SB3733eng 96TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB3733 Engrossed LRB096 19592 AMC 34984 b

AN ACT revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2010 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 95-1004 through 96-856, with some exceptions because of other legislation pending action by the Governor, were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.20 and 4.30 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.20)

Sec. 4.20. Act Acts repealed on January 1, 2010 and December 31, 2010. (a) The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2010: (b) The following Act is repealed on December 31, 2010:

The Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-1018, eff. 12-18-08; 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-730, eff. 8-25-09; 96-855, eff. 12-31-09; 96-856, eff. 12-31-09; revised 1-6-10.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.30)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-726)

Sec. 4.30. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2020. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2020:

The Auction License Act.

The Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989.

The Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989.

The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989.

The Land Sales Registration Act of 1999.

The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act.

The Perfusionist Practice Act.

The Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

The Real Estate License Act of 2000.

The Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-730, eff. 8-25-09; 96-855, eff. 12-31-09; 96-856, eff. 12-31-09; revised 1-6-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-726)

Sec. 4.30. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2020. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2020:

The Auction License Act.

The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989.

The Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989.

The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989.

The Land Sales Registration Act of 1999.

The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act.

The Perfusionist Practice Act.

The Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

The Real Estate License Act of 2000.

The Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-726, eff. 7-1-10; 96-730, eff. 8-25-09; 96-855, eff. 12-31-09; 96-856, eff. 12-31-09; revised 1-6-10.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.18 rep.)

Section 7. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.18.

Section 10. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4, and 6 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/2) (from Ch. 116, par. 202)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Public body" means all legislative, executive, administrative, or advisory bodies of the State, state universities and colleges, counties, townships, cities, villages, incorporated towns, school districts and all other municipal corporations, boards, bureaus, committees, or commissions of this State, any subsidiary bodies of any of the foregoing including but not limited to committees and subcommittees thereof, and a School Finance Authority created under Article 1E of the School Code. "Public body" does not include a child death review team or the Illinois Child Death Review Teams Executive Council established under the Child Death Review Team Act.

(b) "Person" means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, organization or association, acting individually or as a group.

(c) "Public records" means all records, reports, forms, writings, letters, memoranda, books, papers, maps, photographs, microfilms, cards, tapes, recordings, electronic data processing records, electronic communications, recorded information and all other documentary materials pertaining to the transaction of public business, regardless of physical form or characteristics, having been prepared by or for, or having been or being used by, received by, in the possession of, or under the control of any public body; and (xviii) reports prepared by institutions of higher education in the State of Illinois documenting their relationship with credit card issuers, otherwise disclosed to the Illinois Board of Higher Education.

(c-5) "Private information" means unique identifiers, including a person's social security number, driver's license number, employee identification number, biometric identifiers, personal financial information, passwords or other access codes, medical records, home or personal telephone numbers, and personal email addresses. Private information also includes home address and personal license plates, except as otherwise provided by law or when compiled without possibility of attribution to any person.

(c-10) "Commercial purpose" means the use of any part of a public record or records, or information derived from public records, in any form for sale, resale, or solicitation or advertisement for sales or services. For purposes of this definition, requests made by news media and non-profit, scientific, or academic organizations shall not be considered to be made for a "commercial purpose" when the principal purpose of the request is (i) to access and disseminate information concerning news and current or passing events, (ii) for articles of opinion or features of interest to the public, or (iii) for the purpose of academic, scientific, or public research or education.

(d) "Copying" means the reproduction of any public record by means of any photographic, electronic, mechanical or other process, device or means now known or hereafter developed and available to the public body.

(e) "Head of the public body" means the president, mayor, chairman, presiding officer, director, superintendent, manager, supervisor or individual otherwise holding primary executive and administrative authority for the public body, or such person's duly authorized designee.

(f) "News media" means a newspaper or other periodical issued at regular intervals whether in print or electronic format, a news service whether in print or electronic format, a radio station, a television station, a television network, a community antenna television service, or a person or corporation engaged in making news reels or other motion picture news for public showing.

(Source: P.A. 96-261, eff. 1-1-10; 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(5 ILCS 140/4) (from Ch. 116, par. 204)

Sec. 4. Each public body shall prominently display at each of its administrative or regional offices, make available for inspection and copying, and send through the mail if requested, each of the following:

(a) A brief description of itself, which will include, but not be limited to, a short summary of its purpose, a block diagram giving its functional subdivisions, the total amount of its operating budget, the number and location of all of its separate offices, the approximate number of full and part-time employees, and the identification and membership of any board, commission, committee, or council which operates in an advisory capacity relative to the operation of the public body, or which exercises control over its policies or procedures, or to which the public body is required to report and be answerable for its operations; and

(b) A brief description of the methods whereby the public may request information and public records, a directory designating the Freedom of Information officer or officers, the address where requests for public records should be directed, and any fees allowable under Section 6 of this Act.

(c) A public body that maintains a website shall also post this information on its website.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-30-09.)

(5 ILCS 140/6) (from Ch. 116, par. 206)

Sec. 6. Authority to charge fees.

(a) When a person requests a copy of a record maintained in an electronic format, the public body shall furnish it in the electronic format specified by the requester, if feasible. If it is not feasible to furnish the public records in the specified electronic format, then the public body shall furnish it in the format in which it is maintained by the public body, or in paper format at the option of the requester. A public body may charge the requester for the actual cost of purchasing the recording medium, whether disc, diskette, tape, or other medium. A public body may not charge the requester for the costs of any search for and review of the records or other personnel costs associated with reproducing the records. Except to the extent that the General Assembly expressly provides, statutory fees applicable to copies of public records when furnished in a paper format shall not be applicable to those records when furnished in an electronic format.

(b) Except when a fee is otherwise fixed by statute, each public body may charge fees reasonably calculated to reimburse its actual cost for reproducing and certifying public records and for the use, by any person, of the equipment of the public body to copy records. No fees shall be charged for the first 50 pages of black and white, letter or legal sized copies requested by a requester. The fee for black and white, letter or legal sized copies shall not exceed 15 cents per page. If a public body provides copies in color or in a size other than letter or legal, the public body may not charge more than its actual cost for reproducing the records. In calculating its actual cost for reproducing records or for the use of the equipment of the public body to reproduce records, a public body shall not include the costs of any search for and review of the records or other personnel costs associated with reproducing the records. Such fees shall be imposed according to a standard scale of fees, established and made public by the body imposing them. The cost for certifying a record shall not exceed $1.

(c) Documents shall be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge, as determined by the public body, if the person requesting the documents states the specific purpose for the request and indicates that a waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest. Waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest if the principal purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety and welfare or the legal rights of the general public and is not for the principal purpose of personal or commercial benefit. For purposes of this subsection, "commercial benefit" shall not apply to requests made by news media when the principal purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, and welfare or the legal rights of the general public. In setting the amount of the waiver or reduction, the public body may take into consideration the amount of materials requested and the cost of copying them.

(d) The imposition of a fee not consistent with subsections (6)(a) and (b) of this Act constitutes a denial of access to public records for the purposes of judicial review.

(e) (d) The fee for each abstract of a driver's record shall be as provided in Section 6-118 of "The Illinois Vehicle Code", approved September 29, 1969, as amended, whether furnished as a paper copy or as an electronic copy.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; revised 1-4-10.)

Section 15. The Elected Officials Misconduct Forfeiture Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 282/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, "elected official" means any former elected official whose term of office is terminated by operation of law for conviction of an offense, who is removed from office on conviction of impeachment for misconduct in office, or who resigned from office prior to, upon, or after conviction; and "proceeds" means any interest in property of any kind acquired through or caused by an act or omission, or derived from the act or omission, directly or indirectly, and any fruits of this interest, in whatever form.

(Source: P.A. 96-597, eff. 8-18-09; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 20. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, and 356z.13, and 356z.14, 356z.15 and 356z.14, and 356z.17 356z.15 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Section 155.37 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1044, eff. 3-26-09; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-639, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-22-09.)

Section 25. The Illinois Governmental Ethics Act is amended by changing Sections 4A-101 and 4A-107 as follows:

(5 ILCS 420/4A-101) (from Ch. 127, par. 604A-101)

Sec. 4A-101. Persons required to file. The following persons shall file verified written statements of economic interests, as provided in this Article:

(a) Members of the General Assembly and candidates for nomination or election to the General Assembly.

(b) Persons holding an elected office in the Executive Branch of this State, and candidates for nomination or election to these offices.

(c) Members of a Commission or Board created by the Illinois Constitution, and candidates for nomination or election to such Commission or Board.

(d) Persons whose appointment to office is subject to confirmation by the Senate and persons appointed by the Governor to any other position on a board or commission described in subsection (a) of Section 15 of the Gubernatorial Boards and Commissions Act.

(e) Holders of, and candidates for nomination or election to, the office of judge or associate judge of the Circuit Court and the office of judge of the Appellate or Supreme Court.

(f) Persons who are employed by any branch, agency, authority or board of the government of this State, including but not limited to, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, the Illinois Housing Development Authority, the Illinois Community College Board, and institutions under the jurisdiction of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Governor's State University, Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, or Board of Trustees of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy, and are compensated for services as employees and not as independent contractors and who:

(1) are, or function as, the head of a department, commission, board, division, bureau, authority or other administrative unit within the government of this State, or who exercise similar authority within the government of this State;

(2) have direct supervisory authority over, or direct responsibility for the formulation, negotiation, issuance or execution of contracts entered into by the State in the amount of $5,000 or more;

(3) have authority for the issuance or promulgation of rules and regulations within areas under the authority of the State;

(4) have authority for the approval of professional licenses;

(5) have responsibility with respect to the financial inspection of regulated nongovernmental entities;

(6) adjudicate, arbitrate, or decide any judicial or administrative proceeding, or review the adjudication, arbitration or decision of any judicial or administrative proceeding within the authority of the State;

(7) have supervisory responsibility for 20 or more employees of the State;

(8) negotiate, assign, authorize, or grant naming rights or sponsorship rights regarding any property or asset of the State, whether real, personal, tangible, or intangible; or

(9) have responsibility with respect to the procurement of goods or services.

(g) Persons who are elected to office in a unit of local government, and candidates for nomination or election to that office, including regional superintendents of school districts.

(h) Persons appointed to the governing board of a unit of local government, or of a special district, and persons appointed to a zoning board, or zoning board of appeals, or to a regional, county, or municipal plan commission, or to a board of review of any county, and persons appointed to the Board of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority and any Trustee appointed under Section 22 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, and persons appointed to a board or commission of a unit of local government who have authority to authorize the expenditure of public funds. This subsection does not apply to members of boards or commissions who function in an advisory capacity.

(i) Persons who are employed by a unit of local government and are compensated for services as employees and not as independent contractors and who:

(1) are, or function as, the head of a department, division, bureau, authority or other administrative unit within the unit of local government, or who exercise similar authority within the unit of local government;

(2) have direct supervisory authority over, or direct responsibility for the formulation, negotiation, issuance or execution of contracts entered into by the unit of local government in the amount of $1,000 or greater;

(3) have authority to approve licenses and permits by the unit of local government; this item does not include employees who function in a ministerial capacity;

(4) adjudicate, arbitrate, or decide any judicial or administrative proceeding, or review the adjudication, arbitration or decision of any judicial or administrative proceeding within the authority of the unit of local government;

(5) have authority to issue or promulgate rules and regulations within areas under the authority of the unit of local government; or

(6) have supervisory responsibility for 20 or more employees of the unit of local government.

(j) Persons on the Board of Trustees of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy.

(k) Persons employed by a school district in positions that require that person to hold an administrative or a chief school business official endorsement.

(l) Special government agents. A "special government agent" is a person who is directed, retained, designated, appointed, or employed, with or without compensation, by or on behalf of a statewide executive branch constitutional officer to make an ex parte communication under Section 5-50 of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act or Section 5-165 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(m) Members of the board of commissioners of any flood prevention district.

(n) Members of the board of any retirement system or investment board established under the Illinois Pension Code, if not required to file under any other provision of this Section.

(o) Members of the board of any pension fund established under the Illinois Pension Code, if not required to file under any other provision of this Section.

This Section shall not be construed to prevent any unit of local government from enacting financial disclosure requirements that mandate more information than required by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-719, eff. 5-21-08; 96-6, eff. 4-3-09; 96-543, eff. 8-17-09; 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; revised 9-21-09.)

(5 ILCS 420/4A-107) (from Ch. 127, par. 604A-107)

Sec. 4A-107. Any person required to file a statement of economic interests under this Article who willfully files a false or incomplete statement shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Except when the fees and penalties for late filing have been waived under Section 4A-105, failure to file a statement within the time prescribed shall result in ineligibility for, or forfeiture of, office or position of employment, as the case may be; provided, however, that if the notice of failure to file a statement of economic interests provided in Section 4A-105 of this Act is not given by the Secretary of State or the county clerk, as the case may be, no forfeiture shall result if a statement is filed within 30 days of actual notice of the failure to file. The Secretary of State shall provide the Attorney General with the names of persons who failed to file a statement. The county clerk shall provide the State's Attorney of the county of the entity for which the filing of statement of economic interest is required with the name of persons who failed to file a statement.

The Attorney General, with respect to offices or positions described in items (a) through (f) and items (j), (l), and (n) of Section 4A-101 of this Act, or the State's Attorney of the county of the entity for which the filing of statements of economic interests is required, with respect to offices or positions described in items (g) through (i), item (k), and item (o) of Section 4A-101 of this Act, shall bring an action in quo warranto against any person who has failed to file by either May 31 or June 30 of any given year and for whom the fees and penalties for late filing have not been waived under Section 4A-105.

(Source: P.A. 96-6, eff. 4-3-09; 96-550, eff. 8-17-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 30. The State Commemorative Dates Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 125 as follows:

(5 ILCS 490/125)

Sec. 125. Parkinson's Awareness Month. April of each year is designated as Parkinson's Awareness Month, to be observed throughout the State as a month to promote the awareness of Parkinson's disease.

(Source: P.A. 96-375, eff. 1-1-10.)

(5 ILCS 490/130)

Sec. 130 125. Ovarian and Prostate Cancer Awareness Month. The month of September of each year is designated as Ovarian and Prostate Cancer Awareness Month to be observed throughout the State as a month set apart to promote advocacy activities and the study of ovarian and prostate cancer and to honor those whose lives have been impacted by the disease. The Governor may annually issue a proclamation designating September as Ovarian and Prostate Cancer Awareness Month and calling upon the citizens of the State to promote awareness of ovarian and prostate cancer.

(Source: P.A. 96-396, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(5 ILCS 490/135)

Sec. 135 125. Brain Aneurysm Awareness Month. September of each year is designated as Brain Aneurysm Awareness Month, to be observed throughout the State as a month to promote the awareness of brain aneurysm prevention and treatment.

(Source: P.A. 96-463, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(5 ILCS 490/140)

Sec. 140 125. Children's Day (El Dia de los Ninos). The second Sunday in June each year is a holiday to be known as Children's Day (El Dia de los Ninos). Children's Day is to be observed throughout the State as a day to recognize and acknowledge the lives of all children and to pledge our dedication to their future and ours.

(Source: P.A. 96-465, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(5 ILCS 490/145)

Sec. 145 125. Peace Officers Memorial Day; National Peace Officers Memorial Day.

(a) The first Thursday in May of each year is designated Peace Officers Memorial Day in Illinois. Peace Officers Memorial Day shall be observed throughout the State by the citizens of Illinois with civic remembrances of the sacrifices made on their behalf by the peace officers of Illinois, especially the ultimate sacrifice given by those officers who lost their lives in the line of duty.

(b) May 15th of each year is recognized in Illinois as National Peace Officers Memorial Day, to be observed throughout the State in coordination with the citizens of the United States with respect and gratitude for the service to America given by peace officers across the nation.

(Source: P.A. 96-518, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(5 ILCS 490/150)

Sec. 150 125. Adlai Stevenson Day. February 5 of each year is designated as Adlai Stevenson Day, to be observed throughout the State as a day to remember and honor the legacy of public service of Adlai Stevenson II (1900-1965), Governor of Illinois and United States Ambassador to the United Nations.

(Source: P.A. 96-559, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 35. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 1-3, 3-3, 4-10, 5-9, 7-14.1, 19-3, and 20-2.3 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/1-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 1-3)

Sec. 1-3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

1. "Election" includes the submission of all questions of public policy, propositions, and all measures submitted to popular vote, and includes primary elections when so indicated by the context.

2. "Regular election" means the general, general primary, consolidated and consolidated primary elections regularly scheduled in Article 2A. The even numbered year municipal primary established in Article 2A is a regular election only with respect to those municipalities in which a primary is required to be held on such date.

3. "Special election" means an election not regularly recurring at fixed intervals, irrespective of whether it is held at the same time and place and by the same election officers as a regular election.

4. "General election" means the biennial election at which members of the General Assembly are elected. "General primary election", "consolidated election" and "consolidated primary election" mean the respective elections or the election dates designated and established in Article 2A of this Code.

5. "Municipal election" means an election or primary, either regular or special, in cities, villages, and incorporated towns; and "municipality" means any such city, village or incorporated town.

6. "Political or governmental subdivision" means any unit of local government, or school district in which elections are or may be held. "Political or governmental subdivision" also includes, for election purposes, Regional Boards of School Trustees, and Township Boards of School Trustees.

7. The word "township" and the word "town" shall apply interchangeably to the type of governmental organization established in accordance with the provisions of the Township Code. The term "incorporated town" shall mean a municipality referred to as an incorporated town in the Illinois Municipal Code, as now or hereafter amended.

8. "Election authority" means a county clerk or a Board of Election Commissioners.

9. "Election Jurisdiction" means (a) an entire county, in the case of a county in which no city board of election commissioners is located or which is under the jurisdiction of a county board of election commissioners; (b) the territorial jurisdiction of a city board of election commissioners; and (c) the territory in a county outside of the jurisdiction of a city board of election commissioners. In each instance election jurisdiction shall be determined according to which election authority maintains the permanent registration records of qualified electors.

10. "Local election official" means the clerk or secretary of a unit of local government or school district, as the case may be, the treasurer of a township board of school trustees, and the regional superintendent of schools with respect to the various school officer elections and school referenda for which the regional superintendent is assigned election duties by The School Code, as now or hereafter amended.

11. "Judges of election", "primary judges" and similar terms, as applied to cases where there are 2 sets of judges, when used in connection with duties at an election during the hours the polls are open, refer to the team of judges of election on duty during such hours; and, when used with reference to duties after the closing of the polls, refer to the team of tally judges designated to count the vote after the closing of the polls and the holdover judges designated pursuant to Section 13-6.2 or 14-5.2. In such case, where, after the closing of the polls, any act is required to be performed by each of the judges of election, it shall be performed by each of the tally judges and by each of the holdover judges.

12. "Petition" of candidacy as used in Sections 7-10 and 7-10.1 shall consist of a statement of candidacy, candidate's statement containing oath, and sheets containing signatures of qualified primary electors bound together.

13. "Election district" and "precinct", when used with reference to a 30-day residence requirement, means the smallest constituent territory in which electors vote as a unit at the same polling place in any election governed by this Act.

14. "District" means any area which votes as a unit for the election of any officer, other than the State or a unit of local government or school district, and includes, but is not limited to, legislative, congressional and judicial districts, judicial circuits, county board districts, municipal and sanitary district wards, school board districts, and precincts.

15. "Question of public policy" or "public question" means any question, proposition or measure submitted to the voters at an election dealing with subject matter other than the nomination or election of candidates and shall include, but is not limited to, any bond or tax referendum, and questions relating to the Constitution.

16. "Ordinance providing the form of government of a municipality or county pursuant to Article VII of the Constitution" includes ordinances, resolutions and petitions adopted by referendum which provide for the form of government, the officers or the manner of selection or terms of office of officers of such municipality or county, pursuant to the provisions of Sections 4, 6 or 7 of Article VII of the Constitution.

17. "List" as used in Sections 4-11, 4-22, 5-14, 5-29, 6-60, and 6-66 shall include a computer tape or computer disc or other electronic data processing information containing voter information.

18. "Accessible" means accessible to handicapped and elderly individuals for the purpose of voting or registration, as determined by rule of the State Board of Elections.

19. "Elderly" means 65 years of age or older.

20. "Handicapped" means having a temporary or permanent physical disability.

21. "Leading political party" means one of the two political parties whose candidates for governor at the most recent three gubernatorial elections received either the highest or second highest average number of votes. The political party whose candidates for governor received the highest average number of votes shall be known as the first leading political party and the political party whose candidates for governor received the second highest average number of votes shall be known as the second leading political party.

22. "Business day" means any day in which the office of an election authority, local election official or the State Board of Elections is open to the public for a minimum of 7 hours.

23. "Homeless individual" means any person who has a nontraditional residence, including, but not limited to, a shelter, day shelter, park bench, street corner, or space under a bridge.

(Source: P.A. 90-358, eff. 1-1-98; revised 11-18-09.)

(10 ILCS 5/3-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 3-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-3. Every honorably discharged soldier or sailor who is an inmate of any soldiers' and sailors' home within the State of Illinois, any person who is a resident of a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, or any person who is a resident of a community-integrated living arrangement, as defined in Section 3 of the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act, for 30 days or longer, and who is a citizen of the United States and has resided in this State and in the election district 30 days next preceding any election shall be entitled to vote in the election district in which any such home or community-integrated living arrangement in which he is an inmate or resident is located, for all officers that now are or hereafter may be elected by the people, and upon all questions that may be submitted to the vote of the people: Provided, that he shall declare upon oath, that it was his bona fide intention at the time he entered said home or community-integrated living arrangement to become a resident thereof.

(Source: P.A. 96-563, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-3. Every honorably discharged soldier or sailor who is an inmate of any soldiers' and sailors' home within the State of Illinois, any person who is a resident of a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act, or any person who is a resident of a community-integrated living arrangement, as defined in Section 3 of the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act, for 30 days or longer, and who is a citizen of the United States and has resided in this State and in the election district 30 days next preceding any election shall be entitled to vote in the election district in which any such home or community-integrated living arrangement in which he is an inmate or resident is located, for all officers that now are or hereafter may be elected by the people, and upon all questions that may be submitted to the vote of the people: Provided, that he shall declare upon oath, that it was his bona fide intention at the time he entered said home or community-integrated living arrangement to become a resident thereof.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-563, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-14.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-14.1)

Sec. 7-14.1. Delegates and alternate delegates to national nominating conventions shall be chosen according to one of the following alternative methods of allocating delegates for election. The State central committee of each political party established pursuant to this Article 7 shall certify to the State Board of Elections, not less than 30 days prior to the first date for filing of petitions for election as delegate or alternate delegate to a national nominating convention, which of the following alternatives it wishes to be utilized in allocating the delegates and alternate delegates to which Illinois will be entitled at its national nominating convention. The State Board of Elections shall meet promptly and, not less than 20 days prior to the first date for filing of such petitions, shall publish and certify to the county clerk in each county the number of delegates or alternate delegates to be elected from each congressional district or from the State at large or State convention of a political party, as the case may be, according to the method chosen by each State central committee. If a State central committee fails to certify to the State Board of Elections its choice of one of the following methods prior to the aforementioned meeting of the State Board of Elections, the State Board of Elections shall certify delegates for that political party pursuant to whichever of the alternatives below was used by that political party pursuant to whichever of the alternatives below was used by that political party in the most recent year in which delegates were selected, subject to any subsequent amendments.

Prior to the aforementioned meeting of the State Board of Elections at which the Board shall publish and certify to the county clerk the number of delegates or alternate delegates to be elected from each congressional district or the State at large or State convention, the Secretary of State shall ascertain from the call of the national convention of each political party the number of delegates and alternate delegates to which Illinois will be entitled at the respective national nominating conventions. The Secretary of State shall report the number of delegates and alternate delegates to which Illinois will be entitled at the respective national nominating conventions to the State Board of Elections convened as aforesaid to be utilized by the State Board of Elections in calculating the number of delegates and alternates to be elected from each congressional district in the State at large or State convention, as the case may be.

Alternative A: The State Board of Elections shall allocate the number of delegates and alternate delegates to which the State is entitled among the congressional districts in the State.

1. Of the number of delegates to which the State is entitled, 10, plus those remaining unallocated under paragraph 2, shall be delegates at large. The State central committee of the appropriate political party shall determine whether the delegates at large shall be (a) elected in the primary from the State at large, (b) selected by the State convention, or (c) chosen by a combination of these 2 methods. If the State central committee determines that all or a specified number of the delegates at large shall be elected in the primary, the committee shall file with the Board a report of such determination at the same time it certifies the alternative it wishes to use in allocating its delegates.

2. All delegates other than the delegates at large shall be elected from the congressional districts. Two delegates shall be allocated from this number to each district. After reserving 10 delegates to be delegates at large and allocating 2 delegates to each district, the Board shall allocate the remaining delegates to the congressional districts pursuant to the following formula:

(a) For each district, the number of remaining delegates shall be multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the vote cast in the congressional district for the party's nominee in the last Presidential election, and the denominator of which is the vote cast in the State for the party's nominee in the last Presidential election.

(b) The Board shall first allocate to each district a number of delegates equal to the whole number in the product resulting from the multiplication procedure in subparagraph (a).

(c) The Board shall then allocate any remaining delegates, one to each district, in the order of the largest fractional remainder in the product resulting from the multiplication procedure in subparagraph (a), omitting those districts for which that product is less than 1.875.

(d) The Board shall then allocate any remaining delegates, one to each district, in the order of the largest fractional remainder in the product resulting from the multiplication procedure in subparagraph (a), among those districts for which that product is at least one but less than 1.875.

(e) Any delegates remaining unallocated shall be delegates at large and shall be selected as determined by the State central committee under paragraph 1 of this Alternative A.

3. The alternate delegates at large shall be allocated in the same manner as the delegates at large. The alternate delegates other than the alternate delegates at large shall be allocated in the same manner as the delegates other than the delegates at large.

Alternative B: the chairman of the State central committee shall file with the State Board of Elections a statement of the number of delegates and alternate delegates to which the State is entitled and the number of such delegates and alternate delegates to be elected from congressional districts. The State Board of Elections shall allocate such number of delegates and alternate delegates, as the case may be, among the congressional districts in the State for election from the congressional districts.

The Board shall utilize the sum of 1/3 of each of the following formulae to determine the number of delegates and alternate delegates, as the case may be, to be elected from each congressional district:

(1) Formula 1 shall be determined by multiplying paragraphs (a) a, (b), b and (c) c together as follows:

(a) The fraction derived by dividing the population of the district by the population of the State and adding to that fraction the following: 1/2 of the fraction calculated by dividing the total district vote for the party's candidate in the most recent presidential election by the total statewide vote for that candidate in that election, plus 1/2 of the fraction calculated by dividing the total district vote for the party's candidate in the second most recent Presidential election by the total statewide vote for that candidate in that election;

(b) 1/2;

(c) The number of delegates or alternate delegates, as the case may be, to which the State is entitled at the party's national nominating convention.

(2) Formula 2 shall be determined by multiplying paragraphs (a) a, (b), b and (c) c together as follows:

(a) The fraction calculated by dividing the total numbers of votes in the district for the party's candidate in the most recent Gubernatorial election by the total statewide vote for that candidate in that election, plus, the fraction calculated by dividing the total district vote for the party's candidate in the most recent presidential election by the total statewide vote for that candidate in that election; .

(b) 1/2;

(c) The number of delegates or alternate delegates, as the case may be, to which the State is entitled at the party's national nominating convention.

(3) Formula 3 shall be determined by multiplying paragraphs (a) a, (b), b and (c) c together as follows:

(a) 1/2 of the fraction calculated by dividing the total district vote for the party's candidate in the most recent presidential election by the total statewide vote for that candidate in that election, plus 1/2 of the fraction calculated by dividing the total district vote for the party's candidate in the second most recent presidential election by the total statewide vote for that candidate in that election. This sum shall be added to the fraction calculated by dividing the total voter registration of the party in the district by the total voter registration of the party in the State as of January 1 of the year prior to the year in which the national nominating convention is held;

(b) 1/2;

(c) The number of delegates or alternate delegates, as the case may be, to which the State is entitled at the party's national nominating convention.

Fractional numbers of delegates and alternate delegates shall be rounded upward in rank order to the next whole number, largest fraction first, until the total number of delegates and alternate delegates, respectively, to be so chosen have been allocated.

The remainder of the delegates and alternate delegates shall be selected as determined by the State central committee of the party and shall be certified to the State Board of Elections by the chairman of the State central committee.

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained herein, with respect to all aspects of the selection of delegates and alternate delegates to a national nominating convention under Alternative B, this Code shall be superseded superceded by the delegate selection rules and policies of the national political party including, but not limited to, the development of an affirmative action plan.

(Source: P.A. 85-903; 85-958; 86-1089; revised 10-30-09.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-3)

Sec. 19-3. Application for such ballot shall be made on blanks to be furnished by the election authority and duplication of such application for ballot is prohibited, except by the election authority. The application for ballot shall be substantially in the following form:

APPLICATION FOR ABSENTEE BALLOT

To be voted at the .... election in the County of .... and State of Illinois, in the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the City of ....

I state that I am a resident of the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... residing at .... in such city or town in the county of .... and State of Illinois; that I have lived at such address for .... month(s) last past; that I am lawfully entitled to vote in such precinct at the .... election to be held therein on ....; and that I wish to vote by absentee ballot.

I hereby make application for an official ballot or ballots to be voted by me at such election, and I agree that I shall return such ballot or ballots to the official issuing the same prior to the closing of the polls on the date of the election or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day.

Under penalties as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this application are true and correct.

....

*fill in either (1), (2) or (3).

Post office address to which ballot is mailed:

.............................................................

However, if application is made for a primary election ballot, such application shall designate the name of the political party with which the applicant is affiliated.

or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day or, if returned by mail, postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day, for counting no later than during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day

(Source: P.A. 95-440, eff. 8-27-07; 96-312, eff. 1-1-10; 96-553, eff. 8-17-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(10 ILCS 5/20-2.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 20-2.3)

Sec. 20-2.3. Members of the Armed Forces and their spouses and dependents. Any member of the United States Armed Forces while on active duty, and his or her spouse and dependents, otherwise qualified to vote, who expects in the course of his or her duties to be absent from the county in which he or she resides on the day of holding any election, in addition to any other method of making application for an absentee ballot under this Article, may make application for an absentee ballot to the election authority having jurisdiction over his or her precinct of residence by a facsimile machine or electronic transmission not less than 10 days before the election.

Ballots under this Section shall be mailed by the election authority in the manner prescribed by Section 20-5 of this Article and not otherwise. Ballots voted under this Section must be returned postmarked no later than midnight preceding election day and received for counting at the central ballot counting location of the election authority during the period for counting provisional ballots, the last day of which is the 14th day following election day.

(Source: P.A. 96-312, eff. 1-1-10; 96-512, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 40. The State Budget Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 50-5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 20/50-5)

Sec. 50-5. Governor to submit State budget. The Governor shall, as soon as possible and not later than the third Wednesday in March in 2009 (March 18, 2009) and the third Wednesday in February of each year beginning in 2010, except as otherwise provided in this Section, submit a State budget, embracing therein the amounts recommended by the Governor to be appropriated to the respective departments, offices, and institutions, and for all other public purposes, the estimated revenues from taxation, the estimated revenues from sources other than taxation, and an estimate of the amount required to be raised by taxation. The amounts recommended by the Governor for appropriation to the respective departments, offices and institutions shall be formulated according to the various functions and activities for which the respective department, office or institution of the State government (including the elective officers in the executive department and including the University of Illinois and the judicial department) is responsible. The amounts relating to particular functions and activities shall be further formulated in accordance with the object classification specified in Section 13 of the State Finance Act.

The Governor shall not propose expenditures and the General Assembly shall not enact appropriations that exceed the resources estimated to be available, as provided in this Section.

For the purposes of Article VIII, Section 2 of the 1970 Illinois Constitution, the State budget for the following funds shall be prepared on the basis of revenue and expenditure measurement concepts that are in concert with generally accepted accounting principles for governments:

(1) General Revenue Fund.

(2) Common School Fund.

(3) Educational Assistance Fund.

(4) Road Fund.

(5) Motor Fuel Tax Fund.

(6) Agricultural Premium Fund.

These funds shall be known as the "budgeted funds". The revenue estimates used in the State budget for the budgeted funds shall include the estimated beginning fund balance, plus revenues estimated to be received during the budgeted year, plus the estimated receipts due the State as of June 30 of the budgeted year that are expected to be collected during the lapse period following the budgeted year, minus the receipts collected during the first 2 months of the budgeted year that became due to the State in the year before the budgeted year. Revenues shall also include estimated federal reimbursements associated with the recognition of Section 25 of the State Finance Act liabilities. For any budgeted fund for which current year revenues are anticipated to exceed expenditures, the surplus shall be considered to be a resource available for expenditure in the budgeted fiscal year.

Expenditure estimates for the budgeted funds included in the State budget shall include the costs to be incurred by the State for the budgeted year, to be paid in the next fiscal year, excluding costs paid in the budgeted year which were carried over from the prior year, where the payment is authorized by Section 25 of the State Finance Act. For any budgeted fund for which expenditures are expected to exceed revenues in the current fiscal year, the deficit shall be considered as a use of funds in the budgeted fiscal year.

Revenues and expenditures shall also include transfers between funds that are based on revenues received or costs incurred during the budget year.

Appropriations for expenditures shall also include all anticipated statutory continuing appropriation obligations that are expected to be incurred during the budgeted fiscal year.

By March 15 of each year, the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall prepare revenue and fund transfer estimates in accordance with the requirements of this Section and report those estimates to the General Assembly and the Governor.

For all funds other than the budgeted funds, the proposed expenditures shall not exceed funds estimated to be available for the fiscal year as shown in the budget. Appropriation for a fiscal year shall not exceed funds estimated by the General Assembly to be available during that year.

(Source: P.A. 96-1, eff. 2-17-09; 96-320, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 45. The Attorney General Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(15 ILCS 205/7)

Sec. 7. Public Access Counselor.

(a) The General Assembly finds that members of the public have encountered obstacles in obtaining copies of public records from units of government, and that many of those obstacles result from difficulties that both members of the public and public bodies have had in interpreting and applying the Freedom of Information Act. The General Assembly further finds that members of the public have encountered difficulties in resolving alleged violations of the Open Meetings Act. The public's significant interest in access to public records and in open meetings would be better served if there were a central office available to provide advice and education with respect to the interpretation and implementation of the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(b) Therefore, there is created in the Office of the Attorney General the Office of Public Access Counselor. The Attorney General shall appoint a Public Access Counselor, who shall be an attorney licensed to practice in Illinois. The Public Access Counselor's Office shall be comprised of the Public Access Counselor and such assistant attorneys general and other staff as are deemed necessary by the Attorney General.

(c) Through the Public Access Counselor, the Attorney General shall have the power:

(1) to establish and administer a program to provide free training for public officials and to educate the public on the rights of the public and the responsibilities of public bodies under the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act;

(2) to prepare and distribute interpretive or educational materials and programs;

(3) to resolve disputes involving a potential violation of the Open Meetings Act or the Freedom of Information Act in response to a request for review initiated by an aggrieved party, as provided in those Acts, by mediating or otherwise informally resolving the dispute or by issuing a binding opinion; except that the Attorney General may not issue an opinion concerning a specific matter with respect to which a lawsuit has been filed under Section 3 of the Open Meetings Act or Section 11 of the Freedom of Information Act;

(4) to issue advisory opinions with respect to the Open Meetings Act and the Freedom of Information Act either in response to a request for review or otherwise;

(5) to respond to informal inquiries made by the public and public bodies;

(6) to conduct research on compliance issues;

(7) to make recommendations to the General Assembly concerning ways to improve access to public records and public access to the processes of government;

(8) to develop and make available on the Attorney General's website or by other means an electronic training curriculum for Freedom of Information officers;

(9) to develop and make available on the Attorney General's website or by other means an electronic Open Meetings Act training curriculum for employees, officers, and members designated by public bodies;

(10) to prepare and distribute to public bodies model policies for compliance with the Freedom of Information Act; and

(11) to promulgate rules to implement these powers.

(d) To accomplish the objectives and to carry out the duties prescribed by this Section, the Public Access Counselor, in addition to other powers conferred upon him or her by this Section, may request that subpoenas be issued by the Attorney General in accordance with the provisions of Section 9.5 of the Freedom of Information Act and Section 3.5 of the Open Meetings Act. Service by the Attorney General of any subpoena upon any person shall be made:

(1) (i) personally by delivery of a duly executed copy thereof to the person to be served, or in the case of a public body, in the manner provided in Section 2-211 of the Code of Civil Procedure Civil Practice Law; or

(2) (ii) by mailing by certified mail a duly executed copy thereof to the person to be served at his or her last known abode or, in the case of a public body, to its principal place of business.

(e) If any person or public body fails or refuses to obey any subpoena issued pursuant to this Section, the Attorney General may file a complaint in the circuit court to:

(1) (i) obtain compliance with the subpoena;

(2) (ii) obtain injunctive relief to prevent a violation of the Open Meetings Act or Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) (iii) obtain such other relief as may be required.

(f) The Attorney General has the authority to file an action in the circuit court of Cook or Sangamon County for injunctive or other relief to compel compliance with a binding opinion issued pursuant to Section 3.5 of the Open Meetings Act or Section 9.5 of the Freedom of Information Act, to prevent a violation of the Open Meetings Act or the Freedom of Information Act, and for such other relief as may be required.

(g) The Attorney General shall post his or her binding opinions issued pursuant to Section 3.5 of the Open Meetings Act or Section 9.5 of the Freedom of Information Act and any rules on the official website of the Office of the Attorney General, with links to those opinions from the official home page, and shall make them available for immediate inspection in his or her office.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 50. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 4C as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4C)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 4C. Homeless person status. For the purposes of this Act, an individual's status as a "homeless person" may be verified by a human services, legal services, or other worker that has knowledge of the individual's housing status, including, but not limited to:

(1) a homeless service agency receiving federal, State, county, or municipal funding to provide those services or otherwise sanctioned by local continuum of care;

(2) an attorney licensed to practice in the State of Illinois;

(3) a public school homeless liaison or school social worker; or

(4) a human services provider funded by the State of Illinois to serve homeless or runaway youth, individuals with mental illness, or individuals with addictions.

Individuals who are homeless must not be charged for this verification. The Secretary of State by rule shall establish standards and procedures consistent with this Section for waiver of the Illinois Identification Care fee based on homelessness, which shall include the name and address of the individual and the agency providing verification of homelessness. Any falsification of this official record is subject to penalty.

(Source: P.A. 96-183, eff. 7-1-10.)

(15 ILCS 335/4D)

Sec. 4D 4C. Issuance of confidential identification cards.

(a) Requirements for use of confidential identification cards. Confidential identification cards may be issued to local, state, and federal government agencies for bona fide law enforcement purposes. The identification cards may be issued in fictitious names and addresses, and may be used only in confidential, investigative, or undercover law enforcement operations.

(b) Application procedures for confidential identification cards:

(1) Applications by local, state, and federal government agencies for confidential identification cards must be made to the Secretary of State Police Department on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Secretary of State Police Department.

(2) The application form must include information, as specific as possible without compromising investigations or techniques, setting forth the need for the identification cards and the uses to which the identification cards will be limited.

(3) The application form must be signed and verified by the local, state, or federal government agency head or designee.

(4) Information maintained by the Secretary of State Police Department for confidential identification cards must show the fictitious names and addresses on all records subject to public disclosure. All other information concerning these confidential identification cards are exempt from disclosure unless the disclosure is ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(c) Cancellation procedures for confidential identification cards:

(1) The Secretary of State Police Department may cancel or refuse to renew confidential identification cards when they have reasonable cause to believe the cards are being used for purposes other than those set forth in the application form or authorized by this Section.

(2) A government agency must request cancellation of confidential identification cards that are no longer required for the purposes for which they were issued.

(3) Upon the request of the Secretary of State Police Department, all cancelled confidential identification cards must be promptly returned to the Secretary of State Police Department by the government agency to which they were issued.

(Source: P.A. 96-549, eff. 8-17-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 55. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-565 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-565) (was 20 ILCS 5/6.06)

Sec. 5-565. In the Department of Public Health.

(a) The General Assembly declares it to be the public policy of this State that all citizens of Illinois are entitled to lead healthy lives. Governmental public health has a specific responsibility to ensure that a system is in place to allow the public health mission to be achieved. To develop a system requires certain core functions to be performed by government. The State Board of Health is to assume the leadership role in advising the Director in meeting the following functions:

(1) Needs assessment.

(2) Statewide health objectives.

(3) Policy development.

(4) Assurance of access to necessary services.

There shall be a State Board of Health composed of 19 persons, all of whom shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate for those appointed by the Governor on and after June 30, 1998, and one of whom shall be a senior citizen age 60 or over. Five members shall be physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, one representing a medical school faculty, one who is board certified in preventive medicine, and one who is engaged in private practice. One member shall be a chiropractic physician. One member shall be a dentist; one an environmental health practitioner; one a local public health administrator; one a local board of health member; one a registered nurse; one a physical therapist; one a veterinarian; one a public health academician; one a health care industry representative; one a representative of the business community; one a representative of the non-profit public interest community; and 2 shall be citizens at large.

The terms of Board of Health members shall be 3 years, except that members shall continue to serve on the Board of Health until a replacement is appointed. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in the appointment of the Board of Health members appointed to vacancies or positions with terms expiring on or before December 31, 2004, the Governor shall appoint up to 6 members to serve for terms of 3 years; up to 6 members to serve for terms of 2 years; and up to 5 members to serve for a term of one year, so that the term of no more than 6 members expire in the same year. All members shall be legal residents of the State of Illinois. The duties of the Board shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) To advise the Department of ways to encourage public understanding and support of the Department's programs.

(2) To evaluate all boards, councils, committees, authorities, and bodies advisory to, or an adjunct of, the Department of Public Health or its Director for the purpose of recommending to the Director one or more of the following:

(i) The elimination of bodies whose activities are not consistent with goals and objectives of the Department.

(ii) The consolidation of bodies whose activities encompass compatible programmatic subjects.

(iii) The restructuring of the relationship between the various bodies and their integration within the organizational structure of the Department.

(iv) The establishment of new bodies deemed essential to the functioning of the Department.

(3) To serve as an advisory group to the Director for public health emergencies and control of health hazards.

(4) To advise the Director regarding public health policy, and to make health policy recommendations regarding priorities to the Governor through the Director.

(5) To present public health issues to the Director and to make recommendations for the resolution of those issues.

(6) To recommend studies to delineate public health problems.

(7) To make recommendations to the Governor through the Director regarding the coordination of State public health activities with other State and local public health agencies and organizations.

(8) To report on or before February 1 of each year on the health of the residents of Illinois to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the public.

(9) To review the final draft of all proposed administrative rules, other than emergency or preemptory rules and those rules that another advisory body must approve or review within a statutorily defined time period, of the Department after September 19, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-633). The Board shall review the proposed rules within 90 days of submission by the Department. The Department shall take into consideration any comments and recommendations of the Board regarding the proposed rules prior to submission to the Secretary of State for initial publication. If the Department disagrees with the recommendations of the Board, it shall submit a written response outlining the reasons for not accepting the recommendations.

In the case of proposed administrative rules or amendments to administrative rules regarding immunization of children against preventable communicable diseases designated by the Director under the Communicable Disease Prevention Act, after the Immunization Advisory Committee has made its recommendations, the Board shall conduct 3 public hearings, geographically distributed throughout the State. At the conclusion of the hearings, the State Board of Health shall issue a report, including its recommendations, to the Director. The Director shall take into consideration any comments or recommendations made by the Board based on these hearings.

(10) To deliver to the Governor for presentation to the General Assembly a State Health Improvement Plan. The first and second such plans shall be delivered to the Governor on January 1, 2006 and on January 1, 2009 respectively, and then every 4 years thereafter.

The Plan shall recommend priorities and strategies to improve the public health system and the health status of Illinois residents, taking into consideration national health objectives and system standards as frameworks for assessment.

The Plan shall also take into consideration priorities and strategies developed at the community level through the Illinois Project for Local Assessment of Needs (IPLAN) and any regional health improvement plans that may be developed. The Plan shall focus on prevention as a key strategy for long-term health improvement in Illinois.

The Plan shall examine and make recommendations on the contributions and strategies of the public and private sectors for improving health status and the public health system in the State. In addition to recommendations on health status improvement priorities and strategies for the population of the State as a whole, the Plan shall make recommendations regarding priorities and strategies for reducing and eliminating health disparities in Illinois; including racial, ethnic, gender, age, socio-economic and geographic disparities.

The Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health shall appoint a Planning Team that includes a range of public, private, and voluntary sector stakeholders and participants in the public health system. This Team shall include: the directors of State agencies with public health responsibilities (or their designees), including but not limited to the Illinois Departments of Public Health and Department of Human Services, representatives of local health departments, representatives of local community health partnerships, and individuals with expertise who represent an array of organizations and constituencies engaged in public health improvement and prevention.

The State Board of Health shall hold at least 3 public hearings addressing drafts of the Plan in representative geographic areas of the State. Members of the Planning Team shall receive no compensation for their services, but may be reimbursed for their necessary expenses.

(11) Upon the request of the Governor, to recommend to the Governor candidates for Director of Public Health when vacancies occur in the position.

(12) To adopt bylaws for the conduct of its own business, including the authority to establish ad hoc committees to address specific public health programs requiring resolution.

(13) To review and comment upon the Comprehensive Health Plan submitted by the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning as provided under Section 2310-217 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Upon appointment, the Board shall elect a chairperson from among its members.

Members of the Board shall receive compensation for their services at the rate of $150 per day, not to exceed $10,000 per year, as designated by the Director for each day required for transacting the business of the Board and shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. The Board shall meet from time to time at the call of the Department, at the call of the chairperson, or upon the request of 3 of its members, but shall not meet less than 4 times per year.

(b) (Blank).

(c) An Advisory Board on Necropsy Service to Coroners, which shall counsel and advise with the Director on the administration of the Autopsy Act. The Advisory Board shall consist of 11 members, including a senior citizen age 60 or over, appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be designated as chairman by a majority of the members of the Board. In the appointment of the first Board the Governor shall appoint 3 members to serve for terms of 1 year, 3 for terms of 2 years, and 3 for terms of 3 years. The members first appointed under Public Act 83-1538 shall serve for a term of 3 years. All members appointed thereafter shall be appointed for terms of 3 years, except that when an appointment is made to fill a vacancy, the appointment shall be for the remaining term of the position vacant. The members of the Board shall be citizens of the State of Illinois. In the appointment of members of the Advisory Board the Governor shall appoint 3 members who shall be persons licensed to practice medicine and surgery in the State of Illinois, at least 2 of whom shall have received post-graduate training in the field of pathology; 3 members who are duly elected coroners in this State; and 5 members who shall have interest and abilities in the field of forensic medicine but who shall be neither persons licensed to practice any branch of medicine in this State nor coroners. In the appointment of medical and coroner members of the Board, the Governor shall invite nominations from recognized medical and coroners organizations in this State respectively. Board members, while serving on business of the Board, shall receive actual necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-455, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 60. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 34.11 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in alcohol and drug abuse screening techniques approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred to an alcohol and drug abuse treatment program for professional evaluation.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a ward and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the ward, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such ward. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt physically or mentally handicapped, older and other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were legal wards of the Department or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were wards of the Department for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. A minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10 day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10 day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a ward who was placed under the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Children who are wards of the Department and are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those children are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall insure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts wards of the Department for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner.

(p) There is hereby created the Department of Children and Family Services Emergency Assistance Fund from which the Department may provide special financial assistance to families which are in economic crisis when such assistance is not available through other public or private sources and the assistance is deemed necessary to prevent dissolution of the family unit or to reunite families which have been separated due to child abuse and neglect. The Department shall establish administrative rules specifying the criteria for determining eligibility for and the amount and nature of assistance to be provided. The Department may also enter into written agreements with private and public social service agencies to provide emergency financial services to families referred by the Department. Special financial assistance payments shall be available to a family no more than once during each fiscal year and the total payments to a family may not exceed $500 during a fiscal year.

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place or handicapped child and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Department of State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Department of State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a ward turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(Source: P.A. 95-10, eff. 6-30-07; 95-601, eff. 9-11-07; 95-642, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-134, eff. 8-7-09; 96-581, eff. 1-1-10; 96-600, eff. 8-21-09; 96-619, eff. 1-1-10; 96-760, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(20 ILCS 505/34.11)

Sec. 34.11. Lou Jones Grandparent Child Care Program.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following:

(1) An increasing number of children under the age of 18, including many children who would otherwise be at risk of abuse or neglect, are in the care of a grandparent or other nonparent relative.

(2) The principal causes of this increase include parental substance abuse, chronic illness, child abuse, mental illness, military deployment, poverty, homelessness, deportation, and death, as well as concerted efforts by families and by the child welfare service system to keep children with relatives whenever possible.

(3) Grandparents and older relatives providing primary care for at-risk children may experience unique resultant problems, such as financial stress due to limited incomes, emotional difficulties dealing with the loss of the child's parents or the child's unique behaviors, and decreased physical stamina coupled with a much higher incidence of chronic illness.

(4) Many children being raised by nonparent relatives experience one or a combination of emotional, behavioral, psychological, academic, or medical problems, especially those born to a substance-abusing mother or at risk of child abuse, neglect, or abandonment.

(5) Grandparents and other relatives providing primary care for children lack appropriate information about the issues of kinship care, the special needs (both physical and psychological) of children born to a substance-abusing mother or at risk of child abuse, neglect, or abandonment, and the support resources currently available to them.

(6) An increasing number of grandparents and other relatives age 60 or older are adopting or becoming the subsidized guardians of children placed in their care by the Department. Some of these children will experience the death of their adoptive parent or guardian before reaching the age of 18. For most of these children, no legal plan has been made for the child's future care and custody in the event of the caregiver's death or incapacity.

(7) Grandparents and other relatives providing primary care for children lack appropriate information about future care and custody planning for children in their care. They also lack access to resources that may assist them in developing future legal care and custody plans for children in their legal custody.

(b) The Department may establish an informational and educational program for grandparents and other relatives who provide primary care for children who are at risk of child abuse, neglect, or abandonment or who were born to substance-abusing mothers. As a part of the program, the Department may develop, publish, and distribute an informational brochure for grandparents and other relatives who provide primary care for children who are at risk of child abuse, neglect, or abandonment or who were born to substance-abusing mothers. The information provided under the program authorized by this Section may include, but is not limited to the following:

(1) The most prevalent causes of kinship care, especially the risk of (i) substance exposure, (ii) child abuse, neglect, or abandonment, (iii) chronic illness, (iv) mental illness, (v) military deployment, or (vi) death.

(2) The problems experienced by children being raised by nonparent caregivers.

(3) The problems experienced by grandparents and other nonparent relatives providing primary care for children who have special needs.

(4) The legal system as it relates to children and their nonparent primary caregivers.

(5) The benefits available to children and their nonparent primary caregivers.

(6) A list of support groups and resources located throughout the State.

The brochure may be distributed through hospitals, public health nurses, child protective services, medical professional offices, elementary and secondary schools, senior citizen centers, public libraries, community action agencies selected by the Department, and the Department of Human Services.

The Kinship Navigator established under the Kinship Navigator Act shall coordinate the grandparent child care program under this Section with the programs and services established and administered by the Department of Human Services under the Kinship Navigator Act.

(c) In addition to other provisions of this Section, the Department shall establish a program of information, social work services, and legal services for any person age 60 or over and any other person who may be in need of a future legal care and custody plan who adopt, have adopted, take guardianship of, or have taken guardianship of children previously in the Department's custody. This program shall also assist families of deceased adoptive parents and guardians. As part of the program, the Department shall:

(1) Develop a protocol for identification of persons age 60 or over and others who may be in need of future care and custody plans, including ill caregivers, who are adoptive parents, prospective adoptive parents, guardians, or prospective guardians of children who are or have been in Department custody.

(2) Provide outreach to caregivers before and after adoption and guardianship, and to the families of deceased caregivers, regarding Illinois legal options for future care and custody of children.

(3) Provide training for Department and private agency staff on methods of assisting caregivers before and after adoption and guardianship, and the families of older and ill caregivers, who wish to make future care and custody plans for children who have been wards of the Department and who are or will be adopted by or are or will become wards of those caregivers.

(4) Ensure that all caregivers age 60 or over who will adopt or will become guardians of children previously in Department custody have specifically designated future caregivers for children in their care. The Department shall document this designation, and the Department shall also document acceptance of this responsibility by any future caregiver. Documentation of future care designation shall be included in each child's case file and adoption or guardianship subsidy files as applicable to the child.

(5) Ensure that any designated future caregiver and the family of a deceased caregiver have information on the financial needs of the child and future resources that may be available to support the child, including any adoption assistance and subsidized guardianship for which the child is or may be eligible.

(6) With respect to programs of social work and legal services:

(i) Provide contracted social work services to older and ill caregivers, and the families of deceased caregivers, including those who will or have adopted or will take or have taken guardianship of children previously in Department custody. Social work services to caregivers will have the goal of securing a future care and custody plan for children in their care. Such services will include providing information to the caregivers and families on standby guardianship, guardianship, standby adoption, and adoption. The Department will assist the caregiver in developing a plan for the child if the caregiver becomes incapacitated or terminally ill, or dies while the child is a minor. The Department shall develop a form to document the information given to caregivers and to document plans for future custody, in addition to the documentation described in subsection (b) (4). This form shall be included in each child's case file and adoption or guardianship subsidy files as applicable to the child.

(ii) Through a program of contracted legal services, assist older and ill caregivers, and the families of deceased caregivers, with the goal of securing court-ordered future care and custody plans for children in their care. Court-ordered future care and custody plans may include: standby guardianship, successor guardianship, standby adoption, and successor adoption. The program will also study ways in which to provide timely and cost-effective legal services to older and ill caregivers, and to families of deceased caregivers in order to ensure permanency for children in their care.

(7) Ensure that future caregivers designated by adoptive parents or guardians, and the families of deceased caregivers, understand their rights and potential responsibilities and shall be able to provide adequate support and education for children who may become their legal responsibility.

(8) Ensure that future caregivers designated by adoptive parents and guardians, and the families of deceased caregivers, understand the problems of children who have experienced multiple caregivers and who may have experienced abuse, neglect, or abandonment or may have been born to substance-abusing mothers.

(9) Ensure that future caregivers designated by adoptive parents and guardians, and the families of deceased caregivers, understand the problems experienced by older and ill caregivers of children, including children with special needs, such as financial stress due to limited income and increased financial responsibility, emotional difficulties associated with the loss of a child's parent or the child's unique behaviors, the special needs of a child who may come into their custody or whose parent or guardian is already deceased, and decreased physical stamina and a higher rate of chronic illness and other health concerns.

(10) Provide additional services as needed to families in which a designated caregiver appointed by the court or a caregiver designated in a will or other legal document cannot or will not fulfill the responsibilities as adoptive parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the child.

(d) The Department shall consult with the Department on Aging and any other agency it deems appropriate as the Department develops the program required by subsection (c).

(e) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1040 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-1040, eff. 3-25-09; 96-276, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 65. The Child Death Review Team Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 515/45)

Sec. 45. Child Death Investigation Task Force; pilot program. The Child Death Review Teams Executive Council may, from funds appropriated by the Illinois General Assembly to the Department and provided to the Child Death Review Teams Executive Council for this purpose, or from funds that may otherwise be provided for this purpose from other public or private sources, establish a 3-year pilot program in the Southern Region of the State, as designated by the Department, under which a special Child Death Investigation Task Force will be created by the Child Death Review Teams Executive Council to develop and implement a plan for the investigation of sudden, unexpected, or unexplained deaths of children under 18 years of age occurring within that region. The plan shall include a protocol to be followed by child death review teams in the review of child deaths authorized under paragraph (a)(5) of Section 20 of this Act. The plan must include provisions for local or State law enforcement agencies, hospitals, or coroners to promptly notify the Task Force of a death or serious life-threatening injury to a child, and for the Child Death Investigation Task Force to review the death and submit a report containing findings and recommendations to the Child Death Review Teams Executive Council, the Director, the Department of Children and Family Services Inspector General, the appropriate State's Attorney, and the State Representative and State Senator in whose legislative districts the case arose. The plan may include coordination with any investigation conducted under the Children's Advocacy Center Act. By January 1, 2010, the Child Death Review Teams Executive Council shall submit a report to the Director, the General Assembly, and the Governor summarizing the results of the pilot program together with any recommendations for statewide implementation of a protocol for the investigation of investigating all sudden, unexpected, or unexplained child deaths.

(Source: P.A. 95-527, eff. 6-1-08; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 70. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 1-17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency. It is also the express intent of the General Assembly to authorize the Inspector General to investigate alleged or suspected cases of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of adults with disabilities living in domestic settings in the community under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmentally disabled" means having a developmental disability.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health care worker registry" or "registry" means the health care worker registry created by the Nursing Home Care Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order.

(n) Written responses and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Reconsideration requests. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General reconsider or clarify its finding based upon additional information.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30 day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health care worker registry.

(1) Reporting to the registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's health care worker registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the registry.

(6) Removal from registry. At any time after the report to the registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving health care worker registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or developmentally disabled. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or a parent of a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to a patient in contravention of that patient's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the patient's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to a patient be considered abuse under this Section if the patient has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 95-545, eff. 8-28-07; 96-407, eff. 8-13-09; 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency. It is also the express intent of the General Assembly to authorize the Inspector General to investigate alleged or suspected cases of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of adults with disabilities living in domestic settings in the community under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmentally disabled" means having a developmental disability.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health care worker registry" or "registry" means the health care worker registry created by the Nursing Home Care Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order.

(n) Written responses and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Reconsideration requests. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General reconsider or clarify its finding based upon additional information.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30 day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health care worker registry.

(1) Reporting to the registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's health care worker registry, a public registry, MR/DD Community Care Act the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse or egregious neglect of an individual. MR/DD Community Care Act

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the registry.

(6) Removal from registry. At any time after the report to the registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving health care worker registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or developmentally disabled. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or a parent of a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to a patient in contravention of that patient's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the patient's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to a patient be considered abuse under this Section if the patient has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 95-545, eff. 8-28-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-407, eff. 8-13-09; 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 75. The Department of Human Services (Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1710-1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1710/1710-1)

Sec. 1710-1. Article short title. This Article 1710 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois may be cited as the Department of Human Services (Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) Law.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 80. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities. The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report. The Department shall deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other appropriate governmental agency of this State. Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by the Department may be suspended or revoked if the Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule. The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving default on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State or in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) The Department may, when a fee is payable to the Department for a wall certificate of registration provided by the Department of Central Management Services, require that portion of the payment for printing and distribution costs be made directly or through the Department to the Department of Central Management Services for deposit into the Paper and Printing Revolving Fund. The remainder shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 1 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act.

(f) Beginning July 1, 1995, this Section does not apply to those professions, trades, and occupations licensed under the Real Estate License Act of 2000, nor does it apply to any permits, certificates, or other authorizations to do business provided for in the Land Sales Registration Act of 1989 or the Illinois Real Estate Time-Share Act.

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facia evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order by certified and regular mail to the licensee's last known address as registered with the Department. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department shall promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) Within 180 days after December 23, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-852) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Department shall promulgate rules which permit a person with a criminal record, who seeks a license or certificate in an occupation for which a criminal record is not expressly a per se bar, to apply to the Department for a non-binding, advisory opinion to be provided by the Board or body with the authority to issue the license or certificate as to whether his or her criminal record would bar the individual from the licensure or certification sought, should the individual meet all other licensure requirements including, but not limited to, the successful completion of the relevant examinations.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-459, eff. 8-14-09; 96-852, eff. 12-23-09; revised 1-4-10.)

Section 85. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2310-640 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-640)

Sec. 2310-640. Hospital Capital Investment Program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall establish and administer a program to award capital grants to Illinois hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act. Grants awarded under this program shall only be used to fund capital projects to improve or renovate the hospital's facility or to improve, replace or acquire the hospital's equipment or technology. Such projects may include, but are not limited to, projects to satisfy any building code, safety standard or life safety code; projects to maintain, improve, renovate, expand or construct buildings or structures; projects to maintain, establish or improve health information technology; or projects to maintain or improve patient safety, quality of care or access to care.

The Department shall establish rules necessary to implement the Hospital Capital Investment Program, including application standards, requirements for the distribution and obligation of grant funds, accounting for the use of the funds, reporting the status of funded projects, and standards for monitoring compliance with standards. In awarding grants under this Section, the Department shall consider criteria that include but are not limited to: the financial requirements of the project and the extent to which the grant makes it possible to implement the project; the proposed project's likely benefit in terms of patient safety or quality of care; and the proposed project's likely benefit in terms of maintaining or improving access to care.

The Department shall approve a hospital's eligibility for a hospital capital investment grant pursuant to the standards established by this Section. The Department shall determine eligible project costs, including but not limited to the use of funds for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, architectural planning, engineering, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, technology and durable equipment for hospital purposes. No portion of a hospital capital investment grant awarded by the Department may be used by a hospital to pay for any on-going operational costs, pay outstanding debt, or be allocated to an endowment or other invested fund.

Nothing in this Section shall exempt nor relieve any hospital receiving a grant under this Section from any requirement of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(b) Safety Net Hospital Grants. The Department shall make capital grants to hospitals eligible for safety net hospital grants under this subsection. The total amount of grants to any individual hospital shall be no less than $2,500,000 and no more than $7,000,000. The total amount of grants to hospitals under this subsection shall not exceed $100,000,000. Hospitals that satisfy one of the following criteria shall be eligible to apply for safety net hospital grants:

(1) Any general acute care hospital located in a county of over 3,000,000 inhabitants that has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for the rate year beginning on October 1, 2008 greater than 43%, that is not affiliated with a hospital system that owns or operates more than 3 hospitals, and that has more than 13,500 Medicaid inpatient days.

(2) Any general acute care hospital that is located in a county of more than 3,000,000 inhabitants and has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for the rate year beginning on October 1, 2008 greater than 55% and has authorized beds for the obstetric-gynecology category of service as reported in the 2008 Annual Hospital Bed Report, issued by the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(3) Any hospital that is defined in 89 Illinois Administrative Code Section 149.50(c)(3)(A) and that has less than 20,000 Medicaid inpatient days.

(4) Any general acute care hospital that is located in a county of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants and has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for the rate year beginning on October 1, 2008 greater than 64%.

(5) Any general acute care hospital that is located in a county of over 3,000,000 inhabitants and a city of less than 1,000,000 inhabitants, that has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for the rate year beginning on October 1, 2008 greater than 22%, that has more than 12,000 Medicaid inpatient days, and that has a case mix index greater than 0.71.

(c) Community Hospital Grants. The Department shall make a one-time capital grant to any public or not-for-profit hospitals located in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants that are not otherwise eligible for a grant under subsection (b) of this Section and that have a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for the rate year beginning on October 1, 2008 of at least 10%. The total amount of grants under this subsection shall not exceed $50,000,000. This grant shall be the sum of the following payments:

(1) For each acute care hospital, a base payment of:

(i) $170,000 if it is located in an urban area; or

(ii) $340,000 if it is located in a rural area.

(2) A payment equal to the product of $45 multiplied by total Medicaid inpatient days for each hospital.

(d) Annual report. The Department of Public Health shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly an annual report by January 1 of each year regarding its administration of the Hospital Capital Investment Program, including an overview of the program and information about the specific purpose and amount of each grant and the status of funded projects. The report shall include information as to whether each project is subject to and authorized under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, if applicable.

(e) Definitions. As used in this Section, the following terms shall be defined as follows:

"General acute care hospital" shall have the same meaning as general acute care hospital in Section 5A-12.2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Hospital" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 3 of the Hospital Licensing Act, but in no event shall it include a hospital owned or operated by a State agency, a State university, or a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more.

"Medicaid inpatient day" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 5A-12.2(n) of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Medicaid inpatient utilization rate" shall have the same meaning as provided in Title 89, Chapter I, subchapter d, Part 148, Section 148.120 of the Illinois Administrative Code.

"Rural" shall have the same meaning as provided in Title 89, Chapter I, subchapter d, Part 148, Section 148.25(g)(3) of the Illinois Administrative Code.

"Urban" shall have the same meaning as provided in Title 89, Chapter I, subchapter d, Part 148, Section 148.25(g)(4) of the Illinois Administrative Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-37, eff. 7-13-09.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-641)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2012)

Sec. 2310-641 2310-640. Neonatal Diabetes Mellitus Registry Pilot Program.

(a) In this Section, "neonatal diabetes mellitus research institution" means an Illinois academic medical research institution that (i) conducts research in the area of diabetes mellitus with onset before 12 months of age and (ii) is functioning in this capacity as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(b) The Department, subject to appropriation or other funds made available for this purpose, shall develop and implement a 3-year pilot program to create and maintain a monogenic neonatal diabetes mellitus registry. The Department shall create an electronic registry to track the glycosylated hemoglobin level of each person with monogenic neonatal diabetes who has a laboratory test to determine that level performed by a physician or healthcare provider or at a clinical laboratory in this State. The Department shall facilitate collaborations between participating physicians and other healthcare providers and the Kovler Diabetes Center at the University of Chicago in order to assist participating physicians and other healthcare providers with genetic testing and follow-up care for participating patients.

The goals of the registry are as follows:

(1) to help identify new and existing patients with neonatal diabetes;

(2) to provide a clearinghouse of information for individuals, their families, and doctors about these syndromes;

(3) to keep track of patients with these mutations who are being treated with sulfonylurea drugs and their treatment outcomes; and

(4) to help identify new genes responsible for diabetes.

(c) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches and other healthcare providers treating a patient in this State with diabetes mellitus with onset before 12 months of age shall report to the Department the following information from all such cases no more than 30 days after diagnosis: the name of the physician, the name of the patient, the birthdate of the patient, the patient's age at the onset of diabetes, the patient's birth weight, the patient's blood sugar level at the onset of diabetes, any family history of diabetes of any type, and any other pertinent medical history of the patient. Clinical laboratories performing glycosylated hemoglobin tests in this State as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly for patients with diabetes mellitus with onset before 12 months of age must report the results of each test that the laboratory performs to the Department within 30 days after performing such test.

(d) The Department shall create for dissemination to physicians, healthcare providers, and clinical laboratories performing glycosylated hemoglobin tests for patients with monogenic neonatal diabetes mellitus a consent form. The physician, healthcare provider, or laboratory shall obtain the written informed consent of the patient to the disclosure of the patient's information. At initial consultation, the physician, healthcare provider, or laboratory representative shall provide the patient with a copy of the consent form and orally review the form together with the patient in order to obtain the informed consent of the patient and the physician's, or healthcare provider's, or laboratory's agreement to participate in the pilot program. A copy of the informed consent document, signed and dated by the client and by the physician, healthcare provider, or laboratory representative must be kept in each client's chart. The consent form shall contain the following:

(1) an explanation of the pilot program's purpose and protocol;

(2) an explanation of the privacy provisions set forth in subsections (f) and (g) of this Section; and

(3) signature lines for the physician, healthcare provider, or laboratory representative and for the patient to indicate in writing their agreement to participate in the pilot program.

(e) The Department shall allow access of the registry to neonatal diabetes mellitus research institutions participating in the pilot program. The Department and the participating neonatal diabetes mellitus research institution shall do the following:

(1) compile results submitted under subsection (c) of this Section in order to track:

(A) the prevalence and incidence of monogenic neonatal diabetes mellitus among people tested in this State;

(B) the level of control the patients in each demographic group exert over the monogenic neonatal diabetes mellitus;

(C) the trends of new diagnoses of monogenic neonatal diabetes mellitus in this State; and

(D) the health care costs associated with diabetes mellitus; and

(2) promote discussion and public information programs regarding monogenic neonatal diabetes mellitus.

(f) Reports, records, and information obtained under this Section are confidential, privileged, not subject to disclosure, and not subject to subpoena and may not otherwise be released or made public except as provided by this Section. The reports, records, and information obtained under this Section are for the confidential use of the Department and the participating neonatal diabetes mellitus research institutions and the persons or public or private entities that the Department determine are necessary to carry out the intent of this Section. No duty to report under this Section exists if the patient's legal representative refuses written informed consent to report. Medical or epidemiological information may be released as follows:

(1) for statistical purposes in a manner that prevents identification of individuals, health care facilities, clinical laboratories, or health care practitioners;

(2) with the consent of each person identified in the information; or

(3) to promote diabetes mellitus research, including release of information to other diabetes registries and appropriate State and federal agencies, under rules adopted by the Department to ensure confidentiality as required by State and federal laws.

(g) An employee of this State or a participating neonatal diabetes mellitus research institution may not testify in a civil, criminal, special, or other proceeding as to the existence or contents of records, reports, or information concerning an individual whose medical records have been used in submitting data required under this Section unless the individual consents in advance.

(h) Not later than December 1, 2012, the Department shall submit a report to the General Assembly regarding the pilot program that includes the following:

(1) an evaluation of the effectiveness of the pilot program; and

(2) a recommendation to continue, expand, or eliminate the pilot program.

(i) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the pilot program, including rules to govern the format and method of collecting glycosylated hemoglobin data, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(j) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-395, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 90. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by renumbering the heading of Article IV as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/Art. 4 heading)

ARTICLE 4 IV . RAPID REINTEGRATION PILOT PROGRAM

(Source: P.A. 96-810, eff. 10-30-09; revised 11-24-09.)

Section 95. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-5)

Sec. 5. Arrest reports. (a) All policing bodies of this State shall furnish to the Department, daily, in the form and detail the Department requires, fingerprints and descriptions of all persons who are arrested on charges of violating any penal statute of this State for offenses that are classified as felonies and Class A or B misdemeanors and of all minors of the age of 10 and over who have been arrested for an offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult, and may forward such fingerprints and descriptions for minors arrested for Class A or B misdemeanors. Moving or nonmoving traffic violations under the Illinois Vehicle Code shall not be reported except for violations of Chapter 4, Section 11-204.1, or Section 11-501 of that Code. In addition, conservation offenses, as defined in the Supreme Court Rule 501(c), that are classified as Class B misdemeanors shall not be reported. Those law enforcement records maintained by the Department for minors arrested for an offense prior to their 17th birthday, or minors arrested for a non-felony offense, if committed by an adult, prior to their 18th birthday, shall not be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation unless those records relate to an arrest in which a minor was charged as an adult under any of the transfer provisions of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-955, eff. 1-1-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-707, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 100. The Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2705-590 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-590)

Sec. 2705-590. Roadbuilding criteria; life-cycle cost analysis.

(a) As used in this Section, "life-cycle cost" means the total of the cost of the initial project plus all anticipated future costs over the life of the pavement. Actual, relevant data, and not assumptions or estimates, shall be used to the extent such data has been collected.

(b) The Department shall develop and implement a life-cycle cost analysis for each State road project under its jurisdiction for which the total pavement costs exceed $500,000 funded in whole, or in part, with State or State-appropriated funds. The Department shall design and award these paving projects utilizing material having the lowest life-cycle cost. All pavement design life shall ensure that State and State-appropriated funds are utilized as efficiently as possible. When alternative material options are substantially equivalent on a life-cycle cost basis, the Department may make a decision based on other criteria. At the discretion of the Department, interstate highways with high traffic volumes or experimental projects may be exempt from this requirement.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a life-cycle cost analysis shall compare equivalent designs based upon this State's actual historic project schedules and costs as recorded by the pavement management system, and may include estimates of user costs throughout the entire pavement life.

(d) For pavement projects for which this State has no actual historic project schedules and costs as recorded by the pavement management system, the Department may use actual historical and comparable data for equivalent designs from states with similar climates, soil structures, or vehicle traffic.

(Source: P.A. 96-715, eff. 8-25-09.)

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-593)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2705-593 2705-590. Office of Business and Workforce Diversity.

(a) The Office of Business and Workforce Diversity is established within the Department.

(b) The Office shall administer and be responsible for the Department's efforts to achieve greater diversity in its construction projects and in promoting equal opportunities within the Department. The responsibilities of the Office shall be administered between 2 distinct bureaus, designed to establish policy, procedures, and monitoring efforts pursuant to the governing regulations supporting minorities and those supporting women in contracting and workforce activities.

(c) Applicant firms must be found eligible to be certified as a Disadvantaged Business Enterprise (DBE) program under the federal regulations contained in 49 CFR part 26 and part 23. Only those businesses that are involved in highway construction-related services (non-vertical), consultant, and supplier/equipment rental/trucking services may be considered for participation in the Department's DBE program. Once certified, the firm's name shall be listed in the Illinois Unified Certification Program's (IL UCP) DBE Directory (Directory). The IL UCP's 5 participating agencies shall maintain the Directory to provide a reference source to assist bidders and proposers in meeting DBE contract goals. The Directory shall list the firms in alphabetical order and provides the industry categories/list and the districts in which the firms have indicated they are available.

(Source: P.A. 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); revised 12-2-09.)

Section 105. The Capital Development Board Act is amended by changing Section 10.04 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3105/10.04) (from Ch. 127, par. 780.04)

Sec. 10.04. Construction and repair of buildings; green building.

(a) To construct and repair, or contract for and supervise the construction and repair of, buildings under the control of or for the use of any State agency, as authorized by the General Assembly. To the maximum extent feasible, any construction or repair work shall utilize the best available technologies for minimizing building energy costs as determined through consultation with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(b) (Repealed by Public Act 94-573). On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the Board shall initiate a series of training workshops across the State to increase awareness and understanding of green building techniques and green building rating systems. The workshops shall be designed for relevant State agency staff, construction industry personnel, and other interested parties.

The Board shall identify no less than 3 construction projects to serve as case studies for achieving certification using nationally recognized and accepted green building guidelines, standards, or systems approved by the State. Consideration shall be given for a variety of representative building types in different geographic regions of the State to provide additional information and data related to the green building design and construction process. The Board shall report its findings to the General Assembly following the completion of the case study projects and in no case later than December 31, 2008.

The Board shall establish a Green Building Advisory Committee to assist the Board in determining guidelines for which State construction and major renovation projects should be developed to green building standards. The guidelines should take into account the size and type of buildings, financing considerations, and other appropriate criteria. The guidelines must take effect within 3 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and are subject to Board approval or adoption. In addition to using a green building rating system in the building design process, the Committee shall consider the feasibility of requiring certain State construction projects to be certified using a green building rating system.

This subsection (b) of this Section is repealed on January 1, 2009.

(Source: P.A. 94-573, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 110. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1055)

Sec. 5. Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(a) There is created within the executive branch of the State Government an Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, herein called the "Director" who shall be the head thereof. The Director shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall serve for a term of 2 years beginning on the third Monday in January of the odd-numbered year, and until a successor is appointed and has qualified; except that the term of the first Director appointed under this Act shall expire on the third Monday in January, 1989. The Director shall not hold any other remunerative public office. The Director shall receive an annual salary as set by the Compensation Review Board.

(b) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall obtain, under the provisions of the Personnel Code, technical, clerical, stenographic and other administrative personnel, and may make expenditures within the appropriation therefor as may be necessary to carry out the purpose of this Act. The agency created by this Act is intended to be a successor to the agency created under the Illinois Emergency Services and Disaster Agency Act of 1975 and the personnel, equipment, records, and appropriations of that agency are transferred to the successor agency as of the effective date of this Act.

(c) The Director, subject to the direction and control of the Governor, shall be the executive head of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the State Emergency Response Commission and shall be responsible under the direction of the Governor, for carrying out the program for emergency management of this State. The Director shall also maintain liaison and cooperate with the emergency management organizations of this State and other states and of the federal government.

(d) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall take an integral part in the development and revision of political subdivision emergency operations plans prepared under paragraph (f) of Section 10. To this end it shall employ or otherwise secure the services of professional and technical personnel capable of providing expert assistance to the emergency services and disaster agencies. These personnel shall consult with emergency services and disaster agencies on a regular basis and shall make field examinations of the areas, circumstances, and conditions that particular political subdivision emergency operations plans are intended to apply.

(e) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency and political subdivisions shall be encouraged to form an emergency management advisory committee composed of private and public personnel representing the emergency management phases of mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. The Local Emergency Planning Committee, as created under the Illinois Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act, shall serve as an advisory committee to the emergency services and disaster agency or agencies serving within the boundaries of that Local Emergency Planning Committee planning district for:

(1) the development of emergency operations plan provisions for hazardous chemical emergencies; and

(2) the assessment of emergency response capabilities related to hazardous chemical emergencies.

(f) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall:

(1) Coordinate the overall emergency management program of the State.

(2) Cooperate with local governments, the federal government and any public or private agency or entity in achieving any purpose of this Act and in implementing emergency management programs for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(2.5) Develop a comprehensive emergency preparedness and response plan for any nuclear accident in accordance with Section 65 of the Department of Nuclear Safety Law of 2004 (20 ILCS 3310) and in development of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness program in accordance with Section 8 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(2.6) Coordinate with the Department of Public Health with respect to planning for and responding to public health emergencies.

(3) Prepare, for issuance by the Governor, executive orders, proclamations, and regulations as necessary or appropriate in coping with disasters.

(4) Promulgate rules and requirements for political subdivision emergency operations plans that are not inconsistent with and are at least as stringent as applicable federal laws and regulations.

(5) Review and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, emergency operations plans for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(5.5) Promulgate rules and requirements for the political subdivision emergency management exercises, including, but not limited to, exercises of the emergency operations plans.

(5.10) Review, evaluate, and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, political subdivision emergency management exercises for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(6) Determine requirements of the State and its political subdivisions for food, clothing, and other necessities in event of a disaster.

(7) Establish a register of persons with types of emergency management training and skills in mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(8) Establish a register of government and private response resources available for use in a disaster.

(9) Expand the Earthquake Awareness Program and its efforts to distribute earthquake preparedness materials to schools, political subdivisions, community groups, civic organizations, and the media. Emphasis will be placed on those areas of the State most at risk from an earthquake. Maintain the list of all school districts, hospitals, airports, power plants, including nuclear power plants, lakes, dams, emergency response facilities of all types, and all other major public or private structures which are at the greatest risk of damage from earthquakes under circumstances where the damage would cause subsequent harm to the surrounding communities and residents.

(10) Disseminate all information, completely and without delay, on water levels for rivers and streams and any other data pertaining to potential flooding supplied by the Division of Water Resources within the Department of Natural Resources to all political subdivisions to the maximum extent possible.

(11) Develop agreements, if feasible, with medical supply and equipment firms to supply resources as are necessary to respond to an earthquake or any other disaster as defined in this Act. These resources will be made available upon notifying the vendor of the disaster. Payment for the resources will be in accordance with Section 7 of this Act. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall determine which resources will be required and requested.

(11.5) In coordination with the Department of State Police, develop and implement a community outreach program to promote awareness among the State's parents and children of child abduction prevention and response.

(12) Out of funds appropriated for these purposes, award capital and non-capital grants to Illinois hospitals or health care facilities located outside of a city with a population in excess of 1,000,000 to be used for purposes that include, but are not limited to, preparing to respond to mass casualties and disasters, maintaining and improving patient safety and quality of care, and protecting the confidentiality of patient information. No single grant for a capital expenditure shall exceed $300,000. No single grant for a non-capital expenditure shall exceed $100,000. In awarding such grants, preference shall be given to hospitals that serve a significant number of Medicaid recipients, but do not qualify for disproportionate share hospital adjustment payments under the Illinois Public Aid Code. To receive such a grant, a hospital or health care facility must provide funding of at least 50% of the cost of the project for which the grant is being requested. In awarding such grants the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall consider the recommendations of the Illinois Hospital Association.

(13) Do all other things necessary, incidental or appropriate for the implementation of this Act.

(g) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to various higher education institutions for safety and security improvements. For the purpose of this subsection (g), "higher education institution" means a public university, a public community college, or an independent, not-for-profit or for-profit higher education institution located in this State. Grants made under this subsection (g) shall be paid out of moneys appropriated for that purpose from the Build Illinois Bond Fund. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (g). These rules may specify: (i) the manner of applying for grants; (ii) project eligibility requirements; (iii) restrictions on the use of grant moneys; (iv) the manner in which the various higher education institutions must account for the use of grant moneys; and (v) any other provision that the Illinois Emergency Management Agency determines to be necessary or useful for the administration of this subsection (g).

(Source: P.A. 96-800, eff. 10-30-09; 96-820, eff. 11-18-09; revised 12-1-09.)

Section 115. The Illinois State Agency Historic Resources Preservation Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3420/4) (from Ch. 127, par. 133c24)

Sec. 4. State agency undertakings.

(a) As early in the planning process as may be practicable and prior to the approval of the final design or plan of any undertaking by a State agency, or prior to the funding of any undertaking by a State agency, or prior to an action of approval or entitlement of any private undertaking by a State agency, written notice of the project shall be given to the Director either by the State agency or the recipients of its funds, permits or licenses. The State agency shall consult with the Director to determine the documentation requirements necessary for identification and treatment of historic resources. For the purposes of identification and evaluation of historic resources, the Director may require archaeological and historic investigations. Responsibility for notice and documentation may be delegated by the State agency to a local or private designee.

(b) Within 30 days after receipt of complete and correct documentation of a proposed undertaking, the Director shall review and comment to the agency on the likelihood that the undertaking will have an adverse effect on a historic resource. In the case of a private undertaking, the Director shall, not later than 30 days following the receipt of an application with complete documentation of the undertaking, either approve that application allowing the undertaking to proceed or tender to the applicant a written statement setting forth the reasons for the requirement of an archaeological investigation. If there is no action within 30 days after the filing of the application with the complete documentation of the undertaking, the applicant may deem the application approved and may proceed with the undertaking. Thereafter, all requirements for archaeological investigations are waived under this Act.

(c) If the Director finds that an undertaking will adversely affect effect an historic resource or is inconsistent with agency policies, the State agency shall consult with the Director and shall discuss alternatives to the proposed undertaking which could eliminate, minimize, or mitigate its adverse effect. During the consultation process, the State agency shall explore all feasible and prudent plans which eliminate, minimize, or mitigate adverse effects on historic resources. Grantees, permittees, licensees, or other parties in interest and representatives of national, State, and local units of government and public and private organizations may participate in the consultation process. The process may involve on-site inspections and public informational meetings pursuant to regulations issued by the Historic Preservation Agency.

(d) The State agency and the Director may agree that there is a feasible and prudent alternative which eliminates, minimizes, or mitigates the adverse effect of the undertaking. Upon such agreement, or if the State agency and the Director agree that there are no feasible and prudent alternatives which eliminate, minimize, or mitigate the adverse effect, the Director shall prepare a Memorandum of Agreement describing the alternatives or stating the finding. The State agency may proceed with the undertaking once a Memorandum of Agreement has been signed by both the State agency and the Director.

(e) After the consultation process, the Director and the State agency may fail to agree on the existence of a feasible and prudent alternative which would eliminate, minimize, or mitigate the adverse effect of the undertaking on the historic resource. If no agreement is reached, the agency shall call a public meeting in the county where the undertaking is proposed within 60 days. If, within 14 days following conclusion of the public meeting, the State agency and the Director fail to agree on a feasible and prudent alternative, the proposed undertaking, with supporting documentation, shall be submitted to the Historic Preservation Mediation Committee. The document shall be sufficient to identify each alternative considered by the Agency and the Director during the consultation process and the reason for its rejection.

(f) The Mediation Committee shall consist of the Director and 5 persons appointed by the Director for terms of 3 years each, each of whom shall be no lower in rank than a division chief and each of whom shall represent a different State agency. An agency that is a party to mediation shall be notified of all hearings and deliberations and shall have the right to participate in deliberations as a non-voting member of the Committee. Within 30 days after submission of the proposed undertaking, the Committee shall meet with the Director and the submitting agency to review each alternative considered by the State agency and the Director and to evaluate the existence of a feasible and prudent alternative. In the event that the Director and the submitting agency continue to disagree, the Committee shall provide a statement of findings or comments setting forth an alternative to the proposed undertaking or stating the finding that there is no feasible or prudent alternative. The State agency shall consider the written comments of the Committee and shall respond in writing to the Committee before proceeding with the undertaking.

(g) When an undertaking is being reviewed pursuant to Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, the procedures of this law shall not apply and any review or comment by the Director on such undertaking shall be within the framework or procedures of the federal law. When an undertaking involves a structure listed on the Illinois Register of Historic Places, the rules and procedures of the Illinois Historic Preservation Act shall apply. This subsection shall not prevent the Illinois Historic Preservation Agency from entering into an agreement with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation pursuant to Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act to substitute this Act and its procedures for procedures set forth in Council regulations found in 36 C.F.R. Part 800.7. A State undertaking that is necessary to prevent an immediate and imminent threat to life or property shall be exempt from the requirements of this Act. Where possible, the Director shall be consulted in the determination of the exemption. In all cases, the agency shall provide the Director with a statement of the reasons for the exemption and shall have an opportunity to comment on the exemption. The statement and the comments of the Director shall be included in the annual report of the Historic Preservation Agency as a guide to future actions. The provisions of this Act do not apply to undertakings pursuant to the Illinois Oil and Gas Act, the Surface-Mined Land Conservation and Reclamation Act and the Surface Coal Mining Land Conservation and Reclamation Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-707; 87-739; 87-847; 87-895; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 120. The Illinois Housing Development Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3805/7) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 307)

Sec. 7. The Authority may exercise the powers set forth in the following Sections preceding Section 8 7.1 through 7.26.

(Source: P.A. 87-250; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 125. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 1-10 and 1-20 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-56 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions.

"Agency" means the Illinois Power Agency.

"Agency loan agreement" means any agreement pursuant to which the Illinois Finance Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of revenue bonds issued with respect to a project to the Agency upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on those revenue bonds, and providing for maintenance, insurance, and other matters in respect of the project.

"Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority.

"Clean coal facility" means an electric generating facility that uses primarily coal as a feedstock and that captures and sequesters carbon emissions at the following levels: at least 50% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation before 2016, at least 70% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation during 2016 or 2017, and at least 90% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit if, at the time construction commences, the facility is scheduled to commence operation after 2017. The power block of the clean coal facility shall not exceed allowable emission rates for sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, particulates and mercury for a natural gas-fired combined-cycle facility the same size as and in the same location as the clean coal facility at the time the clean coal facility obtains an approved air permit. All coal used by a clean coal facility shall have high volatile bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million btu content, unless the clean coal facility does not use gasification technology and was operating as a conventional coal-fired electric generating facility on June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1027).

"Clean coal SNG facility" means a facility that uses a gasification process to produce substitute natural gas, that sequesters at least 90% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit and that uses petroleum coke or coal as a feedstock, with all such coal having a high bituminous rank and greater than 1.7 pounds of sulfur per million btu content.

"Commission" means the Illinois Commerce Commission.

"Costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility" means:

(1) the cost of acquisition of all real property and improvements in connection therewith and equipment and other property, rights, and easements acquired that are deemed necessary for the operation and maintenance of the facility;

(2) financing costs with respect to bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness of the Agency;

(3) all origination, commitment, utilization, facility, placement, underwriting, syndication, credit enhancement, and rating agency fees;

(4) engineering, design, procurement, consulting, legal, accounting, title insurance, survey, appraisal, escrow, trustee, collateral agency, interest rate hedging, interest rate swap, capitalized interest and other financing costs, and other expenses for professional services; and

(5) the costs of plans, specifications, site study and investigation, installation, surveys, other Agency costs and estimates of costs, and other expenses necessary or incidental to determining the feasibility of any project, together with such other expenses as may be necessary or incidental to the financing, insuring, acquisition, and construction of a specific project and placing that project in operation.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Power Agency.

"Demand-response" means measures that decrease peak electricity demand or shift demand from peak to off-peak periods.

"Energy efficiency" means measures that reduce the amount of electricity or natural gas required to achieve a given end use.

"Electric utility" has the same definition as found in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Facility" means an electric generating unit or a co-generating unit that produces electricity along with related equipment necessary to connect the facility to an electric transmission or distribution system.

"Governmental aggregator" means one or more units of local government that individually or collectively procure electricity to serve residential retail electrical loads located within its or their jurisdiction.

"Local government" means a unit of local government as defined in Article VII of Section 1 of the Illinois Constitution.

"Municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town.

"Person" means any natural person, firm, partnership, corporation, either domestic or foreign, company, association, limited liability company, joint stock company, or association and includes any trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal representative thereof.

"Project" means the planning, bidding, and construction of a facility.

"Public utility" has the same definition as found in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Real property" means any interest in land together with all structures, fixtures, and improvements thereon, including lands under water and riparian rights, any easements, covenants, licenses, leases, rights-of-way, uses, and other interests, together with any liens, judgments, mortgages, or other claims or security interests related to real property.

"Renewable energy credit" means a tradable credit that represents the environmental attributes of a certain amount of energy produced from a renewable energy resource.

"Renewable energy resources" includes energy and its associated renewable energy credit or renewable energy credits from wind, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells and panels, biodiesel, crops and untreated and unadulterated organic waste biomass, tree waste, hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams, and other alternative sources of environmentally preferable energy. For purposes of this Act, landfill gas produced in the State is considered a renewable energy resource. "Renewable energy resources" does not include the incineration or burning of tires, garbage, general household, institutional, and commercial waste, industrial lunchroom or office waste, landscape waste other than tree waste, railroad crossties, utility poles, or construction or demolition debris, other than untreated and unadulterated waste wood.

"Revenue bond" means any bond, note, or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the Authority, the principal and interest of which is payable solely from revenues or income derived from any project or activity of the Agency.

"Sequester" means permanent storage of carbon dioxide by injecting it into a saline aquifer, a depleted gas reservoir, or an oil reservoir, directly or through an enhanced oil recovery process that may involve intermediate storage in a salt dome.

"Servicing agreement" means (i) in the case of an electric utility, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal facility and such electric utility, which agreement shall have terms and conditions meeting the requirements of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of Section 1-75, and (ii) in the case of an alternative retail electric supplier, an agreement between the owner of a clean coal facility and such alternative retail electric supplier, which agreement shall have terms and conditions meeting the requirements of Section 16-115(d)(5) of the Public Utilities Act.

"Substitute natural gas" or "SNG" means a gas manufactured by gasification of hydrocarbon feedstock, which is substantially interchangeable in use and distribution with conventional natural gas.

"Total resource cost test" or "TRC test" means a standard that is met if, for an investment in energy efficiency or demand-response measures, the benefit-cost ratio is greater than one. The benefit-cost ratio is the ratio of the net present value of the total benefits of the program to the net present value of the total costs as calculated over the lifetime of the measures. A total resource cost test compares the sum of avoided electric utility costs, representing the benefits that accrue to the system and the participant in the delivery of those efficiency measures, as well as other quantifiable societal benefits, including avoided natural gas utility costs, to the sum of all incremental costs of end-use measures that are implemented due to the program (including both utility and participant contributions), plus costs to administer, deliver, and evaluate each demand-side program, to quantify the net savings obtained by substituting the demand-side program for supply resources. In calculating avoided costs of power and energy that an electric utility would otherwise have had to acquire, reasonable estimates shall be included of financial costs likely to be imposed by future regulations and legislation on emissions of greenhouse gases.

(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-913, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1027, eff. 6-1-09; 96-33, eff. 7-10-09; 96-159, eff. 8-10-09; 96-784, eff. 8-28-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-20)

Sec. 1-20. General powers of the Agency.

(a) The Agency is authorized to do each of the following:

(1) Develop electricity procurement plans to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois. The procurement plans shall be updated on an annual basis and shall include electricity generated from renewable resources sufficient to achieve the standards specified in this Act.

(2) Conduct competitive procurement processes to procure the supply resources identified in the procurement plan, pursuant to Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(3) Develop electric generation and co-generation facilities that use indigenous coal or renewable resources, or both, financed with bonds issued by the Illinois Finance Authority.

(4) Supply electricity from the Agency's facilities at cost to one or more of the following: municipal electric systems, governmental aggregators, or rural electric cooperatives in Illinois.

(b) Except as otherwise limited by this Act, the Agency has all of the powers necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act, including without limitation, each of the following:

(1) To have a corporate seal, and to alter that seal at pleasure, and to use it by causing it or a facsimile to be affixed or impressed or reproduced in any other manner.

(2) To use the services of the Illinois Finance Authority necessary to carry out the Agency's purposes.

(3) To negotiate and enter into loan agreements and other agreements with the Illinois Finance Authority.

(4) To obtain and employ personnel and hire consultants that are necessary to fulfill the Agency's purposes, and to make expenditures for that purpose within the appropriations for that purpose.

(5) To purchase, receive, take by grant, gift, devise, bequest, or otherwise, lease, or otherwise acquire, own, hold, improve, employ, use, and otherwise deal in and with, real or personal property whether tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, within the State.

(6) To acquire real or personal property, whether tangible or intangible, including without limitation property rights, interests in property, franchises, obligations, contracts, and debt and equity securities, and to do so by the exercise of the power of eminent domain in accordance with Section 1-21; except that any real property acquired by the exercise of the power of eminent domain must be located within the State.

(7) To sell, convey, lease, exchange, transfer, abandon, or otherwise dispose of, or mortgage, pledge, or create a security interest in, any of its assets, properties, or any interest therein, wherever situated.

(8) To purchase, take, receive, subscribe for, or otherwise acquire, hold, make a tender offer for, vote, employ, sell, lend, lease, exchange, transfer, or otherwise dispose of, mortgage, pledge, or grant a security interest in, use, and otherwise deal in and with, bonds and other obligations, shares, or other securities (or interests therein) issued by others, whether engaged in a similar or different business or activity.

(9) To make and execute agreements, contracts, and other instruments necessary or convenient in the exercise of the powers and functions of the Agency under this Act, including contracts with any person, local government, State agency, or other entity; and all State agencies and all local governments are authorized to enter into and do all things necessary to perform any such agreement, contract, or other instrument with the Agency. No such agreement, contract, or other instrument shall exceed 40 years.

(10) To lend money, invest and reinvest its funds in accordance with the Public Funds Investment Act, and take and hold real and personal property as security for the payment of funds loaned or invested.

(11) To borrow money at such rate or rates of interest as the Agency may determine, issue its notes, bonds, or other obligations to evidence that indebtedness, and secure any of its obligations by mortgage or pledge of its real or personal property, machinery, equipment, structures, fixtures, inventories, revenues, grants, and other funds as provided or any interest therein, wherever situated.

(12) To enter into agreements with the Illinois Finance Authority to issue bonds whether or not the income therefrom is exempt from federal taxation.

(13) To procure insurance against any loss in connection with its properties or operations in such amount or amounts and from such insurers, including the federal government, as it may deem necessary or desirable, and to pay any premiums therefor.

(14) To negotiate and enter into agreements with trustees or receivers appointed by United States bankruptcy courts or federal district courts or in other proceedings involving adjustment of debts and authorize proceedings involving adjustment of debts and authorize legal counsel for the Agency to appear in any such proceedings.

(15) To file a petition under Chapter 9 of Title 11 of the United States Bankruptcy Code or take other similar action for the adjustment of its debts.

