minor shall not distribute or disseminate an indecent visual depiction of another minor through the use of a computer or electronic communication device.

(c) Adjudication. A minor who violates subsection (b) of this Section may be subject to a petition for adjudication and adjudged a minor in need of supervision.

(d) Kinds of dispositional orders. A minor found to be in need of supervision under this Section may be:

(1) ordered to obtain counseling or other supportive services to address the acts that led to the need for supervision; or

(2) ordered to perform community service.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit a prosecution for disorderly conduct, public indecency, child pornography, a violation of Article 26.5 (Harassing and Obscene Communications) of the Criminal Code of 2012, or any other applicable provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1087, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-105)

Sec. 5-105. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(1) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and revocable release of an adjudicated delinquent juvenile committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(1.5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act, and includes the term Juvenile Court.

(2) "Community service" means uncompensated labor for a community service agency as hereinafter defined.

(2.5) "Community service agency" means a not-for-profit organization, community organization, church, charitable organization, individual, public office, or other public body whose purpose is to enhance the physical or mental health of a delinquent minor or to rehabilitate the minor, or to improve the environmental quality or social welfare of the community which agrees to accept community service from juvenile delinquents and to report on the progress of the community service to the State's Attorney pursuant to an agreement or to the court or to any agency designated by the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the delinquent minor for community service.

(3) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal, State, county or municipal law or ordinance.

(4) "Department" means the Department of Human Services unless specifically referenced as another department.

(5) "Detention" means the temporary care of a minor who is alleged to be or has been adjudicated delinquent and who requires secure custody for the minor's own protection or the community's protection in a facility designed to physically restrict the minor's movements, pending disposition by the court or execution of an order of the court for placement or commitment. Design features that physically restrict movement include, but are not limited to, locked rooms and the secure handcuffing of a minor to a rail or other stationary object. In addition, "detention" includes the court ordered care of an alleged or adjudicated delinquent minor who requires secure custody pursuant to Section 5-125 of this Act.

(6) "Diversion" means the referral of a juvenile, without court intervention, into a program that provides services designed to educate the juvenile and develop a productive and responsible approach to living in the community.

(7) "Juvenile detention home" means a public facility with specially trained staff that conforms to the county juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(8) "Juvenile justice continuum" means a set of delinquency prevention programs and services designed for the purpose of preventing or reducing delinquent acts, including criminal activity by youth gangs, as well as intervention, rehabilitation, and prevention services targeted at minors who have committed delinquent acts, and minors who have previously been committed to residential treatment programs for delinquents. The term includes children-in-need-of-services and families-in-need-of-services programs; aftercare and reentry services; substance abuse and mental health programs; community service programs; community service work programs; and alternative-dispute resolution programs serving youth-at-risk of delinquency and their families, whether offered or delivered by State or local governmental entities, public or private for-profit or not-for-profit organizations, or religious or charitable organizations. This term would also encompass any program or service consistent with the purpose of those programs and services enumerated in this subsection.

(9) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of State Police.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Non-secure custody" means confinement where the minor is not physically restricted by being placed in a locked cell or room, by being handcuffed to a rail or other stationary object, or by other means. Non-secure custody may include, but is not limited to, electronic monitoring, foster home placement, home confinement, group home placement, or physical restriction of movement or activity solely through facility staff.

(12) "Public or community service" means uncompensated labor for a not-for-profit organization or public body whose purpose is to enhance physical or mental stability of the offender, environmental quality or the social welfare and which agrees to accept public or community service from offenders and to report on the progress of the offender and the public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service. "Public or community service" does not include blood donation or assignment to labor at a blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "blood bank" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 2-124 of the Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act.

(13) "Sentencing hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged a ward of the court, and to determine what sentence should be imposed on the minor. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "sentencing hearing" replace the term "dispositional hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(15) "Site" means a not-for-profit organization, public body, church, charitable organization, or individual agreeing to accept community service from offenders and to report on the progress of ordered or required public or community service to the court or to the authorized diversion program that has referred the offender for public or community service.

(16) "Station adjustment" means the informal or formal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(17) "Trial" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term "trial" replace the term "adjudicatory hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to violations or attempted violations committed on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-685, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-824, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-301)

Sec. 5-301. Station adjustments. A minor arrested for any offense or a violation of a condition of previous station adjustment may receive a station adjustment for that arrest as provided herein. In deciding whether to impose a station adjustment, either informal or formal, a juvenile police officer shall consider the following factors:

(A) The seriousness of the alleged offense.

(B) The prior history of delinquency of the minor.

(C) The age of the minor.

(D) The culpability of the minor in committing the alleged offense.

(E) Whether the offense was committed in an aggressive or premeditated manner.

(F) Whether the minor used or possessed a deadly weapon when committing the alleged offenses.

(1) Informal station adjustment.

(a) An informal station adjustment is defined as a procedure when a juvenile police officer determines that there is probable cause to believe that the minor has committed an offense.

(b) A minor shall receive no more than 3 informal station adjustments statewide for a misdemeanor offense within 3 years without prior approval from the State's Attorney's Office.

(c) A minor shall receive no more than 3 informal station adjustments statewide for a felony offense within 3 years without prior approval from the State's Attorney's Office.

(d) A minor shall receive a combined total of no more than 5 informal station adjustments statewide during his or her minority.

(e) The juvenile police officer may make reasonable conditions of an informal station adjustment which may include but are not limited to:

(i) Curfew.

(ii) Conditions restricting entry into designated geographical areas.

(iii) No contact with specified persons.

(iv) School attendance.

(v) Performing up to 25 hours of community service work.

(vi) Community mediation.

(vii) Teen court or a peer court.

(viii) Restitution limited to 90 days.

(f) If the minor refuses or fails to abide by the conditions of an informal station adjustment, the juvenile police officer may impose a formal station adjustment or refer the matter to the State's Attorney's Office.

(g) An informal station adjustment does not constitute an adjudication of delinquency or a criminal conviction. Beginning January 1, 2000, a record shall be maintained with the Department of State Police for informal station adjustments for offenses that would be a felony if committed by an adult, and may be maintained if the offense would be a misdemeanor.

(2) Formal station adjustment.

(a) A formal station adjustment is defined as a procedure when a juvenile police officer determines that there is probable cause to believe the minor has committed an offense and an admission by the minor of involvement in the offense.

(b) The minor and parent, guardian, or legal custodian must agree in writing to the formal station adjustment and must be advised of the consequences of violation of any term of the agreement.

(c) The minor and parent, guardian or legal custodian shall be provided a copy of the signed agreement of the formal station adjustment. The agreement shall include:

(i) The offense which formed the basis of the formal station adjustment.

(ii) An acknowledgment that the terms of the formal station adjustment and the consequences for violation have been explained.

(iii) An acknowledgment that the formal station adjustments record may be expunged under Section 5-915 of this Act.

(iv) An acknowledgement that the minor understands that his or her admission of involvement in the offense may be admitted into evidence in future court hearings.

(v) A statement that all parties understand the terms and conditions of formal station adjustment and agree to the formal station adjustment process.

(d) Conditions of the formal station adjustment may include, but are not be limited to:

(i) The time shall not exceed 120 days.

(ii) The minor shall not violate any laws.

(iii) The juvenile police officer may require the minor to comply with additional conditions for the formal station adjustment which may include but are not limited to:

(a) Attending school.

(b) Abiding by a set curfew.

(c) Payment of restitution.

(d) Refraining from possessing a firearm or other weapon.

(e) Reporting to a police officer at designated times and places, including reporting and verification that the minor is at home at designated hours.

(f) Performing up to 25 hours of community service work.

(g) Refraining from entering designated geographical areas.

(h) Participating in community mediation.

(i) Participating in teen court or peer court.

(j) Refraining from contact with specified persons.

(e) A formal station adjustment does not constitute an adjudication of delinquency or a criminal conviction. Beginning January 1, 2000, a record shall be maintained with the Department of State Police for formal station adjustments.

(f) A minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, or both the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, may refuse a formal station adjustment and have the matter referred for court action or other appropriate action.

(g) A minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, or both the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, may within 30 days of the commencement of the formal station adjustment revoke their consent and have the matter referred for court action or other appropriate action. This revocation must be in writing and personally served upon the police officer or his or her supervisor.

(h) The admission of the minor as to involvement in the offense shall be admissible at further court hearings as long as the statement would be admissible under the rules of evidence.

(i) If the minor violates any term or condition of the formal station adjustment the juvenile police officer shall provide written notice of violation to the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian. After consultation with the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the juvenile police officer may take any of the following steps upon violation:

(i) Warn the minor of consequences of continued violations and continue the formal station adjustment.

(ii) Extend the period of the formal station adjustment up to a total of 180 days.

(iii) Extend the hours of community service work up to a total of 40 hours.

(iv) Terminate the formal station adjustment unsatisfactorily and take no other action.

(v) Terminate the formal station adjustment unsatisfactorily and refer the matter to the juvenile court.

(j) A minor shall receive no more than 2 formal station adjustments statewide for a felony offense without the State's Attorney's approval within a 3 year period.

(k) A minor shall receive no more than 3 formal station adjustments statewide for a misdemeanor offense without the State's Attorney's approval within a 3 year period.

(l) The total for formal station adjustments statewide within the period of minority may not exceed 4 without the State's Attorney's approval.

(m) If the minor is arrested in a jurisdiction where the minor does not reside, the formal station adjustment may be transferred to the jurisdiction where the minor does reside upon written agreement of that jurisdiction to monitor the formal station adjustment.

(3) Beginning January 1, 2000, the juvenile police officer making a station adjustment shall assure that information about any offense which would constitute a felony if committed by an adult and may assure that information about a misdemeanor is transmitted to the Department of State Police.

(4) The total number of station adjustments, both formal and informal, shall not exceed 9 without the State's Attorney's approval for any minor arrested anywhere in the State.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 485. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 12-2, 33E-14, 36-1, and 36-2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue.

(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:

(1) A physically handicapped person or a person 60 years of age or older and the assault is without legal justification.

(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building used for park purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) A correctional institution employee, a county juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including a county juvenile detention center employee who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof, performing his or her official duties.

(8) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(9) A sports official or coach actively participating in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue, on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court, while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Act the Air Rifle Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor vehicle.

(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the firearm, against a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, employee of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department, or traffic control municipal employee:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person, other than a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(9) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9), (c)(1), (c)(4), or (c)(9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7) is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10), (c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon", "Category II weapon, and "Category III weapon" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-225, eff. 7-28-11; 97-313, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/33E-14)

Sec. 33E-14. False statements on vendor applications.

(a) A person commits false statements on vendor applications when he or she knowingly makes any false statement or report, with the intent to influence in any way the action of any unit of local government or school district in considering a vendor application.

(b) Sentence. False statements on vendor applications is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1)

Sec. 36-1. Seizure.

(a) Any vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft may be seized and impounded by the law enforcement agency if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is used with the knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code, an offense prohibited by:

(1) an offense prohibited by Section 9-1 (first degree murder), Section 9-3 (involuntary manslaughter and reckless homicide), Section 10-2 (aggravated kidnaping), Section 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), subsection (a), (c), or (d) of Section 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), Section 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), Section 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), Section 11-20.1 (child pornography), paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (b)(1), (b)(2), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of Section 12-3.05 (aggravated battery), Section 12-7.3 (stalking), Section 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), Section 16-1 (theft if the theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal), subdivision (f)(2) or (f)(3) of Section 16-25 (retail theft), Section 18-2 (armed robbery), Section 19-1 (burglary), Section 19-2 (possession of burglary tools), Section 19-3 (residential burglary), Section 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson), Section 20-2 (possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices), subdivision (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 (unlawful use of weapons), Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm), Section 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm), Section 24-1.5 (reckless discharge of a firearm), Section 28-1 (gambling), or Section 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly substance) of this Code;

(2) an offense prohibited by Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or 26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes;

(3) an offense prohibited by Section 28, 29, or 30 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes;

(4) an offense prohibited by Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act;

(5) an offense prohibited by Section 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer);

(6) an offense prohibited by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (driving while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof) or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and:

(A) during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended if the revocation or suspension was for:

(i) Section 11-501 (driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof),

(ii) Section 11-501.1 (statutory summary suspension or revocation),

(iii) paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 (motor vehicle accidents involving death or personal injuries), or

(iv) reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of this Code;

(B) has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries;

(C) the person committed a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;

(D) he or she did not possess a valid driver's license or permit or a valid restricted driving permit or a valid judicial driving permit or a valid monitoring device driving permit; or

(E) he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy;

(7) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(8) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section 6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or

(9)(A) (i) (1) operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act during a period in which his or her privileges to operate a watercraft are revoked or suspended and the revocation or suspension was for operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof; (B) (2) operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof and has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law in another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof and was involved in an accident that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries; or (C) (3) the person committed a violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;. or watercraft or watercraft

(b) In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels or watercraft, vehicles, and aircraft, and any such equipment shall be deemed a vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft for purposes of this Article.

(c) In addition, when a person discharges a firearm at another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual, the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), (d)(1)(H), or (d)(1)(I) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source of transportation and it is determined that the financial hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle for employment or family transportation purposes. A written declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member, the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding. If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle, the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only one vehicle.

(e) In addition, property declared contraband under Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-699, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1020, eff. 8-22-14; revised 9-30-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-2)

Sec. 36-2. Action for forfeiture.

(a) The State's Attorney in the county in which such seizure occurs if he or she finds that the forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner of the vessel or watercraft, vehicle or aircraft or any person whose right, title or interest is of record as described in Section 36-1, to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify remission of the forfeiture, may cause the law enforcement agency to remit the same upon such terms and conditions as the State's Attorney deems reasonable and just. The State's Attorney shall exercise his or her discretion under the foregoing provision of this Section 36-2(a) prior to or promptly after the preliminary review under Section 36-1.5.

(b) If the State's Attorney does not cause the forfeiture to be remitted he or she shall forthwith bring an action for forfeiture in the Circuit Court within whose jurisdiction the seizure and confiscation has taken place. The State's Attorney shall give notice of seizure and the forfeiture proceeding to each person according to the following method: upon each person whose right, title, or interest is of record in the office of the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Transportation, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Agency, or any other department of this State, or any other state of the United States if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is required to be so registered, as the case may be, by delivering the notice and complaint in open court or by certified mail to the address as given upon the records of the Secretary of State, the Division of Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation, the Capital Development Board, or any other department of this State or the United States if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is required to be so registered.

(c) The owner of the seized vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft or any person whose right, title, or interest is of record as described in Section 36-1, may within 20 days after delivery in open court or the mailing of such notice file a verified answer to the Complaint and may appear at the hearing on the action for forfeiture.

(d) The State shall show at such hearing by a preponderance of the evidence, that such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft was used in the commission of an offense described in Section 36-1.

(e) The owner of such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft or any person whose right, title, or interest is of record as described in Section 36-1, may show by a preponderance of the evidence that he did not know, and did not have reason to know, that the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft was to be used in the commission of such an offense or that any of the exceptions set forth in Section 36-3 are applicable.

(f) Unless the State shall make such showing, the Court shall order such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft released to the owner. Where the State has made such showing, the Court may order the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft destroyed or may order it forfeited to any local, municipal or county law enforcement agency, or the Department of State Police or the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

(g) A copy of the order shall be filed with the law enforcement agency, and with each Federal or State office or agency with which such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is required to be registered. Such order, when filed, constitutes authority for the issuance of clear title to such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft, to the department or agency to whom it is delivered or any purchaser thereof. The law enforcement agency shall comply promptly with instructions to remit received from the State's Attorney or Attorney General in accordance with Sections 36-2(a) or 36-3.

(h) The proceeds of any sale at public auction pursuant to Section 36-2 of this Act, after payment of all liens and deduction of the reasonable charges and expenses incurred by the State's Attorney's Office shall be paid to the law enforcement agency having seized the vehicle for forfeiture.

(Source: P.A. 98-699, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1020, eff. 8-22-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 490. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 15.2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/15.2)

Sec. 15.2. Industrial hemp pilot program.

(a) Pursuant to Section 7606 of the federal Agricultural Act of 2014, an institution of higher education or the Department of Agriculture may grow or cultivate industrial hemp if:

(1) the industrial hemp is grown or cultivated for purposes of research conducted under an agricultural pilot program or other agricultural or academic research;

(2) the pilot program studies the growth, cultivation, or marketing of industrial hemp; and

(3) any site used for the growing or cultivating of industrial hemp is certified by, and registered with, the Department of Agriculture.

(b) Before conducting industrial hemp research, an institution of higher education shall notify the Department of Agriculture and any local law enforcement agency in writing.

(c) The institution of higher education shall provide quarterly reports and an annual report to the Department of Agriculture on the research and the research program shall be subject to random inspection by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of State Police, or local law enforcement agencies. The institution of higher education shall submit the annual report to the Department of Agriculture on or before October 1.

(d) The Department of Agriculture may adopt rules to implement this Section. In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of this Section, upon notification by an institution of higher education that the institution wishes to engage in the growth or cultivation of industrial hemp for agricultural research purposes, the Department of Agriculture may adopt emergency rules under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement the provisions of this Section. If changes to the rules are required to comply with federal rules, the Department of Agriculture may adopt peremptory rules as necessary to comply with changes to corresponding federal rules. All other rules that the Department of Agriculture deems necessary to adopt in connection with this Section must proceed through the ordinary rule-making process. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this Section shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

The Department of Agriculture may determine, by rule, the duration of an institution of higher education's pilot program or industrial hemp research. If the institution of higher education has not completed its program within the timeframe established by rule, then the Department of Agriculture may grant an extension to the pilot program if unanticipated circumstances arose that impacted the program.

(e) As used in this Section:

"Industrial hemp" means cannabis sativa L. having no more than 0.3% total THC available, upon heating, or maximum delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol content possible.

"Institution of higher education" means a State institution of higher education that offers a 4-year degree in agricultural science.

(Source: P.A. 98-1072, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 495. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102 and 312 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)

Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled substances.

(a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address and registry number under the laws of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or she is required by those laws to be registered. If the prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5), and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.

(a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3 sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance, the physician must meet both of the following conditions:

(1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician acting in the usual course of professional practice.

(2) The individual physician must provide written instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that prescription.

(b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number under the law of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of such written memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.

(c) Except for any non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than for a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this Act, and then:

(1) only personally by a person registered to dispense a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or her patients, or

(2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to a person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents of identification.

(3) the dispenser shall record the name and address of the purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the date and time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature.

(4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V substance which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any salts thereof, or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in any 96 hour period. The purchaser shall sign a form, approved by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any Schedule V controlled substances within the immediately preceding 96 hours.

(5) (Blank).

(6) all records of purchases and sales shall be maintained for not less than 2 years.

(7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within any consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any such preparations or combination of preparations in excess of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such controlled substance.

(8) a person qualified to dispense controlled substances under this Act and registered thereunder shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as defined in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance, plus the additional quantity of controlled substances necessary to fill the largest number of prescription orders filled by that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one week in the previous year. These limitations shall not apply to Schedule V controlled substances which Federal law prohibits from being dispensed without a prescription.

(9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl nitrite for inhalation or other introduction into the human body for euphoric or physical effect.

(d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of controlled substances received by him or her and a record of all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or professionally used by him or her otherwise than by prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by him or her other than those controlled substances which are administered by the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a prescriber.

(e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she shall securely affix to each package in which that substance is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity, kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed.

(f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall affix to the container in which such substance is sold or dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity, except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the specific medication remains in the container.

(g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner, or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such substance only in the container in which it was delivered to him or her by the person dispensing such substance.

(h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or dispensing of controlled substances that are under the prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual, which is not in the regular course of professional treatment nor part of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor in legitimate and authorized research instituted by any accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency, and which is intended to provide that individual with controlled substances sufficient to maintain that individual's or any other individual's physical or psychological addiction, habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law relating to controlled substances.

(i) A prescriber shall not pre-print preprint or cause to be pre-printed preprinted a prescription for any controlled substance; nor shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to be issued or filled, a pre-printed preprinted prescription for any controlled substance.

(i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device to individually generate a printed prescription, but the prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual signature.

(j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver, possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or cause to be administered under his or her direction any anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for a valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice. The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal manipulation that is intended to increase muscle mass, strength or weight without a medical necessity to do so, or for the intended purpose of improving physical appearance or performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a valid medical purpose or in the course of professional practice.

(k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The controlled substances are not outwardly dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause injury to a person's life or health.

(2) The inner container of a parcel containing controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper.

(3) If the controlled substances consist of prescription medicines, the inner container must be labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner dispensing the prescription.

(4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.

(Source: P.A. 96-166, eff. 1-1-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 500. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 104-18, 108-4, 109-1, 109-1.1, and 122-2.2 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/104-18) (from Ch. 38, par. 104-18)

Sec. 104-18. Progress Reports.

(a) The treatment supervisor shall submit a written progress report to the court, the State, and the defense:

(1) At least 7 days prior to the date for any hearing on the issue of the defendant's fitness;

(2) Whenever he believes that the defendant has attained fitness;

(3) Whenever he believes that there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will attain fitness, with treatment, within the time period set in subsection (e) of Section 104-17 of this Code from the date of the original finding of unfitness.

(b) The progress report shall contain:

(1) The clinical findings of the treatment supervisor and the facts upon which the findings are based;

(2) The opinion of the treatment supervisor as to whether the defendant has attained fitness or as to whether the defendant is making progress, under treatment, toward attaining fitness within the time period set in subsection (e) of Section 104-17 of this Code from the date of the original finding of unfitness;

(3) If the defendant is receiving medication, information from the prescribing physician indicating the type, the dosage and the effect of the medication on the defendant's appearance, actions and demeanor.

(c) Whenever the court is sent a report from the supervisor of the defendant's treatment under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, the treatment provider shall arrange with the court for the return of the defendant to the county jail before the time frame specified in subsection (a) of Section 104-20 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1020, eff. 8-17-12; 98-944, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1025, eff. 8-22-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(725 ILCS 5/108-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 108-4)

Sec. 108-4. Issuance of search warrant.

(a) All warrants upon written complaint shall state the time and date of issuance and be the warrants of the judge issuing the same and not the warrants of the court in which he or she is then sitting and these warrants need not bear the seal of the court or clerk thereof. The complaint on which the warrant is issued need not be filed with the clerk of the court nor with the court if there is no clerk until the warrant has been executed or has been returned "not executed".

The search warrant upon written complaint may be issued electronically or electromagnetically by use of electronic mail or a facsimile transmission machine and this warrant shall have the same validity as a written search warrant.

(b) Warrant upon oral testimony.

(1) General rule. When the offense in connection with which a search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012, and if the circumstances make it reasonable to dispense, in whole or in part, with a written affidavit, a judge may issue a warrant based upon sworn testimony communicated by telephone or other appropriate means, including facsimile transmission.

(2) Application. The person who is requesting the warrant shall prepare a document to be known as a duplicate original warrant and shall read such duplicate original warrant, verbatim, to the judge. The judge shall enter, verbatim, what is so read to the judge on a document to be known as the original warrant. The judge may direct that the warrant be modified.

(3) Issuance. If the judge is satisfied that the offense in connection with which the search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012, that the circumstances are such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, and that grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe that they exist, the judge shall order the issuance of a warrant by directing the person requesting the warrant to sign the judge's name on the duplicate original warrant. The judge shall immediately sign the original warrant and enter on the face of the original warrant the exact time when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The finding of probable cause for a warrant upon oral testimony may be based on the same kind of evidence as is sufficient for a warrant upon affidavit.

(4) Recording and certification of testimony. When a caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to request a warrant, the judge shall immediately place under oath each person whose testimony forms a basis of the application and each person applying for that warrant. If a voice recording device is available, the judge shall record by means of the device all of the call after the caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to request a warrant, otherwise a stenographic or longhand verbatim record shall be made. If a voice recording device is used or a stenographic record made, the judge shall have the record transcribed, shall certify the accuracy of the transcription, and shall file a copy of the original record and the transcription with the court. If a longhand verbatim record is made, the judge shall file a signed copy with the court.

(5) Contents. The contents of a warrant upon oral testimony shall be the same as the contents of a warrant upon affidavit.

(6) Additional rule for execution. The person who executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant.

(7) Motion to suppress based on failure to obtain a written affidavit. Evidence obtained pursuant to a warrant issued under this subsection (b) is not subject to a motion to suppress on the ground that the circumstances were not such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, absent a finding of bad faith. All other grounds to move to suppress are preserved.

(8) This subsection (b) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005.

(9) No evidence obtained pursuant to this subsection (b) shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of subdivision (8).

(c) Warrant upon testimony by simultaneous video and audio transmission.

(1) General rule. When a search warrant is sought and the request is made by electronic means that has a simultaneous video and audio transmission between the requestor and a judge, the judge may issue a search warrant based upon sworn testimony communicated in the transmission.

(2) Application. The requestor shall prepare a document to be known as a duplicate original warrant, and

(A) if circumstances allow, the requestor shall transmit a copy of the warrant together with a complaint for search warrant to the judge by facsimile, email, or other reliable electronic means; or

(B) if circumstances make transmission under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (2) impracticable, the requestor shall read the duplicate original warrant, verbatim, to the judge after being placed under oath as provided in paragraph (4) of this subsection (c). The judge shall enter, verbatim, what is so read to the judge on a document in the judge's possession.

Under both subparagraphs (A) and (B), the document in possession of the judge shall be known as the original warrant. The judge may direct that the warrant be modified.

(3) Issuance. If the judge is satisfied that grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe that grounds exist, the judge shall order the issuance of a warrant by directing the requestor to sign the judge's name on the duplicate original warrant, place the requestor's initials below the judge's name, and enter on the face of the duplicate original warrant the exact date and time when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The judge shall immediately sign the original warrant and enter on the face of the original warrant the exact date and time when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The finding of probable cause for a warrant under this subsection (c) may be based on the same kind of evidence as is sufficient for a warrant under subsection (a).

(4) Recording and certification of testimony. When a requestor initiates a request for search warrant under this subsection (c), and after the requestor informs the judge that the purpose of the communication is to request a warrant, the judge shall place under oath each person whose testimony forms a basis of the application and each person applying for that warrant. A record of the facts upon which the judge based his or her decision to issue a warrant must be made and filed with the court, together with the original warrant.

(A) When the requestor has provided the judge with a written complaint for search warrant under subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) and the judge has sworn the complainant to the facts contained in the complaint for search warrant but has taken no other oral testimony from any person that is essential to establishing probable cause, the judge must acknowledge the attestation in writing on the complaint and file this acknowledged complaint with the court.

(B) When the requestor has not provided the judge with a written complaint for search warrant, or when the judge has taken oral testimony essential to establishing probable cause not contained in the written complaint for search warrant, the essential facts in the oral testimony that form the basis of the judge's decision to issue the warrant shall be included in the record together with the written complaint, if any. If a recording device is used or a stenographic record is made, the judge shall have the record transcribed, shall certify the accuracy of the transcription, and shall file a copy of the original record and the transcription with the court. If a longhand record is made, the judge shall file a signed copy with the court.

The material to be filed need not be filed until the warrant has been executed or has been returned "not executed".

(5) Contents. The contents of a warrant under this subsection (c) shall be the same as the contents of a warrant upon affidavit. A warrant under this subsection is a warrant of the judge issuing the same and not the warrant of the court in which he or she is then sitting and these warrants need not bear the seal of the court or the clerk of the court.

(6) Additional rule for execution. The person who executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant.

(7) Motion to suppress based on failure to obtain a written affidavit. Evidence obtained under a warrant issued under this subsection (c) is not subject to a motion to suppress on the ground that the circumstances were not such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, absent a finding of bad faith. All other grounds to move to suppress are preserved.

(d) The Chief Judge of the circuit court or presiding judge in the issuing jurisdiction shall, by local rule, create a standard practice for the filing or other retention of documents or recordings produced under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-829, eff. 8-1-14; 98-905, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(725 ILCS 5/109-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-1)

Sec. 109-1. Person arrested.

(a) A person arrested with or without a warrant shall be taken without unnecessary delay before the nearest and most accessible judge in that county, except when such county is a participant in a regional jail authority, in which event such person may be taken to the nearest and most accessible judge, irrespective of the county where such judge presides, and a charge shall be filed. Whenever a person arrested either with or without a warrant is required to be taken before a judge, a charge may be filed against such person by way of a two-way closed circuit television system, except that a hearing to deny bail to the defendant may not be conducted by way of closed circuit television.

(b) The judge shall:

(1) Inform the defendant of the charge against him and shall provide him with a copy of the charge;

(2) Advise the defendant of his right to counsel and if indigent shall appoint a public defender or licensed attorney at law of this State to represent him in accordance with the provisions of Section 113-3 of this Code;

(3) Schedule a preliminary hearing in appropriate cases;

(4) Admit the defendant to bail in accordance with the provisions of Article 110 of this Code; and

(5) Order the confiscation of the person's passport or impose travel restrictions on a defendant arrested for first degree murder or other violent crime as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, if the judge determines, based on the factors in Section 110-5 of this Code, that this will reasonably ensure assure the appearance of the defendant and compliance by the defendant with all conditions of release.

(c) The court may issue an order of protection in accordance with the provisions of Article 112A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-143, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(725 ILCS 5/109-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-1.1)

Sec. 109-1.1. (1) Whenever a person arrested either with or without a warrant is taken before a judge as provided for in Sections 107-9(d)(6) and 109-1(a), the judge shall ask the arrestee whether he or she has any children under 18 years old living with him or her who may be neglected as a result of the arrest, incarceration or otherwise. If the judge has reasonable cause to believe that a child may be a neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Care Reporting Act, he shall instruct a probation officer to report it immediately to the Department of Children and Family Services as provided in that Act.

(Source: P.A. 82-228; revised 12-10-14.)

(725 ILCS 5/122-2.2)

Sec. 122-2.2. Intellectual disability and post-conviction relief.

(a) In cases where no determination of an intellectual disability was made and a defendant has been convicted of first-degree murder, sentenced to death, and is in custody pending execution of the sentence of death, the following procedures shall apply:

(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or rule of court, a defendant may seek relief from the death sentence through a petition for post-conviction relief under this Article alleging that the defendant was intellectually disabled as defined in Section 114-15 at the time the offense was alleged to have been committed.

(2) The petition must be filed within 180 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or within 180 days of the issuance of the mandate by the Illinois Supreme Court setting the date of execution, whichever is later.

(b) (3) All other provisions of this Article governing petitions for post-conviction relief shall apply to a petition for post-conviction relief alleging an intellectual disability.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 505. The State Appellate Defender Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(725 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 208-10)

Sec. 10. Powers and duties of State Appellate Defender.

(a) The State Appellate Defender shall represent indigent persons on appeal in criminal and delinquent minor proceedings, when appointed to do so by a court under a Supreme Court Rule or law of this State.

(b) The State Appellate Defender shall submit a budget for the approval of the State Appellate Defender Commission.

(c) The State Appellate Defender may:

(1) maintain a panel of private attorneys available to serve as counsel on a case basis;

(2) establish programs, alone or in conjunction with law schools, for the purpose of utilizing volunteer law students as legal assistants;

(3) cooperate and consult with state agencies, professional associations, and other groups concerning the causes of criminal conduct, the rehabilitation and correction of persons charged with and convicted of crime, the administration of criminal justice, and, in counties of less than 1,000,000 population, study, design, develop and implement model systems for the delivery of trial level defender services, and make an annual report to the General Assembly;

(4) hire investigators to provide investigative services to appointed counsel and county public defenders;

(5) (blank); (Blank.)

(5.5) provide training to county public defenders;

(5.7) provide county public defenders with the assistance of expert witnesses and investigators from funds appropriated to the State Appellate Defender specifically for that purpose by the General Assembly. The Office of the State Appellate Defender shall not be appointed to act as trial counsel;

(6) develop a Juvenile Defender Resource Center to: (i) study, design, develop, and implement model systems for the delivery of trial level defender services for juveniles in the justice system; (ii) in cases in which a sentence of incarceration or an adult sentence, or both, is an authorized disposition, provide trial counsel with legal advice and the assistance of expert witnesses and investigators from funds appropriated to the Office of the State Appellate Defender by the General Assembly specifically for that purpose; (iii) develop and provide training to public defenders on juvenile justice issues, utilizing resources including the State and local bar associations, the Illinois Public Defender Association, law schools, the Midwest Juvenile Defender Center, and pro bono efforts by law firms; and (iv) make an annual report to the General Assembly.

(d) (Blank.).

(e) The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1148, eff. 7-21-10; 97-1003, eff. 8-17-12; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 510. The Gang Crime Witness Protection Act of 2013 is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(725 ILCS 173/15)

Sec. 15. Funding. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, in consultation with the Attorney General, shall adopt rules for the implementation of the Gang Crime Witness Protection Program. Assistance shall be subject to the following limitations:

(a) Funds shall be limited to payment of the following:

(1) temporary living costs;

(2) moving expenses;

(3) rent;

(4) security deposits; and

(5) other appropriate expenses of relocation or transition;

(b) Approval of applications made by State's Attorneys shall be conditioned upon county funding for costs at a level of at least 25%, unless this requirement is waived by the administrator, in accordance with adopted rules, for good cause shown;

(c) Counties providing assistance consistent with the limitations in this Act may apply for reimbursement of up to 75% of their costs; and

(d) No more than 50% of funding available in any given fiscal year may be used for costs associated with any single county; and .

(e) Before the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority distributes moneys from the Gang Crime Witness Protection Program Fund as provided in this Section, it shall retain 2% of those moneys for administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-58, eff. 7-8-13; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 515. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2.7-25, 3-2.7-50, 3-10-2, 5-6-1, 5-6-2, and 5-6-3.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-25)

Sec. 3-2.7-25. Duties and powers.

(a) The Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall function independently within the Department of Juvenile Justice with respect to the operations of the Office in performance of his or her duties under this Article and shall report to the Governor. The Ombudsman shall adopt rules and standards as may be necessary or desirable to carry out his or her duties. Funding for the Office shall be designated separately within Department funds. The Department shall provide necessary administrative services and facilities to the Office of the Independent Juvenile Ombudsman.

(b) The Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall have the following duties:

(1) review and monitor the implementation of the rules and standards established by the Department of Juvenile Justice and evaluate the delivery of services to youth to ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed;

(2) provide assistance to a youth or family whom who the Ombudsman determines is in need of assistance, including advocating with an agency, provider, or other person in the best interests of the youth;

(3) investigate and attempt to resolve complaints made by or on behalf of youth, other than complaints alleging criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and Employees Employee Ethics Act, if the Office determines that the investigation and resolution would further the purpose of the Office, and:

(A) a youth committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the youth's family is in need of assistance from the Office; or

(B) a systemic issue in the Department of Juvenile Justice's provision of services is raised by a complaint;

(4) review or inspect periodically the facilities and procedures of any facility in which a youth has been placed by the Department of Juvenile Justice to ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed; and

(5) be accessible to and meet confidentially and regularly with youth committed to the Department and serve as a resource by informing them of pertinent laws, rules, and policies, and their rights thereunder.

(c) The following cases shall be reported immediately to the Director of Juvenile Justice and the Governor:

(1) cases of severe abuse or injury of a youth;

(2) serious misconduct, misfeasance, malfeasance, or serious violations of policies and procedures concerning the administration of a Department of Juvenile Justice program or operation;

(3) serious problems concerning the delivery of services in a facility operated by or under contract with the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(4) interference by the Department of Juvenile Justice with an investigation conducted by the Office; and

(5) other cases as deemed necessary by the Ombudsman.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Ombudsman may not investigate alleged criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. If the Ombudsman determines that a possible criminal act has been committed, or that special expertise is required in the investigation, he or she shall immediately notify the Department of State Police. If the Ombudsman determines that a possible violation of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act has occurred, he or she shall immediately refer the incident to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation. If the Ombudsman receives a complaint from a youth or third party regarding suspected abuse or neglect of a child, the Ombudsman shall refer the incident to the Child Abuse and Neglect Hotline or to the State Police as mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. Any investigation conducted by the Ombudsman shall not be duplicative and shall be separate from any investigation mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. All investigations conducted by the Ombudsman shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(e) In performance of his or her duties, the Ombudsman may:

(1) review court files of youth;

(2) recommend policies, rules, and legislation designed to protect youth;

(3) make appropriate referrals under any of the duties and powers listed in this Section;

(4) attend internal administrative and disciplinary hearings to ensure the rights of youth are fully observed and advocate for the best interest of youth when deemed necessary; and

(5) perform other acts, otherwise permitted or required by law, in furtherance of the purpose of the Office.

(f) To assess if a youth's rights have been violated, the Ombudsman may, in any matter that does not involve alleged criminal behavior, contact or consult with an administrator, employee, youth, parent, expert, or any other individual in the course of his or her investigation or to secure information as necessary to fulfill his or her duties.

(Source: P.A. 98-1032, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-26-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-50)

Sec. 3-2.7-50. Promotion and awareness of Office. The Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall promote awareness among the public and youth of:

(1) the rights of youth committed to the Department;

(2) the purpose of the Office;

(3) how the Office may be contacted;

(4) the confidential nature of communications; and

(5) the services the Office provides.

(Source: P.A. 98-1032, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-26-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-2)

Sec. 3-10-2. Examination of Persons Committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) A person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be examined in regard to his medical, psychological, social, educational and vocational condition and history, including the use of alcohol and other drugs, the circumstances of his offense and any other information as the Department of Juvenile Justice may determine.

(a-5) Upon admission of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must provide the person with appropriate information concerning HIV and AIDS in writing, verbally, or by video or other electronic means. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall develop the informational materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the Department of Juvenile Justice also must offer the person the option of being tested, at no charge to the person, for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Pre-test information shall be provided to the committed person and informed consent obtained as required in subsection (q) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Department of Juvenile Justice may conduct opt-out HIV testing as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The Department shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other information may be provided by committed persons who have received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test result is available to the Department electronically. The testing provided under this subsection (a-5) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

Also upon admission of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must inform the person of the Department's obligation to provide the person with medical care.

(b) Based on its examination, the Department of Juvenile Justice may exercise the following powers in developing a treatment program of any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice:

(1) Require participation by him in vocational, physical, educational and corrective training and activities to return him to the community.

(2) Place him in any institution or facility of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(3) Order replacement or referral to the Parole and Pardon Board as often as it deems desirable. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall refer the person to the Parole and Pardon Board as required under Section 3-3-4.

(4) Enter into agreements with the Secretary of Human Services and the Director of Children and Family Services, with courts having probation officers, and with private agencies or institutions for separate care or special treatment of persons subject to the control of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall make periodic reexamination of all persons under the control of the Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether existing orders in individual cases should be modified or continued. This examination shall be made with respect to every person at least once annually.

(d) A record of the treatment decision including any modification thereof and the reason therefor, shall be part of the committed person's master record file.

(e) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall by certified mail and telephone or electronic message notify the parent, guardian or nearest relative of any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice of his or her physical location and any change thereof.

(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; 97-323, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-689, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 11-1.50 or 12-15; 26-5 or 48-1; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance who receives a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $29, to be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. In addition to the $29 fee, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, which, if not waived by the court, shall be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. The $29 fee shall be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If the $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(m) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (m) becomes inoperative on January 1, 2020.

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(p) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(q) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (b) of Section 11-601 of the Illinois Vehicle Code when the defendant was operating a vehicle, in an urban district, at a speed in excess of 25 miles per hour over the posted speed limit.

(r) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the violation was the proximate cause of the death of another and the defendant's driving abstract contains a prior conviction or disposition of court supervision for any violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, other than an equipment violation, or a suspension, revocation, or cancellation of the driver's license.

(s) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (i) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-831, eff. 7-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-169, eff. 1-1-14; 98-658, eff. 6-23-14; 98-899, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-2)

Sec. 5-6-2. Incidents of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) When an offender is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a period as provided in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, and shall specify the conditions under Section 5-6-3.

(b) Multiple terms of probation imposed at the same time shall run concurrently.

(c) The court may at any time terminate probation or conditional discharge if warranted by the conduct of the offender and the ends of justice, as provided in Section 5-6-4.