(16) To enter into management agreements for the operation of any of the property or facilities owned by the Agency.

(17) To enter into an agreement to transfer and to transfer any land, facilities, fixtures, or equipment of the Agency to one or more municipal electric systems, governmental aggregators, or rural electric agencies or cooperatives, for such consideration and upon such terms as the Agency may determine to be in the best interest of the citizens of Illinois.

(18) To enter upon any lands and within any building whenever in its judgment it may be necessary for the purpose of making surveys and examinations to accomplish any purpose authorized by this Act.

(19) To maintain an office or offices at such place or places in the State as it may determine.

(20) To request information, and to make any inquiry, investigation, survey, or study that the Agency may deem necessary to enable it effectively to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(21) To accept and expend appropriations.

(22) To engage in any activity or operation that is incidental to and in furtherance of efficient operation to accomplish the Agency's purposes.

(23) To adopt, revise, amend, and repeal rules with respect to its operations, properties, and facilities as may be necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this Act, subject to the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and Sections 1-22 and 1-35 of this Act.

(24) To establish and collect charges and fees as described in this Act.

(25) To manage procurement of substitute natural gas from a facility that meets the criteria specified in subsection (a) of Section 1-58 1-56 of this Act, on terms and conditions that may be approved by the Agency pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 1-58 1-56 of this Act, to support the operations of State agencies and local governments that agree to such terms and conditions. This procurement process is not subject to the Procurement Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 96-784, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-13-09.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-56)

Sec. 1-56. Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund.

(a) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury.

(b) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be administered by the Agency to procure renewable energy resources. Prior to June 1, 2011, resources procured pursuant to this Section shall be procured from facilities located in Illinois, provided the resources are available from those facilities. If resources are not available in Illinois, then they shall be procured in states that adjoin Illinois. If resources are not available in Illinois or in states that adjoin Illinois, then they may be purchased elsewhere. Beginning June 1, 2011, resources procured pursuant to this Section shall be procured from facilities located in Illinois or states that adjoin Illinois. If resources are not available in Illinois or in states that adjoin Illinois, then they may be procured elsewhere. To the extent available, at least 75% of these renewable energy resources shall come from wind generation and, starting June 1, 2015, at least 6% of the renewable energy resources used to meet these standards shall come from solar photovoltaics.

(c) The Agency shall procure renewable energy resources at least once each year in conjunction with a procurement event for electric utilities required to comply with Section 1-75 of the Act and shall, whenever possible, enter into long-term contracts.

(d) The price paid to procure renewable energy credits using monies from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall not exceed the winning bid prices paid for like resources procured for electric utilities required to comply with Section 1-75 of this Act.

(e) All renewable energy credits procured using monies from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be permanently retired.

(f) The procurement process described in this Section is exempt from the requirements of the Illinois Procurement Code, pursuant to Section 20-10 of that Code.

(g) All disbursements from the Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall be made only upon warrants of the Comptroller drawn upon the Treasurer as custodian of the Fund upon vouchers signed by the Director or by the person or persons designated by the Director for that purpose. The Comptroller is authorized to draw the warrant upon vouchers so signed. The Treasurer shall accept all warrants so signed and shall be released from liability for all payments made on those warrants.

(h) The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund shall not be subject to sweeps, administrative charges, or chargebacks, including, but not limited to, those authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act, that would in any way result in the transfer of any funds from this Fund to any other fund of this State or in having any such funds utilized for any purpose other than the express purposes set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-159, eff. 8-10-09.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-58)

Sec. 1-58 1-56. Clean coal SNG facility construction.

(a) It is the intention of the General Assembly to provide additional long-term natural gas price stability to the State and consumers by promoting the development of a clean coal SNG facility that would produce a minimum annual output of 30 Bcf of SNG and commence construction no later than June 1, 2013 on a brownfield site in a municipality with at least one million residents. The costs associated with preparing a facility cost report for such a facility, which contains all of the information required by subsection (b) of this Section, may be paid or reimbursed pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section.

(b) The facility cost report for a facility that meets the criteria set forth in subsection (a) of this Section shall be prepared by a duly licensed engineering firm that details the estimated capital costs payable to one or more contractors or suppliers for the engineering, procurement, and construction of the components comprising the facility and the estimated costs of operation and maintenance of the facility. The report must be provided to the General Assembly and the Agency on or before April 30, 2010. The facility cost report shall include all off the following:

(1) An estimate of the capital cost of the core plant based on a front-end engineering and design study. The core plant shall include all civil, structural, mechanical, electrical, control, and safety systems. The quoted construction costs shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include:

(A) capitalized financing costs during construction;

(B) taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs; and

(C) any assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the construction cost quote is expressed;

(2) An estimate of the capital cost of the balance of the plant, including any capital costs associated with site preparation and remediation, sequestration of carbon dioxide emissions, and all interconnects and interfaces required to operate the facility, such as construction or backfeed power supply, pipelines to transport substitute natural gas or carbon dioxide, potable water supply, natural gas supply, water supply, water discharge, landfill, access roads, and coal delivery. The front-end engineering and design study and the cost study for the balance of the plant shall include sufficient design work to permit quantification of major categories of materials, commodities and labor hours, and receipt of quotes from vendors of major equipment required to construct and operate the facility.

(3) An operating and maintenance cost quote that will provide the estimated cost of delivered fuel, personnel, maintenance contracts, chemicals, catalysts, consumables, spares, and other fixed and variable operating and maintenance costs. This quote is subject to the following requirements:

(A) The delivered fuel cost estimate shall be provided by a recognized third party expert or experts in the fuel and transportation industries.

(B) The balance of the operating and maintenance cost quote, excluding delivered fuel costs shall be developed based on the inputs provided by a duly licensed engineering firm performing the construction cost quote, potential vendors under long-term service agreements and plant operating agreements, or recognized third-party plant operator or operators.

The operating and maintenance cost quote shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include (i) taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs and (ii) any assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the operating and maintenance cost quote is expressed.

(c) Reasonable amounts paid or due to be paid by the owner or owners of the clean coal SNG facility to third parties unrelated to the owner or owners to prepare the facility cost report will be reimbursed or paid up to $10 million through Coal Development Bonds.

(d) The Agency shall review the facility report and based on that report, consider whether to enter into long term contracts to purchase SNG from the facility pursuant to Section 1-20 of this Act. To assist with its evaluation of the report, the Agency may hire one or more experts or consultants, the reasonable costs of which, not to exceed $250,000, shall be paid for by the owner or owners of the clean coal SNG facility submitting the facility cost report. The Agency may begin the process of selecting such experts or consultants prior to receipt of the facility cost report.

(Source: P.A. 96-781, eff. 8-28-09; 96-784, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-13-09.)

Section 130. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 12 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities and organizations:

1. An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

2. An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act;

3. Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;

4. Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof;

5. Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act;

6. An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility;

7. An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of a health care category of service as defined by the Board, including, but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart surgery; and

8. An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of major medical equipment used in the direct clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.

This Act shall not apply to the construction of any new facility or the renovation of any existing facility located on any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed residential facility.

No federally owned facility shall be subject to the provisions of this Act, nor facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

No facility licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

No facility established and operating under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's respite care center alternative health care model demonstration program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative health care model demonstration program shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

A facility designated as a supportive living facility that is in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall not be subject to the provisions of this Act.

This Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act. However, if a demonstration project under that Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis. This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home. The Board, however, may require these dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

This Act shall not apply to the closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elects to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

This Act does not apply to any change of ownership of a healthcare facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site or the initiation of a category of service as defined by the Board.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or submitted as one project by the applicant, components of construction or modification undertaken by means of a single construction contract or financed through the issuance of a single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and $3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-543, eff. 8-28-07; 95-584, eff. 8-31-07; 95-727, eff. 6-30-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities and organizations:

1. An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

2. An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act;

3. Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;

3.5. Skilled and intermediate care facilities licensed under the MR/DD Community Care Act;

4. Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof;

5. Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act;

6. An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility;

7. An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of a health care category of service as defined by the Board, including, but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart surgery; and

8. An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of major medical equipment used in the direct clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.

This Act shall not apply to the construction of any new facility or the renovation of any existing facility located on any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed residential facility.

No federally owned facility shall be subject to the provisions of this Act, nor facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

No facility licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

No facility established and operating under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's respite care center alternative health care model demonstration program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative health care model demonstration program shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.

A facility designated as a supportive living facility that is in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall not be subject to the provisions of this Act.

This Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act. However, if a demonstration project under that Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis. This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home. The Board, however, may require these dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

This Act shall not apply to the closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elects to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

This Act does not apply to any change of ownership of a healthcare facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site or the initiation of a category of service as defined by the Board.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or submitted as one project by the applicant, components of construction or modification undertaken by means of a single construction contract or financed through the issuance of a single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and $3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-543, eff. 8-28-07; 95-584, eff. 8-31-07; 95-727, eff. 6-30-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; or

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service or (2) discontinuation of a service, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or .

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board within 30 days of the meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The staff of the State Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the State Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of the 9 members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by September 1, 2010. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act prior to approval by the Board and promulgation of related rules.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the MR/DD Community Care Act, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; or

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service or (2) discontinuation of a service, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or .

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board within 30 days of the meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The staff of the State Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the State Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of the 9 members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by September 1, 2010. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act prior to approval by the Board and promulgation of related rules.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 135. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(25 ILCS 155/2) (from Ch. 63, par. 342)

Sec. 2. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability, hereafter in this Act referred to as the Commission, is created and is established as a legislative support services agency subject to the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

On January 15, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-1067) this amendatory Act of the 93th General Assembly, the name of the Illinois Economic and Fiscal Commission is changed to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability. References in any law, appropriation, rule, form, or other document to the Illinois Economic and Fiscal Commission are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability for all purposes. References in any law, appropriation, rule, form, or other document to the Executive Director of the Illinois Economic and Fiscal Commission are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Executive Director of the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability for all purposes. For purposes of Section 9b of the State Finance Act, the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability is the successor to the Illinois Economic and Fiscal Commission.

(Source: P.A. 93-1067, eff. 1-15-05; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 140. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.710, 5.719, 5.720, 5.723, and 5.724 and by changing Sections 8.49 and 8h as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.710)

Sec. 5.710. The Money Follows the Person Budget Transfer Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.719)

Sec. 5.719. The Private College Academic Quality Assurance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-1046, eff. 3-27-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.720)

Sec. 5.720. The Academic Quality Assurance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-1046, eff. 3-27-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.721)

Sec. 5.721 5.719. The Olympic Games and Paralympic Games Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; revised 4-14-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.722)

Sec. 5.722 5.710. The Financial Institutions Settlement of 2008 Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-1047, eff. 4-6-09; revised 4-14-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.723)

Sec. 5.723. The Capital Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.724)

Sec. 5.724. The Local Government Video Gaming Distributive Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.725)

Sec. 5.725 5.719. American Recovery and Reinvestment Act Administrative Revolving Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.726)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2011)

Sec. 5.726 5.719. The Performance-enhancing Substance Testing Fund. This Section is repealed on July 1, 2011.

(Source: P.A. 96-132, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.727)

Sec. 5.727 5.719. The Fire Station Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-135, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.728)

Sec. 5.728 5.719. The Farm Fresh Schools Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-153, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.729)

Sec. 5.729 5.719. The Illinois Power Agency Renewable Energy Resources Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-159, eff. 8-10-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.730)

Sec. 5.730 5.719. The Hospital Stroke Care Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-514, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.731)

Sec. 5.731 5.719. The Department of Human Rights Training and Development Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-548, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.732)

Sec. 5.732 5.719. The Trucking Environmental and Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-576, eff. 8-18-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.733)

Sec. 5.733 5.719. The Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-591, eff. 8-18-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.734)

Sec. 5.734 5.719. The 2-1-1 Account Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-599, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.735)

Sec. 5.735 5.719. The Intermodal Facilities Promotion Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-602, eff. 8-21-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.736)

Sec. 5.736 5.719. The Hunger Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-604, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.737)

Sec. 5.737 5.719. The Public Interest Attorney Loan Repayment Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-615, eff. 1-1-10; 96-768, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.738)

Sec. 5.738 5.719. The Ex-Offender Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-656, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.739)

Sec. 5.739 5.719. The Roadside Memorial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.740)

Sec. 5.740 5.719. The International Brotherhood of Teamsters Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-687, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.741)

Sec. 5.741 5.719. The School Wind and Solar Generation Revolving Loan Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-725, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.742)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.742 5.719. The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.743)

Sec. 5.743 5.719. The Private Sewage Disposal Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-767, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.744)

Sec. 5.744 5.719. The 21st Century Workforce Development Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-771, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.745)

Sec. 5.745 5.719. The Department of Human Rights Special Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-786, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.746)

Sec. 5.746 5.720. The United Auto Workers' Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-687, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.747)

Sec. 5.747 5.723. Court of Claims Federal Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.748)

Sec. 5.748 5.723. The Crisis Nursery Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-627, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.749)

Sec. 5.749 5.723. The Stretcher Van Licensure Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-702, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.750)

Sec. 5.750 5.723. The Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Incentive Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-739, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.751)

Sec. 5.751 5.723. The Long Term Care Ombudsman Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-758, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.752)

Sec. 5.752 5.724. The Nursing Home Conversion Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-758, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.49)

Sec. 8.49. Special fund transfers.

(a) In order to maintain the integrity of special funds and improve stability in the General Revenue Fund, the following transfers are authorized from the designated funds into the General Revenue Fund:

Food and Drug Safety Fund..........................$6,800

Penny Severns Breast, Cervical, and

Ovarian Cancer Research Fund..................$33,300

Transportation Regulatory Fund.................$2,122,000

General Professions Dedicated Fund.............$3,511,900

Economic Research and Information Fund.............$1,120

Illinois Department of Agriculture

Laboratory Services Revolving Fund............$12,825

Drivers Education Fund.........................$2,244,000

Aeronautics Fund..................................$25,360

Fire Prevention Fund..........................$10,400,000

Rural/Downstate Health Access Fund.................$1,700

Mental Health Fund............................$24,560,000

Illinois State Pharmacy Disciplinary Fund......$2,054,100

Public Utility Fund..............................$960,175

Alzheimer's Disease Research Fund................$112,500

Radiation Protection Fund.........................$92,250

Natural Heritage Endowment Trust Fund............$250,000

Firearm Owner's Notification Fund................$256,400

EPA Special State Projects Trust Fund..........$3,760,000

Solid Waste Management Fund....................$1,200,000

Illinois Gaming Law Enforcement Fund.............$141,000

Subtitle D Management Fund.......................$375,000

Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund......$11,277,200

Cemetery Consumer Protection Fund................$658,000

Assistance to the Homeless Fund...................$13,800

Accessible Electronic Information

Service Fund..................................$10,000

CDLIS/AAMVAnet Trust Fund........................$110,000

Comptroller's Audit Expense Revolving Fund........$31,200

Community Health Center Care Fund................$450,000

Safe Bottled Water Fund...........................$15,000

Facility Licensing Fund..........................$363,600

Hansen-Therkelsen Memorial Deaf

Student College Fund.........................$503,700

Illinois Underground Utility Facilities

Damage Prevention Fund........................$29,600

School District Emergency Financial

Assistance Fund............................$2,059,200

Mental Health Transportation Fund....................$859

Registered Certified Public Accountants'

Administration and Disciplinary Fund..........$34,600

State Crime Laboratory Fund......................$142,880

Agrichemical Incident Response Trust Fund.........$80,000

General Assembly Computer Equipment

Revolving Fund...............................$101,600

Weights and Measures Fund........................$625,000

Illinois School Asbestos Abatement Fund..........$299,600

Injured Workers' Benefit Fund..................$3,290,560

Violence Prevention Fund..........................$79,500

Professional Regulation Evidence Fund..............$5,000

IPTIP Administrative Trust Fund..................$500,000

Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund....................$8,800

Ticket For The Cure Fund.......................$1,200,000

Capital Development Board Revolving Fund.........$346,000

Professions Indirect Cost Fund.................$2,144,500

State Police DUI Fund............................$166,880

Medicaid Fraud and Abuse Prevention Fund..........$20,000

Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.......$1,392,400

Emergency Public Health Fund.....................$875,000

TOMA Consumer Protection Fund.....................$50,000

ISAC Accounts Receivable Fund.....................$24,240

Fair and Exposition Fund.......................$1,257,920

Department of Labor Special State Trust Fund.....$409,000

Public Health Water Permit Fund...................$24,500

Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund........$9,988,400

Optometric Licensing and Disciplinary

Board Fund...................................$995,800

Water Revolving Fund...............................$4,960

Methamphetamine Law Enforcement Fund..............$50,000

Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund...........$1,700,000

Home Care Services Agency Licensure Fund..........$48,000

Community Water Supply Laboratory Fund...........$600,000

Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Fund...........$41,416

Fertilizer Control Fund..........................$162,520

Regulatory Fund..................................$307,824

Used Tire Management Fund......................$8,853,552

Natural Areas Acquisition Fund.................$1,000,000

Working Capital Revolving Fund.................$6,450,000

Tax Recovery Fund.................................$29,680

Professional Services Fund.....................$3,500,000

Treasurer's Rental Fee Fund......................$155,000

Public Health Laboratory Services

Revolving Fund...............................$450,000

Provider Inquiry Trust Fund......................$200,000

Audit Expense Fund.............................$5,972,190

Law Enforcement Camera Grant Fund..............$2,631,840

Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor

Services Enforcement Fund....................$490,000

Lead Poisoning Screening, Prevention,

and Abatement Fund...........................$100,000

Health and Human Services Medicaid

Trust Fund.................................$6,920,000

Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and

Equipment Fund...............................$147,900

Drug Treatment Fund............................$4,400,000

Feed Control Fund................................$625,000

Tanning Facility Permit Fund......................$20,000

Innovations in Long-Term Care Quality

Demonstration Grants Fund....................$300,000

Plumbing Licensure and Program Fund............$1,585,600

State Treasurer's Bank Services Trust Fund.....$6,800,000

State Police Motor Vehicle Theft

Prevention Trust Fund.........................$46,500

Insurance Premium Tax Refund Fund.................$58,700

Appraisal Administration Fund....................$378,400

Small Business Environmental Assistance Fund......$24,080

Regulatory Evaluation and Basic

Enforcement Fund.............................$125,000

Gaining Early Awareness and Readiness

for Undergraduate Programs Fund...............$15,000

Trauma Center Fund.............................$4,000,000

EMS Assistance Fund..............................$110,000

State College and University Trust Fund...........$20,204

University Grant Fund..............................$5,608

DCEO Projects Fund.............................$1,000,000

Alternate Fuels Fund...........................$2,000,000

Multiple Sclerosis Research Fund..................$27,200

Livestock Management Facilities Fund..............$81,920

Second Injury Fund...............................$615,680

Agricultural Master Fund.........................$136,984

High Speed Internet Services and

Information Technology Fund................$3,300,000

Illinois Tourism Tax Fund........................$250,000

Human Services Priority Capital Program Fund...$7,378,400

Warrant Escheat Fund...........................$1,394,161

State Asset Forfeiture Fund......................$321,600

Police Training Board Services Fund................$8,000

Federal Asset Forfeiture Fund......................$1,760

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund...........................$250,000

Health Facility Plan Review Fund...............$1,543,600

Domestic Violence Abuser Services Fund............$11,500

LEADS Maintenance Fund...........................$166,800

State Offender DNA Identification

System Fund..................................$615,040

Illinois Historic Sites Fund.....................$250,000

Comptroller's Administrative Fund................$134,690

Workforce, Technology, and Economic

Development ...............................$2,000,000

Pawnbroker Regulation Fund........................$26,400

Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund.........$13,408,328

Charter Schools Revolving Loan Fund...............$82,000

School Technology Revolving Loan Fund..........$1,230,000

Energy Efficiency Trust Fund...................$1,490,000

Pesticide Control Fund...........................$625,000

Juvenile Accountability Incentive Block

Grant Fund................................... $10,000

Multiple Sclerosis Assistance Fund.................$8,000

Temporary Relocation Expenses Revolving

Grant Fund...................................$460,000

Partners for Conservation Fund.................$8,200,000

Fund For Illinois' Future......................$3,000,000

Wireless Carrier Reimbursement Fund...........$13,650,000

International Tourism Fund.....................$5,043,344

Illinois Racing Quarterhorse Breeders Fund.........$1,448

Death Certificate Surcharge Fund.................$900,000

State Police Wireless Service

Emergency Fund.............................$1,329,280

Illinois Adoption Registry and

Medical Information Exchange Fund..............$8,400

Auction Regulation Administration Fund...........$361,600

DHS State Projects Fund..........................$193,900

Auction Recovery Fund..............................$4,600

Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.............$389,840

Coal Development Fund............................$320,000

State Off-Set Claims Fund........................$400,000

Illinois Student Assistance Commission

Contracts and Grants Fund....................$128,850

DHS Private Resources Fund.....................$1,000,000

Assisted Living and Shared Housing

Regulatory Fund..............................$122,400

State Police Whistleblower Reward

and Protection Fund........................$3,900,000

Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund..............$134,608

Post Transplant Maintenance and

Retention Fund................................$85,800

Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure

Research Trust Fund..........................$300,000

Organ Donor Awareness Fund.......................$115,000

Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund....$1,030,900

Illinois Clean Water Fund......................$8,649,600

Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund..............$10,000,000

Alternative Compliance Market Account Fund.........$9,984

Group Workers' Compensation Pool

Insolvency Fund...............................$42,800

Medicaid Buy-In Program Revolving Fund.........$1,000,000

Home Inspector Administration Fund.............$1,225,200

Real Estate Audit Fund.............................$1,200

Marine Corps Scholarship Fund.....................$69,000

Tourism Promotion Fund........................$30,000,000

Oil Spill Response Fund............................$4,800

Presidential Library and Museum

Operating Fund...............................$169,900

Nuclear Safety Emergency Preparedness Fund.....$6,000,000

DCEO Energy Projects Fund......................$2,176,200

Dram Shop Fund...................................$500,000

Illinois State Dental Disciplinary Fund..........$187,300

Hazardous Waste Fund.............................$800,000

Natural Resources Restoration Trust Fund...........$7,700

State Fair Promotional Activities Fund.............$1,672

Continuing Legal Education Trust Fund.............$10,550

Environmental Protection Trust Fund..............$625,000

Real Estate Research and Education Fund........$1,081,000

Federal Moderate Rehabilitation

Housing Fund..................................$44,960

Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund........$55,800

Snowmobile Trail Establishment Fund................$5,300

Drug Traffic Prevention Fund......................$11,200

Traffic and Criminal Conviction

Surcharge Fund.............................$5,400,000

Design Professionals Administration

and Investigation Fund........................$73,200

Public Health Special State Projects Fund......$1,900,000

Petroleum Violation Fund...........................$1,080

State Police Services Fund.....................$7,082,080

Illinois Wildlife Preservation Fund................$9,900

Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund.................$133,500

Insurance Producer Administration Fund........$12,170,000

Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund....$1,856,000

Child Abuse Prevention Fund......................$250,000

Hearing Instrument Dispenser Examining

and Disciplinary Fund.........................$50,400

Low-Level Radioactive Waste Facility

Development and Operation Fund.............$1,000,000

Environmental Protection Permit and

Inspection Fund..............................$755,775

Landfill Closure and Post-Closure Fund.............$2,480

Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund..................$86,900

Illinois State Podiatric Disciplinary Fund.......$200,000

Vehicle Inspection Fund........................$5,000,000

Local Tourism Fund............................$10,999,280

Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund...........$3,856,904

Illinois Equity Fund...............................$3,520

Large Business Attraction Fund....................$13,560

International and Promotional Fund................$42,040

Public Infrastructure Construction

Loan Revolving Fund........................$2,811,232

Insurance Financial Regulation Fund............$5,881,180

TOTAL $351,738,973 All of these transfers shall be made in equal quarterly installments with the first made on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, and with the remaining transfers to be made on October 1, January 1, and April 1, or as soon thereafter as practical. These transfers shall be made notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary.

(b) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly through June 30, 2010, when any of the funds listed in subsection (a) have insufficient cash from which the State Comptroller may make expenditures properly supported by appropriations from the fund, then the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the fund such amount as is immediately necessary to satisfy outstanding expenditure obligations on a timely basis, subject to the provisions of the State Prompt Payment Act.

(c) If the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget determines that any transfer to the General Revenue Fund from a special fund under subsection (a) either (i) jeopardizes federal funding based on a written communication from a federal official or (ii) violates an order of a court of competent jurisdiction, then the Director may order the State Treasurer and State Comptroller, in writing, to transfer from the General Revenue Fund to that listed special fund all or part of the amounts transferred from that special fund under subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 96-44, eff. 7-15-09; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-150, eff. 8-7-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/8h)

Sec. 8h. Transfers to General Revenue Fund.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section and Section 8n of this Act, and notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, the Governor may, through June 30, 2007, from time to time direct the State Treasurer and Comptroller to transfer a specified sum from any fund held by the State Treasurer to the General Revenue Fund in order to help defray the State's operating costs for the fiscal year. The total transfer under this Section from any fund in any fiscal year shall not exceed the lesser of (i) 8% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that fiscal year or (ii) an amount that leaves a remaining fund balance of 25% of the July 1 fund balance of that fiscal year. In fiscal year 2005 only, prior to calculating the July 1, 2004 final balances, the Governor may calculate and direct the State Treasurer with the Comptroller to transfer additional amounts determined by applying the formula authorized in Public Act 93-839 to the funds balances on July 1, 2003. No transfer may be made from a fund under this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriation from that fund estimated to be expended for that fiscal year. This Section does not apply to any funds that are restricted by federal law to a specific use, to any funds in the Motor Fuel Tax Fund, the Intercity Passenger Rail Fund, the Hospital Provider Fund, the Medicaid Provider Relief Fund, the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund, the Voters' Guide Fund, the Foreign Language Interpreter Fund, the Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund, the Supreme Court Federal Projects Fund, the Supreme Court Special State Projects Fund, the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund, the Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund, the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Facility Development and Operation Fund, the Horse Racing Equity Trust Fund, the Metabolic Screening and Treatment Fund, or the Hospital Basic Services Preservation Fund, or to any funds to which Section 70-50 of the Nurse Practice Act applies. No transfers may be made under this Section from the Pet Population Control Fund. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for fiscal year 2004, the total transfer under this Section from the Road Fund or the State Construction Account Fund shall not exceed the lesser of (i) 5% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that fiscal year or (ii) 25% of the beginning balance in the fund. For fiscal year 2005 through fiscal year 2007, no amounts may be transferred under this Section from the Road Fund, the State Construction Account Fund, the Criminal Justice Information Systems Trust Fund, the Wireless Service Emergency Fund, or the Mandatory Arbitration Fund.

In determining the available balance in a fund, the Governor may include receipts, transfers into the fund, and other resources anticipated to be available in the fund in that fiscal year.

The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practicable after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(a-5) Transfers directed to be made under this Section on or before February 28, 2006 that are still pending on May 19, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-774) shall be redirected as provided in Section 8n of this Act.

(b) This Section does not apply to: (i) the Ticket For The Cure Fund; (ii) any fund established under the Community Senior Services and Resources Act; or (iii) on or after January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-511), the Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Enforcement Fund.

(c) This Section does not apply to the Demutualization Trust Fund established under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(d) This Section does not apply to moneys set aside in the Illinois State Podiatric Disciplinary Fund for podiatric scholarships and residency programs under the Podiatric Scholarship and Residency Act.

(e) Subsection (a) does not apply to, and no transfer may be made under this Section from, the Pension Stabilization Fund.

(f) Subsection (a) does not apply to, and no transfer may be made under this Section from, the Illinois Power Agency Operations Fund, the Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund, the Illinois Power Agency Debt Service Fund, and the Illinois Power Agency Trust Fund.

(g) This Section does not apply to the Veterans Service Organization Reimbursement Fund.

(h) This Section does not apply to the Supreme Court Historic Preservation Fund.

(i) This Section does not apply to, and no transfer may be made under this Section from, the Money Follows the Person Budget Transfer Fund.

(j) This Section does not apply to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund.

(k) (j) This Section does not apply to the Illinois Historic Sites Fund and the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(l) (j) This Section does not apply to the Trucking Environmental and Education Fund.

(m) (j) This Section does not apply to the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(n) (j) This Section does not apply to the Department of Human Rights Special Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-410, eff. 8-24-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-629, eff. 9-25-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-695, eff. 11-5-07; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-302, eff. 1-1-10; 96-450, eff. 8-14-09; 96-511, eff. 8-14-09; 96-576, eff. 8-18-09; 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; 96-786, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 145. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, and 7 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 652)

Sec. 2. Authorization for Bonds. The State of Illinois is authorized to issue, sell and provide for the retirement of General Obligation Bonds of the State of Illinois for the categories and specific purposes expressed in Sections 2 through 8 of this Act, in the total amount of $36,967,777,443 $33,501,777,443 $34,159,149,369.

The bonds authorized in this Section 2 and in Section 16 of this Act are herein called "Bonds".

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, up to $2,200,000,000 in aggregate original principal amount may be issued and sold in accordance with the Baccalaureate Savings Act in the form of General Obligation College Savings Bonds.

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, up to $300,000,000 in aggregate original principal amount may be issued and sold in accordance with the Retirement Savings Act in the form of General Obligation Retirement Savings Bonds.

Of the total amount of Bonds authorized in this Act, the additional $10,000,000,000 authorized by Public Act 93-2 and the $3,466,000,000 authorized by Public Act 96-43 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be used solely as provided in Section 7.2.

The issuance and sale of Bonds pursuant to the General Obligation Bond Act is an economical and efficient method of financing the long-term capital needs of the State. This Act will permit the issuance of a multi-purpose General Obligation Bond with uniform terms and features. This will not only lower the cost of registration but also reduce the overall cost of issuing debt by improving the marketability of Illinois General Obligation Bonds.

(Source: P.A. 95-1026, eff. 1-12-09; 96-5, eff. 4-3-09; 96-36, eff. 7-13-09; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 330/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 653)

Sec. 3. Capital Facilities. The amount of $7,968,463,443 is authorized to be used for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities within the State, consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, land, interests in land, and the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology, including but not limited to the purchase of hardware and software, for the following specific purposes:

(a) $2,511,228,000 for educational purposes by State universities and colleges, the Illinois Community College Board created by the Public Community College Act and for grants to public community colleges as authorized by Sections 5-11 and 5-12 of the Public Community College Act;

(b) $1,617,420,000 for correctional purposes at State prison and correctional centers;

(c) $575,183,000 for open spaces, recreational and conservation purposes and the protection of land;

(d) $664,917,000 for child care facilities, mental and public health facilities, and facilities for the care of disabled veterans and their spouses;

(e) $1,630,990,000 for use by the State, its departments, authorities, public corporations, commissions and agencies;

(f) $818,100 for cargo handling facilities at port districts and for breakwaters, including harbor entrances, at port districts in conjunction with facilities for small boats and pleasure crafts;

(g) $248,877,074 for water resource management projects;

(h) $16,940,269 for the provision of facilities for food production research and related instructional and public service activities at the State universities and public community colleges;

(i) $36,000,000 for grants by the Secretary of State, as State Librarian, for central library facilities authorized by Section 8 of the Illinois Library System Act and for grants by the Capital Development Board to units of local government for public library facilities;

(j) $25,000,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for grants to counties, municipalities or public building commissions with correctional facilities that do not comply with the minimum standards of the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(k) $5,000,000 for grants in fiscal year 1988 by the Department of Conservation for improvement or expansion of aquarium facilities located on property owned by a park district;

(l) $432,590,000 to State agencies for grants to local governments for the acquisition, financing, architectural planning, development, alteration, installation, and construction of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land; and

(m) $203,500,000 for the Illinois Open Land Trust Program as defined by the Illinois Open Land Trust Act.

The amounts authorized above for capital facilities may be used for the acquisition, installation, alteration, construction, or reconstruction of capital facilities and for the purchase of equipment for the purpose of major capital improvements which will reduce energy consumption in State buildings or facilities.

(Source: P.A. 96-36, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(30 ILCS 330/7) (from Ch. 127, par. 657)

Sec. 7. Coal and Energy Development. The amount of $698,200,000 is authorized to be used by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity (formerly Department of Commerce and Community Affairs) for coal and energy development purposes, pursuant to Sections 2, 3 and 3.1 of the Illinois Coal and Energy Development Bond Act, for the purposes specified in Section 8.1 of the Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act, for the purposes specified in Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, and for the purpose of facility cost reports prepared pursuant to Sections 1-58 1-56 or 1-75(d)(4) of the Illinois Power Agency Act and for the purpose of development costs pursuant to Section 8.1 of the Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act. Of this amount:

(a) $115,000,000 is for the specific purposes of acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural and technical planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land for the purpose of capital development of coal resources within the State and for the purposes specified in Section 8.1 of the Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act;

(b) $35,000,000 is for the purposes specified in Section 8.1 of the Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act and making a grant to the owner of a generating station located in Illinois and having at least three coal-fired generating units with accredited summer capability greater than 500 megawatts each at such generating station as provided in Section 6 of that Bond Act;

(c) $13,200,000 is for research, development and demonstration of forms of energy other than that derived from coal, either on or off State property;

(d) $500,000,000 is for the purpose of providing financial assistance to new electric generating facilities as provided in Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois; and

(e) $35,000,000 is for the purpose of facility cost reports prepared for not more than one facility pursuant to Section 1-75(d)(4) of the Illinois Power Agency Act and not more than one facility pursuant to Section 1-58 1-56 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and for the purpose of up to $6,000,000 of development costs pursuant to Section 8.1 of the Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-1026, eff. 1-12-09; 96-781, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-13-09.)

Section 150. The Build Illinois Bond Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(30 ILCS 425/4) (from Ch. 127, par. 2804)

Sec. 4. Purposes of Bonds. Bonds shall be issued for the following purposes and in the approximate amounts as set forth below:

(a) $2,917,000,000 for the expenses of issuance and sale of Bonds, including bond discounts, and for planning, engineering, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, development, improvement and extension of the public infrastructure in the State of Illinois, including: the making of loans or grants to local governments for waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions and water distribution and purification facilities, rail or air or water port improvements, gas and electric utility extensions, publicly owned industrial and commercial sites, buildings used for public administration purposes and other public infrastructure capital improvements; the making of loans or grants to units of local government for financing and construction of wastewater facilities, including grants to serve unincorporated areas; refinancing or retiring bonds issued between January 1, 1987 and January 1, 1990 by home rule municipalities, debt service on which is provided from a tax imposed by home rule municipalities prior to January 1, 1990 on the sale of food and drugs pursuant to Section 8-11-1 of the Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or Section 8-11-5 of the Home Rule Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act; the making of deposits not to exceed $70,000,000 in the aggregate into the Water Pollution Control Revolving Fund to provide assistance in accordance with the provisions of Title IV-A of the Environmental Protection Act; the planning, engineering, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, alteration, expansion, extension and improvement of highways, bridges, structures separating highways and railroads, rest areas, interchanges, access roads to and from any State or local highway and other transportation improvement projects which are related to economic development activities; the making of loans or grants for planning, engineering, rehabilitation, improvement or construction of rail and transit facilities; the planning, engineering, acquisition, construction, reconstruction and improvement of watershed, drainage, flood control, recreation and related improvements and facilities, including expenses related to land and easement acquisition, relocation, control structures, channel work and clearing and appurtenant work; the making of grants for improvement and development of zoos and park district field houses and related structures; and the making of grants for improvement and development of Navy Pier and related structures.

(b) $196,000,000 for fostering economic development and increased employment and the well being of the citizens of Illinois, including: the making of grants for improvement and development of McCormick Place and related structures; the planning and construction of a microelectronics research center, including the planning, engineering, construction, improvement, renovation and acquisition of buildings, equipment and related utility support systems; the making of loans to businesses and investments in small businesses; acquiring real properties for industrial or commercial site development; acquiring, rehabilitating and reconveying industrial and commercial properties for the purpose of expanding employment and encouraging private and other public sector investment in the economy of Illinois; the payment of expenses associated with siting the Superconducting Super Collider Particle Accelerator in Illinois and with its acquisition, construction, maintenance, operation, promotion and support; the making of loans for the planning, engineering, acquisition, construction, improvement and conversion of facilities and equipment which will foster the use of Illinois coal; the payment of expenses associated with the promotion, establishment, acquisition and operation of small business incubator facilities and agribusiness research facilities, including the lease, purchase, renovation, planning, engineering, construction and maintenance of buildings, utility support systems and equipment designated for such purposes and the establishment and maintenance of centralized support services within such facilities; and the making of grants or loans to units of local government for Urban Development Action Grant and Housing Partnership programs.

(c) $1,352,358,100 for the development and improvement of educational, scientific, technical and vocational programs and facilities and the expansion of health and human services for all citizens of Illinois, including: the making of construction and improvement grants and loans to public libraries and library systems; the making of grants and loans for planning, engineering, acquisition and construction of a new State central library in Springfield; the planning, engineering, acquisition and construction of an animal and dairy sciences facility; the planning, engineering, acquisition and construction of a campus and all related buildings, facilities, equipment and materials for Richland Community College; the acquisition, rehabilitation and installation of equipment and materials for scientific and historical surveys; the making of grants or loans for distribution to eligible vocational education instructional programs for the upgrading of vocational education programs, school shops and laboratories, including the acquisition, rehabilitation and installation of technical equipment and materials; the making of grants or loans for distribution to eligible local educational agencies for the upgrading of math and science instructional programs, including the acquisition of instructional equipment and materials; miscellaneous capital improvements for universities and community colleges including the planning, engineering, construction, reconstruction, remodeling, improvement, repair and installation of capital facilities and costs of planning, supplies, equipment, materials, services, and all other required expenses; the making of grants or loans for repair, renovation and miscellaneous capital improvements for privately operated colleges and universities and community colleges, including the planning, engineering, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, remodeling, improvement, repair and installation of capital facilities and costs of planning, supplies, equipment, materials, services, and all other required expenses; and the making of grants or loans for distribution to local governments for hospital and other health care facilities including the planning, engineering, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, remodeling, improvement, repair and installation of capital facilities and costs of planning, supplies, equipment, materials, services and all other required expenses.

(d) $150,150,900 for protection, preservation, restoration and conservation of environmental and natural resources, including: the making of grants to soil and water conservation districts for the planning and implementation of conservation practices and for funding contracts with the Soil Conservation Service for watershed planning; the making of grants to units of local government for the capital development and improvement of recreation areas, including planning and engineering costs, sewer projects, including planning and engineering costs and water projects, including planning and engineering costs, and for the acquisition of open space lands, including the acquisition of easements and other property interests of less than fee simple ownership; the acquisition and related costs and development and management of natural heritage lands, including natural areas and areas providing habitat for endangered species and nongame wildlife, and buffer area lands; the acquisition and related costs and development and management of habitat lands, including forest, wildlife habitat and wetlands; and the removal and disposition of hazardous substances, including the cost of project management, equipment, laboratory analysis, and contractual services necessary for preventative and corrective actions related to the preservation, restoration and conservation of the environment, including deposits not to exceed $60,000,000 in the aggregate into the Hazardous Waste Fund and the Brownfields Redevelopment Fund for improvements in accordance with the provisions of Titles V and XVII of the Environmental Protection Act.

(e) The amount specified in paragraph (a) above shall include an amount necessary to pay reasonable expenses of each issuance and sale of the Bonds, as specified in the related Bond Sale Order (hereinafter defined).

(f) Any unexpended proceeds from any sale of Bonds which are held in the Build Illinois Bond Fund may be used to redeem, purchase, advance refund, or defease any Bonds outstanding.

(Source: P.A. 96-36, eff. 7-13-09; 96-503, eff. 8-14-09; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 155. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 20-80, 50-11, and 50-60 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/20-80)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-795)

Sec. 20-80. Contract files.

(a) Written determinations. All written determinations required under this Article shall be placed in the contract file maintained by the chief procurement officer.

(b) Filing with Comptroller. Whenever a grant, defined pursuant to accounting standards established by the Comptroller, or a contract liability, except for: (1) contracts paid from personal services, or (2) contracts between the State and its employees to defer compensation in accordance with Article 24 of the Illinois Pension Code, exceeding $10,000 is incurred by any State agency, a copy of the contract, purchase order, grant, or lease shall be filed with the Comptroller within 15 days thereafter. For each State contract for goods, supplies, or services awarded on or after July 1, 2010, the contracting agency shall provide the applicable rate and unit of measurement of the goods, supplies, or services on the contract obligation document as required by the Comptroller. If the contract obligation document that is submitted to the Comptroller contains the rate and unit of measurement of the goods, supplies, or services, the Comptroller shall provide that information on his or her official website. Any cancellation or modification to any such contract liability shall be filed with the Comptroller within 15 days of its execution.

(c) Late filing affidavit. When a contract, purchase order, grant, or lease required to be filed by this Section has not been filed within 30 days of execution, the Comptroller shall refuse to issue a warrant for payment thereunder until the agency files with the Comptroller the contract, purchase order, grant, or lease and an affidavit, signed by the chief executive officer of the agency or his or her designee, setting forth an explanation of why the contract liability was not filed within 30 days of execution. A copy of this affidavit shall be filed with the Auditor General.

(d) Professional and artistic services contracts. No voucher shall be submitted to the Comptroller for a warrant to be drawn for the payment of money from the State treasury or from other funds held by the State Treasurer on account of any contract for services involving professional or artistic skills involving an expenditure of more than $5,000 for the same type of service at the same location during any fiscal year unless the contract is reduced to writing before the services are performed and filed with the Comptroller. When a contract for professional or artistic skills in excess of $5,000 was not reduced to writing before the services were performed, the Comptroller shall refuse to issue a warrant for payment for the services until the State agency files with the Comptroller:

(1) a written contract covering the services, and

(2) an affidavit, signed by the chief executive officer of the State agency or his or her designee, stating that the services for which payment is being made were agreed to before commencement of the services and setting forth an explanation of why the contract was not reduced to writing before the services commenced.

A copy of this affidavit shall be filed with the Auditor General. The Comptroller shall maintain professional or artistic service contracts filed under this Section separately from other filed contracts.

(e) Method of source selection. When a contract is filed with the Comptroller under this Section, the Comptroller's file shall identify the method of source selection used in obtaining the contract.

(Source: P.A. 96-794, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-795)

Sec. 20-80. Contract files.

(a) Written determinations. All written determinations required under this Article shall be placed in the contract file maintained by the chief procurement officer.

(b) Filing with Comptroller. Whenever a grant, defined pursuant to accounting standards established by the Comptroller, or a contract liability, except for: (1) contracts paid from personal services, or (2) contracts between the State and its employees to defer compensation in accordance with Article 24 of the Illinois Pension Code, exceeding $10,000 is incurred by any State agency, a copy of the contract, purchase order, grant, or lease shall be filed with the Comptroller within 15 days thereafter. For each State contract for goods, supplies, or services awarded on or after July 1, 2010, the contracting agency shall provide the applicable rate and unit of measurement of the goods, supplies, or services on the contract obligation document as required by the Comptroller. If the contract obligation document that is submitted to the Comptroller contains the rate and unit of measurement of the goods, supplies, or services, the Comptroller shall provide that information on his or her official website. Any cancellation or modification to any such contract liability shall be filed with the Comptroller within 15 days of its execution.

(c) Late filing affidavit. When a contract, purchase order, grant, or lease required to be filed by this Section has not been filed within 30 days of execution, the Comptroller shall refuse to issue a warrant for payment thereunder until the agency files with the Comptroller the contract, purchase order, grant, or lease and an affidavit, signed by the chief executive officer of the agency or his or her designee, setting forth an explanation of why the contract liability was not filed within 30 days of execution. A copy of this affidavit shall be filed with the Auditor General.

(d) Timely execution of contracts. No voucher shall be submitted to the Comptroller for a warrant to be drawn for the payment of money from the State treasury or from other funds held by the State Treasurer on account of any contract unless the contract is reduced to writing before the services are performed and filed with the Comptroller. Vendors shall not be paid for any goods that were received or services that were rendered before the contract was reduced to writing and signed by all necessary parties. A chief procurement officer may request an exception to this subsection by submitting a written statement to the Comptroller and Treasurer setting forth the circumstances and reasons why the contract could not be reduced to writing before the supplies were received or services were performed. A waiver of this subsection must be approved by the Comptroller and Treasurer. A copy of this affidavit shall be filed with the Auditor General. This Section shall not apply to emergency purchases if notice of the emergency purchase is filed with the Procurement Policy Board and published in the Bulletin as required by this Code.

(e) Method of source selection. When a contract is filed with the Comptroller under this Section, the Comptroller's file shall identify the method of source selection used in obtaining the contract.

(Source: P.A. 96-794, eff. 1-1-10; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10; (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); revised 12-1-09.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-11)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-795)

Sec. 50-11. Debt delinquency.

(a) No person shall submit a bid for or enter into a contract with a State agency under this Code if that person knows or should know that he or she or any affiliate is delinquent in the payment of any debt to the State, unless the person or affiliate has entered into a deferred payment plan to pay off the debt. For purposes of this Section, the phrase "delinquent in the payment of any debt" shall be determined by the Debt Collection Bureau. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), a person controls an entity if the person owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

(b) Every bid submitted to and contract executed by the State shall contain a certification by the bidder or contractor that the contractor and its affiliate is not barred from being awarded a contract under this Section and that the contractor acknowledges that the contracting State agency may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (b) is false.

(Source: P.A. 96-493, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-795)

Sec. 50-11. Debt delinquency.

(a) No person shall submit a bid for or enter into a contract or subcontract under this Code if that person knows or should know that he or she or any affiliate is delinquent in the payment of any debt to the State, unless the person or affiliate has entered into a deferred payment plan to pay off the debt. For purposes of this Section, the phrase "delinquent in the payment of any debt" shall be determined by the Debt Collection Bureau. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), a person controls an entity if the person owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

(b) Every bid submitted to and contract executed by the State and every subcontract subject to Section 20-120 of this Code shall contain a certification by the bidder, contractor, or subcontractor, respectively, that the contractor or the subcontractor and its affiliate is not barred from being awarded a contract or subcontract under this Section and acknowledges that the chief procurement officer may declare the related contract void if any of the certifications completed pursuant to this subsection (b) are false.

(Source: P.A. 96-493, eff. 1-1-10; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); revised 12-1-09.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-60)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-795)

Sec. 50-60. Voidable contracts.

(a) If any contract is entered into or purchase or expenditure of funds is made in violation of this Code or any other law, the contract may be declared void by the chief procurement officer or may be ratified and affirmed, provided the chief procurement officer determines that ratification is in the best interests of the State. If the contract is ratified and affirmed, it shall be without prejudice to the State's rights to any appropriate damages.

(b) If, during the term of a contract, the contracting agency determines that the contractor is delinquent in the payment of debt as set forth in Section 50-11 of this Code, the State agency may declare the contract void if it determines that voiding the contract is in the best interests of the State. The Debt Collection Bureau shall adopt rules for the implementation of this subsection (b).

(c) If, during the term of a contract, the contracting agency determines that the contractor is in violation of Section 50-10.5 of this Code, the contracting agency shall declare the contract void.

(Source: P.A. 96-493, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-795)

Sec. 50-60. Voidable contracts.

(a) If any contract or amendment thereto is entered into or purchase or expenditure of funds is made at any time in violation of this Code or any other law, the contract or amendment thereto may be declared void by the chief procurement officer or may be ratified and affirmed, provided the chief procurement officer determines that ratification is in the best interests of the State. If the contract is ratified and affirmed, it shall be without prejudice to the State's rights to any appropriate damages.

(b) If, during the term of a contract, the chief procurement officer determines that the contractor is delinquent in the payment of debt as set forth in Section 50-11 of this Code, the chief procurement officer may declare the contract void if it determines that voiding the contract is in the best interests of the State. The Debt Collection Bureau shall adopt rules for the implementation of this subsection (b).

(c) If, during the term of a contract, the chief procurement officer determines that the contractor is in violation of Section 50-10.5 of this Code, the chief procurement officer shall declare the contract void.

(d) If, during the term of a contract, the contracting agency learns from an annual certification or otherwise determines that the contractor no longer qualifies to enter into State contracts by reason of Section 50-5, 50-10, 50-12, 50-14, or 50-14.5 of this Article, the chief procurement officer may declare the contract void if it determines that voiding the contract is in the best interests of the State.

(e) If, during the term of a contract, the chief procurement officer learns from an annual certification or otherwise determines that a subcontractor subject to Section 20-120 no longer qualifies to enter into State contracts by reason of Section 50-5, 50-10, 50-10.5, 50-11, 50-12, 50-14, or 50-14.5 of this Article, the chief procurement officer may declare the related contract void if it determines that voiding the contract is in the best interests of the State.

(f) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 96-795 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to actions taken by the chief procurement officer on or after July 1, 2010 its effective date.

(Source: P.A. 96-493, eff. 1-1-10; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); revised 12-1-09.)

Section 160. The State Prompt Payment Act is amended by changing Section 3-2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 540/3-2)

Sec. 3-2. Beginning July 1, 1993, in any instance where a State official or agency is late in payment of a vendor's bill or invoice for goods or services furnished to the State, as defined in Section 1, properly approved in accordance with rules promulgated under Section 3-3, the State official or agency shall pay interest to the vendor in accordance with the following:

(1) Any bill, except a bill submitted under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, approved for payment under this Section must be paid or the payment issued to the payee within 60 days of receipt of a proper bill or invoice. If payment is not issued to the payee within this 60 day period, an interest penalty of 1.0% of any amount approved and unpaid shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of this 60 day period, until final payment is made. Any bill submitted under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code approved for payment under this Section must be paid or the payment issued to the payee within 60 days after receipt of a proper bill or invoice, and, if payment is not issued to the payee within this 60-day period, an interest penalty of 2.0% of any amount approved and unpaid shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of this 60-day period, until final payment is made.

(1.1) A State agency shall review in a timely manner each bill or invoice after its receipt. If the State agency determines that the bill or invoice contains a defect making it unable to process the payment request, the agency shall notify the vendor requesting payment as soon as possible after discovering the defect pursuant to rules promulgated under Section 3-3; provided, however, that the notice for construction related bills or invoices must be given not later than 30 days after the bill or invoice was first submitted. The notice shall identify the defect and any additional information necessary to correct the defect. If one or more items on a construction related bill or invoice are disapproved, but not the entire bill or invoice, then the portion that is not disapproved shall be paid.

(2) Where a State official or agency is late in payment of a vendor's bill or invoice properly approved in accordance with this Act, and different late payment terms are not reduced to writing as a contractual agreement, the State official or agency shall automatically pay interest penalties required by this Section to the appropriate vendor. Each agency shall be responsible for determining whether an interest penalty is owed and for paying the interest to the vendor. In the event an individual has paid a vendor for services in advance, the provisions of this Section shall apply until payment is made to that individual.

(Source: P.A. 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; 96-802, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-25-09.)

Section 165. The Public Construction Bond Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 550/1) (from Ch. 29, par. 15)

Sec. 1. Except as otherwise provided by this Act, all officials, boards, commissions, or agents of this State in making contracts for public work of any kind costing over $50,000 to be performed for the State, and all officials, boards, commissions, or agents of any political subdivision of this State in making contracts for public work of any kind costing over $5,000 to be performed for the political subdivision, shall require every contractor for the work to furnish, supply and deliver a bond to the State, or to the political subdivision thereof entering into the contract, as the case may be, with good and sufficient sureties. The amount of the bond shall be fixed by the officials, boards, commissions, commissioners or agents, and the bond, among other conditions, shall be conditioned for the completion of the contract, for the payment of material used in the work and for all labor performed in the work, whether by subcontractor or otherwise.

If the contract is for emergency repairs as provided in the Illinois Procurement Code, proof of payment for all labor, materials, apparatus, fixtures, and machinery may be furnished in lieu of the bond required by this Section.

Each such bond is deemed to contain the following provisions whether such provisions are inserted in such bond or not:

"The principal and sureties on this bond agree that all the undertakings, covenants, terms, conditions and agreements of the contract or contracts entered into between the principal and the State or any political subdivision thereof will be performed and fulfilled and to pay all persons, firms and corporations having contracts with the principal or with subcontractors, all just claims due them under the provisions of such contracts for labor performed or materials furnished in the performance of the contract on account of which this bond is given, when such claims are not satisfied out of the contract price of the contract on account of which this bond is given, after final settlement between the officer, board, commission or agent of the State or of any political subdivision thereof and the principal has been made.".

Each bond securing contracts between the Capital Development Board or any board of a public institution of higher education and a contractor shall contain the following provisions, whether the provisions are inserted in the bond or not:

"Upon the default of the principal with respect to undertakings, covenants, terms, conditions, and agreements, the termination of the contractor's right to proceed with the work, and written notice of that default and termination by the State or any political subdivision to the surety ("Notice"), the surety shall promptly remedy the default by taking one of the following actions:

(1) The surety shall complete the work pursuant to a written takeover agreement, using a completing contractor jointly selected by the surety and the State or any political subdivision; or

(2) The surety shall pay a sum of money to the obligee, up to the penal sum of the bond, that represents the reasonable cost to complete the work that exceeds the unpaid balance of the contract sum.

The surety shall respond to the Notice within 15 working days of receipt indicating the course of action that it intends to take or advising that it requires more time to investigate the default and select a course of action. If the surety requires more than 15 working days to investigate the default and select a course of action or if the surety elects to complete the work with a completing contractor that is not prepared to commence performance within 15 working days after receipt of Notice, and if the State or any political subdivision determines it is in the best interest of the State to maintain the progress of the work, the State or any political subdivision may continue to work until the completing contractor is prepared to commence performance. Unless otherwise agreed to by the procuring agency, in no case may the surety take longer than 30 working days to advise the State or political subdivision on the course of action it intends to take. The surety shall be liable for reasonable costs incurred by the State or any political subdivision to maintain the progress to the extent the costs exceed the unpaid balance of the contract sum, subject to the penal sum of the bond.".

The surety bond required by this Section may be acquired from the company, agent or broker of the contractor's choice. The bond and sureties shall be subject to the right of reasonable approval or disapproval, including suspension, by the State or political subdivision thereof concerned. In the case of State construction contracts, a contractor shall not be required to post a cash bond or letter of credit in addition to or as a substitute for the surety bond required by this Section.

When other than motor fuel tax funds, federal-aid funds, or other funds received from the State are used, a political subdivision may allow the contractor to provide a non-diminishing irrevocable bank letter of credit, in lieu of the bond required by this Section, on contracts under $100,000 to comply with the requirements of this Section. Any such bank letter of credit shall contain all provisions required for bonds by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-1011, eff. 12-15-08; revised 10-30-09.)

(30 ILCS 550/3)

Sec. 3. Builder or developer cash bond or other surety.

(a) A county or municipality may not require a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company from a builder or developer to guarantee completion of a project improvement when the builder or developer has filed with the county or municipal clerk a current, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company, deemed good and sufficient by the county or municipality accepting such security, in an amount equal to or greater than 110% of the amount of the bid on each project improvement. A builder or developer has the option to utilize a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment, issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company, deemed good and sufficient by the county or municipality, to satisfy any cash bond requirement established by a county or municipality. Except for a municipality or county with a population of 1,000,000 or more, the county or municipality must approve and deem a surety or insurance company good and sufficient for the purposes set forth in this Section if the surety or insurance company is authorized by the Illinois Department of Insurance to sell and issue sureties in the State of Illinois.

(b) If a county or municipality receives a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, or surety bond from a builder or developer to guarantee completion of a project improvement, the county or municipality shall (i) register the bond under the address of the project and the construction permit number and (ii) give the builder or developer a receipt for the bond. The county or municipality shall establish and maintain a separate account for all cash bonds received from builders and developers to guarantee completion of a project improvement.

(c) The county or municipality shall refund a cash bond to a builder or developer, or release the irrevocable letter of credit or surety bond, within 60 days after the builder or developer notifies the county or municipality in writing of the completion of the project improvement for which the bond was required. For these purposes, "completion" means that the county or municipality has determined that the project improvement for which the bond was required is complete or a licensed engineer or licensed architect has certified to the builder or developer and the county or municipality that the project improvement has been completed to the applicable codes and ordinances. The county or municipality shall pay interest to the builder or developer, beginning 60 days after the builder or developer notifies the county or municipality in writing of the completion of the project improvement, on any bond not refunded to a builder or developer, at the rate of 1% per month.

(d) A home rule county or municipality may not require or maintain cash bonds, irrevocable letters of credit, surety bonds, or letters of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company from builders or developers in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section supersedes supercedes and controls over other provisions of the Counties Code or Illinois Municipal Code as they apply to and guarantee completion of a project improvement that is required by the county or municipality, regardless of whether the project improvement is a condition of annexation agreements. This Section is a denial and limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by a home rule county or municipality of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 92-479, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 170. The Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 4 as follows:

(30 ILCS 575/2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-795)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2010)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall have the following definitions:

(1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is:

(a) African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups in Africa);

(b) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of race);

(c) Asian American (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands); or

(d) Native American or Alaskan Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America).

(2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is of the female gender.

(2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person qualifying as being disabled under subdivision (2.1) of this subsection (A).

(2.1) "Disabled" means a severe physical or mental disability that:

(a) results from:

amputation,

arthritis,

autism,

blindness,

burn injury,

cancer,

cerebral palsy,

Crohn's disease,

cystic fibrosis,

deafness,

head injury,

heart disease,

hemiplegia,

hemophilia,

respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,

mental retardation,

mental illness,

multiple sclerosis,

muscular dystrophy,

musculoskeletal disorders,

neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,

paraplegia,

quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,

sickle cell anemia,

ulcerative colitis,

specific learning disabilities, or

end stage renal failure disease; and

(b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

Another disability or combination of disabilities may also be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item (a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this subdivision (2.1).

(3) "Minority owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

(4) "Female owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

(4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

(4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created under Section 5 of this Act.

(5) "State contracts" shall mean all State contracts, funded exclusively with State funds which are not subject to federal reimbursement, whether competitively bid or negotiated as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the Council.

"State construction contracts" means all State contracts entered into by a State agency or State university for the repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers, boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or other local governmental units, or other State constitutional officers.

(7) "State universities" shall mean the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, and the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University.

(8) "Certification" means a determination made by the Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority to make such a certification, that a business entity is a business owned by a minority, female, or person with a disability for whatever purpose.

(9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole control of the business including, but not limited to, capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

(10) "Business concern or business" means a business that has average annual gross sales over the 3 most recent calendar years of less than $31,400,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.

(B) When a business concern is owned at least 51% by any combination of minority persons, females, or persons with disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of this Act is considered to be met. The certification category for the business is that of the class holding the largest ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be determined by the Department of Central Management Services.

(Source: P.A. 95-344, eff. 8-21-07; 96-453, eff. 8-14-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-795)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2010)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall have the following definitions:

(1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is:

(a) African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups in Africa);

(b) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of race);

(c) Asian American (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands); or

(d) Native American or Alaskan Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America).

(2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is of the female gender.

(2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person qualifying as being disabled under subdivision (2.1) of this subsection (A).

(2.1) "Disabled" means a severe physical or mental disability that:

(a) results from:

amputation,

arthritis,

autism,

blindness,

burn injury,

cancer,

cerebral palsy,

Crohn's disease,

cystic fibrosis,

deafness,

head injury,

heart disease,

hemiplegia,

hemophilia,

respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,

mental retardation,

mental illness,

multiple sclerosis,

muscular dystrophy,

musculoskeletal disorders,

neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,

paraplegia,

quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,

sickle cell anemia,

ulcerative colitis,

specific learning disabilities, or

end stage renal failure disease; and

(b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

Another disability or combination of disabilities may also be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item (a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this subdivision (2.1).

(3) "Minority owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

(4) "Female owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

(4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

(4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created under Section 5 of this Act.

(5) "State contracts" shall mean all State contracts, funded exclusively with State funds which are not subject to federal reimbursement, whether competitively bid or negotiated as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the Council.

"State construction contracts" means all State contracts entered into by a State agency or State university for the repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers, boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or other local governmental units, or other State constitutional officers.

(7) "State universities" shall mean the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, and the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University.

(8) "Certification" means a determination made by the Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority to make such a certification, that a business entity is a business owned by a minority, female, or person with a disability for whatever purpose. A business owned and controlled by females shall select and designate whether such business is to be certified as a "Female-owned business" or "Minority-owned business" if the females are also minorities.

(9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole control of the business including, but not limited to, capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

(10) "Business concern or business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.

(B) When a business concern is owned at least 51% by any combination of minority persons, females, or persons with disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of this Act is considered to be met. The certification category for the business is that of the class holding the largest ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be determined by the business concern.

(Source: P.A. 95-344, eff. 8-21-07; 96-453, eff. 8-14-09; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); revised 12-1-09.)

(30 ILCS 575/4) (from Ch. 127, par. 132.604)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-795)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2010)

Sec. 4. Award of State contracts.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), not less than 12% of the total dollar amount of State contracts, as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the Council, shall be established as a goal to be awarded to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities; provided, however, that contracts representing at least five-twelfths of the total amount of all State contracts awarded to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities pursuant to this Section shall be awarded to female owned businesses, and that contracts representing at least one-sixth of the total amount of all State contracts awarded to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities pursuant to this Section shall be awarded to businesses owned by persons with disabilities.

The above percentage relates to the total dollar amount of State contracts during each State fiscal year, calculated by examining independently each type of contract for each agency or university which lets such contracts. Only that percentage of arrangements which represents the participation of businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities on such contracts shall be included.

(b) In the case of State construction contracts, the provisions of subsection (a) requiring a portion of State contracts to be awarded to businesses owned and controlled by persons with disabilities do not apply. Not less than 10% of the total dollar amount of State construction contracts is established as a goal to be awarded to minority and female owned businesses, and contracts representing 50% of the amount of all State construction contracts awarded to minority and female owned businesses shall be awarded to female owned businesses.

(c) In the case of all work undertaken by the University of Illinois related to the planning, organization, and staging of the games, the University of Illinois shall establish a goal of awarding not less than 25% of the annual dollar value of all contracts, purchase orders, and other agreements (collectively referred to as "the contracts") to minority-owned businesses or businesses owned by a person with a disability and 5% of the annual dollar value the contracts to female-owned businesses. For purposes of this subsection, the term "games" has the meaning set forth in the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law.

(d) (c) Within one year after April 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-8) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Department of Central Management Services shall conduct a social scientific study that measures the impact of discrimination on minority and female business development in Illinois. Within 18 months after April 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-8) this amendatory Act, the Department shall issue a report of its findings and any recommendations on whether to adjust the goals for minority and female participation established in this Act. Copies of this report and the social scientific study shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly.

(e) (c) Those who submit bids or proposals for State contracts shall not be given a period after the bid or proposal is submitted to cure deficiencies in the bid or proposal under this Act unless mandated by federal law or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-8, eff. 4-28-09; 96-706, eff. 8-25-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-795)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2010)

Sec. 4. Award of State contracts.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), not less than 20% of the total dollar amount of State contracts, as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the Council, shall be established as a goal to be awarded to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities; provided, however, that of the total amount of all State contracts awarded to businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities pursuant to this Section, contracts representing at least 11% shall be awarded to businesses owned by minorities, contracts representing at least 7% shall be awarded to female-owned businesses, and contracts representing at least 2% shall be awarded to businesses owned by persons with disabilities.

The above percentage relates to the total dollar amount of State contracts during each State fiscal year, calculated by examining independently each type of contract for each agency or university which lets such contracts. Only that percentage of arrangements which represents the participation of businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities on such contracts shall be included.

(b) In the case of State construction contracts, the provisions of subsection (a) requiring a portion of State contracts to be awarded to businesses owned and controlled by persons with disabilities do not apply. Not less than 10% of the total dollar amount of State construction contracts is established as a goal to be awarded to minority and female owned businesses, and contracts representing 50% of the amount of all State construction contracts awarded to minority and female owned businesses shall be awarded to female owned businesses.

(c) In the case of all work undertaken by the University of Illinois related to the planning, organization, and staging of the games, the University of Illinois shall establish a goal of awarding not less than 25% of the annual dollar value of all contracts, purchase orders, and other agreements (collectively referred to as "the contracts") to minority-owned businesses or businesses owned by a person with a disability and 5% of the annual dollar value the contracts to female-owned businesses. For purposes of this subsection, the term "games" has the meaning set forth in the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law.

(d) Within one year after April 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-8), the Department of Central Management Services shall conduct a social scientific study that measures the impact of discrimination on minority and female business development in Illinois. Within 18 months after April 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-8), the Department shall issue a report of its findings and any recommendations on whether to adjust the goals for minority and female participation established in this Act. Copies of this report and the social scientific study shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly.

(e) (c) Those who submit bids or proposals for State contracts shall not be given a period after the bid or proposal is submitted to cure deficiencies in the bid or proposal under this Act unless mandated by federal law or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-8, eff. 4-28-09; 96-706, eff. 8-25-09; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); revised 11-4-09.)

Section 175. The State Property Control Act is amended by changing Section 7.1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 605/7.1) (from Ch. 127, par. 133b10.1)

Sec. 7.1. (a) Except as otherwise provided by law, all surplus real property held by the State of Illinois shall be disposed of by the administrator as provided in this Section. "Surplus real property," as used in this Section, means any real property to which the State holds fee simple title or lesser interest, and is vacant, unoccupied or unused and which has no foreseeable use by the owning agency.

(b) All responsible officers shall submit an Annual Real Property Utilization Report to the Administrator, or annual update of such report, on forms required by the Administrator, by July 31 of each year. The Administrator may require such documentation as he deems reasonably necessary in connection with this Report, and shall require that such Report include the following information:

(1) A legal description of all real property owned by the State under the control of the responsible officer.

(2) A description of the use of the real property listed under (1).

(3) A list of any improvements made to such real property during the previous year.

(4) The dates on which the State first acquired its interest in such real property, and the purchase price and source of the funds used to acquire the property.

(5) Plans for the future use of currently unused real property.

(6) A declaration of any surplus real property. On or before October 31 of each year the Administrator shall furnish copies of each responsible officer's report along with a list of surplus property indexed by legislative district to the General Assembly.

This report shall be filed with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and shall be duplicated and made available to the members of the General Assembly for evaluation by such members for possible liquidation of unused public property at public sale.

(c) Following receipt of the Annual Real Property Utilization Report required under paragraph (b), the Administrator shall notify all State agencies by October 31 of all declared surplus real property. Any State agency may submit a written request to the Administrator, within 60 days of the date of such notification, to have control of surplus real property transferred to that agency. Such request must indicate the reason for the transfer and the intended use to be made of such surplus real property. The Administrator may deny any or all such requests by a State agency or agencies if the Administrator determines that it is more advantageous to the State to dispose of the surplus real property under paragraph (d). In case requests for the same surplus real property are received from more than one State agency, the Administrator shall weigh the benefits to the State and determine to which agency, if any, to transfer control of such property. The Administrator shall coordinate the use and disposal of State surplus real property with any State space utilization program.

(d) Any surplus real property which is not transferred to the control of another State agency under paragraph (c) shall be disposed of by the Administrator. No appraisal is required if during his initial survey of surplus real property the Administrator determines such property has a fair market value of less than $5,000. If the value of such property is determined by the Administrator in his initial survey to be $5,000 or more, then the Administrator shall obtain 3 appraisals of such real property, one of which shall be performed by an appraiser residing in the county in which said surplus real property is located. The average of these 3 appraisals, plus the costs of obtaining the appraisals, shall represent the fair market value of the surplus real property. No surplus real property may be conveyed by the Administrator for less than the fair market value. Prior to offering the surplus real property for sale to the public the Administrator shall give notice in writing of the existence and fair market value of the surplus real property to the governing bodies of the county and of all cities, villages and incorporated towns in the county in which such real property is located. Any such governing body may exercise its option to acquire the surplus real property for the fair market value within 60 days of the notice. After the 60 day period has passed, the Administrator may sell the surplus real property by public auction following notice of such sale by publication on 3 separate days not less than 15 nor more than 30 days prior to the sale in the State newspaper and in a newspaper having general circulation in the county in which the surplus real property is located. The Administrator shall post "For Sale" signs of a conspicuous nature on such surplus real property offered for sale to the public. If no acceptable offers for the surplus real property are received, the Administrator may have new appraisals of such property made. The Administrator shall have all power necessary to convey surplus real property under this Section. All moneys received for the sale of surplus real property shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund, except that:

(1) Where moneys expended for the acquisition of such real property were from a special fund which is still a special fund in the State treasury, this special fund shall be reimbursed in the amount of the original expenditure and any amount in excess thereof shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund.

(2) Whenever a State mental health facility operated by the Department of Human Services is closed and the real estate on which the facility is located is sold by the State, the net proceeds of the sale of the real estate shall be deposited into the Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund.

(3) Whenever a State developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services is closed and the real estate on which the facility is located is sold by the State, the net proceeds of the sale of the real estate shall be deposited into the Community Developmental Disability Services Medicaid Trust Fund.

The Administrator shall have authority to order such surveys, abstracts of title, or commitments for title insurance as may, in his reasonable discretion, be deemed necessary to demonstrate to prospective purchasers or bidders good and marketable title in any property offered for sale pursuant to this Section. Unless otherwise specifically authorized by the General Assembly, all conveyances of property made by the Administrator shall be by quit claim deed.

(e) The Administrator shall submit an annual report on or before February 1 to the Governor and the General Assembly containing a detailed statement of surplus real property either transferred or conveyed under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-527, eff. 1-1-10; 96-660, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 180. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.32 and 8.33 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.32)

Sec. 8.32. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 95-741, 95-812, 95-875, 95-910, 95-950, or 95-978, 95-1015, 95-1036, 95-1049, or 95-1056 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 95-741, eff. 7-18-08; 95-812, eff. 8-13-08; 95-875, eff. 1-1-09; 95-910, eff. 8-26-08; 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1015, eff. 12-15-08; 95-1036, eff. 2-17-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 95-1056, eff. 4-10-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-19-09.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.33)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-410)

Sec. 8.33. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of Section 5-42 of the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 96-139, 96-251, 96-260, 96-285, 96-297, 96-299, 96-343, 96-357, 96-429, 96-494, 96-505, 96-621, 96-650, 96-727, 96-745, 96-749, and 96-775 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-251, eff. 8-11-09; 96-260, eff. 8-11-09; 96-285, eff. 8-11-09; 96-297, eff. 8-11-09; 96-299, eff. 8-11-09; 96-299, eff. 8-11-09; 96-343, eff. 8-11-09; 96-357, eff. 8-13-09; 96-429, eff. 8-13-09; 96-494, eff. 8-14-09; 96-505, eff. 8-14-09; 96-621, eff. 1-1-10; 96-650, eff. 1-1-10; 96-727, eff. 8-25-09; 96-745, eff. 8-25-09; 96-749, eff. 1-1-10; 96-775, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-410)

Sec. 8.33. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of Section 5-42 of the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 96-139, 96-251, 96-260, 96-285, 96-297, 96-299, 96-343, 96-357, 96-410, 96-429, 96-494, 96-505, 96-621, 96-650, 96-727, 96-745, 96-749, and 96-775 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-251, eff. 8-11-09; 96-260, eff. 8-11-09; 96-285, eff. 8-11-09; 96-297, eff. 8-11-09; 96-299, eff. 8-11-09; 96-299, eff. 8-11-09; 96-343, eff. 8-11-09; 96-357, eff. 8-13-09; 96-410, eff. 7-1-10; 96-429, eff. 8-13-09; 96-494, eff. 8-14-09; 96-505, eff. 8-14-09; 96-621, eff. 1-1-10; 96-650, eff. 1-1-10; 96-727, eff. 8-25-09; 96-745, eff. 8-25-09; 96-749, eff. 1-1-10; 96-775, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-21-09.)

Section 185. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 201, 606, and 807 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 507SS as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/201) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-201)

Sec. 201. Tax Imposed.

(a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by subsection (d-1):

(1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979. Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January 1, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax (excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except that for purposes of this determination premiums from reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act, shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes a mutual insurer under common management.

(1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:

(A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all credits allowed under this Act, plus

(B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,

equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31, 2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b) and (d).

(2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i) has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by subsection (d).

This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for investment in qualified property.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year other than the year in which the property was placed in service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and (ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all such certifications immediately. For tax years ending after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(2) The term "qualified property" means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings and signs that are real property, but not including land or improvements to real property that are not a structural component of a building such as landscaping, sewer lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and other appurtenances;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (e);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; and

(E) has not previously been used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (e) or subsection (f).

(3) For purposes of this subsection (e), "manufacturing" means the material staging and production of tangible personal property by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or assembling which changes some existing material into new shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale, or services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible personal property for use or consumption and not for resale. For purposes of this subsection (e), "tangible personal property" has the same meaning as when that term is used in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, for taxable years ending after December 31, 2008, does not include the generation, transmission, or distribution of electricity.

(4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law, the basis of qualified property shall not include costs incurred after December 31, 2013, except for costs incurred pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before December 31, 2013.

(9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000, a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the credits to which the partnership is entitled under this subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. If the partnership makes that election, those credits shall be allocated among the partners in the partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits shall be irrevocable.

For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000, a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation, determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge Redevelopment Zone.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (f);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and

(E) has not been previously used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (f) or subsection (e).

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.

(g) Jobs Tax Credit; Enterprise Zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, and Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone.

(1) A taxpayer conducting a trade or business in an enterprise zone or a High Impact Business designated by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2006, in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone conducting a trade or business in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section in the amount of $500 per eligible employee hired to work in the zone during the taxable year.

(2) To qualify for the credit:

(A) the taxpayer must hire 5 or more eligible employees to work in an enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone during the taxable year;

(B) the taxpayer's total employment within the enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone must increase by 5 or more full-time employees beyond the total employed in that zone at the end of the previous tax year for which a jobs tax credit under this Section was taken, or beyond the total employed by the taxpayer as of December 31, 1985, whichever is later; and

(C) the eligible employees must be employed 180 consecutive days in order to be deemed hired for purposes of this subsection.

(3) An "eligible employee" means an employee who is:

(A) Certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity as "eligible for services" pursuant to regulations promulgated in accordance with Title II of the Job Training Partnership Act, Training Services for the Disadvantaged or Title III of the Job Training Partnership Act, Employment and Training Assistance for Dislocated Workers Program.

(B) Hired after the enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone was designated or the trade or business was located in that zone, whichever is later.

(C) Employed in the enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone. An employee is employed in an enterprise zone or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone if his services are rendered there or it is the base of operations for the services performed.

(D) A full-time employee working 30 or more hours per week.

(4) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985 and prior to December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the eligible employees are hired. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year immediately following the tax year in which the eligible employees are hired. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(5) The Department of Revenue shall promulgate such rules and regulations as may be deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this subsection (g).

(6) The credit shall be available for eligible employees hired on or after January 1, 1986.

(h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.

(1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service by a Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the minimum investments in qualified property set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the taxable year in which such investments have been completed. The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum investment by a designated high impact business authorized under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act 88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and reflect existing law.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (h);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this Section.

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year ending on or before December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section 18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).

(i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first.

If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31, 1986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.

(j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31, 2003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

(k) Research and development credit.

For tax years ending after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures" means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal credit for increasing research activities which would be allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State" means the excess of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period, "qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being made.

Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5 taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from 2 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest year will be applied first against the tax liability for the given year. If a tax liability for the given year still remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the credit is given was incurred.

No inference shall be drawn from this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly in construing this Section for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1999.

(l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.

(i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i). This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the custodian of qualifying pupils exceed $500. In no event shall a credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability under this Act to less than zero. This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of 21 at the close of the school year for which a credit is sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in this subsection.

"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition, book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is enrolled during the regular school year.

"School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code, except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for the credit under this Section.

"Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.

(n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax credit.

(i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(iv) This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(Source: P.A. 95-454, eff. 8-27-07; 96-115, eff. 7-31-09; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(35 ILCS 5/507SS)

Sec. 507SS. The hunger relief checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2009, the Department shall print, on its standard individual income tax form, a provision indicating that, if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Hunger Relief Fund, as authorized by Public Act 96-604 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, then he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and indicating that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. The taxpayer's failure to remit any amount of the increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 96-604, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-7-09.)

(35 ILCS 5/507TT)

Sec. 507TT 507SS. The crisis nursery checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2009, the Department shall print, on its standard individual income tax form, a provision indicating that, if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Crisis Nursery Fund, as authorized by Public Act 96-627 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, then he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and indicating that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. The taxpayer's failure to remit any amount of the increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 96-627, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-7-09.)

(35 ILCS 5/606)

Sec. 606. EDGE payment. A payment includes a payment provided for in subsection (g) (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-836, eff. 12-16-09; revised 12-22-09.)

(35 ILCS 5/807)

Sec. 807. EDGE payment. A payment includes a payment provided for in subsection (g) (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-836, eff. 12-16-09; revised 12-22-09.)

Section 190. The Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 5-15 as follows:

(35 ILCS 10/5-15)

Sec. 5-15. Tax Credit Awards. Subject to the conditions set forth in this Act, a Taxpayer is entitled to a Credit against or, as described in subsection (g) (f) of this Section, a payment towards taxes imposed pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act that may be imposed on the Taxpayer for a taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1999, if the Taxpayer is awarded a Credit by the Department under this Act for that taxable year.

(a) The Department shall make Credit awards under this Act to foster job creation and retention in Illinois.

(b) A person that proposes a project to create new jobs in Illinois must enter into an Agreement with the Department for the Credit under this Act.

(c) The Credit shall be claimed for the taxable years specified in the Agreement.

(d) The Credit shall not exceed the Incremental Income Tax attributable to the project that is the subject of the Agreement.

(e) Nothing herein shall prohibit a Tax Credit Award to an Applicant that uses a PEO if all other award criteria are satisfied.

(f) In lieu of the Credit allowed under this Act against the taxes imposed pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act for any taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2009, the Taxpayer may elect to claim the Credit against its obligation to pay over withholding under Section 704A of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(1) The election under this subsection (f) may be made only by a Taxpayer that (i) is primarily engaged in one of the following business activities: motor vehicle metal stamping, automobile manufacturing, automobile and light duty motor vehicle manufacturing, motor vehicle manufacturing, light truck and utility vehicle manufacturing, or motor vehicle body manufacturing and (ii) meets the following criteria:

(A) the Taxpayer (i) had an Illinois net loss or an Illinois net loss deduction under Section 207 of the Illinois Income Tax Act for the taxable year in which the Credit is awarded, (ii) employed a minimum of 1,000 full-time employees in this State during the taxable year in which the Credit is awarded, (iii) has an Agreement under this Act on December 14, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-834) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, and (iv) is in compliance with all provisions of that Agreement; or

(B) the Taxpayer (i) had an Illinois net loss or an Illinois net loss deduction under Section 207 of the Illinois Income Tax Act for the taxable year in which the Credit is awarded, (ii) employed a minimum of 1,000 full-time employees in this State during the taxable year in which the Credit is awarded, and (iii) has applied for an Agreement within 180 days after December 14, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-834) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(2) An election under this subsection shall allow the credit to be taken against payments otherwise due under Section 704A of the Illinois Income Tax Act during the first calendar year beginning after the end of the taxable year in which the credit is awarded under this Act.

(3) The election shall be made in the form and manner required by the Illinois Department of Revenue and, once made, shall be irrevocable.

(4) If a Taxpayer who meets the requirements of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (f) elects to claim the Credit against its withholdings as provided in this subsection (f), then, on and after the date of the election, the terms of the Agreement between the Taxpayer and the Department may not be further amended during the term of the Agreement.

(g) (f) A pass-through entity that has been awarded a credit under this Act, its shareholders, or its partners may treat some or all of the credit awarded pursuant to this Act as a tax payment for purposes of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The term "tax payment" means a payment as described in Article 6 or Article 8 of the Illinois Income Tax Act or a composite payment made by a pass-through entity on behalf of any of its shareholders or partners to satisfy such shareholders' or partners' taxes imposed pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. In no event shall the amount of the award credited pursuant to this Act exceed the Illinois income tax liability of the pass-through entity or its shareholders or partners for the taxable year.

(Source: P.A. 95-375, eff. 8-23-07; 96-834, eff. 12-14-09; 96-836, eff. 12-16-09; revised 12-21-09.)

Section 195. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act.

(31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(36) (35) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the MR/DD Community Care Act.

(31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(36) (35) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(35 ILCS 105/3-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of the tangible personal property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling price of the property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail. For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of like kind and character in Illinois.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel and biodiesel blends with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(35 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.10)

Sec. 10. Except as to motor vehicles, aircraft, watercraft, and trailers, and except as to cigarettes as defined in the Cigarette Use Tax Act, when tangible personal property is purchased from a retailer for use in this State by a purchaser who did not pay the tax imposed by this Act to the retailer, and who does not file returns with the Department as a retailer under Section 9 of this Act, such purchaser (by the last day of the month following the calendar month in which such purchaser makes any payment upon the selling price of such property) shall, except as provided in this Section, file a return with the Department and pay the tax upon that portion of the selling price so paid by the purchaser during the preceding calendar month. When tangible personal property, including but not limited to motor vehicles and aircraft, is purchased by a lessor, under a lease for one year or longer, executed or in effect at the time of purchase to an interstate carrier for hire, who did not pay the tax imposed by this Act to the retailer, such lessor (by the last day of the month following the calendar month in which such property reverts to the use of such lessor) shall file a return with the Department and pay the tax upon the fair market value of such property on the date of such reversion. However, in determining the fair market value at the time of reversion, the fair market value of such property shall not exceed the original purchase price of the property that was paid by the lessor at the time of purchase. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. Such return and payment from the purchaser shall be submitted to the Department sooner than the last day of the month after the month in which the purchase is made to the extent that that may be necessary in order to secure the title to a motor vehicle or the certificate of registration for an aircraft. However, except as to motor vehicles and aircraft, and except as to cigarettes as defined in the Cigarette Use Tax Act, if the purchaser's annual use tax liability does not exceed $600, the purchaser may file the return on an annual basis on or before April 15th of the year following the year use tax liability was incurred.

If cigarettes, as defined in the Cigarette Use Tax Act, are purchased from a retailer for use in this State by a purchaser who did not pay the tax imposed by this Act to the retailer, and who does not file returns with the Department as a retailer under Section 9 of this Act, such purchaser must, within 30 days after acquiring the cigarettes, file a return with the Department and pay the tax upon that portion of the selling price so paid by the purchaser for the cigarettes.

In addition with respect to motor vehicles, aircraft, watercraft, and trailers, a purchaser of such tangible personal property for use in this State, who purchases such tangible personal property from an out-of-state retailer, shall file with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a return for each such item of tangible personal property purchased, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a purchaser of motor vehicles, aircraft, watercraft, or trailers who is a retailer of motor vehicles, aircraft, watercraft, or trailers purchases more than one motor vehicle, aircraft, watercraft, or trailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a purchaser of motor vehicles, aircraft, watercraft, or trailers purchases more than one motor vehicle, aircraft, watercraft, or trailer for use as qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 3-55 of this Act, then the purchaser may report the purchase of all motor vehicles, aircraft, watercraft, or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on a single return prescribed by the Department. Such return in the case of motor vehicles and aircraft must show the name and address of the seller, the name, address of purchaser, the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the purchaser with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such return shall be filed not later than 30 days after such motor vehicle or aircraft is brought into this State for use.

For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

The return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the tax that is imposed by this Act may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such return, the purchaser shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

When a purchaser pays a tax imposed by this Act directly to the Department, the Department (upon request therefor from such purchaser) shall issue an appropriate receipt to such purchaser showing that he has paid such tax to the Department. Such receipt shall be sufficient to relieve the purchaser from further liability for the tax to which such receipt may refer.

A user who is liable to pay use tax directly to the Department only occasionally and not on a frequently recurring basis, and who is not required to file returns with the Department as a retailer under Section 9 of this Act, or under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act", or as a registrant with the Department under the "Service Occupation Tax Act" or the "Service Use Tax Act", need not register with the Department. However, if such a user has a frequently recurring direct use tax liability to pay to the Department, such user shall be required to register with the Department on forms prescribed by the Department and to obtain and display a certificate of registration from the Department. In that event, all of the provisions of Section 9 of this Act concerning the filing of regular monthly, quarterly or annual tax returns and all of the provisions of Section 2a of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" concerning the requirements for registrants to post bond or other security with the Department, as the provisions of such sections now exist or may hereafter be amended, shall apply to such users to the same extent as if such provisions were included herein.

(Source: P.A. 96-520, eff. 8-14-09; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 200. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(28) (27) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the MR/DD Community Care Act.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(28) (27) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the MR/DD Community Care Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 205. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2011, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) (28) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the MR/DD Community Care Act.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2011, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) (28) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the MR/DD Community Care Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 210. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5 and 2-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(5) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the purchaser.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(22) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article 5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2011, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(41) (40) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-233, eff. 8-16-07; 95-304, eff. 8-20-07; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(5) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the purchaser.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(22) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2011, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the MR/DD Community Care Act.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2011, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(41) (40) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-233, eff. 8-16-07; 95-304, eff. 8-20-07; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property made in the course of business.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Within 14 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, each retailer of motor fuel and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4 inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each retail premises where a violation occurs.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 215. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-170, 15-172, and 18-185 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-170)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal, equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $3,500 and, for taxable years 2008 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties.

For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility, for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a life care contract as defined in that Act.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or the Nursing Home Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

A person who will be 65 years of age during the current assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his residence.

Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in 2004, property that is first occupied as a residence after January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year. The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days during the assessment year the property is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited the exemption.

The chief county assessment officer of each county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the property of the person receiving the exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of such an executed designation requires the county collector to provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the chief county assessment officer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the exemption.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual application for verification of eligibility for an exemption once granted under this Section, the application shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number of county collector, and a statement that applications for deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county collector.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal, equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $3,500 and, for taxable years 2008 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties.

For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility, for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a life care contract as defined in that Act.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act, or the MR/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

A person who will be 65 years of age during the current assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his residence.

Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in 2004, property that is first occupied as a residence after January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year. The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days during the assessment year the property is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited the exemption.

The chief county assessment officer of each county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the property of the person receiving the exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of such an executed designation requires the county collector to provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the chief county assessment officer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the exemption.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual application for verification of eligibility for an exemption once granted under this Section, the application shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number of county collector, and a statement that applications for deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county collector.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or the Nursing Home Care Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act, or the MR/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09)

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (m) made for temporary relocation loan repayment purposes pursuant to Sections 2-3.77 and 17-2.2d of the School Code; (n) made for payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.2d of the School Code; and (o) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (h-4) made for stormwater management purposes by the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago under Section 12 of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsection (h) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for the handicapped under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act; (p) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (q) made by Ford Heights School District 169 under Section 17-9.02 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (m) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 if the bonds were approved by referendum after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, increased each year, commencing with the 2009 levy year, by the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-135, 18-215, and 18-230. An adjustment under Section 18-135 shall be made for the 2007 levy year and all subsequent levy years whenever one or more counties within which a taxing district is located (i) used estimated valuations or rates when extending taxes in the taxing district for the last preceding levy year that resulted in the over or under extension of taxes, or (ii) increased or decreased the tax extension for the last preceding levy year as required by Section 18-135(c). Whenever an adjustment is required under Section 18-135, the aggregate extension base of the taxing district shall be equal to the amount that the aggregate extension of the taxing district would have been for the last preceding levy year if either or both (i) actual, rather than estimated, valuations or rates had been used to calculate the extension of taxes for the last levy year, or (ii) the tax extension for the last preceding levy year had not been adjusted as required by subsection (c) of Section 18-135.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, including the assessed value, upon final stabilization of occupancy after new construction is complete, of any real property located within the boundaries of an otherwise or previously exempt military reservation that is intended for residential use and owned by or leased to a private corporation or other entity, and (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Act of 1995, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property or the recovered tax increment value. If a new rate, a rate decrease, or a limiting rate increase has been approved at an election held after March 21, 2006, then (i) the otherwise applicable limiting rate shall be increased by the amount of the new rate or shall be reduced by the amount of the rate decrease, as the case may be, or (ii) in the case of a limiting rate increase, the limiting rate shall be equal to the rate set forth in the proposition approved by the voters for each of the years specified in the proposition, after which the limiting rate of the taxing district shall be calculated as otherwise provided.

(Source: P.A. 95-90, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-404, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-501, eff. 8-14-09; 96-517, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 220. The Motor Fuel Tax Law is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(35 ILCS 505/8) (from Ch. 120, par. 424)

Sec. 8. Except as provided in Section 8a, subdivision (h)(1) of Section 12a, Section 13a.6, and items 13, 14, 15, and 16 of Section 15, all money received by the Department under this Act, including payments made to the Department by member jurisdictions participating in the International Fuel Tax Agreement, shall be deposited in a special fund in the State treasury, to be known as the "Motor Fuel Tax Fund", and shall be used as follows:

(a) 2 1/2 cents per gallon of the tax collected on special fuel under paragraph (b) of Section 2 and Section 13a of this Act shall be transferred to the State Construction Account Fund in the State Treasury;

(b) $420,000 shall be transferred each month to the State Boating Act Fund to be used by the Department of Natural Resources for the purposes specified in Article X of the Boat Registration and Safety Act;

(c) $3,500,000 shall be transferred each month to the Grade Crossing Protection Fund to be used as follows: not less than $12,000,000 each fiscal year shall be used for the construction or reconstruction of rail highway grade separation structures; $2,250,000 in fiscal years 2004 through 2009 and $3,000,000 in fiscal year 2010 and each fiscal year thereafter shall be transferred to the Transportation Regulatory Fund and shall be accounted for as part of the rail carrier portion of such funds and shall be used to pay the cost of administration of the Illinois Commerce Commission's railroad safety program in connection with its duties under subsection (3) of Section 18c-7401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, with the remainder to be used by the Department of Transportation upon order of the Illinois Commerce Commission, to pay that part of the cost apportioned by such Commission to the State to cover the interest of the public in the use of highways, roads, streets, or pedestrian walkways in the county highway system, township and district road system, or municipal street system as defined in the Illinois Highway Code, as the same may from time to time be amended, for separation of grades, for installation, construction or reconstruction of crossing protection or reconstruction, alteration, relocation including construction or improvement of any existing highway necessary for access to property or improvement of any grade crossing and grade crossing surface including the necessary highway approaches thereto of any railroad across the highway or public road, or for the installation, construction, reconstruction, or maintenance of a pedestrian walkway over or under a railroad right-of-way, as provided for in and in accordance with Section 18c-7401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The Commission may order up to $2,000,000 per year in Grade Crossing Protection Fund moneys for the improvement of grade crossing surfaces and up to $300,000 per year for the maintenance and renewal of 4-quadrant gate vehicle detection systems located at non-high speed rail grade crossings. The Commission shall not order more than $2,000,000 per year in Grade Crossing Protection Fund moneys for pedestrian walkways. In entering orders for projects for which payments from the Grade Crossing Protection Fund will be made, the Commission shall account for expenditures authorized by the orders on a cash rather than an accrual basis. For purposes of this requirement an "accrual basis" assumes that the total cost of the project is expended in the fiscal year in which the order is entered, while a "cash basis" allocates the cost of the project among fiscal years as expenditures are actually made. To meet the requirements of this subsection, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall develop annual and 5-year project plans of rail crossing capital improvements that will be paid for with moneys from the Grade Crossing Protection Fund. The annual project plan shall identify projects for the succeeding fiscal year and the 5-year project plan shall identify projects for the 5 directly succeeding fiscal years. The Commission shall submit the annual and 5-year project plans for this Fund to the Governor, the President of the Senate, the Senate Minority Leader, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives on the first Wednesday in April of each year;

(d) of the amount remaining after allocations provided for in subsections (a), (b) and (c), a sufficient amount shall be reserved to pay all of the following:

(1) the costs of the Department of Revenue in administering this Act;

(2) the costs of the Department of Transportation in performing its duties imposed by the Illinois Highway Code for supervising the use of motor fuel tax funds apportioned to municipalities, counties and road districts;

(3) refunds provided for in Section 13 of this Act and under the terms of the International Fuel Tax Agreement referenced in Section 14a;

(4) from October 1, 1985 until June 30, 1994, the administration of the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law, which amount shall be certified monthly by the Environmental Protection Agency to the State Comptroller and shall promptly be transferred by the State Comptroller and Treasurer from the Motor Fuel Tax Fund to the Vehicle Inspection Fund, and for the period July 1, 1994 through June 30, 2000, one-twelfth of $25,000,000 each month, for the period July 1, 2000 through June 30, 2003, one-twelfth of $30,000,000 each month, and $15,000,000 on July 1, 2003, and $15,000,000 on January 1, 2004, and $15,000,000 on each July 1 and October 1, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, during the period July 1, 2004 through June 30, 2010, for the administration of the Vehicle Emissions Inspection Law of 2005, to be transferred by the State Comptroller and Treasurer from the Motor Fuel Tax Fund into the Vehicle Inspection Fund;

(5) amounts ordered paid by the Court of Claims; and

(6) payment of motor fuel use taxes due to member jurisdictions under the terms of the International Fuel Tax Agreement. The Department shall certify these amounts to the Comptroller by the 15th day of each month; the Comptroller shall cause orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer those amounts on or before the last day of each month;

(e) after allocations for the purposes set forth in subsections (a), (b), (c) and (d), the remaining amount shall be apportioned as follows:

(1) Until January 1, 2000, 58.4%, and beginning January 1, 2000, 45.6% shall be deposited as follows:

(A) 37% into the State Construction Account Fund, and

(B) 63% into the Road Fund, $1,250,000 of which shall be reserved each month for the Department of Transportation to be used in accordance with the provisions of Sections 6-901 through 6-906 of the Illinois Highway Code;

(2) Until January 1, 2000, 41.6%, and beginning January 1, 2000, 54.4% shall be transferred to the Department of Transportation to be distributed as follows:

(A) 49.10% to the municipalities of the State,

(B) 16.74% to the counties of the State having 1,000,000 or more inhabitants,

(C) 18.27% to the counties of the State having less than 1,000,000 inhabitants,

(D) 15.89% to the road districts of the State.

As soon as may be after the first day of each month the Department of Transportation shall allot to each municipality its share of the amount apportioned to the several municipalities which shall be in proportion to the population of such municipalities as determined by the last preceding municipal census if conducted by the Federal Government or Federal census. If territory is annexed to any municipality subsequent to the time of the last preceding census the corporate authorities of such municipality may cause a census to be taken of such annexed territory and the population so ascertained for such territory shall be added to the population of the municipality as determined by the last preceding census for the purpose of determining the allotment for that municipality. If the population of any municipality was not determined by the last Federal census preceding any apportionment, the apportionment to such municipality shall be in accordance with any census taken by such municipality. Any municipal census used in accordance with this Section shall be certified to the Department of Transportation by the clerk of such municipality, and the accuracy thereof shall be subject to approval of the Department which may make such corrections as it ascertains to be necessary.