(c-1) For purposes of this subsection (c-1), a "violent offense" means an offense in which bodily harm is inflicted or force is used against any person or threatened against any person; an offense involving sexual conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation; an offense involving domestic violence; an offense of domestic battery, violation of an order of protection, stalking, or hate crime; an offense of driving under the influence of drugs or alcohol; or an offense involving the possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. An offender, other than an offender sentenced on a violent offense, shall be entitled to a time credit toward the completion of the offender's probation or conditional discharge as follows:

(1) For obtaining a high school diploma or GED: 90 days.

(2) For obtaining an associate's degree, career certificate, or vocational technical certification: 120 days.

(3) For obtaining a bachelor's degree: 180 days.

An offender's supervising officer shall promptly and as soon as practicable notify the court of the offender's right to time credits under this subsection (c-1). Upon receipt of this notification, the court shall enter an order modifying the offender's remaining period of probation or conditional discharge to reflect the time credit earned. If, before the expiration of the original period or a reduced period of probation or conditional discharge, the court, after a hearing under Section 5-6-4 of this Code, finds that an offender violated one or more conditions of probation or conditional discharge, the court may order that some or all of the time credit to which the offender is entitled under this Section be forfeited.

(d) Upon the expiration or termination of the period of probation or of conditional discharge, the court shall enter an order discharging the offender.

(e) The court may extend any period of probation or conditional discharge beyond the limits set forth in Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon a violation of a condition of the probation or conditional discharge, for the payment of an assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or for the payment of restitution as provided by an order of restitution under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(e-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution payments unpaid at least 90 days before the probation or conditional discharge expiration date. If payment as ordered has not been made, the court shall hold a review hearing prior to the expiration date, unless the hearing is voluntarily waived by the defendant with the knowledge that waiver may result in an extension of the probation or conditional discharge period or in a revocation of probation or conditional discharge. If the court does not extend probation or conditional discharge, it shall issue a judgment for the unpaid restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit court to file and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien docket, without fee, unless it finds that the victim has recovered a judgment against the defendant for the amount covered by the restitution order. If the court issues a judgment for the unpaid restitution, the court shall send to the defendant at his or her last known address written notification that a civil judgment has been issued for the unpaid restitution.

(f) The court may impose a term of probation that is concurrent or consecutive to a term of imprisonment so long as the maximum term imposed does not exceed the maximum term provided under Article 4.5 of Chapter V or Article 8 of this Chapter. The court may provide that probation may commence while an offender is on mandatory supervised release, participating in a day release program, or being monitored by an electronic monitoring device.

(g) The court may extend a term of probation or conditional discharge that was concurrent to, consecutive to, or otherwise interrupted by a term of imprisonment for the purpose of providing additional time to complete an order of restitution.

(Source: P.A. 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; 98-953, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1114, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(c-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution payments unpaid at least 90 days before the supervision expiration date. If payment as ordered has not been made, the court shall hold a review hearing prior to the expiration date, unless the hearing is voluntarily waived by the defendant with the knowledge that waiver may result in an extension of the supervision period or in a revocation of supervision. If the court does not extend supervision, it shall issue a judgment for the unpaid restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit court to file and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien docket, without fee, unless it finds that the victim has recovered a judgment against the defendant for the amount covered by the restitution order. If the court issues a judgment for the unpaid restitution, the court shall send to the defendant at his or her last known address written notification that a civil judgment has been issued for the unpaid restitution.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 520. The Arsonist Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 65 as follows:

(730 ILCS 148/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Arsonist" means any person who is:

(1) charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with an arson offense, set forth in subsection (b) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included arson offense, and:

(i) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(ii) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(iii) is found not guilty by reason of insanity under subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(iv) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted under subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(v) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted under a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(vi) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted under a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense;

(2) is a minor who has been tried and convicted in an adult criminal prosecution as the result of committing or attempting to commit an offense specified in subsection (b) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law. Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Act as one conviction. Any conviction set aside under law is not a conviction for purposes of this Act.

(b) "Arson offense" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(i) 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson),

(ii) 20-1.1 (aggravated arson),

(iii) 20-1(b) or 20-1.2 (residential arson),

(iv) 20-1(b-5) or 20-1.3 (place of worship arson),

(v) 20-2 (possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices), or

(vi) An attempt to commit any of the offenses listed in clauses (i) through (v).

(2) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (b) of this Section.

(c) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (b) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act.

(d) "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the arsonist expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(e) "Out-of-state student" means any arsonist, as defined in this Section, who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(f) "Out-of-state employee" means any arsonist, as defined in this Section, who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(g) "I-CLEAR" means the Illinois Citizens and Law Enforcement Analysis and Reporting System.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(730 ILCS 148/65)

Sec. 65. Penalty. Any person who is required to register under this Act who violates any of the provisions of this Act and any person who is required to register under this Act who seeks to change his or her name under Article XXI 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any person who is required to register under this Act who knowingly or wilfully gives material information required by this Act that is false is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person convicted of a violation of any provision of this Act shall, in addition to any other penalty required by law, be required to serve a minimum period of 7 days confinement in the local county jail. The court shall impose a mandatory minimum fine of $500 for failure to comply with any provision of this Act. These fines shall be deposited in the Arsonist Registration Fund. An arsonist who violates any provision of this Act may be tried in any Illinois county where the arsonist can be located.

(Source: P.A. 93-949, eff. 1-1-05; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 525. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 230)

Sec. 10. Penalty.

(a) Any person who is required to register under this Article who violates any of the provisions of this Article and any person who is required to register under this Article who seeks to change his or her name under Article XXI 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person who is convicted for a violation of this Act for a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. Any person who is required to register under this Article who knowingly or wilfully gives material information required by this Article that is false is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person convicted of a violation of any provision of this Article shall, in addition to any other penalty required by law, be required to serve a minimum period of 7 days confinement in the local county jail. The court shall impose a mandatory minimum fine of $500 for failure to comply with any provision of this Article. These fines shall be deposited in the Sex Offender Registration Fund. Any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator who violates any provision of this Article may be arrested and tried in any Illinois county where the sex offender can be located. The local police department or sheriff's office is not required to determine whether the person is living within its jurisdiction.

(b) Any person, not covered by privilege under Part 8 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure or the Illinois Supreme Court's Rules of Professional Conduct, who has reason to believe that a sexual predator is not complying, or has not complied, with the requirements of this Article and who, with the intent to assist the sexual predator in eluding a law enforcement agency that is seeking to find the sexual predator to question the sexual predator about, or to arrest the sexual predator for, his or her noncompliance with the requirements of this Article is guilty of a Class 3 felony if he or she:

(1) provides false information to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction about the sexual predator's noncompliance with the requirements of this Article, and, if known, the whereabouts of the sexual predator;

(2) harbors, or attempts to harbor, or assists another person in harboring or attempting to harbor, the sexual predator; or

(3) conceals or attempts to conceal, or assists another person in concealing or attempting to conceal, the sexual predator.

(c) Subsection (b) does not apply if the sexual predator is incarcerated in or is in the custody of a State correctional facility, a private correctional facility, a county or municipal jail, a State mental health facility or a State treatment and detention facility, or a federal correctional facility.

(d) Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply if the sex offender accurately registered his or her Internet protocol address under this Act, and the address subsequently changed without his or her knowledge or intent.

(Source: P.A. 94-168, eff. 1-1-06; 94-988, eff. 1-1-07; 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 530. The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Section 60 as follows:

(730 ILCS 154/60)

Sec. 60. Penalty. Any person who is required to register under this Act who violates any of the provisions of this Act and any person who is required to register under this Act who seeks to change his or her name under Article XXI 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person who is convicted for a violation of this Act for a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. Any person who is required to register under this Act who knowingly or wilfully gives material information required by this Act that is false is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person convicted of a violation of any provision of this Act shall, in addition to any other penalty required by law, be required to serve a minimum period of 7 days confinement in the local county jail. The court shall impose a mandatory minimum fine of $500 for failure to comply with any provision of this Act. These fines shall be deposited into the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Fund. Any violent offender against youth who violates any provision of this Act may be arrested and tried in any Illinois county where the violent offender against youth can be located. The local police department or sheriff's office is not required to determine whether the person is living within its jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 535. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 8-802 and 12-705 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/8-802) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802)

Sec. 8-802. Physician and patient. No physician or surgeon shall be permitted to disclose any information he or she may have acquired in attending any patient in a professional character, necessary to enable him or her professionally to serve the patient, except only (1) in trials for homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide, (2) in actions, civil or criminal, against the physician for malpractice, (3) with the expressed consent of the patient, or in case of his or her death or disability, of his or her personal representative or other person authorized to sue for personal injury or of the beneficiary of an insurance policy on his or her life, health, or physical condition, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, (4) in all actions brought by or against the patient, his or her personal representative, a beneficiary under a policy of insurance, or the executor or administrator of his or her estate wherein the patient's physical or mental condition is an issue, (5) upon an issue as to the validity of a document as a will of the patient, (6) in any criminal action where the charge is either first degree murder by abortion, attempted abortion or abortion, (7) in actions, civil or criminal, arising from the filing of a report in compliance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, (8) to any department, agency, institution or facility which has custody of the patient pursuant to State statute or any court order of commitment, (9) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible pursuant to Section 11-501.4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, (10) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible under Section 5-11a of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, (11) in criminal actions arising from the filing of a report of suspected terrorist offense in compliance with Section 29D-10(p)(7) of the Criminal Code of 2012, (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 22 of the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act; or the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.5 of the Workers' Compensation Act, ; or (13) upon the issuance of a grand jury subpoena pursuant to Article 112 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963., or (14) (13) to or through a health information exchange, as that term is defined in Section 2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, in accordance with State or federal law.

Upon disclosure under item (13) of this Section, in any criminal action where the charge is domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or where the patient is under the age of 18 years or upon the request of the patient, the State's Attorney shall petition the court for a protective order pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 415.

In the event of a conflict between the application of this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to a specific situation, the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-954, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

(735 ILCS 5/12-705) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-705)

Sec. 12-705. Summons.

(a) Summons shall be returnable not less than 21 nor more than 30 days after the date of issuance. Summons with 4 copies of the interrogatories shall be served and returned as in other civil cases. If the garnishee is served with summons less than 10 days prior to the return date, the court shall continue the case to a new return date 14 days after the return date stated on the summons. The summons shall be in a form consistent with local court rules. The summons shall be accompanied by a copy of the underlying judgment or a certification by the clerk of the court that entered the judgment, or by the attorney for the judgment creditor, setting forth the amount of the judgment, the name of the court and the number of the case and one copy of a garnishment notice in substantially the following form:

"GARNISHMENT NOTICE

(Name and address of Court)

Name of Case: (Name of Judgment Creditor),

Judgment Creditor v.

(Name of Judgment Judgement Debtor),

Judgment Debtor.

Address of Judgment Debtor: (Insert last known address)

Name and address of Attorney for Judgment

Creditor or of Judgment Creditor (If no

attorney is listed): (Insert name and address)

Amount of Judgment: $(Insert amount)

Name of Garnishee: (Insert name)

Return Date: (Insert return date specified in summons)

NOTICE: The court has issued a garnishment summons against the garnishee named above for money or property (other than wages) belonging to the judgment debtor or in which the judgment debtor has an interest. The garnishment summons was issued on the basis of a judgment against the judgment debtor in favor of the judgment creditor in the amount stated above.

The amount of money or property (other than wages) that may be garnished is limited by federal and Illinois law. The judgment debtor has the right to assert statutory exemptions against certain money or property of the judgment debtor which may not be used to satisfy the judgment in the amount stated above.

Under Illinois or federal law, the exemptions of personal property owned by the debtor include the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $4,000 in value, in any personal property as chosen by the debtor; Social Security and SSI benefits; public assistance benefits; unemployment compensation benefits; workers' compensation benefits; veterans' benefits; circuit breaker property tax relief benefits; the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $2,400 in value, in any one motor vehicle, and the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $1,500 in value, in any implements, professional books or tools of the trade of the debtor.

The judgment debtor may have other possible exemptions from garnishment under the law.

The judgment debtor has the right to request a hearing before the court to dispute the garnishment or to declare exempt from garnishment certain money or property or both. To obtain a hearing in counties with a population of 1,000,000 or more, the judgment debtor must notify the Clerk of the Court in person and in writing at (insert address of Clerk) before the return date specified above or appear in court on the date and time on that return date. To obtain a hearing in counties with a population of less than 1,000,000, the judgment debtor must notify the Clerk of the Court in writing at (insert address of Clerk) on or before the return date specified above. The Clerk of the Court will provide a hearing date and the necessary forms that must be prepared by the judgment debtor or the attorney for the judgment debtor and sent to the judgment creditor and the garnishee regarding the time and location of the hearing. This notice may be sent by regular first class mail."

(b) An officer or other person authorized by law to serve process shall serve the summons, interrogatories and the garnishment notice required by subsection (a) of this Section upon the garnishee and shall, (1) within 2 business days of the service upon the garnishee, mail a copy of the garnishment notice and the summons to the judgment debtor by first class mail at the judgment debtor's address indicated in the garnishment notice and (2) within 4 business days of the service upon the garnishee file with the clerk of the court a certificate of mailing in substantially the following form:

"CERTIFICATE OF MAILING

I hereby certify that, within 2 business days of service upon the garnishee of the garnishment summons, interrogatories and garnishment notice, I served upon the judgment debtor in this cause a copy of the garnishment summons and garnishment notice by first class mail to the judgment debtor's address as indicated in the garnishment notice.

Date:............ .........................

Signature"

In the case of service of the summons for garnishment upon the garnishee by certified or registered mail, as provided in subsection (c) of this Section, no sooner than 2 business days nor later than 4 business days after the date of mailing, the clerk shall mail a copy of the garnishment notice and the summons to the judgment debtor by first class mail at the judgment debtor's address indicated in the garnishment notice, shall prepare the Certificate of Mailing described by this subsection, and shall include the Certificate of Mailing in a permanent record.

(c) In a county with a population of less than 1,000,000, unless otherwise provided by circuit court rule, at the request of the judgment creditor or his or her attorney and instead of personal service, service of a summons for garnishment may be made as follows:

(1) For each garnishee to be served, the judgment creditor or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk of the court a fee of $2, plus the cost of mailing, and furnish to the clerk an original and 2 copies of a summons, an original and one copy of the interrogatories, an affidavit setting forth the garnishee's mailing address, an original and 2 copies of the garnishment notice required by subsection (a) of this Section, and a copy of the judgment or certification described in subsection (a) of this Section. The original judgment shall be retained by the clerk.

(2) The clerk shall mail to the garnishee, at the address appearing in the affidavit, the copy of the judgment or certification described in subsection (a) of this Section, the summons, the interrogatories, and the garnishment notice required by subsection (a) of this Section, by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, showing to whom delivered and the date and address of delivery. This Mailing shall be mailed on a "restricted delivery" basis when service is directed to a natural person. The envelope and return receipt shall bear the return address of the clerk, and the return receipt shall be stamped with the docket number of the case. The receipt for certified or registered mail shall state the name and address of the addressee, the date of the mailing, shall identify the documents mailed, and shall be attached to the original summons.

(3) The return receipt must be attached to the original summons and, if it shows delivery at least 10 days before the day for the return date, shall constitute proof of service of any documents identified on the return receipt as having been mailed.

(4) The clerk shall note the fact of service in a permanent record.

(d) The garnishment summons may be served and returned in the manner provided by Supreme Court Rule for service, otherwise than by publication, of a notice for additional relief upon a party in default.

(Source: P.A. 98-557, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 540. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing, setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-5-55 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-55)

Sec. 25-5-55. Quick-take; McHenry County. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no longer than one year from the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly by McHenry County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of reconstruction of the intersection of Miller Road and Illinois Route 31:

Route: Illinois State Route 31 Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0003 Sta. 119+70.41 To Sta. 136+74.99 Owner: Parkway Bank and Trust Company as Trustee under Trust Agreement dated October 25, 1988 known as trust No. 9052 Index No. 14-02-100-002, 14-02- 100-051

A part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Northwest Quarter; thence North 0 degrees 40 minutes 30 seconds East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along the west line of said Northwest Quarter, 33.01 feet; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East along a line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Northwest Quarter, 633.53 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence North 47 degrees 43 minutes 11 seconds East, 76.04 feet; thence Northeasterly 892.04 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 5900.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 03 degrees 13 minutes 38 seconds East, a chord distance of 891.20 feet; thence North 01 degrees 06 minutes 15 seconds West, 737.81 feet; thence North 88 degrees 52 minutes 57 seconds East, 60.00 feet to a point on the westerly line of Illinois State Route 31 as dedicated per Book 12 of Miscellaneous Records, pages 200, 201 and 203; thence South 01 degrees 06 minutes 15 seconds East along said westerly line, 405.84 feet; thence South 01 degrees 00 minutes 45 seconds West along said westerly line, 135.20 feet; thence South 02 degrees 50 minutes 15 seconds East along said westerly line, 165.10 feet; thence South 01 degrees 06 minutes 15 seconds East along said westerly line, 407.00 feet; thence Southwesterly 567.07 feet along said westerly line, said line being a curve to the right having a radius of 3779.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 03 degrees 11 minutes 37 seconds West, a chord distance of 566.54 feet to point on a line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Northwest Quarter; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West along a line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Northwest Quarter, 142.09 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 116,716 square feet (2.679 acres) more or less.

Route: Bull Valley Road Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0003TE Sta. 531+73.39 To Sta. 532+82.90 Owner: Parkway Bank and Trust Company as Trustee under Trust Agreement dated October 25, 1988 known as trust No. 9052 Index No. 14-02-100-002

A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Southwest Quarter; thence North 00 degrees 40 minutes 30 seconds East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along the west line of said Southwest Quarter, 33.01 feet; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East along a line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Southwest Quarter, 540.42 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence North 00 degrees 33 minutes 06 seconds West, 14.95 feet; thence North 89 degrees 26 minutes 54 seconds East, 109.87 feet; thence South 47 degrees 43 minutes 11 seconds West, 22.47 feet to a point on a line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West along said line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Southwest Quarter, 93.10 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 1,518 square feet (0.035 acres) more or less.

Route: Illinois State Route 31 Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0011 Sta. 124+14.14 To Sta. 124+35.35 Owner: Trapani, LLC, an Illinois limited liability company Index No. 14-02-100-050

A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of Lot 1 in McDonalds Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry County, Illinois; thence Northeasterly along the easterly line of Illinois State Route 31 as dedicated per Book 12 of Miscellaneous Records, pages 200, 201 and 203, 206.43 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 41 minutes 29 seconds East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) a chord distance of 206.41 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing Northeasterly along said easterly line, 21.36 feet, said line being a curve to the left having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degrees 00 minutes 02 seconds East, a chord distance of 21.36 feet to a point the south line of a parcel of land per deed recorded February 10, 2003 as Document No. 2003R0017053; thence North 89 degrees 22 minutes 29 seconds East along said south line, 1.04 feet; thence Southwesterly 21.41 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 6060.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 03 degrees 47 minutes 21 seconds West, a chord distance of 21.41 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 11 square feet (0.000 acres) more or less.

Route: Illinois State Route 31 Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0011TE-1 Sta. 123+50.48 To Sta. 124+26.94 Owner: Trapani, LLC, an Illinois limited liability company Index No. 14-02-100-050

A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of Lot 1 in McDonalds Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry County, Illinois; thence Northeasterly along the easterly line of Illinois State Route 31 as dedicated per Book 12 of Miscellaneous Records, pages 200, 201 and 203, 142.05 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 3 degrees 10 minutes 09 seconds East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) a chord distance of 142.05 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing Northeasterly along said easterly line, 64.39 feet, said line being a curve to the left having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degrees 38 minutes 13 seconds East, a chord distance of 64.38 feet; thence Northeasterly 12.69 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 6060.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 03 degrees 49 minutes 49 seconds East, a chord distance of 12.69 feet; thence South 89 degrees 01 minutes 32 seconds East, 4.46 feet; thence Southwesterly 77.18 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 3864.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 01 degrees 32 minutes 47 seconds West, a chord distance of 77.17 feet; thence North 87 degrees 52 minutes 53 seconds West, 5.07 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 387 square feet (0.009 acres) more or less.

Route: Charles J. Miller Road Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0011TE-2 Sta. 537+44.77 To Sta. 538+37.59 Owner: Trapani, LLC, an Illinois limited liability company Index No. 14-02-100-050

A part of Lot 2, in McDonald's Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along the south line of said Lot 2, 92.83 feet; thence North 00 degrees 33 minutes 02 seconds West, 33.91 feet; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 46 seconds East, 93.43 feet to a point on the east line of said Lot 2; thence South 00 degrees 28 minutes 57 seconds West along said east line, 33.66 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 3,146 square feet (0.072 acres) more or less.