As soon as may be after the first day of each month the Department of Transportation shall allot to each county its share of the amount apportioned to the several counties of the State as herein provided. Each allotment to the several counties having less than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall be in proportion to the amount of motor vehicle license fees received from the residents of such counties, respectively, during the preceding calendar year. The Secretary of State shall, on or before April 15 of each year, transmit to the Department of Transportation a full and complete report showing the amount of motor vehicle license fees received from the residents of each county, respectively, during the preceding calendar year. The Department of Transportation shall, each month, use for allotment purposes the last such report received from the Secretary of State.

As soon as may be after the first day of each month, the Department of Transportation shall allot to the several counties their share of the amount apportioned for the use of road districts. The allotment shall be apportioned among the several counties in the State in the proportion which the total mileage of township or district roads in the respective counties bears to the total mileage of all township and district roads in the State. Funds allotted to the respective counties for the use of road districts therein shall be allocated to the several road districts in the county in the proportion which the total mileage of such township or district roads in the respective road districts bears to the total mileage of all such township or district roads in the county. After July 1 of any year, no allocation shall be made for any road district unless it levied a tax for road and bridge purposes in an amount which will require the extension of such tax against the taxable property in any such road district at a rate of not less than either .08% of the value thereof, based upon the assessment for the year immediately prior to the year in which such tax was levied and as equalized by the Department of Revenue or, in DuPage County, an amount equal to or greater than $12,000 per mile of road under the jurisdiction of the road district, whichever is less. If any road district has levied a special tax for road purposes pursuant to Sections 6-601, 6-602 and 6-603 of the Illinois Highway Code, and such tax was levied in an amount which would require extension at a rate of not less than .08% of the value of the taxable property thereof, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, or, in DuPage County, an amount equal to or greater than $12,000 per mile of road under the jurisdiction of the road district, whichever is less, such levy shall, however, be deemed a proper compliance with this Section and shall qualify such road district for an allotment under this Section. If a township has transferred to the road and bridge fund money which, when added to the amount of any tax levy of the road district would be the equivalent of a tax levy requiring extension at a rate of at least .08%, or, in DuPage County, an amount equal to or greater than $12,000 per mile of road under the jurisdiction of the road district, whichever is less, such transfer, together with any such tax levy, shall be deemed a proper compliance with this Section and shall qualify the road district for an allotment under this Section.

In counties in which a property tax extension limitation is imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, road districts may retain their entitlement to a motor fuel tax allotment if, at the time the property tax extension limitation was imposed, the road district was levying a road and bridge tax at a rate sufficient to entitle it to a motor fuel tax allotment and continues to levy the maximum allowable amount after the imposition of the property tax extension limitation. Any road district may in all circumstances retain its entitlement to a motor fuel tax allotment if it levied a road and bridge tax in an amount that will require the extension of the tax against the taxable property in the road district at a rate of not less than 0.08% of the assessed value of the property, based upon the assessment for the year immediately preceding the year in which the tax was levied and as equalized by the Department of Revenue or, in DuPage County, an amount equal to or greater than $12,000 per mile of road under the jurisdiction of the road district, whichever is less.

As used in this Section the term "road district" means any road district, including a county unit road district, provided for by the Illinois Highway Code; and the term "township or district road" means any road in the township and district road system as defined in the Illinois Highway Code. For the purposes of this Section, "road district" also includes park districts, forest preserve districts and conservation districts organized under Illinois law and "township or district road" also includes such roads as are maintained by park districts, forest preserve districts and conservation districts. The Department of Transportation shall determine the mileage of all township and district roads for the purposes of making allotments and allocations of motor fuel tax funds for use in road districts.

Payment of motor fuel tax moneys to municipalities and counties shall be made as soon as possible after the allotment is made. The treasurer of the municipality or county may invest these funds until their use is required and the interest earned by these investments shall be limited to the same uses as the principal funds.

(Source: P.A. 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 225. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 4-121, 7-132, 14-104, 14-110, 14-131, 15-159, and 18-125 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/4-121) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 4-121)

Sec. 4-121. Board created. There is created in each municipality or fire protection district a board of trustees to be known as the "Board of Trustees of the Firefighters' Pension Fund". The membership of the board for each municipality shall be, respectively, as follows: in cities, the treasurer, clerk, marshal, marshall or chief officer of the fire department, and the comptroller if there is one, or if not, the mayor; in each township, village or incorporated town, the president of the municipality's board of trustees, the village or town clerk, village or town attorney, village or town treasurer, and the chief officer of the fire department; and in each fire protection district, the president and other 2 members of its board of trustees and the marshal marshall or chief of its fire department or service, as the case may be; and in all the municipalities above designated 3 additional persons chosen from their active firefighters and one other person who has retired under the "Firemen's Pension Fund Act of 1919", or this Article. Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, the term of office of each member of a board established on or before the 3rd Monday in April, 2006 shall terminate on the 3rd Monday in April, 2006, but all incumbent members shall continue to exercise all of the powers and be subject to all of the duties of a member of the board until all the new members of the board take office.

Beginning on the 3rd Monday in April, 2006, the board for each municipality or fire protection district shall consist of 5 members. Two members of the board shall be appointed by the mayor or president of the board of trustees of the municipality or fire protection district involved. Two members of the board shall be active participants of the pension fund who are elected from the active participants of the fund. One member of the board shall be a person who is retired under the Firemen's Pension Fund Act of 1919 or this Article who is elected from persons retired under the Firemen's Pension Fund Act of 1919 or this Article.

For the purposes of this Section, a firefighter receiving a disability pension shall be considered a retired firefighter. In the event that there are no retired firefighters under the Fund or if none is willing to serve on the board, then an additional active firefighter shall be elected to the board in lieu of the retired firefighter that would otherwise be elected.

If the regularly constituted fire department of a municipality is dissolved and Section 4-106.1 is not applicable, the board shall continue to exist and administer the Fund so long as there continues to be any annuitant or deferred pensioner in the Fund. In such cases, elections shall continue to be held as specified in this Section, except that: (1) deferred pensioners shall be deemed to be active members for the purposes of such elections; (2) any otherwise unfillable positions on the board, including ex officio positions, shall be filled by election from the remaining firefighters and deferred pensioners of the Fund, to the extent possible; and (3) if the membership of the board falls below 3 persons, the Illinois Director of Insurance or his designee shall be deemed a member of the board, ex officio.

The members chosen from the active and retired firefighters shall be elected by ballot at elections to be held on the 3rd Monday in April of the applicable years under the Australian ballot system, at such place or places, in the municipality, and under such regulations as shall be prescribed by the board.

No person shall cast more than one vote for each candidate for whom he or she is eligible to vote. In the elections for board members to be chosen from the active firefighters, all active firefighters and no others may vote. In the elections for board members to be chosen from retired firefighters, the retired firefighters and no others may vote.

Each member of the board so elected shall hold office for a term of 3 years and until his or her successor has been duly elected and qualified.

The board shall canvass the ballots and declare which persons have been elected and for what term or terms respectively. In case of a tie vote between 2 or more candidates, the board shall determine by lot which candidate or candidates have been elected and for what term or terms respectively. In the event of the failure, resignation, or inability to act of any board member, a successor shall be elected for the unexpired term at a special election called by the board and conducted in the same manner as a regular election.

The board shall elect annually from its members a president and secretary.

Board members shall not receive or have any right to receive any salary from a pension fund for services performed as board members.

(Source: P.A. 94-317, eff. 7-25-05; revised 12-2-09.)

(40 ILCS 5/7-132) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-132)

Sec. 7-132. Municipalities, instrumentalities and participating instrumentalities included and effective dates.

(A) Municipalities and their instrumentalities.

(a) The following described municipalities, but not including any with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants, and the instrumentalities thereof, shall be included within and be subject to this Article beginning upon the effective dates specified by the Board:

(1) Except as to the municipalities and instrumentalities thereof specifically excluded under this Article, every county shall be subject to this Article, and all cities, villages and incorporated towns having a population in excess of 5,000 inhabitants as determined by the last preceding decennial or subsequent federal census, shall be subject to this Article following publication of the census by the Bureau of the Census. Within 90 days after publication of the census, the Board shall notify any municipality that has become subject to this Article as a result of that census, and shall provide information to the corporate authorities of the municipality explaining the duties and consequences of participation. The notification shall also include a proposed date upon which participation by the municipality will commence.

However, for any city, village or incorporated town that attains a population over 5,000 inhabitants after having provided social security coverage for its employees under the Social Security Enabling Act, participation under this Article shall not be mandatory but may be elected in accordance with subparagraph (3) or (4) of this paragraph (a), whichever is applicable.

(2) School districts, other than those specifically excluded under this Article, shall be subject to this Article, without election, with respect to all employees thereof.

(3) Towns and all other bodies politic and corporate which are formed by vote of, or are subject to control by, the electors in towns and are located in towns which are not participating municipalities on the effective date of this Act, may become subject to this Article by election pursuant to Section 7-132.1.

(4) Any other municipality (together with its instrumentalities), other than those specifically excluded from participation and those described in paragraph (3) above, may elect to be included either by referendum under Section 7-134 or by the adoption of a resolution or ordinance by its governing body. A copy of such resolution or ordinance duly authenticated and certified by the clerk of the municipality or other appropriate official of its governing body shall constitute the required notice to the board of such action.

(b) A municipality that is about to begin participation shall submit to the Board an application to participate, in a form acceptable to the Board, not later than 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of participation. The Board shall act upon the application within 90 days, and if it finds that the application is in conformity with its requirements and the requirements of this Article, participation by the applicant shall commence on a date acceptable to the municipality and specified by the Board, but in no event more than one year from the date of application.

(c) A participating municipality which succeeds to the functions of a participating municipality which is dissolved or terminates its existence shall assume and be transferred the net accumulation balance in the municipality reserve and the municipality account receivable balance of the terminated municipality.

(d) In the case of a Veterans Assistance Commission whose employees were being treated by the Fund on January 1, 1990 as employees of the county served by the Commission, the Fund may continue to treat the employees of the Veterans Assistance Commission as county employees for the purposes of this Article, unless the Commission becomes a participating instrumentality in accordance with subsection (B) of this Section.

(B) Participating instrumentalities.

(a) The participating instrumentalities designated in paragraph (b) of this subsection shall be included within and be subject to this Article if:

(1) an application to participate, in a form acceptable to the Board and adopted by a two-thirds vote of the governing body, is presented to the Board not later than 90 days prior to the proposed effective date; and

(2) the Board finds that the application is in conformity with its requirements, that the applicant has reasonable expectation to continue as a political entity for a period of at least 10 years and has the prospective financial capacity to meet its current and future obligations to the Fund, and that the actuarial soundness of the Fund may be reasonably expected to be unimpaired by approval of participation by the applicant.

The Board shall notify the applicant of its findings within 90 days after receiving the application, and if the Board approves the application, participation by the applicant shall commence on the effective date specified by the Board.

(b) The following participating instrumentalities, so long as they meet the requirements of Section 7-108 and the area served by them or within their jurisdiction is not located entirely within a municipality having more than one million inhabitants, may be included hereunder:

i. Township School District Trustees.

ii. Multiple County and Consolidated Health Departments created under Division 5-25 of the Counties Code or its predecessor law.

iii. Public Building Commissions created under the Public Building Commission Act, and located in counties of less than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

iv. A multitype, consolidated or cooperative library system created under the Illinois Library System Act. Any library system created under the Illinois Library System Act that has one or more predecessors that participated in the Fund may participate in the Fund upon application. The Board shall establish procedures for implementing the transfer of rights and obligations from the predecessor system to the successor system.

v. Regional Planning Commissions created under Division 5-14 of the Counties Code or its predecessor law.

vi. Local Public Housing Authorities created under the Housing Authorities Act, located in counties of less than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

vii. Illinois Municipal League.

viii. Northeastern Illinois Metropolitan Area Planning Commission.

ix. Southwestern Illinois Metropolitan Area Planning Commission.

x. Illinois Association of Park Districts.

xi. Illinois Supervisors, County Commissioners and Superintendents of Highways Association.

xii. Tri-City Regional Port District.

xiii. An association, or not-for-profit corporation, membership in which is authorized under Section 85-15 of the Township Code.

xiv. Drainage Districts operating under the Illinois Drainage Code.

xv. Local mass transit districts created under the Local Mass Transit District Act.

xvi. Soil and water conservation districts created under the Soil and Water Conservation Districts Law.

xvii. Commissions created to provide water supply or sewer services or both under Division 135 or Division 136 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

xviii. Public water districts created under the Public Water District Act.

xix. Veterans Assistance Commissions established under Section 9 of the Military Veterans Assistance Act that serve counties with a population of less than 1,000,000.

xx. The governing body of an entity, other than a vocational education cooperative, created under an intergovernmental cooperative agreement established between participating municipalities under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, which by the terms of the agreement is the employer of the persons performing services under the agreement under the usual common law rules determining the employer-employee relationship. The governing body of such an intergovernmental cooperative entity established prior to July 1, 1988 may make participation retroactive to the effective date of the agreement and, if so, the effective date of participation shall be the date the required application is filed with the fund. If any such entity is unable to pay the required employer contributions to the fund, then the participating municipalities shall make payment of the required contributions and the payments shall be allocated as provided in the agreement or, if not so provided, equally among them.

xxi. The Illinois Municipal Electric Agency.

xxii. The Waukegan Port District.

xxiii. The Fox Waterway Agency created under the Fox Waterway Agency Act.

xxiv. The Illinois Municipal Gas Agency.

xxv. The Kaskaskia Regional Port District.

xxvi. The Southwestern Illinois Development Authority.

xxvii. The Cairo Public Utility Company.

xxviii. Except with respect to employees who elect to participate in the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois under Section 14-104.13 of this Code, the Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning created under the Regional Planning Act, provided that, with respect to the benefits payable pursuant to Sections 7-146, 7-150, and 7-164 and the requirement that eligibility for such benefits is conditional upon satisfying a minimum period of service or a minimum contribution, any employee of the Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning that was immediately prior to such employment an employee of the Chicago Area Transportation Study or the Northeastern Illinois Planning Commission, such employee's service at the Chicago Area Transportation Study or the Northeastern Illinois Planning Commission and contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois established under Article 14 and the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund shall count towards the satisfaction of such requirements.

xxix. United Counties Council (formerly the Urban Counties Council), but only if the Council has a ruling from the United States Internal Revenue Service that it is a governmental entity.

xxx xix. The Will County Governmental League, but only if the League has a ruling from the United States Internal Revenue Service that it is a governmental entity.

(c) The governing boards of special education joint agreements created under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code without designation of an administrative district shall be included within and be subject to this Article as participating instrumentalities when the joint agreement becomes effective. However, the governing board of any such special education joint agreement in effect before September 5, 1975 shall not be subject to this Article unless the joint agreement is modified by the school districts to provide that the governing board is subject to this Article, except as otherwise provided by this Section.

The governing board of the Special Education District of Lake County shall become subject to this Article as a participating instrumentality on July 1, 1997. Notwithstanding subdivision (a)1 of Section 7-139, on the effective date of participation, employees of the governing board of the Special Education District of Lake County shall receive creditable service for their prior service with that employer, up to a maximum of 5 years, without any employee contribution. Employees may establish creditable service for the remainder of their prior service with that employer, if any, by applying in writing and paying an employee contribution in an amount determined by the Fund, based on the employee contribution rates in effect at the time of application for the creditable service and the employee's salary rate on the effective date of participation for that employer, plus interest at the effective rate from the date of the prior service to the date of payment. Application for this creditable service must be made before July 1, 1998; the payment may be made at any time while the employee is still in service. The employer may elect to make the required contribution on behalf of the employee.

The governing board of a special education joint agreement created under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code for which an administrative district has been designated, if there are employees of the cooperative educational entity who are not employees of the administrative district, may elect to participate in the Fund and be included within this Article as a participating instrumentality, subject to such application procedures and rules as the Board may prescribe.

The Boards of Control of cooperative or joint educational programs or projects created and administered under Section 3-15.14 of the School Code, whether or not the Boards act as their own administrative district, shall be included within and be subject to this Article as participating instrumentalities when the agreement establishing the cooperative or joint educational program or project becomes effective.

The governing board of a special education joint agreement entered into after June 30, 1984 and prior to September 17, 1985 which provides for representation on the governing board by less than all the participating districts shall be included within and subject to this Article as a participating instrumentality. Such participation shall be effective as of the date the joint agreement becomes effective.

The governing boards of educational service centers established under Section 2-3.62 of the School Code shall be included within and subject to this Article as participating instrumentalities. The governing boards of vocational education cooperative agreements created under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act and approved by the State Board of Education shall be included within and be subject to this Article as participating instrumentalities. If any such governing boards or boards of control are unable to pay the required employer contributions to the fund, then the school districts served by such boards shall make payment of required contributions as provided in Section 7-172. The payments shall be allocated among the several school districts in proportion to the number of students in average daily attendance for the last full school year for each district in relation to the total number of students in average attendance for such period for all districts served. If such educational service centers, vocational education cooperatives or cooperative or joint educational programs or projects created and administered under Section 3-15.14 of the School Code are dissolved, the assets and obligations shall be distributed among the districts in the same proportions unless otherwise provided.

(d) The governing boards of special recreation joint agreements created under Section 8-10b of the Park District Code, operating without designation of an administrative district or an administrative municipality appointed to administer the program operating under the authority of such joint agreement shall be included within and be subject to this Article as participating instrumentalities when the joint agreement becomes effective. However, the governing board of any such special recreation joint agreement in effect before January 1, 1980 shall not be subject to this Article unless the joint agreement is modified, by the districts and municipalities which are parties to the agreement, to provide that the governing board is subject to this Article.

If the Board returns any employer and employee contributions to any employer which erroneously submitted such contributions on behalf of a special recreation joint agreement, the Board shall include interest computed from the end of each year to the date of payment, not compounded, at the rate of 7% per annum.

(e) Each multi-township assessment district, the board of trustees of which has adopted this Article by ordinance prior to April 1, 1982, shall be a participating instrumentality included within and subject to this Article effective December 1, 1981. The contributions required under Section 7-172 shall be included in the budget prepared under and allocated in accordance with Section 2-30 of the Property Tax Code.

(f) The Illinois Medical District Commission created under the Illinois Medical District Act may be included within and subject to this Article as a participating instrumentality, notwithstanding that the location of the District is entirely within the City of Chicago. To become a participating instrumentality, the Commission must apply to the Board in the manner set forth in paragraph (a) of this subsection (B). If the Board approves the application, under the criteria and procedures set forth in paragraph (a) and any other applicable rules, criteria, and procedures of the Board, participation by the Commission shall commence on the effective date specified by the Board.

(C) Prospective participants.

Beginning January 1, 1992, each prospective participating municipality or participating instrumentality shall pay to the Fund the cost, as determined by the Board, of a study prepared by the Fund or its actuary, detailing the prospective costs of participation in the Fund to be expected by the municipality or instrumentality.

(Source: P.A. 95-677, eff. 10-11-07; 96-211, eff. 8-10-09; 96-551, eff. 8-17-09; revised 10-6-09.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-104) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 14-104)

Sec. 14-104. Service for which contributions permitted. Contributions provided for in this Section shall cover the period of service granted. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the contributions shall be based upon the employee's compensation and contribution rate in effect on the date he last became a member of the System; provided that for all employment prior to January 1, 1969 the contribution rate shall be that in effect for a noncovered employee on the date he last became a member of the System. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, contributions permitted under this Section shall include regular interest from the date an employee last became a member of the System to the date of payment.

These contributions must be paid in full before retirement either in a lump sum or in installment payments in accordance with such rules as may be adopted by the board.

(a) Any member may make contributions as required in this Section for any period of service, subsequent to the date of establishment, but prior to the date of membership.

(b) Any employee who had been previously excluded from membership because of age at entry and subsequently became eligible may elect to make contributions as required in this Section for the period of service during which he was ineligible.

(c) An employee of the Department of Insurance who, after January 1, 1944 but prior to becoming eligible for membership, received salary from funds of insurance companies in the process of rehabilitation, liquidation, conservation or dissolution, may elect to make contributions as required in this Section for such service.

(d) Any employee who rendered service in a State office to which he was elected, or rendered service in the elective office of Clerk of the Appellate Court prior to the date he became a member, may make contributions for such service as required in this Section. Any member who served by appointment of the Governor under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois and did not participate in this System may make contributions as required in this Section for such service.

(e) Any person employed by the United States government or any instrumentality or agency thereof from January 1, 1942 through November 15, 1946 as the result of a transfer from State service by executive order of the President of the United States shall be entitled to prior service credit covering the period from January 1, 1942 through December 31, 1943 as provided for in this Article and to membership service credit for the period from January 1, 1944 through November 15, 1946 by making the contributions required in this Section. A person so employed on January 1, 1944 but whose employment began after January 1, 1942 may qualify for prior service and membership service credit under the same conditions.

(f) An employee of the Department of Labor of the State of Illinois who performed services for and under the supervision of that Department prior to January 1, 1944 but who was compensated for those services directly by federal funds and not by a warrant of the Auditor of Public Accounts paid by the State Treasurer may establish credit for such employment by making the contributions required in this Section. An employee of the Department of Agriculture of the State of Illinois, who performed services for and under the supervision of that Department prior to June 1, 1963, but was compensated for those services directly by federal funds and not paid by a warrant of the Auditor of Public Accounts paid by the State Treasurer, and who did not contribute to any other public employee retirement system for such service, may establish credit for such employment by making the contributions required in this Section.

(g) Any employee who executed a waiver of membership within 60 days prior to January 1, 1944 may, at any time while in the service of a department, file with the board a rescission of such waiver. Upon making the contributions required by this Section, the member shall be granted the creditable service that would have been received if the waiver had not been executed.

(h) Until May 1, 1990, an employee who was employed on a full-time basis by a regional planning commission for at least 5 continuous years may establish creditable service for such employment by making the contributions required under this Section, provided that any credits earned by the employee in the commission's retirement plan have been terminated.

(i) Any person who rendered full time contractual services to the General Assembly as a member of a legislative staff may establish service credit for up to 8 years of such services by making the contributions required under this Section, provided that application therefor is made not later than July 1, 1991.

(j) By paying the contributions otherwise required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest, but with all of the interest calculated from the date the employee last became a member of the System or November 19, 1991, whichever is later, to the date of payment, an employee may establish service credit for a period of up to 4 years spent in active military service for which he does not qualify for credit under Section 14-105, provided that (1) he was not dishonorably discharged from such military service, and (2) the amount of service credit established by a member under this subsection (j), when added to the amount of military service credit granted to the member under subsection (b) of Section 14-105, shall not exceed 5 years. The change in the manner of calculating interest under this subsection (j) made by this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly applies to credit purchased by an employee on or after its effective date and does not entitle any person to a refund of contributions or interest already paid. In compliance with Section 14-152.1 of this Act concerning new benefit increases, any new benefit increase as a result of the changes to this subsection (j) made by Public Act 95-483 is funded through the employee contributions provided for in this subsection (j). Any new benefit increase as a result of the changes made to this subsection (j) by Public Act 95-483 is exempt from the provisions of subsection (d) of Section 14-152.1.

(k) An employee who was employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois State's Attorneys Association Statewide Appellate Assistance Service LEAA-ILEC grant project prior to the time that project became the State's Attorneys Appellate Service Commission, now the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, an agency of State government, may establish creditable service for not more than 60 months service for such employment by making contributions required under this Section.

(l) By paying the contributions otherwise required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest, a member may establish service credit for periods of less than one year spent on authorized leave of absence from service, provided that (1) the period of leave began on or after January 1, 1982 and (2) any credit established by the member for the period of leave in any other public employee retirement system has been terminated. A member may establish service credit under this subsection for more than one period of authorized leave, and in that case the total period of service credit established by the member under this subsection may exceed one year. In determining the contributions required for establishing service credit under this subsection, the interest shall be calculated from the beginning of the leave of absence to the date of payment.

(l-5) By paying the contributions otherwise required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest, a member may establish service credit for periods of up to 2 years spent on authorized leave of absence from service, provided that during that leave the member represented or was employed as an officer or employee of a statewide labor organization that represents members of this System. In determining the contributions required for establishing service credit under this subsection, the interest shall be calculated from the beginning of the leave of absence to the date of payment.

(m) Any person who rendered contractual services to a member of the General Assembly as a worker in the member's district office may establish creditable service for up to 3 years of those contractual services by making the contributions required under this Section. The System shall determine a full-time salary equivalent for the purpose of calculating the required contribution. To establish credit under this subsection, the applicant must apply to the System by March 1, 1998.

(n) Any person who rendered contractual services to a member of the General Assembly as a worker providing constituent services to persons in the member's district may establish creditable service for up to 8 years of those contractual services by making the contributions required under this Section. The System shall determine a full-time salary equivalent for the purpose of calculating the required contribution. To establish credit under this subsection, the applicant must apply to the System by March 1, 1998.

(o) A member who participated in the Illinois Legislative Staff Internship Program may establish creditable service for up to one year of that participation by making the contribution required under this Section. The System shall determine a full-time salary equivalent for the purpose of calculating the required contribution. Credit may not be established under this subsection for any period for which service credit is established under any other provision of this Code.

(p) By paying the contributions otherwise required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest, a member may establish service credit for a period of up to 8 years during which he or she was employed by the Visually Handicapped Managers of Illinois in a vending program operated under a contractual agreement with the Department of Rehabilitation Services or its successor agency.

This subsection (p) applies without regard to whether the person was in service on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. In the case of a person who is receiving a retirement annuity on that effective date, the increase, if any, shall begin to accrue on the first annuity payment date following receipt by the System of the contributions required under this subsection (p).

(q) By paying the required contributions under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest, an employee who was laid off but returned to State employment under circumstances in which the employee is considered to have been in continuous service for purposes of determining seniority may establish creditable service for the period of the layoff, provided that (1) the applicant applies for the creditable service under this subsection (q) within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, (2) the applicant does not receive credit for that period under any other provision of this Code, (3) at the time of the layoff, the applicant is not in an initial probationary status consistent with the rules of the Department of Central Management Services, and (4) the total amount of creditable service established by the applicant under this subsection (q) does not exceed 3 years. For service established under this subsection (q), the required employee contribution shall be based on the rate of compensation earned by the employee on the date of returning to employment after the layoff and the contribution rate then in effect, and the required interest shall be calculated from the date of returning to employment after the layoff to the date of payment.

(r) A member who participated in the University of Illinois Government Public Service Internship Program (GPSI) may establish creditable service for up to 2 years of that participation by making the contribution required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest. The System shall determine a full-time salary equivalent for the purpose of calculating the required contribution. Credit may not be established under this subsection for any period for which service credit is established under any other provision of this Code.

(s) A member who worked as a nurse under a contractual agreement for the Department of Public Aid, or its successor agency, the Department of Human Services, in the Client Assessment Unit and was subsequently determined to be a State employee by the United States Internal Revenue Service and the Illinois Labor Relations Board may establish creditable service for those contractual services by making the contributions required under this Section. To establish credit under this subsection, the applicant must apply to the System by July 1, 2008.

The Department of Human Services shall pay an employer contribution based upon an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit, plus interest.

In compliance with Section 14-152.1 added by Public Act 94-4, the cost of the benefits provided by Public Act 95-583 are offset by the required employee and employer contributions.

(t) Any person who rendered contractual services on a full-time basis to the Illinois Institute of Natural Resources and the Illinois Department of Energy and Natural Resources may establish creditable service for up to 4 years of those contractual services by making the contributions required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit plus interest at the actuarially assumed rate from the first day of the service for which credit is being established to the date of payment. To establish credit under this subsection (t), the applicant must apply to the System within 6 months after August 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-775) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(u) (t) A member may establish creditable service and earnings credit for a period of voluntary or involuntary furlough, not exceeding 5 days, beginning on or after July 1, 2008 and ending on or before June 30, 2009, that is utilized as a means of addressing a State fiscal emergency. To receive this credit, the member must apply in writing to the System before July 1, 2012, and make contributions required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit, plus interest at the actuarially assumed rate.

(v) (t) Any member who rendered full-time contractual services to an Illinois Veterans Home operated by the Department of Veterans' Affairs may establish service credit for up to 8 years of such services by making the contributions required under this Section, plus an amount determined by the Board to be equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit, plus interest at the actuarially assumed rate. To establish credit under this subsection, the applicant must apply to the System no later than 6 months after July 27, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-97) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 95-483, eff. 8-28-07; 95-583, eff. 8-31-07; 95-652, eff. 10-11-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-97, eff. 7-27-09; 96-718, eff. 8-25-09; 96-775, eff. 8-28-09; revised 9-9-09.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-110) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 14-110)

Sec. 14-110. Alternative retirement annuity.

(a) Any member who has withdrawn from service with not less than 20 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 55, and any member who has withdrawn from service with not less than 25 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 50, regardless of whether the attainment of either of the specified ages occurs while the member is still in service, shall be entitled to receive at the option of the member, in lieu of the regular or minimum retirement annuity, a retirement annuity computed as follows:

(i) for periods of service as a noncovered employee: if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001, 3% of final average compensation for each year of creditable service; if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001, 2 1/4% of final average compensation for each of the first 10 years of creditable service, 2 1/2% for each year above 10 years to and including 20 years of creditable service, and 2 3/4% for each year of creditable service above 20 years; and

(ii) for periods of eligible creditable service as a covered employee: if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001, 2.5% of final average compensation for each year of creditable service; if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001, 1.67% of final average compensation for each of the first 10 years of such service, 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of such service, 2.10% for each year of such service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.30% for each year in excess of 30.

Such annuity shall be subject to a maximum of 75% of final average compensation if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001 or to a maximum of 80% of final average compensation if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001.

These rates shall not be applicable to any service performed by a member as a covered employee which is not eligible creditable service. Service as a covered employee which is not eligible creditable service shall be subject to the rates and provisions of Section 14-108.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "eligible creditable service" means creditable service resulting from service in one or more of the following positions:

(1) State policeman;

(2) fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department;

(3) air pilot;

(4) special agent;

(5) investigator for the Secretary of State;

(6) conservation police officer;

(7) investigator for the Department of Revenue or the Illinois Gaming Board;

(8) security employee of the Department of Human Services;

(9) Central Management Services security police officer;

(10) security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(11) dangerous drugs investigator;

(12) investigator for the Department of State Police;

(13) investigator for the Office of the Attorney General;

(14) controlled substance inspector;

(15) investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor;

(16) Commerce Commission police officer;

(17) arson investigator;

(18) State highway maintenance worker.

A person employed in one of the positions specified in this subsection is entitled to eligible creditable service for service credit earned under this Article while undergoing the basic police training course approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, if completion of that training is required of persons serving in that position. For the purposes of this Code, service during the required basic police training course shall be deemed performance of the duties of the specified position, even though the person is not a sworn peace officer at the time of the training.

(c) For the purposes of this Section:

(1) The term "state policeman" includes any title or position in the Department of State Police that is held by an individual employed under the State Police Act.

(2) The term "fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department" includes all officers in such fire protection service including fire chiefs and assistant fire chiefs.

(3) The term "air pilot" includes any employee whose official job description on file in the Department of Central Management Services, or in the department by which he is employed if that department is not covered by the Personnel Code, states that his principal duty is the operation of aircraft, and who possesses a pilot's license; however, the change in this definition made by this amendatory Act of 1983 shall not operate to exclude any noncovered employee who was an "air pilot" for the purposes of this Section on January 1, 1984.

(4) The term "special agent" means any person who by reason of employment by the Division of Narcotic Control, the Bureau of Investigation or, after July 1, 1977, the Division of Criminal Investigation, the Division of Internal Investigation, the Division of Operations, or any other Division or organizational entity in the Department of State Police is vested by law with duties to maintain public order, investigate violations of the criminal law of this State, enforce the laws of this State, make arrests and recover property. The term "special agent" includes any title or position in the Department of State Police that is held by an individual employed under the State Police Act.

(5) The term "investigator for the Secretary of State" means any person employed by the Office of the Secretary of State and vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

A person who became employed as an investigator for the Secretary of State between January 1, 1967 and December 31, 1975, and who has served as such until attainment of age 60, either continuously or with a single break in service of not more than 3 years duration, which break terminated before January 1, 1976, shall be entitled to have his retirement annuity calculated in accordance with subsection (a), notwithstanding that he has less than 20 years of credit for such service.

(6) The term "Conservation Police Officer" means any person employed by the Division of Law Enforcement of the Department of Natural Resources and vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act. The term "Conservation Police Officer" includes the positions of Chief Conservation Police Administrator and Assistant Conservation Police Administrator.

(7) The term "investigator for the Department of Revenue" means any person employed by the Department of Revenue and vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

The term "investigator for the Illinois Gaming Board" means any person employed as such by the Illinois Gaming Board and vested with such peace officer duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(8) The term "security employee of the Department of Human Services" means any person employed by the Department of Human Services who (i) is employed at the Chester Mental Health Center and has daily contact with the residents thereof, (ii) is employed within a security unit at a facility operated by the Department and has daily contact with the residents of the security unit, (iii) is employed at a facility operated by the Department that includes a security unit and is regularly scheduled to work at least 50% of his or her working hours within that security unit, or (iv) is a mental health police officer. "Mental health police officer" means any person employed by the Department of Human Services in a position pertaining to the Department's mental health and developmental disabilities functions who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. "Security unit" means that portion of a facility that is devoted to the care, containment, and treatment of persons committed to the Department of Human Services as sexually violent persons, persons unfit to stand trial, or persons not guilty by reason of insanity. With respect to past employment, references to the Department of Human Services include its predecessor, the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

The changes made to this subdivision (c)(8) by Public Act 92-14 apply to persons who retire on or after January 1, 2001, notwithstanding Section 1-103.1.

(9) "Central Management Services security police officer" means any person employed by the Department of Central Management Services who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(10) For a member who first became an employee under this Article before July 1, 2005, the term "security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice" means any employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice or the former Department of Personnel, and any member or employee of the Prisoner Review Board, who has daily contact with inmates or youth by working within a correctional facility or Juvenile facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice or who is a parole officer or an employee who has direct contact with committed persons in the performance of his or her job duties. For a member who first becomes an employee under this Article on or after July 1, 2005, the term means an employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice who is any of the following: (i) officially headquartered at a correctional facility or Juvenile facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, (ii) a parole officer, (iii) a member of the apprehension unit, (iv) a member of the intelligence unit, (v) a member of the sort team, or (vi) an investigator.

(11) The term "dangerous drugs investigator" means any person who is employed as such by the Department of Human Services.

(12) The term "investigator for the Department of State Police" means a person employed by the Department of State Police who is vested under Section 4 of the Narcotic Control Division Abolition Act with such law enforcement powers as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(13) "Investigator for the Office of the Attorney General" means any person who is employed as such by the Office of the Attorney General and is vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. For the period before January 1, 1989, the term includes all persons who were employed as investigators by the Office of the Attorney General, without regard to social security status.

(14) "Controlled substance inspector" means any person who is employed as such by the Department of Professional Regulation and is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. The term "controlled substance inspector" includes the Program Executive of Enforcement and the Assistant Program Executive of Enforcement.

(15) The term "investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor" means a person employed in that capacity on a full time basis under the authority of Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(16) "Commerce Commission police officer" means any person employed by the Illinois Commerce Commission who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(17) "Arson investigator" means any person who is employed as such by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and is vested with such law enforcement duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act. A person who was employed as an arson investigator on January 1, 1995 and is no longer in service but not yet receiving a retirement annuity may convert his or her creditable service for employment as an arson investigator into eligible creditable service by paying to the System the difference between the employee contributions actually paid for that service and the amounts that would have been contributed if the applicant were contributing at the rate applicable to persons with the same social security status earning eligible creditable service on the date of application.

(18) The term "State highway maintenance worker" means a person who is either of the following:

(i) A person employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois Department of Transportation in the position of highway maintainer, highway maintenance lead worker, highway maintenance lead/lead worker, heavy construction equipment operator, power shovel operator, or bridge mechanic; and whose principal responsibility is to perform, on the roadway, the actual maintenance necessary to keep the highways that form a part of the State highway system in serviceable condition for vehicular traffic.

(ii) A person employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority in the position of equipment operator/laborer H-4, equipment operator/laborer H-6, welder H-4, welder H-6, mechanical/electrical H-4, mechanical/electrical H-6, water/sewer H-4, water/sewer H-6, sign maker/hanger H-4, sign maker/hanger H-6, roadway lighting H-4, roadway lighting H-6, structural H-4, structural H-6, painter H-4, or painter H-6; and whose principal responsibility is to perform, on the roadway, the actual maintenance necessary to keep the Authority's tollways in serviceable condition for vehicular traffic.

(d) A security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, and a security employee of the Department of Human Services who is not a mental health police officer, shall not be eligible for the alternative retirement annuity provided by this Section unless he or she meets the following minimum age and service requirements at the time of retirement:

(i) 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(ii) beginning January 1, 1987, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 54, or 24 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(iii) beginning January 1, 1988, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 53, or 23 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(iv) beginning January 1, 1989, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 52, or 22 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(v) beginning January 1, 1990, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 51, or 21 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(vi) beginning January 1, 1991, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 50, or 20 years of eligible creditable service and age 55.

Persons who have service credit under Article 16 of this Code for service as a security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services in a position requiring certification as a teacher may count such service toward establishing their eligibility under the service requirements of this Section; but such service may be used only for establishing such eligibility, and not for the purpose of increasing or calculating any benefit.

(e) If a member enters military service while working in a position in which eligible creditable service may be earned, and returns to State service in the same or another such position, and fulfills in all other respects the conditions prescribed in this Article for credit for military service, such military service shall be credited as eligible creditable service for the purposes of the retirement annuity prescribed in this Section.

(f) For purposes of calculating retirement annuities under this Section, periods of service rendered after December 31, 1968 and before October 1, 1975 as a covered employee in the position of special agent, conservation police officer, mental health police officer, or investigator for the Secretary of State, shall be deemed to have been service as a noncovered employee, provided that the employee pays to the System prior to retirement an amount equal to (1) the difference between the employee contributions that would have been required for such service as a noncovered employee, and the amount of employee contributions actually paid, plus (2) if payment is made after July 31, 1987, regular interest on the amount specified in item (1) from the date of service to the date of payment.

For purposes of calculating retirement annuities under this Section, periods of service rendered after December 31, 1968 and before January 1, 1982 as a covered employee in the position of investigator for the Department of Revenue shall be deemed to have been service as a noncovered employee, provided that the employee pays to the System prior to retirement an amount equal to (1) the difference between the employee contributions that would have been required for such service as a noncovered employee, and the amount of employee contributions actually paid, plus (2) if payment is made after January 1, 1990, regular interest on the amount specified in item (1) from the date of service to the date of payment.

(g) A State policeman may elect, not later than January 1, 1990, to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his service as a policeman under Article 3, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.5, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman may elect, not later than July 1, 1993, to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his service as a member of the County Police Department under Article 9, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had those contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(h) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 12 years of his service as a policeman under Article 5, by filing a written election with the Board on or before January 31, 1992, and paying to the System by January 31, 1994 an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 5-236, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, conservation police officer, or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of service as a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, by filing a written election with the Board on or before January 31, 1993, and paying to the System by January 31, 1994 an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 7-139.7, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, conservation police officer, or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a police officer under Article 3, a policeman under Article 5, a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, a member of the county police department under Article 9, or a police officer under Article 15 by filing a written election with the Board and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.6, 5-236, 7-139.8, 9-121.10, or 15-134.4 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), an investigator for the Office of the Attorney General, or an investigator for the Department of Revenue, may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a police officer under Article 3, a policeman under Article 5, a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, or a member of the county police department under Article 9 by filing a written election with the Board within 6 months after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-745) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.6, 5-236, 7-139.8, or 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, conservation police officer, investigator for the Office of the Attorney General, an investigator for the Department of Revenue, or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a person employed by a participating municipality to perform police duties, or law enforcement officer employed on a full-time basis by a forest preserve district under Article 7, a county corrections officer, or a court services officer under Article 9, by filing a written election with the Board within 6 months after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-745) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Sections 7-139.8 and 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(i) The total amount of eligible creditable service established by any person under subsections (g), (h), (j), (k), and (l) of this Section shall not exceed 12 years.

(j) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), an investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor or a controlled substance inspector may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his service as a policeman under Article 3 or a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (1) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.6 or 7-139.8, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (2) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(k) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i) of this Section, an alternative formula employee may elect to establish eligible creditable service for periods spent as a full-time law enforcement officer or full-time corrections officer employed by the federal government or by a state or local government located outside of Illinois, for which credit is not held in any other public employee pension fund or retirement system. To obtain this credit, the applicant must file a written application with the Board by March 31, 1998, accompanied by evidence of eligibility acceptable to the Board and payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (1) employee contributions for the credit being established, based upon the applicant's salary on the first day as an alternative formula employee after the employment for which credit is being established and the rates then applicable to alternative formula employees, plus (2) an amount determined by the Board to be the employer's normal cost of the benefits accrued for the credit being established, plus (3) regular interest on the amounts in items (1) and (2) from the first day as an alternative formula employee after the employment for which credit is being established to the date of payment.

(l) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a security employee of the Department of Corrections may elect, not later than July 1, 1998, to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his or her service as a policeman under Article 3, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.5, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to security employees of the Department of Corrections, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(m) The amendatory changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly apply only to: (1) security employees of the Department of Juvenile Justice employed by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly; and (2) persons employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly who are required by subsection (b) of Section 3-2.5-15 of the Unified Code of Corrections to have a bachelor's or advanced degree from an accredited college or university with a specialization in criminal justice, education, psychology, social work, or a closely related social science or, in the case of persons who provide vocational training, who are required to have adequate knowledge in the skill for which they are providing the vocational training.

(n) A person employed in a position under subsection (b) of this Section who has purchased service credit under subsection (j) of Section 14-104 or subsection (b) of Section 14-105 in any other capacity under this Article may convert up to 5 years of that service credit into service credit covered under this Section by paying to the Fund an amount equal to (1) the additional employee contribution required under Section 14-133, plus (2) the additional employer contribution required under Section 14-131, plus (3) interest on items (1) and (2) at the actuarially assumed rate from the date of the service to the date of payment.

(Source: P.A. 95-530, eff. 8-28-07; 95-1036, eff. 2-17-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-745, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-1-09.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-131)

Sec. 14-131. Contributions by State.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by appropriations of amounts which, together with other employer contributions from trust, federal, and other funds, employee contributions, investment income, and other income, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

For the purposes of this Section and Section 14-135.08, references to State contributions refer only to employer contributions and do not include employee contributions that are picked up or otherwise paid by the State or a department on behalf of the employee.

(b) The Board shall determine the total amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board, using the formula in subsection (e).

The Board shall also determine a State contribution rate for each fiscal year, expressed as a percentage of payroll, based on the total required State contribution for that fiscal year (less the amount received by the System from appropriations under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act, if any, for the fiscal year ending on the June 30 immediately preceding the applicable November 15 certification deadline), the estimated payroll (including all forms of compensation) for personal services rendered by eligible employees, and the recommendations of the actuary.

For the purposes of this Section and Section 14.1 of the State Finance Act, the term "eligible employees" includes employees who participate in the System, persons who may elect to participate in the System but have not so elected, persons who are serving a qualifying period that is required for participation, and annuitants employed by a department as described in subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2) of Section 14-111.

(c) Contributions shall be made by the several departments for each pay period by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller against their respective funds or appropriations based upon vouchers stating the amount to be so contributed. These amounts shall be based on the full rate certified by the Board under Section 14-135.08 for that fiscal year. From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through the payment of the final payroll from fiscal year 2004 appropriations, the several departments shall not make contributions for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 but shall instead make payments as required under subsection (a-1) of Section 14.1 of the State Finance Act. The several departments shall resume those contributions at the commencement of fiscal year 2005.

(c-1) Notwithstanding subsection (c) of this Section, for fiscal year 2010 only, contributions by the several departments are not required to be made for General Revenue Funds payrolls processed by the Comptroller. Payrolls paid by the several departments from all other State funds must continue to be processed pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section.

(c-2) For State fiscal year 2010 only, on or as soon as possible after the 15th day of each month the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the fiscal year 2010 General Revenue Fund appropriation to the System.

(d) If an employee is paid from trust funds or federal funds, the department or other employer shall pay employer contributions from those funds to the System at the certified rate, unless the terms of the trust or the federal-State agreement preclude the use of the funds for that purpose, in which case the required employer contributions shall be paid by the State. From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through the payment of the final payroll from fiscal year 2004 appropriations, the department or other employer shall not pay contributions for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 but shall instead make payments as required under subsection (a-1) of Section 14.1 of the State Finance Act. The department or other employer shall resume payment of contributions at the commencement of fiscal year 2005.

(e) For State fiscal years 2011 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section; except that (i) for State fiscal year 1998, for all purposes of this Code and any other law of this State, the certified percentage of the applicable employee payroll shall be 5.052% for employees earning eligible creditable service under Section 14-110 and 6.500% for all other employees, notwithstanding any contrary certification made under Section 14-135.08 before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, and (ii) in the following specified State fiscal years, the State contribution to the System shall not be less than the following indicated percentages of the applicable employee payroll, even if the indicated percentage will produce a State contribution in excess of the amount otherwise required under this subsection and subsection (a): 9.8% in FY 1999; 10.0% in FY 2000; 10.2% in FY 2001; 10.4% in FY 2002; 10.6% in FY 2003; and 10.8% in FY 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006 is $203,783,900.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2007 is $344,164,400.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State General Revenue Fund contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $723,703,100 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 14-135.08, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(f) After the submission of all payments for eligible employees from personal services line items in fiscal year 2004 have been made, the Comptroller shall provide to the System a certification of the sum of all fiscal year 2004 expenditures for personal services that would have been covered by payments to the System under this Section if the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly had not been enacted. Upon receipt of the certification, the System shall determine the amount due to the System based on the full rate certified by the Board under Section 14-135.08 for fiscal year 2004 in order to meet the State's obligation under this Section. The System shall compare this amount due to the amount received by the System in fiscal year 2004 through payments under this Section and under Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. If the amount due is more than the amount received, the difference shall be termed the "Fiscal Year 2004 Shortfall" for purposes of this Section, and the Fiscal Year 2004 Shortfall shall be satisfied under Section 1.2 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act. If the amount due is less than the amount received, the difference shall be termed the "Fiscal Year 2004 Overpayment" for purposes of this Section, and the Fiscal Year 2004 Overpayment shall be repaid by the System to the Pension Contribution Fund as soon as practicable after the certification.

(g) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(h) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the System's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(i) (g) After the submission of all payments for eligible employees from personal services line items paid from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010 have been made, the Comptroller shall provide to the System a certification of the sum of all fiscal year 2010 expenditures for personal services that would have been covered by payments to the System under this Section if the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly had not been enacted. Upon receipt of the certification, the System shall determine the amount due to the System based on the full rate certified by the Board under Section 14-135.08 for fiscal year 2010 in order to meet the State's obligation under this Section. The System shall compare this amount due to the amount received by the System in fiscal year 2010 through payments under this Section. If the amount due is more than the amount received, the difference shall be termed the "Fiscal Year 2010 Shortfall" for purposes of this Section, and the Fiscal Year 2010 Shortfall shall be satisfied under Section 1.2 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act. If the amount due is less than the amount received, the difference shall be termed the "Fiscal Year 2010 Overpayment" for purposes of this Section, and the Fiscal Year 2010 Overpayment shall be repaid by the System to the General Revenue Fund as soon as practicable after the certification.

(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; revised 11-3-09.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-159) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-159)

Sec. 15-159. Board created.

(a) A board of trustees constituted as provided in this Section shall administer this System. The board shall be known as the Board of Trustees of the State Universities Retirement System.

(b) Until July 1, 1995, the Board of Trustees shall be constituted as follows:

Two trustees shall be members of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, one shall be a member of the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, and one shall be a member of the Illinois Community College Board, selected in each case by their respective boards, and 2 shall be participants of the system appointed by the Governor for a 6 year term with the first appointment made pursuant to this amendatory Act of 1984 to be effective September 1, 1985, and one shall be a participant appointed by the Illinois Community College Board for a 6 year term, and one shall be a participant appointed by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for a 6 year term, and one shall be a participant or annuitant of the system who is a senior citizen age 60 or older appointed by the Governor for a 6 year term with the first appointment to be effective September 1, 1985.

The terms of all trustees holding office under this subsection (b) on June 30, 1995 shall terminate at the end of that day and the Board shall thereafter be constituted as provided in subsection (c).

(c) Beginning July 1, 1995, the Board of Trustees shall be constituted as follows:

The Board shall consist of 9 trustees appointed by the Governor. Two of the trustees, designated at the time of appointment, shall be participants of the System. Two of the trustees, designated at the time of appointment, shall be annuitants of the System who are receiving retirement annuities under this Article. The 5 remaining trustees may, but need not, be participants or annuitants of the System.

The term of office of trustees appointed under this subsection (c) shall be 6 years, beginning on July 1. However, of the initial trustees appointed under this subsection (c), 3 shall be appointed for terms of 2 years, 3 shall be appointed for terms of 4 years, and 3 shall be appointed for terms of 6 years, to be designated by the Governor at the time of appointment.

The terms of all trustees holding office under this subsection (c) on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall terminate on that effective date. The Governor shall make nominations for appointment under this Section within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. A trustee sitting on the board on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly may not hold over in office for more than 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Governor from making a temporary appointment or nominating a trustee holding office on the day before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(d) Beginning on the 90th day after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Board of Trustees shall be constituted as follows:

(1) The Chairperson of the Board of Higher Education, who shall act as chairperson of this Board.

(2) Four trustees appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate who may not be members of the system or hold an elective State office and who shall serve for a term of 6 years, except that the terms of the initial appointees under this subsection (d) shall be as follows: 2 for a term of 3 years and 2 for a term of 6 years.

(3) Four active participants of the system to be elected from the contributing membership of the system by the contributing members, no more than 2 of which may be from any of the University of Illinois campuses, who shall serve for a term of 6 years, except that the terms of the initial electees shall be as follows: 2 for a term of 3 years and 2 for a term of 6 years.

(4) Two annuitants of the system who have been annuitants for at least one full year, to be elected from and by the annuitants of the system, no more than one of which may be from any of the University of Illinois campuses, who shall serve for a term of 6 years, except that the terms of the initial electees shall be as follows: one for a term of 3 years and one for a term of 6 years.

For the purposes of this Section, the Governor may make a nomination and the Senate may confirm the nominee in advance of the commencement of the nominee's term of office.

(e) The 6 elected trustees shall be elected within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly for a term beginning on the 90th day after the effective date of this amendatory Act. Trustees shall be elected thereafter as terms expire for a 6-year term beginning July 15 next following their election, and such election shall be held on May 1, or on May 2 when May 1 falls on a Sunday. The board may establish rules for the election of trustees to implement the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly and for future elections. Candidates for the participating trustee shall be nominated by petitions in writing, signed by not less than 400 participants with their addresses shown opposite their names. Candidates for the annuitant trustee shall be nominated by petitions in writing, signed by not less than 100 annuitants with their addresses shown opposite their names. If there is more than one qualified nominee for each elected trustee, then the board shall conduct a secret ballot election by mail for that trustee, in accordance with rules as established by the board. If there is only one qualified person nominated by petition for each elected trustee, then the election as required by this Section shall not be conducted for that trustee and the board shall declare such nominee duly elected. A vacancy occurring in the elective membership of the board shall be filled for the unexpired term by the elected trustees serving on the board for the remainder of the term.

(f) A vacancy on the board of trustees caused by resignation, death, expiration of term of office, or other reason shall be filled by a qualified person appointed by the Governor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

(g) Trustees (other than the trustees incumbent on June 30, 1995 or as provided in subsection (c) of this Section) shall continue in office until their respective successors are appointed and have qualified, except that a trustee appointed to one of the participant positions shall be disqualified immediately upon the termination of his or her status as a participant and a trustee appointed to one of the annuitant positions shall be disqualified immediately upon the termination of his or her status as an annuitant receiving a retirement annuity.

(h) Each trustee must take an oath of office before a notary public of this State and shall qualify as a trustee upon the presentation to the board of a certified copy of the oath. The oath must state that the person will diligently and honestly administer the affairs of the retirement system, and will not knowingly violate or wilfully permit to be violated any provisions of this Article.

Each trustee shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for expenses necessarily incurred in attending board meetings and carrying out his or her duties as a trustee or officer of the system.

(i) This amendatory Act of 1995 is intended to supersede the changes made to this Section by Public Act 89-4.

(Source: P.A. 96-6, eff. 4-3-09; revised 4-14-09.)

(40 ILCS 5/18-125) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 18-125)

Sec. 18-125. Retirement annuity amount.

(a) The annual retirement annuity for a participant who terminated service as a judge prior to July 1, 1971 shall be based on the law in effect at the time of termination of service.

(b) Effective July 1, 1971, the retirement annuity for any participant in service on or after such date shall be 3 1/2% of final average salary, as defined in this Section, for each of the first 10 years of service, and 5% of such final average salary for each year of service on excess of 10.

For purposes of this Section, final average salary for a participant who first serves as a judge before August 10, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-207) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be:

(1) the average salary for the last 4 years of credited service as a judge for a participant who terminates service before July 1, 1975.

(2) for a participant who terminates service after June 30, 1975 and before July 1, 1982, the salary on the last day of employment as a judge.

(3) for any participant who terminates service after June 30, 1982 and before January 1, 1990, the average salary for the final year of service as a judge.

(4) for a participant who terminates service on or after January 1, 1990 but before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, the salary on the last day of employment as a judge.

(5) for a participant who terminates service on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, the salary on the last day of employment as a judge, or the highest salary received by the participant for employment as a judge in a position held by the participant for at least 4 consecutive years, whichever is greater.

However, in the case of a participant who elects to discontinue contributions as provided in subdivision (a)(2) of Section 18-133, the time of such election shall be considered the last day of employment in the determination of final average salary under this subsection.

For a participant who first serves as a judge on or after August 10, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-207) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, final average salary shall be the average monthly salary obtained by dividing the total salary of the participant during the period of: (1) the 48 consecutive months of service within the last 120 months of service in which the total compensation was the highest, or (2) the total period of service, if less than 48 months, by the number of months of service in that period.

The maximum retirement annuity for any participant shall be 85% of final average salary.

(c) The retirement annuity for a participant who retires prior to age 60 with less than 28 years of service in the System shall be reduced 1/2 of 1% for each month that the participant's age is under 60 years at the time the annuity commences. However, for a participant who retires on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the percentage reduction in retirement annuity imposed under this subsection shall be reduced by 5/12 of 1% for every month of service in this System in excess of 20 years, and therefore a participant with at least 26 years of service in this System may retire at age 55 without any reduction in annuity.

The reduction in retirement annuity imposed by this subsection shall not apply in the case of retirement on account of disability.

(Source: P.A. 96-207, eff. 8-10-09; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 230. The State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act is amended by changing Section 1.2 as follows:

(40 ILCS 15/1.2)

Sec. 1.2. Appropriations for the State Employees' Retirement System.

(a) From each fund from which an amount is appropriated for personal services to a department or other employer under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code, there is hereby appropriated to that department or other employer, on a continuing annual basis for each State fiscal year, an additional amount equal to the amount, if any, by which (1) an amount equal to the percentage of the personal services line item for that department or employer from that fund for that fiscal year that the Board of Trustees of the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois has certified under Section 14-135.08 of the Illinois Pension Code to be necessary to meet the State's obligation under Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code for that fiscal year, exceeds (2) the amounts otherwise appropriated to that department or employer from that fund for State contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System for that fiscal year. From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through the final payment from a department or employer's personal services line item for fiscal year 2004, payments to the State Employees' Retirement System that otherwise would have been made under this subsection (a) shall be governed by the provisions in subsection (a-1).

(a-1) If a Fiscal Year 2004 Shortfall is certified under subsection (f) of Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code, there is hereby appropriated to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois on a continuing basis from the General Revenue Fund an additional aggregate amount equal to the Fiscal Year 2004 Shortfall.

(a-2) If a Fiscal Year 2010 Shortfall is certified under subsection (g) of Section 14-131 of the Illinois Pension Code, there is hereby appropriated to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois on a continuing basis from the General Revenue Fund an additional aggregate amount equal to the Fiscal Year 2010 Shortfall.

(b) The continuing appropriations provided for by this Section shall first be available in State fiscal year 1996.

(c) Beginning in Fiscal Year 2005, any continuing appropriation under this Section arising out of an appropriation for personal services from the Road Fund to the Department of State Police or the Secretary of State shall be payable from the General Revenue Fund rather than the Road Fund.

(d) For State fiscal year 2010 only, a continuing appropriation is provided to the State Employees' Retirement System equal to the amount certified by the System on or before December 31, 2008, less the gross proceeds of the bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 under the authorization contained in subsection (a) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-43, eff. 7-15-09; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 235. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 15.4 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/15.4) (from Ch. 134, par. 45.4)

Sec. 15.4. Emergency Telephone System Board; powers.

(a) The corporate authorities of any county or municipality that imposes a surcharge under Section 15.3 shall establish an Emergency Telephone System Board. The corporate authorities shall provide for the manner of appointment and the number of members of the Board, provided that the board shall consist of not fewer than 5 members, one of whom must be a public member who is a resident of the local exchange service territory included in the 9-1-1 coverage area, one of whom (in counties with a population less than 100,000) must be a member of the county board, and at least 3 of whom shall be representative of the 9-1-1 public safety agencies, including but not limited to police departments, fire departments, emergency medical services providers, and emergency services and disaster agencies, and appointed on the basis of their ability or experience. In counties with a population of more than 100,000 but less than 2,000,000, a member of the county board may serve on the Emergency Telephone System Board. Elected officials, including members of a county board, are also eligible to serve on the board. Members of the board shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses. Any 2 or more municipalities, counties, or combination thereof, that impose a surcharge under Section 15.3 may, instead of establishing individual boards, establish by intergovernmental agreement a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board pursuant to this Section. The manner of appointment of such a joint board shall be prescribed in the agreement.

(b) The powers and duties of the board shall be defined by ordinance of the municipality or county, or by intergovernmental agreement in the case of a joint board. The powers and duties shall include, but need not be limited to the following:

(1) Planning a 9-1-1 system.

(2) Coordinating and supervising the implementation, upgrading, or maintenance of the system, including the establishment of equipment specifications and coding systems.

(3) Receiving moneys from the surcharge imposed under Section 15.3, and from any other source, for deposit into the Emergency Telephone System Fund.

(4) Authorizing all disbursements from the fund.

(5) Hiring any staff necessary for the implementation or upgrade of the system.

(c) All moneys received by a board pursuant to a surcharge imposed under Section 15.3 shall be deposited into a separate interest-bearing Emergency Telephone System Fund account. The treasurer of the municipality or county that has established the board or, in the case of a joint board, any municipal or county treasurer designated in the intergovernmental agreement, shall be custodian of the fund. All interest accruing on the fund shall remain in the fund. No expenditures may be made from such fund except upon the direction of the board by resolution passed by a majority of all members of the board. Expenditures may be made only to pay for the costs associated with the following:

(1) The design of the Emergency Telephone System.

(2) The coding of an initial Master Street Address Guide data base, and update and maintenance thereof.

(3) The repayment of any moneys advanced for the implementation of the system.

(4) The charges for Automatic Number Identification and Automatic Location Identification equipment, a computer aided dispatch system that records, maintains, and integrates information, mobile data transmitters equipped with automatic vehicle locators, and maintenance, replacement and update thereof to increase operational efficiency and improve the provision of emergency services.

(5) The non-recurring charges related to installation of the Emergency Telephone System and the ongoing network charges.

(6) The acquisition and installation, or the reimbursement of costs therefor to other governmental bodies that have incurred those costs, of road or street signs that are essential to the implementation of the emergency telephone system and that are not duplicative of signs that are the responsibility of the jurisdiction charged with maintaining road and street signs.

(7) Other products and services necessary for the implementation, upgrade, and maintenance of the system and any other purpose related to the operation of the system, including costs attributable directly to the construction, leasing, or maintenance of any buildings or facilities or costs of personnel attributable directly to the operation of the system. Costs attributable directly to the operation of an emergency telephone system do not include the costs of public safety agency personnel who are and equipment that is dispatched in response to an emergency call.

(8) In the case of a municipality that imposes a surcharge under subsection (h) of Section 15.3, moneys may also be used for any anti-terrorism or emergency preparedness measures, including, but not limited to, preparedness planning, providing local matching funds for federal or State grants, personnel training, and specialized equipment, including surveillance cameras as needed to deal with natural and terrorist-inspired emergency situations or events.

Moneys in the fund may also be transferred to a participating fire protection district to reimburse volunteer firefighters who man remote telephone switching facilities when dedicated 9-1-1 lines are down.

(d) The board shall complete the data base before implementation of the 9-1-1 system. The error ratio of the data base shall not at any time exceed 1% of the total data base.

(Source: P.A. 95-698, eff. 1-1-08; 95-806, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1012, eff. 12-15-08; revised 1-18-10.)

Section 240. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 5-1006.5, 5-1069.3, 5-1123, and 5-12020 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-845)

Sec. 5-1006.5. Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, or Transportation.

(a) The county board of any county may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for public safety, public facility, or transportation purposes in that county, if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question. If imposed, this tax shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments. By resolution, the county board may order the proposition to be submitted at any election. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for public highways or as authorized under the Illinois Highway Code, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range highway transportation plan as required or described in Section 5-301 of the Illinois Highway Code and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for passenger rail transportation, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range passenger rail transportation plan and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax.

If a tax is imposed for public facilities purposes, then the name of the project may be included in the proposition at the discretion of the county board as determined in the enabling resolution. For example, the "XXX Nursing Home" or the "YYY Museum".

The county clerk shall certify the question to the proper election authority, who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law.

(1) The proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of the paragraph, "public safety purposes" means crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services.

Votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(2) The proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for improvements to roads and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for road improvements and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of this paragraph, transportation purposes means construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(3) The proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" means the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the proposition vote in favor of it, the county may impose the tax. A county may not submit more than one proposition authorized by this Section to the electors at any one time.

This additional tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed by a county under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this Section, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this Section, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except provisions relating to transaction returns and quarter monthly payments), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their sellers' tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracketed schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a service occupation tax shall also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the county), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Fund.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(c) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside of the State treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the counties from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county, and deposited by the county into its special fund created for the purposes of this Section, shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including (i) an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county and (ii) any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the counties provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in March of each year to each county that received more than $500,000 in disbursements under the preceding paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The allocation shall be in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution made to each such county under the preceding paragraph during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of highest receipts). The distribution made in March of each year subsequent to the year in which an allocation was made pursuant to this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

(d) For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(e-5) If a county imposes a tax under this Section, the county board may, by ordinance, discontinue or lower the rate of the tax. If the county board lowers the tax rate or discontinues the tax, a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

(f) Beginning April 1, 1998, the results of any election authorizing a proposition to impose a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate of tax, or any ordinance lowering the rate or discontinuing the tax, shall be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(g) When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

(h) This Section may be cited as the "Special County Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, or Transportation Law".

(i) For purposes of this Section, "public safety" includes, but is not limited to, crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services. The county may share tax proceeds received under this Section for public safety purposes, including proceeds received before August 4, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-124) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, with any fire protection district located in the county. For the purposes of this Section, "transportation" includes, but is not limited to, the construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation. For the purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" includes, but is not limited to, the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

(j) The Department may promulgate rules to implement Public Act 95-1002 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly only to the extent necessary to apply the existing rules for the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax for Public Safety to this new purpose for public facilities.

(Source: P.A. 95-474, eff. 1-1-08; 95-1002, eff. 11-20-08; 96-124, eff. 8-4-09; 96-622, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-3-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-845)

Sec. 5-1006.5. Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, or Transportation.

(a) The county board of any county may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for public safety, public facility, or transportation purposes in that county, if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question. If imposed, this tax shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments. By resolution, the county board may order the proposition to be submitted at any election. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for public highways or as authorized under the Illinois Highway Code, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range highway transportation plan as required or described in Section 5-301 of the Illinois Highway Code and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for passenger rail transportation, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range passenger rail transportation plan and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax.

If a tax is imposed for public facilities purposes, then the name of the project may be included in the proposition at the discretion of the county board as determined in the enabling resolution. For example, the "XXX Nursing Home" or the "YYY Museum".

The county clerk shall certify the question to the proper election authority, who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law.

(1) The proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of the paragraph, "public safety purposes" means crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services.

Votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(2) The proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for improvements to roads and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for road improvements and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of this paragraph, transportation purposes means construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(3) The proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" means the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the proposition vote in favor of it, the county may impose the tax. A county may not submit more than one proposition authorized by this Section to the electors at any one time.

This additional tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed by a county under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this Section, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this Section, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except provisions relating to transaction returns and quarter monthly payments), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their sellers' tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracketed schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a service occupation tax shall also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the county), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Fund.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(c) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside of the State treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the counties from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county, and deposited by the county into its special fund created for the purposes of this Section, shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including (i) an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county and (ii) any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the counties provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in March of each year to each county that received more than $500,000 in disbursements under the preceding paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The allocation shall be in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution made to each such county under the preceding paragraph during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of highest receipts). The distribution made in March of each year subsequent to the year in which an allocation was made pursuant to this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

A county may direct, by ordinance, that all or a portion of the taxes and penalties collected under the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety or Transportation be deposited into the Transportation Development Partnership Trust Fund.

(d) For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(e-5) If a county imposes a tax under this Section, the county board may, by ordinance, discontinue or lower the rate of the tax. If the county board lowers the tax rate or discontinues the tax, a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

(f) Beginning April 1, 1998, the results of any election authorizing a proposition to impose a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate of tax, or any ordinance lowering the rate or discontinuing the tax, shall be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(g) When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

(h) This Section may be cited as the "Special County Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, or Transportation Law".

(i) For purposes of this Section, "public safety" includes, but is not limited to, crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services. The county may share tax proceeds received under this Section for public safety purposes, including proceeds received before August 4, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-124) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, with any fire protection district located in the county. For the purposes of this Section, "transportation" includes, but is not limited to, the construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation. For the purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" includes, but is not limited to, the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

(j) The Department may promulgate rules to implement Public Act 95-1002 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly only to the extent necessary to apply the existing rules for the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax for Public Safety to this new purpose for public facilities.

(Source: P.A. 95-474, eff. 1-1-08; 95-1002, eff. 11-20-08; 96-124, eff. 8-4-09; 96-622, eff. 8-24-09; 96-845, eff. 7-1-12; revised 12-30-09.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, and 356z.13, and 356z.14, and 356z.15 356z.14 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1123)

Sec. 5-1123. Builder or developer cash bond or other surety.

(a) A county may not require a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company from a builder or developer to guarantee completion of a project improvement when the builder or developer has filed with the county clerk a current, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment, issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company, deemed good and sufficient by the county accepting such security, in an amount equal to or greater than 110% of the amount of the bid on each project improvement. A builder or developer has the option to utilize a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company, deemed good and sufficient by the county, to satisfy any cash bond requirement established by a county. The county must approve and deem a surety or insurance company good and sufficient for the purposes set forth in this Section if the surety or insurance company is authorized by the Illinois Department of Insurance to sell and issue sureties in the State of Illinois.

(b) If a county receives a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, or surety bond from a builder or developer to guarantee completion of a project improvement, the county shall (i) register the bond under the address of the project and the construction permit number and (ii) give the builder or developer a receipt for the bond. The county shall establish and maintain a separate account for all cash bonds received from builders and developers to guarantee completion of a project improvement.

(c) The county shall refund a cash bond to a builder or developer, or release the irrevocable letter of credit or surety bond, within 60 days after the builder or developer notifies the county in writing of the completion of the project improvement for which the bond was required. For these purposes, "completion" means that the county has determined that the project improvement for which the bond was required is complete or a licensed engineer or licensed architect has certified to the builder or developer and the county that the project improvement has been completed to the applicable codes and ordinances. The county shall pay interest to the builder or developer, beginning 60 days after the builder or developer notifies the county in writing of the completion of the project improvement, on any bond not refunded to a builder or developer, at the rate of 1% per month.

(d) A home rule county may not require or maintain cash bonds, irrevocable letters of credit, surety bonds, or other adequate securities from builders or developers in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section supersedes supercedes and controls over other provisions of this Code as they apply to and guarantee completion of a project improvement that is required by the county. This Section is a denial and limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by a home rule county of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 92-479, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-30-09.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12020)

Sec. 5-12020. Wind farms. A county may establish standards for wind farms and electric-generating wind devices. The standards may include, without limitation, the height of the devices and the number of devices that may be located within a geographic area. A county may also regulate the siting of wind farms and electric-generating wind devices in unincorporated areas of the county outside of the zoning jurisdiction of a municipality and the 1.5 mile radius surrounding the zoning jurisdiction of a municipality. There shall be at least one public hearing not more than 30 days prior to a siting decision by the county board. Notice of the hearing shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. Counties may allow test wind towers to be sited without formal approval by the county board. Any provision of a county zoning ordinance pertaining to wind farms that is in effect before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may continue in effect notwithstanding any requirements of this Section.

A county may not require a wind tower or other renewable energy system that is used exclusively by an end user to be setback more than 1.1 times the height of the renewable energy system from the end user's property line.

(Source: P.A. 95-203, eff. 8-16-07; 96-306, eff. 1-1-10; 96-566, eff. 8-18-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 245. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 1-1-11 and 11-20-15 and by changing Sections 7-1-1, 7-1-13, 7-3-1, 10-4-2.3, 11-15.1-2.1, 11-39-3, 11-74.4-3, 11-74.4-3.5, and 11-74.4-7 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/1-1-11)

Sec. 1-1-11. Contractual assessments; renewable energy sources. A municipality may enter into voluntary agreements with the owners of property within the municipality to provide for contractual assessments to finance the installation of distributed generation renewable energy sources or energy efficiency improvements that are permanently fixed to real property.

(Source: P.A. 96-481, eff. 1-1-10.)

(65 ILCS 5/1-1-12)

Sec. 1-1-12 1-1-11. Americans with Disabilities Act coordinator; posting and publication.

(a) Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, each municipality that maintains a website must post on the municipality's website the following information:

(1) the name, office address, and telephone number of the Americans with Disabilities Act coordinator, if any, employed by the municipality; and

(2) the grievance procedures, if any, adopted by the municipality to resolve complaints alleging a violation of Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act.

(b) If a municipality does not maintain a website, then the municipality must, within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, and at least once every other year thereafter, publish in either a newspaper of general circulation within the municipality or a newsletter published by the municipality and mailed to residents of the municipality the information required in item (1) of subsection (a) and either the information required in item (2) of subsection (a) or instructions for obtaining such information from the municipality.

(c) No home rule municipality may adopt posting or publication requirements that are less restrictive than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 96-650, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/7-1-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 7-1-1)

Sec. 7-1-1. Annexation of contiguous territory. Any territory that is not within the corporate limits of any municipality but is contiguous to a municipality may be annexed to the municipality as provided in this Article. For the purposes of this Article any territory to be annexed to a municipality shall be considered to be contiguous to the municipality notwithstanding that the territory is separated from the municipality by a strip parcel, railroad or public utility right-of-way, or former railroad right-of-way that has been converted to a recreational trail, but upon annexation the area included within that strip parcel, right-of-way, or former right-of-way shall not be considered to be annexed to the municipality. For purposes of this Section, "strip parcel" means a separation no wider than 30 feet between the territory to be annexed and the municipal boundary.

Except in counties with a population of more than 600,000 but less than 3,000,000, territory which is not contiguous to a municipality but is separated therefrom only by a forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, or open land or open space that is part of an open space program, as defined in Section 115-5 of the Township Code, may be annexed to the municipality pursuant to Section 7-1-7 or 7-1-8, but only if the annexing municipality can show that the forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space creates an artificial barrier preventing the annexation and that the location of the forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space property prevents the orderly natural growth of the annexing municipality. It shall be conclusively presumed that the forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space does not create an artificial barrier if the property sought to be annexed is bounded on at least 3 sides by (i) one or more other municipalities (other than the municipality seeking annexation through the existing forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space), (ii) forest preserve district property, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space, or (iii) a combination of other municipalities and forest preserve district property, federal wildlife refuge property, open land, or open space. It shall also be conclusively presumed that the forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space does not create an artificial barrier if the municipality seeking annexation is not the closest municipality within the county to the property to be annexed. The territory included within such forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space shall not be annexed to the municipality nor shall the territory of the forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space be subject to rights-of-way for access or services between the parts of the municipality separated by the forest preserve district, federal wildlife refuge, open land, or open space without the consent of the governing body of the forest preserve district or federal wildlife refuge. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 91-824 this amendatory Act of 91st General Assembly are declaratory of existing law and shall not be construed as a new enactment.

In counties that are contiguous to the Mississippi River with populations of more than 200,000 but less than 255,000, a municipality that is partially located in territory that is wholly surrounded by the Mississippi River and a canal, connected at both ends to the Mississippi River and located on property owned by the United States of America, may annex noncontiguous territory in the surrounded territory under Sections 7-1-7, 7-1-8, or 7-1-9 if that territory is separated from the municipality by property owned by the United States of America, but that federal property shall not be annexed without the consent of the federal government.

For the purposes of this Article, any territory to be annexed to a municipality that is located in a county with more than 500,000 inhabitants shall be considered to be contiguous to the municipality if only a river and a national heritage corridor separate the territory from the municipality. Upon annexation, no river or national heritage corridor shall be considered annexed to the municipality.

When any land proposed to be annexed is part of any Fire Protection District or of any Public Library District and the annexing municipality provides fire protection or a public library, as the case may be, the Trustees of each District shall be notified in writing by certified or registered mail before any court hearing or other action is taken for annexation. The notice shall be served 10 days in advance. An affidavit that service of notice has been had as provided by this Section must be filed with the clerk of the court in which the annexation proceedings are pending or will be instituted or, when no court proceedings are involved, with the recorder for the county where the land is situated. No annexation of that land is effective unless service is had and the affidavit filed as provided in this Section.

The new boundary shall extend to the far side of any adjacent highway and shall include all of every highway within the area annexed. These highways shall be considered to be annexed even though not included in the legal description set forth in the petition for annexation. When any land proposed to be annexed includes any highway under the jurisdiction of any township, the Township Commissioner of Highways, the Board of Town Trustees, the Township Supervisor, and the Township Clerk shall be notified in writing by certified or registered mail before any court hearing or other action is taken for annexation. In the event that a municipality fails to notify the Township Commissioner of Highways, the Board of Town Trustees, the Township Supervisor, and the Township Clerk of the annexation of an area within the township, the municipality shall reimburse that township for any loss or liability caused by the failure to give notice. If any municipality has annexed any area before October 1, 1975, and the legal description in the petition for annexation did not include the entire adjacent highway, any such annexation shall be valid and any highway adjacent to the area annexed shall be considered to be annexed notwithstanding the failure of the petition to annex to include the description of the entire adjacent highway.

Any annexation, disconnection and annexation, or disconnection under this Article of any territory must be reported by certified or registered mail by the corporate authority initiating the action to the election authorities having jurisdiction in the territory and the post office branches serving the territory within 30 days of the annexation, disconnection and annexation, or disconnection.

Failure to give notice to the required election authorities or post office branches will not invalidate the annexation or disconnection. For purposes of this Section "election authorities" means the county clerk where the clerk acts as the clerk of elections or the clerk of the election commission having jurisdiction.

No annexation, disconnection and annexation, or disconnection under this Article of territory having electors residing therein made (1) before any primary election to be held within the municipality affected thereby and after the time for filing petitions as a candidate for nomination to any office to be chosen at the primary election or (2) within 60 days before any general election to be held within the municipality shall be effective until the day after the date of the primary or general election, as the case may be.

For the purpose of this Section, a toll highway or connection between parcels via an overpass bridge over a toll highway shall not be considered a deterrent to the definition of contiguous territory.

When territory is proposed to be annexed by court order under this Article, the corporate authorities or petitioners initiating the action shall notify each person who pays real estate taxes on property within that territory unless the person is a petitioner. The notice shall be served by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, at least 20 days before a court hearing or other court action. If the person who pays real estate taxes on the property is not the owner of record, then the payor shall notify the owner of record of the proposed annexation.

(Source: P.A. 94-361, eff. 1-1-06; 94-1065, eff. 8-1-06; 95-174, eff. 1-1-08; revised 11-3-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/7-1-13) (from Ch. 24, par. 7-1-13)

Sec. 7-1-13. Annexation.

(a) Whenever any unincorporated territory containing 60 acres or less, is wholly bounded by (a) one or more municipalities, (b) one or more municipalities and a creek in a county with a population of 400,000 or more, or one or more municipalities and a river or lake in any county, (c) one or more municipalities and the Illinois State boundary, (d) one or more municipalities and property owned by the State of Illinois, except highway right-of-way owned in fee by the State, (e) one or more municipalities and a forest preserve district or park district, (f) if the territory is a triangular parcel of less than 10 acres, one or more municipalities and an interstate highway owned in fee by the State and bounded by a frontage road, or (g) one or more municipalities in a county with a population of more than 800,000 inhabitants and less than 2,000,000 inhabitants and either a railroad or operating property, as defined in the Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/11-70), being immediately adjacent to, but exclusive of that railroad property, that territory may be annexed by any municipality by which it is bounded in whole or in part, by the passage of an ordinance to that effect after notice is given as provided in subsection (b) of this Section. Land or property that is used for agricultural purposes or to produce agricultural goods shall not be annexed pursuant to item (g). Nothing in this Section shall subject any railroad property to the zoning or jurisdiction of any municipality annexing the property under this Section. , and for land annexed pursuant to item (g), notice shall be given to the impacted land owners The ordinance shall describe the territory annexed and a copy thereof together with an accurate map of the annexed territory shall be recorded in the office of the recorder of the county wherein the annexed territory is situated and a document of annexation shall be filed with the county clerk and County Election Authority. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as permitting a municipality to annex territory of a forest preserve district in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more without obtaining the consent of the district pursuant to Section 8.3 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act nor shall anything in this Section be construed as permitting a municipality to annex territory owned by a park district without obtaining the consent of the district pursuant to Section 8-1.1 of the Park District Code.

(b) The corporate authorities shall cause notice, stating that annexation of the territory described in the notice is contemplated under this Section, to be published once, in a newspaper of general circulation within the territory to be annexed, not less than 10 days before the passage of the annexation ordinance, and for land annexed pursuant to item (g) of subsection (a) of this Section, notice shall be given to the impacted land owners. The corporate authorities shall also, not less than 15 days before the passage of the annexation ordinance, serve written notice, either in person or, at a minimum, by certified mail, on the taxpayer of record of the proposed annexed territory as appears from the authentic tax records of the county. When the territory to be annexed lies wholly or partially within a township other than the township where the municipality is situated, the annexing municipality shall give at least 10 days prior written notice of the time and place of the passage of the annexation ordinance to the township supervisor of the township where the territory to be annexed lies.

(c) When notice is given as described in subsection (b) of this Section, no other municipality may annex the proposed territory for a period of 60 days from the date the notice is mailed or delivered to the taxpayer of record unless that other municipality has initiated annexation proceedings or a valid petition as described in Section 7-1-2, 7-1-8, 7-1-11 or 7-1-12 of this Code has been received by the municipality prior to the publication and mailing of the notices required in subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 94-396, eff. 8-1-05; 95-931, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1039, eff. 3-25-09; revised 4-9-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/7-3-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 7-3-1)

Sec. 7-3-1. Within one year of the organization of any municipality under the provisions of Divisions 2 and 3 of Article 2 of this Code, any territory which has been included therein may be disconnected from such municipality if the territory sought to be disconnected is (1) upon the the border, but within the boundary of the municipality, (2) contains 20 or more acres, (3) if disconnected will not result in the isolation of any part of the municipality from the remainder of the municipality, and (4) if disconnected will not be a territory wholly bounded by one or more municipalities or wholly bounded by one or more municipalities and a river or lake, (5) if disconnected, the growth prospects and plan and zoning ordinances, if any, of such municipality will not be unreasonably disrupted, (6) if disconnected, no substantial disruption will result to existing municipal service facilities such as, but not limited to, sewer systems, street lighting, water mains, garbage collection and fire protection, (7) if disconnected the municipality will not be unduly harmed through loss of tax revenue in the future. The procedure for disconnection shall be as follows:

A written petition directed to the circuit court of the county in which the territory proposed to be disconnected is located and if such territory is located in more than one county then to the circuit court of the county in which the greater part of such territory may be located, which petition shall be signed by a majority of the electors, if any, residing within the territory and also signed by a majority of the owners of record of land in such territory, and also representing a majority of the area of land in such territory, shall be filed with the clerk of the court within one year of the organization of any municipality under the provisions of Divisions 2 and 3 of Article 2 of this Code. The petition shall set forth the description of the territory to be detached from such municipality, shall allege the pertinent facts in support of the disconnection of such territory and shall pray the court to detach the territory from the municipality.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 2176; revised 11-3-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, and 356z.13, and 356z.14, and 356z.15 356z.14 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-15.1-2.1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-15.1-2.1)

Sec. 11-15.1-2.1. Annexation agreement; municipal jurisdiction.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), property that is the subject of an annexation agreement adopted under this Division is subject to the ordinances, control, and jurisdiction of the annexing municipality in all respects the same as property that lies within the annexing municipality's corporate limits.

(b) This Section shall not apply in (i) a county with a population of more than 3,000,000, (ii) a county that borders a county with a population of more than 3,000,000 or (iii) a county with a population of more than 246,000 according to the 1990 federal census and bordered by the Mississippi River, unless the parties to the annexation agreement have, at the time the agreement is signed, ownership or control of all property that would make the property that is the subject of the agreement contiguous to the annexing municipality, in which case the property that is the subject of the annexation agreement is subject to the ordinances, control, and jurisdiction of the municipality in all respects the same as property owned by the municipality that lies within its corporate limits.

(b-5) The limitations of item (iii) of subsection (b) do not apply to property that is the subject of an annexation agreement adopted under this Division within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly with a coterminous home rule municipality, as of June 1, 2009, that borders the Mississippi River, in a county with a population in excess of 258,000, according to the 2000 federal census, if all such agreements entered into by the municipality pertain to parcels that comprise a contiguous area of not more than 120 acres in the aggregate.

(c) Except for property located in a county referenced in subsection (b) of this Section, if property that is the subject of an annexation agreement Champaign, is located more than 1.5 miles from the corporate boundaries of the annexing municipality, that property is subject to the ordinances, control, and jurisdiction of the annexing municipality unless the county board retains jurisdiction by the affirmative vote of two-thirds of its members.

(d) If the county board retains jurisdiction under subsection (c) of this Section, the annexing municipality may file a request for jurisdiction with the county board on a case by case basis. If the county board agrees by the affirmative vote of a majority of its members, then the property covered by the annexation agreement shall be subject to the ordinances, control, and jurisdiction of the annexing municipality.

(Source: P.A. 95-175, eff. 1-1-08; 95-922, eff. 8-26-08; 96-163, eff. 1-1-10; 96-188, eff. 8-10-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-20-15)

Sec. 11-20-15. Lien for removal costs.

(a) If the municipality incurs a removal cost under Section 11-20-7, 11-20-8, 11-20-12, or 11-20-13 with respect to any underlying parcel, then that cost is a lien upon that underlying parcel. This lien is superior to all other liens and encumbrances, except tax liens and as otherwise provided in subsection (c) of this Section.

(b) To perfect a lien under this Section, the municipality must, within one year after the removal cost is incurred, file notice of lien in the office of the recorder in the county in which the underlying parcel is located or, if the underlying parcel is registered under the Torrens system, in the office of the Registrar of Titles of that county. The notice must consist of a sworn statement setting out:

(1) a description of the underlying parcel that sufficiently identifies the parcel;

(2) the amount of the removal cost; and

(3) the date or dates when the removal cost was incurred by the municipality.

If, for any one parcel, the municipality engaged in any removal activity on more than one occasion during the course of one year, then the municipality may combine any or all of the costs of each of those activities into a single notice of lien.

(c) A lien under this Section is not valid as to: (i) any purchaser whose rights in and to the underlying parcel arose after the removal activity but before the filing of the notice of lien; or (ii) any mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lienor whose rights in and to the underlying parcel arose before the filing of the notice of lien.

(d) The removal cost is not a lien on the underlying parcel unless a notice is personally served on, or sent by certified mail to, the person to whom was sent the tax bill for the general taxes on the property for the taxable year immediately preceding the removal activities. The notice must be delivered or sent after the removal activities have been performed, and it must: (i) state the substance of this Section and the substance of any ordinance of the municipality implementing this Section; (ii) identify the underlying parcel, by common description; and (iii) describe the removal activity.

(e) A lien under this Section may be enforced by proceedings to foreclose as in case of mortgages or mechanics' liens. An action to foreclose a lien under this Section must be commenced within 2 years after the date of filing notice of lien.

(f) Any person who performs a removal activity by the authority of the municipality may, in his or her own name, file a lien and foreclose on that lien in the same manner as a municipality under this Section.

(g) A failure to file a foreclosure action does not, in any way, affect the validity of the lien against the underlying parcel.

(h) Upon payment of the lien cost by the owner of the underlying parcel after notice of lien has been filed, the municipality (or its agent under subsection (f)) shall release the lien, and the release may be filed of record by the owner at his or her sole expense as in the case of filing notice of lien.

(i) For the purposes of this Section:

"Lien cost" means the removal cost and the filing costs for any notice of lien under subsection (b).

"Removal activity" means any activity for which a removal cost was incurred.

"Removal cost" means a removal cost as defined under Section 11-20-7, 11-20-8, 11-20-12, or 11-20-13.

"Underlying parcel" means a parcel of private property upon which a removal activity was performed.

"Year" means a 365-day period.

(j) This Section applies only to liens filed after August 14, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-462).

(k) This Section shall not apply to a lien filed pursuant to Section 11-20-15.1.

(Source: P.A. 96-462, eff. 8-14-09; 96-856, eff. 3-1-10.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-20-16)

Sec. 11-20-16 11-20-15. Retail food establishments.

(a) A municipality in a county having a population of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants must regulate and inspect retail food establishments in the municipality. A municipality must regulate and inspect retail food establishments in accordance with applicable federal and State laws pertaining to the operation of retail food establishments including but not limited to the Illinois Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act, the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, the Sanitary Food Preparation Act, the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, and local ordinances and regulations. This subsection shall not apply to a municipality that is served by a certified local health department other than a county certified local health department.

A home rule unit may not regulate retail food establishments in a less restrictive manner than as provided in this Section. This Section is a limitation of home rule powers under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

(b) A municipality may enter into an intergovernmental agreement with a county that provides for the county's certified local health department to perform any or all inspection functions for the municipality. The municipality must pay the county's reasonable costs. An intergovernmental agreement shall not preclude a municipality from continuing to license retail food establishments within its jurisdiction.

(c) For the purpose of this Section, "retail food establishment" includes a food service establishment, a temporary food service establishment, and a retail food store as defined in the Food Service Sanitation Code, 77 Ill. Adm. Code Part 750, and the Retail Food Store Sanitation Code, 77 Ill. Adm. Code Part 760.

(Source: P.A. 96-749, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-7-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-39-3)

Sec. 11-39-3. Builder or developer cash bond or other surety.

(a) A municipality may not require a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company from a builder or developer to guarantee completion of a project improvement when the builder or developer has filed with the municipal clerk a current, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company, deemed good and sufficient by the municipality accepting such security, in an amount equal to or greater than 110% of the amount of the bid on each project improvement. A builder or developer has the option to utilize a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, surety bond, or letter of commitment, issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company, deemed good and sufficient by the municipality, to satisfy any cash bond requirement established by a municipality. Except for a municipality or county with a population of 1,000,000 or more, the municipality must approve and deem a surety or insurance company good and sufficient for the purposes set forth in this Section if the surety or insurance company is authorized by the Illinois Department of Insurance to sell and issue sureties in the State of Illinois.

(b) If a municipality receives a cash bond, irrevocable letter of credit, or surety bond from a builder or developer to guarantee completion of a project improvement, the municipality shall (i) register the bond under the address of the project and the construction permit number and (ii) give the builder or developer a receipt for the bond. The municipality shall establish and maintain a separate account for all cash bonds received from builders and developers to guarantee completion of a project improvement.

(c) The municipality shall refund a cash bond to a builder or developer, or release the irrevocable letter of credit or surety bond within 60 days after the builder or developer notifies the municipality in writing of the completion of the project improvement for which the bond was required. For these purposes, "completion" means that the municipality has determined that the project improvement for which the bond was required is complete or a licensed engineer or licensed architect has certified to the builder or developer and the municipality that the project improvement has been completed to the applicable codes and ordinances. The municipality shall pay interest to the builder or developer, beginning 60 days after builder or developer notifies the municipality in writing of the completion of the project improvement, on any bond not refunded to a builder or developer, at the rate of 1% per month.

(d) A home rule municipality may not require or maintain cash bonds, irrevocable letters of credit, surety bonds, or letters of commitment issued by a bank, savings and loan association, surety, or insurance company from builders or developers in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section supersedes supercedes and controls over other provisions of this Code as they apply to and guarantee completion of a project improvement that is required by the municipality, regardless of whether the project improvement is a condition of annexation agreements. This Section is a denial and limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by a home rule municipality of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 92-479, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-30-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-3)

Sec. 11-74.4-3. Definitions. The following terms, wherever used or referred to in this Division 74.4 shall have the following respective meanings, unless in any case a different meaning clearly appears from the context.

(a) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "blighted area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "blighted area" means any improved or vacant area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality where:

(1) If improved, industrial, commercial, and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, or welfare because of a combination of 5 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the improved part of the redevelopment project area:

(A) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(B) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(C) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(D) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(E) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(F) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(G) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(H) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(I) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: (i) the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and (ii) the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(J) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(K) Environmental clean-up. The proposed redevelopment project area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(L) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(M) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(2) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) Obsolete platting of vacant land that results in parcels of limited or narrow size or configurations of parcels of irregular size or shape that would be difficult to develop on a planned basis and in a manner compatible with contemporary standards and requirements, or platting that failed to create rights-of-ways for streets or alleys or that created inadequate right-of-way widths for streets, alleys, or other public rights-of-way or that omitted easements for public utilities.

(B) Diversity of ownership of parcels of vacant land sufficient in number to retard or impede the ability to assemble the land for development.

(C) Tax and special assessment delinquencies exist or the property has been the subject of tax sales under the Property Tax Code within the last 5 years.

(D) Deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas adjacent to the vacant land.

(E) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(F) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(3) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by one of the following factors that (i) is present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) is reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) The area consists of one or more unused quarries, mines, or strip mine ponds.

(B) The area consists of unused rail yards, rail tracks, or railroad rights-of-way.

(C) The area, prior to its designation, is subject to (i) chronic flooding that adversely impacts on real property in the area as certified by a registered professional engineer or appropriate regulatory agency or (ii) surface water that discharges from all or a part of the area and contributes to flooding within the same watershed, but only if the redevelopment project provides for facilities or improvements to contribute to the alleviation of all or part of the flooding.

(D) The area consists of an unused or illegal disposal site containing earth, stone, building debris, or similar materials that were removed from construction, demolition, excavation, or dredge sites.

(E) Prior to November 1, 1999, the area is not less than 50 nor more than 100 acres and 75% of which is vacant (notwithstanding that the area has been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area), and the area meets at least one of the factors itemized in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the area has been designated as a town or village center by ordinance or comprehensive plan adopted prior to January 1, 1982, and the area has not been developed for that designated purpose.

(F) The area qualified as a blighted improved area immediately prior to becoming vacant, unless there has been substantial private investment in the immediately surrounding area.

(b) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "conservation area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "conservation area" means any improved area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more. Such an area is not yet a blighted area but because of a combination of 3 or more of the following factors is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such an area may become a blighted area:

(1) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(2) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(3) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(4) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(5) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(6) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(7) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence or inadequacy of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(8) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(9) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(10) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(11) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(12) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(13) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available.

(c) "Industrial park" means an area in a blighted or conservation area suitable for use by any manufacturing, industrial, research or transportation enterprise, of facilities to include but not be limited to factories, mills, processing plants, assembly plants, packing plants, fabricating plants, industrial distribution centers, warehouses, repair overhaul or service facilities, freight terminals, research facilities, test facilities or railroad facilities.

(d) "Industrial park conservation area" means an area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality or within 1 1/2 miles of the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality if the area is annexed to the municipality; which area is zoned as industrial no later than at the time the municipality by ordinance designates the redevelopment project area, and which area includes both vacant land suitable for use as an industrial park and a blighted area or conservation area contiguous to such vacant land.

(e) "Labor surplus municipality" means a municipality in which, at any time during the 6 months before the municipality by ordinance designates an industrial park conservation area, the unemployment rate was over 6% and was also 100% or more of the national average unemployment rate for that same time as published in the United States Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics publication entitled "The Employment Situation" or its successor publication. For the purpose of this subsection, if unemployment rate statistics for the municipality are not available, the unemployment rate in the municipality shall be deemed to be the same as the unemployment rate in the principal county in which the municipality is located.

(f) "Municipality" shall mean a city, village, incorporated town, or a township that is located in the unincorporated portion of a county with 3 million or more inhabitants, if the county adopted an ordinance that approved the township's redevelopment plan.

(g) "Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located in a State Sales Tax Boundary during the calendar year 1985.

(g-1) "Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located within the State Sales Tax Boundary revised pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8a(9) of this Act.

(h) "Municipal Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid to a municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen within the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, for as long as the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, exist over and above the aggregate amount of taxes as certified by the Illinois Department of Revenue and paid under the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen, on transactions at places of business located in the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall determine the Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts". For purposes of determining the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the amount paid to the municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the redevelopment project area or the State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, to June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending June 30 to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts, as the case may be.

(i) "Net State Sales Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary. If, however, a municipality established a tax increment financing district in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 before January 1, 1986, and the municipality entered into a contract or issued bonds after January 1, 1986, but before December 31, 1986, to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, then the Net State Sales Tax Increment means, for the fiscal years beginning July 1, 1990, and July 1, 1991, 100% of the State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, for those fiscal years the Department of Revenue shall distribute to those municipalities 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment before any distribution to any other municipality and regardless of whether or not those other municipalities will receive 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment. For Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991, or that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988, shall continue to receive their proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund distribution until the date on which the redevelopment project is completed or terminated. If, however, a municipality that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991 retires the bonds prior to June 30, 2007 or a municipality that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988 completes the contracts prior to June 30, 2007, then so long as the redevelopment project is not completed or is not terminated, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated, beginning on the date on which the bonds are retired or the contracts are completed, as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to July 29, 1991, shall not alter the Net State Sales Tax Increment.

(j) "State Utility Tax Increment Amount" means an amount equal to the aggregate increase in State electric and gas tax charges imposed on owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties located within the redevelopment project area under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, over and above the aggregate of such charges as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid by owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties within the redevelopment project area during the base year, which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year of the adoption of the ordinance authorizing tax increment allocation financing.

(k) "Net State Utility Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of the State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area. For the State Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a redevelopment project area, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for the State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issue bonds in connection with the redevelopment project during the period from June 1, 1988 until 3 years after the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1988 shall receive the Net State Utility Tax Increment, subject to appropriation, for 15 State Fiscal Years after the issuance of such bonds. For the 16th through the 20th State Fiscal Years after issuance of the bonds, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in year 16; 80% in year 17; 70% in year 18; 60% in year 19; and 50% in year 20. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to June 1, 1988, shall not alter the revised Net State Utility Tax Increment payments set forth above.

(l) "Obligations" mean bonds, loans, debentures, notes, special certificates or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the municipality to carry out a redevelopment project or to refund outstanding obligations.

(m) "Payment in lieu of taxes" means those estimated tax revenues from real property in a redevelopment project area derived from real property that has been acquired by a municipality which according to the redevelopment project or plan is to be used for a private use which taxing districts would have received had a municipality not acquired the real property and adopted tax increment allocation financing and which would result from levies made after the time of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing to the time the current equalized value of real property in the redevelopment project area exceeds the total initial equalized value of real property in said area.

(n) "Redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the municipality for development or redevelopment intended by the payment of redevelopment project costs to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the redevelopment project area as a "blighted area" or "conservation area" or combination thereof or "industrial park conservation area," and thereby to enhance the tax bases of the taxing districts which extend into the redevelopment project area. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting. Each redevelopment plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish the objectives and shall include but not be limited to:

(A) an itemized list of estimated redevelopment project costs;

(B) evidence indicating that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise;

(C) an assessment of any financial impact of the redevelopment project area on or any increased demand for services from any taxing district affected by the plan and any program to address such financial impact or increased demand;

(D) the sources of funds to pay costs;

(E) the nature and term of the obligations to be issued;

(F) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the redevelopment project area;

(G) an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after redevelopment and the general land uses to apply in the redevelopment project area;

(H) a commitment to fair employment practices and an affirmative action plan;

(I) if it concerns an industrial park conservation area, the plan shall also include a general description of any proposed developer, user and tenant of any property, a description of the type, structure and general character of the facilities to be developed, a description of the type, class and number of new employees to be employed in the operation of the facilities to be developed; and

(J) if property is to be annexed to the municipality, the plan shall include the terms of the annexation agreement.

The provisions of items (B) and (C) of this subsection (n) shall not apply to a municipality that before March 14, 1994 (the effective date of Public Act 88-537) had fixed, either by its corporate authorities or by a commission designated under subsection (k) of Section 11-74.4-4, a time and place for a public hearing as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5. No redevelopment plan shall be adopted unless a municipality complies with all of the following requirements:

(1) The municipality finds that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise and would not reasonably be anticipated to be developed without the adoption of the redevelopment plan.

(2) The municipality finds that the redevelopment plan and project conform to the comprehensive plan for the development of the municipality as a whole, or, for municipalities with a population of 100,000 or more, regardless of when the redevelopment plan and project was adopted, the redevelopment plan and project either: (i) conforms to the strategic economic development or redevelopment plan issued by the designated planning authority of the municipality, or (ii) includes land uses that have been approved by the planning commission of the municipality.

(3) The redevelopment plan establishes the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs. Those dates may not be later than the dates set forth under Section 11-74.4-3.5.

A municipality may by municipal ordinance amend an existing redevelopment plan to conform to this paragraph (3) as amended by Public Act 91-478, which municipal ordinance may be adopted without further hearing or notice and without complying with the procedures provided in this Act pertaining to an amendment to or the initial approval of a redevelopment plan and project and designation of a redevelopment project area.

(3.5) The municipality finds, in the case of an industrial park conservation area, also that the municipality is a labor surplus municipality and that the implementation of the redevelopment plan will reduce unemployment, create new jobs and by the provision of new facilities enhance the tax base of the taxing districts that extend into the redevelopment project area.

(4) If any incremental revenues are being utilized under Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(2) of this Act in redevelopment project areas approved by ordinance after January 1, 1986, the municipality finds: (a) that the redevelopment project area would not reasonably be developed without the use of such incremental revenues, and (b) that such incremental revenues will be exclusively utilized for the development of the redevelopment project area.

(5) If the redevelopment plan will not result in displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, and the municipality certifies in the plan that such displacement will not result from the plan, a housing impact study need not be performed. If, however, the redevelopment plan would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, or if the redevelopment project area contains 75 or more inhabited residential units and no certification is made, then the municipality shall prepare, as part of the separate feasibility report required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5, a housing impact study.

Part I of the housing impact study shall include (i) data as to whether the residential units are single family or multi-family units, (ii) the number and type of rooms within the units, if that information is available, (iii) whether the units are inhabited or uninhabited, as determined not less than 45 days before the date that the ordinance or resolution required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5 is passed, and (iv) data as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units. The data requirement as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units shall be deemed to be fully satisfied by data from the most recent federal census.

Part II of the housing impact study shall identify the inhabited residential units in the proposed redevelopment project area that are to be or may be removed. If inhabited residential units are to be removed, then the housing impact study shall identify (i) the number and location of those units that will or may be removed, (ii) the municipality's plans for relocation assistance for those residents in the proposed redevelopment project area whose residences are to be removed, (iii) the availability of replacement housing for those residents whose residences are to be removed, and shall identify the type, location, and cost of the housing, and (iv) the type and extent of relocation assistance to be provided.

(6) On and after November 1, 1999, the housing impact study required by paragraph (5) shall be incorporated in the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area.

(7) On and after November 1, 1999, no redevelopment plan shall be adopted, nor an existing plan amended, nor shall residential housing that is occupied by households of low-income and very low-income persons in currently existing redevelopment project areas be removed after November 1, 1999 unless the redevelopment plan provides, with respect to inhabited housing units that are to be removed for households of low-income and very low-income persons, affordable housing and relocation assistance not less than that which would be provided under the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 and the regulations under that Act, including the eligibility criteria. Affordable housing may be either existing or newly constructed housing. For purposes of this paragraph (7), "low-income households", "very low-income households", and "affordable housing" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to ensure that this affordable housing is located in or near the redevelopment project area within the municipality.

(8) On and after November 1, 1999, if, after the adoption of the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area, any municipality desires to amend its redevelopment plan to remove more inhabited residential units than specified in its original redevelopment plan, that change shall be made in accordance with the procedures in subsection (c) of Section 11-74.4-5.

(9) For redevelopment project areas designated prior to November 1, 1999, the redevelopment plan may be amended without further joint review board meeting or hearing, provided that the municipality shall give notice of any such changes by mail to each affected taxing district and registrant on the interested party registry, to authorize the municipality to expend tax increment revenues for redevelopment project costs defined by paragraphs (5) and (7.5), subparagraphs (E) and (F) of paragraph (11), and paragraph (11.5) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3, so long as the changes do not increase the total estimated redevelopment project costs set out in the redevelopment plan by more than 5% after adjustment for inflation from the date the plan was adopted.

(o) "Redevelopment project" means any public and private development project in furtherance of the objectives of a redevelopment plan. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting.

(p) "Redevelopment project area" means an area designated by the municipality, which is not less in the aggregate than 1 1/2 acres and in respect to which the municipality has made a finding that there exist conditions which cause the area to be classified as an industrial park conservation area or a blighted area or a conservation area, or a combination of both blighted areas and conservation areas.

(p-1) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, on and after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-680) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a redevelopment project area may include areas within a one-half mile radius of an existing or proposed Regional Transportation Authority Suburban Transit Access Route (STAR Line) station without a finding that the area is classified as an industrial park conservation area, a blighted area, a conservation area, or a combination thereof, but only if the municipality receives unanimous consent from the joint review board created to review the proposed redevelopment project area.

(q) "Redevelopment project costs", except for redevelopment project areas created pursuant to subsection (p-1), means mean and includes include the sum total of all reasonable or necessary costs incurred or estimated to be incurred, and any such costs incidental to a redevelopment plan and a redevelopment project. Such costs include, without limitation, the following:

(1) Costs of studies, surveys, development of plans, and specifications, implementation and administration of the redevelopment plan including but not limited to staff and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, financial, planning or other services, provided however that no charges for professional services may be based on a percentage of the tax increment collected; except that on and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no contracts for professional services, excluding architectural and engineering services, may be entered into if the terms of the contract extend beyond a period of 3 years. In addition, "redevelopment project costs" shall not include lobbying expenses. After consultation with the municipality, each tax increment consultant or advisor to a municipality that plans to designate or has designated a redevelopment project area shall inform the municipality in writing of any contracts that the consultant or advisor has entered into with entities or individuals that have received, or are receiving, payments financed by tax increment revenues produced by the redevelopment project area with respect to which the consultant or advisor has performed, or will be performing, service for the municipality. This requirement shall be satisfied by the consultant or advisor before the commencement of services for the municipality and thereafter whenever any other contracts with those individuals or entities are executed by the consultant or advisor;

(1.5) After July 1, 1999, annual administrative costs shall not include general overhead or administrative costs of the municipality that would still have been incurred by the municipality if the municipality had not designated a redevelopment project area or approved a redevelopment plan;

(1.6) The cost of marketing sites within the redevelopment project area to prospective businesses, developers, and investors;

(2) Property assembly costs, including but not limited to acquisition of land and other property, real or personal, or rights or interests therein, demolition of buildings, site preparation, site improvements that serve as an engineered barrier addressing ground level or below ground environmental contamination, including, but not limited to parking lots and other concrete or asphalt barriers, and the clearing and grading of land;

(3) Costs of rehabilitation, reconstruction or repair or remodeling of existing public or private buildings, fixtures, and leasehold improvements; and the cost of replacing an existing public building if pursuant to the implementation of a redevelopment project the existing public building is to be demolished to use the site for private investment or devoted to a different use requiring private investment; including any direct or indirect costs relating to Green Globes or LEED certified construction elements or construction elements with an equivalent certification;

(4) Costs of the construction of public works or improvements, including any direct or indirect costs relating to Green Globes or LEED certified construction elements or construction elements with an equivalent certification, except that on and after November 1, 1999, redevelopment project costs shall not include the cost of constructing a new municipal public building principally used to provide offices, storage space, or conference facilities or vehicle storage, maintenance, or repair for administrative, public safety, or public works personnel and that is not intended to replace an existing public building as provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3 unless either (i) the construction of the new municipal building implements a redevelopment project that was included in a redevelopment plan that was adopted by the municipality prior to November 1, 1999 or (ii) the municipality makes a reasonable determination in the redevelopment plan, supported by information that provides the basis for that determination, that the new municipal building is required to meet an increase in the need for public safety purposes anticipated to result from the implementation of the redevelopment plan;

(5) Costs of job training and retraining projects, including the cost of "welfare to work" programs implemented by businesses located within the redevelopment project area;

(6) Financing costs, including but not limited to all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations and which may include payment of interest on any obligations issued hereunder including interest accruing during the estimated period of construction of any redevelopment project for which such obligations are issued and for not exceeding 36 months thereafter and including reasonable reserves related thereto;

(7) To the extent the municipality by written agreement accepts and approves the same, all or a portion of a taxing district's capital costs resulting from the redevelopment project necessarily incurred or to be incurred within a taxing district in furtherance of the objectives of the redevelopment plan and project.

(7.5) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after November 1, 1999, an elementary, secondary, or unit school district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act, and which costs shall be paid by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units and shall be calculated annually as follows:

(A) for foundation districts, excluding any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general State aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 25% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 17% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 8% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(B) For alternate method districts, flat grant districts, and foundation districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge equal to or more than $5,900, excluding any school district with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general state aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts, no more than 40% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts, no more than 27% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts, no more than 13% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(C) For any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, the following restrictions shall apply to the reimbursement of increased costs under this paragraph (7.5):

(i) no increased costs shall be reimbursed unless the school district certifies that each of the schools affected by the assisted housing project is at or over its student capacity;

(ii) the amount reimbursable shall be reduced by the value of any land donated to the school district by the municipality or developer, and by the value of any physical improvements made to the schools by the municipality or developer; and

(iii) the amount reimbursed may not affect amounts otherwise obligated by the terms of any bonds, notes, or other funding instruments, or the terms of any redevelopment agreement.

Any school district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.5) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with reasonable evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the school district. If the school district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. School districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.5). By acceptance of this reimbursement the school district waives the right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(7.7) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-961), a public library district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act shall be paid to the library district by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units. This paragraph (7.7) applies only if (i) the library district is located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law or (ii) the library district is not located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law but the district is prohibited by any other law from increasing its tax levy rate without a prior voter referendum.

The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be calculated by multiplying (i) the net increase in the number of persons eligible to obtain a library card in that district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by (ii) the per-patron cost of providing library services so long as it does not exceed $120. The per-patron cost shall be the Total Operating Expenditures Per Capita as stated in the most recent Illinois Public Library Statistics produced by the Library Research Center at the University of Illinois. The municipality may deduct from the amount that it must pay to a library district under this paragraph any amount that it has voluntarily paid to the library district from the tax increment revenue. The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be no more than 2% of the amount produced by the assisted housing units and deposited into the Special Tax Allocation Fund.

A library district is not eligible for any payment under this paragraph (7.7) unless the library district has experienced an increase in the number of patrons from the municipality that created the tax-increment-financing district since the designation of the redevelopment project area.

Any library district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.7) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with convincing evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the library district. If the library district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. Library districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.7). By acceptance of such reimbursement, the library district shall forfeit any right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner whatsoever the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(8) Relocation costs to the extent that a municipality determines that relocation costs shall be paid or is required to make payment of relocation costs by federal or State law or in order to satisfy subparagraph (7) of subsection (n);

(9) Payment in lieu of taxes;

(10) Costs of job training, retraining, advanced vocational education or career education, including but not limited to courses in occupational, semi-technical or technical fields leading directly to employment, incurred by one or more taxing districts, provided that such costs (i) are related to the establishment and maintenance of additional job training, advanced vocational education or career education programs for persons employed or to be employed by employers located in a redevelopment project area; and (ii) when incurred by a taxing district or taxing districts other than the municipality, are set forth in a written agreement by or among the municipality and the taxing district or taxing districts, which agreement describes the program to be undertaken, including but not limited to the number of employees to be trained, a description of the training and services to be provided, the number and type of positions available or to be available, itemized costs of the program and sources of funds to pay for the same, and the term of the agreement. Such costs include, specifically, the payment by community college districts of costs pursuant to Sections 3-37, 3-38, 3-40 and 3-40.1 of the Public Community College Act and by school districts of costs pursuant to Sections 10-22.20a and 10-23.3a of The School Code;

(11) Interest cost incurred by a redeveloper related to the construction, renovation or rehabilitation of a redevelopment project provided that:

(A) such costs are to be paid directly from the special tax allocation fund established pursuant to this Act;

(B) such payments in any one year may not exceed 30% of the annual interest costs incurred by the redeveloper with regard to the redevelopment project during that year;

(C) if there are not sufficient funds available in the special tax allocation fund to make the payment pursuant to this paragraph (11) then the amounts so due shall accrue and be payable when sufficient funds are available in the special tax allocation fund;

(D) the total of such interest payments paid pursuant to this Act may not exceed 30% of the total (i) cost paid or incurred by the redeveloper for the redevelopment project plus (ii) redevelopment project costs excluding any property assembly costs and any relocation costs incurred by a municipality pursuant to this Act; and

(E) the cost limits set forth in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11) shall be modified for the financing of rehabilitated or new housing units for low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The percentage of 75% shall be substituted for 30% in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11).

(F) Instead of the eligible costs provided by subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11), as modified by this subparagraph, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the municipality may pay from tax increment revenues up to 50% of the cost of construction of new housing units to be occupied by low-income households and very low-income households as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The cost of construction of those units may be derived from the proceeds of bonds issued by the municipality under this Act or other constitutional or statutory authority or from other sources of municipal revenue that may be reimbursed from tax increment revenues or the proceeds of bonds issued to finance the construction of that housing.

The eligible costs provided under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be an eligible cost for the construction, renovation, and rehabilitation of all low and very low-income housing units, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, within the redevelopment project area. If the low and very low-income units are part of a residential redevelopment project that includes units not affordable to low and very low-income households, only the low and very low-income units shall be eligible for benefits under subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11). The standards for maintaining the occupancy by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, of those units constructed with eligible costs made available under the provisions of this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be established by guidelines adopted by the municipality. The responsibility for annually documenting the initial occupancy of the units by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, shall be that of the then current owner of the property. For ownership units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for a reasonable recapture of funds, or other appropriate methods designed to preserve the original affordability of the ownership units. For rental units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for the affordability of rent to low and very low-income households. As units become available, they shall be rented to income-eligible tenants. The municipality may modify these guidelines from time to time; the guidelines, however, shall be in effect for as long as tax increment revenue is being used to pay for costs associated with the units or for the retirement of bonds issued to finance the units or for the life of the redevelopment project area, whichever is later.

(11.5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a municipality with a population of more than 100,000, the cost of day care services for children of employees from low-income families working for businesses located within the redevelopment project area and all or a portion of the cost of operation of day care centers established by redevelopment project area businesses to serve employees from low-income families working in businesses located in the redevelopment project area. For the purposes of this paragraph, "low-income families" means families whose annual income does not exceed 80% of the municipal, county, or regional median income, adjusted for family size, as the annual income and municipal, county, or regional median income are determined from time to time by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(12) Unless explicitly stated herein the cost of construction of new privately-owned buildings shall not be an eligible redevelopment project cost.

(13) After November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), none of the redevelopment project costs enumerated in this subsection shall be eligible redevelopment project costs if those costs would provide direct financial support to a retail entity initiating operations in the redevelopment project area while terminating operations at another Illinois location within 10 miles of the redevelopment project area but outside the boundaries of the redevelopment project area municipality. For purposes of this paragraph, termination means a closing of a retail operation that is directly related to the opening of the same operation or like retail entity owned or operated by more than 50% of the original ownership in a redevelopment project area, but it does not mean closing an operation for reasons beyond the control of the retail entity, as documented by the retail entity, subject to a reasonable finding by the municipality that the current location contained inadequate space, had become economically obsolete, or was no longer a viable location for the retailer or serviceman.

(14) No cost shall be a redevelopment project cost in a redevelopment project area if used to demolish, remove, or substantially modify a historic resource, after August 26, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-934), unless no prudent and feasible alternative exists. "Historic resource" for the purpose of this item (14) means (i) a place or structure that is included or eligible for inclusion on the National Register of Historic Places or (ii) a contributing structure in a district on the National Register of Historic Places. This item (14) does not apply to a place or structure for which demolition, removal, or modification is subject to review by the preservation agency of a Certified Local Government designated as such by the National Park Service of the United States Department of the Interior.

If a special service area has been established pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law, then any tax increment revenues derived from the tax imposed pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law may be used within the redevelopment project area for the purposes permitted by that Act or Law as well as the purposes permitted by this Act.

(q-1) For redevelopment project areas created pursuant to subsection (p-1), "redevelopment project costs" are limited to those costs in paragraph (q) that are related to the existing or proposed Regional Transportation Authority Suburban Transit Access Route (STAR Line) station.

(r) "State Sales Tax Boundary" means the redevelopment project area or the amended redevelopment project area boundaries which are determined pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a of this Act. The Department of Revenue shall certify pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a the appropriate boundaries eligible for the determination of State Sales Tax Increment.

(s) "State Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen, other than retailers and servicemen subject to the Public Utilities Act, on transactions at places of business located within a State Sales Tax Boundary pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act, except such portion of such increase that is paid into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Local Government Distributive Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund, for as long as State participation exists, over and above the Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid under those Acts by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the State Sales Tax Boundary during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing, less 3.0% of such amounts generated under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act and Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which sum shall be appropriated to the Department of Revenue to cover its costs of administering and enforcing this Section. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall compute the Initial Sales Tax Amount for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amount". For purposes of determining the State Sales Tax Increment the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the State Sales Tax Boundary, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989 this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, until June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial State Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending on June 30, to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts. Municipalities intending to receive a distribution of State Sales Tax Increment must report a list of retailers to the Department of Revenue by October 31, 1988 and by July 31, of each year thereafter.

(t) "Taxing districts" means counties, townships, cities and incorporated towns and villages, school, road, park, sanitary, mosquito abatement, forest preserve, public health, fire protection, river conservancy, tuberculosis sanitarium and any other municipal corporations or districts with the power to levy taxes.

(u) "Taxing districts' capital costs" means those costs of taxing districts for capital improvements that are found by the municipal corporate authorities to be necessary and directly result from the redevelopment project.

(v) As used in subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-3 of this Act, "vacant land" means any parcel or combination of parcels of real property without industrial, commercial, and residential buildings which has not been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area, unless the parcel is included in an industrial park conservation area or the parcel has been subdivided; provided that if the parcel was part of a larger tract that has been divided into 3 or more smaller tracts that were accepted for recording during the period from 1950 to 1990, then the parcel shall be deemed to have been subdivided, and all proceedings and actions of the municipality taken in that connection with respect to any previously approved or designated redevelopment project area or amended redevelopment project area are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act. For purposes of this Section and only for land subject to the subdivision requirements of the Plat Act, land is subdivided when the original plat of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly certified, acknowledged, approved, and recorded or filed in accordance with the Plat Act and a preliminary plat, if any, for any subsequent phases of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly approved and filed in accordance with the applicable ordinance of the municipality.

(w) "Annual Total Increment" means the sum of each municipality's annual Net Sales Tax Increment and each municipality's annual Net Utility Tax Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

(x) "LEED certified" means any certification level of construction elements by a qualified Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design Accredited Professional as determined by the U.S. Green Building Council.

(y) "Green Globes certified" means any certification level of construction elements by a qualified Green Globes Professional as determined by the Green Building Initiative.

(Source: P.A. 95-15, eff. 7-16-07; 95-164, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-346, eff. 8-21-07; 95-459, eff. 8-27-07; 95-653, eff. 1-1-08; 95-662, eff. 10-11-07; 95-683, eff. 10-19-07; 95-709, eff. 1-29-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-932, eff. 8-26-08; 95-934, eff. 8-26-08; 95-964, eff. 9-23-08; 95-977, eff. 9-22-08; 95-1028, eff. 8-25-09 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-717 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 95-1028); 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-630, eff. 1-1-10; 96-680, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-6-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)

Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment projects.

(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981.

(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 32nd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted, if the ordinance was adopted on September 9, 1999 by the Village of Downs.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted, if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.

(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted:

(1) if the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981;

(2) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989;

(3) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport;

(4) if the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County;

(5) if the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law;

(6) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont;

(7) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997;

(8) if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis;

(9) if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget;

(10) if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island;

(11) if the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline;

(12) if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village;

(13) if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village;

(14) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva;

(15) if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville;

(16) if the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis;

(17) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo;

(18) if the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton;

(19) if the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport;

(20) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola;

(21) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta;

(22) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown;

(23) if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville;

(24) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville;

(25) if the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton;

(26) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington;

(27) if the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy;

(28) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham;

(29) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin;

(30) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign;

(31) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana;

(32) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth;

(33) if the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth;

(34) if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth;

(35) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero;

(36) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham;

(37) if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton;

(38) if the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst;

(39) if the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan;

(40) if the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan;

(41) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan;

(42) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan;

(43) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby;

(44) if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion;

(45) if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion;

(46) if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect;

(47) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull;

(48) if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville;

(49) if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City;

(50) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard;

(51) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner;

(52) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw;

(53) if the ordinance was adopted on November 17, 1986 by the Village of Franklin Park;

(54) if the ordinance was adopted on November 20, 1989 by the Village of South Holland;

(55) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992 by the Village of Riverdale;

(56) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galesburg;

(57) if the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985 by the City of Galesburg;

(58) if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by the City of West Chicago;

(59) if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Oak Forest;

(60) if the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the City of Villa Grove;

(61) if the ordinance was adopted on January 13, 1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion;

(62) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Manteno;

(63) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989 by the City of Chicago Heights;

(64) if the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999 by the Village of Rosemont;

(65) if the ordinance was adopted on December 19, 2000 by the Village of Stone Park;

(66) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of DeKalb;

(67) if the ordinance was adopted on December 2, 1986 by the City of Aurora;

(68) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Milan;

(69) if the ordinance was adopted on September 8, 1994 by the City of West Frankfort;

(70) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville;

(71) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates;

(72) if the ordinance was adopted on September 17, 1986 by the Village of Sherman;

(73) if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Macomb;

(74) if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the West Washington Street TIF;

(75) if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the Camp Street TIF;

(76) if the ordinance was adopted on August 7, 2000 by the City of Des Plaines;

(77) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Washington to create the Washington Square TIF #2;

(78) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Morris;

(79) if the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Steeleville;

(80) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF I (the Main St TIF);

(81) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF II (the Interstate TIF);

(82) if the ordinance was adopted on November 6, 2002 by the City of Chicago to create the Madden/Wells TIF District;

(83) if the ordinance was adopted on November 4, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Roosevelt/Racine TIF District;

(84) if the ordinance was adopted on June 10, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Stony Island Commercial/Burnside Industrial Corridors TIF District;

(85) if the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Englewood Mall TIF District; or

(86) if the ordinance was adopted on December 27, 1986 by the City of Mendota;

(87) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Cahokia; or

(88) if the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1999 by the City of Belleville; or .

(89) (86) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Bellevue to create the Bellevue TIF District 1.

(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section, it is not the intent of the General Assembly to make any substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the completion dates for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan, the City of West Frankfort, the Village of Libertyville, and the Village of Hoffman Estates set forth under items (67), (68), (69), (70), and (71) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-932, eff. 8-26-08; 95-964, eff. 9-23-08; incorporates P.A. 95-777, eff. 9-22-08, and 95-1028, eff. 8-25-09 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-717 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 95-1028); 96-127, eff. 8-4-09; 96-182, eff. 8-10-09; 96-208, eff. 8-10-09; 96-209, eff. 1-1-10; 96-213, eff. 8-10-09; 96-264, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-439, eff. 8-14-09; 96-454, eff. 8-14-09; 96-722, eff. 8-25-09; 96-773, eff. 8-28-09; 96-830, eff. 12-4-09; 96-837, eff. 12-16-09; revised 12-21-09.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-7)

Sec. 11-74.4-7. Obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund set forth in Section 11-74.4-8 for the redevelopment project area may be issued to provide for redevelopment project costs. Such obligations, when so issued, shall be retired in the manner provided in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such obligations by the receipts of taxes levied as specified in Section 11-74.4-9 against the taxable property included in the area, by revenues as specified by Section 11-74.4-8a and other revenue designated by the municipality. A municipality may in the ordinance pledge all or any part of the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund created pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 to the payment of the redevelopment project costs and obligations. Any pledge of funds in the special tax allocation fund shall provide for distribution to the taxing districts and to the Illinois Department of Revenue of moneys not required, pledged, earmarked, or otherwise designated for payment and securing of the obligations and anticipated redevelopment project costs and such excess funds shall be calculated annually and deemed to be "surplus" funds. In the event a municipality only applies or pledges a portion of the funds in the special tax allocation fund for the payment or securing of anticipated redevelopment project costs or of obligations, any such funds remaining in the special tax allocation fund after complying with the requirements of the application or pledge, shall also be calculated annually and deemed "surplus" funds. All surplus funds in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed annually within 180 days after the close of the municipality's fiscal year by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the County Collector, to the Department of Revenue and to the municipality in direct proportion to the tax incremental revenue received as a result of an increase in the equalized assessed value of property in the redevelopment project area, tax incremental revenue received from the State and tax incremental revenue received from the municipality, but not to exceed as to each such source the total incremental revenue received from that source. The County Collector shall thereafter make distribution to the respective taxing districts in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to the affected districts of real property taxes from real property in the redevelopment project area.

Without limiting the foregoing in this Section, the municipality may in addition to obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund pledge for a period not greater than the term of the obligations towards payment of such obligations any part or any combination of the following: (a) net revenues of all or part of any redevelopment project; (b) taxes levied and collected on any or all property in the municipality; (c) the full faith and credit of the municipality; (d) a mortgage on part or all of the redevelopment project; or (e) any other taxes or anticipated receipts that the municipality may lawfully pledge.

Such obligations may be issued in one or more series bearing interest at such rate or rates as the corporate authorities of the municipality shall determine by ordinance. Such obligations shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or times not exceeding 20 years from their respective dates, be in such denomination, carry such registration privileges, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment at such place or places, contain such covenants, terms and conditions, and be subject to redemption as such ordinance shall provide. Obligations issued pursuant to this Act may be sold at public or private sale at such price as shall be determined by the corporate authorities of the municipalities. No referendum approval of the electors shall be required as a condition to the issuance of obligations pursuant to this Division except as provided in this Section.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to the authority of this Division secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, which obligations are other than obligations which may be issued under home rule powers provided by Article VII, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution, or pledges taxes pursuant to (b) or (c) of the second paragraph of this section, the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such obligations or pledging such taxes shall be published within 10 days after such ordinance has been passed in one or more newspapers, with general circulation within such municipality. The publication of the ordinance shall be accompanied by a notice of (1) the specific number of voters required to sign a petition requesting the question of the issuance of such obligations or pledging taxes to be submitted to the electors; (2) the time in which such petition must be filed; and (3) the date of the prospective referendum. The municipal clerk shall provide a petition form to any individual requesting one.

If no petition is filed with the municipal clerk, as hereinafter provided in this Section, within 30 days after the publication of the ordinance, the ordinance shall be in effect. But, if within that 30 day period a petition is filed with the municipal clerk, signed by electors in the municipality numbering 10% or more of the number of registered voters in the municipality, asking that the question of issuing obligations using full faith and credit of the municipality as security for the cost of paying for redevelopment project costs, or of pledging taxes for the payment of such obligations, or both, be submitted to the electors of the municipality, the corporate authorities of the municipality shall call a special election in the manner provided by law to vote upon that question, or, if a general, State or municipal election is to be held within a period of not less than 30 or more than 90 days from the date such petition is filed, shall submit the question at the next general, State or municipal election. If it appears upon the canvass of the election by the corporate authorities that a majority of electors voting upon the question voted in favor thereof, the ordinance shall be in effect, but if a majority of the electors voting upon the question are not in favor thereof, the ordinance shall not take effect.

The ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide that the obligations shall contain a recital that they are issued pursuant to this Division, which recital shall be conclusive evidence of their validity and of the regularity of their issuance.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to this Section secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, the ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all taxable property within the municipality sufficient to pay the principal thereof and interest thereon as it matures, which levy may be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes authorized to be levied by the municipality, which levy, however, shall be abated to the extent that monies from other sources are available for payment of the obligations and the municipality certifies the amount of said monies available to the county clerk.

A certified copy of such ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of each county in which any portion of the municipality is situated, and shall constitute the authority for the extension and collection of the taxes to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund.

A municipality may also issue its obligations to refund in whole or in part, obligations theretofore issued by such municipality under the authority of this Act, whether at or prior to maturity, provided however, that the last maturity of the refunding obligations may not be later than the dates set forth under Section 11-74.4-3.5. , or (NNN) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates

In the event a municipality issues obligations under home rule powers or other legislative authority the proceeds of which are pledged to pay for redevelopment project costs, the municipality may, if it has followed the procedures in conformance with this division, retire said obligations from funds in the special tax allocation fund in amounts and in such manner as if such obligations had been issued pursuant to the provisions of this division.

All obligations heretofore or hereafter issued pursuant to this Act shall not be regarded as indebtedness of the municipality issuing such obligations or any other taxing district for the purpose of any limitation imposed by law.

(Source: P.A. 95-15, eff. 7-16-07; 95-164, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-346, eff. 8-21-07; 95-459, eff. 8-27-07; 95-653, eff. 1-1-08; 95-662, eff. 10-11-07; 95-683, eff. 10-19-07; 95-709, eff. 1-29-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-932, eff. 8-26-08; 95-964, eff. 9-23-08; 95-977, eff. 9-22-08; 95-1028, eff. 8-25-09 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-717 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 95-1028); 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 250. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/6) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 26)

Sec. 6. Board of trustees; powers.

(a) The trustees shall constitute a board of trustees for the district for which they are appointed, which board of trustees is declared to be the corporate authority of the fire protection district, and shall exercise all of the powers and control all the affairs and property of such district.

The board of trustees at their initial meeting and at their first meeting following the commencement of the term of any trustee shall elect one of their number as president and one of their number as secretary and shall elect a treasurer for the district, who may be one of the trustees or may be any other citizen of the district and who shall hold office during the pleasure of the board and who shall give such bond as may be required by the board.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in Sections 16.01 through 16.18, the board may appoint and enter into a multi-year contract not exceeding 3 years with a fire chief and may appoint any firemen that may be necessary for the district, who shall hold office during the pleasure of the board and who shall give any bond that the board may require. The board may prescribe the duties and fix the compensation of all the officers and employees of the fire protection district.

(c) A member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district may be compensated as follows: in a district having fewer than 4 full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $1,000 per annum; in a district having more than 3 but less than 10 full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $1,500 per annum; in a district having either 10 or more full time paid firemen, a sum not to exceed $2,000 per annum. In addition, fire districts that operate an ambulance service pursuant to authorization by referendum, as provided in Section 22, may pay trustees an additional annual compensation not to exceed 50% of the amount otherwise authorized herein. The additional compensation shall be an administrative expense of the ambulance service and shall be paid from revenues raised by the ambulance tax levy. In addition, any trustee of a fire protection district who completes a training program on fire protection district administration approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal may receive additional compensation above the compensation otherwise provided in this Section. The additional compensation shall be equal to 50% of such other compensation. In order to continue to receive the additional compensation, the trustee must attend annual training approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal Marshall on a continuing basis thereafter.

(d) The trustees also have the express power to execute a note or notes and to execute a mortgage or trust deed to secure the payment of such note or notes; such trust deed or mortgage shall cover real estate, or some part thereof, or personal property owned by the district and the lien of the mortgage shall apply to the real estate or personal property so mortgaged by the district, and the proceeds of the note or notes may be used in the acquisition of personal property or of real estate or in the erection of improvements on such real estate.

The trustees have express power to purchase either real estate or personal property to be used for the purposes of the fire protection district through contracts which provide for the consideration for such purchase to be paid through installments to be made at stated intervals during a certain period of time, but, in no case, shall such contracts provide for the consideration to be paid during a period of time in excess of 25 years.

(e) The trustees have express power to provide for the benefit of its employees, volunteer firemen and paid firemen, group life, health, accident, hospital and medical insurance, or any combination thereof; and to pay for all or any portion of the premiums on such insurance. Such insurance may include provisions for employees who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing in accord with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination.

(f) To encourage continued service with the district, the board of trustees has the express power to award monetary incentives, not to exceed $240 per year, to volunteer firefighters of the district based on the length of service. To be eligible for the incentives, the volunteer firefighters must have at least 5 years of service with the district. The amount of the incentives may not be greater than 2% of the annual levy amount when all incentive awards are combined.

(g) The board of trustees has express power to change the corporate name of the fire protection district by ordinance, provided that notification of any change is given to the circuit clerk and the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(h) The board of trustees may impose reasonable civil penalties on individuals who repeatedly cause false fire alarms.

(i) The board of trustees has full power to pass all necessary ordinances, and rules and regulations for the proper management and conduct of the business of the board of trustees of the fire protection district for carrying into effect the objects for which the district was formed.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-799, eff. 1-1-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 255. The Chicago Park District Act is amended by changing Section 26.10-4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1505/26.10-4)

Sec. 26.10-4. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Act, have the following meaning unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Delivery system" means the design and construction approach used to develop and construct a project.

"Design-bid-build" means the traditional delivery system used on public projects that incorporates the Local Government Professional Services Selection Act (50 ILCS 510/) and the principles of competitive selection.

"Design-build" means a delivery system that provides responsibility within a single contract for the furnishing of architecture, engineering, land surveying and related services as required, and the labor, materials, equipment, and other construction services for the project.

"Design-build contract" means a contract for a public project under this Act between the Chicago Park District and a design-build entity to furnish architecture, engineering, land surveying, landscape architecture, and related services as required, and to furnish the labor, materials, equipment, and other construction services for the project. The design-build contract may be conditioned upon subsequent refinements in scope and price and may allow the Chicago Park District to make modifications in the project scope without invalidating the design-build contract.

"Design-build entity" means any individual, sole proprietorship, firm, partnership, joint venture, corporation, professional corporation, or other entity that proposes to design and construct any public project under this Act. A design-build entity and associated design-build professionals shall conduct themselves in accordance with the laws of this State and the related provisions of the Illinois Administrative Code, as referenced by the licensed design professionals Acts of this State.

"Design professional" means any individual, sole proprietorship, firm, partnership, joint venture, corporation, professional corporation, or other entity that offers services under the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 305/), the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 325/), the Structural Engineering Practice Licensing Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 340/), or the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 (225 ILCS 330/).

"Landscape architect design professional" means any person, sole proprietorship, or entity such as a partnership, professional service corporation, or corporation that offers services under the Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989.

"Evaluation criteria" means the requirements for the separate phases of the selection process for design-build proposals as defined in this Act and may include the specialized experience, technical qualifications and competence, capacity to perform, past performance, experience with similar projects, assignment of personnel to the project, and other appropriate factors. Price may not be used as a factor in the evaluation of Phase I proposals.

"Proposal" means the offer to enter into a design-build contract as submitted by a design-build entity in accordance with this Act.

"Request for proposal" means the document used by the Chicago Park District to solicit proposals for a design-build contract.

"Scope and performance criteria" means the requirements for the public project, including but not limited to, the intended usage, capacity, size, scope, quality and performance standards, life-cycle costs, and other programmatic criteria that are expressed in performance-oriented and quantifiable specifications and drawings that can be reasonably inferred and are suited to allow a design-build entity to develop a proposal.

"Guaranteed maximum price" means a form of contract in which compensation may vary according to the scope of work involved but in any case may not exceed an agreed total amount.

(Source: P.A. 96-777, eff. 8-28-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 260. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.64, 2-3.117a, 10-20.21, 10-22.3f, 10-22.31, 10-22.39, 18-8.05, 19-1, 24-6, 27A-5, and 27A-8, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.148, 22-50, and 34-18.37, and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10-20.46 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.64) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.64)

Sec. 2-3.64. State goals and assessment.

(a) Beginning in the 1998-1999 school year, the State Board of Education shall establish standards and periodically, in collaboration with local school districts, conduct studies of student performance in the learning areas of fine arts and physical development/health.

Beginning with the 1998-1999 school year until the 2004-2005 school year, the State Board of Education shall annually test: (i) all pupils enrolled in the 3rd, 5th, and 8th grades in English language arts (reading, writing, and English grammar) and mathematics; and (ii) all pupils enrolled in the 4th and 7th grades in the biological and physical sciences and the social sciences (history, geography, civics, economics, and government). Unless the testing required to be implemented no later than the 2005-2006 school year under this subsection (a) is implemented for the 2004-2005 school year, for the 2004-2005 school year, the State Board of Education shall test: (i) all pupils enrolled in the 3rd, 5th, and 8th grades in English language arts (reading and English grammar) and mathematics and (ii) all pupils enrolled in the 4th and 7th grades in the biological and physical sciences. The maximum time allowed for all actual testing required under this paragraph shall not exceed 25 hours, as allocated among the required tests by the State Board of Education, across all grades tested.

Beginning no later than the 2005-2006 school year, the State Board of Education shall annually test: (i) all pupils enrolled in the 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th, and 8th grades in reading and mathematics and (ii) all pupils enrolled in the 4th and 7th grades in the biological and physical sciences. In addition, the State Board of Education shall test (1) all pupils enrolled in the 5th and 8th grades in writing during the 2006-2007 school year; (2) all pupils enrolled in the 5th, 6th, and 8th grades in writing during the 2007-2008 school year; and (3) all pupils enrolled in the 3rd, 5th, 6th, and 8th grades in writing during the 2008-2009 school year and each school year thereafter. After the addition of grades and change in subjects as delineated in this paragraph and including whatever other tests that may be approved from time to time no later than the 2005-2006 school year, the maximum time allowed for all State testing in grades 3 through 8 shall not exceed 38 hours across those grades.

Beginning with the 2004-2005 school year, the State Board of Education shall not test pupils under this subsection (a) in physical development and health, fine arts, and the social sciences (history, geography, civics, economics, and government). The State Board of Education shall not test pupils under this subsection (a) in writing during the 2005-2006 school year.

The State Board of Education shall establish the academic standards that are to be applicable to pupils who are subject to State tests under this Section beginning with the 1998-1999 school year. However, the State Board of Education shall not establish any such standards in final form without first providing opportunities for public participation and local input in the development of the final academic standards. Those opportunities shall include a well-publicized period of public comment, public hearings throughout the State, and opportunities to file written comments. Beginning with the 1998-99 school year and thereafter, the State tests will identify pupils in the 3rd grade or 5th grade who do not meet the State standards.

If, by performance on the State tests or local assessments or by teacher judgment, a student's performance is determined to be 2 or more grades below current placement, the student shall be provided a remediation program developed by the district in consultation with a parent or guardian. Such remediation programs may include, but shall not be limited to, increased or concentrated instructional time, a remedial summer school program of not less than 90 hours, improved instructional approaches, tutorial sessions, retention in grade, and modifications to instructional materials. Each pupil for whom a remediation program is developed under this subsection shall be required to enroll in and attend whatever program the district determines is appropriate for the pupil. Districts may combine students in remediation programs where appropriate and may cooperate with other districts in the design and delivery of those programs. The parent or guardian of a student required to attend a remediation program under this Section shall be given written notice of that requirement by the school district a reasonable time prior to commencement of the remediation program that the student is to attend. The State shall be responsible for providing school districts with the new and additional funding, under Section 2-3.51.5 or by other or additional means, that is required to enable the districts to operate remediation programs for the pupils who are required to enroll in and attend those programs under this Section. Every individualized educational program as described in Article 14 shall identify if the State test or components thereof are appropriate for that student. The State Board of Education shall develop rules and regulations governing the administration of alternative tests prescribed within each student's individualized educational program which are appropriate to the disability of each student.

All pupils who are in a State approved transitional bilingual education program or transitional program of instruction shall participate in the State tests. The time allotted to take the State tests, however, may be extended as determined by the State Board of Education by rule. Any student who has been enrolled in a State approved bilingual education program less than 3 cumulative academic years may take an accommodated Limited English Proficient student academic content assessment, as determined by the State Board of Education, if the student's lack of English as determined by an English language proficiency test would keep the student from understanding the regular State test. If the school district determines, on a case-by-case individual basis, that a Limited English Proficient student academic content assessment would likely yield more accurate and reliable information on what the student knows and can do, the school district may make a determination to assess the student using a Limited English Proficient student academic content assessment for a period that does not exceed 2 additional consecutive years, provided that the student has not yet reached a level of English language proficiency sufficient to yield valid and reliable information on what the student knows and can do on the regular State test.

Reasonable accommodations as prescribed by the State Board of Education shall be provided for individual students in the testing procedure. All test procedures prescribed by the State Board of Education shall require: (i) that each test used for State and local student testing under this Section identify by name the pupil taking the test; (ii) that the name of the pupil taking the test be placed on the test at the time the test is taken; (iii) that the results or scores of each test taken under this Section by a pupil of the school district be reported to that district and identify by name the pupil who received the reported results or scores; and (iv) that the results or scores of each test taken under this Section be made available to the parents of the pupil. In addition, in each school year the scores attained by a student on the Prairie State Achievement Examination administered under subsection (c) of this Section and any Prairie State Achievement Awards received by the student shall become part of the student's permanent record and shall be entered on the student's transcript pursuant to regulations that the State Board of Education shall promulgate for that purpose in accordance with Section 3 and subsection (e) of Section 2 of the Illinois School Student Records Act. Beginning with the 1998-1999 school year and in every school year thereafter, scores received by students on the State assessment tests administered in grades 3 through 8 shall be placed into students' temporary records.

The State Board of Education shall establish a period of time, to be referred to as the State test window, in each school year for which State testing shall occur to meet the objectives of this Section. However, if the schools of a district are closed and classes are not scheduled during any week that is established by the State Board of Education as the State test window, the school district may (at the discretion of the State Board of Education) move its State test window one week earlier or one week later than the established State test window, so long as the school district gives the State Board of Education written notice of its intention to deviate from the established schedule by December 1 of the school year in which falls the State test window established by the State Board of Education for the testing.

(a-5) All tests administered pursuant to this Section shall be academically based. For the purposes of this Section "academically based tests" shall mean tests consisting of questions and answers that are measurable and quantifiable to measure the knowledge, skill, and ability of students in the subject matters covered by tests. The scoring of academically based tests shall be reliable, valid, unbiased and shall meet the guidelines for test development and use prescribed by the American Psychological Association, the National Council of Measurement and Evaluation, and the American Educational Research Association. Academically based tests shall not include assessments or evaluations of attitudes, values, or beliefs, or testing of personality, self-esteem, or self-concept. Nothing in this amendatory Act is intended, nor shall it be construed, to nullify, supersede, or contradict the legislative intent on academic testing expressed during the passage of HB 1005/P.A. 90-296. Nothing in this Section is intended, nor shall it be construed, to nullify, supersede, or contradict the legislative intent on academic testing expressed in the preamble of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

The State Board of Education shall monitor the use of short answer questions in the math and reading assessments or in other assessments in order to demonstrate that the use of short answer questions results in a statistically significant improvement in student achievement as measured on the State assessments for math and reading or on other State assessments and is justifiable in terms of cost and student performance.

(b) It shall be the policy of the State to encourage school districts to continuously test pupil proficiency in the fundamental learning areas in order to: (i) provide timely information on individual students' performance relative to State standards that is adequate to guide instructional strategies; (ii) improve future instruction; and (iii) complement the information provided by the State testing system described in this Section. To assist school districts in testing pupil proficiency in reading in the primary grades, the State Board shall make optional reading inventories for diagnostic purposes available to each school district that requests such assistance. Districts that administer the reading inventories may develop remediation programs for students who perform in the bottom half of the student population. Those remediation programs may be funded by moneys provided under the School Safety and Educational Improvement Block Grant Program established under Section 2-3.51.5.

(c) Beginning with the 2000-2001 school year, each school district that operates a high school program for students in grades 9 through 12 shall annually administer the Prairie State Achievement Examination established under this subsection to its students as set forth below. The Prairie State Achievement Examination shall be developed by the State Board of Education to measure student performance in the academic areas of reading, writing, mathematics, science, and social sciences. Beginning with the 2004-2005 school year, however, the State Board of Education shall not test a student in the social sciences (history, geography, civics, economics, and government) as part of the Prairie State Achievement Examination unless the student is retaking the Prairie State Achievement Examination in the fall of 2004. In addition, the State Board of Education shall not test a student in writing as part of the Prairie State Achievement Examination during the 2005-2006 school year. The State Board of Education shall establish the academic standards that are to apply in measuring student performance on the Prairie State Achievement Examination including the minimum examination score in each area that will qualify a student to receive a Prairie State Achievement Award from the State in recognition of the student's excellent performance. Each school district that is subject to the requirements of this subsection (c) shall afford all students one opportunity to take the Prairie State Achievement Examination beginning as late as practical during the spring semester of grade 11, but in no event before March 1. The State Board of Education shall annually notify districts of the weeks during which this test administration shall be required to occur. Every individualized educational program as described in Article 14 shall identify if the Prairie State Achievement Examination or components thereof are appropriate for that student. Each student, exclusive of a student whose individualized educational program developed under Article 14 identifies the Prairie State Achievement Examination as inappropriate for the student, shall be required to take the examination in grade 11. For each academic area the State Board of Education shall establish the score that qualifies for the Prairie State Achievement Award on that portion of the examination. Districts shall inform their students of the timelines and procedures applicable to their participation in every yearly administration of the Prairie State Achievement Examination. Students receiving special education services whose individualized educational programs identify the Prairie State Achievement Examination as inappropriate for them nevertheless shall have the option of taking the examination, which shall be administered to those students in accordance with standards adopted by the State Board of Education to accommodate the respective disabilities of those students. A student who successfully completes all other applicable high school graduation requirements but fails to receive a score on the Prairie State Achievement Examination that qualifies the student for receipt of a Prairie State Achievement Award shall nevertheless qualify for the receipt of a regular high school diploma. In no case, however, shall a student receive a regular high school diploma without taking the Prairie State Achievement Examination, unless the student is exempted from taking the Prairie State Achievement Examination under this subsection (c) because (i) the student's individualized educational program developed under Article 14 of this Code identifies the Prairie State Achievement Examination as inappropriate for the student, (ii) the student is exempt due to the student's lack of English language proficiency under subsection (a) of this Section, (iii) the student is enrolled in a program of Adult and Continuing Education as defined in the Adult Education Act, (iv) the school district is not required to test the individual student for purposes of accountability under federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 requirements, or (v) the student is otherwise identified by the State Board of Education through rules as being exempt from the assessment.

(d) Beginning with the 2002-2003 school year, all schools in this State that are part of the sample drawn by the National Center for Education Statistics, in collaboration with their school districts and the State Board of Education, shall administer the biennial State academic assessments of 4th and 8th grade reading and mathematics under the National Assessment of Educational Progress carried out under Section 411(b)(2) m11(b)(2) of the National Education Statistics Act of 1994 (20 U.S.C. 9010) if the Secretary of Education pays the costs of administering the assessments.

(e) Beginning no later than the 2005-2006 school year, subject to available federal funds to this State for the purpose of student assessment, the State Board of Education shall provide additional tests and assessment resources that may be used by school districts for local diagnostic purposes. These tests and resources shall include without limitation additional high school writing, physical development and health, and fine arts assessments. The State Board of Education shall annually distribute a listing of these additional tests and resources, using funds available from appropriations made for student assessment purposes.

(f) For the assessment and accountability purposes of this Section, "all pupils" includes those pupils enrolled in a public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law, a school operated by a regional office of education under Section 13A-3 of this Code, or a public school administered by a local public agency or the Department of Human Services.

(Source: P.A. 96-430, eff. 8-13-09; revised 11-3-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.117a)

Sec. 2-3.117a. School Technology Revolving Loan Program.

(a) The State Board of Education is authorized to administer a School Technology Revolving Loan Program from funds appropriated from the School Technology Revolving Loan Fund for the purpose of making the financing of school technology hardware improvements affordable and making the integration of technology in the classroom possible. School technology loans shall be made available to public school districts, charter schools, area vocational centers, laboratory schools, and State-recognized, non-public schools to purchase technology hardware for eligible grade levels on a 2-year rotating basis: grades 9 through 12 in fiscal year 2004 and each second year thereafter and grades K through 8 in fiscal year 2005 and each second year thereafter. However, priority shall be given to public school districts, charter schools, area vocational centers, and laboratory schools that apply prior to October 1 of each year.

The State Board of Education shall determine the interest rate the loans shall bear which shall not be greater than 50% of the rate for the most recent date shown in the 20 G.O. Bonds Index of average municipal bond yields as published in the most recent edition of The Bond Buyer, published in New York, New York. The repayment period for School Technology Revolving Loans shall not exceed 3 years. Participants shall use at least 90% of the loan proceeds for technology hardware investments for students and staff (including computer hardware, technology networks, related wiring, and other items as defined in rules adopted by the State Board of Education) and up to 10% of the loan proceeds for computer furniture. No participant whose equalized assessed valuation per pupil in average daily attendance is at the 99th percentile and above for all districts of the same type shall be eligible to receive a School Technology Revolving Loan under the provisions of this Section for that year.

The State Board of Education shall have the authority to adopt all rules necessary for the implementation and administration of the School Technology Revolving Loan Program, including, but not limited to, rules defining application procedures, prescribing a maximum amount per pupil that may be requested annually, requiring appropriate local commitments for technology investments, prescribing a mechanism for disbursing loan funds in the event requests exceed available funds, specifying collateral, prescribing actions necessary to protect the State's interest in the event of default, foreclosure, or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the loans, and prescribing a mechanism for reclaiming any items or equipment purchased with the loan funds in the case of the closure of a non-public school.

(b) There is created in the State treasury the School Technology Revolving Loan Fund. The State Board shall have the authority to make expenditures from the Fund pursuant to appropriations made for the purposes of this Section, including refunds. There shall be deposited into the Fund such amounts, including but not limited to:

(1) Transfers from the School Infrastructure Fund;

(2) All receipts, including principal and interest payments, from any loan made from the Fund;

(3) All proceeds of assets of whatever nature received by the State Board as a result of default or delinquency with respect to loans made from the Fund;

(4) Any appropriations, grants, or gifts made to the Fund; and

(5) Any income received from interest on investments of money in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-734, eff. 8-25-09; 96-783, eff. 8-28-09; revised 10-6-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.148)

Sec. 2-3.148. Disability history and awareness campaign. The State Board of Education shall promote an annual campaign about disability history and awareness in this State. The campaign shall be designed to increase public awareness and respect for people with disabilities who comprise a substantial percentage of this State's population, teach future generations that people with disabilities have a rich history and have made valuable contributions throughout this State and the United States, and teach future generations that disability is a natural part of life and that people with disabilities have a right to be treated with civil, legal, and human rights and as full human beings above all else.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.149)

Sec. 2-3.149 2-3.148. Food allergy guidelines.

(a) Not later than July 1, 2010, the State Board of Education, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop and make available to each school board guidelines for the management of students with life-threatening food allergies. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall establish an ad hoc committee to develop the guidelines. The committee shall include experts in the field of food allergens, representatives on behalf of students with food allergies, representatives from the several public school management organizations, which shall include school administrators, principals, and school board members, and representatives from 2 statewide professional teachers' organizations. The guidelines shall include, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) education and training for school personnel who interact with students with life-threatening food allergies, such as school and school district administrators, teachers, school advisors and counselors, school health personnel, and school nurses, on the management of students with life-threatening food allergies, including training related to the administration of medication with an auto-injector;

(2) procedures for responding to life-threatening allergic reactions to food;

(3) a process for the implementation of individualized health care and food allergy action plans for every student with a life-threatening food allergy; and

(4) protocols to prevent exposure to food allergens.

(b) Not later than January 1, 2011, each school board shall implement a policy based on the guidelines developed pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section for the management of students with life-threatening food allergies enrolled in the schools under its jurisdiction. Nothing in this subsection (b) is intended to invalidate school district policies that were implemented before the development of guidelines pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section as long as such policies are consistent with the guidelines developed pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-349, eff. 8-13-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.150)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 16, 2013)

Sec. 2-3.150 2-3.148. Textbook digital technology; pilot program.

(a) The General Assembly makes the following findings:

(1) The use of digital technologies in the kindergarten through grade 12 school environment is rapidly increasing in this State.

(2) There is a need for the State Board of Education to explore the expanded use of digital technologies in classrooms and the impact of technological innovation on both educational achievement and textbook weight.

(b) The State Board of Education shall implement a pilot program, subject to appropriation, to test digital technologies in 3 geographically diverse school districts on or before July 1, 2011. The pilot program shall examine the following issues:

(1) the development of alternative textbook formats, including various digital formats; and

(2) any possible adaptation of existing standard print textbooks that would be beneficial to the health and educational achievement of pupils in this State.

(c) The State Board of Education shall report the results of its findings on the pilot program and make recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly on or before January 15, 2013 with regard to the success of digital technologies used in the pilot program. The State Board of Education may submit other reports as it deems appropriate.

(d) The pilot program is abolished on January 16, 2013. This Section is repealed on January 16, 2013.

(Source: P.A. 96-647, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.151)

Sec. 2-3.151 2-3.148. Green career and technical education programs.

(a) As used in this Section, "green industries" means industries that contribute directly to preserving or enhancing environmental quality by reducing waste and pollution or producing sustainable products using sustainable processes and materials and that provide opportunities for advancement along a career track of increasing skills and wages. Green industries include any of the following:

(1) Energy system retrofits to increase energy efficiency and conservation.

(2) The production and distribution of biofuels and vehicle retrofits for biofuels.

(3) Building design and construction that meet the equivalent of the best available technology in energy and environmental design standards.

(4) Organic and community food production.

(5) The manufacture of products from non-toxic, environmentally certified or recycled materials.

(6) The manufacture and production of sustainable technologies, including, but not limited to, solar panels, wind turbines, and fuel cells.

(7) Solar technology installation and maintenance.

(8) Recycling, green composting, and large-scale reuse of construction and demolition materials and debris.

(9) Water system retrofits to increase water efficiency and conservation.

(10) Horticulture.

(b) It is the purpose and intent of this Section to establish a State grant program that develops secondary programs that introduce students to developing green industries.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall establish a State grant program that develops, through a competitive process, 2-year pilot programs to assist in the creation and promotion of green career and technical education programs in public secondary schools in this State. Preference must be given to proposals that include the integration of academic and career and technical education content, arranged in sequences of courses that lead to post-secondary completion.

(d) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules necessary for the implementation of this Section.

(e) The State Board of Education may use up to 5% of the funds appropriated for the purposes of this Section for administrative costs, including the hiring of positions for the implementation and administration of the grant program, provided that if no appropriation is made to the State Board for a given fiscal year for the purposes of the grant program, then the State Board is not required to make any expenditures in support of the program during that fiscal year.

(Source: P.A. 96-659, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.152)

Sec. 2-3.152 2-3.148. Community schools.

(a) This Section applies beginning with the 2009-2010 school year.

(b) The General Assembly finds all of the following:

(1) All children are capable of success.

(2) Schools are the centers of vibrant communities.

(3) Strong families build strong educational communities.

(4) Children succeed when adults work together to foster positive educational outcomes.

(5) Schools work best when families take active roles in the education of children.

(6) Schools today are limited in their ability to dedicate time and resources to provide a wide range of educational opportunities to students because of the focus on standardized test outcomes.

(7) By providing learning opportunities outside of normal school hours, including programs on life skills and health, students are more successful academically, more engaged in their communities, safer, and better prepared to make a successful transition from school to adulthood.

(8) A community school is a traditional school that actively partners with its community to leverage existing resources and identify new resources to support the transformation of the school to provide enrichment and additional life skill opportunities for students, parents, and community members at-large. Each community school is unique because its programming is designed by and for the school staff, in partnership with parents, community stakeholders, and students.

(9) Community schools currently exist in this State in urban, rural, and suburban communities.

(10) Research shows that community schools have a powerful positive impact on students, as demonstrated by increased academic success, a positive change in attitudes toward school and learning, and decreased behavioral problems.

(11) After-school and evening programs offered by community schools provide academic enrichment consistent with the Illinois Learning Standards and general school curriculum; an opportunity for physical fitness activities for students, fine arts programs, structured learning "play" time, and other recreational opportunities; a safe haven for students; and work supports for working families.

(12) Community schools are cost-effective because they leverage existing resources provided by local, State, federal, and private sources and bring programs to the schools, where the students are already congregated. Community schools have been shown to leverage between $5 to $8 in existing programming for every $1 spent on a community school.

(c) Subject to an appropriation or the availability of funding for such purposes, the State Board of Education shall make grants available to fund community schools and to enhance programs at community schools. A request-for-proposal process must be used in awarding grants under this subsection (c). Proposals may be submitted on behalf of a school, a school district, or a consortium of 2 or more schools or school districts. Proposals must be evaluated and scored on the basis of criteria consistent with this Section and other factors developed and adopted by the State Board of Education. Technical assistance in grant writing must be made available to schools, school districts, or consortia of school districts through the State Board of Education directly or through a resource and referral directory established and maintained by the State Board of Education.

(d) In order to qualify for a community school grant under this Section, a school must, at a minimum, have the following components:

(1) Before and after-school programming each school day to meet the identified needs of students.

(2) Weekend programming.

(3) At least 4 weeks of summer programming.

(4) A local advisory group comprised of school leadership, parents, and community stakeholders that establishes school-specific programming goals, assesses program needs, and oversees the process of implementing expanded programming.

(5) A program director or resource coordinator who is responsible for establishing a local advisory group, assessing the needs of students and community members, identifying programs to meet those needs, developing the before and after-school, weekend, and summer programming and overseeing the implementation of programming to ensure high quality, efficiency, and robust participation.

(6) Programming that includes academic excellence aligned with the Illinois Learning Standards, life skills, healthy minds and bodies, parental support, and community engagement and that promotes staying in school and non-violent behavior and non-violent conflict resolution.

(7) Maintenance of attendance records in all programming components.

(8) Maintenance of measurable data showing annual participation and the impact of programming on the participating children and adults.

(9) Documentation of true collaboration between the school and community stakeholders, including local governmental units, civic organizations, families, businesses, and social service providers.

(10) A non-discrimination policy ensuring that the community school does not condition participation upon race, ethnic origin, religion, sex, or disability.

(Source: P.A. 96-746, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.21)

Sec. 10-20.21. Contracts.

(a) To award all contracts for purchase of supplies, materials or work or contracts with private carriers for transportation of pupils involving an expenditure in excess of $25,000 or a lower amount as required by board policy to the lowest responsible bidder, considering conformity with specifications, terms of delivery, quality and serviceability, after due advertisement, except the following: (i) contracts for the services of individuals possessing a high degree of professional skill where the ability or fitness of the individual plays an important part; (ii) contracts for the printing of finance committee reports and departmental reports; (iii) contracts for the printing or engraving of bonds, tax warrants and other evidences of indebtedness; (iv) contracts for the purchase of perishable foods and perishable beverages; (v) contracts for materials and work which have been awarded to the lowest responsible bidder after due advertisement, but due to unforeseen revisions, not the fault of the contractor for materials and work, must be revised causing expenditures not in excess of 10% of the contract price; (vi) contracts for the maintenance or servicing of, or provision of repair parts for, equipment which are made with the manufacturer or authorized service agent of that equipment where the provision of parts, maintenance, or servicing can best be performed by the manufacturer or authorized service agent; (vii) purchases and contracts for the use, purchase, delivery, movement, or installation of data processing equipment, software, or services and telecommunications and interconnect equipment, software, and services; (viii) contracts for duplicating machines and supplies; (ix) contracts for the purchase of natural gas when the cost is less than that offered by a public utility; (x) purchases of equipment previously owned by some entity other than the district itself; (xi) contracts for repair, maintenance, remodeling, renovation, or construction, or a single project involving an expenditure not to exceed $50,000 and not involving a change or increase in the size, type, or extent of an existing facility; (xii) contracts for goods or services procured from another governmental agency; (xiii) contracts for goods or services which are economically procurable from only one source, such as for the purchase of magazines, books, periodicals, pamphlets and reports, and for utility services such as water, light, heat, telephone or telegraph; (xiv) where funds are expended in an emergency and such emergency expenditure is approved by 3/4 of the members of the board; (xv) State master contracts authorized under Article 28A of this Code; and (xvi) contracts providing for the transportation of pupils with special needs or disabilities, which contracts must be advertised in the same manner as competitive bids and awarded by first considering the bidder or bidders most able to provide safety and comfort for the pupils with special needs or disabilities, stability of service, and any other factors set forth in the request for proposal regarding quality of service, and then price.

All competitive bids for contracts involving an expenditure in excess of $25,000 or a lower amount as required by board policy must be sealed by the bidder and must be opened by a member or employee of the school board at a public bid opening at which the contents of the bids must be announced. Each bidder must receive at least 3 days' notice of the time and place of the bid opening. For purposes of this Section due advertisement includes, but is not limited to, at least one public notice at least 10 days before the bid date in a newspaper published in the district, or if no newspaper is published in the district, in a newspaper of general circulation in the area of the district. State master contracts and certified education purchasing contracts, as defined in Article 28A of this Code, are not subject to the requirements of this paragraph.

Under this Section, the acceptance of bids sealed by a bidder and the opening of these bids at a public bid opening may be permitted by an electronic process for communicating, accepting, and opening competitive bids. However, bids for construction purposes are prohibited from being communicated, accepted, or opened electronically. An electronic bidding process must provide for, but is not limited to, the following safeguards:

(1) On the date and time certain of a bid opening, the primary person conducting the competitive, sealed, electronic bid process shall log onto a specified database using a unique username and password previously assigned to the bidder to allow access to the bidder's specific bid project number.

(2) The specified electronic database must be on a network that (i) is in a secure environment behind a firewall; (ii) has specific encryption tools; (iii) maintains specific intrusion detection systems; (iv) has redundant systems architecture with data storage back-up, whether by compact disc or tape; and (v) maintains a disaster recovery plan.

It is the legislative intent of Public Act 96-841 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly to maintain the integrity of the sealed bidding process provided for in this Section, to further limit any possibility of bid-rigging, to reduce administrative costs to school districts, and to effect efficiencies in communications with bidders.

(b) To require, as a condition of any contract for goods and services, that persons bidding for and awarded a contract and all affiliates of the person collect and remit Illinois Use Tax on all sales of tangible personal property into the State of Illinois in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Use Tax Act regardless of whether the person or affiliate is a "retailer maintaining a place of business within this State" as defined in Section 2 of the Use Tax Act. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (b), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (b), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

To require that bids and contracts include a certification by the bidder or contractor that the bidder or contractor is not barred from bidding for or entering into a contract under this Section and that the bidder or contractor acknowledges that the school board may declare the contract void if the certification completed pursuant to this subsection (b) is false.

(b-5) To require all contracts and agreements that pertain to goods and services and that are intended to generate additional revenue and other remunerations for the school district in excess of $1,000, including without limitation vending machine contracts, sports and other attire, class rings, and photographic services, to be approved by the school board. The school board shall file as an attachment to its annual budget a report, in a form as determined by the State Board of Education, indicating for the prior year the name of the vendor, the product or service provided, and the actual net revenue and non-monetary remuneration from each of the contracts or agreements. In addition, the report shall indicate for what purpose the revenue was used and how and to whom the non-monetary remuneration was distributed.

(c) If the State education purchasing entity creates a master contract as defined in Article 28A of this Code, then the State education purchasing entity shall notify school districts of the existence of the master contract.

(d) In purchasing supplies, materials, equipment, or services that are not subject to subsection (c) of this Section, before a school district solicits bids or awards a contract, the district may review and consider as a bid under subsection (a) of this Section certified education purchasing contracts that are already available through the State education purchasing entity.

(Source: P.A. 95-990, eff. 10-3-08; 96-392, eff. 1-1-10; 96-841, eff. 12-23-09; revised 12-29-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.46)

Sec. 10-20.46. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If a school holds any type of event at the school on November 11, Veterans' Day, the school board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.47)

Sec. 10-20.47 10-20.46. Administrator and teacher salary and benefits; report. Each school board shall report to the State Board of Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the district superintendent and all administrators and teachers employed by the school district. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-21-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.48)

Sec. 10-20.48 10-20.46. Radon testing.

(a) It is recommended that every occupied school building of a school district be tested every 5 years for radon pursuant to rules established by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency (IEMA).

(b) It is recommended that new schools of a school district be built using radon resistant new construction techniques, as shown in the United States Environmental Protection Agency document, Radon Prevention in the Design and Construction of Schools and Other Large Buildings.

(c) Each school district may maintain, make available for review, and notify parents and faculty of test results under this Section. The district shall report radon test results to the State Board of Education, which shall prepare a report every 2 years of the results from all schools that have performed tests, to be submitted to the General Assembly and the Governor.

(d) If IEMA exempts an individual from being required to be a licensed radon professional, the individual does not need to be a licensed radon professional in order to perform screening tests under this Section. A school district may elect to have one or more employees from the district attend an IEMA-approved, Internet-based training course on school testing in order to receive an exemption to conduct testing in that school district. These school district employees must perform the measurements in accordance with procedures approved by IEMA. If an exemption from IEMA is not received, the school district must use a licensed radon professional to conduct measurements.

(e) If the results of a radon screening test under this Section are found to be 4.0 pCi/L or above, the school district may hire a licensed radon professional to perform measurements before any mitigation decisions are made. If radon levels of 4.0 pCi/L or above are found, it is recommended that affected areas be mitigated by a licensed radon mitigation professional with respect to both design and installation. IEMA may provide the school district with a list of licensed radon mitigation professionals.

(f) A screening test under this Section may be done with a test kit found in a hardware store, department store, or home improvement store or with a kit ordered through the mail or over the Internet. However, the kit must be provided by a laboratory licensed in accordance with the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-417, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-21-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.49)

Sec. 10-20.49 10-20.46. Compliance with Chemical Safety Acts. Each school district must adopt a procedure to comply with the requirements of the Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act and the Structural Pest Control Act. The school district must designate a staff person who is responsible for compliance with the requirements of these Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.50)

Sec. 10-20.50 10-20.46. Salary compensation report. On or before October 1 of each year, each school district in this State, including special charter districts, shall post on its Internet website, if any, an itemized salary compensation report for every employee in the district holding an administrative certificate and working in that capacity, including the district superintendent. The salary compensation report shall include without limitation base salary, bonuses, pension contributions, retirement increases, the cost of health insurance, the cost of life insurance, paid sick and vacation day payouts, annuities, and any other form of compensation or income paid on behalf of the employee.

This report shall be presented at a regular school board meeting, subject to applicable notice requirements. In addition, each school district shall submit the completed report to the office of the district's regional superintendent of schools, which shall make copies available to any individual requesting them.

Per Section 10-20.40 of this Code, as added by Public Act 95-707, a school district must post the contract that a school board enters into with an exclusive bargaining representative. The school board must provide the terms of that contract online.

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.51)

Sec. 10-20.51 10-20.46. Press boxes; accessibility. A school board does not have to comply with the Illinois Accessibility Code (71 Ill. Adm. Code 400) with respect to accessibility to press boxes that are on school property if the press boxes were constructed before August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-674) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-674, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-21-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, and 356z.14, and 356z.15 356z.14 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.31) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.31)

Sec. 10-22.31. Special education.

(a) To enter into joint agreements with other school boards to provide the needed special educational facilities and to employ a director and other professional workers as defined in Section 14-1.10 and to establish facilities as defined in Section 14-1.08 for the types of children described in Sections 14-1.02 and 14-1.03a. The director (who may be employed under a contract as provided in subsection (c) of this Section) and other professional workers may be employed by one district, which shall be reimbursed on a mutually agreed basis by other districts that are parties to the joint agreement. Such agreements may provide that one district may supply professional workers for a joint program conducted in another district. Such agreement shall provide that any full-time professional worker who is employed by a joint agreement program and spends over 50% of his or her time in one school district shall not be required to work a different teaching schedule than the other professional worker in that district. Such agreement shall include, but not be limited to, provisions for administration, staff, programs, financing, housing, transportation, an advisory body, and the method or methods to be employed for disposing of property upon the withdrawal of a school district or dissolution of the joint agreement and shall specify procedures for the withdrawal of districts from the joint agreement as long as these procedures are consistent with subsection (g) of this Section. this Section and Such agreement may be amended at any time as provided in the joint agreement or, if the joint agreement does not so provide, then such agreement may be amended at any time upon the adoption of concurring resolutions by the school boards of all member districts, provided that no later than 6 months after August 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-783) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, all existing agreements shall be amended to be consistent with Public Act 96-783 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. Such an amendment may include the removal of a school district from or the addition of a school district to the joint agreement without a petition as otherwise required in this Section if all member districts adopt concurring resolutions to that effect. A fully executed copy of any such agreement or amendment entered into on or after January 1, 1989 shall be filed with the State Board of Education. Petitions for withdrawal shall be made to the regional board or boards of school trustees exercising oversight or governance over any of the districts in the joint agreement. Upon receipt of a petition for withdrawal, the regional board of school trustees shall publish notice of and conduct a hearing or, in instances in which more than one regional board of school trustees exercises oversight or governance over any of the districts in the joint agreement, a joint hearing, in accordance with rules adopted by the State Board of Education. In instances in which a single regional board of school trustees holds the hearing, approval of the petition must be by a two-thirds majority vote of the school trustees. In instances in which a joint hearing of 2 or more regional boards of school trustees is required, approval of the petition must be by a two-thirds majority of all those school trustees present and voting. Notwithstanding the provisions of Article 6 of this Code, in instances in which the competent regional board or boards of school trustees has been abolished, petitions for withdrawal shall be made to the school boards of those districts that fall under the oversight or governance of the abolished regional board of school trustees in accordance with rules adopted by the State Board of Education. If any petition is approved pursuant to this subsection (a), the withdrawal takes effect as provided in Section 7-9 of this Act. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 96-769 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to all changes to special education joint agreement membership initiated after July 1, 2009.

(b) To either (1) designate an administrative district to act as fiscal and legal agent for the districts that are parties to the joint agreement, or (2) designate a governing board composed of one member of the school board of each cooperating district and designated by such boards to act in accordance with the joint agreement. No such governing board may levy taxes and no such governing board may incur any indebtedness except within an annual budget for the joint agreement approved by the governing board and by the boards of at least a majority of the cooperating school districts or a number of districts greater than a majority if required by the joint agreement. The governing board may appoint an executive board of at least 7 members to administer the joint agreement in accordance with its terms. However, if 7 or more school districts are parties to a joint agreement that does not have an administrative district: (i) at least a majority of the members appointed by the governing board to the executive board shall be members of the school boards of the cooperating districts; or (ii) if the governing board wishes to appoint members who are not school board members, they shall be superintendents from the cooperating districts.

(c) To employ a full-time director of special education of the joint agreement program under a one-year or multi-year contract. No such contract can be offered or accepted for less than one year. Such contract may be discontinued at any time by mutual agreement of the contracting parties, or may be extended for an additional one-year or multi-year period at the end of any year.

The contract year is July 1 through the following June 30th, unless the contract specifically provides otherwise. Notice of intent not to renew a contract when given by a controlling board or administrative district must be in writing stating the specific reason therefor. Notice of intent not to renew the contract must be given by the controlling board or the administrative district at least 90 days before the contract expires. Failure to do so will automatically extend the contract for one additional year.

By accepting the terms of the contract, the director of a special education joint agreement waives all rights granted under Sections 24-11 through 24-16 for the duration of his or her employment as a director of a special education joint agreement.

(d) To designate a district that is a party to the joint agreement as the issuer of bonds or notes for the purposes and in the manner provided in this Section. It is not necessary for such district to also be the administrative district for the joint agreement, nor is it necessary for the same district to be designated as the issuer of all series of bonds or notes issued hereunder. Any district so designated may, from time to time, borrow money and, in evidence of its obligation to repay the borrowing, issue its negotiable bonds or notes for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, altering, repairing, enlarging and equipping any building or portion thereof, together with any land or interest therein, necessary to provide special educational facilities and services as defined in Section 14-1.08. Title in and to any such facilities shall be held in accordance with the joint agreement.

Any such bonds or notes shall be authorized by a resolution of the board of education of the issuing district. The resolution may contain such covenants as may be deemed necessary or advisable by the district to assure the payment of the bonds or notes. The resolution shall be effective immediately upon its adoption.

Prior to the issuance of such bonds or notes, each school district that is a party to the joint agreement shall agree, whether by amendment to the joint agreement or by resolution of the board of education, to be jointly and severally liable for the payment of the bonds and notes. The bonds or notes shall be payable solely and only from the payments made pursuant to such agreement.

Neither the bonds or notes nor the obligation to pay the bonds or notes under any joint agreement shall constitute an indebtedness of any district, including the issuing district, within the meaning of any constitutional or statutory limitation.

As long as any bonds or notes are outstanding and unpaid, the agreement by a district to pay the bonds and notes shall be irrevocable notwithstanding the district's withdrawal from membership in the joint special education program.

(e) If a district whose employees are on strike was, prior to the strike, sending students with disabilities to special educational facilities and services in another district or cooperative, the district affected by the strike shall continue to send such students during the strike and shall be eligible to receive appropriate State reimbursement.

(f) With respect to those joint agreements that have a governing board composed of one member of the school board of each cooperating district and designated by those boards to act in accordance with the joint agreement, the governing board shall have, in addition to its other powers under this Section, the authority to issue bonds or notes for the purposes and in the manner provided in this subsection. The governing board of the joint agreement may from time to time borrow money and, in evidence of its obligation to repay the borrowing, issue its negotiable bonds or notes for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, altering, repairing, enlarging and equipping any building or portion thereof, together with any land or interest therein, necessary to provide special educational facilities and services as defined in Section 14-1.08 and including also facilities for activities of administration and educational support personnel employees. Title in and to any such facilities shall be held in accordance with the joint agreement.

Any such bonds or notes shall be authorized by a resolution of the governing board. The resolution may contain such covenants as may be deemed necessary or advisable by the governing board to assure the payment of the bonds or notes and interest accruing thereon. The resolution shall be effective immediately upon its adoption.

Each school district that is a party to the joint agreement shall be automatically liable, by virtue of its membership in the joint agreement, for its proportionate share of the principal amount of the bonds and notes plus interest accruing thereon, as provided in the resolution. Subject to the joint and several liability hereinafter provided for, the resolution may provide for different payment schedules for different districts except that the aggregate amount of scheduled payments for each district shall be equal to its proportionate share of the debt service in the bonds or notes based upon the fraction that its equalized assessed valuation bears to the total equalized assessed valuation of all the district members of the joint agreement as adjusted in the manner hereinafter provided. In computing that fraction the most recent available equalized assessed valuation at the time of the issuance of the bonds and notes shall be used, and the equalized assessed valuation of any district maintaining grades K to 12 shall be doubled in both the numerator and denominator of the fraction used for all of the districts that are members of the joint agreement. In case of default in payment by any member, each school district that is a party to the joint agreement shall automatically be jointly and severally liable for the amount of any deficiency. The bonds or notes and interest thereon shall be payable solely and only from the funds made available pursuant to the procedures set forth in this subsection. No project authorized under this subsection may require an annual contribution for bond payments from any member district in excess of 0.15% of the value of taxable property as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue in the case of districts maintaining grades K-8 or 9-12 and 0.30% of the value of taxable property as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue in the case of districts maintaining grades K-12. This limitation on taxing authority is expressly applicable to taxing authority provided under Section 17-9 and other applicable Sections of this Act. Nothing contained in this subsection shall be construed as an exception to the property tax limitations contained in Section 17-2, 17-2.2a, 17-5, or any other applicable Section of this Act.

Neither the bonds or notes nor the obligation to pay the bonds or notes under any joint agreement shall constitute an indebtedness of any district within the meaning of any constitutional or statutory limitation.

As long as any bonds or notes are outstanding and unpaid, the obligation of a district to pay its proportionate share of the principal of and interest on the bonds and notes as required in this Section shall be a general obligation of the district payable from any and all sources of revenue designated for that purpose by the board of education of the district and shall be irrevocable notwithstanding the district's withdrawal from membership in the joint special education program.

(g) A member district wishing to withdraw from a joint agreement may obtain from its school board a written resolution approving the withdrawal. The withdrawing district must then present a written petition for withdrawal from the joint agreement to the other member districts within such timelines designated by the joint agreement. Upon approval by school board written resolution of all of the remaining member districts, the petitioning member district shall be withdrawn from the joint agreement effective the following July 1 and shall notify the State Board of Education of the approved withdrawal in writing.

(h) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 96-783 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to withdrawals from or dissolutions of special education joint agreements initiated after August 28, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-783) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-769, eff. 8-28-09; 96-783, eff. 8-28-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.39)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs, school guidance counselors, teachers and other school personnel who work with pupils in grades 7 through 12 shall be trained to identify the warning signs of suicidal behavior in adolescents and teens and shall be taught appropriate intervention and referral techniques.

(c) School guidance counselors, nurses, teachers and other school personnel who work with pupils may be trained to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), including the nature of the disease, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, and the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral, and any other information that may be appropriate considering the age and grade level of such pupils. The School Board shall supervise such training. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training.

(d) In this subsection (d):

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 in Sections 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

At least once every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils, including, but not limited to, school and school district administrators, teachers, school guidance counselors, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, and school nurses, must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth and shall include training concerning (i) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth, (ii) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed, and (iii) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality. At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence.

(e) At least every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils must be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(f) (e) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training on educator ethics, teacher-student conduct, and school employee-student conduct for all personnel.

(Source: P.A. 95-558, eff. 8-30-07; 96-349, eff. 8-13-09; 96-431, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-4-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.05)

Sec. 18-8.05. Basis for apportionment of general State financial aid and supplemental general State aid to the common schools for the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years.

(A) General Provisions.

(1) The provisions of this Section apply to the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years. The system of general State financial aid provided for in this Section is designed to assure that, through a combination of State financial aid and required local resources, the financial support provided each pupil in Average Daily Attendance equals or exceeds a prescribed per pupil Foundation Level. This formula approach imputes a level of per pupil Available Local Resources and provides for the basis to calculate a per pupil level of general State financial aid that, when added to Available Local Resources, equals or exceeds the Foundation Level. The amount of per pupil general State financial aid for school districts, in general, varies in inverse relation to Available Local Resources. Per pupil amounts are based upon each school district's Average Daily Attendance as that term is defined in this Section.

(2) In addition to general State financial aid, school districts with specified levels or concentrations of pupils from low income households are eligible to receive supplemental general State financial aid grants as provided pursuant to subsection (H). The supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under subsection (H) shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(3) To receive financial assistance under this Section, school districts are required to file claims with the State Board of Education, subject to the following requirements:

(a) Any school district which fails for any given school year to maintain school as required by law, or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to file for such school year any claim upon the Common School Fund. In case of nonrecognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion which the Average Daily Attendance in the attendance center or centers bear to the Average Daily Attendance in the school district. A "recognized school" means any public school which meets the standards as established for recognition by the State Board of Education. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim which was filed while it was recognized.

(b) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c) If a school district operates a full year school under Section 10-19.1, the general State aid to the school district shall be determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with this Section as near as may be applicable.

(d) (Blank).

(4) Except as provided in subsections (H) and (L), the board of any district receiving any of the grants provided for in this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that board is authorized to make expenditures by law.

School districts are not required to exert a minimum Operating Tax Rate in order to qualify for assistance under this Section.

(5) As used in this Section the following terms, when capitalized, shall have the meaning ascribed herein:

(a) "Average Daily Attendance": A count of pupil attendance in school, averaged as provided for in subsection (C) and utilized in deriving per pupil financial support levels.

(b) "Available Local Resources": A computation of local financial support, calculated on the basis of Average Daily Attendance and derived as provided pursuant to subsection (D).

(c) "Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes": Funds paid to local school districts pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

(d) "Foundation Level": A prescribed level of per pupil financial support as provided for in subsection (B).

(e) "Operating Tax Rate": All school district property taxes extended for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

(B) Foundation Level.

(1) The Foundation Level is a figure established by the State representing the minimum level of per pupil financial support that should be available to provide for the basic education of each pupil in Average Daily Attendance. As set forth in this Section, each school district is assumed to exert a sufficient local taxing effort such that, in combination with the aggregate of general State financial aid provided the district, an aggregate of State and local resources are available to meet the basic education needs of pupils in the district.

(2) For the 1998-1999 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,225. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,325. For the 2000-2001 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,425. For the 2001-2002 school year and 2002-2003 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,560. For the 2003-2004 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,810. For the 2004-2005 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,964. For the 2005-2006 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,164. For the 2006-2007 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,334. For the 2007-2008 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,734. For the 2008-2009 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,959.

(3) For the 2009-2010 school year and each school year thereafter, the Foundation Level of support is $6,119 or such greater amount as may be established by law by the General Assembly.

(C) Average Daily Attendance.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), an Average Daily Attendance figure shall be utilized. The Average Daily Attendance figure for formula calculation purposes shall be the monthly average of the actual number of pupils in attendance of each school district, as further averaged for the best 3 months of pupil attendance for each school district. In compiling the figures for the number of pupils in attendance, school districts and the State Board of Education shall, for purposes of general State aid funding, conform attendance figures to the requirements of subsection (F).

(2) The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (E) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated or the average of the attendance data for the 3 preceding school years, whichever is greater. The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (H) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated.

(D) Available Local Resources.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), a representation of Available Local Resources per pupil, as that term is defined and determined in this subsection, shall be utilized. Available Local Resources per pupil shall include a calculated dollar amount representing local school district revenues from local property taxes and from Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes, expressed on the basis of pupils in Average Daily Attendance. Calculation of Available Local Resources shall exclude any tax amnesty funds received as a result of Public Act 93-26.

(2) In determining a school district's revenue from local property taxes, the State Board of Education shall utilize the equalized assessed valuation of all taxable property of each school district as of September 30 of the previous year. The equalized assessed valuation utilized shall be obtained and determined as provided in subsection (G).

(3) For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 3.00%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 2.30%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades 9 through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be the applicable equalized assessed valuation of the district multiplied by 1.05%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

For partial elementary unit districts created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 2.06% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure, plus the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 0.94% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

(4) The Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes paid to each school district during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for that district, shall be added to the local property tax revenues per pupil as derived by the application of the immediately preceding paragraph (3). The sum of these per pupil figures for each school district shall constitute Available Local Resources as that term is utilized in subsection (E) in the calculation of general State aid.

(E) Computation of General State Aid.

(1) For each school year, the amount of general State aid allotted to a school district shall be computed by the State Board of Education as provided in this subsection.

(2) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is less than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, general State aid for that district shall be calculated as an amount equal to the Foundation Level minus Available Local Resources, multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(3) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is equal to or greater than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level and less than the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid per pupil shall be a decimal proportion of the Foundation Level derived using a linear algorithm. Under this linear algorithm, the calculated general State aid per pupil shall decline in direct linear fashion from 0.07 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, to 0.05 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level. The allocation of general State aid for school districts subject to this paragraph 3 shall be the calculated general State aid per pupil figure multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(4) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil equals or exceeds the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid for the school district shall be calculated as the product of $218 multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(5) The amount of general State aid allocated to a school district for the 1999-2000 school year meeting the requirements set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) shall be increased by an amount equal to the general State aid that would have been received by the district for the 1998-1999 school year by utilizing the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) less the general State aid allotted for the 1998-1999 school year. This amount shall be deemed a one time increase, and shall not affect any future general State aid allocations.

(F) Compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(1) Each school district shall, by July 1 of each year, submit to the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Board of Education, attendance figures for the school year that began in the preceding calendar year. The attendance information so transmitted shall identify the average daily attendance figures for each month of the school year. Beginning with the general State aid claim form for the 2002-2003 school year, districts shall calculate Average Daily Attendance as provided in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of this paragraph (1).

(a) In districts that do not hold year-round classes, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(b) In districts in which all buildings hold year-round classes, days of attendance in July and August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(c) In districts in which some buildings, but not all, hold year-round classes, for the non-year-round buildings, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May. The average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be computed as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph (1). To calculate the Average Daily Attendance for the district, the average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be multiplied by the days in session for the non-year-round buildings for each month and added to the monthly attendance of the non-year-round buildings.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, days of attendance by pupils shall be counted only for sessions of not less than 5 clock hours of school work per day under direct supervision of: (i) teachers, or (ii) non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel when engaging in non-teaching duties and supervising in those instances specified in subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 and paragraph 10 of Section 34-18, with pupils of legal school age and in kindergarten and grades 1 through 12.

Days of attendance by tuition pupils shall be accredited only to the districts that pay the tuition to a recognized school.

(2) Days of attendance by pupils of less than 5 clock hours of school shall be subject to the following provisions in the compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(a) Pupils regularly enrolled in a public school for only a part of the school day may be counted on the basis of 1/6 day for every class hour of instruction of 40 minutes or more attended pursuant to such enrollment, unless a pupil is enrolled in a block-schedule format of 80 minutes or more of instruction, in which case the pupil may be counted on the basis of the proportion of minutes of school work completed each day to the minimum number of minutes that school work is required to be held that day.

(b) Days of attendance may be less than 5 clock hours on the opening and closing of the school term, and upon the first day of pupil attendance, if preceded by a day or days utilized as an institute or teachers' workshop.

(c) A session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance upon certification by the regional superintendent, and approved by the State Superintendent of Education to the extent that the district has been forced to use daily multiple sessions.

(d) A session of 3 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance (1) when the remainder of the school day or at least 2 hours in the evening of that day is utilized for an in-service training program for teachers, up to a maximum of 5 days per school year, provided a district conducts an in-service training program for teachers in accordance with Section 10-22.39 of this Code; or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days may be used, in which event each such day may be counted as a day required for a legal school calendar pursuant to Section 10-19 of this Code; (1.5) when, of the 5 days allowed under item (1), a maximum of 4 days are used for parent-teacher conferences, or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days are used, in which case each such day may be counted as a calendar day required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that the full-day, parent-teacher conference consists of (i) a minimum of 5 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences, (ii) both a minimum of 2 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences held in the evening following a full day of student attendance, as specified in subsection (F)(1)(c), and a minimum of 3 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences held on the day immediately following evening parent-teacher conferences, or (iii) multiple parent-teacher conferences held in the evenings following full days of student attendance, as specified in subsection (F)(1)(c), in which the time used for the parent-teacher conferences is equivalent to a minimum of 5 clock hours; and (2) when days in addition to those provided in items (1) and (1.5) are scheduled by a school pursuant to its school improvement plan adopted under Article 34 or its revised or amended school improvement plan adopted under Article 2, provided that (i) such sessions of 3 or more clock hours are scheduled to occur at regular intervals, (ii) the remainder of the school days in which such sessions occur are utilized for in-service training programs or other staff development activities for teachers, and (iii) a sufficient number of minutes of school work under the direct supervision of teachers are added to the school days between such regularly scheduled sessions to accumulate not less than the number of minutes by which such sessions of 3 or more clock hours fall short of 5 clock hours. Any full days used for the purposes of this paragraph shall not be considered for computing average daily attendance. Days scheduled for in-service training programs, staff development activities, or parent-teacher conferences may be scheduled separately for different grade levels and different attendance centers of the district.

(e) A session of not less than one clock hour of teaching hospitalized or homebound pupils on-site or by telephone to the classroom may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance, however these pupils must receive 4 or more clock hours of instruction to be counted for a full day of attendance.

(f) A session of at least 4 clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance for first grade pupils, and pupils in full day kindergartens, and a session of 2 or more hours may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance by pupils in kindergartens which provide only 1/2 day of attendance.

(g) For children with disabilities who are below the age of 6 years and who cannot attend 2 or more clock hours because of their disability or immaturity, a session of not less than one clock hour may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance; however for such children whose educational needs so require a session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a full day of attendance.

(h) A recognized kindergarten which provides for only 1/2 day of attendance by each pupil shall not have more than 1/2 day of attendance counted in any one day. However, kindergartens may count 2 1/2 days of attendance in any 5 consecutive school days. When a pupil attends such a kindergarten for 2 half days on any one school day, the pupil shall have the following day as a day absent from school, unless the school district obtains permission in writing from the State Superintendent of Education. Attendance at kindergartens which provide for a full day of attendance by each pupil shall be counted the same as attendance by first grade pupils. Only the first year of attendance in one kindergarten shall be counted, except in case of children who entered the kindergarten in their fifth year whose educational development requires a second year of kindergarten as determined under the rules and regulations of the State Board of Education.

(i) On the days when the Prairie State Achievement Examination is administered under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64 of this Code, the day of attendance for a pupil whose school day must be shortened to accommodate required testing procedures may be less than 5 clock hours and shall be counted towards the 176 days of actual pupil attendance required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that a sufficient number of minutes of school work in excess of 5 clock hours are first completed on other school days to compensate for the loss of school work on the examination days.

(G) Equalized Assessed Valuation Data.

(1) For purposes of the calculation of Available Local Resources required pursuant to subsection (D), the State Board of Education shall secure from the Department of Revenue the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every school district, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the district as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all school districts subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each school district situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (a) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that school district exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that school district if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (b) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each school district all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this paragraph that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this paragraph that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

This equalized assessed valuation, as adjusted further by the requirements of this subsection, shall be utilized in the calculation of Available Local Resources.

(2) The equalized assessed valuation in paragraph (1) shall be adjusted, as applicable, in the following manner:

(a) For the purposes of calculating State aid under this Section, with respect to any part of a school district within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Sections 11-74.4-1 through 11-74.4-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Sections 11-74.6-1 through 11-74.6-50 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current equalized assessed valuation of real property located in any such project area which is attributable to an increase above the total initial equalized assessed valuation of such property shall be used as part of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, the total initial equalized assessed valuation or the current equalized assessed valuation, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(b) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (b).

(3) For the 1999-2000 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district meets all of the criteria of this subsection (G)(3), the school district's Available Local Resources shall be calculated under subsection (D) using the district's Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated under this subsection (G)(3).

For purposes of this subsection (G)(3) the following terms shall have the following meanings:

"Budget Year": The school year for which general State aid is calculated and awarded under subsection (E).

"Base Tax Year": The property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of general State aid.

"Preceding Tax Year": The property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Base Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the County Clerk and defined in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate as defined in subsection (A).

"Extension Limitation Ratio": A numerical ratio, certified by the County Clerk, in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Tax Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension.

"Operating Tax Rate": The operating tax rate as defined in subsection (A).

If a school district is subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of that district. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the district's 1996 Equalized Assessed Valuation and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph for a school district that has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, for the 2000-2001 school year and each school year thereafter, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated under this subsection (G)(3) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation as calculated pursuant to subsections (G)(1) and (G)(2), then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid for the Budget Year pursuant to subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources under subsection (D). For the 2009-2010 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district, as calculated by the State Board of Education, shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid times an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the Equalized Assessed Valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the Equalized Assessed Valuation of disconnected property. New property and recovered tax increment value shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

Partial elementary unit districts created in accordance with Article 11E of this Code shall not be eligible for the adjustment in this subsection (G)(3) until the fifth year following the effective date of the reorganization.

(4) For the purposes of calculating general State aid for the 1999-2000 school year only, if a school district experienced a triennial reassessment on the equalized assessed valuation used in calculating its general State financial aid apportionment for the 1998-1999 school year, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation that would have been used to calculate the district's 1998-1999 general State aid. This amount shall equal the product of the equalized assessed valuation used to calculate general State aid for the 1997-1998 school year and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district as calculated under this paragraph (4) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation utilized in calculating the district's 1998-1999 general State aid allocation, then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources.

(5) For school districts having a majority of their equalized assessed valuation in any county except Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, or Will, if the amount of general State aid allocated to the school district for the 1999-2000 school year under the provisions of subsection (E), (H), and (J) of this Section is less than the amount of general State aid allocated to the district for the 1998-1999 school year under these subsections, then the general State aid of the district for the 1999-2000 school year only shall be increased by the difference between these amounts. The total payments made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed $14,000,000. Claims shall be prorated if they exceed $14,000,000.

(H) Supplemental General State Aid.

(1) In addition to the general State aid a school district is allotted pursuant to subsection (E), qualifying school districts shall receive a grant, paid in conjunction with a district's payments of general State aid, for supplemental general State aid based upon the concentration level of children from low-income households within the school district. Supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under this subsection shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section. If the appropriation in any fiscal year for general State aid and supplemental general State aid is insufficient to pay the amounts required under the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculations, then the State Board of Education shall ensure that each school district receives the full amount due for general State aid and the remainder of the appropriation shall be used for supplemental general State aid, which the State Board of Education shall calculate and pay to eligible districts on a prorated basis.