Route: Charles J. Miller Road Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0016 Sta. 538+37.74 To Sta. 539+63.26 Owner: Marion R. Reinwall Hoak as Trustee of the Marion R. Reinwall Hoak Living trust dated September 15, 1998 Index No. 14-02-100-022

A part of the West Half of Government Lot 1 in the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said West Half of Government Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along the south line of said West Half of Government Lot 1, 115.35 feet to the point of intersection with the east line of Lot 2 in McDonald's Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry County, Illinois extended southerly; thence North 00 degrees 28 minutes 57 seconds East along said east line extended southerly and along said east line, 48.01 feet; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East, 115.36 feet to a point on the east line of said West Half of Government Lot 1; thence South 00 degrees 29 minutes 41 seconds West along said east line, 48.01 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 5,537 square feet (0.127 acres) more or less, of which 0.087 acres more or less, has been previously used or dedicated.

Route: Illinois State Route 31 Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW County: McHenry County Job No.: R-91-020-06 Parcel: 0017 Sta. 536+90.86 To Sta. 539+43.61 Owner: Alliance Bible Church of the Christian and Missionary Alliance, an Illinois not for profit corporation Index No. 14-02-302-005; 14-02- 302-004; 14-02-302-002

A part of Lots 4 and 5, in Smith First Addition being a subdivision of the North 473.90 feet of the Northwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, lying easterly of the easterly right-of-way of State Route 31, according to the plat thereof recorded in the recorder's office of McHenry County, Illinois on February 16, 1973, as Document No. 586905 in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 5; thence South 00 degrees 08 minutes 56 seconds West (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along the east line of said Lot 5, 33.94 feet; thence Southwesterly 106.41 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 795.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 85 degrees 36 minutes 55 seconds West, a chord distance of 106.34 feet; thence South 89 degrees 26 minutes 58 seconds West, 154.36 feet to a point on the west line of said Lot 4; thence North 00 degrees 10 minutes 27 seconds East along said west line, 41.06 feet to the northwest corner of said Lot 4; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East along the north line of said Lots 4 and 5, 260.35 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 10,438 square feet (0.240 acres) more or less.

(Source: P.A. 98-852, eff. 8-1-14.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-60)

Sec. 25-5-60 25-5-55. Quick-take; Village of Mundelein. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no longer than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly by the Village of Mundelein in Lake County for the acquisition of property and easements, legally described below, for the purpose of widening and reconstructing Hawley Street from Midlothian Road to Seymour Avenue, and making other public utility improvements including the construction of a bike path:

PIN: 10-24-423-010

That part of Lot 11 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, described as follows: beginning at the Southeast corner of Lot 11; thence West along the South line of said Lot, 99.95 (meas.) 100.00 feet (rec.) to the Southwest corner of said Lot; thence North along the West line of said Lot, 10.00 feet; thence Southeasterly 8.51 feet to a point 6.00 feet East of and 4.00 feet North of the Southwest corner of said Lot; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 93.97 feet to the East line of said Lot; thence South along said last described line, 4.00 feet to the point of beginning, Lake County, Illinois. 417.50 sq. ft.

Temporary easement: That part of Lot 11 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plot thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, described as follows: commencing at the Southwest corner of said Lot 11; thence North along the West line of said Lot, 10.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North along said last described line, 35.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 10.00 feet; thence South parallel with the West line of said Lot, 25.00 feet to a line 20.00 feet North of and parallel with the South line of said Lot; thence East along said last described line, 20.00 feet; thence South parallel with the West line of said Lot, 16.00 feet to a line 4.00 feet North of and parallel with the South line of said Lot; thence West along said last described line, 24.00 feet to a point 6.00 feet East of the West line of said Lot; thence Northwesterly, 8.51 feet to the point of beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. Containing 712.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-423-011

The South 4.00 feet of Lot 10 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 400.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-423-013

The South 4.00 feet of Lot 8 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 400.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-423-016

The South 7.00 feet of Lot 5 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 700.00 sq. ft.

Temporary Easement: That part of Lot 5 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, described as follows: commencing at the Southeast corner of said Lot 5; thence North along the East line of said Lot, 7.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence West parallel with the South line of said Lot, 100.00 feet to the West line of said Lot; thence North along said last described line, 5.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 52.00 feet; thence North parallel with the West line of said Lot, 22.50 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 14.50 feet; thence North parallel with the West line of said Lot, 5.20 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 33.50 feet to the East line of said Lot; thence South along the last described line, 32.70 feet to the point of beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. 1754.20 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-423-018

The South 13.50 feet of Lot 3 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 1350.00 sq. ft.

Temporary Easement: That part of Lot 3 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, described as follows: commencing at the Southeast corner of said Lot 3; thence North along the East line of said Lot, 13.50 feet to the point of beginning; thence West parallel with the South line of said Lot, 100.00 feet to the West line of said Lot; thence North along said last described line, 10.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 45.00 feet; thence North parallel with the West line of said Lot, 30.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 34.00 feet; thence South parallel with the West line of said Lot, 30.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 21.00 feet to the East line of said Lot; thence South along the last described line, 10.00 feet to the point of beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. 2020.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-423-019

The South 13.50 feet of Lot 2 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 1350.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-423-021

The South 13.50 feet of a tract of land described as Lot 1 (as originally platted), (except that part taken for highway per Document No. 2242325 and 2242326), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 1040.30 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-25-205-003

Temporary Easement: That part of Lot 44 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151 in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, described as follows: commencing at the Northeast corner of said Lot 44; thence South along the East line of said Lot, 5.00 feet; thence West parallel with the North line of said Lot, 34.00 feet; thence South parallel with the East line of said Lot, 5.00 feet; thence West parallel with the North line of said Lot, 16.00 feet to the West line of said Lot; thence North along said last described Lot, 10.00 feet to the Northwest corner of said lot; thence East along the North line of said lot, 50.00 feet to the point of beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. Containing 331.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-25-205-004

Temporary Easement: The North 10.00 feet (except the South 5.00 feet of the West 24.00 feet and the South 5.00 feet of the East 3.00 feet thereof) of Lot 45 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. Containing 365.40 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-25-205-005

Temporary Easement: The North 5.00 feet of Lot 46 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 250.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-25-206-003

Temporary Easement: The North 5.00 feet of Lot 60 (as originally platted), in Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, in Lake County, Illinois. 250.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 11-30-101-004

Temporary Easement:

The North 5.00 feet of the East 30.00 feet of a tract of land described as the West 75.00 feet of Lots 1 and 2, in Block 1 of Hammond's Addition to Rockefeller, being a Subdivision of part of Lot 2 of the Northwest Quarter of Section 30, Township 44 North, Range 11 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded April 2, 1895 as Document No. 61511, in Book "D" of Plats, Page 24,in Lake County, Illinois. 150.00 sq. ft.

PIN: 11-30-120-001

That part of Lot 1 in Hawley Commons, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 30, Township 44 North, Range 11 East, of the Third Principal Meridian according to the plat thereof recorded October 8, 1999 as Document No. 4432301, and described as follows: Beginning at the Northwest corner of Lot 1; thence South along the West line of said Lot 1, 17.00 feet; thence Northeasterly 23.91 feet to a point 17.00 feet East of the point of beginning and on the North line of said Lot 1; thence West along the North line of Lot 1, 17.00 feet to the point of beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. Containing 144.50 sq. ft.

PIN: 10-24-314-036

That part of Lot 14 in Block 2 in Mundelein Home Crest Subdivision of the Northeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 25 and part of the East Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 24, all in Township 44 North, Range 10 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 4, 1926 as Document No. 280148 in Book "P" of Plats, Pages 62 and 63, described as lying Southeasterly of a curve concave Northwesterly having a radius of 45.00 feet and being tangent to the East and South lines of said Lot 14, in Lake County, Illinois. 445.10 sq. ft.

(Source: P.A. 98-1070, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-20-14.)

Section 545. The Controlled Substance and Cannabis Nuisance Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(740 ILCS 40/3) (from Ch. 100 1/2, par. 16)

Sec. 3. (a) The Department or the State's Attorney or any citizen of the county in which a nuisance exists may file a complaint in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, to enjoin all persons from maintaining or permitting such nuisance, to abate the same and to enjoin the use of any such place for the period of one year.

(b) Upon the filing of a complaint by the State's Attorney or the Department in which the complaint states that irreparable injury, loss or damage will result to the People of the State of Illinois, the court shall enter a temporary restraining order without notice enjoining the maintenance of such nuisance, upon testimony under oath, affidavit, or verified complaint containing facts sufficient, if sustained, to justify the court in entering a preliminary injunction upon a hearing after notice. Every such temporary restraining order entered without notice shall be endorsed with the date and hour of entry of the order, shall be filed of record, and shall expire by its terms within such time after entry, not to exceed 10 days as fixed by the court, unless the temporary restraining order, for good cause, is extended for a like period or unless the party against whom the order is directed consents that it may be extended for a longer period. The reason for extension shall be shown in the order. In case a temporary restraining order is entered without notice, the motion for a permanent injunction shall be set down for hearing at the earliest possible time and takes precedence over all matters except older matters of the same character, and when the motion comes on for hearing, the Department or State's Attorney, as the case may be, shall proceed with the application for a permanent injunction, and, if he does not do so, the court shall dissolve the temporary restraining order. On 2 days' days notice to the Department or State's Attorney, as the case may be, the defendant may appear and move the dissolution or modification of such temporary restraining order and in that event the court shall proceed to hear and determine such motion as expeditiously as the ends of justice require.

(c) Upon the filing of the complaint by a citizen or the Department or the State's Attorney (in cases in which the Department or State's Attorney does do not request injunctive relief without notice) in the circuit court, the court, if satisfied that the nuisance complained of exists, shall allow a temporary restraining order, with bond unless the application is filed by the Department or State's Attorney, in such amount as the court may determine, enjoining the defendant from maintaining any such nuisance within the jurisdiction of the court granting the injunctive relief. However, no such injunctive relief shall be granted, except on behalf of an owner or agent, unless it be made to appear to the satisfaction of the court that the owner or agent of such place, knew or had been personally served with a notice signed by the plaintiff and, that such notice has been served upon such owner or such agent of such place at least 5 days prior thereto, that such place, specifically describing the same, was being so used, naming the date or dates of its being so used, and that such owner or agent had failed to abate such nuisance, or that upon diligent inquiry such owner or agent could not be found for the service of such preliminary notice. The lessee, if any, of such place shall be made a party defendant to such petition. If the property owner is a corporation and the Department or the State's Attorney sends the preliminary notice to the corporate address registered with the Secretary of State, such action shall create a rebuttable presumption that the parties have acted with due diligence and the court may grant injunctive relief.

(d) In all cases in which the complaint is filed by a citizen, such complaint shall be verified.

(Source: P.A. 95-503, eff. 1-1-08; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 550. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Sections 9.2 and 10 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/9.2)

Sec. 9.2. Interagency disclosure of recipient information. For the purposes of continuity of care, the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), community agencies funded by the Department of Human Services in that capacity, licensed private hospitals, integrated health systems, members of an interdisciplinary team, federally qualified health centers, or physicians or therapists or other healthcare providers licensed or certified by or receiving payments from the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, State correctional facilities, juvenile justice facilities, mental health facilities operated by a county, mental health court professionals as defined in Section 10 of the Mental Health Court Treatment Act, Veterans and Servicemembers Court professionals as defined in Section 10 of the Veterans and Servicemembers Court Treatment Act and jails and juvenile detention facilities operated by any county of this State may disclose a recipient's record or communications, without consent, to each other, but only for the purpose of admission, treatment, planning, coordinating care, discharge, or governmentally mandated public health reporting. Entities shall not redisclose any personally identifiable information, unless necessary for admission, treatment, planning, coordinating care, discharge, or governmentally mandated public health reporting another setting. No records or communications may be disclosed to a county jail or State correctional facility pursuant to this Section unless the Department has entered into a written agreement with the county jail or State correctional facility requiring that the county jail or State correctional facility adopt written policies and procedures designed to ensure that the records and communications are disclosed only to those persons employed by or under contract to the county jail or State correctional facility who are involved in the provision of mental health services to inmates and that the records and communications are protected from further disclosure.

(Source: P.A. 97-946, eff. 8-13-12; 98-378, eff. 8-16-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(740 ILCS 110/10) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 810)

Sec. 10. (a) Except as provided herein, in any civil, criminal, administrative, or legislative proceeding, or in any proceeding preliminary thereto, a recipient, and a therapist on behalf and in the interest of a recipient, has the privilege to refuse to disclose and to prevent the disclosure of the recipient's record or communications.

(1) Records and communications may be disclosed in a civil, criminal or administrative proceeding in which the recipient introduces his mental condition or any aspect of his services received for such condition as an element of his claim or defense, if and only to the extent the court in which the proceedings have been brought, or, in the case of an administrative proceeding, the court to which an appeal or other action for review of an administrative determination may be taken, finds, after in camera examination of testimony or other evidence, that it is relevant, probative, not unduly prejudicial or inflammatory, and otherwise clearly admissible; that other satisfactory evidence is demonstrably unsatisfactory as evidence of the facts sought to be established by such evidence; and that disclosure is more important to the interests of substantial justice than protection from injury to the therapist-recipient relationship or to the recipient or other whom disclosure is likely to harm. Except in a criminal proceeding in which the recipient, who is accused in that proceeding, raises the defense of insanity, no record or communication between a therapist and a recipient shall be deemed relevant for purposes of this subsection, except the fact of treatment, the cost of services and the ultimate diagnosis unless the party seeking disclosure of the communication clearly establishes in the trial court a compelling need for its production. However, for purposes of this Act, in any action brought or defended under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, or in any action in which pain and suffering is an element of the claim, mental condition shall not be deemed to be introduced merely by making such claim and shall be deemed to be introduced only if the recipient or a witness on his behalf first testifies concerning the record or communication.

(2) Records or communications may be disclosed in a civil proceeding after the recipient's death when the recipient's physical or mental condition has been introduced as an element of a claim or defense by any party claiming or defending through or as a beneficiary of the recipient, provided the court finds, after in camera examination of the evidence, that it is relevant, probative, and otherwise clearly admissible; that other satisfactory evidence is not available regarding the facts sought to be established by such evidence; and that disclosure is more important to the interests of substantial justice than protection from any injury which disclosure is likely to cause.

(3) In the event of a claim made or an action filed by a recipient, or, following the recipient's death, by any party claiming as a beneficiary of the recipient for injury caused in the course of providing services to such recipient, the therapist and other persons whose actions are alleged to have been the cause of injury may disclose pertinent records and communications to an attorney or attorneys engaged to render advice about and to provide representation in connection with such matter and to persons working under the supervision of such attorney or attorneys, and may testify as to such records or communication in any administrative, judicial or discovery proceeding for the purpose of preparing and presenting a defense against such claim or action.

(4) Records and communications made to or by a therapist in the course of examination ordered by a court for good cause shown may, if otherwise relevant and admissible, be disclosed in a civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding in which the recipient is a party or in appropriate pretrial proceedings, provided such court has found that the recipient has been as adequately and as effectively as possible informed before submitting to such examination that such records and communications would not be considered confidential or privileged. Such records and communications shall be admissible only as to issues involving the recipient's physical or mental condition and only to the extent that these are germane to such proceedings.

(5) Records and communications may be disclosed in a proceeding under the Probate Act of 1975, to determine a recipient's competency or need for guardianship, provided that the disclosure is made only with respect to that issue.

(6) Records and communications may be disclosed to a court-appointed therapist, psychologist, or psychiatrist for use in determining a person's fitness to stand trial if the records were made within the 180-day period immediately preceding the date of the therapist's, psychologist's or psychiatrist's court appointment. These records and communications shall be admissible only as to the issue of the person's fitness to stand trial. Records and communications may be disclosed when such are made during treatment which the recipient is ordered to undergo to render him fit to stand trial on a criminal charge, provided that the disclosure is made only with respect to the issue of fitness to stand trial.

(7) Records and communications of the recipient may be disclosed in any civil or administrative proceeding involving the validity of or benefits under a life, accident, health or disability insurance policy or certificate, or Health Care Service Plan Contract, insuring the recipient, but only if and to the extent that the recipient's mental condition, or treatment or services in connection therewith, is a material element of any claim or defense of any party, provided that information sought or disclosed shall not be redisclosed except in connection with the proceeding in which disclosure is made.

(8) Records or communications may be disclosed when such are relevant to a matter in issue in any action brought under this Act and proceedings preliminary thereto, provided that any information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with such action or preliminary proceedings.

(9) Records and communications of the recipient may be disclosed in investigations of and trials for homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide.

(10) Records and communications of a deceased recipient shall be disclosed to a coroner conducting a preliminary investigation into the recipient's death under Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code.

(11) Records and communications of a recipient shall be disclosed in a proceeding where a petition or motion is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the recipient is named as a parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor who is the subject of a petition for wardship as described in Section 2-3 of that Act or a minor who is the subject of a petition for wardship as described in Section 2-4 of that Act alleging the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent or the recipient is named as a parent of a child who is the subject of a petition, supplemental petition, or motion to appoint a guardian with the power to consent to adoption under Section 2-29 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(12) Records and communications of a recipient may be disclosed when disclosure is necessary to collect sums or receive third party payment representing charges for mental health or developmental disabilities services provided by a therapist or agency to a recipient; however, disclosure shall be limited to information needed to pursue collection, and the information so disclosed may not be used for any other purposes nor may it be redisclosed except in connection with collection activities. Whenever records are disclosed pursuant to this subdivision (12), the recipient of the records shall be advised in writing that any person who discloses mental health records and communications in violation of this Act may be subject to civil liability pursuant to Section 15 of this Act or to criminal penalties pursuant to Section 16 of this Act or both.

(b) Before a disclosure is made under subsection (a), any party to the proceeding or any other interested person may request an in camera review of the record or communications to be disclosed. The court or agency conducting the proceeding may hold an in camera review on its own motion. When, contrary to the express wish of the recipient, the therapist asserts a privilege on behalf and in the interest of a recipient, the court may require that the therapist, in an in camera hearing, establish that disclosure is not in the best interest of the recipient. The court or agency may prevent disclosure or limit disclosure to the extent that other admissible evidence is sufficient to establish the facts in issue. The court or agency may enter such orders as may be necessary in order to protect the confidentiality, privacy, and safety of the recipient or of other persons. Any order to disclose or to not disclose shall be considered a final order for purposes of appeal and shall be subject to interlocutory appeal.

(c) A recipient's records and communications may be disclosed to a duly authorized committee, commission or subcommittee of the General Assembly which possesses subpoena and hearing powers, upon a written request approved by a majority vote of the committee, commission or subcommittee members. The committee, commission or subcommittee may request records only for the purposes of investigating or studying possible violations of recipient rights. The request shall state the purpose for which disclosure is sought.

The facility shall notify the recipient, or his guardian, and therapist in writing of any disclosure request under this subsection within 5 business days after such request. Such notification shall also inform the recipient, or guardian, and therapist of their right to object to the disclosure within 10 business days after receipt of the notification and shall include the name, address and telephone number of the committee, commission or subcommittee member or staff person with whom an objection shall be filed. If no objection has been filed within 15 business days after the request for disclosure, the facility shall disclose the records and communications to the committee, commission or subcommittee. If an objection has been filed within 15 business days after the request for disclosure, the facility shall disclose the records and communications only after the committee, commission or subcommittee has permitted the recipient, guardian or therapist to present his objection in person before it and has renewed its request for disclosure by a majority vote of its members.

Disclosure under this subsection shall not occur until all personally identifiable data of the recipient and provider are removed from the records and communications. Disclosure under this subsection shall not occur in any public proceeding.