(1.5) This paragraph (1.5) applies only to those school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall be the low-income eligible pupil count from the most recently available federal census divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district. If, however, (i) the percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count of a high school district with fewer than 400 students exceeds by 75% or more the percentage change in the total low-income eligible pupil count of contiguous elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, or (ii) a high school district within 2 counties and serving 5 elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, has a percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count and there is a percentage increase in the total low-income eligible pupil count of a majority of the elementary school districts in excess of 50% from the 2 most recent federal censuses, then the high school district's low-income eligible pupil count from the earlier federal census shall be the number used as the low-income eligible pupil count for the high school district, for purposes of this subsection (H). The changes made to this paragraph (1) by Public Act 92-28 shall apply to supplemental general State aid grants for school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year that are paid in fiscal year 1999 or thereafter and to any State aid payments made in fiscal year 1994 through fiscal year 1998 pursuant to subsection 1(n) of Section 18-8 of this Code (which was repealed on July 1, 1998), and any high school district that is affected by Public Act 92-28 is entitled to a recomputation of its supplemental general State aid grant or State aid paid in any of those fiscal years. This recomputation shall not be affected by any other funding.

(1.10) This paragraph (1.10) applies to the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall, for each fiscal year, be the low-income eligible pupil count as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services based on the number of pupils who are eligible for at least one of the following low income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, TANF, or Food Stamps, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services, averaged over the 2 immediately preceding fiscal years for fiscal year 2004 and over the 3 immediately preceding fiscal years for each fiscal year thereafter) divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(2) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 1998-1999, 1999-2000, and 2000-2001 school years only:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for any school year shall be $800 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for the 1998-1999 school year shall be $1,100 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,500 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,900 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For the 1999-2000 school year, the per pupil amount specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be increased to $1,243, $1,600, and $2,000, respectively.

(f) For the 2000-2001 school year, the per pupil amounts specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be $1,273, $1,640, and $2,050, respectively.

(2.5) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2002-2003 school year:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of less than 10%, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 10% and less than 20%, the grant for each school year shall be $675 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,330 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,362 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,680 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(f) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for each school year shall be $2,080 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(2.10) Except as otherwise provided, supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 15% or less, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level greater than 15%, the grant for each school year shall be $294.25 added to the product of $2,700 and the square of the Low Income Concentration Level, all multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

For the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter through the 2008-2009 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2009-2010 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.66. For the 2010-2011 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.33. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph to the contrary, if for any school year supplemental general State aid grants are prorated as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (H), then the grants under this paragraph shall be prorated.

For the 2003-2004 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.25 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2004-2005 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.50 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2005-2006 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.75 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year.

(3) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of more than 1,000 and less than 50,000 that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall submit a plan to the State Board of Education prior to October 30 of each year for the use of the funds resulting from this grant of supplemental general State aid for the improvement of instruction in which priority is given to meeting the education needs of disadvantaged children. Such plan shall be submitted in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(4) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of 50,000 or more that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall be required to distribute from funds available pursuant to this Section, no less than $261,000,000 in accordance with the following requirements:

(a) The required amounts shall be distributed to the attendance centers within the district in proportion to the number of pupils enrolled at each attendance center who are eligible to receive free or reduced-price lunches or breakfasts under the federal Child Nutrition Act of 1966 and under the National School Lunch Act during the immediately preceding school year.

(b) The distribution of these portions of supplemental and general State aid among attendance centers according to these requirements shall not be compensated for or contravened by adjustments of the total of other funds appropriated to any attendance centers, and the Board of Education shall utilize funding from one or several sources in order to fully implement this provision annually prior to the opening of school.

(c) Each attendance center shall be provided by the school district a distribution of noncategorical funds and other categorical funds to which an attendance center is entitled under law in order that the general State aid and supplemental general State aid provided by application of this subsection supplements rather than supplants the noncategorical funds and other categorical funds provided by the school district to the attendance centers.

(d) Any funds made available under this subsection that by reason of the provisions of this subsection are not required to be allocated and provided to attendance centers may be used and appropriated by the board of the district for any lawful school purpose.

(e) Funds received by an attendance center pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the attendance center at the discretion of the principal and local school council for programs to improve educational opportunities at qualifying schools through the following programs and services: early childhood education, reduced class size or improved adult to student classroom ratio, enrichment programs, remedial assistance, attendance improvement, and other educationally beneficial expenditures which supplement the regular and basic programs as determined by the State Board of Education. Funds provided shall not be expended for any political or lobbying purposes as defined by board rule.

(f) Each district subject to the provisions of this subdivision (H)(4) shall submit an acceptable plan to meet the educational needs of disadvantaged children, in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, to the State Board of Education prior to July 15 of each year. This plan shall be consistent with the decisions of local school councils concerning the school expenditure plans developed in accordance with part 4 of Section 34-2.3. The State Board shall approve or reject the plan within 60 days after its submission. If the plan is rejected, the district shall give written notice of intent to modify the plan within 15 days of the notification of rejection and then submit a modified plan within 30 days after the date of the written notice of intent to modify. Districts may amend approved plans pursuant to rules promulgated by the State Board of Education.

Upon notification by the State Board of Education that the district has not submitted a plan prior to July 15 or a modified plan within the time period specified herein, the State aid funds affected by that plan or modified plan shall be withheld by the State Board of Education until a plan or modified plan is submitted.

If the district fails to distribute State aid to attendance centers in accordance with an approved plan, the plan for the following year shall allocate funds, in addition to the funds otherwise required by this subsection, to those attendance centers which were underfunded during the previous year in amounts equal to such underfunding.

For purposes of determining compliance with this subsection in relation to the requirements of attendance center funding, each district subject to the provisions of this subsection shall submit as a separate document by December 1 of each year a report of expenditure data for the prior year in addition to any modification of its current plan. If it is determined that there has been a failure to comply with the expenditure provisions of this subsection regarding contravention or supplanting, the State Superintendent of Education shall, within 60 days of receipt of the report, notify the district and any affected local school council. The district shall within 45 days of receipt of that notification inform the State Superintendent of Education of the remedial or corrective action to be taken, whether by amendment of the current plan, if feasible, or by adjustment in the plan for the following year. Failure to provide the expenditure report or the notification of remedial or corrective action in a timely manner shall result in a withholding of the affected funds.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this subsection. No funds shall be released under this subdivision (H)(4) to any district that has not submitted a plan that has been approved by the State Board of Education.

(I) (Blank).

(J) Supplementary Grants in Aid.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, the amount of the aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section for which each school district is eligible shall be no less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that was received by the district under Section 18-8 (exclusive of amounts received under subsections 5(p) and 5(p-5) of that Section) for the 1997-98 school year, pursuant to the provisions of that Section as it was then in effect. If a school district qualifies to receive a supplementary payment made under this subsection (J), the amount of the aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section which that district is eligible to receive for each school year shall be no less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that was received by the district under Section 18-8 (exclusive of amounts received under subsections 5(p) and 5(p-5) of that Section) for the 1997-1998 school year, pursuant to the provisions of that Section as it was then in effect.

(2) If, as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (J), a school district is to receive aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section for the 1998-99 school year and any subsequent school year that in any such school year is less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that the district received for the 1997-98 school year, the school district shall also receive, from a separate appropriation made for purposes of this subsection (J), a supplementary payment that is equal to the amount of the difference in the aggregate State aid figures as described in paragraph (1).

(3) (Blank).

(K) Grants to Laboratory and Alternative Schools.

In calculating the amount to be paid to the governing board of a public university that operates a laboratory school under this Section or to any alternative school that is operated by a regional superintendent of schools, the State Board of Education shall require by rule such reporting requirements as it deems necessary.

As used in this Section, "laboratory school" means a public school which is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board of Education. The governing board of a public university which receives funds from the State Board under this subsection (K) may not increase the number of students enrolled in its laboratory school from a single district, if that district is already sending 50 or more students, except under a mutual agreement between the school board of a student's district of residence and the university which operates the laboratory school. A laboratory school may not have more than 1,000 students, excluding students with disabilities in a special education program.

As used in this Section, "alternative school" means a public school which is created and operated by a Regional Superintendent of Schools and approved by the State Board of Education. Such alternative schools may offer courses of instruction for which credit is given in regular school programs, courses to prepare students for the high school equivalency testing program or vocational and occupational training. A regional superintendent of schools may contract with a school district or a public community college district to operate an alternative school. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be established by the regional superintendents of schools of the affected educational service regions. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be operated under such terms as the regional superintendents of schools of those educational service regions may agree.

Each laboratory and alternative school shall file, on forms provided by the State Superintendent of Education, an annual State aid claim which states the Average Daily Attendance of the school's students by month. The best 3 months' Average Daily Attendance shall be computed for each school. The general State aid entitlement shall be computed by multiplying the applicable Average Daily Attendance by the Foundation Level as determined under this Section.

(L) Payments, Additional Grants in Aid and Other Requirements.

(1) For a school district operating under the financial supervision of an Authority created under Article 34A, the general State aid otherwise payable to that district under this Section, but not the supplemental general State aid, shall be reduced by an amount equal to the budget for the operations of the Authority as certified by the Authority to the State Board of Education, and an amount equal to such reduction shall be paid to the Authority created for such district for its operating expenses in the manner provided in Section 18-11. The remainder of general State school aid for any such district shall be paid in accordance with Article 34A when that Article provides for a disposition other than that provided by this Article.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Summer school. Summer school payments shall be made as provided in Section 18-4.3.

(M) Education Funding Advisory Board.

The Education Funding Advisory Board, hereinafter in this subsection (M) referred to as the "Board", is hereby created. The Board shall consist of 5 members who are appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. The members appointed shall include representatives of education, business, and the general public. One of the members so appointed shall be designated by the Governor at the time the appointment is made as the chairperson of the Board. The initial members of the Board may be appointed any time after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997. The regular term of each member of the Board shall be for 4 years from the third Monday of January of the year in which the term of the member's appointment is to commence, except that of the 5 initial members appointed to serve on the Board, the member who is appointed as the chairperson shall serve for a term that commences on the date of his or her appointment and expires on the third Monday of January, 2002, and the remaining 4 members, by lots drawn at the first meeting of the Board that is held after all 5 members are appointed, shall determine 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2001, and 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2000. All members appointed to serve on the Board shall serve until their respective successors are appointed and confirmed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments. If a vacancy in membership occurs at a time when the Senate is not in session, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall appoint, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, a person to fill that membership for the unexpired term. If the Senate is not in session when the initial appointments are made, those appointments shall be made as in the case of vacancies.

The Education Funding Advisory Board shall be deemed established, and the initial members appointed by the Governor to serve as members of the Board shall take office, on the date that the Governor makes his or her appointment of the fifth initial member of the Board, whether those initial members are then serving pursuant to appointment and confirmation or pursuant to temporary appointments that are made by the Governor as in the case of vacancies.

The State Board of Education shall provide such staff assistance to the Education Funding Advisory Board as is reasonably required for the proper performance by the Board of its responsibilities.

For school years after the 2000-2001 school year, the Education Funding Advisory Board, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall make recommendations as provided in this subsection (M) to the General Assembly for the foundation level under subdivision (B)(3) of this Section and for the supplemental general State aid grant level under subsection (H) of this Section for districts with high concentrations of children from poverty. The recommended foundation level shall be determined based on a methodology which incorporates the basic education expenditures of low-spending schools exhibiting high academic performance. The Education Funding Advisory Board shall make such recommendations to the General Assembly on January 1 of odd numbered years, beginning January 1, 2001.

(N) (Blank).

(O) References.

(1) References in other laws to the various subdivisions of Section 18-8 as that Section existed before its repeal and replacement by this Section 18-8.05 shall be deemed to refer to the corresponding provisions of this Section 18-8.05, to the extent that those references remain applicable.

(2) References in other laws to State Chapter 1 funds shall be deemed to refer to the supplemental general State aid provided under subsection (H) of this Section.

(P) Public Act 93-838 and Public Act 93-808 make inconsistent changes to this Section. Under Section 6 of the Statute on Statutes there is an irreconcilable conflict between Public Act 93-808 and Public Act 93-838. Public Act 93-838, being the last acted upon, is controlling. The text of Public Act 93-838 is the law regardless of the text of Public Act 93-808.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 95-903, eff. 8-25-08; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-152, eff. 8-7-09; 96-300, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-640, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in "An Act to limit the indebtedness of counties having a population of less than 500,000 and townships, school districts and other municipal corporations having a population of less than 300,000", approved February 15, 1928, as amended.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not handicapped accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) (p-45) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) (p-45) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) (p-45) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-594, eff. 9-10-07; 95-792, eff. 1-1-09; 96-63, eff. 7-23-09; 96-273, eff. 8-11-09; 96-517, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-50)

Sec. 22-50. Twice-exceptional children; recommendations. The State Advisory Council on the Education of Children with Disabilities and the Advisory Council on the Education of Gifted and Talented Children shall research and discuss best practices for addressing the needs of "twice-exceptional" children, those who are gifted and talented and have a disability. The Councils shall then jointly make recommendations to the State Board of Education with respect to the State Board of Education providing guidance and technical assistance to school districts in furthering improved educational outcomes for gifted and twice-exceptional children. Recommendations shall include strategies to (i) educate teachers and other providers about the unique needs of this population, (ii) train teachers in target, research-based, identification and pedagogical methods, and (iii) establish guidelines for unique programming for twice-exceptional students.

(Source: P.A. 96-382, eff. 8-13-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-55)

Sec. 22-55 22-50. Illinois Accessibility Task Force.

(a) The Illinois Accessibility Task Force is created to recommend any necessary revisions to the Illinois Accessibility Code (71 Ill. Adm. Code 400) to comply with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 with respect to public school property.

(b) The task force shall consist of the following members:

(1) One member appointed by the President of the Senate.

(2) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(5) The Executive Director of the Capital Development Board or his or her designee.

(6) The Attorney General or his or her designee.

(7) A representative of a statewide association representing school boards appointed by the Executive Director of the Capital Development Board.

(8) A representative of a statewide association representing regional superintendents of schools appointed by the Executive Director of the Capital Development Board.

(9) A representative of a statewide coalition of citizens with disabilities appointed by the Executive Director of the Capital Development Board.

(c) The Capital Development Board shall provide administrative and other support to the task force.

(d) The task force shall report its recommendations to the Capital Development Board and the General Assembly, and upon reporting its recommendations the task force is dissolved.

(Source: P.A. 96-674, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-6)

Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school districts, including special charter districts, but not including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall grant such of their other employees as are eligible to participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the "600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year. Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or, if the treatment is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases. If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative.

If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or different district.

For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children, grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.

(Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09; 96-367, eff. 8-13-09; revised 11-3-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in all new applications submitted to the State Board or a local school board to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) A charter school shall comply with all applicable health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. Annually, by December 1, every charter school must submit to the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in the School Code governing public schools and local school board policies, except the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of the School Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 24-24 and 34-84A of the School Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) The Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(6) The Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of the School Code regarding school report cards; and

(8) The P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(Source: P.A. 96-104, eff. 1-1-10; 96-105, eff. 7-30-09; 96-107, eff. 7-30-09; 96-734, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-8)

Sec. 27A-8. Evaluation of charter proposals.

(a) This Section does not apply to a charter school established by referendum under Section 27A-6.5. In evaluating any charter school proposal submitted to it, the local school board shall give preference to proposals that:

(1) demonstrate a high level of local pupil, parental, community, business, and school personnel support;

(2) set rigorous levels of expected pupil achievement and demonstrate feasible plans for attaining those levels of achievement; and

(3) are designed to enroll and serve a substantial proportion of at-risk children; provided that nothing in the Charter Schools Law shall be construed as intended to limit the establishment of charter schools to those that serve a substantial portion of at-risk children or to in any manner restrict, limit, or discourage the establishment of charter schools that enroll and serve other pupil populations under a nonexclusive, nondiscriminatory admissions policy.

(b) In the case of a proposal to establish a charter school by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status, evidence that the proposed formation of the charter school has received majority support from certified teachers and from parents and guardians in the school or attendance center affected by the proposed charter, and, if applicable, from a local school council, shall be demonstrated by a petition in support of the charter school signed by certified teachers and a petition in support of the charter school signed by parents and guardians and, if applicable, by a vote of the local school council held at a public meeting. In the case of all other proposals to establish a charter school, evidence of sufficient support to fill the number of pupil seats set forth in the proposal may be demonstrated by a petition in support of the charter school signed by parents and guardians of students eligible to attend the charter school. In all cases, the individuals, organizations, or entities who initiate the proposal to establish a charter school may elect, in lieu of including any petition referred to in this subsection as a part of the proposal submitted to the local school board, to demonstrate that the charter school has received the support referred to in this subsection by other evidence and information presented at the public meeting that the local school board is required to convene under this Section.

(c) Within 45 days of receipt of a charter school proposal, the local school board shall convene a public meeting to obtain information to assist the board in its decision to grant or deny the charter school proposal.

(d) Notice of the public meeting required by this Section shall be published in a community newspaper published in the school district in which the proposed charter is located and, if there is no such newspaper, then in a newspaper published in the county and having circulation in the school district. The notices shall be published not more than 10 days nor less than 5 days before the meeting and shall state that information regarding a charter school proposal will be heard at the meeting. Copies of the notice shall also be posted at appropriate locations in the school or attendance center proposed to be established as a charter school, the public schools in the school district, and the local school board office.

(e) Within 30 days of the public meeting, the local school board shall vote, in a public meeting, to either grant or deny the charter school proposal.

(f) Within 7 days of the public meeting required under subsection (e), the local school board shall file a report with the State Board granting or denying the proposal. Within 30 days of receipt of the local school board's report, the State Board shall determine whether the approved charter proposal is consistent with the provisions of this Article and, if the approved proposal complies, certify the proposal pursuant to Section 27A-6; provided that for any charter proposal submitted to the State Board within one year after July 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-105) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the State Board shall have 60 days from receipt to determine such consistency and certify the proposal.

(Source: P.A. 96-105, eff. 7-30-09; 96-734, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.37)

Sec. 34-18.37. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If a school holds any type of event at the school on November 11, Veterans' Day, the board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.38)

Sec. 34-18.38 34-18.37. Administrator and teacher salary and benefits; report. The board shall report to the State Board of Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the general superintendent of schools or chief executive officer and all administrators and teachers employed by the school district. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.39)

Sec. 34-18.39 34-18.37. Radon testing.

(a) It is recommended that every occupied school building of the school district be tested every 5 years for radon pursuant to rules established by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency (IEMA).

(b) It is recommended that new schools of the school district be built using radon resistant new construction techniques, as shown in the United States Environmental Protection Agency document, Radon Prevention in the Design and Construction of Schools and Other Large Buildings.

(c) The school district may maintain, make available for review, and notify parents and faculty of test results under this Section. The district shall report radon test results to the State Board of Education, which shall prepare a report every 2 years of the results from all schools that have performed tests, to be submitted to the General Assembly and the Governor.

(d) If IEMA exempts an individual from being required to be a licensed radon professional, the individual does not need to be a licensed radon professional in order to perform screening tests under this Section. The school district may elect to have one or more employees from the district attend an IEMA-approved, Internet-based training course on school testing in order to receive an exemption to conduct testing in the school district. These school district employees must perform the measurements in accordance with procedures approved by IEMA. If an exemption from IEMA is not received, the school district must use a licensed radon professional to conduct measurements.

(e) If the results of a radon screening test under this Section are found to be 4.0 pCi/L or above, the school district may hire a licensed radon professional to perform measurements before any mitigation decisions are made. If radon levels of 4.0 pCi/L or above are found, it is recommended that affected areas be mitigated by a licensed radon mitigation professional with respect to both design and installation. IEMA may provide the school district with a list of licensed radon mitigation professionals.

(f) A screening test under this Section may be done with a test kit found in a hardware store, department store, or home improvement store or with a kit ordered through the mail or over the Internet. However, the kit must be provided by a laboratory licensed in accordance with the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-417, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.40)

Sec. 34-18.40 34-18.37. Compliance with Chemical Safety Acts. The Board of Education must adopt a procedure to comply with the requirements of the Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act and the Structural Pest Control Act. The superintendent must designate a staff person who is responsible for compliance with the requirements of these Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.41)

Sec. 34-18.41 34-18.37. Salary compensation report. On or before October 1 of each year, the school district shall post on its Internet website an itemized salary compensation report for every employee in the district holding an administrative certificate and working in that capacity, including the general superintendent of schools. The salary compensation report shall include without limitation base salary, bonuses, pension contributions, retirement increases, the cost of health insurance, the cost of life insurance, paid sick and vacation day payouts, annuities, and any other form of compensation or income paid on behalf of the employee.

This report shall be presented at a regular board meeting, subject to applicable notice requirements. In addition, the board shall make copies of the completed report available to any individual requesting them.

Per Section 10-20.40 of this Code, as added by Public Act 95-707, the school district must post the contract that the board enters into with an exclusive bargaining representative. The board must provide the terms of that contract online.

(Source: P.A. 96-434, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.42)

Sec. 34-18.42 34-18.37. Press boxes; accessibility. The board does not have to comply with the Illinois Accessibility Code (71 Ill. Adm. Code 400) with respect to accessibility to press boxes that are on school property if the press boxes were constructed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-674, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 265. The Illinois School Student Records Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(105 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-6)

Sec. 6. (a) No school student records or information contained therein may be released, transferred, disclosed or otherwise disseminated, except as follows:

(1) To a parent or student or person specifically designated as a representative by a parent, as provided in paragraph (a) of Section 5;

(2) To an employee or official of the school or school district or State Board with current demonstrable educational or administrative interest in the student, in furtherance of such interest;

(3) To the official records custodian of another school within Illinois or an official with similar responsibilities of a school outside Illinois, in which the student has enrolled, or intends to enroll, upon the request of such official or student;

(4) To any person for the purpose of research, statistical reporting, or planning, provided that such research, statistical reporting, or planning is permissible under and undertaken in accordance with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g);

(5) Pursuant to a court order, provided that the parent shall be given prompt written notice upon receipt of such order of the terms of the order, the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released in compliance with such order and an opportunity to inspect and copy the school student records and to challenge their contents pursuant to Section 7;

(6) To any person as specifically required by State or federal law;

(6.5) To juvenile authorities when necessary for the discharge of their official duties who request information prior to adjudication of the student and who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court. For purposes of this Section "juvenile authorities" means: (i) a judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge; (ii) parties to the proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and their attorneys; (iii) probation officers and court appointed advocates for the juvenile authorized by the judge hearing the case; (iv) any individual, public or private agency having custody of the child pursuant to court order; (v) any individual, public or private agency providing education, medical or mental health service to the child when the requested information is needed to determine the appropriate service or treatment for the minor; (vi) any potential placement provider when such release is authorized by the court for the limited purpose of determining the appropriateness of the potential placement; (vii) law enforcement officers and prosecutors; (viii) adult and juvenile prisoner review boards; (ix) authorized military personnel; (x) individuals authorized by court;

(7) Subject to regulations of the State Board, in connection with an emergency, to appropriate persons if the knowledge of such information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other persons;

(8) To any person, with the prior specific dated written consent of the parent designating the person to whom the records may be released, provided that at the time any such consent is requested or obtained, the parent shall be advised in writing that he has the right to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5, to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7 and to limit any such consent to designated records or designated portions of the information contained therein;

(9) To a governmental agency, or social service agency contracted by a governmental agency, in furtherance of an investigation of a student's school attendance pursuant to the compulsory student attendance laws of this State, provided that the records are released to the employee or agent designated by the agency;

(10) To those SHOCAP committee members who fall within the meaning of "state and local officials and authorities", as those terms are used within the meaning of the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, for the purposes of identifying serious habitual juvenile offenders and matching those offenders with community resources pursuant to Section 5-145 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act; or

(11) To the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in furtherance of the requirements of Section 2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of the School Code or Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act; or .

(12) To the State Board or another State government agency or between or among State government agencies in order to evaluate or audit federal and State programs or perform research and planning, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g).

(b) No information may be released pursuant to subparagraphs (3) or (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 unless the parent receives prior written notice of the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released, and an opportunity to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5 and to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7. Provided, however, that such notice shall be sufficient if published in a local newspaper of general circulation or other publication directed generally to the parents involved where the proposed release of information is pursuant to subparagraph 6 of paragraph (a) in this Section 6 and relates to more than 25 students.

(c) A record of any release of information pursuant to this Section must be made and kept as a part of the school student record and subject to the access granted by Section 5. Such record of release shall be maintained for the life of the school student records and shall be available only to the parent and the official records custodian. Each record of release shall also include:

(1) The nature and substance of the information released;

(2) The name and signature of the official records custodian releasing such information;

(3) The name of the person requesting such information, the capacity in which such a request has been made, and the purpose of such request;

(4) The date of the release; and

(5) A copy of any consent to such release.

(d) Except for the student and his parents, no person to whom information is released pursuant to this Section and no person specifically designated as a representative by a parent may permit any other person to have access to such information without a prior consent of the parent obtained in accordance with the requirements of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of this Section.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the publication of student directories which list student names, addresses and other identifying information and similar publications which comply with regulations issued by the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-793, eff. 1-1-09; 96-107, eff. 7-30-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 270. The Interscholastic Athletic Organization Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1.5 as follows:

(105 ILCS 25/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Cancer screening. An association or other entity that has as one of its purposes promoting, sponsoring, regulating, or in any manner providing for interscholastic athletics or any form of athletic competition among schools and students within this State shall include a question asking whether a student has a family history of cancer on any pre-participation examination form given to students participating or seeking to participate in interscholastic athletics. The association or entity may require that a testicular examination be conducted as a part of any physical required for a male student's participation in interscholastic athletics.

(Source: P.A. 96-128, eff. 1-1-10.)

(105 ILCS 25/2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2011)

Sec. 2 1.5. Prevention of use of performance-enhancing substances in interscholastic athletics; random testing of interscholastic athletes.

(a) In this Section, "association" means the Illinois High School Association.

(b) The association shall prohibit a student from participating in an athletic competition sponsored or sanctioned by the association unless the following conditions are met:

(1) the student agrees not to use any performance-enhancing substances on the association's most current banned drug classes list, and, if the student is enrolled in high school, the student submits to random testing for the presence of these substances in the student's body, in accordance with the program established under subsection (d) of this Section; and

(2) the association obtains from the student's parent a statement signed by the parent and acknowledging the following:

(A) that the parent's child, if enrolled in high school, may be subject to random performance-enhancing substance testing;

(B) that State law prohibits possessing, dispensing, delivering, or administering a performance-enhancing substance in a manner not allowed by State law;

(C) that State law provides that bodybuilding, muscle enhancement, or the increase of muscle bulk or strength through the use of a performance-enhancing substance by a person who is in good health is not a valid medical purpose;

(D) that only a licensed practitioner with prescriptive authority may prescribe a performance-enhancing substance for a person; and

(E) that a violation of State law concerning performance-enhancing substances is a criminal offense punishable by confinement in jail or imprisonment.

(c) The association shall require that each athletic coach for an extracurricular athletic activity sponsored or sanctioned by the association at or above the 9th grade level complete an educational program on the prevention of abuse of performance-enhancing substances developed by the association. The association shall also require the person to complete an exam developed by the association showing a minimum proficiency of understanding in methods to prevent the abuse of performance-enhancing substances by students.

(d) The Department of Public Health shall provide oversight of the annual administration of a performance-enhancing substance testing program by the association under which high school students participating in an athletic competition sponsored or sanctioned by the association are tested at multiple times throughout the athletic season for the presence of performance-enhancing substances on the association's most current banned drug classes list in the students' bodies. The association may alter its current performance-enhancing substance testing program to comply with this subsection (d). The testing program must do the following:

(1) require the random testing of at least 1,000 high school students in this State who participate in athletic competitions sponsored or sanctioned by the association;

(2) provide for the selection of specific students described in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d) for testing through a process that randomly selects students from a single pool consisting of all students who participate in any activity for which the association sponsors or sanctions athletic competitions;

(3) be administered at approximately 25% of the high schools in this State that participate in athletic competitions sponsored or sanctioned by the association;

(4) provide for a process for confirming any initial positive test result through a subsequent test conducted as soon as practicable after the initial test, using a sample that was obtained at the same time as the sample used for the initial test;

(5) require the testing to be performed only by a performance-enhancing substance testing laboratory with current certification from the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the World Anti-Doping Agency, or another appropriate national or international-certifying organization; the testing laboratory must be chosen following State procurement procedures;

(6) require that a trained observer, of the appropriate sex, witness the student provide the test sample;

(7) require that the student be chaperoned by a school-designated official from the time he or she is notified of the test until he or she has completed delivering the test sample;

(8) provide for a period of ineligibility from participation in an athletic competition sponsored or sanctioned by the association for any student with a confirmed positive test result or any student who refuses to submit to random testing;

(9) provide for a school or team penalty on a case-by-case basis, to be determined by the contribution of a student with a confirmed positive test result to the team or the school's lack of enforcement of the rules of the testing program or both;

(10) provide for a penalty for any coach who knowingly violates the rules of the testing program; and

(11) require that coaches be responsible for providing a copy of the association's most current banned drug classes list to every high school student participating in an athletic competition sponsored or sanctioned by the association.

The Department of Public Health may adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(e) Results of a performance-enhancing substance test conducted under subsection (d) of this Section are confidential and, unless required by court order, may be disclosed only to the student and the student's parent and the activity directors, principal, and assistant principals of the school attended by the student.

(f) The Performance-enhancing Substance Testing Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation, by the Department of Public Health to distribute as grants to pay the costs of the performance-enhancing substance testing program established under subsection (d) of this Section. The General Assembly may appropriate additional funding for the testing program, to be distributed as grants through the Department of Public Health.

(g) Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of this Section does not apply to the use by a student of a performance-enhancing substance that is dispensed, prescribed, delivered, or administered by a medical practitioner for a valid medical purpose and in the course of professional practice, and the student is not subject to a period of ineligibility under subdivision (8) of subsection (d) of this Section on the basis of that use as long as the student's coach has provided the student with a copy of the association's most current banned drug classes list, the student has consulted with his or her medical practitioner to confirm the valid use of the substance, and the student has notified his or her coach or a school administrator of a prescription for the use of the substance for valid medical purposes. Students that are prescribed such a substance, after receiving a copy of the association's most current banned drug classes list, are required to provide notice of that prescription at the time the prescription is issued. Any information concerning a student's use of a performance-enhancing substance obtained by a coach or school administrator under this subsection (g) is confidential and may be disclosed only to those persons necessary to the determination of eligibility under this subsection (g).

(h) Neither the association nor any of its directors or employees shall be liable and no cause of action may be brought against the association or any of its directors or employees for damages in connection with the performance of the association's responsibilities under this Section, unless an act or omission involved willful or wanton conduct.

(i) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2011.

(Source: P.A. 96-132, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-16-09.)

Section 275. The Asbestos Abatement Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(105 ILCS 105/6) (from Ch. 122, par. 1406)

Sec. 6. Powers and duties of the Department.

(a) The Department is empowered to promulgate any rules necessary to ensure proper implementation and administration of this Act and of the federal Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986, and the regulations promulgated thereunder.

(b) Rules promulgated by the Department shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) all rules necessary to achieve compliance with the federal Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986 and the regulations promulgated thereunder;

(2) rules providing for the training and licensing of persons and firms to perform asbestos inspection and air sampling; to perform abatement work; and to serve as asbestos abatement contractors, management, planners, project designers, project supervisors, project managers and asbestos workers for public and private secondary and elementary schools; and any necessary rules relating to the correct and safe performance of those tasks; and

(3) rules for the development and submission of asbestos management plans by local educational agencies, and for review and approval of such plans by the Department.

(c) In carrying out its responsibilities under this Act, the Department shall:

(1) publish a list of persons and firms licensed pursuant to this Act, except that the Department shall not be required to publish a list of licensed asbestos workers; and

(2) require each local educational agency to maintain records of asbestos-related activities, which shall be made available to the Department upon request; and .

(3) adopt (d) Adopt rules for the collection of fees for training course approval; and for licensing of inspectors, management planners, project designers, contractors, supervisors, air sampling professionals, project managers and workers.

(Source: P.A. 96-537, eff. 8-14-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 280. The Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 110/3)

Sec. 3. Comprehensive Health Education Program. The program established under this Act shall include, but not be limited to, the following major educational areas as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: human ecology and health, human growth and development, the emotional, psychological, physiological, hygienic and social responsibilities of family life, including sexual abstinence until marriage, prevention and control of disease, including instruction in grades 6 through 12 on the prevention, transmission and spread of AIDS, sexual assault awareness in secondary schools, public and environmental health, consumer health, safety education and disaster survival, mental health and illness, personal health habits, alcohol, drug use, and abuse including the medical and legal ramifications of alcohol, drug, and tobacco use, abuse during pregnancy, sexual abstinence until marriage, tobacco, nutrition, and dental health. The program shall also provide course material and instruction to advise pupils of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. The program shall include information about cancer, including without limitation types of cancer, signs and symptoms, risk factors, the importance of early prevention and detection, and information on where to go for help. Notwithstanding the above educational areas, the following areas may also be included as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: basic first aid (including, but not limited to, cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the Heimlich maneuver), heart disease, diabetes, stroke, the prevention of child abuse, neglect, and suicide, and teen dating violence in grades 8 through 12.

The school board of each public elementary and secondary school in the State shall encourage all teachers and other school personnel to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer life-saving techniques, including without limitation the Heimlich maneuver and rescue breathing. The training shall be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization. A school board may use the services of non-governmental entities whose personnel have expertise in life-saving techniques to instruct teachers and other school personnel in these techniques. Each school board is encouraged to have in its employ, or on its volunteer staff, at least one person who is certified, by the American Red Cross or by another qualified certifying agency, as qualified to administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In addition, each school board is authorized to allocate appropriate portions of its institute or inservice days to conduct training programs for teachers and other school personnel who have expressed an interest in becoming qualified to administer emergency first aid or cardiopulmonary resuscitation. School boards are urged to encourage their teachers and other school personnel who coach school athletic programs and other extracurricular school activities to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in accordance with standards and requirements established by the American Red Cross or another qualified certifying agency. Subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall establish and administer a matching grant program to pay for half of the cost that a school district incurs in training those teachers and other school personnel who express an interest in becoming qualified to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization) or in learning how to use an automated external defibrillator. A school district that applies for a grant must demonstrate that it has funds to pay half of the cost of the training for which matching grant money is sought. The State Board of Education shall award the grants on a first-come, first-serve basis.

No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any class or course on AIDS or family life instruction if his parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and refusal to take or participate in the course or program shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of the pupil.

Curricula developed under programs established in accordance with this Act in the major educational area of alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include classroom instruction in grades 5 through 12. The instruction, which shall include matters relating to both the physical and legal effects and ramifications of drug and substance abuse, shall be integrated into existing curricula; and the State Board of Education shall develop and make available to all elementary and secondary schools in this State instructional materials and guidelines which will assist the schools in incorporating the instruction into their existing curricula. In addition, school districts may offer, as part of existing curricula during the school day or as part of an after school program, support services and instruction for pupils or pupils whose parent, parents, or guardians are chemically dependent.

(Source: P.A. 95-43, eff. 1-1-08; 95-764, eff. 1-1-09; 96-128, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-383, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 285. The School Construction Law is amended by changing Sections 5-25 and 5-30 as follows:

(105 ILCS 230/5-25)

Sec. 5-25. Eligibility and project standards.

(a) The State Board of Education shall establish eligibility standards for school construction project grants and debt service grants. These standards shall include minimum enrollment requirements for eligibility for school construction project grants of 200 students for elementary districts, 200 students for high school districts, and 400 students for unit districts. The State Board of Education shall approve a district's eligibility for a school construction project grant or a debt service grant pursuant to the established standards.

For purposes only of determining a Type 40 area vocational center's eligibility for an entity included in a school construction project grant or a school maintenance project grant, an area vocational center shall be deemed eligible if one or more of its member school districts satisfy the grant index criteria set forth in this Law. A Type 40 area vocational center that makes application for school construction funds after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-731) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be placed on the respective application cycle list. Type 40 area vocational centers must be placed last on the priority listing of eligible entities for the applicable fiscal year.

(b) The Capital Development Board shall establish project standards for all school construction project grants provided pursuant to this Article. These standards shall include space and capacity standards as well as the determination of recognized project costs that shall be eligible for State financial assistance and enrichment costs that shall not be eligible for State financial assistance.

(c) The State Board of Education and the Capital Development Board shall not establish standards that disapprove or otherwise establish limitations that restrict the eligibility of (i) a school district with a population exceeding 500,000 for a school construction project grant based on the fact that any or all of the school construction project grant will be used to pay debt service or to make lease payments, as authorized by subsection (b) of Section 5-35 of this Law, or (ii) a school district located in whole or in part in a county that imposes a tax for school facility purposes pursuant to Section 5-1006.7 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-731, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(105 ILCS 230/5-30)

Sec. 5-30. Priority of school construction projects. The State Board of Education shall develop standards for the determination of priority needs concerning school construction projects based upon approved district facilities plans. Such standards shall call for prioritization based on the degree of need and project type in the following order:

(1) Replacement or reconstruction of school buildings destroyed or damaged by flood, tornado, fire, earthquake, mine subsidence, or other disasters, either man-made or produced by nature;

(2) Projects designed to alleviate a shortage of classrooms due to population growth or to replace aging school buildings;

(3) Projects resulting from interdistrict reorganization of school districts contingent on local referenda;

(4) Replacement or reconstruction of school facilities determined to be severe and continuing health or life safety hazards;

(5) Alterations necessary to provide accessibility for qualified individuals with disabilities; and

(6) Other unique solutions to facility needs.

Except for those changes absolutely necessary to comply with the changes made to subsection (c) of Section 5-25 of this Law by Public Act 96-37 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the State Board of Education may not make any material changes to the standards in effect on May 18, 2004, unless the State Board of Education is specifically authorized by law.

(Source: P.A. 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-102, eff. 7-29-09; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 290. The Grow Your Own Teacher Education Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 48/5)

Sec. 5. Purpose. The Grow Your Own Teacher preparation programs established under this Act shall comprise a major new statewide initiative, known as the Grow Your Own Teacher Education Initiative, to prepare highly skilled, committed teachers who will teach in hard-to-staff schools, including within the Department of Juvenile Justice School District, and hard-to-staff teaching positions and who will remain in these schools for substantial periods of time.

The Grow Your Own Teacher Education Initiative shall effectively recruit and prepare parent and community leaders and paraeducators to become effective teachers statewide in hard-to-staff schools serving a substantial percentage of low-income students and hard-to-staff teaching positions in schools serving a substantial percentage of low-income students. Further, the Initiative shall increase the diversity of teachers, including diversity based on race and ethnicity.

The Grow Your Own Teacher Education Initiative shall ensure educational rigor by effectively preparing candidates in accredited bachelor's degree programs in teaching, through which graduates shall meet the requirements to secure an Illinois initial teaching certificate.

The goal of the Grow Your Own Teacher Education Initiative is to add 1,000 teachers to low-income, hard-to-staff Illinois schools by 2016.

(Source: P.A. 95-476, eff. 1-1-08; 96-144, eff. 8-7-09; 96-414, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 295. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 8 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 45 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/8) (from Ch. 144, par. 29)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 8. Admissions.

(a) (Blank).

(b) In addition, commencing in the fall of 1993, no new student shall then or thereafter be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that institutions may admit individual applicants if the institution determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Institutions may also admit 1) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and 2) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of the 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(c) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (b).

(d) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-203, eff. 8-10-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 8. Admissions.

(a) (Blank).

(b) In addition, commencing in the fall of 1993, no new student shall then or thereafter be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that institutions may admit individual applicants if the institution determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Institutions may also admit 1) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and 2) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of the 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(c) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (b).

(d) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-203, eff. 8-10-09; 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-9-10.)

(110 ILCS 305/45)

Sec. 45. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board of Trustees shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 305/50)

Sec. 50 45. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board of Trustees shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 305/55)

Sec. 55 45. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 305/60)

Sec. 60 45. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 305/65)

Sec. 65 45. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 305/70)

Sec. 70 45. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 300. The University of Illinois Hospital Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 8 as follows:

(110 ILCS 330/8)

Sec. 8. Immunization against influenza virus and pneumococcal disease. The University of Illinois Hospital shall adopt an influenza and pneumococcal immunization policy that includes, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) Procedures for identifying patients age 65 or older and, at the discretion of the facility, other patients at risk.

(2) Procedures for offering immunization against influenza virus when available between September 1 and April 1, and against pneumococcal disease upon admission or discharge, to patients age 65 or older, unless contraindicated.

(3) Procedures for ensuring that patients offered immunization, or their guardians, receive information regarding the risks and benefits of vaccination.

The hospital shall provide a copy of its influenza and pneumococcal immunization policy to the Illinois Department of Public Health upon request.

(Source: P.A. 96-343, eff. 8-11-09.)

(110 ILCS 330/9)

Sec. 9 8. Safe patient handling policy. The University of Illinois Hospital shall cause each of the facilities under its jurisdiction that provide in-patient care to comply with Section 6.25 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-22-09.)

Section 305. The Southern Illinois University Management Act is amended by changing Section 8e and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 30 as follows:

(110 ILCS 520/8e) (from Ch. 144, par. 658e)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 8e. Admissions.

(a) Commencing in the fall of 1993, no new student shall then or thereafter be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that institutions may admit individual applicants if the institution determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Institutions may also admit 1) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and 2) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 8e. Admissions.

(a) Commencing in the fall of 1993, no new student shall then or thereafter be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that institutions may admit individual applicants if the institution determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Institutions may also admit 1) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and 2) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 520/30)

Sec. 30. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 520/35)

Sec. 35 30. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 520/40)

Sec. 40 30. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 520/45)

Sec. 45 30. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 520/50)

Sec. 50 30. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(110 ILCS 520/55)

Sec. 55 30. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 310. The Chicago State University Law is amended by changing Section 5-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-140 as follows:

(110 ILCS 660/5-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 5-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Chicago State University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Chicago State University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Chicago State University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Chicago State University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 5-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Chicago State University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Chicago State University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Chicago State University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Chicago State University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-140)

Sec. 5-140. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-145)

Sec. 5-145 5-140. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-150)

Sec. 5-150 5-140. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-155)

Sec. 5-155 5-140. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-22-09.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-160)

Sec. 5-160 5-140. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-22-09.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-165)

Sec. 5-165 5-140. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-22-09.)

Section 315. The Eastern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 10-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 10-140 as follows:

(110 ILCS 665/10-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 10-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Eastern Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Eastern Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Eastern Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 10-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Eastern Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Eastern Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Eastern Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-140)

Sec. 10-140. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-145)

Sec. 10-145 10-140. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-150)

Sec. 10-150 10-140. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-155)

Sec. 10-155 10-140. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-160)

Sec. 10-160 10-140. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-165)

Sec. 10-165 10-140. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 320. The Governors State University Law is amended by changing Section 15-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 15-140 as follows:

(110 ILCS 670/15-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 15-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Governors State University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Governors State University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Governors State University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Governors State University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 15-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Governors State University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Governors State University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Governors State University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Governors State University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-140)

Sec. 15-140. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-145)

Sec. 15-145 15-140. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-150)

Sec. 15-150 15-140. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-155)

Sec. 15-155 15-140. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-160)

Sec. 15-160 15-140. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-165)

Sec. 15-165 15-140. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 325. The Illinois State University Law is amended by changing Section 20-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 20-145 as follows:

(110 ILCS 675/20-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 20-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Illinois State University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Illinois State University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Illinois State University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Illinois State University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 20-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Illinois State University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Illinois State University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Illinois State University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Illinois State University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-145)

Sec. 20-145. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-150)

Sec. 20-150 20-145. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-155)

Sec. 20-155 20-145. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-160)

Sec. 20-160 20-145. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-165)

Sec. 20-165 20-145. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-170)

Sec. 20-170 20-145. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 330. The Northeastern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 25-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-140 as follows:

(110 ILCS 680/25-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 25-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Northeastern Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Northeastern Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Northeastern Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 25-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Northeastern Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Northeastern Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Northeastern Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-140)

Sec. 25-140. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-145)

Sec. 25-145 25-140. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-150)

Sec. 25-150 25-140. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-155)

Sec. 25-155 25-140. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-160)

Sec. 25-160 25-140. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-165)

Sec. 25-165 25-140. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 335. The Northern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 30-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 30-150 as follows:

(110 ILCS 685/30-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 30-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Northern Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Northern Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Northern Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 30-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Northern Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Northern Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Northern Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-150)

Sec. 30-150. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-155)

Sec. 30-155 30-150. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-160)

Sec. 30-160 30-150. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-165)

Sec. 30-165 30-150. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-170)

Sec. 30-170 30-150. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-175)

Sec. 30-175 30-150. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 340. The Western Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 35-85 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 35-145 as follows:

(110 ILCS 690/35-85)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 35-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Western Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language, music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Western Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Western Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 91-374, eff. 7-30-99.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-843)

Sec. 35-85. Admission requirements.

(a) No new student shall be admitted to instruction in any of the departments or colleges of the Western Illinois University unless such student also has satisfactorily completed:

(1) at least 15 units of high school coursework from the following 5 categories:

(A) 4 years of English (emphasizing written and oral communications and literature), of which up to 2 years may be collegiate level instruction;

(B) 3 years of social studies (emphasizing history and government);

(C) 3 years of mathematics (introductory through advanced algebra, geometry, trigonometry, or fundamentals of computer programming);

(D) 3 years of science (laboratory sciences); and

(E) 2 years of electives in foreign language ( ,which may be deemed to include American Sign Language), music, vocational education or art;

(2) except that Western Illinois University may admit individual applicants if it determines through assessment or through evaluation based on learning outcomes of the coursework taken, including vocational education courses and courses taken in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code, that the applicant demonstrates knowledge and skills substantially equivalent to the knowledge and skills expected to be acquired in the high school courses required for admission. The Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University shall not discriminate in the University's admissions process against an applicant for admission because of the applicant's enrollment in a charter school established under Article 27A of the School Code. Western Illinois University may also admit (i) applicants who did not have an opportunity to complete the minimum college preparatory curriculum in high school, and (ii) educationally disadvantaged applicants who are admitted to the formal organized special assistance programs that are tailored to the needs of such students, providing that in either case, the institution incorporates in the applicant's baccalaureate curriculum courses or other academic activities that compensate for course deficiencies; and

(3) except that up to 3 of 15 units of coursework required by paragraph (1) of this subsection may be distributed by deducting no more than one unit each from the categories of social studies, mathematics, sciences and electives and completing those 3 units in any of the 5 categories of coursework described in paragraph (1).

(b) When allocating funds, local boards of education shall recognize their obligation to their students to offer the coursework required by subsection (a).

(c) A student who has graduated from high school and has scored within the University's accepted range on the ACT or SAT shall not be required to take the high school level General Educational Development (GED) Test as a prerequisite to admission.

(Source: P.A. 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; revised 1-7-10.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-145)

Sec. 35-145. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The Board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the university available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-150)

Sec. 35-150 35-145. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If the University holds any type of event at the University on November 11, Veterans' Day, the Board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-155)

Sec. 35-155 35-145. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of the University are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the University, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the University.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-160)

Sec. 35-160 35-145. Faculty and staff political displays. The University may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on University property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-165)

Sec. 35-165 35-145. Disability history and awareness. The University may conduct and promote activities that provide education on, awareness of, and an understanding of disability history, people with disabilities, and the disability rights movement.

(Source: P.A. 96-191, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-170)

Sec. 35-170 35-145. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president of the university and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the university. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 345. The Public Community College Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 3-29.4 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.4)

Sec. 3-29.4. Buildings available for emergency purposes. The board shall make mutually agreed buildings of the college available for emergency purposes, upon the request of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the State-accredited emergency management agency with jurisdiction, or the American Red Cross, and cooperate in all matters with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, local emergency management agencies, State-certified, local public health departments, the American Red Cross, and federal agencies concerned with emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 96-57, eff. 7-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.5)

Sec. 3-29.5 3-29.4. Veterans' Day; moment of silence. If a community college holds any type of event at the community college on November 11, Veterans' Day, the board shall require a moment of silence at that event to recognize Veterans' Day.

(Source: P.A. 96-84, eff. 7-27-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.6)

Sec. 3-29.6 3-29.4. Faculty and staff contact with public officials. All faculty and staff members of a community college are free to communicate their views on any matter of private or public concern to any member of the legislative, executive, or judicial branch of government, State or federal, without notice to or prior approval of the community college, so long as they do not represent that they are speaking for or on behalf of the community college.

(Source: P.A. 96-147, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.7)

Sec. 3-29.7 3-29.4. Faculty and staff political displays. A community college may not prohibit any faculty or staff member from (i) displaying political buttons, stickers, or patches while on community college property, provided that such display by any member of the faculty in an instructional setting is for a purpose relevant to the subject of instruction; (ii) attending a partisan political rally, provided that the employee is not on duty; or (iii) displaying a partisan bumper sticker on his or her motor vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 96-148, eff. 8-7-09; revised 10-23-09.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.8)

Sec. 3-29.8 3-29.4. Administrator and faculty salary and benefits; report. Each board of trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education, on or before July 1 of each year, the base salary and benefits of the president or chief executive officer of the community college and all administrators, faculty members, and instructors employed by the community college district. For the purposes of this Section, "benefits" includes without limitation vacation days, sick days, bonuses, annuities, and retirement enhancements.

(Source: P.A. 96-266, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 350. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 17, par. 302)

Sec. 2. General definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases shall have the following meanings:

"Accommodation party" shall have the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 3-419 of the Uniform Commercial Code.

"Action" in the sense of a judicial proceeding includes recoupments, counterclaims, set-off, and any other proceeding in which rights are determined.

"Affiliate facility" of a bank means a main banking premises or branch of another commonly owned bank. The main banking premises or any branch of a bank may be an "affiliate facility" with respect to one or more other commonly owned banks.

"Appropriate federal banking agency" means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago, or the Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis, as determined by federal law.

"Bank" means any person doing a banking business whether subject to the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

A "banking house", "branch", "branch bank" or "branch office" shall mean any place of business of a bank at which deposits are received, checks paid, or loans made, but shall not include any place at which only records thereof are made, posted, or kept. A place of business at which deposits are received, checks paid, or loans made shall not be deemed to be a branch, branch bank, or branch office if the place of business is adjacent to and connected with the main banking premises, or if it is separated from the main banking premises by not more than an alley; provided always that (i) if the place of business is separated by an alley from the main banking premises there is a connection between the two by public or private way or by subterranean or overhead passage, and (ii) if the place of business is in a building not wholly occupied by the bank, the place of business shall not be within any office or room in which any other business or service of any kind or nature other than the business of the bank is conducted or carried on. A place of business at which deposits are received, checks paid, or loans made shall not be deemed to be a branch, branch bank, or branch office (i) of any bank if the place is a terminal established and maintained in accordance with paragraph (17) of Section 5 of this Act, or (ii) of a commonly owned bank by virtue of transactions conducted at that place on behalf of the other commonly owned bank under paragraph (23) of Section 5 of this Act if the place is an affiliate facility with respect to the other bank.

"Branch of an out-of-state bank" means a branch established or maintained in Illinois by an out-of-state bank as a result of a merger between an Illinois bank and the out-of-state bank that occurs on or after May 31, 1997, or any branch established by the out-of-state bank following the merger.

"Bylaws" means the bylaws of a bank that are adopted by the bank's board of directors or shareholders for the regulation and management of the bank's affairs. If the bank operates as a limited liability company, however, "bylaws" means the operating agreement of the bank.

"Call report fee" means the fee to be paid to the Commissioner by each State bank pursuant to paragraph (a) of subsection (3) of Section 48 of this Act.

"Capital" includes the aggregate of outstanding capital stock and preferred stock.

"Cash flow reserve account" means the account within the books and records of the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate used to record funds designated to maintain a reasonable Bank and Trust Company Fund operating balance to meet agency obligations on a timely basis.

"Charter" includes the original charter and all amendments thereto and articles of merger or consolidation.

"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, except that beginning on April 6, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1047) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all references in this Act to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Commonly owned banks" means 2 or more banks that each qualify as a bank subsidiary of the same bank holding company pursuant to Section 18 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act; "commonly owned bank" refers to one of a group of commonly owned banks but only with respect to one or more of the other banks in the same group.

"Community" means a city, village, or incorporated town and also includes the area served by the banking offices of a bank, but need not be limited or expanded to conform to the geographic boundaries of units of local government.

"Company" means a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, business trust, association, or similar organization and, unless specifically excluded, includes a "State bank" and a "bank".

"Consolidating bank" means a party to a consolidation.

"Consolidation" takes place when 2 or more banks, or a trust company and a bank, are extinguished and by the same process a new bank is created, taking over the assets and assuming the liabilities of the banks or trust company passing out of existence.

"Continuing bank" means a merging bank, the charter of which becomes the charter of the resulting bank.

"Converting bank" means a State bank converting to become a national bank, or a national bank converting to become a State bank.

"Converting trust company" means a trust company converting to become a State bank.

"Court" means a court of competent jurisdiction.

"Director" means a member of the board of directors of a bank. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, however, "director" means a manager of the bank and, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, "director" means a member of the bank. The term "director" does not include an advisory director, honorary director, director emeritus, or similar person, unless the person is otherwise performing functions similar to those of a member of the board of directors.

"Eligible depository institution" means an insured savings association that is in default, an insured savings association that is in danger of default, a State or national bank that is in default or a State or national bank that is in danger of default, as those terms are defined in this Section, or a new bank as that term defined in Section 11(m) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or a bridge bank as that term is defined in Section 11(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or a new federal savings association authorized under Section 11(d)(2)(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.

"Fiduciary" means trustee, agent, executor, administrator, committee, guardian for a minor or for a person under legal disability, receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, assignee for creditors, or any holder of similar position of trust.

"Financial institution" means a bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or any licensee under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or the Sales Finance Agency Act and, for purposes of Section 48.3, any proprietary network, funds transfer corporation, or other entity providing electronic funds transfer services, or any corporate fiduciary, its subsidiaries, affiliates, parent company, or contractual service provider that is examined by the Commissioner. For purposes of Section 5c and subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act, "financial institution" includes any proprietary network, funds transfer corporation, or other entity providing electronic funds transfer services, and any corporate fiduciary.

"Foundation" means the Illinois Bank Examiners' Education Foundation.

"General obligation" means a bond, note, debenture, security, or other instrument evidencing an obligation of the government entity that is the issuer that is supported by the full available resources of the issuer, the principal and interest of which is payable in whole or in part by taxation.

"Guarantee" means an undertaking or promise to answer for payment of another's debt or performance of another's duty, liability, or obligation whether "payment guaranteed" or "collection guaranteed".

"In danger of default" means a State or national bank, a federally chartered insured savings association or an Illinois state chartered insured savings association with respect to which the Commissioner or the appropriate federal banking agency has advised the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation that:

(1) in the opinion of the Commissioner or the appropriate federal banking agency,

(A) the State or national bank or insured savings association is not likely to be able to meet the demands of the State or national bank's or savings association's obligations in the normal course of business; and

(B) there is no reasonable prospect that the State or national bank or insured savings association will be able to meet those demands or pay those obligations without federal assistance; or

(2) in the opinion of the Commissioner or the appropriate federal banking agency,

(A) the State or national bank or insured savings association has incurred or is likely to incur losses that will deplete all or substantially all of its capital; and

(B) there is no reasonable prospect that the capital of the State or national bank or insured savings association will be replenished without federal assistance.

"In default" means, with respect to a State or national bank or an insured savings association, any adjudication or other official determination by any court of competent jurisdiction, the Commissioner, the appropriate federal banking agency, or other public authority pursuant to which a conservator, receiver, or other legal custodian is appointed for a State or national bank or an insured savings association.

"Insured savings association" means any federal savings association chartered under Section 5 of the federal Home Owners' Loan Act and any State savings association chartered under the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 or a predecessor Illinois statute, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. The term also includes a savings bank organized or operating under the Savings Bank Act.

"Insured savings association in recovery" means an insured savings association that is not an eligible depository institution and that does not meet the minimum capital requirements applicable with respect to the insured savings association.

"Issuer" means for purposes of Section 33 every person who shall have issued or proposed to issue any security; except that (1) with respect to certificates of deposit, voting trust certificates, collateral-trust certificates, and certificates of interest or shares in an unincorporated investment trust not having a board of directors (or persons performing similar functions), "issuer" means the person or persons performing the acts and assuming the duties of depositor or manager pursuant to the provisions of the trust, agreement, or instrument under which the securities are issued; (2) with respect to trusts other than those specified in clause (1) above, where the trustee is a corporation authorized to accept and execute trusts, "issuer" means the entrusters, depositors, or creators of the trust and any manager or committee charged with the general direction of the affairs of the trust pursuant to the provisions of the agreement or instrument creating the trust; and (3) with respect to equipment trust certificates or like securities, "issuer" means the person to whom the equipment or property is or is to be leased or conditionally sold.

"Letter of credit" and "customer" shall have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 5-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code.

"Main banking premises" means the location that is designated in a bank's charter as its main office.

"Maker or obligor" means for purposes of Section 33 the issuer of a security, the promisor in a debenture or other debt security, or the mortgagor or grantor of a trust deed or similar conveyance of a security interest in real or personal property.

"Merged bank" means a merging bank that is not the continuing, resulting, or surviving bank in a consolidation or merger.

"Merger" includes consolidation.

"Merging bank" means a party to a bank merger.

"Merging trust company" means a trust company party to a merger with a State bank.

"Mid-tier bank holding company" means a corporation that (a) owns 100% of the issued and outstanding shares of each class of stock of a State bank, (b) has no other subsidiaries, and (c) 100% of the issued and outstanding shares of the corporation are owned by a parent bank holding company.

"Municipality" means any municipality, political subdivision, school district, taxing district, or agency.

"National bank" means a national banking association located in this State and after May 31, 1997, means a national banking association without regard to its location.

"Out-of-state bank" means a bank chartered under the laws of a state other than Illinois, a territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia.

"Parent bank holding company" means a corporation that is a bank holding company as that term is defined in the Illinois Bank Holding Company Act of 1957 and owns 100% of the issued and outstanding shares of a mid-tier bank holding company.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, limited liability company, partnership, joint venture, trust, estate, or unincorporated association.

"Public agency" means the State of Illinois, the various counties, townships, cities, towns, villages, school districts, educational service regions, special road districts, public water supply districts, fire protection districts, drainage districts, levee districts, sewer districts, housing authorities, the Illinois Bank Examiners' Education Foundation, the Chicago Park District, and all other political corporations or subdivisions of the State of Illinois, whether now or hereafter created, whether herein specifically mentioned or not, and shall also include any other state or any political corporation or subdivision of another state.

"Public funds" or "public money" means current operating funds, special funds, interest and sinking funds, and funds of any kind or character belonging to, in the custody of, or subject to the control or regulation of the United States or a public agency. "Public funds" or "public money" shall include funds held by any of the officers, agents, or employees of the United States or of a public agency in the course of their official duties and, with respect to public money of the United States, shall include Postal Savings funds.

"Published" means, unless the context requires otherwise, the publishing of the notice or instrument referred to in some newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the bank is located at least once each week for 3 successive weeks. Publishing shall be accomplished by, and at the expense of, the bank required to publish. Where publishing is required, the bank shall submit to the Commissioner that evidence of the publication as the Commissioner shall deem appropriate.

"Qualified financial contract" means any security contract, commodity contract, forward contract, including spot and forward foreign exchange contracts, repurchase agreement, swap agreement, and any similar agreement, any option to enter into any such agreement, including any combination of the foregoing, and any master agreement for such agreements. A master agreement, together with all supplements thereto, shall be treated as one qualified financial contract. The contract, option, agreement, or combination of contracts, options, or agreements shall be reflected upon the books, accounts, or records of the bank, or a party to the contract shall provide documentary evidence of such agreement.

"Recorded" means the filing or recording of the notice or instrument referred to in the office of the Recorder of the county wherein the bank is located.

"Resulting bank" means the bank resulting from a merger or conversion.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person authorized by the Secretary or by this Act to act in the Secretary's stead.

"Securities" means stocks, bonds, debentures, notes, or other similar obligations.

"Stand-by letter of credit" means a letter of credit under which drafts are payable upon the condition the customer has defaulted in performance of a duty, liability, or obligation.

"State bank" means any banking corporation that has a banking charter issued by the Commissioner under this Act.

"State Banking Board" means the State Banking Board of Illinois.

"Subsidiary" with respect to a specified company means a company that is controlled by the specified company. For purposes of paragraphs (8) and (12) of Section 5 of this Act, "control" means the exercise of operational or managerial control of a corporation by the bank, either alone or together with other affiliates of the bank.

"Surplus" means the aggregate of (i) amounts paid in excess of the par value of capital stock and preferred stock; (ii) amounts contributed other than for capital stock and preferred stock and allocated to the surplus account; and (iii) amounts transferred from undivided profits.

"Tier 1 Capital" and "Tier 2 Capital" have the meanings assigned to those terms in regulations promulgated for the appropriate federal banking agency of a state bank, as those regulations are now or hereafter amended.

"Trust company" means a limited liability company or corporation incorporated in this State for the purpose of accepting and executing trusts.

"Undivided profits" means undistributed earnings less discretionary transfers to surplus.

"Unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus", for the purposes of paragraph (21) of Section 5 and Sections 32, 33, 34, 35.1, 35.2, and 47 of this Act means the sum of the state bank's Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital plus such other shareholder equity as may be included by regulation of the Commissioner. Unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall be calculated on the basis of the date of the last quarterly call report filed with the Commissioner preceding the date of the transaction for which the calculation is made, provided that: (i) when a material event occurs after the date of the last quarterly call report filed with the Commissioner that reduces or increases the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus by 10% or more, then the unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall be calculated from the date of the material event for a transaction conducted after the date of the material event; and (ii) if the Commissioner determines for safety and soundness reasons that a state bank should calculate unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus more frequently than provided by this paragraph, the Commissioner may by written notice direct the bank to calculate unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus at a more frequent interval. In the case of a state bank newly chartered under Section 13 or a state bank resulting from a merger, consolidation, or conversion under Sections 21 through 26 for which no preceding quarterly call report has been filed with the Commissioner, unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall be calculated for the first calendar quarter on the basis of the effective date of the charter, merger, consolidation, or conversion.

(Source: P.A. 95-924, eff. 8-26-08; 95-1047, eff. 4-6-09; revised 4-14-09.)

Section 355. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-4, 2-2, 2-6, and 4-1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/1-4)

Sec. 1-4. Definitions.

(a) "Residential real property" or "residential real estate" shall mean any real property located in Illinois, upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling.

(b) "Making a residential mortgage loan" or "funding a residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly, advancing funds or making a commitment to advance funds to a loan applicant for a residential mortgage loan.

(c) "Soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating a residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly, accepting or offering to accept an application for a residential mortgage loan, assisting or offering to assist in the processing of an application for a residential mortgage loan on behalf of a borrower, or negotiating or offering to negotiate the terms or conditions of a residential mortgage loan with a lender on behalf of a borrower including, but not limited to, the submission of credit packages for the approval of lenders, the preparation of residential mortgage loan closing documents, including a closing in the name of a broker.

(d) "Exempt person or entity" shall mean the following:

(1) (i) Any banking organization or foreign banking corporation licensed by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the United States Comptroller of the Currency to transact business in this State; (ii) any national bank, federally chartered savings and loan association, federal savings bank, federal credit union; (iii) any pension trust, bank trust, or bank trust company; (iv) any bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, or credit union organized under the laws of this or any other state; (v) any Illinois Consumer Installment Loan Act licensee; (vi) any insurance company authorized to transact business in this State; (vii) any entity engaged solely in commercial mortgage lending; (viii) any service corporation of a savings and loan association or savings bank organized under the laws of this State or the service corporation of a federally chartered savings and loan association or savings bank having its principal place of business in this State, other than a service corporation licensed or entitled to reciprocity under the Real Estate License Act of 2000; or (ix) any first tier subsidiary of a bank, the charter of which is issued under the Illinois Banking Act by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, or the first tier subsidiary of a bank chartered by the United States Comptroller of the Currency and that has its principal place of business in this State, provided that the first tier subsidiary is regularly examined by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the Comptroller of the Currency, or a consumer compliance examination is regularly conducted by the Federal Reserve Board.

(1.5) Any employee of a person or entity mentioned in item (1) of this subsection, when acting for such person or entity, or any registered mortgage loan originator when acting for an entity described in subsection (tt) of this Section.

(2) Any person or entity that does not originate mortgage loans in the ordinary course of business making or acquiring residential mortgage loans with his or her or its own funds for his or her or its own investment without intent to make, acquire, or resell more than 2 residential mortgage loans in any one calendar year.

(3) Any person employed by a licensee to assist in the performance of the activities regulated by this Act who is compensated in any manner by only one licensee.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Any individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity that originates, services, or brokers residential mortgage loans, as these activities are defined in this Act, and who or which receives no compensation for those activities, subject to the Commissioner's regulations with regard to the nature and amount of compensation.

(6) (Blank).

(e) "Licensee" or "residential mortgage licensee" shall mean a person, partnership, association, corporation, or any other entity who or which is licensed pursuant to this Act to engage in the activities regulated by this Act.

(f) "Mortgage loan" "residential mortgage loan" or "home mortgage loan" shall mean any loan primarily for personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling as defined in Section 103(v) of the federal Truth in Lending Act, or residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling.

(g) "Lender" shall mean any person, partnership, association, corporation, or any other entity who either lends or invests money in residential mortgage loans.

(h) "Ultimate equitable owner" shall mean a person who, directly or indirectly, owns or controls an ownership interest in a corporation, foreign corporation, alien business organization, trust, or any other form of business organization regardless of whether the person owns or controls the ownership interest through one or more persons or one or more proxies, powers of attorney, nominees, corporations, associations, partnerships, trusts, joint stock companies, or other entities or devices, or any combination thereof.

(i) "Residential mortgage financing transaction" shall mean the negotiation, acquisition, sale, or arrangement for or the offer to negotiate, acquire, sell, or arrange for, a residential mortgage loan or residential mortgage loan commitment.

(j) "Personal residence address" shall mean a street address and shall not include a post office box number.

(k) "Residential mortgage loan commitment" shall mean a contract for residential mortgage loan financing.

(l) "Party to a residential mortgage financing transaction" shall mean a borrower, lender, or loan broker in a residential mortgage financing transaction.

(m) "Payments" shall mean payment of all or any of the following: principal, interest and escrow reserves for taxes, insurance and other related reserves, and reimbursement for lender advances.

(n) "Commissioner" shall mean the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, except that, beginning on April 6, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1047) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all references in this Act to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(n-1) "Director" shall mean the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, except that, beginning on July 31, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-112) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, all references in this Act to the Director are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(o) "Loan brokering", "brokering", or "brokerage service" shall mean the act of helping to obtain from another entity, for a borrower, a loan secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois or assisting a borrower in obtaining a loan secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois in return for consideration to be paid by either the borrower or the lender including, but not limited to, contracting for the delivery of residential mortgage loans to a third party lender and soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating residential mortgage loans.

(p) "Loan broker" or "broker" shall mean a person, partnership, association, corporation, or limited liability company, other than those persons, partnerships, associations, corporations, or limited liability companies exempted from licensing pursuant to Section 1-4, subsection (d), of this Act, who performs the activities described in subsections (c) and (o) of this Section.

(q) "Servicing" shall mean the collection or remittance for or the right or obligation to collect or remit for any lender, noteowner, noteholder, or for a licensee's own account, of payments, interests, principal, and trust items such as hazard insurance and taxes on a residential mortgage loan in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan; and includes loan payment follow-up, delinquency loan follow-up, loan analysis and any notifications to the borrower that are necessary to enable the borrower to keep the loan current and in good standing.

(r) "Full service office" shall mean an office, provided by the licensee and not subleased from the licensee's employees, and staff in Illinois reasonably adequate to handle efficiently communications, questions, and other matters relating to any application for, or an existing home mortgage secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois with respect to which the licensee is brokering, funding originating, purchasing, or servicing. The management and operation of each full service office must include observance of good business practices such as adequate, organized, and accurate books and records; ample phone lines, hours of business, staff training and supervision, and provision for a mechanism to resolve consumer inquiries, complaints, and problems. The Commissioner shall issue regulations with regard to these requirements and shall include an evaluation of compliance with this Section in his or her periodic examination of each licensee.

(s) "Purchasing" shall mean the purchase of conventional or government-insured mortgage loans secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois from either the lender or from the secondary market.

(t) "Borrower" shall mean the person or persons who seek the services of a loan broker, originator, or lender.

(u) "Originating" shall mean the issuing of commitments for and funding of residential mortgage loans.

(v) "Loan brokerage agreement" shall mean a written agreement in which a broker or loan broker agrees to do either of the following:

(1) obtain a residential mortgage loan for the borrower or assist the borrower in obtaining a residential mortgage loan; or

(2) consider making a residential mortgage loan to the borrower.

(w) "Advertisement" shall mean the attempt by publication, dissemination, or circulation to induce, directly or indirectly, any person to enter into a residential mortgage loan agreement or residential mortgage loan brokerage agreement relative to a mortgage secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois.

(x) "Residential Mortgage Board" shall mean the Residential Mortgage Board created in Section 1-5 of this Act.

(y) "Government-insured mortgage loan" shall mean any mortgage loan made on the security of residential real estate insured by the Department of Housing and Urban Development or Farmers Home Loan Administration, or guaranteed by the Veterans Administration.

(z) "Annual audit" shall mean a certified audit of the licensee's books and records and systems of internal control performed by a certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and generally accepted auditing standards.

(aa) "Financial institution" shall mean a savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or a bank organized under the laws of Illinois or a savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union or a bank organized under the laws of the United States and headquartered in Illinois.

(bb) "Escrow agent" shall mean a third party, individual or entity charged with the fiduciary obligation for holding escrow funds on a residential mortgage loan pending final payout of those funds in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan.

(cc) "Net worth" shall have the meaning ascribed thereto in Section 3-5 of this Act.

(dd) "Affiliate" shall mean:

(1) any entity that directly controls or is controlled by the licensee and any other company that is directly affecting activities regulated by this Act that is controlled by the company that controls the licensee;

(2) any entity:

(A) that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a trust or otherwise, by or for the benefit of shareholders who beneficially or otherwise control, directly or indirectly, by trust or otherwise, the licensee or any company that controls the licensee; or

(B) a majority of the directors or trustees of which constitute a majority of the persons holding any such office with the licensee or any company that controls the licensee;

(3) any company, including a real estate investment trust, that is sponsored and advised on a contractual basis by the licensee or any subsidiary or affiliate of the licensee.

The Commissioner may define by rule and regulation any terms used in this Act for the efficient and clear administration of this Act.

(ee) "First tier subsidiary" shall be defined by regulation incorporating the comparable definitions used by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate.

(ff) "Gross delinquency rate" means the quotient determined by dividing (1) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by a licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent and (ii) the number of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent by (2) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year and (ii) the number of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year.

(gg) "Delinquency rate factor" means the factor set by rule of the Commissioner that is multiplied by the average gross delinquency rate of licensees, determined annually for the immediately preceding calendar year, for the purpose of determining which licensees shall be examined by the Commissioner pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 4-8 of this Act.

(hh) "Loan originator" means any natural person who, for compensation or in the expectation of compensation, either directly or indirectly makes, offers to make, solicits, places, or negotiates a residential mortgage loan. This definition applies only to Section 7-1 of this Act.

(ii) "Confidential supervisory information" means any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the Commissioner under this Act, any report of examination visitation, or investigation prepared by the state regulatory authority of another state that examines a licensee, any document or record prepared or obtained in connection with or relating to any examination, visitation, or investigation, and any record prepared or obtained by the Commissioner to the extent that the record summarizes or contains information derived from any report, document, or record described in this subsection. "Confidential supervisory information" does not include any information or record routinely prepared by a licensee and maintained in the ordinary course of business or any information or record that is required to be made publicly available pursuant to State or federal law or rule.

(jj) "Mortgage loan originator" means an individual who for compensation or gain or in the expectation of compensation or gain:

(i) takes a residential mortgage loan application; or

(ii) offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include an individual engaged solely as a loan processor or underwriter except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) of Section 7-1A of this Act.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed in accordance with the Real Estate License Act of 2000, unless the person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator, or by any agent of that lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or entity solely involved in extensions of credit relating to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in Section 101(53D) of Title 11, United States Code.

(kk) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in Section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and includes any credit union.

(ll) "Dwelling" means a residential structure or mobile home which contains one to 4 family housing units, or individual units of condominiums or cooperatives.

(mm) "Immediate family member" means a spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild, and includes step-parents, step-children, step-siblings, or adoptive relationships.

(nn) "Individual" means a natural person.

(oo) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who performs clerical or support duties as an employee at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a person licensed, or exempt from licensing, under this Act. "Clerical or support duties" includes subsequent to the receipt of an application:

(i) the receipt, collection, distribution, and analysis of information common for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan; and

(ii) communicating with a consumer to obtain the information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the extent that the communication does not include offering or negotiating loan rates or terms, or counseling consumers about residential mortgage loan rates or terms. An individual engaging solely in loan processor or underwriter activities shall not represent to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information, including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items, that the individual can or will perform any of the activities of a mortgage loan originator.

(pp) "Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators for the licensing and registration of licensed mortgage loan originators.

(qq) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage product other than a 30-year fixed rate mortgage.

(rr) "Person" means a natural person, corporation, company, limited liability company, partnership, or association.

(ss) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to the public, including:

(1) acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;

(2) bringing together parties interested in the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property;

(3) negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing financing with respect to any such transaction;

(4) engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in the activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; or

(5) offering to engage in any activity, or act in any capacity, described in this subsection (ss).

(tt) "Registered mortgage loan originator" means any individual that:

(1) meets the definition of mortgage loan originator and is an employee of:

(A) a depository institution;

(B) a subsidiary that is:

(i) owned and controlled by a depository institution; and

(ii) regulated by a federal banking agency; or

(C) an institution regulated by the Farm Credit Administration; and

(2) is registered with, and maintains a unique identifier through, the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.

(uu) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier assigned by protocols established by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.

(vv) "Residential mortgage license" means a license issued pursuant to Section 1-3, 2-2, or 2-6 of this Act.

(ww) "Mortgage loan originator license" means a license issued pursuant to Section 7-1A, 7-3, or 7-6 of this Act.

(xx) (jj) "Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person authorized by the Secretary or by this Act to act in the Secretary's stead.

(Source: P.A. 95-1047, eff. 4-6-09; 96-112, eff. 7-31-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(205 ILCS 635/2-2)

Sec. 2-2. Application process; investigation; fee.

(a) The Secretary shall issue a license upon completion of all of the following:

(1) The filing of an application for license with the Director or the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry as approved by the Director.

(2) The filing with the Secretary of a listing of judgments entered against, and bankruptcy petitions by, the license applicant for the preceding 10 years.

(3) The payment, in certified funds, of investigation and application fees, the total of which shall be in an amount equal to $2,043 annually. To comply with the common renewal date and requirements of the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, the term of initial licenses may be extended or shortened with applicable fees prorated or combined accordingly.

(4) Except for a broker applying to renew a license, the filing of an audited balance sheet including all footnotes prepared by a certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and generally accepted auditing principles which evidences that the applicant meets the net worth requirements of Section 3-5.

(5) The filing of proof satisfactory to the Commissioner that the applicant, the members thereof if the applicant is a partnership or association, the members or managers thereof that retain any authority or responsibility under the operating agreement if the applicant is a limited liability company, or the officers thereof if the applicant is a corporation have 3 years experience preceding application in real estate finance. Instead of this requirement, the applicant and the applicant's officers or members, as applicable, may satisfactorily complete a program of education in real estate finance and fair lending, as approved by the Commissioner, prior to receiving the initial license. The Commissioner shall promulgate rules regarding proof of experience requirements and educational requirements and the satisfactory completion of those requirements. The Commissioner may establish by rule a list of duly licensed professionals and others who may be exempt from this requirement.

(6) An investigation of the averments required by Section 2-4, which investigation must allow the Commissioner to issue positive findings stating that the financial responsibility, experience, character, and general fitness of the license applicant and of the members thereof if the license applicant is a partnership or association, of the officers and directors thereof if the license applicant is a corporation, and of the managers and members that retain any authority or responsibility under the operating agreement if the license applicant is a limited liability company are such as to command the confidence of the community and to warrant belief that the business will be operated honestly, fairly and efficiently within the purpose of this Act. If the Commissioner shall not so find, he or she shall not issue such license, and he or she shall notify the license applicant of the denial.

The Commissioner may impose conditions on a license if the Commissioner determines that the conditions are necessary or appropriate. These conditions shall be imposed in writing and shall continue in effect for the period prescribed by the Commissioner.

(b) All licenses shall be issued to the license applicant.

Upon receipt of such license, a residential mortgage licensee shall be authorized to engage in the business regulated by this Act. Such license shall remain in full force and effect until it expires without renewal, is surrendered by the licensee or revoked or suspended as hereinafter provided.

(Source: P.A. 95-1047, eff. 4-6-09; 96-112, eff. 7-31-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(205 ILCS 635/2-6)

Sec. 2-6. License issuance and renewal; fee.

(a) Beginning July 1, 2003, licenses shall be renewed every year on the anniversary of the date of issuance of the original license, or the common renewal date of the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry as adopted by the Director. To comply with the common renewal date of the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, the term of existing licenses may be extended or shortened with applicable fees prorated accordingly. Properly completed renewal application forms and filing fees must be received by the Secretary 60 days prior to the renewal date.

(b) It shall be the responsibility of each licensee to accomplish renewal of its license; failure of the licensee to receive renewal forms absent a request sent by certified mail for such forms will not waive said responsibility. Failure by a licensee to submit a properly completed renewal application form and fees in a timely fashion, absent a written extension from the Secretary, will result in the assessment of additional fees, as follows:

(1) A fee of $567.50 will be assessed to the licensee 30 days after the proper renewal date and $1,135 each month thereafter, until the license is either renewed or expires pursuant to Section 2-6, subsections (c) and (d), of this Act.

(2) Such fee will be assessed without prior notice to the licensee, but will be assessed only in cases wherein the Secretary has in his or her possession documentation of the licensee's continuing activity for which the unrenewed license was issued.

(c) A license which is not renewed by the date required in this Section shall automatically become inactive. No activity regulated by this Act shall be conducted by the licensee when a license becomes inactive. The Commissioner may require the licensee to provide a plan for the disposition of any residential mortgage loans not closed or funded when the license becomes inactive. The Commissioner may allow a licensee with an inactive license to conduct activities regulated by this Act for the sole purpose of assisting borrowers in the closing or funding of loans for which the loan application was taken from a borrower while the license was active. An inactive license may be reactivated by the Commissioner upon payment of the renewal fee, and payment of a reactivation fee equal to the renewal fee.

(d) A license which is not renewed within one year of becoming inactive shall expire.

(e) A licensee ceasing an activity or activities regulated by this Act and desiring to no longer be licensed shall so inform the Commissioner in writing and, at the same time, convey the license and all other symbols or indicia of licensure. The licensee shall include a plan for the withdrawal from regulated business, including a timetable for the disposition of the business, and comply with the surrender guidelines or requirements of the Director. Upon receipt of such written notice, the Commissioner shall post the cancellation or issue a certified statement canceling the license.

(Source: P.A. 95-1047, eff. 4-6-09; 96-112, eff. 7-31-09; revised 8-20-09.)

(205 ILCS 635/4-1) (from Ch. 17, par. 2324-1)

Sec. 4-1. Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate; functions, powers, and duties. The functions, powers, and duties of the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate shall include the following:

(a) to issue or refuse to issue any license as provided by this Act;

(b) to revoke or suspend for cause any license issued under this Act;

(c) to keep records of all licenses issued under this Act;

(d) to receive, consider, investigate, and act upon complaints made by any person in connection with any residential mortgage licensee in this State;

(e) to consider and act upon any recommendations from the Residential Mortgage Board;

(f) to prescribe the forms of and receive:

(1) applications for licenses; and

(2) all reports and all books and records required to be made by any licensee under this Act, including annual audited financial statements and annual reports of mortgage activity;

(g) to adopt rules and regulations necessary and proper for the administration of this Act;

(h) to subpoena documents and witnesses and compel their attendance and production, to administer oaths, and to require the production of any books, papers, or other materials relevant to any inquiry authorized by this Act;

(h-1) to issue orders against any person, if the Commissioner has reasonable cause to believe that an unsafe, unsound, or unlawful practice has occurred, is occurring, or is about to occur, if any person has violated, is violating, or is about to violate any law, rule, or written agreement with the Commissioner, or for the purpose of administering the provisions of this Act and any rule adopted in accordance with the Act;

(h-2) to address any inquiries to any licensee, or the officers thereof, in relation to its activities and conditions, or any other matter connected with its affairs, and it shall be the duty of any licensee or person so addressed, to promptly reply in writing to such inquiries. The Commissioner may also require reports from any licensee at any time the Commissioner may deem desirable;

(i) to require information with regard to any license applicant as he or she may deem desirable, with due regard to the paramount interests of the public as to the experience, background, honesty, truthfulness, integrity, and competency of the license applicant as to financial transactions involving primary or subordinate mortgage financing, and where the license applicant is an entity other than an individual, as to the honesty, truthfulness, integrity, and competency of any officer or director of the corporation, association, or other entity, or the members of a partnership;

(j) to examine the books and records of every licensee under this Act at intervals as specified in Section 4-2;

(k) to enforce provisions of this Act;

(l) to levy fees, fines, and charges for services performed in administering this Act; the aggregate of all fees collected by the Commissioner on and after the effective date of this Act shall be paid promptly after receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Savings and Residential Finance Regulatory Fund; the amounts deposited into that Fund shall be used for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Office of Banks and Real Estate. Nothing in this Act shall prevent continuing the practice of paying expenses involving salaries, retirement, social security, and State-paid insurance of State officers by appropriation from the General Revenue Fund.

(m) to appoint examiners, supervisors, experts, and special assistants as needed to effectively and efficiently administer this Act;

(n) to conduct hearings for the purpose of:

(1) appeals of orders of the Commissioner;

(2) suspensions or revocations of licenses, or fining of licensees;

(3) investigating:

(i) complaints against licensees; or

(ii) annual gross delinquency rates; and

(4) carrying out the purposes of this Act;

(o) to exercise exclusive visitorial power over a licensee unless otherwise authorized by this Act or as vested in the courts, or upon prior consultation with the Commissioner, a foreign residential mortgage regulator with an appropriate supervisory interest in the parent or affiliate of a licensee;

(p) to enter into cooperative agreements with state regulatory authorities of other states to provide for examination of corporate offices or branches of those states and to accept reports of such examinations;

(q) to assign an examiner or examiners to monitor the affairs of a licensee with whatever frequency the Commissioner determines appropriate and to charge the licensee for reasonable and necessary expenses of the Commissioner, if in the opinion of the Commissioner an emergency exists or appears likely to occur; and

(r) to impose civil penalties of up to $50 per day against a licensee for failing to respond to a regulatory request or reporting requirement; and .

(s) to enter into agreements in connection with the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.

(Source: P.A. 96-112, eff. 7-31-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 360. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 3/30)

Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to demonstration programs.

(a) There shall be no more than:

(i) 3 subacute care hospital alternative health care models in the City of Chicago (one of which shall be located on a designated site and shall have been licensed as a hospital under the Illinois Hospital Licensing Act within the 10 years immediately before the application for a license);

(ii) 2 subacute care hospital alternative health care models in the demonstration program for each of the following areas:

(1) Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(2) DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties.

(3) Municipalities with a population greater than 50,000 not located in the areas described in item (i) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (1) and (2) of item (ii) of subsection (a); and

(iii) 4 subacute care hospital alternative health care models in the demonstration program for rural areas.

In selecting among applicants for these licenses in rural areas, the Health Facilities and Services Review Board and the Department shall give preference to hospitals that may be unable for economic reasons to provide continued service to the community in which they are located unless the hospital were to receive an alternative health care model license.

(a-5) There shall be no more than the total number of postsurgical recovery care centers with a certificate of need for beds as of January 1, 2008.

(a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 9 children's respite care center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, which shall be located as follows:

(1) Two in the City of Chicago.

(2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.

(3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.

(4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).

(5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

No more than one children's respite care model owned and operated by a licensed skilled pediatric facility shall be located in each of the areas designated in this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) There shall be 2 authorized community-based residential rehabilitation center alternative health care models in the demonstration program.

(a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model in the demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management center shall be located in Will County, owned by a not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by the county board before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(a-25) There shall be no more than 10 birth center alternative health care models in the demonstration program, located as follows:

(1) Four in the area comprising Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(2) Three in municipalities with a population of 50,000 or more not located in the area described in paragraph (1) of this subsection, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

(3) Three in rural areas, one of which shall be owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.

The first 3 birth centers authorized to operate by the Department shall be located in or predominantly serve the residents of a health professional shortage area as determined by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. There shall be no more than 2 birth centers authorized to operate in any single health planning area for obstetric services as determined under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. If a birth center is located outside of a health professional shortage area, (i) the birth center shall be located in a health planning area with a demonstrated need for obstetrical service beds, as determined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board or (ii) there must be a reduction in the existing number of obstetrical service beds in the planning area so that the establishment of the birth center does not result in an increase in the total number of obstetrical service beds in the health planning area.

(b) Alternative health care models, other than a model authorized under subsection (a-10) or subsections (a-10) and (a-20), shall obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act before receiving a license by the Department. If, after obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative health care delivery model that is a community based residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board before increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in medically underserved areas shall receive priority in obtaining a certificate of need.

(c) An alternative health care model license shall be issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed alternative health care model that continues to be in substantial compliance after the conclusion of the demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals unless and until a different licensure program for that type of health care model is established by legislation, except that a postsurgical recovery care center meeting the following requirements may apply within 3 years after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-669) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly for a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital:

(1) The postsurgical recovery care center shall apply to the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Board for a Certificate of Need permit to discontinue the postsurgical recovery care center and to establish a hospital.

(2) If the postsurgical recovery care center obtains a Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital, it shall apply for licensure as a hospital under the Hospital Licensing Act and shall meet all statutory and regulatory requirements of a hospital.

(3) After obtaining licensure as a hospital, any license as an ambulatory surgical treatment center and any license as a post-surgical recovery care center shall be null and void.

(4) The former postsurgical recovery care center that receives a hospital license must seek and use its best efforts to maintain certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

The Department may issue a provisional license to any alternative health care model that does not substantially comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which upon completion will render the alternative health care model in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the health and safety of the patients of the alternative health care model will be protected during the period for which the provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections necessary for the alternative health care model to substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be completed.

(d) Alternative health care models shall seek certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall provide charitable care consistent with that provided by comparable health care providers in the geographic area.

(d-5) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), in cooperation with the Illinois Department of Public Health, shall develop and implement a reimbursement methodology for all facilities participating in the demonstration program. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall keep a record of services provided under the demonstration program to recipients of medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall submit an annual report of that information to the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health care facilities.

(f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at reasonable cost.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-445, eff. 1-1-08; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-129, eff. 8-4-09; 96-669, eff. 8-25-09; 96-812, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 365. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Section 145 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/145)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 145. Conversion of facilities. Entities licensed as facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act may elect to convert to a license under this Act. Any facility that chooses to convert, in whole or in part, shall follow the requirements in the Nursing Home Care Act and rules promulgated under that Act regarding voluntary closure and notice to residents. Any conversion of existing beds licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to licensure under this Act is exempt from review by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 145. Conversion of facilities. Entities licensed as facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act may elect to convert to a license under this Act. Any facility that chooses to convert, in whole or in part, shall follow the requirements in the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act, as applicable, and rules promulgated under those Acts regarding voluntary closure and notice to residents. Any conversion of existing beds licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act to licensure under this Act is exempt from review by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 370. The MR/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-113, 2-101.1, 2-201, 3-206.03, 3-215, 3-305, 3-401, and 3-517 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/1-113)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 1-113. Facility. "MR/DD facility" or "facility" means an intermediate care facility for the developmentally disabled or a long-term care for under age 22 facility, whether operated for profit or not, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded as the term is defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefore, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated community integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Community Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any "supportive residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(12) A home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-101.1)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2-101.1. Spousal impoverishment. All new residents and their spouses shall be informed on admittance of their spousal impoverishment rights as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as now or hereafter amended and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360 100 360).

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-201)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2-201. Residents' funds. To protect the residents' funds, the facility:

(1) Shall at the time of admission provide, in order of priority, each resident, or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, with a written statement explaining to the resident and to the resident's spouse (a) their spousal impoverishment rights, as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360 100 360), and (b) the resident's rights regarding personal funds and listing the services for which the resident will be charged. The facility shall obtain a signed acknowledgment from each resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, that such person has received the statement.

(2) May accept funds from a resident for safekeeping and managing, if it receives written authorization from, in order of priority, the resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any; such authorization shall be attested to by a witness who has no pecuniary interest in the facility or its operations, and who is not connected in any way to facility personnel or the administrator in any manner whatsoever.

(3) Shall maintain and allow, in order of priority, each resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, access to a written record of all financial arrangements and transactions involving the individual resident's funds.

(4) Shall provide, in order of priority, each resident, or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, with a written itemized statement at least quarterly, of all financial transactions involving the resident's funds.

(5) Shall purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Departments of Public Health and Financial and Professional Regulation that all residents' personal funds deposited with the facility are secure against loss, theft, and insolvency.

(6) Shall keep any funds received from a resident for safekeeping in an account separate from the facility's funds, and shall at no time withdraw any part or all of such funds for any purpose other than to return the funds to the resident upon the request of the resident or any other person entitled to make such request, to pay the resident his or her allowance, or to make any other payment authorized by the resident or any other person entitled to make such authorization.

(7) Shall deposit any funds received from a resident in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account insured by agencies of, or corporations chartered by, the State or federal government. The account shall be in a form which clearly indicates that the facility has only a fiduciary interest in the funds and any interest from the account shall accrue to the resident. The facility may keep up to $100 of a resident's money in a non-interest-bearing account or petty cash fund, to be readily available for the resident's current expenditures.

(8) Shall return to the resident, or the person who executed the written authorization required in subsection (2) of this Section, upon written request, all or any part of the resident's funds given the facility for safekeeping, including the interest accrued from deposits.

(9) Shall (a) place any monthly allowance to which a resident is entitled in that resident's personal account, or give it to the resident, unless the facility has written authorization from the resident or the resident's guardian or if the resident is a minor, his parent, to handle it differently, (b) take all steps necessary to ensure that a personal needs allowance that is placed in a resident's personal account is used exclusively by the resident or for the benefit of the resident, and (c) where such funds are withdrawn from the resident's personal account by any person other than the resident, require such person to whom funds constituting any part of a resident's personal needs allowance are released, to execute an affidavit that such funds shall be used exclusively for the benefit of the resident.

(10) Unless otherwise provided by State law, upon the death of a resident, shall provide the executor or administrator of the resident's estate with a complete accounting of all the resident's personal property, including any funds of the resident being held by the facility.

(11) If an adult resident is incapable of managing his or her funds and does not have a resident's representative, guardian, or an immediate family member, shall notify the Office of the State Guardian of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission.

(12) If the facility is sold, shall provide the buyer with a written verification by a public accountant of all residents' monies and properties being transferred, and obtain a signed receipt from the new owner.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/3-206.03)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-206.03. Resident attendants.

(a) As used in this Section, "resident attendant" means an individual who assists residents in a facility with the following activities:

(1) eating and drinking; and

(2) personal hygiene limited to washing a resident's hands and face, brushing and combing a resident's hair, oral hygiene, shaving residents with an electric razor, and applying makeup.

The term "resident attendant" does not include an individual who:

(1) is a licensed health professional or a registered dietitian;

(2) volunteers without monetary compensation;

(3) is a nurse assistant; or

(4) performs any nursing or nursing related services for residents of a facility.

(b) A facility may employ resident attendants to assist the nurse aides with the activities authorized under subsection (a). The resident attendants shall not count in the minimum staffing requirements under rules implementing this Act.

(c) A facility may not use on a full time or other paid basis any individual as a resident attendant in the facility unless the individual:

(1) has completed a training and competency evaluation program encompassing the tasks the individual provides; and

(2) is competent to provide feeding, hydration, and personal hygiene services.

(d) The training and competency evaluation program may be facility based. It may include one or more of the following units:

(1) A feeding unit that is a maximum of 5 hours in length.

(2) A hydration unit that is a maximum of 3 hours in length.

(3) A personal hygiene unit that is a maximum of 5 hours in length. These programs must be reviewed and approved by the Department every 2 years.

(e) (Blank).

(f) A person seeking employment as a resident attendant is subject to the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/3-215)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-215. Annual report on facility by Department. The Department shall make at least one report on each facility in the State annually, unless the facility has been issued a 2-year license under subsection (b) of Section 3-110 for which the report shall be made every 2 years 2-years. All conditions and practices not in compliance with applicable standards within the report period shall be specifically stated. If a violation is corrected or is subject to an approved plan of correction, the same shall be specified in the report. The Department shall send a copy to any person on receiving a written request. The Department may charge a reasonable fee to cover copying costs.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/3-305)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-305. Penalties or fines. The license of a facility which is in violation of this Act or any rule adopted thereunder may be subject to the penalties or fines levied by the Department as specified in this Section.

(1) Unless a greater penalty or fine is allowed under subsection (3), a licensee who commits a Type "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 is automatically issued a conditional license for a period of 6 months to coincide with an acceptable plan of correction and assessed a fine computed at a rate of $5.00 per resident in the facility plus 20 cents per resident for each day of the violation, commencing on the date a notice of the violation is served under Section 3-301 and ending on the date the violation is corrected, or a fine of not less than $5,000, or when death, serious mental or physical harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement results, a fine of not less than $10,000, whichever is greater.

(2) A licensee who commits a Type "B" violation or who is issued an administrative warning for a violation of Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder is subject to a penalty computed at a rate of $3 per resident in the facility, plus 15 cents per resident for each day of the violation, commencing on the date a notice of the violation is served under Section 3-301 and ending on the date the violation is corrected, or a fine not less than $500, whichever is greater. Such fine shall be assessed on the date of notice of the violation and shall be suspended for violations that continue after such date upon completion of a plan of correction in accordance with Section 3-308 in relation to the assessment of fines and correction. Failure to correct such violation within the time period approved under a plan of correction shall result in a fine and conditional license as provided under subsection (5).

(3) A licensee who commits a Type "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 which continues beyond the time specified in paragraph (a) of Section 3-303 3 303 which is cited as a repeat violation shall have its license revoked and shall be assessed a fine of 3 times the fine computed per resident per day under subsection (1).

(4) A licensee who fails to satisfactorily comply with an accepted plan of correction for a Type "B" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder shall be automatically issued a conditional license for a period of not less than 6 months. A second or subsequent acceptable plan of correction shall be filed. A fine shall be assessed in accordance with subsection (2) when cited for the repeat violation. This fine shall be computed for all days of the violation, including the duration of the first plan of correction compliance time.

(5) For the purpose of computing a penalty under subsections (2) through (4), the number of residents per day shall be based on the average number of residents in the facility during the 30 days preceding the discovery of the violation.

(6) When the Department finds that a provision of Article II has been violated with regard to a particular resident, the Department shall issue an order requiring the facility to reimburse the resident for injuries incurred, or $100, whichever is greater. In the case of a violation involving any action other than theft of money belonging to a resident, reimbursement shall be ordered only if a provision of Article II has been violated with regard to that or any other resident of the facility within the 2 years immediately preceding the violation in question.

(7) For purposes of assessing fines under this Section, a repeat violation shall be a violation which has been cited during one inspection of the facility for which an accepted plan of correction was not complied with. A repeat violation shall not be a new citation of the same rule, unless the licensee is not substantially addressing the issue routinely throughout the facility.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/3-401)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-401. Involuntary transfer or discharge of resident.

A facility may involuntarily transfer or discharge a resident only for one or more of the following reasons:

(a) for medical reasons;

(b) for the resident's physical safety;

(c) for the physical safety of other residents, the facility staff or facility visitors; or

(d) for either late payment or nonpayment for the resident's stay, except as prohibited by Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. For purposes of this Section, "late payment" means non-receipt non receipt of payment after submission of a bill. If payment is not received within 45 days after submission of a bill, a facility may send a notice to the resident and responsible party requesting payment within 30 days. If payment is not received within such 30 days, the facility may thereupon institute transfer or discharge proceedings by sending a notice of transfer or discharge to the resident and responsible party by registered or certified mail. The notice shall state, in addition to the requirements of Section 3-403 of this Act, that the responsible party has the right to pay the amount of the bill in full up to the date the transfer or discharge is to be made and then the resident shall have the right to remain in the facility. Such payment shall terminate the transfer or discharge proceedings. This subsection does not apply to those residents whose care is provided for under the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth the criteria and procedures to be applied in cases of involuntary transfer or discharge permitted under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

(210 ILCS 47/3-517)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-517. Civil and criminal liability during receivership. Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to relieve any owner, administrator or employee of a facility placed in receivership of any civil or criminal liability incurred, or any duty imposed by law, by reason of acts or omissions of the owner, administrator, or employee prior to the appointment of a receiver; nor shall anything contained in this Act be construed to suspend during the receivership any obligation of the owner, administrator, or employee for payment of taxes or other operating and maintenance expenses of the facility nor of the owner, administrator, employee or any other person for the payment of mortgages or liens. The owner shall retain the right to sell or mortgage any facility under receivership, subject to approval of the court which ordered the receivership.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 375. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 32.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/32.5)

Sec. 32.5. Freestanding Emergency Center.

(a) The Department shall issue an annual Freestanding Emergency Center (FEC) license to any facility that has received a permit from the Illinois Health Facilities and Services Review Planning Board to establish a Freestanding Emergency Center if the application for the permit has been deemed complete by the Department of Public Health by March 1, 2009, and:

(1) is located: (A) in a municipality with a population of 75,000 or fewer inhabitants; (B) within 20 miles of the hospital that owns or controls the FEC; and (C) within 20 miles of the Resource Hospital affiliated with the FEC as part of the EMS System;

(2) is wholly owned or controlled by an Associate or Resource Hospital, but is not a part of the hospital's physical plant;

(3) meets the standards for licensed FECs, adopted by rule of the Department, including, but not limited to:

(A) facility design, specification, operation, and maintenance standards;

(B) equipment standards; and

(C) the number and qualifications of emergency medical personnel and other staff, which must include at least one board certified emergency physician present at the FEC 24 hours per day.

(4) limits its participation in the EMS System strictly to receiving a limited number of BLS runs by emergency medical vehicles according to protocols developed by the Resource Hospital within the FEC's designated EMS System and approved by the Project Medical Director and the Department;

(5) provides comprehensive emergency treatment services, as defined in the rules adopted by the Department pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act, 24 hours per day, on an outpatient basis;

(6) provides an ambulance and maintains on site ambulance services staffed with paramedics 24 hours per day;

(7) (blank);

(8) complies with all State and federal patient rights provisions, including, but not limited to, the Emergency Medical Treatment Act and the federal Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act;

(9) maintains a communications system that is fully integrated with its Resource Hospital within the FEC's designated EMS System;

(10) reports to the Department any patient transfers from the FEC to a hospital within 48 hours of the transfer plus any other data determined to be relevant by the Department;

(11) submits to the Department, on a quarterly basis, the FEC's morbidity and mortality rates for patients treated at the FEC and other data determined to be relevant by the Department;

(12) does not describe itself or hold itself out to the general public as a full service hospital or hospital emergency department in its advertising or marketing activities;

(13) complies with any other rules adopted by the Department under this Act that relate to FECs;

(14) passes the Department's site inspection for compliance with the FEC requirements of this Act;

(15) submits a copy of the permit issued by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board indicating that the facility has complied with the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act with respect to the health services to be provided at the facility;

(16) submits an application for designation as an FEC in a manner and form prescribed by the Department by rule; and

(17) pays the annual license fee as determined by the Department by rule.

(b) The Department shall:

(1) annually inspect facilities of initial FEC applicants and licensed FECs, and issue annual licenses to or annually relicense FECs that satisfy the Department's licensure requirements as set forth in subsection (a);

(2) suspend, revoke, refuse to issue, or refuse to renew the license of any FEC, after notice and an opportunity for a hearing, when the Department finds that the FEC has failed to comply with the standards and requirements of the Act or rules adopted by the Department under the Act;

(3) issue an Emergency Suspension Order for any FEC when the Director or his or her designee has determined that the continued operation of the FEC poses an immediate and serious danger to the public health, safety, and welfare. An opportunity for a hearing shall be promptly initiated after an Emergency Suspension Order has been issued; and

(4) adopt rules as needed to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-584, eff. 8-31-07; 96-23, eff. 6-30-09; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 380. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 2.08 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/2.08)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 2.08. "Home services agency" means an agency that provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, for the purpose of placing individuals as workers providing home services for consumers in their personal residences. "Home services agency" does not include agencies licensed under the Nurse Agency Licensing Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and does not include an agency that limits its business exclusively to providing housecleaning services. Programs providing services exclusively through the Community Care Program of the Illinois Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services Office of Rehabilitation Services, or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs are not considered to be a home services agency under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-577, eff. 8-18-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 2.08. "Home services agency" means an agency that provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, for the purpose of placing individuals as workers providing home services for consumers in their personal residences. "Home services agency" does not include agencies licensed under the Nurse Agency Licensing Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the MR/DD Community Care Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and does not include an agency that limits its business exclusively to providing housecleaning services. Programs providing services exclusively through the Community Care Program of the Illinois Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services Office of Rehabilitation Services, or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs are not considered to be a home services agency under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-577, eff. 8-18-09; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 385. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 3 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 6.25 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act:

(A) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, or agency, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons admitted for overnight stay or longer in order to obtain medical, including obstetric, psychiatric and nursing, care of illness, disease, injury, infirmity, or deformity.

The term "hospital", without regard to length of stay, shall also include:

(a) any facility which is devoted primarily to providing psychiatric and related services and programs for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons suffering from emotional or nervous diseases;

(b) all places where pregnant females are received, cared for, or treated during delivery irrespective of the number of patients received.

The term "hospital" includes general and specialized hospitals, tuberculosis sanitaria, mental or psychiatric hospitals and sanitaria, and includes maternity homes, lying-in homes, and homes for unwed mothers in which care is given during delivery.

The term "hospital" does not include:

(1) any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, as amended;

(2) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitalization or care facilities under its management and control;

(3) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the federal government or agencies thereof;

(4) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation;

(5) any person or facility required to be licensed pursuant to the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act;

(6) any facility operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination;

(7) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(8) any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college.

(B) "Person" means the State, and any political subdivision or municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Perinatal" means the period of time between the conception of an infant and the end of the first month after birth.

(F) "Federally designated organ procurement agency" means the organ procurement agency designated by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service area in which a hospital is located; except that in the case of a hospital located in a county adjacent to Wisconsin which currently contracts with an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin that is not the organ procurement agency designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services for the service area in which the hospital is located, if the hospital applies for a waiver pursuant to 42 USC 1320b-8(a), it may designate an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin to be thereafter deemed its federally designated organ procurement agency for the purposes of this Act.

(G) "Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating in Illinois that is certified by the American Association of Tissue Banks or the Eye Bank Association of America and is involved in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing corneas, bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the human body. "Tissue bank" does not include a licensed blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "tissue" does not include organs.

(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act:

(A) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, or agency, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons admitted for overnight stay or longer in order to obtain medical, including obstetric, psychiatric and nursing, care of illness, disease, injury, infirmity, or deformity.

The term "hospital", without regard to length of stay, shall also include:

(a) any facility which is devoted primarily to providing psychiatric and related services and programs for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons suffering from emotional or nervous diseases;

(b) all places where pregnant females are received, cared for, or treated during delivery irrespective of the number of patients received.

The term "hospital" includes general and specialized hospitals, tuberculosis sanitaria, mental or psychiatric hospitals and sanitaria, and includes maternity homes, lying-in homes, and homes for unwed mothers in which care is given during delivery.

The term "hospital" does not include:

(1) any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act;

(2) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitalization or care facilities under its management and control;

(3) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the federal government or agencies thereof;

(4) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation;

(5) any person or facility required to be licensed pursuant to the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act;

(6) any facility operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination;

(7) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(8) any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college.

(B) "Person" means the State, and any political subdivision or municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Perinatal" means the period of time between the conception of an infant and the end of the first month after birth.

(F) "Federally designated organ procurement agency" means the organ procurement agency designated by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service area in which a hospital is located; except that in the case of a hospital located in a county adjacent to Wisconsin which currently contracts with an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin that is not the organ procurement agency designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services for the service area in which the hospital is located, if the hospital applies for a waiver pursuant to 42 USC 1320b-8(a), it may designate an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin to be thereafter deemed its federally designated organ procurement agency for the purposes of this Act.

(G) "Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating in Illinois that is certified by the American Association of Tissue Banks or the Eye Bank Association of America and is involved in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing corneas, bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the human body. "Tissue bank" does not include a licensed blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "tissue" does not include organs.

(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.25)

Sec. 6.25. Safe patient handling policy.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care worker" means an individual providing direct patient care services who may be required to lift, transfer, reposition, or move a patient.

"Nurse" means an advanced practice nurse, a registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(b) A hospital must adopt and ensure implementation of a policy to identify, assess, and develop strategies to control risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a patient. The policy shall establish a process that, at a minimum, includes all of the following:

(1) Analysis of the risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers posted by the patient handling needs of the patient populations served by the hospital and the physical environment in which the patient handling and movement occurs.

(2) Education of nurses in the identification, assessment, and control of risks of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers during patient handling.

(3) Evaluation of alternative ways to reduce risks associated with patient handling, including evaluation of equipment and the environment.

(4) Restriction, to the extent feasible with existing equipment and aids, of manual patient handling or movement of all or most of a patient's weight except for emergency, life-threatening, or otherwise exceptional circumstances.

(5) Collaboration with and an annual report to the nurse staffing committee.

(6) Procedures for a nurse to refuse to perform or be involved in patient handling or movement that the nurse in good faith believes will expose a patient or nurse or other health care worker to an unacceptable risk of injury.

(7) Submission of an annual report to the hospital's governing body or quality assurance committee on activities related to the identification, assessment, and development of strategies to control risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a patient.

(8) In developing architectural plans for construction or remodeling of a hospital or unit of a hospital in which patient handling and movement occurs, consideration of the feasibility of incorporating patient handling equipment or the physical space and construction design needed to incorporate that equipment.

(Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.26)

Sec. 6.26 6.25. Immunization against influenza virus and pneumococcal disease.

(a) Every hospital shall adopt an influenza and pneumococcal immunization policy that includes, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) Procedures for identifying patients age 65 or older and, at the discretion of the facility, other patients at risk.

(2) Procedures for offering immunization against influenza virus when available between September 1 and April 1, and against pneumococcal disease upon admission or discharge, to patients age 65 or older, unless contraindicated.

(3) Procedures for ensuring that patients offered immunization, or their guardians, receive information regarding the risks and benefits of vaccination.

The hospital shall provide a copy of its influenza and pneumococcal immunization policy to the Department upon request.

(b) A home rule unit may not regulate immunization against influenza virus and pneumococcal disease in a manner inconsistent with the regulation of such immunizations under this Section. This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 96-343, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-23-09.)

Section 390. The Mobile Home Park Act is amended by changing Section 9.9 as follows:

(210 ILCS 115/9.9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 719.9)

Sec. 9.9. Mobile homes in mobile home parks shall each be equipped with fire extinguishers in working order, one in each end of the mobile home.

Inspection of any such equipment and enforcement of any Rules and Regulations adopted pursuant to this paragraph shall be the duty of the State Fire Marshal Marshall and local law enforcement agencies in the county or municipality where the mobile home park is located.

(Source: P.A. 77-1472; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 395. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 190.1, 370c, and 451 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 356z.14 and 356z.15 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/190.1) (from Ch. 73, par. 802.1)

Sec. 190.1. Appeal of order directing liquidation - special claims procedure.

(1) Within 5 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1982, or, if later, within 5 days after the filing of a notice of appeal of an order of liquidation, which order has not been stayed, the Director shall present for the circuit court's approval a plan for the continued performance of the defendant company's policy claims obligations, including the duty to defend insureds under liability insurance policies, during the pendency of an appeal. Such plan shall provide for the continued performance and payment of policy claims obligations in the normal course of events, notwithstanding the grounds alleged in support of the order of liquidation including the ground of insolvency. In the event the defendant company's financial condition will not, in the judgment of the Director, support the full performance of all policy claims obligations during the appeal pendency period, the plan may prefer the claims of certain policyholders and claimants over creditors and interested parties as well as other policyholders and claimants, as the Director finds to be fair and equitable considering the relative circumstances of such policyholders and claimants. The circuit court shall examine the plan submitted by the Director and if it finds the plan to be in the best interests of the parties, the circuit court shall approve the plan. No action shall lie against the Director or any of his deputies, agents, clerks, assistants or attorneys by any party based on preference in an appeal pendency plan approved by the circuit court.

(2) The appeal pendency plan shall not supersede supercede or affect the obligations of any insurance guaranty fund which under its own state law is required to pay covered claims obligations during the appeal pendency period.

(Source: P.A. 82-920; revised 10-30-09.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.14)

Sec. 356z.14. Autism spectrum disorders.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly must provide individuals under 21 years of age coverage for the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorders and for the treatment of autism spectrum disorders to the extent that the diagnosis and treatment of autism spectrum disorders are not already covered by the policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan.

(b) Coverage provided under this Section shall be subject to a maximum benefit of $36,000 per year, but shall not be subject to any limits on the number of visits to a service provider. After December 30, 2009, the Director of the Division of Insurance shall, on an annual basis, adjust the maximum benefit for inflation using the Medical Care Component of the United States Department of Labor Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers. Payments made by an insurer on behalf of a covered individual for any care, treatment, intervention, service, or item, the provision of which was for the treatment of a health condition not diagnosed as an autism spectrum disorder, shall not be applied toward any maximum benefit established under this subsection.

(c) Coverage under this Section shall be subject to copayment, deductible, and coinsurance provisions of a policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan to the extent that other medical services covered by the policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan are subject to these provisions.

(d) This Section shall not be construed as limiting benefits that are otherwise available to an individual under a policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan and benefits provided under this Section may not be subject to dollar limits, deductibles, copayments, or coinsurance provisions that are less favorable to the insured than the dollar limits, deductibles, or coinsurance provisions that apply to physical illness generally.

(e) An insurer may not deny or refuse to provide otherwise covered services, or refuse to renew, refuse to reissue, or otherwise terminate or restrict coverage under an individual contract to provide services to an individual because the individual or their dependent is diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder or due to the individual utilizing benefits in this Section.

(f) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment for autism spectrum disorders shall furnish medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued medical treatment is medically necessary and is resulting in improved clinical status. When treatment is anticipated to require continued services to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may request a treatment plan consisting of diagnosis, proposed treatment by type, frequency, anticipated duration of treatment, the anticipated outcomes stated as goals, and the frequency by which the treatment plan will be updated.

(g) When making a determination of medical necessity for a treatment modality for autism spectrum disorders, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. During the appeals process, any challenge to medical necessity must be viewed as reasonable only if the review includes a physician with expertise in the most current and effective treatment modalities for autism spectrum disorders.

(h) Coverage for medically necessary early intervention services must be delivered by certified early intervention specialists, as defined in 89 Ill. Admin. Code 500 and any subsequent amendments thereto.

(i) As used in this Section:

"Autism spectrum disorders" means pervasive developmental disorders as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, including autism, Asperger's disorder, and pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified.

"Diagnosis of autism spectrum disorders" means one or more tests, evaluations, or assessments to diagnose whether an individual has autism spectrum disorder that is prescribed, performed, or ordered by (A) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or (B) a licensed clinical psychologist with expertise in diagnosing autism spectrum disorders.

"Medically necessary" means any care, treatment, intervention, service or item which will or is reasonably expected to do any of the following: (i) prevent the onset of an illness, condition, injury, disease or disability; (ii) reduce or ameliorate the physical, mental or developmental effects of an illness, condition, injury, disease or disability; or (iii) assist to achieve or maintain maximum functional activity in performing daily activities.

"Treatment for autism spectrum disorders" shall include the following care prescribed, provided, or ordered for an individual diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder by (A) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or (B) a certified, registered, or licensed health care professional with expertise in treating effects of autism spectrum disorders when the care is determined to be medically necessary and ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches:

(1) Psychiatric care, meaning direct, consultative, or diagnostic services provided by a licensed psychiatrist.

(2) Psychological care, meaning direct or consultative services provided by a licensed psychologist.

(3) Habilitative or rehabilitative care, meaning professional, counseling, and guidance services and treatment programs, including applied behavior analysis, that are intended to develop, maintain, and restore the functioning of an individual. As used in this subsection (i), "applied behavior analysis" means the design, implementation, and evaluation of environmental modifications using behavioral stimuli and consequences to produce socially significant improvement in human behavior, including the use of direct observation, measurement, and functional analysis of the relations between environment and behavior.

(4) Therapeutic care, including behavioral, speech, occupational, and physical therapies that provide treatment in the following areas: (i) self care and feeding, (ii) pragmatic, receptive, and expressive language, (iii) cognitive functioning, (iv) applied behavior analysis, intervention, and modification, (v) motor planning, and (vi) sensory processing.

(j) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.15)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-833)

Sec. 356z.15 356z.14. Habilitative services for children.

(a) As used in this Section, "habilitative services" means occupational therapy, physical therapy, speech therapy, and other services prescribed by the insured's treating physician pursuant to a treatment plan to enhance the ability of a child to function with a congenital, genetic, or early acquired disorder. A congenital or genetic disorder includes, but is not limited to, hereditary disorders. An early acquired disorder refers to a disorder resulting from illness, trauma, injury, or some other event or condition suffered by a child prior to that child developing functional life skills such as, but not limited to, walking, talking, or self-help skills. Congenital, genetic, and early acquired disorders may include, but are not limited to, autism or an autism spectrum disorder, cerebral palsy, and other disorders resulting from early childhood illness, trauma, or injury.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly must provide coverage for habilitative services for children under 19 years of age with a congenital, genetic, or early acquired disorder so long as all of the following conditions are met:

(1) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches has diagnosed the child's congenital, genetic, or early acquired disorder.

(2) The treatment is administered by a licensed speech-language pathologist, licensed audiologist, licensed occupational therapist, licensed physical therapist, licensed physician, licensed nurse, licensed optometrist, licensed nutritionist, licensed social worker, or licensed psychologist upon the referral of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(3) The initial or continued treatment must be medically necessary and therapeutic and not experimental or investigational.

(c) The coverage required by this Section shall be subject to other general exclusions and limitations of the policy, including coordination of benefits, participating provider requirements, restrictions on services provided by family or household members, utilization review of health care services, including review of medical necessity, case management, experimental, and investigational treatments, and other managed care provisions.

(d) Coverage under this Section does not apply to those services that are solely educational in nature or otherwise paid under State or federal law for purely educational services. Nothing in this subsection (d) relieves an insurer or similar third party from an otherwise valid obligation to provide or to pay for services provided to a child with a disability.

(e) Coverage under this Section for children under age 19 shall not apply to treatment of mental or emotional disorders or illnesses as covered under Section 370 of this Code as well as any other benefit based upon a specific diagnosis that may be otherwise required by law.

(f) The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specific disease policies.

(g) Any denial of care for habilitative services shall be subject to appeal and external independent review procedures as provided by Section 45 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(h) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, the provider under whose supervision the habilitative services are being provided shall furnish medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data to allow the insurer to substantiate that initial or continued medical treatment is medically necessary and that the patient's condition is clinically improving. When the treating provider anticipates that continued treatment is or will be required to permit the patient to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may request that the provider furnish a treatment plan consisting of diagnosis, proposed treatment by type, frequency, anticipated duration of treatment, the anticipated goals of treatment, and how frequently the treatment plan will be updated.

(i) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-833)

Sec. 356z.15. Habilitative services for children.

(a) As used in this Section, "habilitative services" means occupational therapy, physical therapy, speech therapy, and other services prescribed by the insured's treating physician pursuant to a treatment plan to enhance the ability of a child to function with a congenital, genetic, or early acquired disorder. A congenital or genetic disorder includes, but is not limited to, hereditary disorders. An early acquired disorder refers to a disorder resulting from illness, trauma, injury, or some other event or condition suffered by a child prior to that child developing functional life skills such as, but not limited to, walking, talking, or self-help skills. Congenital, genetic, and early acquired disorders may include, but are not limited to, autism or an autism spectrum disorder, cerebral palsy, and other disorders resulting from early childhood illness, trauma, or injury.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly must provide coverage for habilitative services for children under 19 years of age with a congenital, genetic, or early acquired disorder so long as all of the following conditions are met:

(1) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches has diagnosed the child's congenital, genetic, or early acquired disorder.

(2) The treatment is administered by a licensed speech-language pathologist, licensed audiologist, licensed occupational therapist, licensed physical therapist, licensed physician, licensed nurse, licensed optometrist, licensed nutritionist, licensed social worker, or licensed psychologist upon the referral of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(3) The initial or continued treatment must be medically necessary and therapeutic and not experimental or investigational.

(c) The coverage required by this Section shall be subject to other general exclusions and limitations of the policy, including coordination of benefits, participating provider requirements, restrictions on services provided by family or household members, utilization review of health care services, including review of medical necessity, case management, experimental, and investigational treatments, and other managed care provisions.

(d) Coverage under this Section does not apply to those services that are solely educational in nature or otherwise paid under State or federal law for purely educational services. Nothing in this subsection (d) relieves an insurer or similar third party from an otherwise valid obligation to provide or to pay for services provided to a child with a disability.

(e) Coverage under this Section for children under age 19 shall not apply to treatment of mental or emotional disorders or illnesses as covered under Section 370 of this Code as well as any other benefit based upon a specific diagnosis that may be otherwise required by law.

(f) The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specific disease policies.

(g) Any denial of care for habilitative services shall be subject to appeal and external independent review procedures as provided by Section 45 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(h) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, the provider under whose supervision the habilitative services are being provided shall furnish medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data to allow the insurer to substantiate that initial or continued medical treatment is medically necessary and that the patient's condition is clinically improving. When the treating provider anticipates that continued treatment is or will be required to permit the patient to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may request that the provider furnish a treatment plan consisting of diagnosis, proposed treatment by type, frequency, anticipated duration of treatment, the anticipated goals of treatment, and how frequently the treatment plan will be updated.

(i) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-833, eff. 6-1-10.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.16)

Sec. 356z.16 356z.15. Applicability of mandated benefits to supplemental policies. Unless specified otherwise, the following Sections of the Illinois Insurance Code do not apply to short-term travel, disability income, long-term care, accident only, or limited or specified disease policies: 356b, 356c, 356d, 356g, 356k, 356m, 356n, 356p, 356q, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 367.2-5, and 367e.

(Source: P.A. 96-180, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-21-09.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a) (1) On and after the effective date of this Section, every insurer which delivers, issues for delivery or renews or modifies group A&H policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall offer to the applicant or group policyholder subject to the insurers standards of insurability, coverage for reasonable and necessary treatment and services for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions, other than serious mental illnesses as defined in item (2) of subsection (b), up to the limits provided in the policy for other disorders or conditions, except (i) the insured may be required to pay up to 50% of expenses incurred as a result of the treatment or services, and (ii) the annual benefit limit may be limited to the lesser of $10,000 or 25% of the lifetime policy limit.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist of his choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and licensed marriage and family therapists, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician and the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist has provided written notification to the patient's primary care physician, if any, that services are being provided to the patient. That notification may, however, be waived by the patient on a written form. Those forms shall be retained by the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist for a period of not less than 5 years.

(b) (1) An insurer that provides coverage for hospital or medical expenses under a group policy of accident and health insurance or health care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall provide coverage under the policy for treatment of serious mental illness under the same terms and conditions as coverage for hospital or medical expenses related to other illnesses and diseases. The coverage required under this Section must provide for same durational limits, amount limits, deductibles, and co-insurance requirements for serious mental illness as are provided for other illnesses and diseases. This subsection does not apply to coverage provided to employees by employers who have 50 or fewer employees.

(2) "Serious mental illness" means the following psychiatric illnesses as defined in the most current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the American Psychiatric Association:

(A) schizophrenia;

(B) paranoid and other psychotic disorders;

(C) bipolar disorders (hypomanic, manic, depressive, and mixed);

(D) major depressive disorders (single episode or recurrent);

(E) schizoaffective disorders (bipolar or depressive);

(F) pervasive developmental disorders;

(G) obsessive-compulsive disorders;

(H) depression in childhood and adolescence;

(I) panic disorder;

(J) post-traumatic stress disorders (acute, chronic, or with delayed onset); and

(K) anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

(3) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment of serious mental illness shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for serous mental illness, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process.

(4) A group health benefit plan:

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the following treatment of mental illness in each calendar year:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906), 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A);

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan; and

(C) shall include the same amount limits, deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance factors for serious mental illness as for physical illness.

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(7) This Section shall not be interpreted to require a group health benefit plan to provide coverage for treatment of:

(A) an addiction to a controlled substance or cannabis that is used in violation of law; or

(B) mental illness resulting from the use of a controlled substance or cannabis in violation of law.

(8) (Blank).

(c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for those individuals covered under Section 356z.15 356z.14 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-972, eff. 9-22-08; 95-973, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(215 ILCS 5/451) (from Ch. 73, par. 1063)

Sec. 451. Companies not subject to Code. This Code shall not apply to companies now or hereafter organized or transacting business under the Title Insurance Act, or Act amendatory thereof, supplementary thereto, or in replacement thereof; nor to corporations now or hereafter organized and transacting business under "An Act to provide for the incorporation and regulation of nonprofit hospital service corporations" approved July 6, 1935, or Act amendatory thereof or supplementary thereto; nor shall any part of this Code other than Articles X, XI, XIII, and XXIV apply to companies now or hereafter organized or transacting business under an Act entitled, "An Act relating to local mutual district, county and township insurance companies," approved March 13, 1936, or Act amendatory thereof or supplementary thereto. No domestic company shall be organized under this Code, nor shall any foreign or alien company receive a certificate of authority under this Code, to transact the business of title insurance. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 96-334 are this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly is a statement and clarification of existing law.

(Source: P.A. 96-334, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 400. The Producer Controlled Insurer Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 107/10)

Sec. 10. Applicability. This Act applies to licensed insurers domiciled in this State or domiciled in a state that is not an accredited state having in effect a substantially similar law. All provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, to the extent not superseded superceded by this Act, shall apply to all parties within holding company systems subject to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-1090; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 405. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-833)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 137, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 355.2, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15 356z.14, 356z.17 356z.15, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-639, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-833)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 137, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 355.2, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-639, eff. 1-1-10; 96-833, eff. 6-1-10.)

Section 410. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-833)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15 356z.14, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-833)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1005, eff. 12-12-08; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 95-1049, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-833, eff. 6-1-10.)

Section 415. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 8-103, 19-105, and 19-112 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 16-111.8 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/8-103)

Sec. 8-103. Energy efficiency and demand-response measures.

(a) It is the policy of the State that electric utilities are required to use cost-effective energy efficiency and demand-response measures to reduce delivery load. Requiring investment in cost-effective energy efficiency and demand-response measures will reduce direct and indirect costs to consumers by decreasing environmental impacts and by avoiding or delaying the need for new generation, transmission, and distribution infrastructure. It serves the public interest to allow electric utilities to recover costs for reasonably and prudently incurred expenses for energy efficiency and demand-response measures. As used in this Section, "cost-effective" means that the measures satisfy the total resource cost test. The low-income measures described in subsection (f)(4) of this Section shall not be required to meet the total resource cost test. For purposes of this Section, the terms "energy-efficiency", "demand-response", "electric utility", and "total resource cost test" shall have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Power Agency Act. For purposes of this Section, the amount per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this Section, the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation estimated amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on-taxes.

(b) Electric utilities shall implement cost-effective energy efficiency measures to meet the following incremental annual energy savings goals:

(1) 0.2% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2008;

(2) 0.4% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2009;

(3) 0.6% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2010;

(4) 0.8% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2011;

(5) 1% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2012;

(6) 1.4% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2013;

(7) 1.8% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2014; and

(8) 2% of energy delivered in the year commencing June 1, 2015 and each year thereafter.

(c) Electric utilities shall implement cost-effective demand-response measures to reduce peak demand by 0.1% over the prior year for eligible retail customers, as defined in Section 16-111.5 of this Act, and for customers that elect hourly service from the utility pursuant to Section 16-107 of this Act, provided those customers have not been declared competitive. This requirement commences June 1, 2008 and continues for 10 years.

(d) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, an electric utility shall reduce the amount of energy efficiency and demand-response measures implemented in any single year by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average increase in the amounts paid by retail customers in connection with electric service due to the cost of those measures to:

(1) in 2008, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(2) in 2009, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2008 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(3) in 2010, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007;

(4) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007; and

(5) thereafter, the amount of energy efficiency and demand-response measures implemented for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these measures included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007 or the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these measures in 2011.

No later than June 30, 2011, the Commission shall review the limitation on the amount of energy efficiency and demand-response measures implemented pursuant to this Section and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the procurement of energy efficiency and demand-response measures.

(e) Electric utilities shall be responsible for overseeing the design, development, and filing of energy efficiency and demand-response plans with the Commission. Electric utilities shall implement 100% of the demand-response measures in the plans. Electric utilities shall implement 75% of the energy efficiency measures approved by the Commission, and may, as part of that implementation, outsource various aspects of program development and implementation. The remaining 25% of those energy efficiency measures approved by the Commission shall be implemented by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and must be designed in conjunction with the utility and the filing process. The Department may outsource development and implementation of energy efficiency measures. A minimum of 10% of the entire portfolio of cost-effective energy efficiency measures shall be procured from units of local government, municipal corporations, school districts, and community college districts. The Department shall coordinate the implementation of these measures.

The apportionment of the dollars to cover the costs to implement the Department's share of the portfolio of energy efficiency measures shall be made to the Department once the Department has executed grants or contracts for energy efficiency measures and provided supporting documentation for those grants and the contracts to the utility.

The details of the measures implemented by the Department shall be submitted by the Department to the Commission in connection with the utility's filing regarding the energy efficiency and demand-response measures that the utility implements.

A utility providing approved energy efficiency and demand-response measures in the State shall be permitted to recover costs of those measures through an automatic adjustment clause tariff filed with and approved by the Commission. The tariff shall be established outside the context of a general rate case. Each year the Commission shall initiate a review to reconcile any amounts collected with the actual costs and to determine the required adjustment to the annual tariff factor to match annual expenditures.

Each utility shall include, in its recovery of costs, the costs estimated for both the utility's and the Department's implementation of energy efficiency and demand-response measures. Costs collected by the utility for measures implemented by the Department shall be submitted to the Department pursuant to Section 605-323 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois and shall be used by the Department solely for the purpose of implementing these measures. A utility shall not be required to advance any moneys to the Department but only to forward such funds as it has collected. The Department shall report to the Commission on an annual basis regarding the costs actually incurred by the Department in the implementation of the measures. Any changes to the costs of energy efficiency measures as a result of plan modifications shall be appropriately reflected in amounts recovered by the utility and turned over to the Department.

The portfolio of measures, administered by both the utilities and the Department, shall, in combination, be designed to achieve the annual savings targets described in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, as modified by subsection (d) of this Section.

The utility and the Department shall agree upon a reasonable portfolio of measures and determine the measurable corresponding percentage of the savings goals associated with measures implemented by the utility or Department.

No utility shall be assessed a penalty under subsection (f) of this Section for failure to make a timely filing if that failure is the result of a lack of agreement with the Department with respect to the allocation of responsibilities or related costs or target assignments. In that case, the Department and the utility shall file their respective plans with the Commission and the Commission shall determine an appropriate division of measures and programs that meets the requirements of this Section.

If the Department is unable to meet incremental annual performance goals for the portion of the portfolio implemented by the Department, then the utility and the Department shall jointly submit a modified filing to the Commission explaining the performance shortfall and recommending an appropriate course going forward, including any program modifications that may be appropriate in light of the evaluations conducted under item (7) of subsection (f) of this Section. In this case, the utility obligation to collect the Department's costs and turn over those funds to the Department under this subsection (e) shall continue only if the Commission approves the modifications to the plan proposed by the Department.

(f) No later than November 15, 2007, each electric utility shall file an energy efficiency and demand-response plan with the Commission to meet the energy efficiency and demand-response standards for 2008 through 2010. Every 3 years thereafter, each electric utility shall file, no later than October 1, an energy efficiency and demand-response plan with the Commission. If a utility does not file such a plan by October 1 of an applicable year, it shall face a penalty of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed. Each utility's plan shall set forth the utility's proposals to meet the utility's portion of the energy efficiency standards identified in subsection (b) and the demand-response standards identified in subsection (c) of this Section as modified by subsections (d) and (e), taking into account the unique circumstances of the utility's service territory. The Commission shall seek public comment on the utility's plan and shall issue an order approving or disapproving each plan within 3 months after its submission. If the Commission disapproves a plan, the Commission shall, within 30 days, describe in detail the reasons for the disapproval and describe a path by which the utility may file a revised draft of the plan to address the Commission's concerns satisfactorily. If the utility does not refile with the Commission within 60 days, the utility shall be subject to penalties at a rate of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed. This process shall continue, and penalties shall accrue, until the utility has successfully filed a portfolio of energy efficiency and demand-response measures. Penalties shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Trust Fund. In submitting proposed energy efficiency and demand-response plans and funding levels to meet the savings goals adopted by this Act the utility shall:

(1) Demonstrate that its proposed energy efficiency and demand-response measures will achieve the requirements that are identified in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, as modified by subsections (d) and (e).

(2) Present specific proposals to implement new building and appliance standards that have been placed into effect.

(3) Present estimates of the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis associated with the proposed portfolio of measures designed to meet the requirements that are identified in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, as modified by subsections (d) and (e).

(4) Coordinate with the Department to present a portfolio of energy efficiency measures proportionate to the share of total annual utility revenues in Illinois from households at or below 150% of the poverty level. The energy efficiency programs shall be targeted to households with incomes at or below 80% of area median income.

(5) Demonstrate that its overall portfolio of energy efficiency and demand-response measures, not including programs covered by item (4) of this subsection (f), are cost-effective using the total resource cost test and represent a diverse cross-section of opportunities for customers of all rate classes to participate in the programs.

(6) Include a proposed cost-recovery tariff mechanism to fund the proposed energy efficiency and demand-response measures and to ensure the recovery of the prudently and reasonably incurred costs of Commission-approved programs.

(7) Provide for an annual independent evaluation of the performance of the cost-effectiveness of the utility's portfolio of measures and the Department's portfolio of measures, as well as a full review of the 3-year results of the broader net program impacts and, to the extent practical, for adjustment of the measures on a going-forward basis as a result of the evaluations. The resources dedicated to evaluation shall not exceed 3% of portfolio resources in any given year.

(g) No more than 3% of energy efficiency and demand-response program revenue may be allocated for demonstration of breakthrough equipment and devices.

(h) This Section does not apply to an electric utility that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to fewer than 100,000 customers in Illinois.

(i) If, after 2 years, an electric utility fails to meet the efficiency standard specified in subsection (b) of this Section, as modified by subsections (d) and (e), it shall make a contribution to the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program. The combined total liability for failure to meet the goal shall be $1,000,000, which shall be assessed as follows: a large electric utility shall pay $665,000, and a medium electric utility shall pay $335,000. If, after 3 years, an electric utility fails to meet the efficiency standard specified in subsection (b) of this Section, as modified by subsections (d) and (e), it shall make a contribution to the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program. The combined total liability for failure to meet the goal shall be $1,000,000, which shall be assessed as follows: a large electric utility shall pay $665,000, and a medium electric utility shall pay $335,000. In addition, the responsibility for implementing the energy efficiency measures of the utility making the payment shall be transferred to the Illinois Power Agency if, after 3 years, or in any subsequent 3-year period, the utility fails to meet the efficiency standard specified in subsection (b) of this Section, as modified by subsections (d) and (e). The Agency shall implement a competitive procurement program to procure resources necessary to meet the standards specified in this Section as modified by subsections (d) and (e), with costs for those resources to be recovered in the same manner as products purchased through the procurement plan as provided in Section 16-111.5. The Director shall implement this requirement in connection with the procurement plan as provided in Section 16-111.5.

For purposes of this Section, (i) a "large electric utility" is an electric utility that, on December 31, 2005, served more than 2,000,000 electric customers in Illinois; (ii) a "medium electric utility" is an electric utility that, on December 31, 2005, served 2,000,000 or fewer but more than 100,000 electric customers in Illinois; and (iii) Illinois electric utilities that are affiliated by virtue of a common parent company are considered a single electric utility.

(j) If, after 3 years, or any subsequent 3-year period, the Department fails to implement the Department's share of energy efficiency measures required by the standards in subsection (b), then the Illinois Power Agency may assume responsibility for and control of the Department's share of the required energy efficiency measures. The Agency shall implement a competitive procurement program to procure resources necessary to meet the standards specified in this Section, with the costs of these resources to be recovered in the same manner as provided for the Department in this Section.

(k) No electric utility shall be deemed to have failed to meet the energy efficiency standards to the extent any such failure is due to a failure of the Department or the Agency.

(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-33, eff. 7-10-09; 96-159, eff. 8-10-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-111.8)

Sec. 16-111.8. Automatic adjustment clause tariff; uncollectibles.

(a) An electric utility shall be permitted, at its election, to recover through an automatic adjustment clause tariff the incremental difference between its actual uncollectible amount as set forth in Account 904 in the utility's most recent annual FERC Form 1 and the uncollectible amount included in the utility's rates for the period reported in such annual FERC Form 1. The Commission may, in a proceeding to review a general rate case filed subsequent to the effective date of the tariff established under this Section, prospectively switch from using the actual uncollectible amount set forth in Account 904 to using net write-offs in such tariff, but only if net write-offs are also used to determine the utility's uncollectible amount in rates. In the event the Commission requires such a change, it shall be made effective at the beginning of the first full calendar year after the new rates approved in such proceeding are first placed in effect and an adjustment shall be made, if necessary, to ensure the change does not result in double-recovery or unrecovered uncollectible amounts for any year. For purposes of this Section, "uncollectible amount" means the expense set forth in Account 904 of the utility's FERC Form 1 or cost of net write-offs as appropriate. In the event the utility's rates change during the period of time reported in its most recent annual FERC Form 1, the uncollectible amount included in the utility's rates during such period of time for purposes of this Section will be a weighted average, based on revenues earned during such period by the utility under each set of rates, of the uncollectible amount included in the utility's rates at the beginning of such period and at the end of such period. This difference may either be a charge or a credit to customers depending on whether the uncollectible amount is more or less than the uncollectible amount then included in the utility's rates.

(b) The tariff may be established outside the context of a general rate case filing and shall specify the terms of any applicable audit. The Commission shall review and by order approve, or approve as modified, the proposed tariff within 180 days after the date on which it is filed. Charges and credits under the tariff shall be allocated to the appropriate customer class or classes. In addition, customers who purchase their electric supply from an alternative retail electric supplier shall not be charged by the utility for uncollectible amounts associated with electric supply provided by the utility to the utility's customers, provided that nothing in this Section is intended to affect or alter the rights and obligations imposed pursuant to Section 16-118 of this Act and any Commission order issued thereunder. Upon approval of the tariff, the utility shall, based on the 2008 FERC Form 1, apply the appropriate credit or charge based on the full year 2008 amounts for the remainder of the 2010 calendar year. Starting with the 2009 FERC Form 1 reporting period and each subsequent period, the utility shall apply the appropriate credit or charge over a 12-month period beginning with the June billing period and ending with the May billing period, with the first such billing period beginning June 2010.

(c) The approved tariff shall provide that the utility shall file a petition with the Commission annually, no later than August 31st, seeking initiation of an annual review to reconcile all amounts collected with the actual uncollectible amount in the prior period. As part of its review, the Commission shall verify that the utility collects no more and no less than its actual uncollectible amount in each applicable FERC Form 1 reporting period. The Commission shall review the prudence and reasonableness of the utility's actions to pursue minimization and collection of uncollectibles which shall include, at a minimum, the 6 enumerated criteria set forth in this Section. The Commission shall determine any required adjustments and may include suggestions for prospective changes in current practices. Nothing in this Section or the implementing tariffs shall affect or alter the electric utility's existing obligation to pursue collection of uncollectibles or the electric utility's right to disconnect service. A utility that has in effect a tariff authorized by this Section shall pursue minimization of and collection of uncollectibles through the following activities, including, but not limited to:

(1) identifying customers with late payments;

(2) contacting the customers in an effort to obtain payment;

(3) providing delinquent customers with information about possible options, including payment plans and assistance programs;

(4) serving disconnection notices;

(5) implementing disconnections based on the level of uncollectibles; and

(6) pursuing collection activities based on the level of uncollectibles.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require a utility to immediately disconnect service for nonpayment.

(Source: P.A. 96-33, eff. 7-10-09.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-111.9)

Sec. 16-111.9 16-111.8. Rate relief; electricity suppliers. On and after August 14, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-533) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any electric utility providing rate relief pursuant to Section 16-111.5A of this Act shall not deem any residential or non-residential customer to be ineligible to receive that relief solely based upon that customer's purchase of electricity from a supplier other than that electric utility at the time the rate relief is to be credited to that customer. Nothing in this Section shall entitle customers of an electric utility that had been previously deemed ineligible prior to August 14, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-533) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly to become eligible for rate relief credits.

(Source: P.A. 96-533, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(220 ILCS 5/19-105)

Sec. 19-105. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, the following terms shall be defined as set forth in this Section.

"Alternative gas supplier" means every person, cooperative, corporation, municipal corporation, company, association, joint stock company or association, firm, partnership, individual, or other entity, their lessees, trustees, or receivers appointed by any court whatsoever, that offers gas for sale, lease, or in exchange for other value received to one or more customers, or that engages in the furnishing of gas to one or more customers, and shall include affiliated interests of a gas utility, resellers, aggregators and marketers, but shall not include (i) gas utilities (or any agent of the gas utility to the extent the gas utility provides tariffed services to customers through an agent); (ii) public utilities that are owned and operated by any political subdivision, public institution of higher education or municipal corporation of this State, or public utilities that are owned by a political subdivision, public institution of higher education, or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents; (iii) natural gas cooperatives that are not-for-profit corporations operated for the purpose of administering, on a cooperative basis, the furnishing of natural gas for the benefit of their members who are consumers of natural gas; and (iv) the ownership or operation of a facility that sells compressed natural gas at retail to the public for use only as a motor vehicle fuel and the selling of compressed natural gas at retail to the public for use only as a motor vehicle fuel.

"Gas utility" means a public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of this Act, that has a franchise, license, permit, or right to furnish or sell gas or transportation services to customers within a service area.

"Residential customer" means a customer who receives gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate or gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit.

"Sales agent" means any employee, agent, independent contractor, consultant, or other person that is engaged by the alternative gas supplier to solicit customers to purchase, enroll in, or contract for alternative gas service on behalf of an alternative gas supplier.

"Service area" means (i) the geographic area within which a gas utility was lawfully entitled to provide gas to customers as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and includes (ii) the location of any customer to which the gas utility was lawfully providing gas utility services on such effective date.

"Single billing" means the combined billing of the services provided by both a natural gas utility and an alternative gas supplier to any customer who has enrolled in a customer choice program.

"Small commercial customer" means a nonresidential retail customer of a natural gas utility who consumed 5,000 or fewer therms of natural gas during the previous year; provided that any alternative gas supplier may remove the customer from designation as a "small commercial customer" if the customer consumes more than 5,000 therms of natural gas in any calendar year after becoming a customer of the alternative gas supplier. In determining whether a customer has consumed 5,000 or fewer therms of natural gas during the previous year, usage by the same commercial customer shall be aggregated to include usage at the same premises even if measured by more than one meter, and to include usage at multiple premises. Nothing in this Section creates an affirmative obligation on a gas utility to monitor or inform customers or alternative gas suppliers as to a customer's status as a small commercial customer as that term is defined herein. Nothing in this Section relieves a gas utility from any obligation to provide information upon request to a customer, alternative gas supplier, the Commission, or others necessary to determine whether a customer meets the classification of small commercial customers as that term is defined herein.

"Tariffed service" means a service provided to customers by a gas utility as defined by its rates on file with the Commission pursuant to the provisions of Article IX of this Act.

"Transportation services" means those services provided by the gas utility that are necessary in order for the storage, transmission and distribution systems to function so that customers located in the gas utility's service area can receive gas from suppliers other than the gas utility and shall include, without limitation, standard metering and billing services.

(Source: P.A. 95-1051, eff. 4-10-09; 96-435, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-4-09.)

(220 ILCS 5/19-112)

Sec. 19-112. Managerial resources.

(a) An alternative gas supplier must maintain sufficient managerial resources and abilities to provide the service for which it has a certificate of service authority. In determining the level of managerial resources and abilities that the alternative gas supplier must demonstrate, the Commission shall consider, in addition to the requirements in Section 19-110(e)(1), the following:

(1) complaints to the Commission by consumers regarding the alternative gas supplier, including those that reflect on the alternative gas supplier's ability to properly manage solicitation and authorization; and

(2) the alternative gas supplier's involvement in the Commission's consumer complaint process, including the resources the alternative gas supplier dedicates to the process and the alternative gas supplier's ability to manage the issues raised by complaints, and the resolutions of the complaints.

(b) The provisions of this Section shall apply only to alternative gas suppliers serving or seeking to serve residential or small commercial customers and only to the extent such alternative gas suppliers provide services to residential or small commercial customers, unless otherwise noted.

(Source: P.A. 95-1051, eff. 4-10-09; revised 4-17-09.)

Section 420. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/9) (from Ch. 111, par. 2309)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 9. Qualifications of Applicants for Dental Licenses. The Department shall require that each applicant for a license to practice dentistry shall:

(a) (Blank).

(b) Be at least 21 years of age and of good moral character.

(c) (1) Present satisfactory evidence of completion of dental education by graduation from a dental college or school in the United States or Canada approved by the Department. The Department shall not approve any dental college or school which does not require at least (A) 60 semester hours of collegiate credit or the equivalent in acceptable subjects from a college or university before admission, and (B) completion of at least 4 academic years of instruction or the equivalent in an approved dental college or school before graduation; or

(2) Present satisfactory evidence of completion of dental education by graduation from a dental college or school outside the United States or Canada and provide satisfactory evidence that:

(A) (blank);

(B) the applicant has completed a minimum of 2 academic years of general dental clinical training at a dental college or school in the United States or Canada approved by the Department, however, an accredited advanced dental education program approved by the Department of no less than 2 years may be substituted for the 2 academic years of general dental clinical training and an applicant who was enrolled for not less than one year in an approved clinical program prior to January 1, 1993 at an Illinois dental college or school shall be required to complete only that program; and

(C) the applicant has received certification from the dean of an approved dental college or school in the United States or Canada or the program director of an approved advanced dental education program stating that the applicant has achieved the same level of scientific knowledge and clinical competence as required of all graduates of the college, school, or advanced dental education program.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent either the Department or any dental college or school from establishing higher standards than specified in this Act.

(d) (Blank). In determining professional capacity under this Section, any individual who has not been actively engaged in the practice of dentistry, has not been a dental student, or has not been engaged in a formal program of dental education during the 5 years immediately preceding the filing of an application may be required to complete such additional testing, training, or remedial education as the Board may deem necessary in order to establish the applicant's present capacity to practice dentistry with reasonable judgment, skill, and safety.

(e) Present satisfactory evidence that the applicant has passed both parts of the National Board Dental Examination administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations and has successfully completed an examination conducted by one of the following regional testing services: the Central Regional Dental Testing Service, Inc. (CRDTS), the Southern Regional Testing Agency, Inc. (SRTA), the Western Regional Examining Board (WREB), or the North East Regional Board (NERB). For purposes of this Section, successful completion shall mean that the applicant has achieved a minimum passing score as determined by the applicable regional testing service. (f) The Secretary of the Department may suspend a regional testing service under this subsection (e) of this Section if, after proper notice and hearing, it is established that (i) the integrity of the examination has been breached so as to make future test results unreliable or (ii) the test is fundamentally deficient in testing clinical competency.

In determining professional capacity under this Section, any individual who has not been actively engaged in the practice of dentistry, has not been a dental student, or has not been engaged in a formal program of dental education during the 5 years immediately preceding the filing of an application may be required to complete such additional testing, training, or remedial education as the Board may deem necessary in order to establish the applicant's present capacity to practice dentistry with reasonable judgment, skill, and safety.

(Source: P.A. 96-14, eff. 6-19-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 425. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2010)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probationary status, refuse to renew, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or visiting professor permit of any person issued under this Act to practice medicine, or to treat human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; or

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control; or

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) The conviction of a felony in this or any other jurisdiction, except as otherwise provided in subsection B of this Section, whether or not related to practice under this Act, or the entry of a guilty or nolo contendere plea to a felony charge.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Disciplinary action of another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Medical Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Wilfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra, as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice nurse.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Medical Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Medical Disciplinary Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physician or physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Disciplinary Board. The Medical Disciplinary Board or the Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until such time as the individual submits to the examination if the Disciplinary Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause. If the Disciplinary Board finds a physician unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Medical Disciplinary Fund.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or visiting permit of any person issued under this Act to practice medicine or to treat human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery, who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or visiting permit is revoked under this subsection B of Section 22 of this Act shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Medical Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-608, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 430. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 50-15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/50-15) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-15. Policy; application of Act.

(a) For the protection of life and the promotion of health, and the prevention of illness and communicable diseases, any person practicing or offering to practice advanced, professional, or practical nursing in Illinois shall submit evidence that he or she is qualified to practice, and shall be licensed as provided under this Act. No person shall practice or offer to practice advanced, professional, or practical nursing in Illinois or use any title, sign, card or device to indicate that such a person is practicing professional or practical nursing unless such person has been licensed under the provisions of this Act.

(b) This Act does not prohibit the following:

(1) The practice of nursing in Federal employment in the discharge of the employee's duties by a person who is employed by the United States government or any bureau, division or agency thereof and is a legally qualified and licensed nurse of another state or territory and not in conflict with Sections 50-50, 55-10, 60-10, and 70-5 of this Act.

(2) Nursing that is included in the program of study by students enrolled in programs of nursing or in current nurse practice update courses approved by the Department.

(3) The furnishing of nursing assistance in an emergency.

(4) The practice of nursing by a nurse who holds an active license in another state when providing services to patients in Illinois during a bonafide emergency or in immediate preparation for or during interstate transit.

(5) The incidental care of the sick by members of the family, domestic servants or housekeepers, or care of the sick where treatment is by prayer or spiritual means.

(6) Persons from being employed as unlicensed assistive personnel in private homes, long term care facilities, nurseries, hospitals or other institutions.

(7) The practice of practical nursing by one who is a licensed practical nurse under the laws of another U.S. jurisdiction and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as a licensed practical nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.

(8) The practice of advanced practice nursing by one who is an advanced practice nurse under the laws of another state, territory of the United States, or country and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as an advanced practice nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.

(9) The practice of professional nursing by one who is a registered professional nurse under the laws of another state, territory of the United States or country and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as a registered professional nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under Section 55-10, until (1) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (2) the withdrawal of such application, or (3) the denial of such application by the Department.

(10) The practice of professional nursing that is included in a program of study by one who is a registered professional nurse under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or foreign country, territory or province and who is enrolled in a graduate nursing education program or a program for the completion of a baccalaureate nursing degree in this State, which includes clinical supervision by faculty as determined by the educational institution offering the program and the health care organization where the practice of nursing occurs.

(11) Any person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which she or he is licensed.

(12) Delegation to authorized direct care staff trained under Section 15.4 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act consistent with the policies of the Department.

(13) The practice, services, or activities of persons practicing the specified occupations set forth in subsection (a) of, and pursuant to a licensing exemption granted in subsection (b) or (d) of, Section 2105-350 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, but only for so long as the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games Professional Licensure Exemption Law is operable.

(14) (13) County correctional personnel from delivering prepackaged medication for self-administration to an individual detainee in a correctional facility.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician, dentist, or podiatrist to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-516, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 435. The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 24 as follows:

(225 ILCS 80/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 3924)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 24. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated hereunder.

(2) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty to any crime under the laws of any U.S. jurisdiction thereof that is a felony or that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license.

(4) Professional incompetence or gross negligence in the practice of optometry.

(5) Gross malpractice, prima facie evidence of which may be a conviction or judgment of malpractice in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department that has been sent by certified or registered mail to the licensee's last known address.

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

(11) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 24.2 of this Act.

(12) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(13) Abandonment of a patient.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(15) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(16) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(17) Solicitation of professional services other than permitted advertising.

(18) Failure to provide a patient with a copy of his or her record or prescription in accordance with federal law.

(19) Conviction by any court of competent jurisdiction, either within or without this State, of any violation of any law governing the practice of optometry, conviction in this or another State of any crime that is a felony under the laws of this State or conviction of a felony in a federal court, if the Department determines, after investigation, that such person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.

(20) A finding that licensure has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(21) Continued practice by a person knowingly having an infectious or contagious disease.

(22) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or a neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(23) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on his or her license.

(24) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(25) Maintaining a professional relationship with any person, firm, or corporation when the optometrist knows, or should know, that such person, firm, or corporation is violating this Act.

(26) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a client or patient in such manner as to exploit the patient or client for financial gain of the licensee.

(27) Using the title "Doctor" or its abbreviation without further qualifying that title or abbreviation with the word "optometry" or "optometrist".

(28) Use by a licensed optometrist of the word "infirmary", "hospital", "school", "university", in English or any other language, in connection with the place where optometry may be practiced or demonstrated.

(29) Continuance of an optometrist in the employ of any person, firm or corporation, or as an assistant to any optometrist or optometrists, directly or indirectly, after his or her employer or superior has been found guilty of violating or has been enjoined from violating the laws of the State of Illinois relating to the practice of optometry, when the employer or superior persists in that violation.

(30) The performance of optometric service in conjunction with a scheme or plan with another person, firm or corporation known to be advertising in a manner contrary to this Act or otherwise violating the laws of the State of Illinois concerning the practice of optometry.

(31) Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having participated in approved continuing education programs as determined by the Board and approved by the Secretary. Exceptions for extreme hardships are to be defined by the rules of the Department.

(32) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of optometry, including, but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(33) Gross and willful overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to filing false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(34) In the absence of good reasons to the contrary, failure to perform a minimum eye examination as required by the rules of the Department.

(35) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Board upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or certification pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical psychologists shall be those specifically designated by the Board. The Board or the Department may order the examining physician or clinical psychologist to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or clinical psychologist. Eye examinations may be provided by a licensed optometrist. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of a license until such time as the individual submits to the examination if the Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board shall require such individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians or clinical psychologists approved or designated by the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice, or in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Board may recommend to the Department to file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file a complaint to suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. Any individual whose license was granted pursuant to this Act, or continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised, subject to such conditions, terms, or restrictions, who shall fail to comply with such conditions, terms, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(Source: P.A. 96-378, eff. 1-1-10; 96-608, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 440. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 84/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 15. Exceptions. This Act shall not be construed to prohibit:

(1) a physician licensed in this State from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed;

(2) a person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed;

(3) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics by a person who is employed by the federal government or any bureau, division, or agency of the federal government while in the discharge of the employee's official duties;

(4) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics by (i) a student enrolled in a school of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics, (ii) a resident continuing his or her clinical education in a residency accredited by the National Commission on Orthotic and Prosthetic Education, or (iii) a student in a qualified work experience program or internship in pedorthics;

(5) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics by one who is an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist licensed under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or another country and has applied in writing to the Department, in a form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist and who is qualified to receive the license under Section 40 until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of the written application, (ii) the withdrawal of the application, or (iii) the denial of the application by the Department;

(6) a person licensed by this State as a physical therapist, occupational therapist, or advanced practice nurse from engaging in his or her profession; or

(7) a physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 1997 from engaging in his or her profession.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 445. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatrists, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) drug regimen review; (6) drug or drug-related research; (7) the provision of patient counseling; (8) the practice of telepharmacy; (9) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (10) medication therapy management; and (11) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatrist, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity, (5) directions for use, (6) prescriber's name, address and signature, and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse. "Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician. "Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium. "Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 96-673, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatrists, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) drug regimen review; (6) drug or drug-related research; (7) the provision of patient counseling; (8) the practice of telepharmacy; (9) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (10) medication therapy management; and (11) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatrist, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity, (5) directions for use, (6) prescriber's name, address and signature, and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the MR/DD Community Care Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse. "Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician. "Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium. "Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-673, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(225 ILCS 85/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 4135)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 15. Pharmacy requirements.

(1) It shall be unlawful for the owner of any pharmacy, as defined in this Act, to operate or conduct the same, or to allow the same to be operated or conducted, unless:

(a) It has a licensed pharmacist, authorized to practice pharmacy in this State under the provisions of this Act, on duty whenever the practice of pharmacy is conducted;

(b) Security provisions for all drugs and devices, as determined by rule of the Department, are provided during the absence from the licensed pharmacy of all licensed pharmacists. Maintenance of security provisions is the responsibility of the licensed pharmacist in charge; and

(c) The pharmacy is licensed under this Act to conduct the practice of pharmacy in any and all forms from the physical address of the pharmacy's primary inventory where U.S. mail is delivered. If a facility, company, or organization operates multiple pharmacies from multiple physical addresses, a separate pharmacy license is required for each different physical address.

(2) (d) The Department may allow a pharmacy that is not located at the same location as its home pharmacy and at which pharmacy services are provided during an emergency situation, as defined by rule, to be operated as an emergency remote pharmacy. An emergency remote pharmacy operating under this subsection (2) (d) shall operate under the license of the home pharmacy.

(3) The Secretary may waive the requirement for a pharmacist to be on duty at all times for State facilities not treating human ailments. This waiver of the requirement remains in effect until it is rescinded by the Secretary and the Department provides written notice of the rescission to the State facility.

(4) It shall be unlawful for any person, who is not a licensed pharmacy or health care facility, to purport to be such or to use in name, title, or sign designating, or in connection with that place of business, any of the words: "pharmacy", "pharmacist", "pharmacy department", "apothecary", "druggist", "drug", "drugs", "medicines", "medicine store", "drug sundries", "prescriptions filled", or any list of words indicating that drugs are compounded or sold to the lay public, or prescriptions are dispensed therein. Each day during which, or a part which, such representation is made or appears or such a sign is allowed to remain upon or in such a place of business shall constitute a separate offense under this Act.

(5) The holder of any license or certificate of registration shall conspicuously display it in the pharmacy in which he is engaged in the practice of pharmacy. The pharmacist in charge shall conspicuously display his name in such pharmacy. The pharmacy license shall also be conspicuously displayed.

(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 96-219, eff. 8-10-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 450. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 95/7.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 7.5. Prescriptions; written supervision agreements; prescriptive authority.

(a) A written supervision agreement is required for all physician assistants to practice in the State.

(1) A written supervision agreement shall describe the working relationship of the physician assistant with the supervising physician and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the physician assistant. The written supervision agreement shall be defined to promote the exercise of professional judgment by the physician assistant commensurate with his or her education and experience. The services to be provided by the physician assistant shall be services that the supervising physician is authorized to and generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice. The written supervision agreement need not describe the exact steps that a physician assistant must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require the presence of the supervising physician as the procedures are being performed. The supervision relationship under a written supervision agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician at all times at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the supervising physician in person or by telecommunications in accordance with established written guidelines as set forth in the written supervision agreement.

(2) The written supervision agreement shall be adequate if a physician does each of the following:

(A) Participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines with the physician assistant and he or she periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders in accordance with accepted standards of medical practice and physician assistant practice.

(B) Meets in person with the physician assistant at least once a month to provide supervision.

(3) A copy of the signed, written supervision agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the physician assistant and the supervising physician.

(4) A physician assistant shall inform each supervising physician of all written supervision agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any supervising physician upon request.

(b) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as Schedule III through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The supervising physician must have a valid, current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration with the Drug Enforcement Agency to delegate the authority to prescribe controlled substances.

(1) To prescribe Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances under this Section, a physician assistant must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license. Medication orders issued by a physician assistant shall be reviewed periodically by the supervising physician.

(2) The supervising physician shall file with the Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority to a physician assistant and termination of delegation, specifying the authority delegated or terminated. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances, the physician assistant shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by the supervising physician to a nurse or other appropriately trained persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(3) In addition to the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, a supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate authority to a physician assistant to prescribe Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(A) No more than 5 Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage may be delegated.

(B) Any delegation must be controlled substances that the supervising physician prescribes.

(C) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day oral dosage, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons.

(Source: P.A. 96-268, eff. 8-11-09; 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 455. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 7011)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 11. Practice pending licensure.. A person holding the degree of Doctor of Veterinary Medicine, or its equivalent, from an accredited college of veterinary medicine, and who has applied in writing to the Department for a license to practice veterinary medicine and surgery in any of its branches, and who has fulfilled the requirements of Section 8 of this Act, with the exception of receipt of notification of his or her examination results, may practice under the direct supervision of a veterinarian who is licensed in this State, until: (1) the applicant has been notified of his or her failure to pass the examination authorized by the Department; (2) the applicant has withdrawn his or her application; (3) the applicant has received a license from the Department after successfully passing the examination authorized by the Department; or (4) the applicant has been notified by the Department to cease and desist from practicing.

The applicant shall perform only those acts that may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her employment and those acts shall be performed under the direction of a supervising veterinarian who is licensed in this State. The applicant shall not be entitled to otherwise engage in the practice of veterinary medicine until fully licensed in this State.

The Department shall immediately notify, by certified mail, the supervising veterinarian employing the applicant and the applicant that the applicant shall immediately cease and desist from practicing if the applicant (1) practices outside his or her employment under a licensed veterinarian; (2) violates any provision of this Act; or (3) becomes ineligible for licensure under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-571, eff. 8-18-09; 96-638, eff. 8-24-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 460. The Perfusionist Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 90 and 170 as follows:

(225 ILCS 125/90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 90. Fees; deposit of fees and fines..

(a) The Department shall set by rule fees for the administration of this Act, including, but not limited to, fees for initial and renewal licensure and restoration of a license. The fees shall be nonrefundable.

(b) All of the fees and fines collected under this Act shall be deposited into the General Professions Dedicated Fund. The monies deposited into the Fund shall be appropriated to the Department for expenses of the Department in the administration of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; revised 11-3-09.)

(225 ILCS 125/170)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 170. Hearing officer. The Secretary shall have the authority to appoint an attorney licensed to practice law in this State to serve as the hearing officer in any action for refusal to issue, restore, or renew a license or to discipline a licensee. The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the hearing. A Board member or members may attend the hearing. The hearing officer shall report his or her findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Board. The Board shall have 60 days from receipt of the report to review the report of the hearing officer and to present its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Secretary and to all parties to the proceeding. If the Board fails to present its report within the 60-day period, the respondent may request in writing a direct appeal to the Secretary, in which case the Secretary shall, within 7 calendar days after such request, issue an order directing the Board to issue its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Secretary within 30 calendar days of such order. If the Board fails to issue its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations within that time frame to the Secretary after the entry of such order, the Secretary shall, within 30 calendar days thereafter, issue an order based upon the report of the hearing officer and the record of the proceedings in accordance with such order. If (i) a direct appeal is requested, (ii) the Board fails to issue its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations within its 30-day mandate from the Secretary or the Secretary fails to order the Board to do so, and (iii) the Secretary fails to issue an order within 30 calendar days thereafter, then the hearing officer's report is deemed accepted and a final decision of the Secretary. Notwithstanding the foregoing, should the Secretary, upon review, determine that substantial justice has not been done in the revocation, suspension, or refusal to issue or renew a license, or other disciplinary action taken per the result of the entry of such hearing officer's report, the Secretary may order a rehearing by the same or another examiner.. If the Secretary disagrees with the recommendation of the Board or hearing officer, he or she may issue an order in contravention of the recommendation.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 465. The Elevator Safety and Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 312/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2013)

Sec. 10. Applicability.

(a) This Act covers the construction, operation, inspection, testing, maintenance, alteration, and repair of the following equipment, its associated parts, and its hoistways (except as modified by subsection (c) of this Section):

(1) Hoisting and lowering mechanisms equipped with a car or platform, which move between 2 or more landings. This equipment includes, but is not limited to, the following (also see ASME A17.1, ASME A17.3, and ASME A18.1):

(A) Elevators.

(B) Platform lifts and stairway chair lifts.

(2) Power driven stairways and walkways for carrying persons between landings. This equipment includes, but is not limited to, the following (also see ASME A17.1 and ASME A17.3):

(A) Escalators.

(B) Moving walks.

(3) Hoisting and lowering mechanisms equipped with a car, which serves 2 or more landings and is restricted to the carrying of material by its limited size or limited access to the car. This equipment includes, but is not limited to, the following (also see ASME A17.1 and ASME A17.3):

(A) Dumbwaiters.

(B) Material lifts and dumbwaiters with automatic transfer devices.

(b) This Act covers the construction, operation, inspection, maintenance, alteration, and repair of automatic guided transit vehicles on guideways with an exclusive right-of-way. This equipment includes, but is not limited to, automated people movers (also see ASCE 21).

(c) This Act does not apply to the following equipment:

(1) Material hoists within the scope of ANSI A10.5.

(2) Manlifts within the scope of ASME A90.1.

(3) Mobile scaffolds, towers, and platforms within the scope of ANSI A92.

(4) Powered platforms and equipment for exterior and interior maintenance within the scope of ANSI 120.1.

(5) Conveyors and related equipment within the scope of ASME B20.1.

(6) Cranes, derricks, hoists, hooks, jacks, and slings within the scope of ASME B30.

(7) Industrial trucks within the scope of ASME B56.

(8) Portable equipment, except for portable escalators that are covered by ANSI A17.1.

(9) Tiering or piling machines used to move materials to and from storage located and operating entirely within one story.

(10) Equipment for feeding or positioning materials at machine tools, printing presses, etc.

(11) Skip or furnace hoists.

(12) Wharf ramps.

(13) Railroad car lifts or dumpers.

(14) Line jacks, false cars, shafters, moving platforms, and similar equipment used for installing an elevator by a contractor licensed in this State.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Conveyances located in a private residence not accessible to the public.

(17) Special purpose personnel elevators within the scope of ASME A17.1 and used only by authorized personnel.

(18) Personnel hoists within the scope of ANSI A10.4.

(d) This Act does not apply to a municipality with a population over 500,000.

(Source: P.A. 95-573, eff. 8-31-07; 96-54, eff. 7-23-09; 96-342, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 470. The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 330/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 3255)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 5. Practice of land surveying defined. Any person who practices in Illinois as a professional land surveyor who renders, offers to render, or holds himself or herself out as able to render, or perform any service, the adequate performance of which involves the special knowledge of the art and application of the principles of the accurate and precise measurement of length, angle, elevation or volume, mathematics, the related physical and applied sciences, and the relevant requirements of law, all of which are acquired by education, training, experience, and examination. Any one or combination of the following practices constitutes the practice of land surveying:

(a) Establishing or reestablishing, locating, defining, and making or monumenting land boundaries or title or real property lines and the platting of lands and subdivisions;

(b) Establishing the area or volume of any portion of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace with respect to boundary lines, determining the configuration or contours of any portion of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace or the location of fixed objects thereon, except as performed by photogrammetric methods or except when the level of accuracy required is less than the level of accuracy required by the National Society of Professional Surveyors Model Standards and Practice;

(c) Preparing descriptions for the determination of title or real property rights to any portion or volume of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace involving the lengths and direction of boundary lines, areas, parts of platted parcels or the contours of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace;

(d) Labeling, designating, naming, or otherwise identifying legal lines or land title lines of the United States Rectangular System or any subdivision thereof on any plat, map, exhibit, photograph, photographic composite, or mosaic or photogrammetric map of any portion of the earth's surface for the purpose of recording the same in the Office of Recorder in any county;

(e) Any act or combination of acts that would be viewed as offering professional land surveying services including:

(1) setting monuments which have the appearance of or for the express purpose of marking land boundaries, either directly or as an accessory;

(2) providing any sketch, map, plat, report, monument record, or other document which indicates land boundaries and monuments, or accessory monuments thereto, except that if the sketch, map, plat, report, monument record, or other document is a copy of an original prepared by a Professional Land Surveyor, and if proper reference to that fact be made on that document;

(3) performing topographic surveys, with the exception of a licensed professional engineer knowledgeable in topographical surveys that performs a topographical survey specific to his or her design project. A licensed professional engineer may not, however, offer topographic surveying services that are independent of his or her specific design project; or

(4) locating, relocating, establishing, re-establishing, retracing, laying out, or staking of the location, alignment, or elevation of any proposed improvements whose location is dependant upon property lines;

(f) Determining the horizontal or vertical position or state plane coordinates for any monument or reference point that marks a title or real property line, boundary, or corner, or to set, reset, or replace any monument or reference point on any title or real property;

(g) Creating, preparing, or modifying electronic or computerized data or maps, including land information systems and geographic information systems, relative to the performance of activities in items (a), (b), (d), (e), (f), and (h) of this Section, except where electronic means or computerized data is otherwise utilized to integrate, display, represent, or assess the created, prepared, or modified data;

(h) Establishing or adjusting any control network or any geodetic control network or cadastral data as it pertains to items (a) through (g) of this Section together with the assignment of measured values to any United States Rectangular System corners, title or real property corner monuments or geodetic monuments;

(i) Preparing and attesting to the accuracy of a map or plat showing the land boundaries or lines and marks and monuments of the boundaries or of a map or plat showing the boundaries of surface, subsurface, or air rights;

(j) Executing and issuing certificates, endorsements, reports, or plats that portray the horizontal or vertical relationship between existing physical objects or structures and one or more corners, datums, or boundaries of any portion of the earth's surface, subsurface, or airspace;

(k) Acting in direct supervision and control of land surveying activities or acting as a manager in any place of business that solicits, performs, or practices land surveying;

(l) Offering or soliciting to perform any of the services set forth in this Section;

(m) In the performance of any of the foregoing functions, a licensee shall adhere to the standards of professional conduct enumerated in 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1270.57. Nothing contained in this Section imposes upon a person licensed under this Act the responsibility for the performance of any of the foregoing functions unless such person specifically contracts to perform such functions.

(Source: P.A. 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 475. The Auction License Act is amended by changing Section 15-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 407/15-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 15-10. Auction contract. Any auctioneer or auction firm shall not conduct an auction or provide an auction service, unless the auctioneer or auction firm enters into a written auction contract with the seller of any property at auction prior to the date of the auction. Any agreement shall state whether the auction is with reserve or absolute. The agreement shall be signed by the auctioneer or auction firm conducting an auction or providing an auction service and the seller or sellers, or the legal agent of the seller or sellers of the property to be offered at or by auction, and shall include, but not be limited to the following disclosures:

(1) Licensees shall disclose:

(A) the name, license number, business address, and phone number of the auctioneer or auction firm conducting an auction or providing an auction service;

(B) the fee to be paid to the auctioneer or auction firm for conducting an auction or providing an auction service; and

(C) an estimate of the advertising costs that shall be paid by the seller or sellers of property at auction and a disclosure that, if the actual advertising costs exceeds 120% of the estimated advertising cost, the auctioneer or auction firm shall pay the advertising costs that exceed 120% of the estimated advertising costs or shall have the seller or sellers agree in writing to pay for the actual advertising costs in excess of 120% of the estimated advertising costs; and .

(D) the buyer premium and the party to the transaction that receives it.

(2) Sellers shall disclose:

(A) the name, address, and phone number of the seller or sellers or the legal agent of the seller or sellers of property to be sold at auction; and

(B) any mortgage, lien, easement, or encumbrance of which the seller has knowledge on any property or goods to be sold or leased at or by auction.

(Source: P.A. 96-730, eff. 8-25-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 480. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2012)

Sec. 5-10. Application for State certified general real estate appraiser.

(a) Every person who desires to obtain a State certified general real estate appraiser license shall:

(1) apply to the Department on forms provided by the Department accompanied by the required fee;

(2) be at least 18 years of age;

(3) (blank);

(4) personally take and pass an examination authorized by the Department and endorsed by the AQB;

(5) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence to the Department, in Modular Course format, with each module conforming to the Real Property Appraiser Qualification Criteria established and adopted by the AQB, that he or she has successfully completed the prerequisite classroom hours of instruction in appraising as established by the AQB and by rule; and

(6) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence to the Department that he or she has successfully completed the prerequisite experience requirements in appraising as established by AQB and by rule.

(b) Applicants must provide evidence to the Department of (i) holding a Bachelor's degree or higher from an accredited college or university or (ii) successfully passing 30 semester credit hours or the equivalent from an accredited college or university, junior college, or community college in the following subjects:

(1) English composition;

(2) micro economics;

(3) macro economics;

(4) finance;

(5) algebra, geometry, or higher mathematics;

(6) statistics;

(7) introduction to computers-word processing and spreadsheets;

(8) business or real estate law; and

(9) two elective courses in accounting, geography, agricultural economics, business management, or real estate.

If an accredited college or university accepts the College-Level Examination Program (CLEP) examinations and issues a transcript for the exam showing its approval, it will be considered credit for the college course for the purposes of meeting the requirements of this subsection (b) (c).

(Source: P.A. 96-844, eff. 12-23-09; revised 1-4-10.)

Section 485. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/5) (from Ch. 120, par. 2405)

Sec. 5. Gaming Board.

(a) (1) There is hereby established within the Department of Revenue an Illinois Gaming Board which shall have the powers and duties specified in this Act, and all other powers necessary and proper to fully and effectively execute this Act for the purpose of administering, regulating, and enforcing the system of riverboat gambling established by this Act. Its jurisdiction shall extend under this Act to every person, association, corporation, partnership and trust involved in riverboat gambling operations in the State of Illinois.

(2) The Board shall consist of 5 members to be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate, one of whom shall be designated by the Governor to be chairman. Each member shall have a reasonable knowledge of the practice, procedure and principles of gambling operations. Each member shall either be a resident of Illinois or shall certify that he will become a resident of Illinois before taking office. At least one member shall be experienced in law enforcement and criminal investigation, at least one member shall be a certified public accountant experienced in accounting and auditing, and at least one member shall be a lawyer licensed to practice law in Illinois.

(3) The terms of office of the Board members shall be 3 years, except that the terms of office of the initial Board members appointed pursuant to this Act will commence from the effective date of this Act and run as follows: one for a term ending July 1, 1991, 2 for a term ending July 1, 1992, and 2 for a term ending July 1, 1993. Upon the expiration of the foregoing terms, the successors of such members shall serve a term for 3 years and until their successors are appointed and qualified for like terms. Vacancies in the Board shall be filled for the unexpired term in like manner as original appointments. Each member of the Board shall be eligible for reappointment at the discretion of the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

(4) Each member of the Board shall receive $300 for each day the Board meets and for each day the member conducts any hearing pursuant to this Act. Each member of the Board shall also be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the execution of official duties.

(5) No person shall be appointed a member of the Board or continue to be a member of the Board who is, or whose spouse, child or parent is, a member of the board of directors of, or a person financially interested in, any gambling operation subject to the jurisdiction of this Board, or any race track, race meeting, racing association or the operations thereof subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Racing Board. No Board member shall hold any other public office for which he shall receive compensation other than necessary travel or other incidental expenses. No person shall be a member of the Board who is not of good moral character or who has been convicted of, or is under indictment for, a felony under the laws of Illinois or any other state, or the United States.

(6) Any member of the Board may be removed by the Governor for neglect of duty, misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office.

(7) Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of his office, each member of the Board shall take an oath that he will faithfully execute the duties of his office according to the laws of the State and the rules and regulations adopted therewith and shall give bond to the State of Illinois, approved by the Governor, in the sum of $25,000. Every such bond, when duly executed and approved, shall be recorded in the office of the Secretary of State. Whenever the Governor determines that the bond of any member of the Board has become or is likely to become invalid or insufficient, he shall require such member forthwith to renew his bond, which is to be approved by the Governor. Any member of the Board who fails to take oath and give bond within 30 days from the date of his appointment, or who fails to renew his bond within 30 days after it is demanded by the Governor, shall be guilty of neglect of duty and may be removed by the Governor. The cost of any bond given by any member of the Board under this Section shall be taken to be a part of the necessary expenses of the Board.

(8) Upon the request of the Board, the Department shall employ such personnel as may be necessary to carry out the functions of the Board. No person shall be employed to serve the Board who is, or whose spouse, parent or child is, an official of, or has a financial interest in or financial relation with, any operator engaged in gambling operations within this State or any organization engaged in conducting horse racing within this State. Any employee violating these prohibitions shall be subject to termination of employment.

(9) An Administrator shall perform any and all duties that the Board shall assign him. The salary of the Administrator shall be determined by the Board and approved by the Director of the Department and, in addition, he shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses incurred by him in discharge of his official duties. The Administrator shall keep records of all proceedings of the Board and shall preserve all records, books, documents and other papers belonging to the Board or entrusted to its care. The Administrator shall devote his full time to the duties of the office and shall not hold any other office or employment.

(b) The Board shall have general responsibility for the implementation of this Act. Its duties include, without limitation, the following:

(1) To decide promptly and in reasonable order all license applications. Any party aggrieved by an action of the Board denying, suspending, revoking, restricting or refusing to renew a license may request a hearing before the Board. A request for a hearing must be made to the Board in writing within 5 days after service of notice of the action of the Board. Notice of the action of the Board shall be served either by personal delivery or by certified mail, postage prepaid, to the aggrieved party. Notice served by certified mail shall be deemed complete on the business day following the date of such mailing. The Board shall conduct all requested hearings promptly and in reasonable order;

(2) To conduct all hearings pertaining to civil violations of this Act or rules and regulations promulgated hereunder;

(3) To promulgate such rules and regulations as in its judgment may be necessary to protect or enhance the credibility and integrity of gambling operations authorized by this Act and the regulatory process hereunder;

(4) To provide for the establishment and collection of all license and registration fees and taxes imposed by this Act and the rules and regulations issued pursuant hereto. All such fees and taxes shall be deposited into the State Gaming Fund;

(5) To provide for the levy and collection of penalties and fines for the violation of provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. All such fines and penalties shall be deposited into the Education Assistance Fund, created by Public Act 86-0018, of the State of Illinois;

(6) To be present through its inspectors and agents any time gambling operations are conducted on any riverboat for the purpose of certifying the revenue thereof, receiving complaints from the public, and conducting such other investigations into the conduct of the gambling games and the maintenance of the equipment as from time to time the Board may deem necessary and proper;

(7) To review and rule upon any complaint by a licensee regarding any investigative procedures of the State which are unnecessarily disruptive of gambling operations. The need to inspect and investigate shall be presumed at all times. The disruption of a licensee's operations shall be proved by clear and convincing evidence, and establish that: (A) the procedures had no reasonable law enforcement purposes, and (B) the procedures were so disruptive as to unreasonably inhibit gambling operations;

(8) To hold at least one meeting each quarter of the fiscal year. In addition, special meetings may be called by the Chairman or any 2 Board members upon 72 hours written notice to each member. All Board meetings shall be subject to the Open Meetings Act. Three members of the Board shall constitute a quorum, and 3 votes shall be required for any final determination by the Board. The Board shall keep a complete and accurate record of all its meetings. A majority of the members of the Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of any business, for the performance of any duty, or for the exercise of any power which this Act requires the Board members to transact, perform or exercise en banc, except that, upon order of the Board, one of the Board members or an administrative law judge designated by the Board may conduct any hearing provided for under this Act or by Board rule and may recommend findings and decisions to the Board. The Board member or administrative law judge conducting such hearing shall have all powers and rights granted to the Board in this Act. The record made at the time of the hearing shall be reviewed by the Board, or a majority thereof, and the findings and decision of the majority of the Board shall constitute the order of the Board in such case;

(9) To maintain records which are separate and distinct from the records of any other State board or commission. Such records shall be available for public inspection and shall accurately reflect all Board proceedings;

(10) To file a written annual report with the Governor on or before March 1 each year and such additional reports as the Governor may request. The annual report shall include a statement of receipts and disbursements by the Board, actions taken by the Board, and any additional information and recommendations which the Board may deem valuable or which the Governor may request;

(11) (Blank);

(12) To assume responsibility for the administration and enforcement of the Bingo License and Tax Act, the Charitable Games Act, and the Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act if such responsibility is delegated to it by the Director of Revenue; and

(13) To assume responsibility for administration and enforcement of the Video Gaming Act.

(c) The Board shall have jurisdiction over and shall supervise all gambling operations governed by this Act. The Board shall have all powers necessary and proper to fully and effectively execute the provisions of this Act, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) To investigate applicants and determine the eligibility of applicants for licenses and to select among competing applicants the applicants which best serve the interests of the citizens of Illinois.

(2) To have jurisdiction and supervision over all riverboat gambling operations in this State and all persons on riverboats where gambling operations are conducted.

(3) To promulgate rules and regulations for the purpose of administering the provisions of this Act and to prescribe rules, regulations and conditions under which all riverboat gambling in the State shall be conducted. Such rules and regulations are to provide for the prevention of practices detrimental to the public interest and for the best interests of riverboat gambling, including rules and regulations regarding the inspection of such riverboats and the review of any permits or licenses necessary to operate a riverboat under any laws or regulations applicable to riverboats, and to impose penalties for violations thereof.

(4) To enter the office, riverboats, facilities, or other places of business of a licensee, where evidence of the compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act is likely to be found.

(5) To investigate alleged violations of this Act or the rules of the Board and to take appropriate disciplinary action against a licensee or a holder of an occupational license for a violation, or institute appropriate legal action for enforcement, or both.

(6) To adopt standards for the licensing of all persons under this Act, as well as for electronic or mechanical gambling games, and to establish fees for such licenses.

(7) To adopt appropriate standards for all riverboats and facilities.

(8) To require that the records, including financial or other statements of any licensee under this Act, shall be kept in such manner as prescribed by the Board and that any such licensee involved in the ownership or management of gambling operations submit to the Board an annual balance sheet and profit and loss statement, list of the stockholders or other persons having a 1% or greater beneficial interest in the gambling activities of each licensee, and any other information the Board deems necessary in order to effectively administer this Act and all rules, regulations, orders and final decisions promulgated under this Act.

(9) To conduct hearings, issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum for the production of books, records and other pertinent documents in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and to administer oaths and affirmations to the witnesses, when, in the judgment of the Board, it is necessary to administer or enforce this Act or the Board rules.

(10) To prescribe a form to be used by any licensee involved in the ownership or management of gambling operations as an application for employment for their employees.

(11) To revoke or suspend licenses, as the Board may see fit and in compliance with applicable laws of the State regarding administrative procedures, and to review applications for the renewal of licenses. The Board may suspend an owners license, without notice or hearing upon a determination that the safety or health of patrons or employees is jeopardized by continuing a riverboat's operation. The suspension may remain in effect until the Board determines that the cause for suspension has been abated. The Board may revoke the owners license upon a determination that the owner has not made satisfactory progress toward abating the hazard.

(12) To eject or exclude or authorize the ejection or exclusion of, any person from riverboat gambling facilities where such person is in violation of this Act, rules and regulations thereunder, or final orders of the Board, or where such person's conduct or reputation is such that his presence within the riverboat gambling facilities may, in the opinion of the Board, call into question the honesty and integrity of the gambling operations or interfere with orderly conduct thereof; provided that the propriety of such ejection or exclusion is subject to subsequent hearing by the Board.

(13) To require all licensees of gambling operations to utilize a cashless wagering system whereby all players' money is converted to tokens, electronic cards, or chips which shall be used only for wagering in the gambling establishment.

(14) (Blank).

(15) To suspend, revoke or restrict licenses, to require the removal of a licensee or an employee of a licensee for a violation of this Act or a Board rule or for engaging in a fraudulent practice, and to impose civil penalties of up to $5,000 against individuals and up to $10,000 or an amount equal to the daily gross receipts, whichever is larger, against licensees for each violation of any provision of the Act, any rules adopted by the Board, any order of the Board or any other action which, in the Board's discretion, is a detriment or impediment to riverboat gambling operations.

(16) To hire employees to gather information, conduct investigations and carry out any other tasks contemplated under this Act.

(17) To establish minimum levels of insurance to be maintained by licensees.

(18) To authorize a licensee to sell or serve alcoholic liquors, wine or beer as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 on board a riverboat and to have exclusive authority to establish the hours for sale and consumption of alcoholic liquor on board a riverboat, notwithstanding any provision of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or any local ordinance, and regardless of whether the riverboat makes excursions. The establishment of the hours for sale and consumption of alcoholic liquor on board a riverboat is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not establish the hours for sale and consumption of alcoholic liquor on board a riverboat. This amendatory Act of 1991 is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(19) After consultation with the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, to establish binding emergency orders upon the concurrence of a majority of the members of the Board regarding the navigability of water, relative to excursions, in the event of extreme weather conditions, acts of God or other extreme circumstances.

(20) To delegate the execution of any of its powers under this Act for the purpose of administering and enforcing this Act and its rules and regulations hereunder.

(20.6) To appoint investigators to conduct investigations, searches, seizures, arrests, and other duties imposed under this Act, as deemed necessary by the Board. These investigators have and may exercise all of the rights and powers of peace officers, provided that these powers shall be limited to offenses or violations occurring or committed on a riverboat or dock, as defined in subsections (d) and (f) of Section 4, or as otherwise provided by this Act or any other law.

(20.7) To contract with the Department of State Police for the use of trained and qualified State police officers and with the Department of Revenue for the use of trained and qualified Department of Revenue investigators to conduct investigations, searches, seizures, arrests, and other duties imposed under this Act and to exercise all of the rights and powers of peace officers, provided that the powers of Department of Revenue investigators under this subdivision (20.7) shall be limited to offenses or violations occurring or committed on a riverboat or dock, as defined in subsections (d) and (f) of Section 4, or as otherwise provided by this Act or any other law. In the event the Department of State Police or the Department of Revenue is unable to fill contracted police or investigative positions, the Board may appoint investigators to fill those positions pursuant to subdivision (20.6).

(21) To take any other action as may be reasonable or appropriate to enforce this Act and rules and regulations hereunder.

(d) The Board may seek and shall receive the cooperation of the Department of State Police in conducting background investigations of applicants and in fulfilling its responsibilities under this Section. Costs incurred by the Department of State Police as a result of such cooperation shall be paid by the Board in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400).

(e) The Board must authorize to each investigator and to any other employee of the Board exercising the powers of a peace officer a distinct badge that, on its face, (i) clearly states that the badge is authorized by the Board and (ii) contains a unique identifying number. No other badge shall be authorized by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 490. The Video Gaming Act is amended by changing Sections 25 and 45 as follows:

(230 ILCS 40/25)

Sec. 25. Restriction of licensees.

(a) Manufacturer. A person may not be licensed as a manufacturer of a video gaming terminal in Illinois unless the person has a valid manufacturer's license issued under this Act. A manufacturer may only sell video gaming terminals for use in Illinois to persons having a valid distributor's license.

(b) Distributor. A person may not sell, distribute, or lease or market a video gaming terminal in Illinois unless the person has a valid distributor's license issued under this Act. A distributor may only sell video gaming terminals for use in Illinois to persons having a valid distributor's or terminal operator's license.

(c) Terminal operator. A person may not own, maintain, or place a video gaming terminal unless he has a valid terminal operator's license issued under this Act. A terminal operator may only place video gaming terminals for use in Illinois in licensed establishments, licensed truck stop establishments, licensed fraternal establishments, and licensed veterans establishments. No terminal operator may give anything of value, including but not limited to a loan or financing arrangement, to a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment as any incentive or inducement to locate video terminals in that establishment. Of the after-tax profits from a video gaming terminal, 50% shall be paid to the terminal operator and 50% shall be paid to the licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment, notwithstanding nothwithstanding any agreement to the contrary. No terminal operator may own or have a substantial interest in more than 5% of the video gaming terminals licensed in this State. A video terminal operator that violates one or more requirements of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony and is subject to termination of his or her license by the Board.

(d) Licensed technician. A person may not service, maintain, or repair a video gaming terminal in this State unless he or she (1) has a valid technician's license issued under this Act, (2) is a terminal operator, or (3) is employed by a terminal operator, distributor, or manufacturer.

(d-5) Licensed terminal handler. No person, including, but not limited to, an employee or independent contractor working for a manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or terminal operator licensed pursuant to this Act, shall have possession or control of a video gaming terminal, or access to the inner workings of a video gaming terminal, unless that person possesses a valid terminal handler's license issued under this Act.

(e) Licensed establishment. No video gaming terminal may be placed in any licensed establishment, licensed veterans establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment unless the owner or agent of the owner of the licensed establishment, licensed veterans establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment has entered into a written use agreement with the terminal operator for placement of the terminals. A copy of the use agreement shall be on file in the terminal operator's place of business and available for inspection by individuals authorized by the Board. A licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed veterans establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment may operate up to 5 video gaming terminals on its premises at any time.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Financial interest restrictions. As used in this Act, "substantial interest" in a partnership, a corporation, an organization, an association, or a business means:

(A) When, with respect to a sole proprietorship, an individual or his or her spouse owns, operates, manages, or conducts, directly or indirectly, the organization, association, or business, or any part thereof; or

(B) When, with respect to a partnership, the individual or his or her spouse shares in any of the profits, or potential profits, of the partnership activities; or

(C) When, with respect to a corporation, an individual or his or her spouse is an officer or director, or the individual or his or her spouse is a holder, directly or beneficially, of 5% or more of any class of stock of the corporation; or

(D) When, with respect to an organization not covered in (A), (B) or (C) above, an individual or his or her spouse is an officer or manages the business affairs, or the individual or his or her spouse is the owner of or otherwise controls 10% or more of the assets of the organization; or

(E) When an individual or his or her spouse furnishes 5% or more of the capital, whether in cash, goods, or services, for the operation of any business, association, or organization during any calendar year.

(h) Location restriction. A licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment that is (i) located within 1,000 feet of a facility operated by an organizational licensee, an intertrack wagering licensee, or an intertrack wagering location licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or the home dock of a riverboat licensed under the Riverboat Gambling Act or (ii) located within with a 100 feet of a school or a place of worship under the Religious Corporation Act, is ineligible to operate a video gaming terminal.

(i) The provisions of the Illinois Antitrust Act are fully and equally applicable to the activities of any licensee under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-17-09.)

(230 ILCS 40/45)

Sec. 45. Issuance of license.

(a) The burden is upon each applicant to demonstrate his suitability for licensure. Each video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, and licensed veterans establishment shall be licensed by the Board. The Board may issue or deny a license under this Act to any person pursuant to the same criteria set forth in Section 9 of the Riverboat Gambling Act.

(b) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall submit to a background investigation conducted by the Board with the assistance of the State Police or other law enforcement. The background investigation shall include each beneficiary of a trust, each partner of a partnership, and each director and officer and all stockholders of 5% or more in a parent or subsidiary corporation of a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, or licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment.

(c) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall disclose the identity of every person, association, trust, or corporation having a greater than 1% direct or indirect pecuniary interest in the video gaming terminal operation for to which the license is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names and addresses of the beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; or if a partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited.

(d) No person may be licensed as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment if that person has been found by the Board to:

(1) have a background, including a criminal record, reputation, habits, social or business associations, or prior activities that pose a threat to the public interests of the State or to the security and integrity of video gaming;

(2) create or enhance the dangers of unsuitable, unfair, or illegal practices, methods, and activities in the conduct of video gaming; or

(3) present questionable business practices and financial arrangements incidental to the conduct of video gaming activities.

(e) Any applicant for any license under this Act has the burden of proving his or her qualifications to the satisfaction of the Board. The Board may adopt rules to establish additional qualifications and requirements to preserve the integrity and security of video gaming in this State.

(f) A non-refundable application fee shall be paid at the time an application for a license is filed with the Board in the following amounts:

(1) Manufacturer..........................$5,000

(2) Distributor...........................$5,000

(3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000

(4) Supplier..............................$2,500

(5) Technician..............................$100

(6) Terminal Handler..............................$50

(g) The Board shall establish an annual fee for each license not to exceed the following:

(1) Manufacturer.........................$10,000

(2) Distributor..........................$10,000

(3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000

(4) Supplier..............................$2,000

(5) Technician..............................$100

(6) Licensed establishment, licensed truck stop

establishment, licensed fraternal establishment,

or licensed veterans establishment..............$100

(7) Video gaming terminal...................$100

(8) Terminal Handler..............................$50

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-17-09.)

Section 495. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 3-12, 6-16.1, and 8-1 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/3-12)

Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.

(a) The State commission shall have the following powers, functions and duties:

(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors, distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers, non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes, boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend or revoke such licenses upon the State commission's determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5, or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license for the specific premises where the violation occurred.

In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the commission may impose a fine, upon the State commission's determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed $500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed $20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.

(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to carry on its functions and duties to the end that the health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and regulations to all licensees affected thereby.

(3) To call upon other administrative departments of the State, county and municipal governments, county and city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for such information and assistance as it deems necessary in the performance of its duties.

(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the State.

(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured, distributed, warehoused, or sold.

(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred, or initiate an investigation with the appropriate law enforcement officials.

(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of this Act.

(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee as provided in this Act.

(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a local commission in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at whichever location is the more convenient for the majority of persons who are parties to the hearing.

(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms, records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable times for inspection by authorized representatives of the State commission or by any local liquor control commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal, in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the form and manner of keeping accounts.

(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving complex issues or issues that will require a protracted period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to hear testimony and take proof material for its information in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, which shall be effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to implement its powers under this paragraph (8).

Any Circuit Court may by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books subpoenaed by the State commission and the court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.