(d) No party to any proceeding described under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (7), or (8) of subsection (a) of this Section, nor his or her attorney, shall serve a subpoena seeking to obtain access to records or communications under this Act unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order issued by a judge or by the written consent under Section 5 of this Act of the person whose records are being sought, authorizing the disclosure of the records or the issuance of the subpoena. No such written order shall be issued without written notice of the motion to the recipient and the treatment provider. Prior to issuance of the order, each party or other person entitled to notice shall be permitted an opportunity to be heard pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section. In the absence of the written consent under Section 5 of this Act of the person whose records are being sought, no person shall comply with a subpoena for records or communications under this Act, unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order authorizing the issuance of the subpoena or the disclosure of the records. Each subpoena issued by a court or administrative agency or served on any person pursuant to this subsection (d) shall include the following language: "No person shall comply with a subpoena for mental health records or communications pursuant to Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, 740 ILCS 110/10, unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order that authorizes the issuance of the subpoena and the disclosure of records or communications or by the written consent under Section 5 of that Act of the person whose records are being sought."

(e) When a person has been transported by a peace officer to a mental health facility, then upon the request of a peace officer, if the person is allowed to leave the mental health facility within 48 hours of arrival, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, the facility director shall notify the local law enforcement authority prior to the release of the person. The local law enforcement authority may re-disclose the information as necessary to alert the appropriate enforcement or prosecuting authority.

(f) A recipient's records and communications shall be disclosed to the Inspector General of the Department of Human Services within 10 business days of a request by the Inspector General (i) in the course of an investigation authorized by the Department of Human Services Act and applicable rule or (ii) during the course of an assessment authorized by the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act and applicable rule. The request shall be in writing and signed by the Inspector General or his or her designee. The request shall state the purpose for which disclosure is sought. Any person who knowingly and willfully refuses to comply with such a request is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A recipient's records and communications shall also be disclosed pursuant to subsection (s) (g-5) of Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act in testimony at health care worker registry hearings or preliminary proceedings when such are relevant to the matter in issue, provided that any information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with such action or preliminary proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 97-566, eff. 1-1-12; 98-221, eff. 1-1-14; 98-908, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 555. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Sections 220, 503, and 601 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/220)

Sec. 220. Consent to jurisdiction. Members of a same-sex couple who enter into a marriage in this State consent to the jurisdiction of the courts of this State for the purpose of any action relating to the marriage, even if one or both parties cease to reside in this State. A court shall enter a judgment of dissolution of marriage if, at the time the action is commenced, it meets the grounds for dissolution of marriage set forth in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-597, eff. 6-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(750 ILCS 5/503) (from Ch. 40, par. 503)

Sec. 503. Disposition of property.

(a) For purposes of this Act, "marital property" means all property acquired by either spouse subsequent to the marriage, except the following, which is known as "non-marital property":

(1) property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;

(2) property acquired in exchange for property acquired before the marriage or in exchange for property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;

(3) property acquired by a spouse after a judgment of legal separation;

(4) property excluded by valid agreement of the parties;

(5) any judgment or property obtained by judgment awarded to a spouse from the other spouse;

(6) property acquired before the marriage;

(7) the increase in value of property acquired by a method listed in paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection, irrespective of whether the increase results from a contribution of marital property, non-marital property, the personal effort of a spouse, or otherwise, subject to the right of reimbursement provided in subsection (c) of this Section; and

(8) income from property acquired by a method listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection if the income is not attributable to the personal effort of a spouse.

(b)(1) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to this Section, all property acquired by either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, including non-marital property transferred into some form of co-ownership between the spouses, is presumed to be marital property, regardless of whether title is held individually or by the spouses in some form of co-ownership such as joint tenancy, tenancy in common, tenancy by the entirety, or community property. The presumption of marital property is overcome by a showing that the property was acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to this Section, all pension benefits (including pension benefits under the Illinois Pension Code) acquired by either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of the marriage are presumed to be marital property, regardless of which spouse participates in the pension plan. The presumption that these pension benefits are marital property is overcome by a showing that the pension benefits were acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section. The right to a division of pension benefits in just proportions under this Section is enforceable under Section 1-119 of the Illinois Pension Code.

The value of pension benefits in a retirement system subject to the Illinois Pension Code shall be determined in accordance with the valuation procedures established by the retirement system.

The recognition of pension benefits as marital property and the division of those benefits pursuant to a Qualified Illinois Domestic Relations Order shall not be deemed to be a diminishment, alienation, or impairment of those benefits. The division of pension benefits is an allocation of property in which each spouse has a species of common ownership.

(3) For purposes of distribution of property under this Section, all stock options granted to either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, whether vested or non-vested or whether their value is ascertainable, are presumed to be marital property. This presumption of marital property is overcome by a showing that the stock options were acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section. The court shall allocate stock options between the parties at the time of the judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage recognizing that the value of the stock options may not be then determinable and that the actual division of the options may not occur until a future date. In making the allocation between the parties, the court shall consider, in addition to the factors set forth in subsection (d) of this Section, the following:

(i) All circumstances underlying the grant of the stock option including but not limited to whether the grant was for past, present, or future efforts, or any combination thereof.

(ii) The length of time from the grant of the option to the time the option is exercisable.

(b-5) As to any policy of life insurance insuring the life of either spouse, or any interest in such policy, that constitutes marital property, whether whole life, term life, group term life, universal life, or other form of life insurance policy, and whether or not the value is ascertainable, the court shall allocate ownership, death benefits or the right to assign death benefits, and the obligation for premium payments, if any, equitably between the parties at the time of the judgment for dissolution or declaration of invalidity of marriage.

(c) Commingled marital and non-marital property shall be treated in the following manner, unless otherwise agreed by the spouses:

(1) When marital and non-marital property are commingled by contributing one estate of property into another resulting in a loss of identity of the contributed property, the classification of the contributed property is transmuted to the estate receiving the contribution, subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this subsection; provided that if marital and non-marital property are commingled into newly acquired property resulting in a loss of identity of the contributing estates, the commingled property shall be deemed transmuted to marital property, subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(2) When one estate of property makes a contribution to another estate of property, or when a spouse contributes personal effort to non-marital property, the contributing estate shall be reimbursed from the estate receiving the contribution notwithstanding any transmutation; provided, that no such reimbursement shall be made with respect to a contribution which is not retraceable by clear and convincing evidence, or was a gift, or, in the case of a contribution of personal effort of a spouse to non-marital property, unless the effort is significant and results in substantial appreciation of the non-marital property. Personal effort of a spouse shall be deemed a contribution by the marital estate. The court may provide for reimbursement out of the marital property to be divided or by imposing a lien against the non-marital property which received the contribution.

(d) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, or in a proceeding for disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court shall assign each spouse's non-marital property to that spouse. It also shall divide the marital property without regard to marital misconduct in just proportions considering all relevant factors, including:

(1) the contribution of each party to the acquisition, preservation, or increase or decrease in value of the marital or non-marital property, including (i) any such decrease attributable to a payment deemed to have been an advance from the parties' marital estate under subsection (c-1)(2) of Section 501 and (ii) the contribution of a spouse as a homemaker or to the family unit;

(2) the dissipation by each party of the marital or non-marital property, provided that a party's claim of dissipation is subject to the following conditions:

(i) a notice of intent to claim dissipation shall be given no later than 60 days before trial or 30 days after discovery closes, whichever is later;

(ii) the notice of intent to claim dissipation shall contain, at a minimum, a date or period of time during which the marriage began undergoing an irretrievable breakdown, an identification of the property dissipated, and a date or period of time during which the dissipation occurred;

(iii) the notice of intent to claim dissipation shall be filed with the clerk of the court and be served pursuant to applicable rules;

(iv) no dissipation shall be deemed to have occurred prior to 5 years before the filing of the petition for dissolution of marriage, or 3 years after the party claiming dissipation knew or should have known of the dissipation;

(3) the value of the property assigned to each spouse;

(4) the duration of the marriage;

(5) the relevant economic circumstances of each spouse when the division of property is to become effective, including the desirability of awarding the family home, or the right to live therein for reasonable periods, to the spouse having custody of the children;

(6) any obligations and rights arising from a prior marriage of either party;

(7) any antenuptial agreement of the parties;

(8) the age, health, station, occupation, amount and sources of income, vocational skills, employability, estate, liabilities, and needs of each of the parties;

(9) the custodial provisions for any children;

(10) whether the apportionment is in lieu of or in addition to maintenance;

(11) the reasonable opportunity of each spouse for future acquisition of capital assets and income; and

(12) the tax consequences of the property division upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties.

(e) Each spouse has a species of common ownership in the marital property which vests at the time dissolution proceedings are commenced and continues only during the pendency of the action. Any such interest in marital property shall not encumber that property so as to restrict its transfer, assignment or conveyance by the title holder unless such title holder is specifically enjoined from making such transfer, assignment or conveyance.

(f) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage or in a proceeding for disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court, in determining the value of the marital and non-marital property for purposes of dividing the property, shall value the property as of the date of trial or some other date as close to the date of trial as is practicable.

(g) The court if necessary to protect and promote the best interests of the children may set aside a portion of the jointly or separately held estates of the parties in a separate fund or trust for the support, maintenance, education, physical and mental health, and general welfare of any minor, dependent, or incompetent child of the parties. In making a determination under this subsection, the court may consider, among other things, the conviction of a party of any of the offenses set forth in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the victim is a child of one or both of the parties, and there is a need for, and cost of, care, healing and counseling for the child who is the victim of the crime.

(h) Unless specifically directed by a reviewing court, or upon good cause shown, the court shall not on remand consider any increase or decrease in the value of any "marital" or "non-marital" property occurring since the assessment of such property at the original trial or hearing, but shall use only that assessment made at the original trial or hearing.

(i) The court may make such judgments affecting the marital property as may be just and may enforce such judgments by ordering a sale of marital property, with proceeds therefrom to be applied as determined by the court.

(j) After proofs have closed in the final hearing on all other issues between the parties (or in conjunction with the final hearing, if all parties so stipulate) and before judgment is entered, a party's petition for contribution to fees and costs incurred in the proceeding shall be heard and decided, in accordance with the following provisions:

(1) A petition for contribution, if not filed before the final hearing on other issues between the parties, shall be filed no later than 30 days after the closing of proofs in the final hearing or within such other period as the court orders.

(2) Any award of contribution to one party from the other party shall be based on the criteria for division of marital property under this Section 503 and, if maintenance has been awarded, on the criteria for an award of maintenance under Section 504.

(3) The filing of a petition for contribution shall not be deemed to constitute a waiver of the attorney-client privilege between the petitioning party and current or former counsel; and such a waiver shall not constitute a prerequisite to a hearing for contribution. If either party's presentation on contribution, however, includes evidence within the scope of the attorney-client privilege, the disclosure or disclosures shall be narrowly construed and shall not be deemed by the court to constitute a general waiver of the privilege as to matters beyond the scope of the presentation.

(4) No finding on which a contribution award is based or denied shall be asserted against counsel or former counsel for purposes of any hearing under subsection (c) or (e) of Section 508.

(5) A contribution award (payable to either the petitioning party or the party's counsel, or jointly, as the court determines) may be in the form of either a set dollar amount or a percentage of fees and costs (or a portion of fees and costs) to be subsequently agreed upon by the petitioning party and counsel or, alternatively, thereafter determined in a hearing pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 508 or previously or thereafter determined in an independent proceeding under subsection (e) of Section 508.

(6) The changes to this Section 503 made by this amendatory Act of 1996 apply to cases pending on or after June 1, 1997, except as otherwise provided in Section 508.

(k) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-941 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly apply only to petitions for dissolution of marriage filed on or after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-941) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-583, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 985, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1100, eff. 7-1-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; 97-941, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(750 ILCS 5/601) (from Ch. 40, par. 601)

Sec. 601. Jurisdiction; Commencement of Proceeding.

(a) A court of this State competent to decide child custody matters has jurisdiction to make a child custody determination in original or modification proceedings as provided in Section 201 of the Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act as adopted by this State.

(b) A child custody proceeding is commenced in the court:

(1) by a parent, by filing a petition:

(i) for dissolution of marriage or legal separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage; or

(ii) for custody of the child, in the county in which he is permanently resident or found;

(2) by a person other than a parent, by filing a petition for custody of the child in the county in which he is permanently resident or found, but only if he is not in the physical custody of one of his parents; or

(3) by a stepparent, by filing a petition, if all of the following circumstances are met:

(A) the child is at least 12 years old;

(B) the custodial parent and stepparent were married for at least 5 years during which the child resided with the parent and stepparent;

(C) the custodial parent is deceased or is disabled and cannot perform the duties of a parent to the child;

(D) the stepparent provided for the care, control, and welfare to the child prior to the initiation of custody proceedings;

(E) the child wishes to live with the stepparent; and

(F) it is alleged to be in the best interests and welfare of the child to live with the stepparent as provided in Section 602 of this Act; or .

(4) when When one of the parents is deceased, by a grandparent who is a parent or stepparent of a deceased parent, by filing a petition, if one or more of the following existed at the time of the parent's death:

(A) the surviving parent had been absent from the marital abode for more than one month without the deceased spouse knowing his or her whereabouts;

(B) the surviving parent was in State or federal custody; or

(C) the surviving parent had: (i) received supervision for or been convicted of any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-1.70, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-35, 12C-40, 12C-45, 18-6, 19-6, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 directed towards the deceased parent or the child; or (ii) received supervision or been convicted of violating an order of protection entered under Section 217, 218, or 219 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 for the protection of the deceased parent or the child.

(c) Notice of a child custody proceeding, including an action for modification of a previous custody order, shall be given to the child's parents, guardian and custodian, who may appear, be heard, and file a responsive pleading. The court, upon showing of good cause, may permit intervention of other interested parties.

(d) Proceedings for modification of a previous custody order commenced more than 30 days following the entry of a previous custody order must be initiated by serving a written notice and a copy of the petition for modification upon the child's parent, guardian and custodian at least 30 days prior to hearing on the petition. Nothing in this Section shall preclude a party in custody modification proceedings from moving for a temporary order under Section 603 of this Act.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The court shall, at the court's discretion or upon the request of any party entitled to petition for custody of the child, appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the best interest of the child for the duration of the custody proceeding or for any modifications of any custody orders entered. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the court from appointing the same guardian ad litem for 2 or more children that are siblings or half-siblings.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 560. The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act is amended by changing Section 102 as follows:

(750 ILCS 22/102) (was 750 ILCS 22/101)

Sec. 102. Definitions. In this Act:

"Child" means an individual, whether over or under the age of 18, who is or is alleged to be owed a duty of support by the individual's parent or who is or is alleged to be the beneficiary of a support order directed to the parent.

"Child-support order" means a support order for a child, including a child who has attained the age of 18.

"Duty of support" means an obligation imposed or imposable by law to provide support for a child, spouse, or former spouse including an unsatisfied obligation to provide support.

"Home state" means the state in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as parent for at least 6 consecutive months immediately preceding the time of filing of a petition or comparable pleading for support, and if a child is less than 6 months old, the state in which the child lived from birth with any of them. A period of temporary absence of any of them is counted as part of the 6-month or other period.

"Income" includes earnings or other periodic entitlements to money from any source and any other property subject to withholding for support under the law of this State.

"Income-withholding order" means an order or other legal process directed to an obligor's employer or other debtor, as defined by the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, to withhold support from the income of the obligor.

"Initiating state" means a state from which a proceeding is forwarded or in which a proceeding is filed for forwarding to a responding state under this Act or a law or procedure substantially similar to this Act.

"Initiating tribunal" means the authorized tribunal in an initiating state.

"Issuing state" means the state in which a tribunal issues a support order or renders a judgment determining parentage.

"Issuing tribunal" means the tribunal that issues a support order or renders a judgment determining parentage.

"Obligee" means:

(A) an individual to whom a duty of support is or is alleged to be owed or in whose favor a support order has been issued or a judgment determining parentage has been rendered;

(B) a state or political subdivision to which the rights under a duty of support or support order have been assigned or which has independent claims based on financial assistance provided to an individual obligee; or

(C) an individual seeking a judgment determining parentage of the individual's child.

"Obligor" means an individual, or the estate of a decedent:

(i) who owes or is alleged to owe a duty of support;

(ii) who is alleged but has not been adjudicated to be a parent of a child; or

(iii) who is liable under a support order.

"Person means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision, agency, instrumentality, public corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity.

"Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

"Register" means to record a support order or judgment determining parentage in the appropriate Registry of Foreign Support Orders.

"Registering tribunal" means a tribunal in which a support order is registered.

"Responding state" means a state in which a proceeding is filed or to which a proceeding is forwarded for filing from an initiating state under this Act or a law or procedure substantially similar to this Act.

"Responding tribunal" means the authorized tribunal in a responding state.

"Spousal-support order" means a support order for a spouse or former spouse of the obligor.

"State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. The term includes:

(A) an Indian tribe; and

(B) a foreign country or political subdivision that:

(i) has been declared to be a foreign reciprocating country or political subdivision under federal law;

(ii) has established a reciprocal arrangement for child support with this State as provided in Section 308; or

(iii) has enacted a law or established procedures for issuance and enforcement of support orders which are substantially similar to the procedures under this Act.

"Support enforcement agency" means a public official or agency authorized to seek:

(A) enforcement of support orders or laws relating to the duty of support;

(B) establishment or modification of child support;

(C) determination of parentage;

(D) to locate obligors or their assets; or

(E) determination of the controlling child support order.

"Support order" means a judgment, decree, order, or directive, whether temporary, final, or subject to modification, issued by a tribunal for the benefit of a child, a spouse, or a former spouse, which provides for monetary support, health care, arrearages, or reimbursement, and may include related costs and fees, interest, income withholding, attorney's fees, and other relief.

"Tribunal" means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity authorized to establish, enforce, or modify support orders or to determine parentage.

(Source: P.A. 93-479, eff. 1-1-04, operative 7-1-04; revised 11-26-14.)

Section 565. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 18.2 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/18.2) (from Ch. 40, par. 1522.2)

Sec. 18.2. Forms.

(a) The Department shall develop the Illinois Adoption Registry forms as provided in this Section. The General Assembly shall reexamine the content of the form as requested by the Department, in consultation with the Registry Advisory Council. The form of the Birth Parent Registration Identification Form shall be substantially as follows:

BIRTH PARENT REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION

(Insert all known information)

I, ....., state that I am the ...... (mother or father) of the following child:

Child's original name: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (hour of birth), ..... (date of birth), ..... (city and state of birth), ..... (name of hospital).

Father's full name: ...... (first) ...... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (date of birth), ..... (city and state of birth).

Name of mother inserted on birth certificate: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race), ..... (date of birth), ...... (city and state of birth).

That I surrendered my child to: ............. (name of agency), ..... (city and state of agency), ..... (approximate date child surrendered).

That I placed my child by private adoption: ..... (date), ...... (city and state).

Name of adoptive parents, if known: ......

Other identifying information: .....

........................

(Signature of parent)

............ ........................ (date) (printed name of parent)

(b) The form of the Adopted Person Registration Identification shall be substantially as follows:

ADOPTED PERSON

REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION

(Insert all known information)

I, ....., state the following:

Adopted Person's present name: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last).

Adopted Person's name at birth (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (birth date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race).

Name of adoptive father: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

Maiden name of adoptive mother: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

Name of birth mother (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

Name of birth father (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

Name(s) at birth of sibling(s) having a common birth parent with adoptee (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race), and name of common birth parent: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

I was adopted through: ..... (name of agency).

I was adopted privately: ..... (state "yes" if known).

I was adopted in ..... (city and state), ..... (approximate date).

Other identifying information: .............

......................

(signature of adoptee)

........... ......................... (date) (printed name of adoptee)

(c) The form of the Surrendered Person Registration Identification shall be substantially as follows:

SURRENDERED PERSON REGISTRATION

IDENTIFICATION

(Insert all known information)

I, ....., state the following:

Surrendered Person's present name: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last).

Surrendered Person's name at birth (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race).

Name of guardian father: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

Maiden name of guardian mother: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

Name of birth mother (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last) ..... (race).

Name of birth father (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(race).

Name(s) at birth of sibling(s) having a common birth parent with surrendered person (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race), and name of common birth parent: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).

I was surrendered for adoption to: ..... (name of agency).

I was surrendered for adoption in ..... (city and state), ..... (approximate date).

Other identifying information: ............

................................

(signature of surrendered person)

............ ...................... (date) (printed name of person surrendered for adoption)

(c-3) The form of the Registration Identification Form for Surviving Relatives of Deceased Birth Parents shall be substantially as follows:

REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION FORM

FOR SURVIVING RELATIVES OF DECEASED BIRTH PARENTS

(Insert all known information) I, ....., state the following:

Name of deceased birth parent at time of surrender:

Deceased birth parent's date of birth:

Deceased birth parent's date of death:

Adopted or surrendered person's name at birth (if known): .....(first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race). My relationship to the adopted or surrendered person (check one): (birth parent's non-surrendered child) (birth parent's sister) (birth parent's brother).