(9) To investigate the administration of laws in relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it may think desirable and as will serve to further the general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.

(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or other similar occurrence.

(11) To develop industry educational programs related to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.

(11.1) To license persons providing education and training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers under the Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a license shall be made on forms provided by the State Commission.

(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license and regulatory information.

(13) On or before January 15, 1994, the Commission shall issue a written report to the Governor and General Assembly that is to be based on a comprehensive study of the impact on and implications for the State of Illinois of Section 1926 of the Federal ADAMHA Reorganization Act of 1992 (Public Law 102-321). This study shall address the extent to which Illinois currently complies with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the rules promulgated pursuant thereto.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following essential information:

(i) the number of retail distributors of tobacco products, by type and geographic area, in the State;

(ii) the number of reported citations and successful convictions, categorized by type and location of retail distributor, for violation of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act and the Smokeless Tobacco Limitation Act;

(iii) the extent and nature of organized educational and governmental activities that are intended to promote, encourage or otherwise secure compliance with any Illinois laws that prohibit the sale or distribution of tobacco products to minors; and

(iv) the level of access and availability of tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18.

To obtain the data necessary to comply with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the requirements of this report, the Commission shall conduct random, unannounced inspections of a geographically and scientifically representative sample of the State's retail tobacco distributors.

The Commission shall consult with the Department of Public Health, the Department of Human Services, the Illinois State Police and any other executive branch agency, and private organizations that may have information relevant to this report.

The Commission may contract with the Food and Drug Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.

(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State. As part of its report, the Commission shall provide all of the following information:

(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated.

(B) The amount of licensing fees received.

(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations conducted.

(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses issued.

(F) The number of each of the following: reported violations; cease and desist notices issued by the Commission; notices of violations issued by the Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials, including, without limitation, the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol compliance operations to investigate whether businesses that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside or outside of this State directly to residents of this State are licensed by this State or are selling or attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act.

(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(17) (A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws of another state who has a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of production and sales for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its wine to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its production of wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated production and sales for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or become part of an affiliated group producing more than 25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.

(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act or amendatory Act or a bona fide investigation by duly sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or its agents, the Commission shall maintain the production and sales information of a self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and shall not release such information to any person.

(F) The Commission shall issue regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Section and this Act.

(G) Nothing in this subsection (17) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois distributor.

(H) It is the intent of this subsection (17) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system it is necessary to create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes, vintages, and taste to find and create market niches sometimes too small for distributor or importing distributor business strategies. Limited self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of 1998 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following information:

(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;

(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;

(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the number of notices of violations issued to the Department of Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials.

(Source: P.A. 95-634, eff. 6-1-08; 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-446, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-16.1)

Sec. 6-16.1. Enforcement actions.

(a) A licensee or an officer, associate, member, representative, agent, or employee of a licensee may sell, give, or deliver alcoholic liquor to a person under the age of 21 years or authorize the sale, gift, or delivery of alcoholic liquor to a person under the age of 21 years pursuant to a plan or action to investigate, patrol, or otherwise conduct a "sting operation" or enforcement action against a person employed by the licensee or on any licensed premises if the licensee or officer, associate, member, representative, agent, or employee of the licensee provides written notice, at least 14 days before the "sting operation" or enforcement action, unless governing body of the municipality or county having jurisdiction sets a shorter period by ordinance, to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, the local liquor control commissioner, or both. Notice provided under this Section shall be valid for a "sting operation" or enforcement action conducted within 60 days of the provision of that notice, unless the governing body of the municipality or county having jurisdiction sets a shorter period by ordinance.

(b) A local liquor control commission or unit of local government that conducts alcohol and tobacco compliance operations shall establish a policy and standards for alcohol and tobacco compliance operations to investigate whether a licensee is furnishing (1) alcoholic liquor to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act or (2) tobacco to persons in violation of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act.

(c) The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall develop a model policy and guidelines for the operation of alcohol and tobacco compliance checks by local law enforcement officers. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall also require the supervising officers of such compliance checks to have met a minimum training standard as determined by the Board. The Board shall have the right to waive any training based on current written policies and procedures for alcohol and tobacco compliance check operations and in-service training already administered by the local law enforcement agency, department, or office.

(d) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) do not apply to a home rule unit with more than 2,000,000 inhabitants.

(e) A home rule unit, other than a home rule unit with more than 2,000,000 inhabitants, may not regulate enforcement actions in a manner inconsistent with the regulation of enforcement actions under this Section. This subsection (e) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(f) A licensee who is the subject of an enforcement action or "sting operation" under this Section and is found, pursuant to the enforcement action, to be in compliance with this Act shall be notified by the enforcement agency action that no violation was found within 30 days after the finding.

(Source: P.A. 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-446, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

(235 ILCS 5/8-1)

Sec. 8-1. A tax is imposed upon the privilege of engaging in business as a manufacturer or as an importing distributor of alcoholic liquor other than beer at the rate of $0.185 per gallon until September 1, 2009 and $0.231 per gallon beginning September 1, 2009 for cider containing not less than 0.5% alcohol by volume nor more than 7% alcohol by volume, $0.73 per gallon until September 1, 2009 and $1.39 per gallon beginning September 1, 2009 for wine other than cider containing less than 7% alcohol by volume, and $4.50 per gallon until September 1, 2009 and $8.55 per gallon beginning September 1, 2009 on alcohol and spirits manufactured and sold or used by such manufacturer, or as agent for any other person, or sold or used by such importing distributor, or as agent for any other person. A tax is imposed upon the privilege of engaging in business as a manufacturer of beer or as an importing distributor of beer at the rate of $0.185 per gallon until September 1, 2009 and $0.231 per gallon beginning September 1, 2009 on all beer manufactured and sold or used by such manufacturer, or as agent for any other person, or sold or used by such importing distributor, or as agent for any other person. Any brewer manufacturing beer in this State shall be entitled to and given a credit or refund of 75% of the tax imposed on each gallon of beer up to 4.9 million gallons per year in any given calendar year for tax paid or payable on beer produced and sold in the State of Illinois.

For the purpose of this Section, "cider" means any alcoholic beverage obtained by the alcohol fermentation of the juice of apples or pears including, but not limited to, flavored, sparkling, or carbonated cider.

The credit or refund created by this Act shall apply to all beer taxes in the calendar years 1982 through 1986.

The increases made by this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly in the rates of taxes imposed under this Section shall apply beginning on July 1, 1999.

A tax at the rate of 1¢ per gallon on beer and 48¢ per gallon on alcohol and spirits is also imposed upon the privilege of engaging in business as a retailer or as a distributor who is not also an importing distributor with respect to all beer and all alcohol and spirits owned or possessed by such retailer or distributor when this amendatory Act of 1969 becomes effective, and with respect to which the additional tax imposed by this amendatory Act upon manufacturers and importing distributors does not apply. Retailers and distributors who are subject to the additional tax imposed by this paragraph of this Section shall be required to inventory such alcoholic liquor and to pay this additional tax in a manner prescribed by the Department.

The provisions of this Section shall be construed to apply to any importing distributor engaging in business in this State, whether licensed or not.

However, such tax is not imposed upon any such business as to any alcoholic liquor shipped outside Illinois by an Illinois licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, nor as to any alcoholic liquor delivered in Illinois by an Illinois licensed manufacturer or importing distributor to a purchaser for immediate transportation by the purchaser to another state into which the purchaser has a legal right, under the laws of such state, to import such alcoholic liquor, nor as to any alcoholic liquor other than beer sold by one Illinois licensed manufacturer or importing distributor to another Illinois licensed manufacturer or importing distributor to the extent to which the sale of alcoholic liquor other than beer by one Illinois licensed manufacturer or importing distributor to another Illinois licensed manufacturer or importing distributor is authorized by the licensing provisions of this Act, nor to alcoholic liquor whether manufactured in or imported into this State when sold to a "non-beverage user" licensed by the State for use in the manufacture of any of the following when they are unfit for beverage purposes:

Patent and proprietary medicines and medicinal, antiseptic, culinary and toilet preparations;

Flavoring extracts and syrups and food products;

Scientific, industrial and chemical products, excepting denatured alcohol;

Or for scientific, chemical, experimental or mechanical purposes;

Nor is the tax imposed upon the privilege of engaging in any business in interstate commerce or otherwise, which business may not, under the Constitution and Statutes of the United States, be made the subject of taxation by this State.

The tax herein imposed shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by the State of Illinois or political subdivision thereof.

If any alcoholic liquor manufactured in or imported into this State is sold to a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor by a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor to be used solely as an ingredient in the manufacture of any beverage for human consumption, the tax imposed upon such purchasing manufacturer or importing distributor shall be reduced by the amount of the taxes which have been paid by the selling manufacturer or importing distributor under this Act as to such alcoholic liquor so used to the Department of Revenue.

If any person received any alcoholic liquors from a manufacturer or importing distributor, with respect to which alcoholic liquors no tax is imposed under this Article, and such alcoholic liquor shall thereafter be disposed of in such manner or under such circumstances as may cause the same to become the base for the tax imposed by this Article, such person shall make the same reports and returns, pay the same taxes and be subject to all other provisions of this Article relating to manufacturers and importing distributors.

Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require the payment to the Department of the taxes imposed by this Article more than once with respect to any quantity of alcoholic liquor sold or used within this State.

No tax is imposed by this Act on sales of alcoholic liquor by Illinois licensed foreign importers to Illinois licensed importing distributors.

All of the proceeds of the additional tax imposed by Public Act 96-34 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited by the Department into the Capital Projects Fund. The remainder of the tax imposed by this Act shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund.

The provisions of this Section 8-1 are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 500. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 4-2, 5-2, 5-5.4, 5-5, 12-4.11, and 12-4.201 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.37 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/4-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-2)

Sec. 4-2. Amount of aid.

(a) The amount and nature of financial aid shall be determined in accordance with the grant amounts, rules and regulations of the Illinois Department. Due regard shall be given to the self-sufficiency requirements of the family and to the income, money contributions and other support and resources available, from whatever source. However, the amount and nature of any financial aid is not affected by the payment of any grant under the "Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act" or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The aid shall be sufficient, when added to all other income, money contributions and support to provide the family with a grant in the amount established by Department regulation. Beginning July 1, 2008, the Department of Human Services shall increase TANF grant amounts in effect on June 30, 2008 by 9%.

Subject to appropriation, beginning on July 1, 2008, the Department of Human Services shall increase TANF grant amounts in effect on June 30, 2008 by 15%. The Department is authorized to administer this increase but may not otherwise adopt any rule to implement this increase.

(b) The Illinois Department may conduct special projects, which may be known as Grant Diversion Projects, under which recipients of financial aid under this Article are placed in jobs and their grants are diverted to the employer who in turn makes payments to the recipients in the form of salary or other employment benefits. The Illinois Department shall by rule specify the terms and conditions of such Grant Diversion Projects. Such projects shall take into consideration and be coordinated with the programs administered under the Illinois Emergency Employment Development Act.

(c) The amount and nature of the financial aid for a child requiring care outside his own home shall be determined in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, with due regard to the needs and requirements of the child in the foster home or institution in which he has been placed.

(d) If the Department establishes grants for family units consisting exclusively of a pregnant woman with no dependent child or including her husband if living with her, the grant amount for such a unit shall be equal to the grant amount for an assistance unit consisting of one adult, or 2 persons if the husband is included. Other than as herein described, an unborn child shall not be counted in determining the size of an assistance unit or for calculating grants.

Payments for basic maintenance requirements of a child or children and the relative with whom the child or children are living shall be prescribed, by rule, by the Illinois Department.

Grants under this Article shall not be supplemented by General Assistance provided under Article VI.

(e) Grants shall be paid to the parent or other person with whom the child or children are living, except for such amount as is paid in behalf of the child or his parent or other relative to other persons or agencies pursuant to this Code or the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department.

(f) Subject to subsection (f-5), an assistance unit, receiving financial aid under this Article or temporarily ineligible to receive aid under this Article under a penalty imposed by the Illinois Department for failure to comply with the eligibility requirements or that voluntarily requests termination of financial assistance under this Article and becomes subsequently eligible for assistance within 9 months, shall not receive any increase in the amount of aid solely on account of the birth of a child; except that an increase is not prohibited when the birth is (i) of a child of a pregnant woman who became eligible for aid under this Article during the pregnancy, or (ii) of a child born within 10 months after the date of implementation of this subsection, or (iii) of a child conceived after a family became ineligible for assistance due to income or marriage and at least 3 months of ineligibility expired before any reapplication for assistance. This subsection does not, however, prevent a unit from receiving a general increase in the amount of aid that is provided to all recipients of aid under this Article.

The Illinois Department is authorized to transfer funds, and shall use any budgetary savings attributable to not increasing the grants due to the births of additional children, to supplement existing funding for employment and training services for recipients of aid under this Article IV. The Illinois Department shall target, to the extent the supplemental funding allows, employment and training services to the families who do not receive a grant increase after the birth of a child. In addition, the Illinois Department shall provide, to the extent the supplemental funding allows, such families with up to 24 months of transitional child care pursuant to Illinois Department rules. All remaining supplemental funds shall be used for employment and training services or transitional child care support.

In making the transfers authorized by this subsection, the Illinois Department shall first determine, pursuant to regulations adopted by the Illinois Department for this purpose, the amount of savings attributable to not increasing the grants due to the births of additional children. Transfers may be made from General Revenue Fund appropriations for distributive purposes authorized by Article IV of this Code only to General Revenue Fund appropriations for employability development services including operating and administrative costs and related distributive purposes under Article IXA of this Code. The Director, with the approval of the Governor, shall certify the amount and affected line item appropriations to the State Comptroller.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit the Illinois Department from using funds under this Article IV to provide assistance in the form of vouchers that may be used to pay for goods and services deemed by the Illinois Department, by rule, as suitable for the care of the child such as diapers, clothing, school supplies, and cribs.

(f-5) Subsection (f) shall not apply to affect the monthly assistance amount of any family as a result of the birth of a child on or after January 1, 2004. As resources permit after January 1, 2004, the Department may cease applying subsection (f) to limit assistance to families receiving assistance under this Article on January 1, 2004, with respect to children born prior to that date. In any event, subsection (f) shall be completely inoperative on and after July 1, 2007.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department is authorized to reduce payment levels used to determine cash grants under this Article after December 31 of any fiscal year if the Illinois Department determines that the caseload upon which the appropriations for the current fiscal year are based have increased by more than 5% and the appropriation is not sufficient to ensure that cash benefits under this Article do not exceed the amounts appropriated for those cash benefits. Reductions in payment levels may be accomplished by emergency rule under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that the limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period shall not apply and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall not apply. Increases in payment levels shall be accomplished only in accordance with Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Before any rule to increase payment levels promulgated under this Section shall become effective, a joint resolution approving the rule must be adopted by a roll call vote by a majority of the members elected to each chamber of the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 95-1055, eff. 4-10-09; revised 4-14-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. Classes of Persons Eligible. Medical assistance under this Article shall be available to any of the following classes of persons in respect to whom a plan for coverage has been submitted to the Governor by the Illinois Department and approved by him:

1. Recipients of basic maintenance grants under Articles III and IV.

2. Persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Articles III and IV, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, but who fail to qualify thereunder on the basis of need or who qualify but are not receiving basic maintenance under Article IV, and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care, including but not limited to the following:

(a) All persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III but who fail to qualify under that Article on the basis of need and who meet either of the following requirements:

(i) their income, as determined by the Illinois Department in accordance with any federal requirements, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size; or

(ii) their income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined in item (i) of this subparagraph (a).

(b) All persons who, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, would be determined eligible for such basic maintenance under Article IV by disregarding the maximum earned income permitted by federal law.

3. Persons who would otherwise qualify for Aid to the Medically Indigent under Article VII.

4. Persons not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs who fall sick, are injured, or die, not having sufficient money, property or other resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care or funeral and burial expenses.

5.(a) Women during pregnancy, after the fact of pregnancy has been determined by medical diagnosis, and during the 60-day period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, together with their infants and children born after September 30, 1983, whose income and resources are insufficient to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent possible under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

(b) The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 5(a) by April 1, 1990. Such plan shall provide ambulatory prenatal care to pregnant women during a presumptive eligibility period and establish an income eligibility standard that is equal to 133% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size, provided that costs incurred for medical care are not taken into account in determining such income eligibility.

(c) The Illinois Department may conduct a demonstration in at least one county that will provide medical assistance to pregnant women, together with their infants and children up to one year of age, where the income eligibility standard is set up to 185% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget. The Illinois Department shall seek and obtain necessary authorization provided under federal law to implement such a demonstration. Such demonstration may establish resource standards that are not more restrictive than those established under Article IV of this Code.

6. Persons under the age of 18 who fail to qualify as dependent under Article IV and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

7. Persons who are under 21 years of age and would qualify as disabled as defined under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program, provided medical service for such persons would be eligible for Federal Financial Participation, and provided the Illinois Department determines that:

(a) the person requires a level of care provided by a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(b) it is appropriate to provide such care outside of an institution, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(c) the estimated amount which would be expended for care outside the institution is not greater than the estimated amount which would be expended in an institution.

8. Persons who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article IV of this Code in programs administered by the Illinois Department due to employment earnings and persons in assistance units comprised of adults and children who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article VI of this Code due to employment earnings. The plan for coverage for this class of persons shall:

(a) extend the medical assistance coverage for up to 12 months following termination of basic maintenance assistance; and

(b) offer persons who have initially received 6 months of the coverage provided in paragraph (a) above, the option of receiving an additional 6 months of coverage, subject to the following:

(i) such coverage shall be pursuant to provisions of the federal Social Security Act;

(ii) such coverage shall include all services covered while the person was eligible for basic maintenance assistance;

(iii) no premium shall be charged for such coverage; and

(iv) such coverage shall be suspended in the event of a person's failure without good cause to file in a timely fashion reports required for this coverage under the Social Security Act and coverage shall be reinstated upon the filing of such reports if the person remains otherwise eligible.

9. Persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with AIDS-related conditions with respect to whom there has been a determination that but for home or community-based services such individuals would require the level of care provided in an inpatient hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility the cost of which is reimbursed under this Article. Assistance shall be provided to such persons to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

10. Participants in the long-term care insurance partnership program established under the Illinois Long-Term Care Partnership Program Act who meet the qualifications for protection of resources described in Section 15 of that Act.

11. Persons with disabilities who are employed and eligible for Medicaid, pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xv) of the Social Security Act, and, subject to federal approval, persons with a medically improved disability who are employed and eligible for Medicaid pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xvi) of the Social Security Act, as provided by the Illinois Department by rule. In establishing eligibility standards under this paragraph 11, the Department shall, subject to federal approval:

(a) set the income eligibility standard at not lower than 350% of the federal poverty level;

(b) exempt retirement accounts that the person cannot access without penalty before the age of 59 1/2, and medical savings accounts established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 220;

(c) allow non-exempt assets up to $25,000 as to those assets accumulated during periods of eligibility under this paragraph 11; and

(d) continue to apply subparagraphs (b) and (c) in determining the eligibility of the person under this Article even if the person loses eligibility under this paragraph 11.

12. Subject to federal approval, persons who are eligible for medical assistance coverage under applicable provisions of the federal Social Security Act and the federal Breast and Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Act of 2000. Those eligible persons are defined to include, but not be limited to, the following persons:

(1) persons who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer under the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer Program established under Title XV of the federal Public Health Services Act in accordance with the requirements of Section 1504 of that Act as administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health; and

(2) persons whose screenings under the above program were funded in whole or in part by funds appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for breast or cervical cancer screening.

"Medical assistance" under this paragraph 12 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department must request federal approval of the coverage under this paragraph 12 within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

13. Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, persons living with HIV/AIDS who are not otherwise eligible under this Article and who qualify for services covered under Section 5-5.04 as provided by the Illinois Department by rule.

14. Subject to the availability of funds for this purpose, the Department may provide coverage under this Article to persons who reside in Illinois who are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs and who meet the income guidelines of paragraph 2(a) of this Section and (i) have an application for asylum pending before the federal Department of Homeland Security or on appeal before a court of competent jurisdiction and are represented either by counsel or by an advocate accredited by the federal Department of Homeland Security and employed by a not-for-profit organization in regard to that application or appeal, or (ii) are receiving services through a federally funded torture treatment center. Medical coverage under this paragraph 14 may be provided for up to 24 continuous months from the initial eligibility date so long as an individual continues to satisfy the criteria of this paragraph 14. If an individual has an appeal pending regarding an application for asylum before the Department of Homeland Security, eligibility under this paragraph 14 may be extended until a final decision is rendered on the appeal. The Department may adopt rules governing the implementation of this paragraph 14.

15. Family Care Eligibility.

(a) A caretaker relative who is 19 years of age or older when countable income is at or below 185% of the Federal Poverty Level Guidelines, as published annually in the Federal Register, for the appropriate family size. A person may not spend down to become eligible under this paragraph 15.

(b) Eligibility shall be reviewed annually.

(c) Caretaker relatives enrolled under this paragraph 15 in families with countable income above 150% and at or below 185% of the Federal Poverty Level Guidelines shall be counted as family members and pay premiums as established under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(d) Premiums shall be billed by and payable to the Department or its authorized agent, on a monthly basis.

(e) The premium due date is the last day of the month preceding the month of coverage.

(f) Individuals shall have a grace period through the month of coverage to pay the premium.

(g) Failure to pay the full monthly premium by the last day of the grace period shall result in termination of coverage.

(h) Partial premium payments shall not be refunded.

(i) Following termination of an individual's coverage under this paragraph 15, the following action is required before the individual can be re-enrolled:

(1) A new application must be completed and the individual must be determined otherwise eligible.

(2) There must be full payment of premiums due under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, or any other healthcare program administered by the Department for periods in which a premium was owed and not paid for the individual.

(3) The first month's premium must be paid if there was an unpaid premium on the date the individual's previous coverage was canceled.

The Department is authorized to implement the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly by adopting the medical assistance rules in effect as of October 1, 2007, at 89 Ill. Admin. Code 125, and at 89 Ill. Admin. Code 120.32 along with only those changes necessary to conform to federal Medicaid requirements, federal laws, and federal regulations, including but not limited to Section 1931 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396u-1), as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, and the countable income eligibility standard authorized by this paragraph 15. The Department may not otherwise adopt any rule to implement this increase except as authorized by law, to meet the eligibility standards authorized by the federal government in the Medicaid State Plan or the Title XXI Plan, or to meet an order from the federal government or any court.

16. 15. Subject to appropriation, uninsured persons who are not otherwise eligible under this Section who have been certified and referred by the Department of Public Health as having been screened and found to need diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment, for prostate or testicular cancer. For the purposes of this paragraph 16 15, uninsured persons are those who do not have creditable coverage, as defined under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, or have otherwise exhausted any insurance benefits they may have had, for prostate or testicular cancer diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment. To be eligible, a person must furnish a Social Security number. A person's assets are exempt from consideration in determining eligibility under this paragraph 16 15. Such persons shall be eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 16 15 for so long as they need treatment for the cancer. A person shall be considered to need treatment if, in the opinion of the person's treating physician, the person requires therapy directed toward cure or palliation of prostate or testicular cancer, including recurrent metastatic cancer that is a known or presumed complication of prostate or testicular cancer and complications resulting from the treatment modalities themselves. Persons who require only routine monitoring services are not considered to need treatment. "Medical assistance" under this paragraph 16 15 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department (i) does not have a claim against the estate of a deceased recipient of services under this paragraph 16 15 and (ii) does not have a lien against any homestead property or other legal or equitable real property interest owned by a recipient of services under this paragraph 16 15.

In implementing the provisions of Public Act 96-20 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Department is authorized to adopt only those rules necessary, including emergency rules. Nothing in Public Act 96-20 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly permits the Department to adopt rules or issue a decision that expands eligibility for the FamilyCare Program to a person whose income exceeds 185% of the Federal Poverty Level as determined from time to time by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, unless the Department is provided with express statutory authority.

The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 7 as soon as possible after July 1, 1984.

The eligibility of any such person for medical assistance under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The Department shall by rule establish the amounts of assets to be disregarded in determining eligibility for medical assistance, which shall at a minimum equal the amounts to be disregarded under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program. The amount of assets of a single person to be disregarded shall not be less than $2,000, and the amount of assets of a married couple to be disregarded shall not be less than $3,000.

To the extent permitted under federal law, any person found guilty of a second violation of Article VIIIA shall be ineligible for medical assistance under this Article, as provided in Section 8A-8.

The eligibility of any person for medical assistance under this Article shall not be affected by the receipt by the person of donations or benefits from fundraisers held for the person in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

(Source: P.A. 95-546, eff. 8-29-07; 95-1055, eff. 4-10-09; 96-20, eff. 6-30-09; 96-181, eff. 8-10-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-567, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-806)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after July 1, 2008, screening and diagnostic mammography shall be reimbursed at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards. Based on these quality standards, the Department shall provide for bonus payments to mammography facilities meeting the standards for screening and diagnosis. The bonus payments shall be at least 15% higher than the Medicare rates for mammography.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor that provides non-emergency medical transportation, defined by the Department by rule, shall be conditional for 180 days. During that time, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in the medical assistance program without cause. That termination of eligibility is not subject to the Department's hearing process.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients without medical authorization; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 96-156, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-806)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after July 1, 2008, screening and diagnostic mammography shall be reimbursed at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards. Based on these quality standards, the Department shall provide for bonus payments to mammography facilities meeting the standards for screening and diagnosis. The bonus payments shall be at least 15% higher than the Medicare rates for mammography.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a health care provider under the medical assistance program may elect, in lieu of receiving direct payment for services provided under that program, to participate in the State Employees Deferred Compensation Plan adopted under Article 24 of the Illinois Pension Code. A health care provider who elects to participate in the plan does not have a cause of action against the State for any damages allegedly suffered by the provider as a result of any delay by the State in crediting the amount of any contribution to the provider's plan account.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor that provides non-emergency medical transportation, defined by the Department by rule, shall be conditional for 180 days. During that time, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in the medical assistance program without cause. That termination of eligibility is not subject to the Department's hearing process.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients without medical authorization; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; 96-156, eff. 1-1-10; 96-806, eff. 7-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop standards of payment of skilled nursing and intermediate care services in facilities providing such services under this Article which:

(1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment for skilled nursing and intermediate care services on a prospective basis. The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities certified by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance program shall be prospectively established annually on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation, except that the capital cost element for newly constructed facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994 and before July 1, 2010, unless specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage increase for non-executive staff.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October 1, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect information concerning nursing home resident condition necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois nursing home residents while remaining subject to the appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003 to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:

(A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing component rate per patient day under the new system than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology until a higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved by that facility.

(B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing component rate per patient day under the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted.

(C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the General Assembly.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001 shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the numerator of the ratio used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on December 31, 2006:

(i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007, $60,000,000.

(ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008, $110,000,000.

(iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009, $194,000,000.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the support component of the rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002 shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on June 30, 2001.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002, which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30, 2002.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June 30, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and implementation of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on December 31, 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1, 2008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall be increased to the amount that would have been derived using standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods, procedures, and inflators.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, a socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of 3.53. The Illinois Department may by rule adjust these socio-development component rates, but in no case may such rates be diminished.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005, facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i) a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.

Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year, except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1, 1997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility, updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1, 1985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate effective on July 1, 1984.

(2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled nursing and intermediate care services under the medical assistance program.

(3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social characteristics and needs of the patients.

(4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for services provided by qualified therapists or qualified assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate supervision.

(Source: P.A. 95-12, eff. 7-2-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop standards of payment of skilled nursing and intermediate care services in facilities providing such services under this Article which:

(1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment for skilled nursing and intermediate care services on a prospective basis. The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities certified by the Department of Public Health under the MR/DD Community Care Act or the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance program shall be prospectively established annually on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation, except that the capital cost element for newly constructed facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994 and before July 1, 2010, unless specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage increase for non-executive staff.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October 1, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect information concerning nursing home resident condition necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois nursing home residents while remaining subject to the appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003 to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:

(A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing component rate per patient day under the new system than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology until a higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved by that facility.

(B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing component rate per patient day under the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted.

(C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the General Assembly.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001 shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the numerator of the ratio used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on December 31, 2006:

(i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007, $60,000,000.

(ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008, $110,000,000.

(iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009, $194,000,000.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the support component of the rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002 shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on June 30, 2001.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002, which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30, 2002.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June 30, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and implementation of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on December 31, 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1, 2008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall be increased to the amount that would have been derived using standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods, procedures, and inflators.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, a socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of 3.53. The Illinois Department may by rule adjust these socio-development component rates, but in no case may such rates be diminished.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005, facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i) a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.

Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year, except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1, 1997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility, updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1, 1985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate effective on July 1, 1984.

(2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled nursing and intermediate care services under the medical assistance program.

(3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social characteristics and needs of the patients.

(4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for services provided by qualified therapists or qualified assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate supervision.

(Source: P.A. 95-12, eff. 7-2-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 10-23-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.11) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-4.11)

Sec. 12-4.11. Grant amounts. The Department, with due regard for and subject to budgetary limitations, shall establish grant amounts for each of the programs, by regulation. The grant amounts may vary by program, size of assistance unit and geographic area.

Aid payments shall not be reduced except: (1) for changes in the cost of items included in the grant amounts, or (2) for changes in the expenses of the recipient, or (3) for changes in the income or resources available to the recipient, or (4) for changes in grants resulting from adoption of a consolidated grant amount. Beginning July 1, 2008, the Department of Human Services shall increase TANF grant amounts in effect on June 30, 2008 by 9%.

Subject to appropriation, beginning on July 1, 2008, the Department of Human Services shall increase TANF grant amounts in effect on June 30, 2008 by 15%. The Department is authorized to administer this increase but may not otherwise adopt any rule to implement this increase.

In fixing standards to govern payments or reimbursements for funeral and burial expenses, the Department shall establish a minimum allowable amount of not less than $1,000 for Department payment of funeral services and not less than $500 for Department payment of burial or cremation services. On January 1, 2006, July 1, 2006, and July 1, 2007, the Department shall increase the minimum reimbursement amount for funeral and burial expenses under this Section by a percentage equal to the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, if any, during the 12 months immediately preceding that January 1 or July 1. In establishing the minimum allowable amount, the Department shall take into account the services essential to a dignified, low-cost (i) funeral and (ii) burial or cremation, including reasonable amounts that may be necessary for burial space and cemetery charges, and any applicable taxes or other required governmental fees or charges. If no person has agreed to pay the total cost of the (i) funeral and (ii) burial or cremation charges, the Department shall pay the vendor the actual costs of the (i) funeral and (ii) burial or cremation, or the minimum allowable amount for each service as established by the Department, whichever is less, provided that the Department reduces its payments by the amount available from the following sources: the decedent's assets and available resources and the anticipated amounts of any death benefits available to the decedent's estate, and amounts paid and arranged to be paid by the decedent's legally responsible relatives. A legally responsible relative is expected to pay (i) funeral and (ii) burial or cremation expenses unless financially unable to do so.

Nothing contained in this Section or in any other Section of this Code shall be construed to prohibit the Illinois Department (1) from consolidating existing standards on the basis of any standards which are or were in effect on, or subsequent to July 1, 1969, or (2) from employing any consolidated standards in determining need for public aid and the amount of money payment or grant for individual recipients or recipient families.

(Source: P.A. 94-669, eff. 8-23-05; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 95-1055, eff. 4-10-09; revised 4-14-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.37)

Sec. 12-4.37. Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in cooperation with the Department of Human Services, shall establish a Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program in Sangamon County to fund the provision of various health care services by a single provider, or a group of providers that have entered into an agreement for that purpose, at a single location in the county. Services covered under the pilot program shall include, but need not be limited to, family practice, pediatric, nursing (including advanced practice nursing), psychiatric, dental, and vision services. The Departments shall fund the provision of all services provided under the pilot program using a rate structure that is cost-based. To be selected by the Departments as the provider of health care services under the pilot program, a provider or group of providers must serve a disproportionate share of low-income or indigent patients, including recipients of medical assistance under Article V of this Code. The Departments shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this Section.

(b) Implementation of this Section is contingent on federal approval. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall take appropriate action by January 1, 2010 to seek federal approval.

(c) This Section is inoperative if the provider of health care services under the pilot program receives designation as a Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) or FQHC Look-Alike.

(Source: P.A. 96-691, eff. 8-25-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.39)

Sec. 12-4.39 12-4.37. Dental clinic grant program.

(a) Grant program. Subject to funding availability, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall administer a grant program. The purpose of this grant program shall be to build the public infrastructure for dental care and to make grants to local health departments, federally qualified health clinics (FQHCs), and rural health clinics (RHCs) for development of comprehensive dental clinics for dental care services. The primary purpose of these new dental clinics will be to increase dental access for low-income and Department of Healthcare and Family Services clients who have no dental arrangements with a dental provider in a project's service area. The dental clinic must be willing to accept out-of-area clients who need dental services, including emergency services for adults and Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT)-referral children. Medically Underserved Areas (MUAs) and Health Professional Shortage Areas (HPSAs) shall receive special priority for grants under this program.

(b) Eligible applicants. The following entities are eligible to apply for grants:

(1) Local health departments.

(2) Federally Qualified Health Centers (FQHCs).

(3) Rural health clinics (RHCs).

(c) Use of grant moneys. Grant moneys must be used to support projects that develop dental services to meet the dental health care needs of Department of Healthcare and Family Services Dental Program clients. Grant moneys must be used for operating expenses, including, but not limited to: insurance; dental supplies and equipment; dental support services; and renovation expenses. Grant moneys may not be used to offset existing indebtedness, supplant existing funds, purchase real property, or pay for personnel service salaries for dental employees.

(d) Application process. The Department shall establish procedures for applying for dental clinic grants.

(Source: P.A. 96-67, eff. 7-23-09; revised 10-24-09.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.201)

Sec. 12-4.201. (a) Data warehouse concerning medical and related services.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may purchase services and materials associated with the costs of developing and implementing a data warehouse comprised of management and decision making information in regard to the liability associated with, and utilization of, medical and related services, out of moneys available for that purpose.

(b) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall perform all necessary administrative functions to expand its linearly-scalable data warehouse to encompass other healthcare data sources at both the Department of Human Services and the Department of Public Health. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall leverage the inherent capabilities of the data warehouse to accomplish this expansion with marginal additional technical administration. The purpose of this expansion is to allow for programmatic review and analysis including the interrelatedness among the various healthcare programs in order to ascertain effectiveness toward, and ultimate impact on, clients. Beginning July 1, 2005, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) shall supply quarterly reports to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability detailing progress toward this mandate.

(c) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (HFS), the Illinois Department of Public Health, the Illinois Department of Human Services, and the Division of Specialized Care for Children, University of Illinois at Chicago, with necessary support from the Department of Central Management Services, shall integrate into the medical data warehouse individual record level data owned by one of these agencies that pertains to maternal and child health, including the following data sets:

(1) Vital Records as they relate to births, birth outcomes, and deaths.

(2) Adverse Pregnancy Outcomes Reporting System (APORS).

(3) Genetics/Newborn Screenings/SIDS.

(4) Cornerstone (WIC, FCM, Teen Parents, Immunization).

(5) HFS medical claims data.

(6) I-CARE.

(7) Children with Special Healthcare Needs Data.

By September 1, 2009, the departments of Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, and Human Services and the Division of Specialized Care for Children shall jointly prepare a work plan for fully integrating these data sets into the medical data warehouse. The work plan shall provide an overall project design, including defining a mutually acceptable transfer format for each discrete data set, the data update frequency, and a single method of data transfer for each data set. By October 1, 2009, the Department of Public Health shall grant to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services complete access to all vital records data. The Department of Public Health shall prepare a report detailing that this task has been accomplished and submit this report to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability by October 15, 2009. By March 1, 2010, the data sets shall be completely loaded into the medical data warehouse. By July 1, 2010, data from the various sources shall be processed so as to be compatible with other data in the medical data warehouse and available for analysis in an integrated manner.

With the cooperation of the other agencies, HFS shall submit status reports on the progress of these efforts to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than October 1, 2009 and April 1, 2010, with a final report due no later than November 1, 2010.

On an ongoing basis, the 4 agencies shall review the feasibility of adding data from additional sources to the warehouse. Such review may take into account the cost effectiveness of adding the data, the utility of adding data that is not available as identifiable individual record level data, the requirements related to adding data owned by another entity or not available in electronic form, whether sharing of the data is otherwise prohibited by law and the resources required and available for effecting the addition.

The departments shall use analysis of the data in the medical data warehouse to improve maternal and child health outcomes, and in particular improve birth outcomes, and to reduce racial health disparities in this area.

All access and use of the data shall be in compliance with all applicable federal and State laws, regulations, and mandates.

Notwithstanding anything in this Section, data incorporated into the data warehouse shall remain subject to the same provisions of law regarding confidentiality and use restrictions as they are subject to in the control of the contributing agency. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop measures to ensure that the interplay of the several data sets contributed to the data warehouse does not lead to the use or release of data from the data warehouse that would not otherwise be subject to use or release under State or federal law.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-799, eff. 10-28-09; revised 11-24-09.)

Section 505. The Energy Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 6 and 13 as follows:

(305 ILCS 20/6) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1406)

Sec. 6. Eligibility, Conditions of Participation, and Energy Assistance.

(a) Any person who is a resident of the State of Illinois and whose household income is not greater than an amount determined annually by the Department, in consultation with the Policy Advisory Council, may apply for assistance pursuant to this Act in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Department. In setting the annual eligibility level, the Department shall consider the amount of available funding and may not set a limit higher than 150% of the federal nonfarm poverty level as established by the federal Office of Management and Budget; except that for the period ending June 30, 2012, or until the expenditure of federal resources allocated for energy assistance programs by the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act, whichever occurs first, the Department may not establish limits higher than 200% of that poverty level.

(b) Applicants who qualify for assistance pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section shall, subject to appropriation from the General Assembly and subject to availability of funds to the Department, receive energy assistance as provided by this Act. The Department, upon receipt of monies authorized pursuant to this Act for energy assistance, shall commit funds for each qualified applicant in an amount determined by the Department. In determining the amounts of assistance to be provided to or on behalf of a qualified applicant, the Department shall ensure that the highest amounts of assistance go to households with the greatest energy costs in relation to household income. The Department shall include factors such as energy costs, household size, household income, and region of the State when determining individual household benefits. In setting assistance levels, the Department shall attempt to provide assistance to approximately the same number of households who participated in the 1991 Residential Energy Assistance Partnership Program. Such assistance levels shall be adjusted annually on the basis of funding availability and energy costs. In promulgating rules for the administration of this Section the Department shall assure that a minimum of 1/3 of funds available for benefits to eligible households with the lowest incomes and that elderly and disabled households are offered a priority application period.

(c) If the applicant is not a customer of record of an energy provider for energy services or an applicant for such service, such applicant shall receive a direct energy assistance payment in an amount established by the Department for all such applicants under this Act; provided, however, that such an applicant must have rental expenses for housing greater than 30% of household income.

(c-1) This subsection shall apply only in cases where: (1) the applicant is not a customer of record of an energy provider because energy services are provided by the owner of the unit as a portion of the rent; (2) the applicant resides in housing subsidized or developed with funds provided under the Rental Housing Support Program Act or under a similar locally funded rent subsidy program, or is the voucher holder who resides in a rental unit within the State of Illinois and whose monthly rent is subsidized by the tenant-based Housing Choice Voucher Program under Section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937; and (3) the rental expenses for housing are no more than 30% of household income. In such cases, the household may apply for an energy assistance payment under this Act and the owner of the housing unit shall cooperate with the applicant by providing documentation of the energy costs for that unit. Any compensation paid to the energy provider who supplied energy services to the household shall be paid on behalf of the owner of the housing unit providing energy services to the household. The Department shall report annually to the General Assembly on the number of households receiving energy assistance under this subsection and the cost of such assistance. The provisions of this subsection (c-1), other than this sentence, are inoperative after August 31, 2012.

(d) If the applicant is a customer of an energy provider, such applicant shall receive energy assistance in an amount established by the Department for all such applicants under this Act, such amount to be paid by the Department to the energy provider supplying winter energy service to such applicant. Such applicant shall:

(i) make all reasonable efforts to apply to any other appropriate source of public energy assistance; and

(ii) sign a waiver permitting the Department to receive income information from any public or private agency providing income or energy assistance and from any employer, whether public or private.

(e) Any qualified applicant pursuant to this Section may receive or have paid on such applicant's behalf an emergency assistance payment to enable such applicant to obtain access to winter energy services. Any such payments shall be made in accordance with regulations of the Department.

(f) The Department may, if sufficient funds are available, provide additional benefits to certain qualified applicants:

(i) for the reduction of past due amounts owed to energy providers; and

(ii) to assist the household in responding to excessively high summer temperatures or energy costs. Households containing elderly members, children, a person with a disability, or a person with a medical need for conditioned air shall receive priority for receipt of such benefits.

(Source: P.A. 96-154, eff. 1-1-10; 96-157, eff. 9-1-09; revised 9-4-09.)

(305 ILCS 20/13)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2013)

Sec. 13. Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund.

(a) The Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund is authorized to receive moneys from voluntary donations from individuals, foundations, corporations, and other sources, moneys received pursuant to Section 17, and, by statutory deposit, the moneys collected pursuant to this Section. The Fund is also authorized to receive voluntary donations from individuals, foundations, corporations, and other sources, as well as contributions made in accordance with Section 507MM of the Illinois Income Tax Act. Subject to appropriation, the Department shall use moneys from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund for payments to electric or gas public utilities, municipal electric or gas utilities, and electric cooperatives on behalf of their customers who are participants in the program authorized by Sections 4 and 18 of this Act, for the provision of weatherization services and for administration of the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund. The yearly expenditures for weatherization may not exceed 10% of the amount collected during the year pursuant to this Section. The yearly administrative expenses of the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund may not exceed 10% of the amount collected during that year pursuant to this Section.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 16-111 of the Public Utilities Act but subject to subsection (k) of this Section, each public utility, electric cooperative, as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, and municipal utility, as referenced in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, that is engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas within the State of Illinois shall, effective January 1, 1998, assess each of its customer accounts a monthly Energy Assistance Charge for the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund. The delivering public utility, municipal electric or gas utility, or electric or gas cooperative for a self-assessing purchaser remains subject to the collection of the fee imposed by this Section. The monthly charge shall be as follows:

(1) $0.48 per month on each account for residential electric service;

(2) $0.48 per month on each account for residential gas service;

(3) $4.80 per month on each account for non-residential electric service which had less than 10 megawatts of peak demand during the previous calendar year;

(4) $4.80 per month on each account for non-residential gas service which had distributed to it less than 4,000,000 therms of gas during the previous calendar year;

(5) $360 per month on each account for non-residential electric service which had 10 megawatts or greater of peak demand during the previous calendar year; and

(6) $360 per month on each account for non-residential gas service which had 4,000,000 or more therms of gas distributed to it during the previous calendar year.

The incremental change to such charges imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall not (i) be used for any purpose other than to directly assist customers and (ii) be applicable to utilities serving less than 100,000 customers in Illinois on January 1, 2009.

In addition, electric and gas utilities have committed, and shall contribute, a one-time payment of $22 million to the Fund, within 10 days after the effective date of the tariffs established pursuant to Sections 16-111.8 and 19-145 of the Public Utilities Act to be used for the Department's cost of implementing the programs described in Section 18 of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Arrearage Reduction Program described in Section 18, and the programs described in Section 8-105 of the Public Utilities Act. If a utility elects not to file a rider within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, then the contribution from such utility shall be made no later than February 1, 2010.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "residential electric service" means electric utility service for household purposes delivered to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate, or electric utility service for household purposes delivered to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit;

(2) "residential gas service" means gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate, or gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit;

(3) "non-residential electric service" means electric utility service which is not residential electric service; and

(4) "non-residential gas service" means gas utility service which is not residential gas service.

(d) Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, each public utility engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas shall file with the Illinois Commerce Commission tariffs incorporating the Energy Assistance Charge in other charges stated in such tariffs, which shall become effective no later than the beginning of the first billing cycle following such filing.

(e) The Energy Assistance Charge assessed by electric and gas public utilities shall be considered a charge for public utility service.

(f) By the 20th day of the month following the month in which the charges imposed by the Section were collected, each public utility, municipal utility, and electric cooperative shall remit to the Department of Revenue all moneys received as payment of the Energy Assistance Charge on a return prescribed and furnished by the Department of Revenue showing such information as the Department of Revenue may reasonably require; provided, however, that a utility offering an Arrearage Reduction Program pursuant to Section 18 of this Act shall be entitled to net those amounts necessary to fund and recover the costs of such Program as authorized by that Section that is no more than the incremental change in such Energy Assistance Charge authorized by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. If a customer makes a partial payment, a public utility, municipal utility, or electric cooperative may elect either: (i) to apply such partial payments first to amounts owed to the utility or cooperative for its services and then to payment for the Energy Assistance Charge or (ii) to apply such partial payments on a pro-rata basis between amounts owed to the utility or cooperative for its services and to payment for the Energy Assistance Charge.

(g) The Department of Revenue shall deposit into the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund all moneys remitted to it in accordance with subsection (f) of this Section; provided, however, that the amounts remitted by each utility shall be used to provide assistance to that utility's customers. The utilities shall coordinate with the Department to establish an equitable and practical methodology for implementing this subsection (g) beginning with the 2010 program year.

(h) (Blank). On or before December 31, 2002, the Department shall prepare a report for the General Assembly on the expenditure of funds appropriated from the Low-Income Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund for the program authorized under Section 4 of this Act.

(i) The Department of Revenue may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(j) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(k) The charges imposed by this Section shall only apply to customers of municipal electric or gas utilities and electric or gas cooperatives if the municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or an electric cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge provided by this Section, the municipal electric or gas utility or electric cooperative shall inform the Department of Revenue in writing of such decision when it begins to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative does not assess this charge, the Department may not use funds from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund to provide benefits to its customers under the program authorized by Section 4 of this Act.

In its use of federal funds under this Act, the Department may not cause a disproportionate share of those federal funds to benefit customers of systems which do not assess the charge provided by this Section.

This Section is repealed effective December 31, 2013 unless renewed by action of the General Assembly. The General Assembly shall consider the results of the evaluations described in Section 8 in its deliberations.

(Source: P.A. 95-48, eff. 8-10-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-33, eff. 7-10-09; 96-154, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 510. The Elder Abuse and Neglect Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, and 4 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) (Blank);

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; or

(9) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) "Eligible adult" means a person 60 years of age or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual or who neglects himself or herself.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination, except as to information received in any confession or sacred communication enjoined by the discipline of the religious denomination to be held confidential;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of the regional administrative agency for any planning and service area where another agency is not so designated.

(i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing, shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services necessary to maintain physical health, mental health, emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition and retention of large quantities of items and materials that produce an extensively cluttered living space, which significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10; 96-572, eff.1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(1.5) A facility licensed under the MR/DD Community Care Act;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) (Blank);

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; or

(9) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) "Eligible adult" means a person 60 years of age or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual or who neglects himself or herself.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination, except as to information received in any confession or sacred communication enjoined by the discipline of the religious denomination to be held confidential;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of the regional administrative agency for any planning and service area where another agency is not so designated.

(i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing, shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services necessary to maintain physical health, mental health, emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition and retention of large quantities of items and materials that produce an extensively cluttered living space, which significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10; 96-572, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(320 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 6603)

Sec. 3. Responsibilities.

(a) The Department shall establish, design and manage a program of response and services for persons 60 years of age and older who have been, or are alleged to be, victims of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. The Department shall contract with or fund or, contract with and fund, regional administrative agencies, provider agencies, or both, for the provision of those functions, and, contingent on adequate funding, with attorneys or legal services provider agencies for the provision of legal assistance pursuant to this Act. The program shall include the following services for eligible adults who have been removed from their residences for the purpose of cleanup or repairs: temporary housing; counseling; and caseworker services to try to ensure that the conditions necessitating the removal do not reoccur.

(b) Each regional administrative agency shall designate provider agencies within its planning and service area with prior approval by the Department on Aging, monitor the use of services, provide technical assistance to the provider agencies and be involved in program development activities.

(c) Provider agencies shall assist, to the extent possible, eligible adults who need agency services to allow them to continue to function independently. Such assistance shall include but not be limited to receiving reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect, conducting face-to-face assessments of such reported cases, determination of substantiated cases, referral of substantiated cases for necessary support services, referral of criminal conduct to law enforcement in accordance with Department guidelines, and provision of case work and follow-up services on substantiated cases. In the case of a report of alleged or suspected abuse or neglect that places an eligible adult at risk of injury or death, a provider agency shall respond to the report on an emergency basis in accordance with guidelines established by the Department by administrative rule and shall ensure that it is capable of responding to such a report 24 hours per day, 7 days per week. A provider agency may use an on-call system to respond to reports of alleged or suspected abuse or neglect after hours and on weekends.

(d) Upon sufficient appropriations to implement a statewide program, the Department shall implement a program, based on the recommendations of the Elder Self-Neglect Steering Committee, for (i) responding to reports of possible self-neglect, (ii) protecting the autonomy, rights, privacy, and privileges of adults during investigations of possible self-neglect and consequential judicial proceedings regarding competency, (iii) collecting and sharing relevant information and data among the Department, provider agencies, regional administrative agencies, and relevant seniors, (iv) developing working agreements between provider agencies and law enforcement, where practicable, and (v) developing procedures for collecting data regarding incidents of self-neglect.

(Source: P.A. 95-76, eff. 6-1-08; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10; 96-572, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(320 ILCS 20/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 6604)

Sec. 4. Reports of abuse or neglect.

(a) Any person who suspects the abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult may report this suspicion to an agency designated to receive such reports under this Act or to the Department.

(a-5) If any mandated reporter has reason to believe that an eligible adult, who because of dysfunction is unable to seek assistance for himself or herself, has, within the previous 12 months, been subjected to abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, the mandated reporter shall, within 24 hours after developing such belief, report this suspicion to an agency designated to receive such reports under this Act or to the Department. Whenever a mandated reporter is required to report under this Act in his or her capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, facility, board and care home, or agency, he or she shall make a report to an agency designated to receive such reports under this Act or to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of the institution, facility, board and care home, or agency or his or her designated agent that the report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, facility, board and care home, or agency, or his or her designated agent to whom the notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification, or other change in the report or the forwarding of the report to an agency designated to receive such reports under this Act or to the Department. The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his or her patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused, neglected, or financially exploited eligible adults and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act.

(a-7) A person making a report under this Act in the belief that it is in the alleged victim's best interest shall be immune from criminal or civil liability or professional disciplinary action on account of making the report, notwithstanding any requirements concerning the confidentiality of information with respect to such eligible adult which might otherwise be applicable.

(a-9) Law enforcement officers shall continue to report incidents of alleged abuse pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, notwithstanding any requirements under this Act.

(b) Any person, institution or agency participating in the making of a report, providing information or records related to a report, assessment, or services, or participating in the investigation of a report under this Act in good faith, or taking photographs or x-rays as a result of an authorized assessment, shall have immunity from any civil, criminal or other liability in any civil, criminal or other proceeding brought in consequence of making such report or assessment or on account of submitting or otherwise disclosing such photographs or x-rays to any agency designated to receive reports of alleged or suspected abuse or neglect. Any person, institution or agency authorized by the Department to provide assessment, intervention, or administrative services under this Act shall, in the good faith performance of those services, have immunity from any civil, criminal or other liability in any civil, criminal, or other proceeding brought as a consequence of the performance of those services. For the purposes of any civil, criminal, or other proceeding, the good faith of any person required to report, permitted to report, or participating in an investigation of a report of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect shall be presumed.

(c) The identity of a person making a report of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect under this Act may be disclosed by the Department or other agency provided for in this Act only with such person's written consent or by court order.

(d) The Department shall by rule establish a system for filing and compiling reports made under this Act.

(e) Any physician who willfully fails to report as required by this Act shall be referred to the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Board for action in accordance with subdivision (A)(22) of Section 22 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Any dentist or dental hygienist who willfully fails to report as required by this Act shall be referred to the Department of Professional Regulation for action in accordance with paragraph 19 of Section 23 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act. Any optometrist who willfully fails to report as required by this Act shall be referred to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for action in accordance with paragraph (15) of subsection (a) of Section 24 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987. Any other mandated reporter required by this Act to report suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation who willfully fails to report the same is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-378, eff. 1-1-10; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

Section 515. The Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(320 ILCS 25/5) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 405)

Sec. 5. Procedure.

(a) In general. Claims must be filed after January 1, on forms prescribed by the Department. No claim may be filed more than one year after December 31 of the year for which the claim is filed. The pharmaceutical assistance identification card provided for in subsection (f) of Section 4 shall be valid for a period determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Claim is Personal. The right to file a claim under this Act shall be personal to the claimant and shall not survive his death, but such right may be exercised on behalf of a claimant by his legal guardian or attorney-in-fact. If a claimant dies after having filed a timely claim, the amount thereof shall be disbursed to his surviving spouse or, if no spouse survives, to his surviving dependent minor children in equal parts, provided the spouse or child, as the case may be, resided with the claimant at the time he filed his claim. If at the time of disbursement neither the claimant nor his spouse is surviving, and no dependent minor children of the claimant are surviving the amount of the claim shall escheat to the State.

(c) One claim per household. Only one member of a household may file a claim under this Act in any calendar year; where both members of a household are otherwise entitled to claim a grant under this Act, they must agree as to which of them will file a claim for that year.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Pharmaceutical Assistance Procedures. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall determine eligibility for pharmaceutical assistance using the applicant's current income. The Department shall determine a person's current income in the manner provided by the Department by rule.

(f) A person may not under any circumstances charge a fee to a claimant under this Act for assistance in completing an application form for a property tax relief grant or pharmaceutical assistance under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-491, eff. 8-14-09; 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-24-09.)

Section 520. The Older Adult Services Act is amended by changing Sections 25 and 30 as follows:

(320 ILCS 42/25)

Sec. 25. Older adult services restructuring. No later than January 1, 2005, the Department shall commence the process of restructuring the older adult services delivery system. Priority shall be given to both the expansion of services and the development of new services in priority service areas. Subject to the availability of funding, the restructuring shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) Planning. The Department on Aging and the Departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services shall develop a plan to restructure the State's service delivery system for older adults pursuant to this Act no later than September 30, 2010. The plan shall include a schedule for the implementation of the initiatives outlined in this Act and all other initiatives identified by the participating agencies to fulfill the purposes of this Act and shall protect the rights of all older Illinoisans to services based on their health circumstances and functioning level, regardless of whether they receive their care in their homes, in a community setting, or in a residential facility. Financing for older adult services shall be based on the principle that "money follows the individual" taking into account individual preference, but shall not jeopardize the health, safety, or level of care of nursing home residents. The plan shall also identify potential impediments to delivery system restructuring and include any known regulatory or statutory barriers.

(2) Comprehensive case management. The Department shall implement a statewide system of holistic comprehensive case management. The system shall include the identification and implementation of a universal, comprehensive assessment tool to be used statewide to determine the level of functional, cognitive, socialization, and financial needs of older adults. This tool shall be supported by an electronic intake, assessment, and care planning system linked to a central location. "Comprehensive case management" includes services and coordination such as (i) comprehensive assessment of the older adult (including the physical, functional, cognitive, psycho-social, and social needs of the individual); (ii) development and implementation of a service plan with the older adult to mobilize the formal and family resources and services identified in the assessment to meet the needs of the older adult, including coordination of the resources and services with any other plans that exist for various formal services, such as hospital discharge plans, and with the information and assistance services; (iii) coordination and monitoring of formal and family service delivery, including coordination and monitoring to ensure that services specified in the plan are being provided; (iv) periodic reassessment and revision of the status of the older adult with the older adult or, if necessary, the older adult's designated representative; and (v) in accordance with the wishes of the older adult, advocacy on behalf of the older adult for needed services or resources.

(3) Coordinated point of entry. The Department shall implement and publicize a statewide coordinated point of entry using a uniform name, identity, logo, and toll-free number.

(4) Public web site. The Department shall develop a public web site that provides links to available services, resources, and reference materials concerning caregiving, diseases, and best practices for use by professionals, older adults, and family caregivers.

(5) Expansion of older adult services. The Department shall expand older adult services that promote independence and permit older adults to remain in their own homes and communities.

(6) Consumer-directed home and community-based services. The Department shall expand the range of service options available to permit older adults to exercise maximum choice and control over their care.

(7) Comprehensive delivery system. The Department shall expand opportunities for older adults to receive services in systems that integrate acute and chronic care.

(8) Enhanced transition and follow-up services. The Department shall implement a program of transition from one residential setting to another and follow-up services, regardless of residential setting, pursuant to rules with respect to (i) resident eligibility, (ii) assessment of the resident's health, cognitive, social, and financial needs, (iii) development of transition plans, and (iv) the level of services that must be available before transitioning a resident from one setting to another.

(9) Family caregiver support. The Department shall develop strategies for public and private financing of services that supplement and support family caregivers.

(10) Quality standards and quality improvement. The Department shall establish a core set of uniform quality standards for all providers that focus on outcomes and take into consideration consumer choice and satisfaction, and the Department shall require each provider to implement a continuous quality improvement process to address consumer issues. The continuous quality improvement process must benchmark performance, be person-centered and data-driven, and focus on consumer satisfaction.

(11) Workforce. The Department shall develop strategies to attract and retain a qualified and stable worker pool, provide living wages and benefits, and create a work environment that is conducive to long-term employment and career development. Resources such as grants, education, and promotion of career opportunities may be used.

(12) Coordination of services. The Department shall identify methods to better coordinate service networks to maximize resources and minimize duplication of services and ease of application.

(13) Barriers to services. The Department shall identify barriers to the provision, availability, and accessibility of services and shall implement a plan to address those barriers. The plan shall: (i) identify barriers, including but not limited to, statutory and regulatory complexity, reimbursement issues, payment issues, and labor force issues; (ii) recommend changes to State or federal laws or administrative rules or regulations; (iii) recommend application for federal waivers to improve efficiency and reduce cost and paperwork; (iv) develop innovative service delivery models; and (v) recommend application for federal or private service grants.

(14) Reimbursement and funding. The Department shall investigate and evaluate costs and payments by defining costs to implement a uniform, audited provider cost reporting system to be considered by all Departments in establishing payments. To the extent possible, multiple cost reporting mandates shall not be imposed.

(15) Medicaid nursing home cost containment and Medicare utilization. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), in collaboration with the Department on Aging and the Department of Public Health and in consultation with the Advisory Committee, shall propose a plan to contain Medicaid nursing home costs and maximize Medicare utilization. The plan must not impair the ability of an older adult to choose among available services. The plan shall include, but not be limited to, (i) techniques to maximize the use of the most cost-effective services without sacrificing quality and (ii) methods to identify and serve older adults in need of minimal services to remain independent, but who are likely to develop a need for more extensive services in the absence of those minimal services.

(16) Bed reduction. The Department of Public Health shall implement a nursing home conversion program to reduce the number of Medicaid-certified nursing home beds in areas with excess beds. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall investigate changes to the Medicaid nursing facility reimbursement system in order to reduce beds. Such changes may include, but are not limited to, incentive payments that will enable facilities to adjust to the restructuring and expansion of services required by the Older Adult Services Act, including adjustments for the voluntary closure or layaway of nursing home beds certified under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act. Any savings shall be reallocated to fund home-based or community-based older adult services pursuant to Section 20.

(17) Financing. The Department shall investigate and evaluate financing options for older adult services and shall make recommendations in the report required by Section 15 concerning the feasibility of these financing arrangements. These arrangements shall include, but are not limited to:

(A) private long-term care insurance coverage for older adult services;

(B) enhancement of federal long-term care financing initiatives;

(C) employer benefit programs such as medical savings accounts for long-term care;

(D) individual and family cost-sharing options;

(E) strategies to reduce reliance on government programs;

(F) fraudulent asset divestiture and financial planning prevention; and

(G) methods to supplement and support family and community caregiving.

(18) Older Adult Services Demonstration Grants. The Department shall implement a program of demonstration grants that will assist in the restructuring of the older adult services delivery system, and shall provide funding for innovative service delivery models and system change and integration initiatives pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 20.

(19) Bed need methodology update. For the purposes of determining areas with excess beds, the Departments shall provide information and assistance to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board to update the Bed Need Methodology for Long-Term Care to update the assumptions used to establish the methodology to make them consistent with modern older adult services.

(20) Affordable housing. The Departments shall utilize the recommendations of Illinois' Annual Comprehensive Housing Plan, as developed by the Affordable Housing Task Force through the Governor's Executive Order 2003-18, in their efforts to address the affordable housing needs of older adults.

The Older Adult Services Advisory Committee shall investigate innovative and promising practices operating as demonstration or pilot projects in Illinois and in other states. The Department on Aging shall provide the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee with a list of all demonstration or pilot projects funded by the Department on Aging, including those specified by rule, law, policy memorandum, or funding arrangement. The Committee shall work with the Department on Aging to evaluate the viability of expanding these programs into other areas of the State.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-248, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-4-09.)

(320 ILCS 42/30)

Sec. 30. Nursing home conversion program.

(a) The Department of Public Health, in collaboration with the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, shall establish a nursing home conversion program. Start-up grants, pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of this Section, shall be made available to nursing homes as appropriations permit as an incentive to reduce certified beds, retrofit, and retool operations to meet new service delivery expectations and demands.

(b) Grant moneys shall be made available for capital and other costs related to: (1) the conversion of all or a part of a nursing home to an assisted living establishment or a special program or unit for persons with Alzheimer's disease or related disorders licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or a supportive living facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; (2) the conversion of multi-resident bedrooms in the facility into single-occupancy rooms; and (3) the development of any of the services identified in a priority service plan that can be provided by a nursing home within the confines of a nursing home or transportation services. Grantees shall be required to provide a minimum of a 20% match toward the total cost of the project.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the co-location of services or the development of multifunctional centers under subsection (f) of Section 20, including a nursing home offering community-based services or a community provider establishing a residential facility.

(d) A certified nursing home with at least 50% of its resident population having their care paid for by the Medicaid program is eligible to apply for a grant under this Section.

(e) Any nursing home receiving a grant under this Section shall reduce the number of certified nursing home beds by a number equal to or greater than the number of beds being converted for one or more of the permitted uses under item (1) or (2) of subsection (b). The nursing home shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted for 15 years. If the beds are reinstated by the provider or its successor in interest, the provider shall pay to the fund from which the grant was awarded, on an amortized basis, the amount of the grant. The Department shall establish, by rule, the bed reduction methodology for nursing homes that receive a grant pursuant to item (3) of subsection (b).

(f) Any nursing home receiving a grant under this Section shall agree that, for a minimum of 10 years after the date that the grant is awarded, a minimum of 50% of the nursing home's resident population shall have their care paid for by the Medicaid program. If the nursing home provider or its successor in interest ceases to comply with the requirement set forth in this subsection, the provider shall pay to the fund from which the grant was awarded, on an amortized basis, the amount of the grant.

(g) Before awarding grants, the Department of Public Health shall seek recommendations from the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Public Health shall attempt to balance the distribution of grants among geographic regions, and among small and large nursing homes. The Department of Public Health shall develop, by rule, the criteria for the award of grants based upon the following factors:

(1) the unique needs of older adults (including those with moderate and low incomes), caregivers, and providers in the geographic area of the State the grantee seeks to serve;

(2) whether the grantee proposes to provide services in a priority service area;

(3) the extent to which the conversion or transition will result in the reduction of certified nursing home beds in an area with excess beds;

(4) the compliance history of the nursing home; and

(5) any other relevant factors identified by the Department, including standards of need.

(h) A conversion funded in whole or in part by a grant under this Section must not:

(1) diminish or reduce the quality of services available to nursing home residents;

(2) force any nursing home resident to involuntarily accept home-based or community-based services instead of nursing home services;

(3) diminish or reduce the supply and distribution of nursing home services in any community below the level of need, as defined by the Department by rule; or

(4) cause undue hardship on any person who requires nursing home care.

(i) The Department shall prescribe, by rule, the grant application process. At a minimum, every application must include:

(1) the type of grant sought;

(2) a description of the project;

(3) the objective of the project;

(4) the likelihood of the project meeting identified needs;

(5) the plan for financing, administration, and evaluation of the project;

(6) the timetable for implementation;

(7) the roles and capabilities of responsible individuals and organizations;

(8) documentation of collaboration with other service providers, local community government leaders, and other stakeholders, other providers, and any other stakeholders in the community;

(9) documentation of community support for the project, including support by other service providers, local community government leaders, and other stakeholders;

(10) the total budget for the project;

(11) the financial condition of the applicant; and

(12) any other application requirements that may be established by the Department by rule.

(j) A conversion project funded in whole or in part by a grant under this Section is exempt from the requirements of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. The Department of Public Health, however, shall send to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board a copy of each grant award made under this Section.

(k) Applications for grants are public information, except that nursing home financial condition and any proprietary data shall be classified as nonpublic data.

(l) The Department of Public Health may award grants from the Long Term Care Civil Money Penalties Fund established under Section 1919(h)(2)(A)(ii) of the Social Security Act and 42 CFR 488.422(g) if the award meets federal requirements.

(m) The Nursing Home Conversion Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys appropriated by the General Assembly or transferred from other sources for the purposes of this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. All interest earned on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys contained in the fund shall be used to support the purposes of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-758, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-6-09.)

Section 525. The Early Intervention Services System Act is amended by changing Section 13.50 as follows:

(325 ILCS 20/13.50)

Sec. 13.50. Early Intervention Legislative Advisory Committee. No later than 60 days after August 9, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-307) this amendatory Act of 92nd General Assembly, there shall be convened the Early Intervention Legislative Advisory Committee. The majority and minority leaders of the General Assembly shall each appoint 2 members to the Committee. The Committee's term is for a period of 4 years, and the Committee shall publicly convene no less than 4 times per year. The Committee's responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, providing guidance to the lead agency regarding programmatic and fiscal management and accountability, provider development and accountability, contracting, and program outcome measures. During the life of the Committee, on a quarterly basis, or more often as the Committee may request, the lead agency shall provide to the Committee, and simultaneously to the public, through postings on the lead agency's early intervention website, quarterly reports containing monthly data and other early intervention program information that the Committee requests. The first data report must be supplied no later than September 21, 2001, and must include the previous 2 quarters of data.

(Source: P.A. 92-307, eff. 8-9-01; 93-124, eff. 7-10-03; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 530. The Veterans' Health Insurance Program Act of 2008 is amended by changing Sections 5 and 45 as follows:

(330 ILCS 126/5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2012)

Sec. 5. Definitions. The following words have the following meanings:

"Department" means the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or any successor agency.

"Director" means the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, or any successor agency.

"Medical assistance" means health care benefits provided under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Program" means the Veterans' Health Insurance Program.

"Resident" means an individual who has an Illinois residence, as provided in Section 5-3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Spouse" means the person who is the person who, under the laws of the State of Illinois, is married to an eligible veteran at the time of application and subsequent re-determinations for the Program and includes enrolled spouses surviving the death of veteran spouses.

"Veteran" means any person who has served in a branch of the United States military for greater than 180 days after initial training.

"Veterans Veterans' Affairs" or "VA" means the United States Department of Veterans Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 95-755, eff. 7-25-08; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(330 ILCS 126/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2012)

Sec. 45. Reporting.

(a) The Department shall prepare an annual report for submission to the General Assembly. The report shall be due to the General Assembly by January 1 of each year beginning in 2009. This report shall include information regarding implementation of the Program, including the number of veterans or spouses enrolled and any available information regarding other benefits derived from the Program, including screening for and acquisition of other veterans' benefits through the Veterans' Service Officers and the Veterans' Assistance Commissions. This report may also include recommendations regarding improvements that may be made to the Program and regarding the extension of the repeal date set forth in Section 85 of this Act.

(b) The Department shall also arrange for the conducting of an evaluation regarding the availability of and access to health care for veterans who are residents of Illinois, taking into consideration the program established by this Act, programs and services provided by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, and programs and services otherwise provided by and available through other public and private entities. The evaluation shall determine whether there are limitations or barriers to care, gaps in service, or other deficits that should be overcome to ensure that veterans are provided appropriate and high-quality care. The Department shall report on the results of this evaluation to the Governor and the General Assembly by March 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 95-755, eff. 7-25-08; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-82, eff. 7-27-09; revised 11-3-09.)

Section 535. The Community Services Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 4.6 as follows:

(405 ILCS 30/4.6)

Sec. 4.6. Closure and sale of State mental health or developmental disabilities facility.

(a) Whenever a State mental health facility operated by the Department of Human Services is closed and the real estate on which the facility is located is sold by the State, then, to the extent that net proceeds are realized from the sale of that real estate, those net proceeds must be directed toward providing other services and supports for persons with mental health needs. To that end, those net proceeds shall be deposited into the Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund.

(b) Whenever a State developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services is closed and the real estate on which the facility is located is sold by the State, then, to the extent that net proceeds are realized from the sale of that real estate, those net proceeds must be directed toward providing other services and supports for persons with developmental disabilities needs. To that end, those net proceeds shall be deposited into the Community Developmental Disability Services Medicaid Trust Fund.

(c) In determining whether any net proceeds are realized from a sale of real estate described in subsection (a) or (b), the Division of Developmental Disabilities and the Division of Mental Health of the Department of Human Services shall each determine the money, if any, that shall be made available to ensure that life, safety, and care concerns, including infrastructure, are addressed so as to provide for persons with developmental disabilities or mental illness at the remaining respective State-operated facilities that will be expected to serve the individuals previously served at the closed facility.

(d) The purposes for which the net proceeds from a sale of real estate as provided in this Section may be used include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) Providing for individuals with developmental disabilities and mental health needs the services and supports described in subsection (e) of Section 4.4.

(2) In the case of the closure of a mental health facility, the construction of a new facility to serve the needs of persons with mental health needs.

(3) In the case of the closure of a developmental disabilities facility, construction of a new facility to serve the needs of persons with developmental disabilities needs.

(e) Whenever any net proceeds are realized from a sale of real estate as provided in this Section, the Department of Human Services shall share and discuss its plan or plans for using those net proceeds with advocates, advocacy organizations, and advisory groups whose mission includes advocacy for persons with developmental disabilities or persons with mental illness.

(Source: P.A. 96-660, eff. 8-25-09.)

(405 ILCS 30/4.7)

Sec. 4.7 4.6. Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program. The Department of Human Services shall participate in the Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program established under Section 12-4.37 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and may fund the provision of community services under this Act in Sangamon County through participation in that pilot program.

(Source: P.A. 96-691, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-24-09.)

Section 540. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Sections 12 and 18 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/12)

Sec. 12. Live births; place of registration.

(1) Each live birth which occurs in this State shall be registered with the local or subregistrar of the district in which the birth occurred as provided in this Section, within 7 days after the birth. When a birth occurs on a moving conveyance, the city, village, township, or road district in which the child is first removed from the conveyance shall be considered the place of birth and a birth certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which the place is located.

(2) When a birth occurs in an institution, the person in charge of the institution or his designated representative shall obtain and record all the personal and statistical particulars relative to the parents of the child that are required to properly complete the live birth certificate; shall secure the required personal signatures on the hospital worksheet; shall prepare the certificate from this worksheet; and shall file the certificate with the local registrar. The institution shall retain the hospital worksheet permanently or as otherwise specified by rule. The physician in attendance shall verify or provide the date of birth and medical information required by the certificate, within 24 hours after the birth occurs.

(3) When a birth occurs outside an institution, the certificate shall be prepared and filed by one of the following in the indicated order of priority:

(a) The physician in attendance at or immediately after the birth, or in the absence of such a person,

(b) Any other person in attendance at or immediately after the birth, or in the absence of such a person,

(c) The father, the mother, or in the absence of the father and the inability of the mother, the person in charge of the premises where the birth occurred.

(4) Unless otherwise provided in this Act, if the mother was not married to the father of the child at either the time of conception or the time of birth, the name of the father shall be entered on the child's birth certificate only if the mother and the person to be named as the father have signed an acknowledgment of parentage in accordance with subsection (5).

Unless otherwise provided in this Act, if the mother was married at the time of conception or birth and the presumed father (that is, the mother's husband) is not the biological father of the child, the name of the biological father shall be entered on the child's birth certificate only if, in accordance with subsection (5), (i) the mother and the person to be named as the father have signed an acknowledgment of parentage and (ii) the mother and presumed father have signed a denial of paternity.

(5) Upon the birth of a child to an unmarried woman, or upon the birth of a child to a woman who was married at the time of conception or birth and whose husband is not the biological father of the child, the institution at the time of birth and the local registrar or county clerk after the birth shall do the following:

(a) Provide (i) an opportunity for the child's mother and father to sign an acknowledgment of parentage and (ii) if the presumed father is not the biological father, an opportunity for the mother and presumed father to sign a denial of paternity. The signing and witnessing of the acknowledgment of parentage or, if the presumed father of the child is not the biological father, the acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity conclusively establishes a parent and child relationship in accordance with Sections 5 and 6 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall furnish the acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity form to institutions, county clerks, and State and local registrars' offices. The form shall include instructions to send the original signed and witnessed acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The acknowledgement of paternity and denial of paternity form shall also include a statement informing the mother, the alleged father, and the presumed father, if any, that they have the right to request deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) tests regarding the issue of the child's paternity and that by signing the form, they expressly waive such tests. The statement shall be set forth in bold-face boldface capital letters not less than 0.25 inches in height.

(b) Provide the following documents, furnished by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to the child's mother, biological father, and (if the person presumed to be the child's father is not the biological father) presumed father for their review at the time the opportunity is provided to establish a parent and child relationship:

(i) An explanation of the implications of, alternatives to, legal consequences of, and the rights and responsibilities that arise from signing an acknowledgment of parentage and, if necessary, a denial of paternity, including an explanation of the parental rights and responsibilities of child support, visitation, custody, retroactive support, health insurance coverage, and payment of birth expenses.

(ii) An explanation of the benefits of having a child's parentage established and the availability of parentage establishment and child support enforcement services.

(iii) A request for an application for child support enforcement services from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(iv) Instructions concerning the opportunity to speak, either by telephone or in person, with staff of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services who are trained to clarify information and answer questions about paternity establishment.

(v) Instructions for completing and signing the acknowledgment of parentage and denial of paternity.

(c) Provide an oral explanation of the documents and instructions set forth in subdivision (5)(b), including an explanation of the implications of, alternatives to, legal consequences of, and the rights and responsibilities that arise from signing an acknowledgment of parentage and, if necessary, a denial of paternity. The oral explanation may be given in person or through the use of video or audio equipment.

(6) The institution, State or local registrar, or county clerk shall provide an opportunity for the child's father or mother to sign a rescission of parentage. The signing and witnessing of the rescission of parentage voids the acknowledgment of parentage and nullifies the presumption of paternity if executed and filed with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) within the time frame contained in Section 5 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall furnish the rescission of parentage form to institutions, county clerks, and State and local registrars' offices. The form shall include instructions to send the original signed and witnessed rescission of parentage to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(7) An acknowledgment of paternity signed pursuant to Section 6 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 may be challenged in court only on the basis of fraud, duress, or material mistake of fact, with the burden of proof upon the challenging party. Pending outcome of a challenge to the acknowledgment of paternity, the legal responsibilities of the signatories shall remain in full force and effect, except upon order of the court upon a showing of good cause.

(8) When the process for acknowledgment of parentage as provided for under subsection (5) establishes the paternity of a child whose certificate of birth is on file in another state, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall forward a copy of the acknowledgment of parentage, the denial of paternity, if applicable, and the rescission of parentage, if applicable, to the birth record agency of the state where the child's certificate of birth is on file.

(9) In the event the parent-child relationship has been established in accordance with subdivision (a)(1) of Section 6 of the Parentage Act of 1984, the names of the biological mother and biological father so established shall be entered on the child's birth certificate, and the names of the surrogate mother and surrogate mother's husband, if any, shall not be on the birth certificate.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-333, eff. 8-11-09; 96-474, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-4-09.)

(410 ILCS 535/18) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-18)

Sec. 18. (1) Each death which occurs in this State shall be registered by filing a death certificate with the local registrar of the district in which the death occurred or the body was found, within 7 days after such death (within 5 days if the death occurs prior to January 1, 1989) and prior to cremation or removal of the body from the State, except when death is subject to investigation by the coroner or medical examiner.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, if the place of death is unknown, a death certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which a dead body is found, which shall be considered the place of death.

(b) When a death occurs on a moving conveyance, the place where the body is first removed from the conveyance shall be considered the place of death and a death certificate shall be filed in the registration district in which such place is located.

(c) The funeral director who first assumes custody of a dead body shall be responsible for filing a completed death certificate. He shall obtain the personal data from the next of kin or the best qualified person or source available; he shall enter on the certificate the name, relationship, and address of his informant; he shall enter the date, place, and method of final disposition; he shall affix his own signature and enter his address; and shall present the certificate to the person responsible for completing the medical certification of cause of death.

(2) The medical certification shall be completed and signed within 48 hours after death by the physician in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition which resulted in death, except when death is subject to the coroner's or medical examiner's investigation. In the absence of the physician or with his approval, the medical certificate may be completed and signed by his associate physician, the chief medical officer of the institution in which death occurred or by the physician who performed an autopsy upon the decedent.

(3) When a death occurs without medical attendance, or when it is otherwise subject to the coroner's or medical examiner's investigation, the coroner or medical examiner shall be responsible for the completion of a coroner's or medical examiner's certificate of death and shall sign the medical certification within 48 hours after death, except as provided by regulation in special problem cases. If the decedent was under the age of 18 years at the time of his or her death, and the death was due to injuries suffered as a result of a motor vehicle backing over a child, or if the death occurred due to the power window of a motor vehicle, the coroner or medical examiner must send a copy of the medical certification, with information documenting that the death was due to a vehicle backing over the child or that the death was caused by a power window of a vehicle, to the Department of Children and Family Services. The Department of Children and Family Services shall (i) collect this information for use by Child Death Review Teams and (ii) compile and maintain this information as part of its Annual Child Death Review Team Report to the General Assembly.

(3.5) The medical certification of cause of death shall expressly provide an opportunity for the person completing the certification to indicate that the death was caused in whole or in part by a dementia-related disease, Parkinson's Disease, or Parkinson-Dementia Complex.

(4) When the deceased was a veteran of any war of the United States, the funeral director shall prepare a "Certificate of Burial of U. S. War Veteran", as prescribed and furnished by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs, and submit such certificate to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs monthly.

(5) When a death is presumed to have occurred in this State but the body cannot be located, a death certificate may be prepared by the State Registrar upon receipt of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction which includes the finding of facts required to complete the death certificate. Such death certificate shall be marked "Presumptive" and shall show on its face the date of the registration and shall identify the court and the date of the judgment.

(Source: P.A. 93-454, eff. 8-7-03; 94-671, eff. 8-23-05; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 545. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 3.330, 4, 22.38, and 42 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/3.330) (was 415 ILCS 5/3.32)

Sec. 3.330. Pollution control facility.

(a) "Pollution control facility" is any waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, or waste incinerator. This includes sewers, sewage treatment plants, and any other facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act.

The following are not pollution control facilities:

(1) (blank);

(2) waste storage sites regulated under 40 CFR, Part 761.42;

(3) sites or facilities used by any person conducting a waste storage, waste treatment, waste disposal, waste transfer or waste incineration operation, or a combination thereof, for wastes generated by such person's own activities, when such wastes are stored, treated, disposed of, transferred or incinerated within the site or facility owned, controlled or operated by such person, or when such wastes are transported within or between sites or facilities owned, controlled or operated by such person;

(4) sites or facilities at which the State is performing removal or remedial action pursuant to Section 22.2 or 55.3;

(5) abandoned quarries used solely for the disposal of concrete, earth materials, gravel, or aggregate debris resulting from road construction activities conducted by a unit of government or construction activities due to the construction and installation of underground pipes, lines, conduit or wires off of the premises of a public utility company which are conducted by a public utility;

(6) sites or facilities used by any person to specifically conduct a landscape composting operation;

(7) regional facilities as defined in the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact;

(8) the portion of a site or facility where coal combustion wastes are stored or disposed of in accordance with subdivision (r)(2) or (r)(3) of Section 21;

(9) the portion of a site or facility used for the collection, storage or processing of waste tires as defined in Title XIV;

(10) the portion of a site or facility used for treatment of petroleum contaminated materials by application onto or incorporation into the soil surface and any portion of that site or facility used for storage of petroleum contaminated materials before treatment. Only those categories of petroleum listed in Section 57.9(a)(3) are exempt under this subdivision (10);

(11) the portion of a site or facility where used oil is collected or stored prior to shipment to a recycling or energy recovery facility, provided that the used oil is generated by households or commercial establishments, and the site or facility is a recycling center or a business where oil or gasoline is sold at retail;

(11.5) processing sites or facilities that receive only on-specification used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739, originating from used oil collectors for processing that is managed under 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739 to produce products for sale to off-site petroleum facilities, if these processing sites or facilities are: (i) located within a home rule unit of local government with a population of at least 30,000 according to the 2000 federal census, that home rule unit of local government has been designated as an Urban Round II Empowerment Zone by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and that home rule unit of local government has enacted an ordinance approving the location of the site or facility and provided funding for the site or facility; and (ii) in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements;

(12) the portion of a site or facility utilizing coal combustion waste for stabilization and treatment of only waste generated on that site or facility when used in connection with response actions pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, or the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or as authorized by the Agency;

(13) the portion of a site or facility accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris, located in a county with a population over 500,000 as of January 1, 2000, and operated and located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act;

(14) the portion of a site or facility, located within a unit of local government that has enacted local zoning requirements, used to accept, separate, and process uncontaminated broken concrete, with or without protruding metal bars, provided that the uncontaminated broken concrete and metal bars are not speculatively accumulated, are at the site or facility no longer than one year after their acceptance, and are returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products;

(15) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for a non-hazardous waste transfer station;

(16) a site or facility that temporarily holds in transit for 10 days or less, non-petruscible solid waste in original containers, no larger in capacity than 500 gallons, provided that such waste is further transferred to a recycling, disposal, treatment, or storage facility on a non-contiguous site and provided such site or facility complies with the applicable 10-day transfer requirements of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 and United States Department of Transportation hazardous material requirements. For purposes of this Section only, "non-petruscible solid waste" means waste other than municipal garbage that does not rot or become putrid, including, but not limited to, paints, solvent, filters, and absorbents;

(17) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population greater than 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval, under Section 39.2 of this Act, for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for wood combustion facilities for energy recovery that accept and burn only wood material, as included in a fuel specification approved by the Agency;

(18) a transfer station used exclusively for landscape waste, including a transfer station where landscape waste is ground to reduce its volume, where the landscape waste is held no longer than 24 hours from the time it was received; and

(19) the portion of a site or facility that (i) is used for the composting of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste, including, but not limited to, corrugated paper or cardboard, and (ii) meets all of the following requirements:

(A) There must not be more than a total of 30,000 cubic yards of livestock waste in raw form or in the process of being composted at the site or facility at any one time.

(B) All food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must, by the end of each operating day, be processed and placed into an enclosed vessel in which air flow and temperature are controlled, or all of the following additional requirements must be met:

(i) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must include a setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well.

(ii) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or floodproofed.

(iii) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the nearest residence, other than a residence located on the same property as the site or facility.

(iv) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the property line of all of the following areas:

(I) Facilities that primarily serve to house or treat people that are immunocompromised or immunosuppressed, such as cancer or AIDS patients; people with asthma, cystic fibrosis, or bioaerosol allergies; or children under the age of one year.

(II) Primary and secondary schools and adjacent areas that the schools use for recreation.

(III) Any facility for child care licensed under Section 3 of the Child Care Act of 1969; preschools; and adjacent areas that the facilities or preschools use for recreation.

(v) By the end of each operating day, all food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must be (i) processed into windrows or other piles and (ii) covered in a manner that prevents scavenging by birds and animals and that prevents other nuisances.

(C) Food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, paper waste, and compost must not be placed within 5 feet of the water table.

(D) The site or facility must meet all of the requirements of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.).

(E) The site or facility must not (i) restrict the flow of a 100-year flood, (ii) result in washout of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste from a 100-year flood, or (iii) reduce the temporary water storage capacity of the 100-year floodplain, unless measures are undertaken to provide alternative storage capacity, such as by providing lagoons, holding tanks, or drainage around structures at the facility.

(F) The site or facility must not be located in any area where it may pose a threat of harm or destruction to the features for which:

(i) an irreplaceable historic or archaeological site has been listed under the National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470 et seq.) or the Illinois Historic Preservation Act;

(ii) a natural landmark has been designated by the National Park Service or the Illinois State Historic Preservation Office; or

(iii) a natural area has been designated as a Dedicated Illinois Nature Preserve under the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act.

(G) The site or facility must not be located in an area where it may jeopardize the continued existence of any designated endangered species, result in the destruction or adverse modification of the critical habitat for such species, or cause or contribute to the taking of any endangered or threatened species of plant, fish, or wildlife listed under the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.) or the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act.

(b) A new pollution control facility is:

(1) a pollution control facility initially permitted for development or construction after July 1, 1981; or

(2) the area of expansion beyond the boundary of a currently permitted pollution control facility; or

(3) a permitted pollution control facility requesting approval to store, dispose of, transfer or incinerate, for the first time, any special or hazardous waste.

(Source: P.A. 95-131, eff. 8-13-07; 95-177, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-408, eff. 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-418, eff. 1-1-10; 96-611, eff. 8-24-09; revised 10-1-09.)

(415 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1004)

Sec. 4. Environmental Protection Agency; establishment; duties.

(a) There is established in the Executive Branch of the State Government an agency to be known as the Environmental Protection Agency. This Agency shall be under the supervision and direction of a Director who shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The term of office of the Director shall expire on the third Monday of January in odd numbered years, provided that he or she shall hold office until a successor is appointed and has qualified. The Director shall receive an annual salary as set by the Compensation Review Board. The Director, in accord with the Personnel Code, shall employ and direct such personnel, and shall provide for such laboratory and other facilities, as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this Act. In addition, the Director may by agreement secure such services as he or she may deem necessary from any other department, agency, or unit of the State Government, and may employ and compensate such consultants and technical assistants as may be required.

(b) The Agency shall have the duty to collect and disseminate such information, acquire such technical data, and conduct such experiments as may be required to carry out the purposes of this Act, including ascertainment of the quantity and nature of discharges from any contaminant source and data on those sources, and to operate and arrange for the operation of devices for the monitoring of environmental quality.

(c) The Agency shall have authority to conduct a program of continuing surveillance and of regular or periodic inspection of actual or potential contaminant or noise sources, of public water supplies, and of refuse disposal sites.

(d) In accordance with constitutional limitations, the Agency shall have authority to enter at all reasonable times upon any private or public property for the purpose of:

(1) Inspecting and investigating to ascertain possible violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order; or

(2) In accordance with the provisions of this Act, taking whatever preventive or corrective action, including but not limited to removal or remedial action, that is necessary or appropriate whenever there is a release or a substantial threat of a release of (A) a hazardous substance or pesticide or (B) petroleum from an underground storage tank.

(e) The Agency shall have the duty to investigate violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order; to issue administrative citations as provided in Section 31.1 of this Act; and to take such summary enforcement action as is provided for by Section 34 of this Act.

(f) The Agency shall appear before the Board in any hearing upon a petition for variance, the denial of a permit, or the validity or effect of a rule or regulation of the Board, and shall have the authority to appear before the Board in any hearing under the Act.

(g) The Agency shall have the duty to administer, in accord with Title X of this Act, such permit and certification systems as may be established by this Act or by regulations adopted thereunder. The Agency may enter into written delegation agreements with any department, agency, or unit of State or local government under which all or portions of this duty may be delegated for public water supply storage and transport systems, sewage collection and transport systems, air pollution control sources with uncontrolled emissions of 100 tons per year or less and application of algicides to waters of the State. Such delegation agreements will require that the work to be performed thereunder will be in accordance with Agency criteria, subject to Agency review, and shall include such financial and program auditing by the Agency as may be required.

(h) The Agency shall have authority to require the submission of complete plans and specifications from any applicant for a permit required by this Act or by regulations thereunder, and to require the submission of such reports regarding actual or potential violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order, as may be necessary for the purposes of this Act.

(i) The Agency shall have authority to make recommendations to the Board for the adoption of regulations under Title VII of the Act.

(j) The Agency shall have the duty to represent the State of Illinois in any and all matters pertaining to plans, procedures, or negotiations for interstate compacts or other governmental arrangements relating to environmental protection.

(k) The Agency shall have the authority to accept, receive, and administer on behalf of the State any grants, gifts, loans, indirect cost reimbursements, or other funds made available to the State from any source for purposes of this Act or for air or water pollution control, public water supply, solid waste disposal, noise abatement, or other environmental protection activities, surveys, or programs. Any federal funds received by the Agency pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited in a trust fund with the State Treasurer and held and disbursed by him in accordance with Treasurer as Custodian of Funds Act, provided that such monies shall be used only for the purposes for which they are contributed and any balance remaining shall be returned to the contributor.

The Agency is authorized to promulgate such regulations and enter into such contracts as it may deem necessary for carrying out the provisions of this subsection.

(l) The Agency is hereby designated as water pollution agency for the state for all purposes of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended; as implementing agency for the State for all purposes of the Safe Drinking Water Act, Public Law 93-523, as now or hereafter amended, except Section 1425 of that Act; as air pollution agency for the state for all purposes of the Clean Air Act of 1970, Public Law 91-604, approved December 31, 1970, as amended; and as solid waste agency for the state for all purposes of the Solid Waste Disposal Act, Public Law 89-272, approved October 20, 1965, and amended by the Resource Recovery Act of 1970, Public Law 91-512, approved October 26, 1970, as amended, and amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, (P.L. 94-580) approved October 21, 1976, as amended; as noise control agency for the state for all purposes of the Noise Control Act of 1972, Public Law 92-574, approved October 27, 1972, as amended; and as implementing agency for the State for all purposes of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-510), as amended; and otherwise as pollution control agency for the State pursuant to federal laws integrated with the foregoing laws, for financing purposes or otherwise. The Agency is hereby authorized to take all action necessary or appropriate to secure to the State the benefits of such federal Acts, provided that the Agency shall transmit to the United States without change any standards adopted by the Pollution Control Board pursuant to Section 5(c) of this Act. This subsection (l) of Section 4 shall not be construed to bar or prohibit the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Commission from accepting, receiving, and administering on behalf of the State any grants, gifts, loans or other funds for which the Commission is eligible pursuant to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act. The Agency is hereby designated as the State agency for all purposes of administering the requirements of Section 313 of the federal Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986.

Any municipality, sanitary district, or other political subdivision, or any Agency of the State or interstate Agency, which makes application for loans or grants under such federal Acts shall notify the Agency of such application; the Agency may participate in proceedings under such federal Acts.

(m) The Agency shall have authority, consistent with Section 5(c) and other provisions of this Act, and for purposes of Section 303(e) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, to engage in planning processes and activities and to develop plans in cooperation with units of local government, state agencies and officers, and other appropriate persons in connection with the jurisdiction or duties of each such unit, agency, officer or person. Public hearings shall be held on the planning process, at which any person shall be permitted to appear and be heard, pursuant to procedural regulations promulgated by the Agency.

(n) In accordance with the powers conferred upon the Agency by Sections 10(g), 13(b), 19, 22(d) and 25 of this Act, the Agency shall have authority to establish and enforce minimum standards for the operation of laboratories relating to analyses and laboratory tests for air pollution, water pollution, noise emissions, contaminant discharges onto land and sanitary, chemical, and mineral quality of water distributed by a public water supply. The Agency may enter into formal working agreements with other departments or agencies of state government under which all or portions of this authority may be delegated to the cooperating department or agency.

(o) The Agency shall have the authority to issue certificates of competency to persons and laboratories meeting the minimum standards established by the Agency in accordance with Section 4(n) of this Act and to promulgate and enforce regulations relevant to the issuance and use of such certificates. The Agency may enter into formal working agreements with other departments or agencies of state government under which all or portions of this authority may be delegated to the cooperating department or agency.

(p) Except as provided in Section 17.7, the Agency shall have the duty to analyze samples as required from each public water supply to determine compliance with the contaminant levels specified by the Pollution Control Board. The maximum number of samples which the Agency shall be required to analyze for microbiological quality shall be 6 per month, but the Agency may, at its option, analyze a larger number each month for any supply. Results of sample analyses for additional required bacteriological testing, turbidity, residual chlorine and radionuclides are to be provided to the Agency in accordance with Section 19. Owners of water supplies may enter into agreements with the Agency to provide for reduced Agency participation in sample analyses.

(q) The Agency shall have the authority to provide notice to any person who may be liable pursuant to Section 22.2(f) of this Act for a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide. Such notice shall include the identified response action and an opportunity for such person to perform the response action.

(r) The Agency may enter into written delegation agreements with any unit of local government under which it may delegate all or portions of its inspecting, investigating and enforcement functions. Such delegation agreements shall require that work performed thereunder be in accordance with Agency criteria and subject to Agency review. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, no unit of local government shall be liable for any injury resulting from the exercise of its authority pursuant to such a delegation agreement unless the injury is proximately caused by the willful and wanton negligence of an agent or employee of the unit of local government, and any policy of insurance coverage issued to a unit of local government may provide for the denial of liability and the nonpayment of claims based upon injuries for which the unit of local government is not liable pursuant to this subsection (r).

(s) The Agency shall have authority to take whatever preventive or corrective action is necessary or appropriate, including but not limited to expenditure of monies appropriated from the Build Illinois Bond Fund and the Build Illinois Purposes Fund for removal or remedial action, whenever any hazardous substance or pesticide is released or there is a substantial threat of such a release into the environment. The State, the Director, and any State employee shall be indemnified for any damages or injury arising out of or resulting from any action taken under this subsection. The Director of the Agency is authorized to enter into such contracts and agreements as are necessary to carry out the Agency's duties under this subsection.

(t) The Agency shall have authority to distribute grants, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, to units of local government for financing and construction of wastewater facilities in both incorporated and unincorporated areas. With respect to all monies appropriated from the Build Illinois Bond Fund and the Build Illinois Purposes Fund for wastewater facility grants, the Agency shall make distributions in conformity with the rules and regulations established pursuant to the Anti-Pollution Bond Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(u) Pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the Agency shall have the authority to adopt such rules as are necessary or appropriate for the Agency to implement Section 31.1 of this Act.

(v) (Blank.)

(w) Neither the State, nor the Director, nor the Board, nor any State employee shall be liable for any damages or injury arising out of or resulting from any action taken under subsection (s).

(x)(1) The Agency shall have authority to distribute grants, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, to units of local government for financing and construction of public water supply facilities. With respect to all monies appropriated from the Build Illinois Bond Fund or the Build Illinois Purposes Fund for public water supply grants, such grants shall be made in accordance with rules promulgated by the Agency. Such rules shall include a requirement for a local match of 30% of the total project cost for projects funded through such grants.