If you are a non-surrendered child of the birth parent, provide name(s) at birth and age(s) of non-surrendered siblings having a common parent with the birth parent. If more than one sibling, please give information requested below on reverse side of this form. If you are a sibling or parent of the birth parent, provide name(s) at birth and age(s) of the sibling(s) of the birth parent. If more than one sibling, please give information requested below on reverse side of this form.

Name (First) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race).

Name(s) of common parent(s) (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(race), (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(race). My birth sibling/child of my brother/child of my sister/ was surrendered for adoption to ..... (name of agency) City and state of agency ..... Date .....(approximate) Other identifying information ..... (Please note that you must: (i) be at least 21 years of age to register; (ii) submit with your registration a certified copy of the birth parent's birth certificate; (iii) submit a certified copy of the birth parent's death certificate; and (iv) if you are a non-surrendered birth sibling or a sibling of the deceased birth parent, also submit a certified copy of your birth certificate with this registration. No application from a surviving relative of a deceased birth parent can be accepted if the birth parent filed a Denial of Information Exchange prior to his or her death.)

................................

(signature of birth parent's surviving relative)

............ ............ (date) (printed name of birth parent's surviving relative)

(c-5) The form of the Registration Identification Form for Surviving Relatives of Deceased Adopted or Surrendered Persons shall be substantially as follows:

REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION FORM FOR

SURVIVING RELATIVES OF DECEASED ADOPTED OR SURRENDERED PERSONS

(Insert all known information) I, ....., state the following:

Adopted or surrendered person's name at birth (if known): (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race).

Adopted or surrendered person's date of death: My relationship to the deceased adopted or surrendered person(check one): (adoptive mother) (adoptive father) (adult child) (surviving spouse). If you are an adult child or surviving spouse of the adopted or surrendered person, provide name(s) at birth and age(s) of the children of the adopted or surrendered person. If the adopted or surrendered person had more than one child, please give information requested below on reverse side of this form.

Name (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race).

Name(s) of common parent(s) (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(race), (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(race).

My child/parent/deceased spouse was surrendered for adoption to .....(name of agency) City and state of agency ..... Date ..... (approximate) Other identifying information ..... (Please note that you must: (i) be at least 21 years of age to register; (ii) submit with your registration a certified copy of the adopted or surrendered person's death certificate; (iii) if you are the child of a deceased adopted or surrendered person, also submit a certified copy of your birth certificate with this registration; and (iv) if you are the surviving wife or husband of a deceased adopted or surrendered person, also submit a copy of your marriage certificate with this registration. No application from a surviving relative of a deceased adopted or surrendered person can be accepted if the adopted or surrendered person filed a Denial of Information Exchange prior to his or her death.)

................................

(signature of adopted or surrendered person's surviving

relative)

............ ............ (date) (printed name of adopted person's surviving relative)

(d) The form of the Information Exchange Authorization shall be substantially as follows:

INFORMATION EXCHANGE AUTHORIZATION

I, ....., state that I am the person who completed the Registration Identification; that I am of the age of ..... years; that I hereby authorize the Department of Public Health to give to the following person(s) (birth mother ) (birth father) (birth sibling) (adopted or surrendered person ) (adoptive mother) (adoptive father) (legal guardian of an adopted or surrendered person) (birth aunt) (birth uncle) (adult child of a deceased adopted or surrendered person) (surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person) (all eligible relatives) the following (please check the information authorized for exchange):

[ ] 1. Only my name and last known address.

[ ] 2. A copy of my Illinois Adoption Registry Application.

[ ] 3. A non-certified copy of the adopted or surrendered person's original certificate of live birth (check only if you are an adopted or surrendered person or the surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person).

[ ] 4. A copy of my completed medical questionnaire.

I am fully aware that I can only be supplied with information about an individual or individuals who have duly executed an Information Exchange Authorization that has not been revoked or, if I am an adopted or surrendered person, from a birth parent who completed a Birth Parent Preference Form and did not prohibit the release of his or her identity to me; that I can be contacted by writing to: ..... (own name or name of person to contact) (address) (phone number).

NOTE: New IARMIE registrants who do not complete a Medical Information Exchange Questionnaire and release a copy of their questionnaire to at least one Registry applicant must pay a $15 registration fee.

Dated (insert date).

.............. (signature)

(e) The form of the Denial of Information Exchange shall be substantially as follows:

DENIAL OF INFORMATION EXCHANGE

I, ....., state that I am the person who completed the Registration Identification; that I am of the age of ..... years; that I hereby instruct the Department of Public Health not to give any identifying information about me to the following person(s) (birth mother) (birth father) (birth sibling)(adopted or surrendered person)(adoptive mother) (adoptive father)(legal guardian of an adopted or surrendered person)(birth aunt)(birth uncle)(adult child of a deceased adopted or surrendered person) (surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person) (all eligible relatives).

I do/do not (circle appropriate response) authorize the Registry to release a copy of my completed Medical Information Exchange Questionnaire to qualified Registry applicants. NOTE: New IARMIE registrants who do not complete a Medical Information Exchange Questionnaire and release a copy of their questionnaire to at least one Registry applicant must pay a $15 registration fee. Birth parents filing a Denial of Information Exchange are advised that, under Illinois law, an adult adopted person may initiate a search for a birth parent who has filed a Denial of Information Exchange or Birth Parent Preference Form on which Option E was selected through the State confidential intermediary program once 5 years have elapsed since the filing of the Denial of Information Exchange or Birth Parent Preference Form.

Dated (insert date).

............... (signature)

(f) The form of the Birth Parent Preference Form shall be substantially as follows:

In recognition of the basic right of all persons to access their birth records, Illinois law now provides for the release of original birth certificates to adopted and surrendered persons 21 years of age or older upon request. While many birth parents are comfortable sharing their identities or initiating contact with their birth sons and daughters once they have reached adulthood, Illinois law also recognizes that there may be unique situations where a birth parent might have a compelling reason for not wishing to establish contact with a birth son or birth daughter or for not wishing to release identifying information that appears on the original birth certificate of a birth son or birth daughter who has reached adulthood. The Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange (IARMIE) has therefore established the attached form to allow birth parents to express their preferences regarding contact; and, if their birth child was born on or after January 1, 1946, to express their wishes regarding the sharing of identifying information listed on the original birth certificate with an adult adopted or surrendered person who has reached the age of 21 or his or her surviving relatives.

In selecting one of the 5 options below, birth parents should keep in mind that the decision to deny an adult adopted or surrendered person access to identifying information on his or her original birth record and/or information about genetically-transmitted diseases is an important decision that may impact the adopted or surrendered person's life in many ways. A request for anonymity on this form only pertains to information that is provided to an adult adopted or surrendered person or his or her surviving relatives through the Registry. This will not prevent the disclosure of identifying information that may be available to the adoptee through his or her adoptive parents and/or other means available to him or her. Birth parents who would prefer not to be contacted by their surrendered son or daughter are strongly urged to complete both the Non-Identifying Information Section included on the final page of the attached form and the Medical Questionnaire in order to provide their surrendered son or daughter with the background information he or she may need to better understand his or her origins. Birth parents whose birth son or birth daughter is under 21 years of age at the time of the completion of this form are reminded that no original birth certificate will be released by the IARMIE before an adoptee has reached the age of 21. Should you need additional assistance in completing this form, please contact the agency that handled the adoption, if applicable, or the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange at 877-323-5299.

After careful consideration, I have made the following decision regarding contact with my birth son/birth daughter, (insert birth son's/birth daughter's name at birth, if applicable) ......, who was born in (insert city/town of birth) ...... on (insert date of birth)...... and the release of my identifying information as it appears on his/her original birth certificate when he/she reaches the age of 21, and I have chosen Option ...... (insert A, B, C, D, or E, as applicable). I realize that this form must be accompanied by a completed IARMIE application form as well as a Medical Information Exchange Questionnaire or the $15 registration fee. I am also aware that I may revoke this decision at any time by completing a new Birth Parent Preference Form and filing it with the IARMIE. I understand that it is my responsibility to update the IARMIE with any changes to contact information provided below. I also understand that, while preferences regarding the release of identifying information through the Registry are binding unless the law should change in the future, any selection I have made regarding my preferred method of contact is not.

...

(Signature/Date)

(Please insert your signature and today's date above, as well as under your chosen option, A, B, C, D, or E below.)

Option A. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's original birth certificate, OR my birth son or birth daughter was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would welcome direct contact with my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has reached the age of 21. In addition, before my birth son or birth daughter has reached the age of 21 or in the event of his or her death, I would welcome contact with the following relatives of my birth child (circle all that apply): adoptive mother, adoptive father, surviving spouse, surviving adult child. I wish to be contacted at the following mailing address, email address or phone number:

..............................

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

(Signature/Date)

Option B. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's original birth certificate, OR my birth son or birth daughter was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would welcome contact with my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has reached the age of 21. In addition, before my birth son or birth daughter has reached the age of 21 or in the event of his or her death, I would welcome contact with the following relatives of my birth child (circle all that apply): adoptive mother, adoptive father, surviving spouse, surviving adult child. I would prefer to be contacted through the following person. (Insert name and mailing address, email address or phone number of chosen contact person.)

............................................

.............................................................

(Signature/Date)

Option C. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's original birth certificate, OR my birth son or birth daughter was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would welcome contact with my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has reached the age of 21. In addition, before my birth son or birth daughter has reached the age of 21 or in the event of his or her death, I would welcome contact with the following relatives of my birth child (circle all that apply): adoptive mother, adoptive father, surviving spouse, surviving adult child. I would prefer to be contacted through the Illinois Confidential Intermediary Program (please call 800-526-9022 for additional information) or through the agency that handled the adoption. (Insert agency name, address and phone number, if applicable.)

.............

.............................................................

(Signature/Date)

Option D. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's original birth certificate when he or she has reached the age of 21, OR my birth son or birth daughter was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would prefer not to be contacted by my birth son/birth daughter or his or her adoptive parents or surviving relatives.

...................................................

(Signature/Date)

Option E. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after January 1, 1946, and I wish to prohibit the release of my (circle ALL applicable options) first name, last name, last known address, birth son/birth daughter's last name (if last name listed is same as mine), as they appear on my birth son's/birth daughter's original birth certificate and do not wish to be contacted by my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has reached the age of 21. If there were any special circumstances that played a role in your decision to remain anonymous which you would like to share with your birth son/birth daughter, please list them in the space provided below (optional).

...........................................

.............................................................

I understand that, although I have chosen to prohibit the release of my identity on the non-certified copy of the original birth certificate released to my birth son/birth daughter, he or she may request that a court-appointed confidential intermediary contact me to request updated medical information and/or confirm my desire to remain anonymous once 5 years have elapsed since the signing of this form; at the time of this subsequent search, I wish to be contacted through the person named below. (Insert in blank area below the name and phone number of the contact person, or leave it blank if you wish to be contacted directly.) I also understand that this request for anonymity shall expire upon my death.

......................................................

.............................................................

(Signature/Date)

NOTE: A copy of this form will be forwarded to your birth son or birth daughter should he or she file a request for his or her original birth certificate with the IARMIE. However, if you have selected Option E, identifying information, per your specifications above, will be deleted from the copy of this form forwarded to your birth son or daughter during your lifetime. In the event that an adopted or surrendered person is deceased, his or her surviving adult children may request a copy of the adopted or surrendered person's original birth certificate providing they have registered with the IARMIE; the copy of this form and the non-certified copy of the original birth certificate forwarded to the surviving child of the adopted or surrendered person shall be redacted per your specifications on this form during your lifetime. Non-Identifying Information Section

I wish to voluntarily provide the following non-identifying information to my birth son or birth daughter:

My age at the time of my child's birth was .........

My race is best described as: .......................... My height is: ......... My body type is best described as (circle one): slim, average, muscular, a few extra pounds, or more than a few extra pounds.

My natural hair color is/was: .................. My eye color is: .................. My religion is best described as: ..................

My ethnic background is best described as: ..................

My educational level is closest to (circle applicable

response): completed elementary school, graduated from

high school, attended college, earned bachelor's degree,

earned master's degree, earned doctoral degree.

My occupation is best described as .................. My hobbies include .................. My interests include .................. My talents include .................. In addition to my surrendered son or daughter, I also

am the biological parent of (insert number) ....... boys and

(insert number) ....... girls, of whom (insert number) .......

are still living.

The relationship between me and my child's birth mother/birth

father would best be described as (circle appropriate response): husband and wife, ex-spouses, boyfriend and girlfriend, casual acquaintances, other (please specify) ..............

(g) The form of the Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate shall be substantially as follows:

REQUEST FOR A NON-CERTIFIED COPY OF AN ORIGINAL BIRTH

CERTIFICATE

I, (requesting party's full name) ....., hereby request a non-certified copy of (check appropriate option) ..... my original birth certificate ..... the original birth certificate of my deceased adopted or surrendered parent ..... the original birth certificate of my deceased adopted or surrendered spouse (insert deceased parent's/deceased spouse's name at adoption) ...... I/my deceased parent/my deceased spouse was born in (insert city and county of adopted or surrendered person's birth) ..... on ..... (insert adopted or surrendered person's date of birth). In the event that one or both of my/my deceased parent's/my deceased spouse's birth parents has requested that their identity not be released to me/to my deceased parent/to my deceased spouse, I wish to (check appropriate option) ..... a. receive a non-certified copy of the original birth certificate from which identifying information pertaining to the birth parent who requested anonymity has been deleted; or ..... b. I do not wish to receive received an altered copy of the original birth certificate.

Dated (insert date).

...................

(signature)

(h) Any Information Exchange Authorization, Denial of Information Exchange, or Birth Parent Preference Form filed with the Registry, or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate filed with the Registry by a surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person, shall be acknowledged by the person who filed it before a notary public, in form substantially as follows:

State of .............. County of .............

I, a Notary Public, in and for the said County, in the State aforesaid, do hereby certify that ............... personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing certificate of acknowledgement, appeared before me in person and acknowledged that (he or she) signed such certificate as (his or her) free and voluntary act and that the statements in such certificate are true.

Given under my hand and notarial seal on (insert date).

.........................

(signature)

(i) When the execution of an Information Exchange Authorization, Denial of Information Exchange, or Birth Parent Preference Form or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate completed by a surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person is acknowledged before a representative of an agency, such representative shall have his signature on said Certificate acknowledged before a notary public, in form substantially as follows:

State of.......... County of.........

I, a Notary Public, in and for the said County, in the State aforesaid, do hereby certify that ..... personally known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing certificate of acknowledgement, appeared before me in person and acknowledged that (he or she) signed such certificate as (his or her) free and voluntary act and that the statements in such certificate are true.

Given under my hand and notarial seal on (insert date).

.......................

(signature)

(j) When an Illinois Adoption Registry Application, Information Exchange Authorization, Denial of Information Exchange, Birth Parent Preference Form, or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate completed by a surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person is executed in a foreign country, the execution of such document shall be acknowledged or affirmed before an officer of the United States consular services.

(k) If the person signing an Information Exchange Authorization, Denial of Information, Birth Parent Preference Form, or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate completed by a surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person is in the military service of the United States, the execution of such document may be acknowledged before a commissioned officer and the signature of such officer on such certificate shall be verified or acknowledged before a notary public or by such other procedure as is then in effect for such division or branch of the armed forces.

(l) An adopted or surrendered person, surviving adult child, adult grandchild, surviving spouse, or birth parent of an adult adopted person who completes a Request For a Non-Certified Copy of the Original Birth Certificate shall meet the same filing requirements and pay the same filing fees as a non-adopted person seeking to obtain a copy of his or her original birth certificate.

(m) Beginning on January 1, 2015, any birth parent of an adult adopted person named on the original birth certificate may request a non-certified copy of the original birth certificate reflecting the birth of the adult adopted person, provided that:

(1) any non-certified copy of the original birth certificate released under this subsection (m) shall not reflect the State file number on the original birth certificate; and

(2) if the Department of Public Health does not locate the original birth certificate, it shall issue a certification of no record found.

(Source: P.A. 97-110, eff. 7-14-11; 98-704, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 570. The Trusts and Dissolutions of Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(760 ILCS 35/1) (from Ch. 148, par. 301)

Sec. 1. (a) Unless the governing instrument or the judgment of judicial termination of marriage expressly provides otherwise, judicial termination of the marriage of the settlor of a trust revokes every provision which is revocable by the settlor pertaining to the settlor's former spouse in a trust instrument or amendment thereto executed by the settlor before the entry of the judgment of judicial termination of the settlor's marriage, and any such trust shall be administered and construed as if the settlor's former spouse had died upon entry of the judgment of judicial termination of the settlor's marriage.

(b) A trustee who has no actual knowledge of a judgment of judicial termination of the settlor's marriage, shall have no liability for any action taken or omitted in good faith on the assumption that the settlor is married. The preceding sentence is intended to affect only the liability of the trustee and shall not affect the disposition of beneficial interests in any trust.

(c) "Trust" means a trust created by a nontestamentary instrument executed after the effective date of this Act, except that, unless in the governing instrument the provisions of this Act are made applicable by specific reference, the provisions of this Act do not apply to any (a) land trust; (b) voting trust; (c) security instrument such as a trust deed or mortgage; (d) liquidation trust; (e) escrow; (f) instrument under which a nominee, custodian for property or paying or receiving agent is appointed; or (g) a trust created by a deposit arrangement in a bank or savings institution, commonly known as "Totten Trust".

(d) The phrase "provisions pertaining to the settlor's former spouse" includes, but is not limited to, every present or future gift or interest or power of appointment given to the settlor's former spouse or right of the settlor's former spouse to serve in a fiduciary capacity.

(e) A provision is revocable by the settlor if the settlor has the power at the time of the entry of the judgment of judicial termination of the settlor's marriage to revoke, modify or amend said provision, either alone or in conjunction with any other person or persons.

(f) "Judicial termination of marriage" includes, but is not limited to, divorce, dissolution, annulment or declaration of invalidity of marriage.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 575. The Residential Real Property Disclosure Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(765 ILCS 77/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following terms have the meaning given in this Section.

"Residential real property" means real property improved with not less than one nor more than 4 residential dwelling units; units in residential cooperatives; or, condominium units, including the limited common elements allocated to the exclusive use thereof that form an integral part of the condominium unit. The term includes a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code that is real property as defined in the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.

"Seller" means every person or entity who is an owner, beneficiary of a trust, contract purchaser or lessee of a ground lease, who has an interest (legal or equitable) in residential real property. However, "seller" shall not include any person who has both (i) never occupied the residential real property and (ii) never had the management responsibility for the residential real property nor delegated such responsibility for the residential real property to another person or entity.

"Prospective buyer" means any person or entity negotiating or offering to become an owner or lessee of residential real property by means of a transfer for value to which this Act applies.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 580. The Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act is amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:

(765 ILCS 170/5-10)

Sec. 5-10. Act not mandatory; record notice. The owner of a manufactured home that is personal property or a fixture may, but need not, cause that manufactured home to be deemed to be real property by satisfying the requirements of Section 5-30 of this Act and the requirements of Section 3-116.1 or 3-116.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as applicable.

To convey or voluntarily encumber a manufactured home as real property, the following conditions must be met:

(1) the manufactured home must be affixed to a permanent foundation on real property;

(2) the ownership interests in the manufactured home and the real property to which the manufactured home is affixed must be identical, or, if the manufactured home is not located in a mobile home park as defined in Section 2.5 of the Mobile Home Park Act, and if the owner of the manufactured home, if not the owner of the real property, is in possession of the real property pursuant to the terms of a lease in recordable form that has a term that continues for at least 20 years after the date of execution, then the consent of the lessor of the real property must be given;

(3) the person (all, if more than one) having an ownership interest in such manufactured home shall execute and record with the recording officer of the county in which the real property is located an affidavit of affixation as provided in Section 5-15 of this Act and satisfy the other applicable requirements of this Act; and

(4) upon receipt of a certified copy of the recorded affidavit of affixation pursuant to Section 5-25 of this Act, any person designated therein for filing with the Secretary of State shall file the certified copy of affidavit of affixation with the Secretary of State; except that:

(A) in a case described in subsection (a)(4)(A) of Section 5-15 of this Act, a certified copy of the affidavit of affixation and the original Manufacturer's Statement of Origin, each as recorded in the county in which the real property is located, must be filed with the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 3-116.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and

(B) in a case described in subsection (a)(4)(B) of Section 5-15 of this Act, a certified copy of the recorded affidavit of affixation as recorded in the county in which the real property is located, and the original certificate of title, including, if applicable, a certificate of title issued in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 3-109 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, must be filed with the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 3-116.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 585. The Plat Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(765 ILCS 205/1) (from Ch. 109, par. 1)

Sec. 1. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (b) of this Section whenever the owner of land subdivides it into 2 or more parts, any of which is less than 5 acres, he must have it surveyed and a subdivision plat thereof made by an Illinois Registered Land Surveyor, which plat must particularly describe and set forth all public streets, alleys, ways for public service facilities, ways for utility services and community antenna television systems, parks, playgrounds, school grounds or other public grounds, and all the tracts, parcels, lots or blocks, and numbering all such lots, blocks or parcels by progressive numbers, giving their precise dimensions. There shall be submitted simultaneously with the subdivision plat, a study or studies which shall show topographically and by profile the elevation of the land prior to the commencement of any change in elevations as a part of any phase of subdividing, and additionally, if it is contemplated that such elevations, or the flow of surface water from such land, will be changed as a result of any portion of such subdivision development, then such study or studies shall also show such proposed changes in the elevations and the flow of surface water from such land. The topographical and profile studies required hereunder may be prepared as a subsidiary study or studies separate from, but of the same scale and size as the subdivision plat, and shall be prepared in such a manner as will permit the topographical study or studies to be used as overlays to the subdivision plat. The plat must show all angular and linear data along the exterior boundaries of the tract of land divided or subdivided, the names of all public streets and the width, course and extent of all public streets, alleys and ways for public service facilities. References must also be made upon the plat to known and permanent monuments from which future survey may be made and the surveyor must, at the time of making his survey, set in such manner that they will not be moved by frost, good and sufficient monuments marking the external boundaries of the tract to be divided or subdivided and must designate upon the plat the points where they may be found. These monuments must be placed at all corners, at each end of all curves, at the point where a curve changes its radius, at all angle points in any line and at all angle points along a meander line, the points to be not less than 20 feet back from the normal water elevation of a lake or from the bank of a stream, except that when such corners or points fall within a street, or proposed future street, the monuments must be placed in the right of way line of the street. All internal boundaries, corners and points must be monumented in the field by like monuments as defined above. These monuments 2 of which must be of stone or reinforced concrete and must be set at the opposite extremities of the property platted, placed at all block corners, at each end of all curves, at the points where a curve changes its radius, and at all angle points in any line. All lots must be monumented in the field with 2 or more monuments.

The monuments must be furnished by the person for whom the survey is made and must be such that they will not be moved by frost. If any city, village or town has adopted an official plan, or part thereof, in the manner prescribed by law, the plat of land situated within the area affected thereby must conform to the official plan, or part thereof.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section, the provisions of this Act do not apply and no subdivision plat is required in any of the following instances:

1. the The division or subdivision of land into parcels or tracts of 5 acres or more in size which does not involve any new streets or easements of access;

2. the The division of lots or blocks of less than 1 acre in any recorded subdivision which does not involve any new streets or easements of access;

3. the The sale or exchange of parcels of land between owners of adjoining and contiguous land;

4. the The conveyance of parcels of land or interests therein for use as a right of way for railroads or other public utility facilities and other pipe lines which does not involve any new streets or easements of access;

5. the The conveyance of land owned by a railroad or other public utility which does not involve any new streets or easements of access;

6. the The conveyance of land for highway or other public purposes or grants or conveyances relating to the dedication of land for public use or instruments relating to the vacation of land impressed with a public use;

7. conveyances Conveyances made to correct descriptions in prior conveyances; .

8. the The sale or exchange of parcels or tracts of land following the division into no more than 2 parts of a particular parcel or tract of land existing on July 17, 1959 and not involving any new streets or easements of access; .

9. the The sale of a single lot of less than 5 acres from a larger tract when a survey is made by an Illinois Registered Land Surveyor; provided, that this exemption shall not apply to the sale of any subsequent lots from the same larger tract of land, as determined by the dimensions and configuration of the larger tract on October 1, 1973, and provided also that this exemption does not invalidate any local requirements applicable to the subdivision of land; .

10. the The preparation of a plat for wind energy devices under Section 10-620 of the Property Tax Code.

Nothing contained within the provisions of this Act shall prevent or preclude individual counties from establishing standards, ordinances, or specifications which reduce the acreage minimum to less than 5 acres, but not less than 2 acres, or supplementing the requirements contained herein when a survey is made by an Illinois Registered Land Surveyor and a plat thereof is recorded, under powers granted to them.

(c) However, if a plat is made by an Illinois Registered Surveyor of any parcel or tract of land otherwise exempt from the plat provisions of this Act pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, such plat shall be recorded. It shall not be the responsibility of a recorder of deeds to determine whether the plat has been made or recorded under this subsection (c) prior to accepting a deed for recording.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 590. The Condominium Property Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 18.8 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/18.8)

Sec. 18.8. Use of technology.

(a) Any notice required to be sent or received or signature, vote, consent, or approval required to be obtained under any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act may be accomplished using the technology generally available at that time. This Section shall govern the use of technology in implementing the provisions of any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act concerning notices, signatures, votes, consents, or approvals.

(b) The association, unit owners, and other persons entitled to occupy a unit may perform any obligation or exercise any right under any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act by use of any technological means that provides sufficient security, reliability, identification, and verifiability.

(c) A verifiable electronic signature satisfies any requirement for a signature under any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act.

(d) Voting on, consent to, and approval of any matter under any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act may be accomplished by electronic transmission or other equivalent technological means, provided that a record is created as evidence thereof and maintained as long as the record would be required to be maintained in nonelectronic form.

(e) Subject to other provisions of law, no action required or permitted by any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act need be acknowledged before a notary public if the identity and signature of the person can otherwise be authenticated to the satisfaction of the board of directors or board of managers.

(f) If any person does not provide written authorization to conduct business using electronic transmission or other equivalent technological means, the association shall, at its expense, conduct business with the person without the use of electronic transmission or other equivalent technological means.

(g) This Section does not apply to any notices required under Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure related to: (i) an action by the association to collect a common expense; or (ii) foreclosure proceedings in enforcement of any lien rights under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-1042, eff. 1-1-15.)

(765 ILCS 605/18.9)

Sec. 18.9 18.8. Common elements; rights of board.

(a) Any provision in a condominium instrument is void as against public policy and ineffective if it limits or restricts the rights of the board of managers by:

(1) requiring the prior consent of the unit owners in order for the board of managers to take any action, including the institution of any action in court or a demand for a trial by jury; or

(2) notwithstanding Section 32 of this Act, requiring the board of managers to arbitrate or mediate a dispute with any one or more of all of the declarants under the condominium instruments or the developer or any person not then a unit owner prior to the institution of any action by the board of managers or a demand for a trial by jury.

(b) A provision in a declaration which would otherwise be void and ineffective under this Section may be enforced if it is approved by a vote of not less than 75% of the unit owners at any time after the election of the first unit owner board of managers.

(Source: P.A. 98-1068, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-20-14.)

Section 595. The Mobile Home Landlord and Tenant Rights Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(765 ILCS 745/3) (from Ch. 80, par. 203)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Unless otherwise expressly defined, all terms in this Act shall be construed to have their ordinarily accepted meanings or such meaning as the context therein requires.

(a) "Person" means any legal entity, including but not limited to, an individual, firm, partnership, association, trust, joint stock company, corporation or successor of any of the foregoing.

(b) "Manufactured home" means a factory-assembled, completely integrated structure designed for permanent habitation, with a permanent chassis, and so constructed as to permit its transport, on wheels temporarily or permanently attached to its frame, and is a movable or portable unit that is (i) 8 body feet or more in width, (ii) 40 body feet or more in length, and (iii) 320 or more square feet, constructed to be towed on its own chassis (comprised of frame and wheels) from the place of its construction to the location, or subsequent locations, at which it is connected to utilities for year-round occupancy for use as a permanent habitation, and designed and situated so as to permit its occupancy as a dwelling place for one or more persons, and specifically includes a "manufactured home" as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code. The term shall include units containing parts that may be folded, collapsed, or telescoped when being towed and that may be expected to provide additional cubic capacity, and that are designed to be joined into one integral unit capable of being separated again into the components for repeated towing. The term excludes campers and recreational vehicles. The words "mobile home" and "manufactured home" are synonymous for the purposes of this Act.

(c) "Mobile Home Park" or "Park" means a tract of land or 2 contiguous tracts of land that contain sites with the necessary utilities for 5 or more mobile homes or manufactured homes. A mobile home park may be operated either free of charge or for revenue purposes.

(d) "Park Owner" means the owner of a mobile home park and any person authorized to exercise any aspect of the management of the premises, including any person who directly or indirectly receives rents and has no obligation to deliver the whole of such receipts to another person.

(e) "Tenant" means any person who occupies a mobile home rental unit for dwelling purposes or a lot on which he parks a mobile home for an agreed upon consideration.

(f) "Rent" means any money or other consideration given for the right of use, possession and occupancy of property, be it a lot, a mobile home, or both.

(g) "Master antenna television service" means any and all services provided by or through the facilities of any closed circuit coaxial cable communication system, or any microwave or similar transmission services other than a community antenna television system as defined in Section 11-42-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(h) "Authority having jurisdiction" means the Illinois Department of Public Health or a unit of local government specifically authorized by statute, rule, or ordinance to enforce this Act or any other statute, rule, or ordinance applicable to the mobile home park or manufactured home community.

(i) "Managing agent" means any person or entity responsible for the operation, management, or maintenance of a mobile home park or manufactured home community.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1062, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)

Section 600. The Mechanics Lien Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(770 ILCS 60/35) (from Ch. 82, par. 35)

Sec. 35. Satisfaction or release; recording; neglect; penalty.

(a) Whenever a claim for lien has been filed with the recorder of deeds, either by the contractor or sub-contractor, and is paid with cost of filing same, or where there is a failure to institute suit to enforce the same after demand as provided in the preceding Section within the time by this Act limited the person filing the same or some one by him duly authorized in writing so to do, shall acknowledge satisfaction or release thereof, in writing, on written demand of the owner, lienor, or any person interested in the real estate, or his or her agent or attorney, and on neglect to do so for 10 days after such written demand he or she shall be liable to the owner for the sum of $2,500, which may be recovered in a civil action together with the costs and the reasonable attorney's fees of the owner, lienor, or other person interested in the real estate, or his or her agent or attorney incurred in bringing such action.

(b) Such a satisfaction or release of lien may be filed with the recorder of deeds in whose office the claim for lien had been filed and when so filed shall forever thereafter discharge and release the claim for lien and shall bar all actions brought or to be brought thereupon.

(c) The release of lien shall have the following imprinted thereon in bold letters at least 1/4 inch in height: "FOR THE PROTECTION OF THE OWNER, THIS RELEASE SHOULD BE FILED WITH THE RECORDER IN WHOSE OFFICE THE CLAIM FOR LIEN WAS FILED." The Recorder in whose office the claim for lien had been filed, upon receipt of a release and the payment of the recording fee, shall record the release.

(Source: P.A. 94-627, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 605. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 2-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/2-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 2-101)

Sec. 2-101. Definitions. The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article.

(A) Employee.

(1) "Employee" includes:

(a) Any individual performing services for remuneration within this State for an employer;

(b) An apprentice;

(c) An applicant for any apprenticeship.

For purposes of subsection (D) of Section 2-102 of this Act, "employee" also includes an unpaid intern. An unpaid intern is a person who performs work for an employer under the following circumstances:

(i) the employer is not committed to hiring the person performing the work at the conclusion of the intern's tenure;

(ii) the employer and the person performing the work agree that the person is not entitled to wages for the work performed; and

(iii) the work performed:

(I) supplements training given in an educational environment that may enhance the employability of the intern;

(II) provides experience for the benefit of the person performing the work;

(III) does not displace regular employees;

(IV) is performed under the close supervision of existing staff; and

(V) provides no immediate advantage to the employer providing the training and may occasionally impede the operations of the employer.

(2) "Employee" does not include:

(a) Domestic servants in private homes;

(b) Individuals employed by persons who are not "employers" as defined by this Act;

(c) Elected public officials or the members of their immediate personal staffs;

(d) Principal administrative officers of the State or of any political subdivision, municipal corporation or other governmental unit or agency;

(e) A person in a vocational rehabilitation facility certified under federal law who has been designated an evaluee, trainee, or work activity client.

(B) Employer.

(1) "Employer" includes:

(a) Any person employing 15 or more employees within Illinois during 20 or more calendar weeks within the calendar year of or preceding the alleged violation;

(b) Any person employing one or more employees when a complainant alleges civil rights violation due to unlawful discrimination based upon his or her physical or mental disability unrelated to ability, pregnancy, or sexual harassment;

(c) The State and any political subdivision, municipal corporation or other governmental unit or agency, without regard to the number of employees;

(d) Any party to a public contract without regard to the number of employees;

(e) A joint apprenticeship or training committee without regard to the number of employees.

(2) "Employer" does not include any religious corporation, association, educational institution, society, or non-profit nursing institution conducted by and for those who rely upon treatment by prayer through spiritual means in accordance with the tenets of a recognized church or religious denomination with respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by such corporation, association, educational institution, society or non-profit nursing institution of its activities.

(C) Employment Agency. "Employment Agency" includes both public and private employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer or place employees.

(D) Labor Organization. "Labor Organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor which is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

(E) Sexual Harassment. "Sexual harassment" means any unwelcome sexual advances or requests for sexual favors or any conduct of a sexual nature when (1) submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment, (2) submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual, or (3) such conduct has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment.

(F) Religion. "Religion" with respect to employers includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, unless an employer demonstrates that he is unable to reasonably accommodate an employee's or prospective employee's religious observance or practice without undue hardship on the conduct of the employer's business.

(G) Public Employer. "Public employer" means the State, an agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision.

(H) Public Employee. "Public employee" means an employee of the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision. "Public employee" does not include public officers or employees of the General Assembly or agencies thereof.

(I) Public Officer. "Public officer" means a person who is elected to office pursuant to the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, or who is appointed to an office which is established, and the qualifications and duties of which are prescribed, by the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, to discharge a public duty for the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision.

(J) Eligible Bidder. "Eligible bidder" means a person who, prior to a bid opening, has filed with the Department a properly completed, sworn and currently valid employer report form, pursuant to the Department's regulations. The provisions of this Article relating to eligible bidders apply only to bids on contracts with the State and its departments, agencies, boards, and commissions, and the provisions do not apply to bids on contracts with units of local government or school districts.

(K) Citizenship Status. "Citizenship status" means the status of being:

(1) a born U.S. citizen;

(2) a naturalized U.S. citizen;

(3) a U.S. national; or

(4) a person born outside the United States and not a U.S. citizen who is not an unauthorized alien and who is protected from discrimination under the provisions of Section 1324b of Title 8 of the United States Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 97-877, eff. 8-2-12; 98-1037, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1050, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-3-14.)

Section 610. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 112.10 as follows:

(805 ILCS 105/112.10) (from Ch. 32, par. 112.10)

Sec. 112.10. Voluntary dissolution by written consent of members entitled to vote. Except for the dissolution of a not-for-profit corporation organized for the purpose of ownership or administration of residential property on a cooperative basis, when . When a corporation has members entitled to vote on dissolution, the dissolution of a corporation may be authorized pursuant to Section 107.10 of this Act. Dissolution pursuant to this the Section does not require any vote of the directors of the corporation.

(Source: P.A. 98-302, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 615. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Section 35-40 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/35-40)

Sec. 35-40. Reinstatement following administrative dissolution.

(a) A limited liability company administratively dissolved under Section 35-25 may be reinstated by the Secretary of State following the date of issuance of the notice of dissolution upon:

(1) The filing of an application for reinstatement.

(2) The filing with the Secretary of State by the limited liability company of all reports then due and theretofore becoming due.

(3) The payment to the Secretary of State by the limited liability company of all fees and penalties then due and theretofore becoming due.

(b) The application for reinstatement shall be executed and filed in duplicate in accordance with Section 5-45 of this Act and shall set forth all of the following:

(1) The name of the limited liability company at the time of the issuance of the notice of dissolution.

(2) If the name is not available for use as determined by the Secretary of State at the time of filing the application for reinstatement, the name of the limited liability company as changed, provided that any change of name is properly effected under Section 1-10 and Section 5-25 5.25 of this Act.

(3) The date of issuance of the notice of dissolution.

(4) The address, including street and number or rural route number of the registered office of the limited liability company upon reinstatement thereof and the name of its registered agent at that address upon the reinstatement of the limited liability company, provided that any change from either the registered office or the registered agent at the time of dissolution is properly reported under Section 1-35 of this Act.

(c) When a dissolved limited liability company has complied with the provisions of the Section, the Secretary of State shall file the application for reinstatement.

(d) Upon the filing of the application for reinstatement, the limited liability company existence shall be deemed to have continued without interruption from the date of the issuance of the notice of dissolution, and the limited liability company shall stand revived with the powers, duties, and obligations as if it had not been dissolved; and all acts and proceedings of its members, managers, officers, employees, and agents, acting or purporting to act in that capacity, and which would have been legal and valid but for the dissolution, shall stand ratified and confirmed.

(e) Without limiting the generality of subsection (d), upon the filing of the application for reinstatement, no member, manager, or officer shall be personally liable for the debts and liabilities of the limited liability company incurred during the period of administrative dissolution by reason of the fact that the limited liability company was administratively dissolved at the time the debts or liabilities were incurred.

(Source: P.A. 98-776, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 620. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended by changing Section 11a as follows:

(815 ILCS 5/11a) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 137.11a)

Sec. 11a. Fees.

(1) The Secretary of State shall by rule or regulation impose and shall collect reasonable fees necessary for the administration of this Act including, but not limited to, fees for the following purposes:

(a) filing an application pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection F of Section 4 of this Act;

(b) examining an application and report pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection F of Section 4 of this Act;

(c) filing a report pursuant to subsection G of Section 4 of this Act, determined in accordance with paragraph (4) of subsection G of Section 4 of this Act;

(d) examining an offering sheet pursuant to subsection P of Section 4 of this Act;

(e) filing a report pursuant to subsection P of Section 4, determined in accordance with subsection P of Section 4 of this Act;

(f) examining an application to register securities under subsection B of Section 5 of this Act;

(g) examining an amended or supplemental prospectus filed pursuant to the undertaking required by sub-paragraph (i) of paragraph (2) of subsection B of Section 5 of this Act;

(h) registering or renewing registration of securities under Section 5, determined in accordance with subsection C of Section 5 of this Act;

(i) registering securities in excess of the amount initially registered, determined in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection C of Section 5 of this Act;

(j) failure to file timely an application for renewal under subsection E of Section 5 of this Act;

(k) failure to file timely any document or information required under Section 5 of this Act;

(l) examining an application to register face amount certificate contracts under subsection B of Section 6 of this Act;

(m) examining an amended or supplemental prospectus filed pursuant to the undertaking required by sub-paragraph (f) of paragraph (2) of subsection B of Section 6 of this Act;

(n) registering or renewing registration of face amount certificate contracts under Section 6 of this Act;

(o) amending a registration of face amount certificate contracts pursuant to subsection E of Section 6 of this Act to add any additional series, type or class of contract;

(p) failure to file timely an application for renewal under subsection F of Section 6 of this Act;

(q) adding to or withdrawing from deposits with respect to face amount certificate contracts pursuant to subsection H of Section 6, a transaction charge payable at the times and in the manner specified in subsection H of Section 6 (which transaction charge shall be in addition to the annual fee called for by subsection H of Section 6 of this Act);

(r) failure to file timely any document or information required under Section 6 of this Act;

(s) examining an application to register investment fund shares under subsection B of Section 7 of this Act;

(t) examining an amended or supplemental prospectus filed pursuant to the undertaking required by sub-paragraph (f) of paragraph (2) of subsection B of Section 7 of this Act;

(u) registering or renewing registration of investment fund shares under Section 7 of this Act;

(v) amending a registration of investment fund shares pursuant to subsection D of Section 7 of this Act to register an additional class or classes of investment fund shares;

(w) failure to file timely an application for renewal under paragraph (l) of subsection G of Section 7 of this Act;

(x) examining an application for renewal of registration of investment fund shares under paragraph (2) of subsection G of Section 7 of this Act;

(y) failure to file timely any document or information required under Section 7 of this Act;

(z) filing an application for registration or re-registration of a dealer or limited Canadian dealer under Section 8 of this Act for each office in this State;

(aa) in connection with an application for the registration or re-registration of a salesperson under Section 8 of or this Act, for the following purposes:

(i) filing an application;

(ii) a Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund fee; and

(iii) a notification filing of federal covered investment advisers;

(bb) in connection with an application for the registration or re-registration of an investment adviser under Section 8 of this Act;

(cc) failure to file timely any document or information required under Section 8 of this Act;

(dd) filing a consent to service of process under Section 10 of this Act;

(ee) issuing a certificate pursuant to subsection B of Section 15 of this Act;

(ff) issuing a certified copy pursuant to subsection C of Section 15 of this Act;

(gg) issuing a non-binding statement pursuant to Section 15a of this Act;

(hh) filings by Notification under Section 2a;

(ii) notification filing of federal Regulation D, Section 506 offering under the Federal 1933 Act;

(jj) notification filing of securities and closed-end investment company securities;

(kk) notification filing of face amount certificate contracts;

(ll) notification filing of open-end investment company securities;

(mm) filing a report pursuant to subsection D of Section 4 of this Act;

(nn) in connection with the filing of an application for registration or re-registration of an investment adviser representative under subsection D of Section 8 of this Act.

(2) The Secretary of State may, by rule or regulation, raise or lower any fee imposed by, and which he or she is authorized by law to collect under, this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-70, eff. 7-8-97; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 625. The Ticket Sale and Resale Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 2 as follows:

(815 ILCS 414/1) (was 720 ILCS 375/1)

Sec. 1. Sale of tickets other than at box office prohibited; exceptions.

(a) It is unlawful for any person, firm or corporation, owner, lessee, manager, trustee, or any of their employees or agents, owning, conducting, managing or operating any theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement where tickets of admission are sold for any such places of amusement or public entertainment to sell or permit the sale, barter or exchange of such admission tickets at any other place than in the box office or on the premises of such theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement, but nothing herein prevents such theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement from placing any of its admission tickets for sale at any other place at the same price such admission tickets are sold by such theater, circus, baseball park, or other place of public entertainment or amusement at its box office or on the premises of such places, at the same advertised price or printed rate thereof.

(b) Any term or condition of the original sale of a ticket to any theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement where tickets of admission are sold that purports to limit the terms or conditions of resale of the ticket (including but not limited to the resale price of the ticket) is unenforceable, null, and void if the resale transaction is carried out by any of the means set forth in subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e) of Section 1.5 of this Act. This subsection shall not apply to a term or condition of the original sale of a ticket to any theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement where tickets of admission are sold that purports to limit the terms or conditions of resale of a ticket specifically designated as seating in a special section for a person with a physical disability.

(Source: P.A. 94-20, eff. 6-14-05; revised 12-11-14.)

(815 ILCS 414/2) (was 720 ILCS 375/2)

Sec. 2. (a) Whoever violates any of the provisions of Section 1.5 of this Act shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and may be fined up to $5,000.00 for each offense and whoever violates any other provision of this Act may be enjoined and be required to make restitution to all injured consumers upon application for injunctive relief by the State's Attorney or Attorney General and shall also be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, and any owner, lessee, manager or trustee convicted under this Act shall, in addition to the penalty herein provided, forfeit the license of such theatre, circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement so granted and the same shall be revoked by the authorities granting the same.

(b) Tickets sold or offered for sale by a person, firm or corporation in violation of Section 1.5 of this Act may be confiscated by a court on motion of the Attorney General, a State's Attorney, the sponsor of the event for which the tickets are being sold, or the owner or operator of the facility at which the event is to be held, and may be donated by order of the court to an appropriate organization as defined under Section 2 of the Charitable Games Act.

(c) The Attorney General, a State's Attorney, the sponsor of an event for which tickets are being sold, or the owner or operator of the facility at which an event is to be held may seek an injunction restraining any person, firm or corporation from selling or offering for sale tickets in violation of the provisions of this Act. In addition, on motion of the Attorney General, a State's Attorney, the sponsor of an event for which tickets are being sold, or the owner or operator of the facility at which an event is to be held, a court may permanently enjoin a person, firm or corporation found guilty of violating Section 1.5 of this Act from engaging in the offer or sale of tickets.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 630. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2RRR as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2RRR)

Sec. 2RRR. Household goods recycling bins.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person or entity owning, operating, or maintaining a household goods recycling bin shall have a permanent, written, printed label affixed to the bin that is prominently displayed and includes the following: (1) the name, address, and contact information of the person or entity owning, operating, or maintaining that bin; and (2) whether the person or entity owning, operating, or maintaining the bin is a not for profit entity or a for profit entity. A person or entity who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Household goods recycling bin" or "bin" means a container or receptacle held out to the public as a place for people to discard clothes, shoes, books, and other recyclable items until they are taken away for resale, re-use, recycling, or redistribution by the person or entity that owns, operates, or maintains the bin.

"Not for profit entity" means any entity that is officially recognized by the United States Internal Revenue Service as a tax-exempt entity described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any successor provision of federal tax law).

(Source: P.A. 98-1116, eff. 1-1-15.)

(815 ILCS 505/2SSS)

Sec. 2SSS 2RRR. Unfair or deceptive patent infringement demand letters.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Affiliated person" means a person affiliated with the intended recipient of a written or electronic communication.

"Intended recipient" means a person who purchases, rents, leases, or otherwise obtains a product or service in the commercial market that is not for resale in the commercial market and that is, or later becomes, the subject of a patent infringement allegation.

(b) It is an unlawful practice under this Act for a person, in connection with the assertion of a United States patent, to send or cause any person to send any written, including electronic, communication that states that the intended recipient or any affiliated person is infringing or has infringed a patent and bears liability or owes compensation to another person, if:

(1) the communication falsely threatens that administrative or judicial relief will be sought if compensation is not paid or the infringement issue is not otherwise resolved;

(2) the communication falsely states that litigation has been filed against the intended recipient or any affiliated person;

(3) the assertions contained in the communication lack a reasonable basis in fact or law because:

(A) the person asserting the patent is not a person, or does not represent a person, with the current right to license the patent to or enforce the patent against the intended recipient or any affiliated person;

(B) the communication seeks compensation for a patent that has been held to be invalid or unenforceable in a final, unappealable or unappealed, judicial or administrative decision; or

(C) the communication seeks compensation on account of activities undertaken after the patent has expired; or

(4) the content of the communication fails to include information necessary to inform an intended recipient or any affiliated person about the patent assertion by failing to include the following:

(A) the identity of the person asserting a right to license the patent to or enforce the patent against the intended recipient or any affiliated person;

(B) the patent issued by the United States Patent and Trademark Office alleged to have been infringed; and

(C) the factual allegations concerning the specific areas in which the intended recipient's or affiliated person's products, services, or technology infringed the patent or are covered by the claims in the patent.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to deem it an unlawful practice for any person who owns or has the right to license or enforce a patent to:

(1) advise others of that ownership or right of license or enforcement;

(2) communicate to others that the patent is available for license or sale;

(3) notify another of the infringement of the patent; or

(4) seek compensation on account of past or present infringement or for a license to the patent.

(Source: P.A. 98-1119, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-20-14.)

Section 635. The Day and Temporary Labor Services Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 175/10)

Sec. 10. Employment Notice.

(a) Whenever a day and temporary labor service agency agrees to send one or more persons to work as day or temporary laborers, the day and temporary labor service agency shall provide to each day or temporary laborer, at the time of dispatch, a statement containing the following items on a form approved by the Department:

(1) the name of the day or temporary laborer;

(2) the name and nature of the work to be performed;

(3) the wages offered;

(4) the name and address of the destination of each day or temporary laborer;

(5) terms of transportation; and

(6) whether a meal or equipment, or both, are provided, either by the day and temporary labor service agency or the third party client, and the cost of the meal and equipment, if any.

If a day or temporary laborer is assigned to the same assignment for more than one day, the day and temporary labor service agency is required to provide the employment notice only on the first day of the assignment and on any day that any of the terms listed on the employment notice are changed.

If the day or temporary laborer is not placed with a third party client or otherwise contracted to work for that day, the day and temporary labor service agency shall, upon request, provide the day and temporary laborer with a confirmation that the day or temporary laborer sought work, signed by an employee of the day and temporary labor service agency, which shall include the name of the agency, the name and address of the day or temporary laborer, and the date and the time that the day or temporary laborer receives the confirmation.

(b) No day and temporary labor service agency may send any day or temporary laborer to any place where a strike, a lockout, or other labor trouble exists.

(c) The Department shall recommend to day and temporary labor service agencies that those agencies employ personnel who can effectively communicate information required in subsections (a) and (b) to day or temporary laborers in Spanish, Polish, or any other language that is generally understood in the locale of the day and temporary labor service agency.

(Source: P.A. 93-375, eff. 1-1-04; 94-511, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 640. The Victims' Economic Security and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(820 ILCS 180/30)

Sec. 30. Victims' employment sustainability; prohibited discriminatory acts.

(a) An employer shall not fail to hire, refuse to hire, discharge, constructively discharge, or harass any individual, otherwise discriminate against any individual with respect to the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment of the individual, or retaliate against an individual in any form or manner, and a public agency shall not deny, reduce, or terminate the benefits of, otherwise sanction, or harass any individual, otherwise discriminate against any individual with respect to the amount, terms, or conditions of public assistance of the individual, or retaliate against an individual in any form or manner, because:

(1) the individual involved:

(A) is or is perceived to be a victim of domestic or sexual violence;

(B) attended, participated in, prepared for, or requested leave to attend, participate in, or prepare for a criminal or civil court proceeding relating to an incident of domestic or sexual violence of which the individual or a family or household member of the individual was a victim, or requested or took leave for any other reason provided under Section 20; or

(C) requested an adjustment to a job structure, workplace facility, or work requirement, including a transfer, reassignment, or modified schedule, leave, a changed telephone number or seating assignment, installation of a lock, or implementation of a safety procedure in response to actual or threatened domestic or sexual violence, regardless of whether the request was granted; or

(D) is an employee whose employer is subject to Section 21 of the Workplace Violence Prevention Act; or

(2) the workplace is disrupted or threatened by the action of a person whom the individual states has committed or threatened to commit domestic or sexual violence against the individual or the individual's family or household member.

(b) In this Section:

(1) "Discriminate", used with respect to the terms, conditions, or privileges of employment or with respect to the terms or conditions of public assistance, includes not making a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations resulting from circumstances relating to being a victim of domestic or sexual violence or a family or household member being a victim of domestic or sexual violence of an otherwise qualified individual:

(A) who is:

(i) an applicant or employee of the employer (including a public agency); or

(ii) an applicant for or recipient of public assistance from a public agency; and

(B) who is:

(i) a victim of domestic or sexual violence; or

(ii) with a family or household member who is a victim of domestic or sexual violence whose interests are not adverse to the individual in subparagraph (A) as it relates to the domestic or sexual violence;

unless the employer or public agency can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer or public agency.

A reasonable accommodation must be made in a timely fashion. Any exigent circumstances or danger facing the employee or his or her family or household member shall be considered in determining whether the accommodation is reasonable.

(2) "Qualified individual" means:

(A) in the case of an applicant or employee described in paragraph (1)(A)(i), an individual who, but for being a victim of domestic or sexual violence or with a family or household member who is a victim of domestic or sexual violence, can perform the essential functions of the employment position that such individual holds or desires; or

(B) in the case of an applicant or recipient described in paragraph (1)(A)(ii), an individual who, but for being a victim of domestic or sexual violence or with a family or household member who is a victim of domestic or sexual violence, can satisfy the essential requirements of the program providing the public assistance that the individual receives or desires.

(3) "Reasonable accommodation" may include an adjustment to a job structure, workplace facility, or work requirement, including a transfer, reassignment, or modified schedule, leave, a changed telephone number or seating assignment, installation of a lock, or implementation of a safety procedure, or assistance in documenting domestic or sexual violence that occurs at the workplace or in work-related settings, in response to actual or threatened domestic or sexual violence.

(4) Undue hardship.

(A) In general. "Undue hardship" means an action requiring significant difficulty or expense, when considered in light of the factors set forth in subparagraph (B).

(B) Factors to be considered. In determining whether a reasonable accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of an employer or public agency, factors to be considered include:

(i) the nature and cost of the reasonable accommodation needed under this Section;

(ii) the overall financial resources of the facility involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, the number of persons employed at such facility, the effect on expenses and resources, or the impact otherwise of such accommodation on the operation of the facility;

(iii) the overall financial resources of the employer or public agency, the overall size of the business of an employer or public agency with respect to the number of employees of the employer or public agency, and the number, type, and location of the facilities of an employer or public agency; and

(iv) the type of operation of the employer or public agency, including the composition, structure, and functions of the workforce of the employer or public agency, the geographic separateness of the facility from the employer or public agency, and the administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility to the employer or public agency.

(c) An employer subject to Section 21 of the Workplace Violence Prevention Act shall not violate any provisions of the Workplace Violence Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-766, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 645. The Workplace Violence Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(820 ILCS 275/5)

Sec. 5. Purpose. This Act is intended to assist employers in protecting their workforces its workforce, customers, guests, and property by limiting access to workplace venues by potentially violent individuals.

(Source: P.A. 98-430, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-11-14.)

Section 650. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/6) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.6)

Sec. 6. (a) Every employer within the provisions of this Act, shall, under the rules and regulations prescribed by the Commission, post printed notices in their respective places of employment in such number and at such places as may be determined by the Commission, containing such information relative to this Act as in the judgment of the Commission may be necessary to aid employees to safeguard their rights under this Act in event of injury.

In addition thereto, the employer shall post in a conspicuous place on the place of the employment a printed or typewritten notice stating whether he is insured or whether he has qualified and is operating as a self-insured employer. In the event the employer is insured, the notice shall state the name and address of his insurance carrier, the number of the insurance policy, its effective date and the date of termination. In the event of the termination of the policy for any reason prior to the termination date stated, the posted notice shall promptly be corrected accordingly. In the event the employer is operating as a self-insured employer the notice shall state the name and address of the company, if any, servicing the compensation payments of the employer, and the name and address of the person in charge of making compensation payments.

(b) Every employer subject to this Act shall maintain accurate records of work-related deaths, injuries and illness other than minor injuries requiring only first aid treatment and which do not involve medical treatment, loss of consciousness, restriction of work or motion, or transfer to another job and file with the Commission, in writing, a report of all accidental deaths, injuries and illnesses arising out of and in the course of the employment resulting in the loss of more than 3 scheduled work days. In the case of death such report shall be made no later than 2 working days following the accidental death. In all other cases such report shall be made between the 15th and 25th of each month unless required to be made sooner by rule of the Commission. In case the injury results in permanent disability, a further report shall be made as soon as it is determined that such permanent disability has resulted or will result from the injury. All reports shall state the date of the injury, including the time of day or night, the nature of the employer's business, the name, address, age, sex, conjugal condition of the injured person, the specific occupation of the injured person, the direct cause of the injury and the nature of the accident, the character of the injury, the length of disability, and in case of death the length of disability before death, the wages of the injured person, whether compensation has been paid to the injured person, or to his or her legal representative or his heirs or next of kin, the amount of compensation paid, the amount paid for physicians', surgeons' and hospital bills, and by whom paid, and the amount paid for funeral or burial expenses if known. The reports shall be made on forms and in the manner as prescribed by the Commission and shall contain such further information as the Commission shall deem necessary and require. The making of these reports releases the employer from making such reports to any other officer of the State and shall satisfy the reporting provisions as contained in the Safety Inspection and Education Act, the Health and Safety Act, and the Occupational Safety and Health Act. The reports filed with the Commission pursuant to this Section shall be made available by the Commission to the Director of Labor or his representatives and to all other departments of the State of Illinois which shall require such information for the proper discharge of their official duties. Failure to file with the Commission any of the reports required in this Section is a petty offense.

Except as provided in this paragraph, all reports filed hereunder shall be confidential and any person having access to such records filed with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission as herein required, who shall release any information therein contained including the names or otherwise identify any persons sustaining injuries or disabilities, or give access to such information to any unauthorized person, shall be subject to discipline or discharge, and in addition shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. The Commission shall compile and distribute to interested persons aggregate statistics, taken from the reports filed hereunder. The aggregate statistics shall not give the names or otherwise identify persons sustaining injuries or disabilities or the employer of any injured or disabled person.

(c) Notice of the accident shall be given to the employer as soon as practicable, but not later than 45 days after the accident. Provided:

(1) In case of the legal disability of the employee or any dependent of a deceased employee who may be entitled to compensation under the provisions of this Act, the limitations of time by this Act provided do not begin to run against such person under legal disability until a guardian has been appointed.

(2) In cases of injuries sustained by exposure to radiological materials or equipment, notice shall be given to the employer within 90 days subsequent to the time that the employee knows or suspects that he has received an excessive dose of radiation.

No defect or inaccuracy of such notice shall be a bar to the maintenance of proceedings on arbitration or otherwise by the employee unless the employer proves that he is unduly prejudiced in such proceedings by such defect or inaccuracy.

Notice of the accident shall give the approximate date and place of the accident, if known, and may be given orally or in writing.

(d) Every employer shall notify each injured employee who has been granted compensation under the provisions of Section 8 of this Act of his rights to rehabilitation services and advise him of the locations of available public rehabilitation centers and any other such services of which the employer has knowledge.

In any case, other than one where the injury was caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos unless the application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of the accident, where no compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation, where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, the right to file such application shall be barred.

In any case of injury caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos, unless application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 25 years after the last day that the employee was employed in an environment of hazardous radiological activity or asbestos, the right to file such application shall be barred.

If in any case except one where the injury was caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos, the accidental injury results in death application for compensation for death may be filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of death where no compensation has been paid or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, but not thereafter.

If an accidental injury caused by exposure to radiological material or equipment or asbestos results in death within 25 years after the last day that the employee was so exposed application for compensation for death may be filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of death, where no compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, but not thereafter.

(e) Any contract or agreement made by any employer or his agent or attorney with any employee or any other beneficiary of any claim under the provisions of this Act within 7 days after the injury shall be presumed to be fraudulent.

(f) Any condition or impairment of health of an employee employed as a firefighter, emergency medical technician (EMT), emergency medical technician-intermediate (EMT-I), advanced emergency medical technician (A-EMT), or paramedic which results directly or indirectly from any bloodborne pathogen, lung or respiratory disease or condition, heart or vascular disease or condition, hypertension, tuberculosis, or cancer resulting in any disability (temporary, permanent, total, or partial) to the employee shall be rebuttably presumed to arise out of and in the course of the employee's firefighting, EMT, or paramedic employment and, further, shall be rebuttably presumed to be causally connected to the hazards or exposures of the employment. This presumption shall also apply to any hernia or hearing loss suffered by an employee employed as a firefighter, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic. However, this presumption shall not apply to any employee who has been employed as a firefighter, EMT, or paramedic for less than 5 years at the time he or she files an Application for Adjustment of Claim concerning this condition or impairment with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission. The rebuttable presumption established under this subsection, however, does not apply to an emergency medical technician (EMT), emergency medical technician-intermediate (EMT-I), advanced emergency medical technician (A-EMT), or paramedic employed by a private employer if the employee spends the preponderance of his or her work time for that employer engaged in medical transfers between medical care facilities or non-emergency medical transfers to or from medical care facilities. The changes made to this subsection by Public Act 98-291 shall be narrowly construed. The Finding and Decision of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under only the rebuttable presumption provision of this subsection shall not be admissible or be deemed res judicata in any disability claim under the Illinois Pension Code arising out of the same medical condition; however, this sentence makes no change to the law set forth in Krohe v. City of Bloomington, 204 Ill.2d 392.

(Source: P.A. 98-291, eff. 1-1-14; 98-874, eff. 1-1-15; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.