(2) The Agency shall not terminate a grant to a unit of local government for the financing and construction of public water supply facilities unless and until the Agency adopts rules that set forth precise and complete standards, pursuant to Section 5-20 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, for the termination of such grants. The Agency shall not make determinations on whether specific grant conditions are necessary to ensure the integrity of a project or on whether subagreements shall be awarded, with respect to grants for the financing and construction of public water supply facilities, unless and until the Agency adopts rules that set forth precise and complete standards, pursuant to Section 5-20 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, for making such determinations. The Agency shall not issue a stop-work order in relation to such grants unless and until the Agency adopts precise and complete standards, pursuant to Section 5-20 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, for determining whether to issue a stop-work order.

(y) The Agency shall have authority to release any person from further responsibility for preventive or corrective action under this Act following successful completion of preventive or corrective action undertaken by such person upon written request by the person.

(z) To the extent permitted by any applicable federal law or regulation, for all work performed for State construction projects which are funded in whole or in part by a capital infrastructure bill enacted by the 96th General Assembly by sums appropriated to the Environmental Protection Agency, at least 50% of the total labor hours must be performed by actual residents of the State of Illinois. For purposes of this subsection, "actual residents of the State of Illinois" means persons domiciled in the State of Illinois. The Department of Labor shall promulgate rules providing for the enforcement of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-503, eff. 8-14-09; 96-800, eff. 10-30-09; revised 11-23-09.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.38)

Sec. 22.38. Facilities accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment.

(a) Facilities accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment shall be subject to local zoning, ordinance, and land use requirements. Those facilities shall be located in accordance with local zoning requirements or, in the absence of local zoning requirements, shall be located so that no part of the facility boundary is closer than 1,320 feet from the nearest property zoned for primarily residential use.

(b) An owner or operator of a facility accepting exclusively general construction or demolition debris for transfer, storage, or treatment shall:

(1) Within 48 hours of receipt of the general construction or demolition debris at the facility, sort the general construction or demolition debris to separate the recyclable general construction or demolition debris and recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel from non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris to be disposed of or discarded.

(2) Transport off site for disposal all non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris that is neither recyclable general construction or demolition debris nor recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel in accordance with all applicable federal, State, and local requirements within 72 hours of its receipt at the facility.

(3) Limit the percentage of incoming non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris to 25% or less of the total incoming general construction or demolition debris, as calculated on a daily basis, so that 75% or more of the general construction or demolition debris accepted on a daily basis consists of recyclable general construction or demolition debris, recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel, or both.

(4) Transport all non-putrescible recyclable general construction or demolition debris for recycling or disposal within 6 months of its receipt at the facility.

(5) Within within 45 days of its receipt at the facility, transport Transport (i) all putrescible or combustible recyclable general construction or demolition debris (excluding recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel) for recycling or disposal; and (ii) all recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel to an intermediate processing facility for sizing, to a combustion facility for use as fuel, or to a disposal facility;.

(6) Employ tagging and recordkeeping procedures to (i) demonstrate compliance with this Section and (ii) identify the source and transporter of material accepted by the facility.

(7) Control odor, noise, combustion of materials, disease vectors, dust, and litter.

(8) Control, manage, and dispose of any storm water runoff and leachate generated at the facility in accordance with applicable federal, State, and local requirements.

(9) Control access to the facility.

(10) Comply with all applicable federal, State, or local requirements for the handling, storage, transportation, or disposal of asbestos-containing material or other material accepted at the facility that is not general construction or demolition debris.

(11) Prior to August 24, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-611) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, submit to the Agency at least 30 days prior to the initial acceptance of general construction or demolition debris at the facility, on forms provided by the Agency, the following information:

(A) the name, address, and telephone number of both the facility owner and operator;

(B) the street address and location of the facility;

(C) a description of facility operations;

(D) a description of the tagging and recordkeeping procedures the facility will employ to (i) demonstrate compliance with this Section and (ii) identify the source and transporter of any material accepted by the facility;

(E) the name and location of the disposal sites to be used for the disposal of any general construction or demolition debris received at the facility that must be disposed of;

(F) the name and location of an individual, facility, or business to which recyclable materials will be transported;

(G) the name and location of intermediate processing facilities or combustion facilities to which recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel will be transported; and

(H) other information as specified on the form provided by the Agency.

(12) On or after August 24, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-611) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, obtain a permit issued by the Agency prior to the initial acceptance of general construction or demolition debris at the facility.

When any of the information contained or processes described in the initial notification form submitted to the Agency changes, the owner and operator shall submit an updated form within 14 days of the change.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the term "recyclable general construction or demolition debris" means general construction or demolition debris that has been rendered reusable and is reused or that would otherwise be disposed of or discarded but is collected, separated, or processed and returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products. "Recyclable general construction or demolition debris" does not include general construction or demolition debris processed for use as fuel, incinerated, burned, buried, or otherwise used as fill material.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "treatment" means processing designed to alter the physical nature of the general construction or demolition debris, including but not limited to size reduction, crushing, grinding, or homogenization, but does not include processing designed to change the chemical nature of the general construction or demolition debris.

(e) For purposes of this Section, "recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel" means wood that has been salvaged from general construction or demolition debris and processed for use as fuel, as authorized by the applicable state or federal environmental regulatory authority, and supplied only to intermediate processing facilities for sizing, or to combustion facilities for use as fuel, that have obtained all necessary waste management and air permits for handling and combustion of the fuel.

(f) For purposes of this Section, "non-recyclable general construction or demolition debris" does not include "recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel".

(g) Recyclable general construction or demolition debris or recovered wood that is processed for use as fuel that is sent for disposal at the end of the applicable retention period shall not be considered as meeting the 75% diversion requirement for purposes of subdivision (b)(3) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-235, eff. 8-11-09; 96-611, eff. 8-24-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(415 ILCS 5/42) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1042)

Sec. 42. Civil penalties.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, any person that violates any provision of this Act or any regulation adopted by the Board, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or that violates any order of the Board pursuant to this Act, shall be liable for a civil penalty of not to exceed $50,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for each day during which the violation continues; such penalties may, upon order of the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction, be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) Any person that violates Section 12(f) of this Act or any NPDES permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the NPDES permit program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(2) Any person that violates Section 12(g) of this Act or any UIC permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State UIC program for all wells, except Class II wells as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty not to exceed $2,500 per day of violation; provided, however, that any person who commits such violations relating to the State UIC program for Class II wells, as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $1,000 for each day during which the violation continues.

(3) Any person that violates Sections 21(f), 21(g), 21(h) or 21(i) of this Act, or any RCRA permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State RCRA program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $25,000 per day of violation.

(4) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (o) of Section 21 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency. Such penalties shall be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(4-5) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21 or subsection (k) of Section 55 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $1,500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency, except that the civil penalty amount shall be $3,000 for each violation of any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21 or subsection (k) of Section 55 that is the person's second or subsequent adjudication violation of that provision. The penalties shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(5) Any person who violates subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act or any CAAPP permit, or term or condition thereof, or any fee or filing requirement, or any duty to allow or carry out inspection, entry or monitoring activities, or any regulation or order relating to the CAAPP shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(6) Any owner or operator of a community water system that violates subsection (b) of Section 18.1 or subsection (a) of Section 25d-3 of this Act shall, for each day of violation, be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $5 for each of the premises connected to the affected community water system.

(b.5) In lieu of the penalties set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, any person who fails to file, in a timely manner, toxic chemical release forms with the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-2 of this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty of $100 per day for each day the forms are late, not to exceed a maximum total penalty of $6,000. This daily penalty shall begin accruing on the thirty-first day after the date that the person receives the warning notice issued by the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-6 of this Act; and the penalty shall be paid to the Agency. The daily accrual of penalties shall cease as of January 1 of the following year. All penalties collected by the Agency pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.

(c) Any person that violates this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order and causes the death of fish or aquatic life shall, in addition to the other penalties provided by this Act, be liable to pay to the State an additional sum for the reasonable value of the fish or aquatic life destroyed. Any money so recovered shall be placed in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in the State Treasury.

(d) The penalties provided for in this Section may be recovered in a civil action.

(e) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the request of the Agency or on his own motion, institute a civil action for an injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to restrain violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order, or to require such other actions as may be necessary to address violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, shall bring such actions in the name of the people of the State of Illinois. Without limiting any other authority which may exist for the awarding of attorney's fees and costs, the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction may award costs and reasonable attorney's fees, including the reasonable costs of expert witnesses and consultants, to the State's Attorney or the Attorney General in a case where he has prevailed against a person who has committed a wilful, knowing or repeated violation of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which the Attorney General has prevailed shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund created in Section 22.2 of this Act. Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which a State's Attorney has prevailed shall be retained by the county in which he serves.

(g) All final orders imposing civil penalties pursuant to this Section shall prescribe the time for payment of such penalties. If any such penalty is not paid within the time prescribed, interest on such penalty at the rate set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1003 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, shall be paid for the period from the date payment is due until the date payment is received. However, if the time for payment is stayed during the pendency of an appeal, interest shall not accrue during such stay.

(h) In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subdivisions (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(5) of this Section, the Board is authorized to consider any matters of record in mitigation or aggravation of penalty, including but not limited to the following factors:

(1) the duration and gravity of the violation;

(2) the presence or absence of due diligence on the part of the respondent in attempting to comply with requirements of this Act and regulations thereunder or to secure relief therefrom as provided by this Act;

(3) any economic benefits accrued by the respondent because of delay in compliance with requirements, in which case the economic benefits shall be determined by the lowest cost alternative for achieving compliance;

(4) the amount of monetary penalty which will serve to deter further violations by the respondent and to otherwise aid in enhancing voluntary compliance with this Act by the respondent and other persons similarly subject to the Act;

(5) the number, proximity in time, and gravity of previously adjudicated violations of this Act by the respondent;

(6) whether the respondent voluntarily self-disclosed, in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section, the non-compliance to the Agency; and

(7) whether the respondent has agreed to undertake a "supplemental environmental project," which means an environmentally beneficial project that a respondent agrees to undertake in settlement of an enforcement action brought under this Act, but which the respondent is not otherwise legally required to perform.

In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subsection (a) or paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (5) of subsection (b) of this Section, the Board shall ensure, in all cases, that the penalty is at least as great as the economic benefits, if any, accrued by the respondent as a result of the violation, unless the Board finds that imposition of such penalty would result in an arbitrary or unreasonable financial hardship. However, such civil penalty may be off-set in whole or in part pursuant to a supplemental environmental project agreed to by the complainant and the respondent.

(i) A person who voluntarily self-discloses non-compliance to the Agency, of which the Agency had been unaware, is entitled to a 100% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based on the economic benefit of non-compliance if the person can establish the following:

(1) that the non-compliance was discovered through an environmental audit or a compliance management system documented by the regulated entity as reflecting the regulated entity's due diligence in preventing, detecting, and correcting violations;

(2) that the non-compliance was disclosed in writing within 30 days of the date on which the person discovered it;

(3) that the non-compliance was discovered and disclosed prior to:

(i) the commencement of an Agency inspection, investigation, or request for information;

(ii) notice of a citizen suit;

(iii) the filing of a complaint by a citizen, the Illinois Attorney General, or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred;

(iv) the reporting of the non-compliance by an employee of the person without that person's knowledge; or

(v) imminent discovery of the non-compliance by the Agency;

(4) that the non-compliance is being corrected and any environmental harm is being remediated in a timely fashion;

(5) that the person agrees to prevent a recurrence of the non-compliance;

(6) that no related non-compliance events have occurred in the past 3 years at the same facility or in the past 5 years as part of a pattern at multiple facilities owned or operated by the person;

(7) that the non-compliance did not result in serious actual harm or present an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or the environment or violate the specific terms of any judicial or administrative order or consent agreement;

(8) that the person cooperates as reasonably requested by the Agency after the disclosure; and

(9) that the non-compliance was identified voluntarily and not through a monitoring, sampling, or auditing procedure that is required by statute, rule, permit, judicial or administrative order, or consent agreement.

If a person can establish all of the elements under this subsection except the element set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the person is entitled to a 75% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based upon the economic benefit of non-compliance.

(j) In addition to an other remedy or penalty that may apply, whether civil or criminal, any person who violates Section 22.52 of this Act shall be liable for an additional civil penalty of up to 3 times the gross amount of any pecuniary gain resulting from the violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-603, eff. 8-24-09; 96-737, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 550. The Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(415 ILCS 65/6) (from Ch. 5, par. 856)

Sec. 6. This Act shall be administered and enforced by the Department. The Department may promulgate rules and regulations as necessary for the enforcement of this Act. The Department of Public Health must inform school boards and the owners and operators of day care centers about the provisions of this Act that are applicable to school districts and day care centers, and it must inform school boards about the requirements contained in Sections 10-20.49 subdivisions 10-20.46 and 34-18.40 34-18.37 of the School Code. The Department of Public Health must recommend that day care centers and schools use a pesticide-free turf care program to maintain their turf. The Department of Public Health must also report violations of this Act of which it becomes aware to the Department for enforcement.

(Source: P.A. 96-424, eff. 8-13-09; revised 10-21-09.)

Section 555. The Alternate Fuels Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 23 as follows:

(415 ILCS 120/23)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2012)

Sec. 23. Alternate Fuels Commission.

(a) The Alternate Fuels Commission is established within the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. The Commission shall investigate and recommend strategies that the Governor and the General Assembly may implement to promote the use of alternate fuels and biodiesel fuels and to encourage the use of vehicles that utilize alternate fuels and biodiesel fuels. The Commission shall also identify mechanisms that promote research into alternate fuels and biodiesel fuels.

(b) The Commission shall identify mechanisms that promote effective communication and coordination of efforts between this State and local governments, private industry, and institutes of higher education concerning the investigation, research into, and promotion of alternate fuels and biodiesel fuels.

(c) The Commission may also review and recommend changes to any State regulation that may hinder the use, research, and development of alternate fuels, biodiesel fuels, and vehicles that are able to utilize those fuels.

(d) The Commission shall consist of the following members, appointed by the Governor within 90 days of the effective date of this Act:

(1) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity (or his or her designee), who shall serve as the chair of the Commission.

(2) The Director of Agriculture (or his or her designee).

(3) At least one member from an association representing corn growers.

(4) At least one member from an association representing soybean producers.

(5) One representative of a general agricultural production association.

(6) One representative of automotive fuel blenders in this State.

(7) One representative of retail petroleum sellers in this State.

(8) One representative of petroleum suppliers in this State.

(9) One representative of biodiesel fuel producers.

(10) One representative of ethanol producers.

(11) One representative of environmental organizations.

(12) Three representatives of the automotive manufacturing industry.

(13) Three representatives of colleges and universities in this State that are engaged in alternate fuel or biodiesel fuel research.

(14) Any other member that the Governor concludes is necessary to further the Commission's purposes.

(e) No later than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Commission shall issue a written report on its investigation and recommendations to the General Assembly and the Governor. Follow-up reports shall be issued at least annually and may be issued more frequently if the Commission deems it advisable.

(f) This Section is repealed effective January 1, 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-323, eff. 8-11-09.)

(415 ILCS 120/24)

Sec. 24 23. Flexible fuel vehicle notification.

(a) Beginning July 1, 2010 and through June 30, 2014, the Secretary of State must notify each owner of a first division licensed motor vehicle that many motor vehicles are capable of using E85 blended fuel. This notice must be included on the motor vehicle sticker renewal form mailed to the owner by the Office of the Secretary of State.

(b) The notice must include the following text:

E85 blended fuel reduces reliance on foreign oil and supports Illinois agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 96-510, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-29-09.)

Section 560. The Carnival and Amusement Rides Safety Act is amended by changing Section 2-19 as follows:

(430 ILCS 85/2-19) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4069)

Sec. 2-19. The owner or operator of an amusement ride or amusement attraction may remove a person from or deny a person entry to a person to an amusement ride or amusement attraction if, in the owner's or operator's opinion, the entry or conduct may jeopardize the safety of such person or the safety of any other person. Nothing in this Section will permit an owner or operator to deny an inspector access to an amusement ride or amusement attraction when such inspector is acting within the scope of his duties under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-151, eff. 8-7-09; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 565. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Section 4.01 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/4.01) (from Ch. 8, par. 704.01)

Sec. 4.01. Animals in entertainment. This Section does not apply when the only animals involved are dogs. (Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, rather than this Section, applies when the only animals involved are dogs.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any animal which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between such animal and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person shall promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment, any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(c) No person shall sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any animal which he or she knows or should know has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another animal or human or be intentionally killed, for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(d) No person shall manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation or delivery any device or equipment which that person knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any human and animal, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(e) No person shall own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which such person knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person shall make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, which he or she knows or should know is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(g) No person shall knowingly attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(h) (Blank).

(i) Any animals or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 by the Department when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving an animal fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(j) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(k) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with an animal for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the animal was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the animal or animals involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(l) No person shall solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(m) The penalties for violations of this Section shall be as follows:

(1) A person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent offense involving the violation of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating subsection (d), (e), or (f) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A person convicted of violating subsection (l) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony.

(n) A person who commits a felony violation of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-560, eff. 8-30-07; 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

Section 570. The Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act is amended by changing Section 155 as follows:

(510 ILCS 72/155)

Sec. 155. Administrative Review Law Review. All final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, and all rules adopted pursuant to that Law. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for relief resides, but if the party is not a resident of this State, the venue shall be Sangamon County.

(Source: P.A. 92-449, eff. 1-1-02; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 575. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 3-104, 3-412, 3-414, 3-806, 3-808.1, 3-821, 6-103, 6-106.1, 6-303, 11-208.3, 11-605.2, 11-1301.2, 11-1301.3, 12-503, 12-610.2, 12-821, 15-102, and 15-113 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 3-684 and 3-806.7 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/3-104) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-104)

Sec. 3-104. Application for certificate of title.

(a) The application for a certificate of title for a vehicle in this State must be made by the owner to the Secretary of State on the form prescribed and must contain:

1. The name, Illinois residence and mail address of the owner;

2. A description of the vehicle including, so far as the following data exists: Its make, year-model, identifying number, type of body, whether new or used, as to house trailers as defined in Section 1-128 of this Code, the square footage of the house trailer based upon the outside dimensions of the house trailer excluding the length of the tongue and hitch, and, as to vehicles of the second division, whether for-hire, not-for-hire, or both for-hire and not-for-hire;

3. The date of purchase by applicant and, if applicable, the name and address of the person from whom the vehicle was acquired and the names and addresses of any lienholders in the order of their priority and signatures of owners;

4. The current odometer reading at the time of transfer and that the stated odometer reading is one of the following: actual mileage, not the actual mileage or mileage is in excess of its mechanical limits; and

5. Any further information the Secretary of State reasonably requires to identify the vehicle and to enable him to determine whether the owner is entitled to a certificate of title and the existence or nonexistence of security interests in the vehicle.

(a-5) The Secretary of State shall designate on the prescribed application form a space where the owner of a vehicle may designate a beneficiary, to whom ownership of the vehicle shall pass in the event of the owner's death.

(b) If the application refers to a vehicle purchased from a dealer, it must also be signed by the dealer as well as the owner, and the dealer must promptly mail or deliver the application and required documents to the Secretary of State.

(c) If the application refers to a vehicle last previously registered in another State or country, the application must contain or be accompanied by:

1. Any certified document of ownership so recognized and issued by the other State or country and acceptable to the Secretary of State, and

2. Any other information and documents the Secretary of State reasonably requires to establish the ownership of the vehicle and the existence or nonexistence of security interests in it.

(d) If the application refers to a new vehicle it must be accompanied by the Manufacturer's Statement of Origin, or other documents as required and acceptable by the Secretary of State, with such assignments as may be necessary to show title in the applicant.

(e) If an application refers to a vehicle rebuilt from a vehicle previously salvaged, that application shall comply with the provisions set forth in Sections 3-302 through 3-304 of this Code.

(f) An application for a certificate of title for any vehicle, whether purchased in Illinois or outside Illinois, and even if previously registered in another State, must be accompanied by either an exemption determination from the Department of Revenue showing that no tax imposed pursuant to the Use Tax Act or the vehicle use tax imposed by Section 3-1001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is owed by anyone with respect to that vehicle, or a receipt from the Department of Revenue showing that any tax so imposed has been paid. An application for a certificate of title for any vehicle purchased outside Illinois, even if previously registered in another state, must be accompanied by either an exemption determination from the Department of Revenue showing that no tax imposed pursuant to the Municipal Use Tax Act or the County Use Tax Act is owed by anyone with respect to that vehicle, or a receipt from the Department of Revenue showing that any tax so imposed has been paid. In the absence of such a receipt for payment or determination of exemption from the Department, no certificate of title shall be issued to the applicant.

If the proof of payment of the tax or of nonliability therefor is, after the issuance of the certificate of title and display certificate of title, found to be invalid, the Secretary of State shall revoke the certificate and require that the certificate of title and, when applicable, the display certificate of title be returned to him.

(g) If the application refers to a vehicle not manufactured in accordance with federal safety and emission standards, the application must be accompanied by all documents required by federal governmental agencies to meet their standards before a vehicle is allowed to be issued title and registration.

(h) If the application refers to a vehicle sold at public sale by a sheriff, it must be accompanied by the required fee and a bill of sale issued and signed by a sheriff. The bill of sale must identify the new owner's name and address, the year model, make and vehicle identification number of the vehicle, court order document number authorizing such sale, if applicable, and the name and address of any lienholders in order of priority, if applicable.

(i) If the application refers to a vehicle for which a court of law determined the ownership, it must be accompanied with a certified copy of such court order and the required fee. The court order must indicate the new owner's name and address, the complete description of the vehicle, if known, the name and address of the lienholder, if any, and must be signed and dated by the judge issuing such order.

(j) If the application refers to a vehicle sold at public auction pursuant to the Labor and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act, it must be accompanied by an affidavit or affirmation furnished by the Secretary of State along with the documents described in the affidavit or affirmation and the required fee.

(k) The Secretary may provide an expedited process for the issuance of vehicle titles. Expedited title applications must be delivered to the Secretary of State's Vehicle Services Department in Springfield by express mail service or hand delivery. Applications must be complete, including necessary forms, fees, and taxes. Applications received before noon on a business day will be processed and shipped that same day. Applications received after noon on a business day will be processed and shipped the next business day. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee of $30 for this service, and that fee shall cover the cost of return shipping via an express mail service. All fees collected by the Secretary of State for expedited services shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund. In the event the Vehicle Services Department determines that the volume of expedited title requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Vehicle Services Department to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Vehicle Services Department may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(l) (k) If the application refers to a homemade trailer, (i) it must be accompanied by the appropriate documentation regarding the source of materials used in the construction of the trailer, as required by the Secretary of State, (ii) the trailer must be inspected by a Secretary of State investigator, as described in Section 2-115 of this Code, prior to the issuance of the title, and (iii) upon approval of the Secretary of State, the trailer must have a vehicle identification number, as provided by the Secretary of State, stamped or riveted to the frame.

(Source: P.A. 95-784, eff. 1-1-09; 96-519, eff. 1-1-10; 96-554, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-412) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-412)

Sec. 3-412. Registration plates and registration stickers to be furnished by the Secretary of State.

(a) The Secretary of State upon registering a vehicle subject to annual registration for the first time shall issue or shall cause to be issued to the owner one registration plate for a motorcycle, trailer, semitrailer, moped or truck-tractor, 2 registration plates for other motor vehicles and, where applicable, current registration stickers for motor vehicles of the first division. The provisions of this Section may be made applicable to such vehicles of the second division, as the Secretary of State may, from time to time, in his discretion designate. On subsequent annual registrations during the term of the registration plate as provided in Section 3-414.1, the Secretary shall issue or cause to be issued registration stickers as evidence of current registration. However, the issuance of annual registration stickers to vehicles registered under the provisions of Sections 3-402.1 and 3-405.3 of this Code may not be required if the Secretary deems the issuance unnecessary.

(b) Every registration plate shall have displayed upon it the registration number assigned to the vehicle for which it is issued, the name of this State, which may be abbreviated, the year number for which it was issued, which may be abbreviated, the phrase "Land of Lincoln" (except as otherwise provided in this Code), and such other letters or numbers as the Secretary may prescribe. However, for apportionment plates issued to vehicles registered under Section 3-402.1 and fleet plates issued to vehicles registered under Section 3-405.3, the phrase "Land of Lincoln" may be omitted to allow for the word "apportioned", the word "fleet", or other similar language to be displayed. Registration plates issued to a vehicle registered as a fleet vehicle may display a designation determined by the Secretary.

The Secretary may in his discretion prescribe that letters be used as prefixes only on registration plates issued to vehicles of the first division which are registered under this Code and only as suffixes on registration plates issued to other vehicles. Every registration sticker issued as evidence of current registration shall designate the year number for which it is issued and such other letters or numbers as the Secretary may prescribe and shall be of a contrasting color with the registration plates and registration stickers of the previous year.

(c) Each registration plate and the required letters and numerals thereon, except the year number for which issued, shall be of sufficient size to be plainly readable from a distance of 100 feet during daylight, and shall be coated with reflectorizing material. The dimensions of the plate issued to vehicles of the first division shall be 6 by 12 inches.

(d) The Secretary of State shall issue for every passenger motor vehicle rented without a driver the same type of registration plates as the type of plates issued for a private passenger vehicle.

(e) The Secretary of State shall issue for every passenger car used as a taxicab or livery, distinctive registration plates.

(f) The Secretary of State shall issue for every motorcycle distinctive registration plates distinguishing between motorcycles having 150 or more cubic centimeters piston displacement, or having less than 150 cubic centimeter piston displacement.

(g) Registration plates issued to vehicles for-hire may display a designation as determined by the Secretary that such vehicles are for-hire.

(h) (Blank).

(i) The Secretary of State shall issue for every public and private ambulance registration plates identifying the vehicle as an ambulance. The Secretary shall forward to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services registration information for the purpose of verification of claims filed with the Department by ambulance owners for payment for services to public assistance recipients.

(j) The Secretary of State shall issue for every public and private medical carrier or rescue vehicle livery registration plates displaying numbers within ranges of numbers reserved respectively for medical carriers and rescue vehicles. The Secretary shall forward to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services registration information for the purpose of verification of claims filed with the Department by owners of medical carriers or rescue vehicles for payment for services to public assistance recipients.

(k) The Secretary of State shall issue distinctive license plates or distinctive license plate stickers for every vehicle exempted from subsections (a) and (a-5) of Section 12-503 by subsection (g) of that Section, and by subsection (g-5) of that Section before its deletion by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The Secretary shall issue these plates or stickers immediately upon receiving the physician's certification required under subsection (g) of Section 12-503. New plates or stickers shall also be issued when the certification is renewed as provided in that subsection.

(l) The Secretary of State shall issue distinctive registration plates for low-speed vehicles.

(Source: P.A. 95-202, eff. 8-16-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-554, eff. 1-1-10; 96-653, eff. 1-1-10; 96-815, eff. 10-30-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-414) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-414)

Sec. 3-414. Expiration of registration.

(a) Every vehicle registration under this Chapter and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker issued hereunder to a vehicle shall be for the periods specified in this Chapter and shall expire at midnight on the day and date specified in this Section as follows:

1. When registered on a calendar year basis commencing January 1, expiration shall be on the 31st day of December or at such other date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State; however, through December 31, 2004, registrations of apportionable vehicles, motorcycles, motor driven cycles and pedalcycles shall commence on the first day of April and shall expire March 31st of the following calendar year;

1.1. Beginning January 1, 2005, registrations of motorcycles and motor driven cycles shall commence on January 1 and shall expire on December 31 or on another date that may be selected by the Secretary; registrations of apportionable vehicles and pedalcycles, however, shall commence on the first day of April and shall expire March 31 of the following calendar year;

2. When registered on a 2 calendar year basis commencing January 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 31st day of December of the ensuing odd-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond March 1 next;

3. When registered on a fiscal year basis commencing July 1, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

4. When registered on a 2 fiscal year basis commencing July 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June of the ensuing even-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

5. When registered on a 4 fiscal year basis commencing July 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June of the second ensuing even-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

(b) Vehicle registrations of vehicles of the first division shall be for a calendar year, 2 calendar year, or 3 calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Vehicle registrations of vehicles under Sections 3-807, 3-808 and 3-809 shall be on an indefinite term basis or a 2 calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Vehicle registrations for vehicles of the second division shall be for a fiscal year, 2 fiscal year or calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Motor vehicles registered under the provisions of Section 3-402.1 shall be issued multi-year registration plates with a new registration card issued annually upon payment of the appropriate fees. Motor vehicles registered under the provisions of Section 3-405.3 shall be issued multi-year mutli-year registration plates with a new multi-year registration card issued pursuant to subsections (j) and (k) of this Section upon payment of the appropriate fees. Apportionable trailers and apportionable semitrailers registered under the provisions of Section 3-402.1 shall be issued multi-year registration plates and cards that will be subject to revocation for failure to pay annual fees required by Section 3-814.1. The Secretary shall determine when these vehicles shall be issued new registration plates.

(c) Every vehicle registration specified in Section 3-810 and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker issued thereunder shall expire on the 31st day of December of each year or at such other date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(d) Every vehicle registration for a vehicle of the second division weighing over 8,000 pounds, except as provided in paragraph (g) of this Section, and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker, where applicable, issued hereunder to such vehicles shall be issued for a fiscal year commencing on July 1st of each registration year. However, the Secretary of State may, pursuant to an agreement or arrangement or declaration providing for apportionment of a fleet of vehicles with other jurisdictions, provide for registration of such vehicles under apportionment or for all of the vehicles registered in Illinois by an applicant who registers some of his vehicles under apportionment on a calendar year basis instead, and the fees or taxes to be paid on a calendar year basis shall be identical to those specified in this Act for a fiscal year registration. Provision for installment payment may also be made.

(e) Semitrailer registrations under apportionment may be on a calendar year under a reciprocal agreement or arrangement and all other semitrailer registrations shall be on fiscal year or 2 fiscal year or 4 fiscal year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

(f) The Secretary of State may convert annual registration plates or 2-year registration plates, whether registered on a calendar year or fiscal year basis, to multi-year plates. The determination of which plate categories and when to convert to multi-year plates is solely within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(g) After January 1, 1975, each registration, registration card and registration plate or registration sticker, where applicable, issued for a recreational vehicle or recreational or camping trailer, except a house trailer, used exclusively by the owner for recreational purposes, and not used commercially nor as a truck or bus, nor for hire, shall be on a calendar year basis; except that the Secretary of State shall provide for registration and the issuance of registration cards and plates or registration stickers, where applicable, for one 6-month period in order to accomplish an orderly transition from a fiscal year to a calendar year basis. Fees and taxes due under this Act for a registration year shall be appropriately reduced for such 6-month transitional registration period.

(h) The Secretary of State may, in order to accomplish an orderly transition for vehicles registered under Section 3-402.1 of this Code from a calendar year registration to a March 31st expiration, require applicants to pay fees and taxes due under this Code on a 15 month registration basis. However, if in the discretion of the Secretary of State this creates an undue hardship on any applicant the Secretary may allow the applicant to pay 3 month fees and taxes at the time of registration and the additional 12 month fees and taxes to be payable no later than March 31 of the year after this amendatory Act of 1991 takes effect.

(i) The Secretary of State may stagger registrations, or change the annual expiration date, as necessary for the convenience of the public and the efficiency of his Office. In order to appropriately and effectively accomplish any such staggering, the Secretary of State is authorized to prorate all required registration fees, rounded to the nearest dollar, but in no event for a period longer than 18 months, at a monthly rate for a 12 month registration fee.

(j) The Secretary of State may enter into an agreement with a rental owner, as defined in Section 3-400 of this Code, who registers a fleet of motor vehicles of the first division pursuant to Section 3-405.3 of this Code to provide for the registration of the rental owner's vehicles on a 2 or 3 calendar year basis and the issuance of multi-year registration plates with a new registration card issued up to every 3 years.

(k) The Secretary of State may provide multi-year registration cards for any registered fleet of motor vehicles of the first or second division that are registered pursuant to Section 3-405.3 of this Code. Each motor vehicle of the registered fleet must carry an unique multi-year registration card that displays the vehicle identification number of the registered motor vehicle. The Secretary of State shall promulgate rules in order to implement multi-year registrations.

(Source: P.A. 95-287, eff. 1-1-08; 96-747, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-684)

Sec. 3-684. Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training license plate.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated to be Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, recreational vehicles as defined in Section 1-169 of this Code, and subject to the staggered registration system. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary of State shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $27 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. Of this additional fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $12 shall be deposited into the Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $17 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training Fund.

(d) The Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Illinois EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training Fund shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary of State, as grants to the EMS Memorial Scholarship and Training Council, a not-for-profit corporation, for the purposes (i) of providing scholarships for graduate study, undergraduate study, or both, to children and spouses of emergency medical services (EMS) personnel killed in the course of their employment, and (ii) for grants for the training of EMS personnel.

(Source: P.A. 96-591, eff. 8-18-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-686)

Sec. 3-686 3-684. Distinguished Flying Cross license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue Distinguished Flying Cross license plates to residents of Illinois who have been awarded the Distinguished Flying Cross medal by the United States Armed Forces. The special Distinguished Flying Cross plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall, in his or her discretion, approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $15 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. This additional fee shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-655, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-687)

Sec. 3-687 3-684. International Brotherhood of Teamsters license plate.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as International Brotherhood of Teamsters license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany the application. The Secretary, in his or her discretion, may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the International Brotherhood of Teamsters Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the International Brotherhood of Teamsters Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The International Brotherhood of Teamsters Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the International Brotherhood of Teamsters Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary of State, as grants to the Teamsters Joint Council 25 Charitable Trust, an independent organization established and registered as a tax exempt entity under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, and educational purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-687, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-688)

Sec. 3-688 3-684. Operation Iraqi Freedom License Plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue Operation Iraqi Freedom license plates to residents of Illinois who meet eligibility requirements prescribed by the Secretary of State. The special Operation Iraqi Freedom plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $15 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. This additional fee shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-747, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-806)

Sec. 3-806. Registration Fees; Motor Vehicles of the First Division. Every owner of any other motor vehicle of the first division, except as provided in Sections 3-804, 3-805, 3-806.3, 3-806.7, and 3-808, and every second division vehicle weighing 8,000 pounds or less, shall pay the Secretary of State an annual registration fee at the following rates:

Beginning with the 2010 registration year a $1 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for motor vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor driven cycles, and pedalcycles to be deposited into the State Police Vehicle Fund.

All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-34 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-1009, eff. 12-15-08; 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-747, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.7)

Sec. 3-806.7. Registration fees for active duty military personnel.

(a) Beginning with the 2011 registration year, the standard registration fee set forth in Section 3-806 of this Code for passenger motor vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds and registered under Section 3-815 of this Code, shall be reduced by 50% for any Illinois vehicle owner who was on active duty as a member of the Armed Forces of the United States and stationed outside of the United States for a period of 90 days or longer during the preceding registration year.

(b) Illinois residents who are members of the Armed Forces of the United States and who have been stationed outside of the United States for a period of 6 months or longer, and who placed their registered motor vehicle in storage during the time they served abroad, shall be entitled to credit for the unused portion of that registration when they renew the registration of that vehicle upon their return to the United States. For each month or part thereof that the vehicle was in storage and had current registration, the member of the armed forces shall receive one month of registration without charge.

(Source: P.A. 96-747, eff. 1-1-10.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.8)

Sec. 3-806.8 3-806.7. Graduated registration fee; study. The Secretary of State, in cooperation with the Department of Revenue, shall complete a feasibility study for the implementation and enforcement of a graduated registration fee based on the manufacturer's suggested retail price of motor vehicles of the first division, and second division vehicles weighing 8,000 pounds or less. This study shall include, but shall not be limited to the costs associated with design and maintenance of all systems and database applications required; suggested fee structures to create a revenue neutral graduated registration fee system; and consideration of annual depreciation of vehicles, reflective of fair market value.

The findings of this feasibility study shall be delivered to the Senate President, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives no later than January 31, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; revised 10-1-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-808.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-808.1)

Sec. 3-808.1. (a) Permanent vehicle registration plates shall be issued, at no charge, to the following:

1. Vehicles, other than medical transport vehicles, owned and operated by the State of Illinois or by any State agency financed by funds appropriated by the General Assembly;

2. Special disability plates issued to vehicles owned and operated by the State of Illinois or by any State agency financed by funds appropriated by the General Assembly.

(b) Permanent vehicle registration plates shall be issued, for a one time fee of $8.00, to the following:

1. Vehicles, other than medical transport vehicles, operated by or for any county, township or municipal corporation. ;

2. Vehicles owned by counties, townships or municipal corporations for persons with disabilities.

3. Beginning with the 1991 registration year, county-owned vehicles operated by or for any county sheriff and designated deputy sheriffs. These registration plates shall contain the specific county code and unit number.

4. All-terrain vehicles owned by counties, townships, or municipal corporations and used for law enforcement purposes when the Manufacturer's Statement of Origin is accompanied with a letter from the original manufacturer or a manufacturer's franchised dealer stating that this all-terrain vehicle has been converted to a street worthy vehicle that meets the equipment requirements set forth in Chapter 12 of this Code.

5. Beginning with the 2001 registration year, municipally-owned vehicles operated by or for any police department. These registration plates shall contain the designation "municipal police" and shall be numbered and distributed as prescribed by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 94-619, eff. 1-1-06; revised 11-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-821) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-821)

Sec. 3-821. Miscellaneous Registration and Title Fees.

(a) The fee to be paid to the Secretary of State for the following certificates, registrations or evidences of proper registration, or for corrected or duplicate documents shall be in accordance with the following schedule:

A special corrected certificate of title shall be issued (i) to remove a co-owner's name due to the death of the co-owner or due to a divorce or (ii) to change a co-owner's name due to a marriage.

There shall be no fee paid for a Junking Certificate.

(a-5) The Secretary of State may revoke a certificate of title and registration card and issue a corrected certificate of title and registration card, at no fee to the vehicle owner or lienholder, if there is proof that the vehicle identification number is erroneously shown on the original certificate of title.

(b) The Secretary may prescribe the maximum service charge to be imposed upon an applicant for renewal of a registration by any person authorized by law to receive and remit or transmit to the Secretary such renewal application and fees therewith.

(c) If a check is delivered to the Office of the Secretary of State as payment of any fee or tax under this Code, and such check is not honored by the bank on which it is drawn for any reason, the registrant or other person tendering the check remains liable for the payment of such fee or tax. The Secretary of State may assess a service charge of $19 in addition to the fee or tax due and owing for all dishonored checks.

If the total amount then due and owing exceeds the sum of $50 and has not been paid in full within 60 days from the date such fee or tax became due to the Secretary of State, the Secretary of State shall assess a penalty of 25% of such amount remaining unpaid.

All amounts payable under this Section shall be computed to the nearest dollar.

(d) The minimum fee and tax to be paid by any applicant for apportionment of a fleet of vehicles under this Code shall be $15 if the application was filed on or before the date specified by the Secretary together with fees and taxes due. If an application and the fees or taxes due are filed after the date specified by the Secretary, the Secretary may prescribe the payment of interest at the rate of 1/2 of 1% per month or fraction thereof after such due date and a minimum of $8.

(e) Trucks, truck tractors, truck tractors with loads, and motor buses, any one of which having a combined total weight in excess of 12,000 lbs. shall file an application for a Fleet Reciprocity Permit issued by the Secretary of State. This permit shall be in the possession of any driver operating a vehicle on Illinois highways. Any foreign licensed vehicle of the second division operating at any time in Illinois without a Fleet Reciprocity Permit or other proper Illinois registration, shall subject the operator to the penalties provided in Section 3-834 of this Code. For the purposes of this Code, "Fleet Reciprocity Permit" means any second division motor vehicle with a foreign license and used only in interstate transportation of goods. The fee for such permit shall be $15 per fleet which shall include all vehicles of the fleet being registered.

(f) For purposes of this Section, "all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used for production agriculture" means any all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used in the raising of or the propagation of livestock, crops for sale for human consumption, crops for livestock consumption, and production seed stock grown for the propagation of feed grains and the husbandry of animals or for the purpose of providing a food product, including the husbandry of blood stock as a main source of providing a food product. "All-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used in production agriculture" also means any all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used in animal husbandry, floriculture, aquaculture, horticulture, and viticulture.

(g) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-34 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-287, eff. 1-1-08; 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-554, eff. 1-1-10; 96-653, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver exam training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license; or

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-337, eff. 6-1-08; 95-685, eff. 6-23-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-740, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Department of State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been convicted of reckless driving, driving while intoxicated, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-6, 10-7, 11-6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-21, 11-22, 12-3.1, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-3.3, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, and 33A-2, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act and (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person; and

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, social security number and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09; revised 12-1-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-303) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-303)

Sec. 6-303. Driving while driver's license, permit or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5), any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle on any highway of this State at a time when such person's driver's license, permit or privilege to do so or the privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit is revoked or suspended as provided by this Code or the law of another state, except as may be specifically allowed by a judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, monitoring device driving permit, family financial responsibility driving permit, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or under the law of another state, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-5) Any person who violates this Section as provided in subsection (a) while his or her driver's license, permit or privilege is revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The person shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation, as provided in Section 11-501 of this Code, to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound problem exists and the extent of the problem, and to undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate.

(b) (Blank).

(b-1) Upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle during the time when the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was suspended by the Secretary of State or the driver's licensing administrator of another state, except as specifically allowed by a probationary license, judicial driving permit, restricted driving permit or monitoring device driving permit the Secretary shall extend the suspension for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension unless the suspension has already expired, in which case the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension.

(b-2) Except as provided in subsection (b-6), upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle when the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked by the Secretary of State or the driver's license administrator of any other state, except as specifically allowed by a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or the law of another state, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of one year from the date of such conviction indicating such person was operating a vehicle during such period of revocation.

(b-3) (Blank).

(b-4) When the Secretary of State receives a report of a conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle that was not equipped with an ignition interlock device during a time when the person was prohibited from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with such a device, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license to that person for an additional period of one year from the date of the conviction.

(b-5) Any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 consecutive days or 300 hours of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(b-6) Upon receiving a report of a first conviction of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of three years from the date of such conviction.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (c-3) and (c-4), any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof; or

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving personal injury or death; or

(3) a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

Such sentence of imprisonment or community service shall not be subject to suspension in order to reduce such sentence.

(c-1) Except as provided in subsections (c-5) and (d), any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be ordered by the court to serve a minimum of 100 hours of community service.

(c-2) In addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, the court may impose on any person convicted a fourth time of violating this Section any of the following:

(1) Seizure of the license plates of the person's vehicle.

(2) Immobilization of the person's vehicle for a period of time to be determined by the court.

(c-3) Any person convicted of a violation of this Section during a period of summary suspension imposed pursuant to Section 11-501.1 when the person was eligible for a MDDP shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-4) Any person who has been issued a MDDP and who is convicted of a violation of this Section as a result of operating or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device at the time of the offense shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-5) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and shall serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, if the original revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-1) Except as provided in subsections (d-2), (d-2.5), and (d-3), any person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court.

(d-2) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-2.5) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of the person's life.

(d-3) Any person convicted of a fourth, fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth, or ninth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-3.5) Any person convicted of a fourth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, and is eligible for an extended term, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-4) Any person convicted of a tenth, eleventh, twelfth, thirteenth, or fourteenth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-5) Any person convicted of a fifteenth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(e) Any person in violation of this Section who is also in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory insurance requirements, in addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, shall have his or her motor vehicle immediately impounded by the arresting law enforcement officer. The motor vehicle may be released to any licensed driver upon a showing of proof of insurance for the vehicle that was impounded and the notarized written consent for the release by the vehicle owner.

(f) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(g) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of a violation listed in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (c) of this Section, as a result of a summary suspension as provided in paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section, or as a result of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to the offense of reckless homicide.

(Source: P.A. 95-27, eff. 1-1-08; 95-377, eff. 1-1-08; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-578, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-991, eff. 6-1-09; 96-502, eff. 1-1-10; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-208.3)

Sec. 11-208.3. Administrative adjudication of violations of traffic regulations concerning the standing, parking, or condition of vehicles and automated traffic law violations.

(a) Any municipality may provide by ordinance for a system of administrative adjudication of vehicular standing and parking violations and vehicle compliance violations as defined in this subsection and automated traffic law violations as defined in Section 11-208.6 or 11-1201.1. The administrative system shall have as its purpose the fair and efficient enforcement of municipal regulations through the administrative adjudication of automated traffic law violations and violations of municipal ordinances regulating the standing and parking of vehicles, the condition and use of vehicle equipment, and the display of municipal wheel tax licenses within the municipality's borders. The administrative system shall only have authority to adjudicate civil offenses carrying fines not in excess of $500 or requiring the completion of a traffic education program, or both, that occur after the effective date of the ordinance adopting such a system under this Section. For purposes of this Section, "compliance violation" means a violation of a municipal regulation governing the condition or use of equipment on a vehicle or governing the display of a municipal wheel tax license.

(b) Any ordinance establishing a system of administrative adjudication under this Section shall provide for:

(1) A traffic compliance administrator authorized to adopt, distribute and process parking, compliance, and automated traffic law violation notices and other notices required by this Section, collect money paid as fines and penalties for violation of parking and compliance ordinances and automated traffic law violations, and operate an administrative adjudication system. The traffic compliance administrator also may make a certified report to the Secretary of State under Section 6-306.5.

(2) A parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation notice that shall specify the date, time, and place of violation of a parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law regulation; the particular regulation violated; any requirement to complete a traffic education program; the fine and any penalty that may be assessed for late payment or failure to complete a required traffic education program, or both, when so provided by ordinance; the vehicle make and state registration number; and the identification number of the person issuing the notice. With regard to automated traffic law violations, vehicle make shall be specified on the automated traffic law violation notice if the make is available and readily discernible. With regard to municipalities with a population of 1 million or more, it shall be grounds for dismissal of a parking violation if the state registration number or vehicle make specified is incorrect. The violation notice shall state that the completion of any required traffic education program, the payment of any indicated fine, and the payment of any applicable penalty for late payment or failure to complete a required traffic education program, or both, shall operate as a final disposition of the violation. The notice also shall contain information as to the availability of a hearing in which the violation may be contested on its merits. The violation notice shall specify the time and manner in which a hearing may be had.

(3) Service of the parking, standing, or compliance violation notice by affixing the original or a facsimile of the notice to an unlawfully parked vehicle or by handing the notice to the operator of a vehicle if he or she is present and service of an automated traffic law violation notice by mail to the address of the registered owner of the cited vehicle as recorded with the Secretary of State within 30 days after the Secretary of State notifies the municipality or county of the identity of the owner of the vehicle, but in no event later than 90 days after the violation. A person authorized by ordinance to issue and serve parking, standing, and compliance violation notices shall certify as to the correctness of the facts entered on the violation notice by signing his or her name to the notice at the time of service or in the case of a notice produced by a computerized device, by signing a single certificate to be kept by the traffic compliance administrator attesting to the correctness of all notices produced by the device while it was under his or her control. In the case of an automated traffic law violation, the ordinance shall require a determination by a technician employed or contracted by the municipality or county that, based on inspection of recorded images, the motor vehicle was being operated in violation of Section 11-208.6 or 11-1201.1 or a local ordinance. If the technician determines that the vehicle entered the intersection as part of a funeral procession or in order to yield the right-of-way to an emergency vehicle, a citation shall not be issued. The original or a facsimile of the violation notice or, in the case of a notice produced by a computerized device, a printed record generated by the device showing the facts entered on the notice, shall be retained by the traffic compliance administrator, and shall be a record kept in the ordinary course of business. A parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation notice issued, signed and served in accordance with this Section, a copy of the notice, or the computer generated record shall be prima facie correct and shall be prima facie evidence of the correctness of the facts shown on the notice. The notice, copy, or computer generated record shall be admissible in any subsequent administrative or legal proceedings.

(4) An opportunity for a hearing for the registered owner of the vehicle cited in the parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation notice in which the owner may contest the merits of the alleged violation, and during which formal or technical rules of evidence shall not apply; provided, however, that under Section 11-1306 of this Code the lessee of a vehicle cited in the violation notice likewise shall be provided an opportunity for a hearing of the same kind afforded the registered owner. The hearings shall be recorded, and the person conducting the hearing on behalf of the traffic compliance administrator shall be empowered to administer oaths and to secure by subpoena both the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant books and papers. Persons appearing at a hearing under this Section may be represented by counsel at their expense. The ordinance may also provide for internal administrative review following the decision of the hearing officer.

(5) Service of additional notices, sent by first class United States mail, postage prepaid, to the address of the registered owner of the cited vehicle as recorded with the Secretary of State or, if any notice to that address is returned as undeliverable, to the last known address recorded in a United States Post Office approved database, or, under Section 11-1306 of this Code, to the lessee of the cited vehicle at the last address known to the lessor of the cited vehicle at the time of lease or, if any notice to that address is returned as undeliverable, to the last known address recorded in a United States Post Office approved database. The service shall be deemed complete as of the date of deposit in the United States mail. The notices shall be in the following sequence and shall include but not be limited to the information specified herein:

(i) A second notice of parking, standing, or compliance violation. This notice shall specify the date and location of the violation cited in the parking, standing, or compliance violation notice, the particular regulation violated, the vehicle make and state registration number, any requirement to complete a traffic education program, the fine and any penalty that may be assessed for late payment or failure to complete a traffic education program, or both, when so provided by ordinance, the availability of a hearing in which the violation may be contested on its merits, and the time and manner in which the hearing may be had. The notice of violation shall also state that failure to complete a required traffic education program, to pay the indicated fine and any applicable penalty, or to appear at a hearing on the merits in the time and manner specified, will result in a final determination of violation liability for the cited violation in the amount of the fine or penalty indicated, and that, upon the occurrence of a final determination of violation liability for the failure, and the exhaustion of, or failure to exhaust, available administrative or judicial procedures for review, any incomplete traffic education program or any unpaid fine or penalty, or both, will constitute a debt due and owing the municipality.

(ii) A notice of final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability. This notice shall be sent following a final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability and the conclusion of judicial review procedures taken under this Section. The notice shall state that the incomplete traffic education program or the unpaid fine or penalty, or both, is a debt due and owing the municipality. The notice shall contain warnings that failure to complete any required traffic education program or to pay any fine or penalty due and owing the municipality, or both, within the time specified may result in the municipality's filing of a petition in the Circuit Court to have the incomplete traffic education program or unpaid fine or penalty, or both, rendered a judgment as provided by this Section, or may result in suspension of the person's drivers license for failure to complete a traffic education program or to pay fines or penalties, or both, for 10 or more parking violations under Section 6-306.5 or 5 or more automated traffic law violations under Section 11-208.6.

(6) A notice of impending drivers license suspension. This notice shall be sent to the person liable for failure to complete a required traffic education program or to pay any fine or penalty that remains due and owing, or both, on 10 or more parking violations or 5 or more unpaid automated traffic law violations. The notice shall state that failure to complete a required traffic education program or to pay the fine or penalty owing, or both, within 45 days of the notice's date will result in the municipality notifying the Secretary of State that the person is eligible for initiation of suspension proceedings under Section 6-306.5 of this Code. The notice shall also state that the person may obtain a photostatic copy of an original ticket imposing a fine or penalty by sending a self addressed, stamped envelope to the municipality along with a request for the photostatic copy. The notice of impending drivers license suspension shall be sent by first class United States mail, postage prepaid, to the address recorded with the Secretary of State or, if any notice to that address is returned as undeliverable, to the last known address recorded in a United States Post Office approved database.

(7) Final determinations of violation liability. A final determination of violation liability shall occur following failure to complete the required traffic education program or to pay the fine or penalty, or both, after a hearing officer's determination of violation liability and the exhaustion of or failure to exhaust any administrative review procedures provided by ordinance. Where a person fails to appear at a hearing to contest the alleged violation in the time and manner specified in a prior mailed notice, the hearing officer's determination of violation liability shall become final: (A) upon denial of a timely petition to set aside that determination, or (B) upon expiration of the period for filing the petition without a filing having been made.

(8) A petition to set aside a determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability that may be filed by a person owing an unpaid fine or penalty. A petition to set aside a determination of liability may also be filed by a person required to complete a traffic education program. The petition shall be filed with and ruled upon by the traffic compliance administrator in the manner and within the time specified by ordinance. The grounds for the petition may be limited to: (A) the person not having been the owner or lessee of the cited vehicle on the date the violation notice was issued, (B) the person having already completed the required traffic education program or paid the fine or penalty, or both, for the violation in question, and (C) excusable failure to appear at or request a new date for a hearing. With regard to municipalities with a population of 1 million or more, it shall be grounds for dismissal of a parking violation if the state registration number, or vehicle make if specified, is incorrect. After the determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability has been set aside upon a showing of just cause, the registered owner shall be provided with a hearing on the merits for that violation.

(9) Procedures for non-residents. Procedures by which persons who are not residents of the municipality may contest the merits of the alleged violation without attending a hearing.

(10) A schedule of civil fines for violations of vehicular standing, parking, compliance, or automated traffic law regulations enacted by ordinance pursuant to this Section, and a schedule of penalties for late payment of the fines or failure to complete required traffic education programs, provided, however, that the total amount of the fine and penalty for any one violation shall not exceed $250, except as provided in subsection (c) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code.

(11) Other provisions as are necessary and proper to carry into effect the powers granted and purposes stated in this Section.

(c) Any municipality establishing vehicular standing, parking, compliance, or automated traffic law regulations under this Section may also provide by ordinance for a program of vehicle immobilization for the purpose of facilitating enforcement of those regulations. The program of vehicle immobilization shall provide for immobilizing any eligible vehicle upon the public way by presence of a restraint in a manner to prevent operation of the vehicle. Any ordinance establishing a program of vehicle immobilization under this Section shall provide:

(1) Criteria for the designation of vehicles eligible for immobilization. A vehicle shall be eligible for immobilization when the registered owner of the vehicle has accumulated the number of incomplete traffic education programs or unpaid final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability, or both, as determined by ordinance.

(2) A notice of impending vehicle immobilization and a right to a hearing to challenge the validity of the notice by disproving liability for the incomplete traffic education programs or unpaid final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation liability, or both, listed on the notice.

(3) The right to a prompt hearing after a vehicle has been immobilized or subsequently towed without the completion of the required traffic education program or payment of the outstanding fines and penalties on parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations, or both, for which final determinations have been issued. An order issued after the hearing is a final administrative decision within the meaning of Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(4) A post immobilization and post-towing notice advising the registered owner of the vehicle of the right to a hearing to challenge the validity of the impoundment.

(d) Judicial review of final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations and final administrative decisions issued after hearings regarding vehicle immobilization and impoundment made under this Section shall be subject to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(e) Any fine, penalty, incomplete traffic education program, or part of any fine or any penalty remaining unpaid after the exhaustion of, or the failure to exhaust, administrative remedies created under this Section and the conclusion of any judicial review procedures shall be a debt due and owing the municipality and, as such, may be collected in accordance with applicable law. Completion of any required traffic education program and payment in full of any fine or penalty resulting from a standing, parking, compliance, or automated traffic law violation shall constitute a final disposition of that violation.

(f) After the expiration of the period within which judicial review may be sought for a final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation, the municipality may commence a proceeding in the Circuit Court for purposes of obtaining a judgment on the final determination of violation. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a municipality from consolidating multiple final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations against a person in a proceeding. Upon commencement of the action, the municipality shall file a certified copy or record of the final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation, which shall be accompanied by a certification that recites facts sufficient to show that the final determination of violation was issued in accordance with this Section and the applicable municipal ordinance. Service of the summons and a copy of the petition may be by any method provided by Section 2-203 of the Code of Civil Procedure or by certified mail, return receipt requested, provided that the total amount of fines and penalties for final determinations of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violations does not exceed $2500. If the court is satisfied that the final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation was entered in accordance with the requirements of this Section and the applicable municipal ordinance, and that the registered owner or the lessee, as the case may be, had an opportunity for an administrative hearing and for judicial review as provided in this Section, the court shall render judgment in favor of the municipality and against the registered owner or the lessee for the amount indicated in the final determination of parking, standing, compliance, or automated traffic law violation, plus costs. The judgment shall have the same effect and may be enforced in the same manner as other judgments for the recovery of money.

(g) The fee for participating in a traffic education program under this Section shall not exceed $25.

A low-income individual required to complete a traffic education program under this Section who provides proof of eligibility for the federal earned income tax credit under Section 32 of the Internal Revenue Code or the Illinois earned income tax credit under Section 212 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall not be required to pay any fee for participating in a required traffic education program.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-288, eff. 8-11-09; 96-478, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-605.2)

Sec. 11-605.2. Delegation of authority to set a special speed limit while traveling through highway construction or maintenance zones.

(a) A local agency may delegate to its superintendent of highways the authority to set and post a reduced speed limit for a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 11-605, under subsection (c) (b) of that Section.

(b) If a superintendent of highways sets a reduced speed limit for a construction or maintenance zone in accordance with this Section, the local agency must maintain a record that indicates:

(1) the location of the construction or maintenance zone;

(2) the reduced speed limit set and posted for the construction or maintenance zone; and

(3) the dates during which the reduced speed limit was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 93-947, eff. 8-19-04; revised 11-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.2)

Sec. 11-1301.2. Special decals for parking; persons a person with disabilities parking.

(a) The Secretary of State shall provide for, by administrative rules, the design, size, color, and placement of a person with disabilities motorist decal or device and shall provide for, by administrative rules, the content and form of an application for a person with disabilities motorist decal or device, which shall be used by local authorities in the issuance thereof to a person with temporary disabilities, provided that the decal or device is valid for no more than 90 days, subject to renewal for like periods based upon continued disability, and further provided that the decal or device clearly sets forth the date that the decal or device expires. The application shall include the requirement of an Illinois Identification Card number or a State of Illinois driver's license number. This decal or device may be used by the authorized holder to designate and identify a vehicle not owned or displaying a registration plate as provided in Sections 3-609 and 3-616 of this Act to designate when the vehicle is being used to transport said person or persons with disabilities, and thus is entitled to enjoy all the privileges that would be afforded a person with disabilities licensed vehicle. Person with disabilities decals or devices issued and displayed pursuant to this Section shall be recognized and honored by all local authorities regardless of which local authority issued such decal or device.

The decal or device shall be issued only upon a showing by adequate documentation that the person for whose benefit the decal or device is to be used has a temporary disability as defined in Section 1-159.1 of this Code.

(b) The local governing authorities shall be responsible for the provision of such decal or device, its issuance and designated placement within the vehicle. The cost of such decal or device shall be at the discretion of such local governing authority.

(c) The Secretary of State may, pursuant to Section 3-616(c), issue a person with disabilities parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. Any person with disabilities parking decal or device issued by the Secretary of State shall be registered to that person with disabilities in the form to be prescribed by the Secretary of State. The person with disabilities parking decal or device shall not display that person's address. One additional decal or device may be issued to an applicant upon his or her written request and with the approval of the Secretary of State. The written request must include a justification of the need for the additional decal or device.

(d) Replacement decals or devices may be issued for lost, stolen, or destroyed decals upon application and payment of a $10 fee. The replacement fee may be waived for individuals that have claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-167, eff. 1-1-08; 96-72, eff. 1-1-10; 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.3)

Sec. 11-1301.3. Unauthorized use of parking places reserved for persons with disabilities.

(a) It shall be prohibited to park any motor vehicle which is not properly displaying registration plates or decals issued to a person with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, pursuant to Sections 3-616, 11-1301.1 or 11-1301.2, or to a disabled veteran pursuant to Section 3-609 of this Act, as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or disabled veteran, in any parking place, including any private or public offstreet parking facility, specifically reserved, by the posting of an official sign as designated under Section 11-301, for motor vehicles displaying such registration plates. It shall be prohibited to park any motor vehicle in a designated access aisle adjacent to any parking place specifically reserved for persons with disabilities, by the posting of an official sign as designated under Section 11-301, for motor vehicles displaying such registration plates. When using the parking privileges for persons with disabilities, the parking decal or device must be displayed properly in the vehicle where it is clearly visible to law enforcement personnel, either hanging from the rearview mirror or placed on the dashboard of the vehicle in clear view. Disability license plates and parking decals and devices are not transferable from person to person. Proper usage of the disability license plate or parking decal or device requires the authorized holder to be present and enter or exit the vehicle at the time the parking privileges are being used. It is a violation of this Section to park in a space reserved for a person with disabilities if the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device does not enter or exit the vehicle at the time the parking privileges are being used. Any motor vehicle properly displaying a disability license plate or a parking decal or device containing the International symbol of access issued to persons with disabilities by any local authority, state, district, territory or foreign country shall be recognized by State and local authorities as a valid license plate or device and receive the same parking privileges as residents of this State.

(a-1) An individual with a vehicle displaying disability license plates or a parking decal or device issued to a qualified person with a disability under Sections 3-616, 11-1301.1, or 11-1301.2 or to a disabled veteran under Section 3-609 is in violation of this Section if (i) the person using the disability license plate or parking decal or device is not the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device or is not transporting the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device to or from the parking location and (ii) the person uses the disability license plate or parking decal or device to exercise any privileges granted through the disability license plate or parking decals or devices under this Code.

(b) Any person or local authority owning or operating any public or private offstreet parking facility may, after notifying the police or sheriff's department, remove or cause to be removed to the nearest garage or other place of safety any vehicle parked within a stall or space reserved for use by a person with disabilities which does not display person with disabilities registration plates or a special decal or device as required under this Section.

(c) Any person found guilty of violating the provisions of subsection (a) shall be fined $250 in addition to any costs or charges connected with the removal or storage of any motor vehicle authorized under this Section; but municipalities by ordinance may impose a fine up to $350 and shall display signs indicating the fine imposed. If the amount of the fine is subsequently changed, the municipality shall change the sign to indicate the current amount of the fine. It shall not be a defense to a charge under this Section that either the sign posted pursuant to this Section or the intended accessible parking place does not comply with the technical requirements of Section 11-301, Department regulations, or local ordinance if a reasonable person would be made aware by the sign or notice on or near the parking place that the place is reserved for a person with disabilities.

(c-1) Any person found guilty of violating the provisions of subsection (a-1) a first time shall be fined $500. Any person found guilty of violating subsection (a-1) a second time shall be fined $750, and the Secretary of State may revoke the person's driving privileges or suspend those privileges for a period of time to be determined by the Secretary. Any person found guilty of violating subsection (a-1) a third or subsequent time shall be fined $1,000. The circuit clerk shall distribute 50% of the fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, the 50% of the fine imposed shall be shared equally. If an officer of the Secretary of State Department of Police arrested a person for a violation of this Section, 50% of the fine imposed shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police Services Fund.

(d) Local authorities shall impose fines as established in subsections (c) and (c-1) for violations of this Section.

(e) As used in this Section, "authorized holder" means an individual issued a disability license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code, an individual issued a parking decal or device under Section 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a disabled veteran's license plate under Section 3-609 of this Code.

(f) Any person who commits a violation of subsection (a-1) may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may also suspend or revoke the disability license plates or parking decal or device for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State.

(g) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-167, eff. 1-1-08; 95-430, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-72, eff. 1-1-10; 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; revised 8-20-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-503) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-503)

Sec. 12-503. Windshields must be unobstructed and equipped with wipers.

(a) No person shall drive a motor vehicle with any sign, poster, window application, reflective material, nonreflective material or tinted film upon the front windshield, except that a nonreflective tinted film may be used along the uppermost portion of the windshield if such material does not extend more than 6 inches down from the top of the windshield.

(a-5) No window treatment or tinting shall be applied to the windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver, except:

(1) on vehicles where none of the windows to the rear of the driver's seat are treated in a manner that allows less than 30% light transmittance, a nonreflective tinted film that allows at least 50% light transmittance, with a 5% variance observed by any law enforcement official metering the light transmittance, may be used on the side windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver.

(2) on vehicles where none of the windows to the rear of the driver's seat are treated in a manner that allows less than 35% light transmittance, a nonreflective tinted film that allows at least 35% light transmittance, with a 5% variance observed by any law enforcement official metering the light transmittance, may be used on the side windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver.

(3) on multipurpose passenger vehicles, as defined by Section 1-148.3b of this Code, a nonreflective tinted film originally applied by the manufacturer, that allows at least 50% light transmittance, with a 5% variance observed by any law enforcement official metering the light transmittance, may be used on the side windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver.

(a-10) (a-5) No person shall install or repair any material prohibited by subsection (a) of this Section.

(1) Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit a person from removing or altering any material prohibited by subsection (a) to make a motor vehicle comply with the requirements of this Section.

(2) Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit a person from installing window treatment for a person with a medical condition described in subsection (g) of this Section. An installer who installs window treatment for a person with a medical condition described in subsection (g) must obtain a copy of the certified statement or letter written by a physician described in subsection (g) from the person with the medical condition prior to installing the window treatment. The copy of the certified statement or letter must be kept in the installer's permanent records.

(b) On motor vehicles where window treatment has not been applied to the windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver, the use of a nonreflective, smoked or tinted glass, nonreflective film, perforated window screen or other decorative window application on windows to the rear of the driver's seat shall be allowed, except that any motor vehicle with a window to the rear of the driver's seat treated in this manner shall be equipped with a side mirror on each side of the motor vehicle which are in conformance with Section 12-502.

(c) No person shall drive a motor vehicle with any objects placed or suspended between the driver and the front windshield, rear window, side wings or side windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver which materially obstructs the driver's view.

(d) Every motor vehicle, except motorcycles, shall be equipped with a device, controlled by the driver, for cleaning rain, snow, moisture or other obstructions from the windshield; and no person shall drive a motor vehicle with snow, ice, moisture or other material on any of the windows or mirrors, which materially obstructs the driver's clear view of the highway.

(e) No person shall drive a motor vehicle when the windshield, side or rear windows are in such defective condition or repair as to materially impair the driver's view to the front, side or rear. A vehicle equipped with a side mirror on each side of the vehicle which are in conformance with Section 12-502 will be deemed to be in compliance in the event the rear window of the vehicle is materially obscured.

(f) Paragraphs (a), (a-5), and (b) of this Section shall not apply to:

(1) (Blank).

(2) to those motor vehicles properly registered in another jurisdiction.

(g) Paragraphs (a) and (a-5) of this Section shall not apply to window treatment, including but not limited to a window application, nonreflective material, or tinted film, applied or affixed to a motor vehicle for which distinctive license plates or license plate stickers have been issued pursuant to subsection (k) of Section 3-412 of this Code, and which:

(1) is owned and operated by a person afflicted with or suffering from a medical disease, including but not limited to systemic or discoid lupus erythematosus, disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis, or albinism, which would require that person to be shielded from the direct rays of the sun; or

(2) is used in transporting a person when the person resides at the same address as the registered owner of the vehicle and the person is afflicted with or suffering from a medical disease which would require the person to be shielded from the direct rays of the sun, including but not limited to systemic or discoid lupus erythematosus, disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis, or albinism.

The owner must obtain a certified statement or letter written by a physician licensed to practice medicine in Illinois that such person owning and operating or being transported in a motor vehicle is afflicted with or suffers from such disease, including but not limited to systemic or discoid lupus erythematosus, disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis, or albinism. However, no exemption from the requirements of subsection (a-5) shall be granted for any condition, such as light sensitivity, for which protection from the direct rays of the sun can be adequately obtained by the use of sunglasses or other eye protective devices.

Such certification must be carried in the motor vehicle at all times. The certification shall be legible and shall contain the date of issuance, the name, address and signature of the attending physician, and the name, address, and medical condition of the person requiring exemption. The information on the certificate for a window treatment must remain current and shall be renewed annually by the attending physician. The owner shall also submit a copy of the certification to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may forward notice of certification to law enforcement agencies.

(g-5) (Blank).

(g-7) Installers shall only install window treatment authorized by subsection (g) on motor vehicles for which distinctive plates or license plate stickers have been issued pursuant to subsection (k) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The distinctive license plates or plate sticker must be on the motor vehicle at the time of window treatment installation.

(h) Paragraph (a) of this Section shall not apply to motor vehicle stickers or other certificates issued by State or local authorities which are required to be displayed upon motor vehicle windows to evidence compliance with requirements concerning motor vehicles.

(i) (Blank).

(j) A person found guilty of violating paragraphs (a), (a-5), (a-10), (b), or (g-7) of this Section shall be guilty of a petty offense and fined no less than $50 nor more than $500. A second or subsequent violation of paragraphs (a), (a-5), (a-10), (b), or (g-7) of this Section shall be treated as a Class C misdemeanor and the violator fined no less than $100 nor more than $500. Any person convicted under paragraphs (a), (a-5), or (b) of this Section shall be ordered to alter any nonconforming windows into compliance with this Section.

(k) Nothing in this Section shall create a cause of action on behalf of a buyer against a vehicle dealer or manufacturer who sells a motor vehicle with a window which is in violation of this Section.

(l) (k) The Secretary of State shall provide a notice of the requirements of this Section to a new resident applying for vehicle registration in this State pursuant to Section 3-801 of this Code. The Secretary of State may comply with this subsection by posting the requirements of this Section on the Secretary of State's website.

(Source: P.A. 95-202, eff. 8-16-07; 96-530, eff. 1-1-10; 96-815, eff. 10-30-09; revised 11-9-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-610.2)

Sec. 12-610.2. Electronic communication devices.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including but not limited to a wireless telephone, personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer while being used for the purpose of composing, reading, or sending an electronic message, but does not include a global positioning system or navigation system or a device that is physically or electronically integrated into the motor vehicle.

"Electronic message" means a self-contained piece of digital communication that is designed or intended to be transmitted between physical devices. "Electronic message" includes, but is not limited to electronic mail, a text message, an instant message, or a command or request to access an Internet site.

(b) A person may not operate a motor vehicle on a roadway while using an electronic communication device to compose, send, or read an electronic message.

(c) A violation of this Section is an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles.

(d) This Section does not apply to:

(1) a law enforcement officer or operator of an emergency vehicle while performing his or her official duties;

(2) a driver using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of reporting an emergency situation and continued communication with emergency personnel during the emergency situation;

(3) a driver using an electronic communication device in hands-free or voice-activated mode; or

(4) a driver of a commercial motor vehicle reading a message displayed on a permanently installed communication device designed for a commercial motor vehicle with a screen that does not exceed 10 inches tall by 10 inches wide in size;

(5) a driver using an electronic communication device while parked on the shoulder of a roadway; or

(6) a driver using an electronic communication device when the vehicle is stopped due to normal traffic being obstructed and the driver has the motor vehicle transmission in neutral or park.

(Source: P.A. 96-130, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-821)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-410)

Sec. 12-821. Display of telephone number; complaint calls.

(a) Each school bus shall display at the rear of the bus a sign, with letters and numerals readily visible and readable, indicating the area code and telephone number of the owner of the school bus, regardless of whether the owner is a school district or another person or entity. The sign shall be in the following form:

"TO COMMENT ON MY DRIVING, CALL (area code and telephone number of school bus owner)".

A school bus owner who placed a sign conforming to the requirements of Public Act 95-176 on a school bus before January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-655) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly may continue to use that sign on that school bus rather than a sign that conforms to the requirements of Public Act 96-655 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly; however, if the school bus owner replaces that sign, the replacement sign shall conform to the requirements of Public Act 96-655 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(b) The owner of each school bus shall establish procedures for accepting the calls provided for under subsection (a) and for taking complaints.

(c) The procedures established under subsection (b) shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) an internal investigation of the events that led to each complaint; and

(2) a report to the complaining party on the results of the investigation and the action taken, if any.

(Source: P.A. 95-176, eff. 1-1-08; 96-655, eff. 1-1-10.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-410)

Sec. 12-821. Display of telephone number; complaint calls.

(a) Each school bus and multifunction school-activity bus shall display at the rear of the bus a sign, with letters and numerals readily visible and readable, indicating the area code and telephone number of the owner of the bus, regardless of whether the owner is a school district or another person or entity. The sign shall be in the following form:

"TO COMMENT ON MY DRIVING, CALL (area code and telephone number of bus owner)".

A school bus owner who placed a sign conforming to the requirements of Public Act 95-176 on a school bus before January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-655) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly may continue to use that sign on that school bus rather than a sign that conforms to the requirements of Public Act 96-655 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly; however, if the school bus owner replaces that sign, the replacement sign shall conform to the requirements of Public Act 96-655 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(b) The owner of each school bus or multifunction school-activity bus shall establish procedures for accepting the calls provided for under subsection (a) and for taking complaints.

(c) The procedures established under subsection (b) shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) an internal investigation of the events that led to each complaint; and

(2) a report to the complaining party on the results of the investigation and the action taken, if any.

(Source: P.A. 95-176, eff. 1-1-08; 96-410, eff. 7-1-10; 96-655, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-102)

Sec. 15-102. Width of Vehicles.

(a) On Class III and non-designated State and local highways, the total outside width of any vehicle or load thereon shall not exceed 8 feet 6 inches.

(b) Except during those times when, due to insufficient light or unfavorable atmospheric conditions, persons and vehicles on the highway are not clearly discernible at a distance of 1000 feet, the following vehicles may exceed the 8 feet 6 inch limitation during the period from a half hour before sunrise to a half hour after sunset:

(1) Loads of hay, straw or other similar farm products provided that the load is not more than 12 feet wide.

(2) Implements of husbandry being transported on another vehicle and the transporting vehicle while loaded.

The following requirements apply to the transportation on another vehicle of an implement of husbandry wider than 8 feet 6 inches on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or other highways in the system of State highways:

(A) The driver of a vehicle transporting an implement of husbandry that exceeds 8 feet 6 inches in width shall obey all traffic laws and shall check the roadways prior to making a movement in order to ensure that adequate clearance is available for the movement. It is prima facie evidence that the driver of a vehicle transporting an implement of husbandry has failed to check the roadway prior to making a movement if the vehicle is involved in a collision with a bridge, overpass, fixed structure, or properly placed traffic control device or if the vehicle blocks traffic due to its inability to proceed because of a bridge, overpass, fixed structure, or properly placed traffic control device.

(B) Flags shall be displayed so as to wave freely at the extremities of overwidth objects and at the extreme ends of all protrusions, projections, and overhangs. All flags shall be clean, bright red flags with no advertising, wording, emblem, or insignia inscribed upon them and at least 18 inches square.

(C) "OVERSIZE LOAD" signs are mandatory on the front and rear of all vehicles with loads over 10 feet wide. These signs must have 12-inch high black letters with a 2-inch stroke on a yellow sign that is 7 feet wide by 18 inches high.

(D) One civilian escort vehicle is required for a load that exceeds 14 feet 6 inches in width and 2 civilian escort vehicles are required for a load that exceeds 16 feet in width on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or other highways in the system of State highways.

(E) The requirements for a civilian escort vehicle and driver are as follows:

(1) The civilian escort vehicle shall be a passenger car or a second division vehicle not exceeding a gross vehicle weight of 8,000 pounds that is designed to afford clear and unobstructed vision to both front and rear.

(2) The escort vehicle driver must be properly licensed to operate the vehicle.

(3) While in use, the escort vehicle must be equipped with illuminated rotating, oscillating, or flashing amber lights or flashing amber strobe lights mounted on top that are of sufficient intensity to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(4) "OVERSIZE LOAD" signs are mandatory on all escort vehicles. The sign on an escort vehicle shall have 8-inch high black letters on a yellow sign that is 5 feet wide by 12 inches high.

(5) When only one escort vehicle is required and it is operating on a two-lane highway, the escort vehicle shall travel approximately 300 feet ahead of the load. The rotating, oscillating, or flashing lights or flashing amber strobe lights and an "OVERSIZE LOAD" sign shall be displayed on the escort vehicle and shall be visible from the front. When only one escort vehicle is required and it is operating on a multilane divided highway, the escort vehicle shall travel approximately 300 feet behind the load and the sign and lights shall be visible from the rear.

(6) When 2 escort vehicles are required, one escort shall travel approximately 300 feet ahead of the load and the second escort shall travel approximately 300 feet behind the load. The rotating, oscillating, or flashing lights or flashing amber strobe lights and an "OVERSIZE LOAD" sign shall be displayed on the escort vehicles and shall be visible from the front on the lead escort and from the rear on the trailing escort.

(7) When traveling within the corporate limits of a municipality, the escort vehicle shall maintain a reasonable and proper distance from the oversize load, consistent with existing traffic conditions.

(8) A separate escort shall be provided for each load hauled.

(9) The driver of an escort vehicle shall obey all traffic laws.

(10) The escort vehicle must be in safe operational condition.

(11) The driver of the escort vehicle must be in radio contact with the driver of the vehicle carrying the oversize load.

(F) A transport vehicle while under load of more than 8 feet 6 inches in width must be equipped with an illuminated rotating, oscillating, or flashing amber light or lights or a flashing amber strobe light or lights mounted on the top of the cab that are of sufficient intensity to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight. If the load on the transport vehicle blocks the visibility of the amber lighting from the rear of the vehicle, the vehicle must also be equipped with an illuminated rotating, oscillating, or flashing amber light or lights or a flashing amber strobe light or lights mounted on the rear of the load that are of sufficient intensity to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(G) When a flashing amber light is required on the transport vehicle under load and it is operating on a two-lane highway, the transport vehicle shall display to the rear at least one rotating, oscillating, or flashing light or a flashing amber strobe light and an "OVERSIZE LOAD" sign. When a flashing amber light is required on the transport vehicle under load and it is operating on a multilane divided highway, the sign and light shall be visible from the rear.

(H) Maximum speed shall be 45 miles per hour on all such moves or 5 miles per hour above the posted minimum speed limit, whichever is greater, but the vehicle shall not at any time exceed the posted maximum speed limit.

(3) Portable buildings designed and used for agricultural and livestock raising operations that are not more than 14 feet wide and with not more than a 1 foot overhang along the left side of the hauling vehicle. However, the buildings shall not be transported more than 10 miles and not on any route that is part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways.

All buildings when being transported shall display at least 2 red cloth flags, not less than 12 inches square, mounted as high as practicable on the left and right side of the building.

A State Police escort shall be required if it is necessary for this load to use part of the left lane when crossing any 2 laned State highway bridge.

(c) Vehicles propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires operated wholly within the corporate limits of a municipality are also exempt from the width limitation.

(d) (Blank). Exemptions are also granted to vehicles designed for the carrying of more than 10 persons under the following conditions:

(1) (Blank);

(2) (Blank); or

(3) (Blank).

(d-1) A recreational vehicle, as defined in Section 1-169, may exceed 8 feet 6 inches in width if:

(1) the excess width is attributable to appurtenances that extend 6 inches or less beyond either side of the body of the vehicle; and

(2) the roadway on which the vehicle is traveling has marked lanes for vehicular traffic that are at least 11 feet in width.

As used in this subsection (d-1) and in subsection (d-2), the term appurtenance includes (i) a retracted awning and its support hardware and (ii) any appendage that is intended to be an integral part of a recreation vehicle.

(d-2) A recreational vehicle that exceeds 8 feet 6 inches in width as provided in subsection (d-1) may travel any roadway of the State if the vehicle is being operated between a roadway permitted under subsection (d-1) and:

(1) the location where the recreation vehicle is garaged;

(2) the destination of the recreation vehicle; or

(3) a facility for food, fuel, repair, services, or rest.

(e) A vehicle and load traveling upon the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or any other highway in the system of State highways that has been designated as a Class I or Class II highway by the Department, or any street or highway designated by local authorities, may have a total outside width of 8 feet 6 inches, provided that certain safety devices that the Department determines as necessary for the safe and efficient operation of motor vehicles shall not be included in the calculation of width.

Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act relating to procedures for rulemaking shall not apply to the designation of highways under this paragraph (e).

(f) Mirrors required by Section 12-502 of this Code and other safety devices identified by the Department may project up to 14 inches beyond each side of a bus and up to 6 inches beyond each side of any other vehicle, and that projection shall not be deemed a violation of the width restrictions of this Section.

(g) Any person who is convicted of violating this Section is subject to the penalty as provided in paragraph (b) of Section 15-113.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 1-1-10; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-220, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-4-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-113) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-113)

Sec. 15-113. Violations; Penalties.

(a) Whenever any vehicle is operated in violation of the provisions of Section 15-111 or subsection (d) of Section 3-401, the owner or driver of such vehicle shall be deemed guilty of such violation and either the owner or the driver of such vehicle may be prosecuted for such violation. Any person charged with a violation of any of these provisions who pleads not guilty shall be present in court for the trial on the charge. Any person, firm or corporation convicted of any violation of Section 15-111 including, but not limited to, a maximum axle or gross limit specified on a regulatory sign posted in accordance with paragraph (g) or (h) of Section 15-111, shall be fined according to the following schedule:

Up to and including 2000 pounds overweight, the fine is = $100

From 2001 through 2500 pounds overweight, = the fine is $270

From 2501 through 3000 pounds overweight, = the fine is $330

From 3001 through 3500 pounds overweight, = the fine is $520

From 3501 through 4000 pounds overweight, = the fine is $600

From 4001 through 4500 pounds overweight, = the fine is $850

From 4501 through 5000 pounds overweight, = the fine is $950

From 5001 or more pounds overweight, = the fine shall be computed by assessing $1500 for the first 5000 pounds overweight and $150 for each additional increment of 500 pounds overweight or fraction thereof.

In addition any person, firm or corporation convicted of 4 or more violations of Section 15-111 within any 12 month period shall be fined an additional amount of $5,000 for the fourth and each subsequent conviction within the 12 month period. Provided, however, that with regard to a firm or corporation, a fourth or subsequent conviction shall mean a fourth or subsequent conviction attributable to any one employee-driver.

(b) Whenever any vehicle is operated in violation of the provisions of Sections 15-102, 15-103 or 15-107, the owner or driver of such vehicle shall be deemed guilty of such violation and either may be prosecuted for such violation. Any person, firm or corporation convicted of any violation of Sections 15-102, 15-103 or 15-107 shall be fined for the first or second conviction an amount equal to not less than $50 nor more than $500, and for the third and subsequent convictions by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year after the date of the first offense, not less than $500 nor more than $1,000.

(c) All proceeds of the additional fines imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 580. The Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 5-7 as follows:

(625 ILCS 40/5-7)

Sec. 5-7. Operating a snowmobile while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or a combination of them; criminal penalties; suspension of operating privileges.

(a) A person may not operate or be in actual physical control of a snowmobile within this State while:

1. The alcohol concentration in that person's blood or breath is a concentration at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

2. The person is under the influence of alcohol;

3. The person is under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

3.1. The person is under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4. The person is under the combined influence of alcohol and any other drug or drugs or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile; or

5. There is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in that person's breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or intoxicating compound listed in the use of Intoxicating Compounds Act.

(b) The fact that a person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, other drug or drugs, any intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them does not constitute a defense against a charge of violating this Section.

(c) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c-1) As used in this Section, "first time offender" means any person who has not had a previous conviction or been assigned supervision for violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or any person who has not had a suspension imposed under subsection (e) of Section 5-7.1.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, the following are equivalent to a conviction:

(1) a forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure a defendant's appearance in court when forfeiture has not been vacated; or

(2) the failure of a defendant to appear for trial.

(d) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if:

1. The person has a previous conviction under this Section;

2. The offense results in personal injury where a person other than the operator suffers great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries. A person guilty of a Class 4 felony under this paragraph 2, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years; or

3. The offense occurred during a period in which the person's privileges to operate a snowmobile are revoked or suspended, and the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section or was imposed under Section 5-7.1.

(e) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony if the offense results in the death of a person. A person guilty of a Class 2 felony under this subsection (e), if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-1) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance who had a child under the age of 16 on board the snowmobile at the time of offense shall be subject to a mandatory minimum fine of $500 and shall be subject to a mandatory minimum of 5 days of community service in a program benefiting children. The assignment under this subsection shall not be subject to suspension nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the assignment.

(e-2) Every person found guilty of violating this Section, whose operation of a snowmobile while in violation of this Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) (m) of Section 11-501.01 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e-3) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision, shall be fined $100, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the $100 shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (e-3) shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment or to provide law enforcement training that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State. Law enforcement equipment shall include, but is not limited to, in-car video cameras, radar and laser speed detection devices, and alcohol breath testers.

(f) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend the snowmobile operation privileges of a person convicted or found guilty of a misdemeanor under this Section for a period of one year, except that first-time offenders are exempt from this mandatory one year suspension.

(g) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend for a period of 5 years the snowmobile operation privileges of any person convicted or found guilty of a felony under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-214, eff. 1-1-06; 95-149, eff. 8-14-07; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 585. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.5 as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.5) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.5)

Sec. 27.5. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk that equals an amount less than $55, except restitution under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002 of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this Section in subsection (b) shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the circuit clerk as follows: 47% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case; 12% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and 41% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund. Of the 12% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 1/6 shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 1/2 shall be deposited into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, and 1/3 shall be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund. For fiscal years 1992 and 1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding year based upon independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall be subject to this Section, except that counties with a population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section, judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act, Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and subsection (a) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or fee requirements are waived pursuant to a court order, the circuit clerk may add to any unpaid fees and costs a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the circuit clerk in performing the duties required to collect and disburse funds. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) The following amounts must be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:

(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and

(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court. If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(d) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $20, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection Subsection (d) becomes inoperative 7 years after the effective date of Public Act 95-154.

(e) In all counties having a population of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants: ,

(1) (e-1) A person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, including any person placed on court supervision for violating subsection (a), shall be fined $500 as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2) (e-2) When a crime laboratory DUI analysis fee of $150, provided for by Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections is assessed, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided by subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(3) (e-3) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (f) of Section 11-605.

(4) (e-3.5) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) (e-4) When a mandatory drug court fee of up to $5 is assessed as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(6) (e-5) When a mandatory teen court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program fee is assessed as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(7) (e-6) When a Children's Advocacy Center fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(8) (e-7) When a victim impact panel fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to the victim impact panel to be attended by the defendant.

(9) (e-8) When a new fee collected in traffic cases is enacted after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-735) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, it shall be excluded from the percentage disbursement provisions of this Section unless otherwise indicated by law.

(f) (e) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(g) (e) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-154, eff. 10-13-07; 95-428, eff. 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-576, eff. 8-18-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; 96-735, eff. 1-1-10; revised 12-28-09.)

Section 590. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2-23 and 5-710 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/2-23) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-23)

Sec. 2-23. Kinds of dispositional orders.

(1) The following kinds of orders of disposition may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) A minor under 18 years of age found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 may be (1) continued in the custody of his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian; (2) placed in accordance with Section 2-27; (3) restored to the custody of the parent, parents, guardian, or legal custodian, provided the court shall order the parent, parents, guardian, or legal custodian to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan or risk the loss of custody of the child and the possible termination of their parental rights; or (4) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act.

However, in any case in which a minor is found by the court to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 of this Act, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian whose acts or omissions or both have been identified, pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 2-21, as forming the basis for the court's finding of abuse or neglect, until such time as a hearing is held on the issue of the best interests of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor without endangering the minor's health or safety, and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(b) A minor under 18 years of age found to be dependent under Section 2-4 may be (1) placed in accordance with Section 2-27 or (2) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act.

However, in any case in which a minor is found by the court to be dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian whose acts or omissions or both have been identified, pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 2-21, as forming the basis for the court's finding of dependency, until such time as a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor without endangering the minor's health or safety, and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(b-1) A minor between the ages of 18 and 21 may be placed pursuant to Section 2-27 of this Act if (1) the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship of the minor pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33, or (2) the court has adjudicated the minor a ward of the court, permitted the minor to return home under an order of protection, and subsequently made a finding that it is in the minor's best interest to vacate the order of protection and commit the minor to the Department of Children and Family Services for care and service.

(c) When the court awards guardianship to the Department of Children and Family Services, the court shall order the parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions that require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights.

(2) Any order of disposition may provide for protective supervision under Section 2-24 and may include an order of protection under Section 2-25.

Unless the order of disposition expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification, not inconsistent with Section 2-28, until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 2-31.

(3) The court also shall enter any other orders necessary to fulfill the service plan, including, but not limited to, (i) orders requiring parties to cooperate with services, (ii) restraining orders controlling the conduct of any party likely to frustrate the achievement of the goal, and (iii) visiting orders. Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this subsection (3) to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the plan. If, after receiving evidence, the court determines that the services contained in the plan are not reasonably calculated to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court also shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new service plan or to implement changes to the current service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties within 45 days after the date of the order. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed. Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this subsection (3) or under subsection (2) to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the plan.

(4) In addition to any other order of disposition, the court may order any minor adjudicated neglected with respect to his or her own injurious behavior to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentence hearing" referred to therein shall be the dispositional hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such restitution on the minor's behalf.

(5) Any order for disposition where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 2-27 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of such minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. Such payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the order of disposition requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(7) The court may terminate the parental rights of a parent at the initial dispositional hearing if all of the conditions in subsection (5) of Section 2-21 are met.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-581, eff. 1-1-10; 96-600, eff. 8-21-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-710)

Sec. 5-710. Kinds of sentencing orders.

(1) The following kinds of sentencing orders may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) Except as provided in Sections 5-805, 5-810, 5-815, a minor who is found guilty under Section 5-620 may be:

(i) put on probation or conditional discharge and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian, provided, however, that any such minor who is not committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this subsection and who is found to be a delinquent for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be placed on probation;

(ii) placed in accordance with Section 5-740, with or without also being put on probation or conditional discharge;

(iii) required to undergo a substance abuse assessment conducted by a licensed provider and participate in the indicated clinical level of care;

(iv) placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 15 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency;

(v) placed in detention for a period not to exceed 30 days, either as the exclusive order of disposition or, where appropriate, in conjunction with any other order of disposition issued under this paragraph, provided that any such detention shall be in a juvenile detention home and the minor so detained shall be 10 years of age or older. However, the 30-day limitation may be extended by further order of the court for a minor under age 15 committed to the Department of Children and Family Services if the court finds that the minor is a danger to himself or others. The minor shall be given credit on the sentencing order of detention for time spent in detention under Sections 5-501, 5-601, 5-710, or 5-720 of this Article as a result of the offense for which the sentencing order was imposed. The court may grant credit on a sentencing order of detention entered under a violation of probation or violation of conditional discharge under Section 5-720 of this Article for time spent in detention before the filing of the petition alleging the violation. A minor shall not be deprived of credit for time spent in detention before the filing of a violation of probation or conditional discharge alleging the same or related act or acts;

(vi) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act;

(vii) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privileges suspended for such time as determined by the court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age;

(viii) put on probation or conditional discharge and placed in detention under Section 3-6039 of the Counties Code for a period not to exceed the period of incarceration permitted by law for adults found guilty of the same offense or offenses for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent, and in any event no longer than upon attainment of age 21; this subdivision (viii) notwithstanding any contrary provision of the law;

(ix) ordered to undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body; or

(x) placed in electronic home detention under Part 7A of this Article.

(b) A minor found to be guilty may be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 if the minor is 13 years of age or older, provided that the commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be made only if a term of incarceration is permitted by law for adults found guilty of the offense for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent. The time during which a minor is in custody before being released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian shall be considered as time spent in detention.

(c) When a minor is found to be guilty for an offense which is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and made a ward of the court, the court may enter a disposition order requiring the minor to undergo assessment, counseling or treatment in a substance abuse program approved by the Department of Human Services.

(2) Any sentencing order other than commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice may provide for protective supervision under Section 5-725 and may include an order of protection under Section 5-730.

(3) Unless the sentencing order expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 5-750.

(4) In addition to any other sentence, the court may order any minor found to be delinquent to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the sentencing hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may be ordered by the court to pay some or all of the restitution on the minor's behalf, pursuant to the Parental Responsibility Law. The State's Attorney is authorized to act on behalf of any victim in seeking restitution in proceedings under this Section, up to the maximum amount allowed in Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(5) Any sentencing order where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 5-740 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of the minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. The payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the sentencing order requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in instances in which educational services are to be provided to a minor in a residential facility where the minor has been placed by the court, costs incurred in the provision of those educational services must be allocated based on the requirements of the School Code.

(7) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a period of time in excess of that period for which an adult could be committed for the same act.

(8) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be ordered to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(8.5) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be ordered to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(9) In addition to any other sentencing order, the court shall order any minor found to be guilty for an act which would constitute, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or criminal sexual abuse if committed by an adult to undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agency of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the minor's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of the test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the sentencing order was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the minor of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or the legal guardian, of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at the Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed. The court shall order that the cost of any test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the minor.

(10) When a court finds a minor to be guilty the court shall, before entering a sentencing order under this Section, make a finding whether the offense committed either: (a) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (b) involved a violation of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or a violation of any statute that involved the wrongful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative, and the court does not commit the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the court shall order the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours nor more than 120 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. This order shall be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section except for an order to place the minor in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(11) If the court determines that the offense was committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in subsection (10), and that the offense involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit, the court shall notify the Secretary of State of that determination and of the period for which the minor shall be denied driving privileges. If, at the time of the determination, the minor does not hold a driver's license or permit, the court shall provide that the minor shall not be issued a driver's license or permit until his or her 18th birthday. If the minor holds a driver's license or permit at the time of the determination, the court shall provide that the minor's driver's license or permit shall be revoked until his or her 21st birthday, or until a later date or occurrence determined by the court. If the minor holds a driver's license at the time of the determination, the court may direct the Secretary of State to issue the minor a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except that the court may direct that the JDP be effective immediately.

(12) If a minor is found to be guilty of a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may, in its discretion, and upon recommendation by the State's Attorney, order that minor and his or her parents or legal guardian to attend a smoker's education or youth diversion program as defined in that Act if that program is available in the jurisdiction where the offender resides. Attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program shall be time-credited against any community service time imposed for any first violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act. In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act, the court, upon request by the State's Attorney, may in its discretion require the offender to remit a fee for his or her attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program.

For purposes of this Section, "smoker's education program" or "youth diversion program" includes, but is not limited to, a seminar designed to educate a person on the physical and psychological effects of smoking tobacco products and the health consequences of smoking tobacco products that can be conducted with a locality's youth diversion program.

In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose under this subsection (12):

(a) If a minor violates subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may impose a sentence of 15 hours of community service or a fine of $25 for a first violation.

(b) A second violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a fine of $50 and 25 hours of community service.

(c) A third or subsequent violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a $100 fine and 30 hours of community service.

(d) Any second or subsequent violation not within the 12-month time period after the first violation is punishable as provided for a first violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-337, eff. 6-1-08; 95-642, eff. 6-1-08; 95-844, eff. 8-15-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-293, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-15-09.)

Section 595. The Court of Claims Act is amended by changing Section 9.5 as follows:

(705 ILCS 505/9.5)

Sec. 9.5. Gold Star and Fallen Heroes Families Assistance Program.

(a) Within the Court of Claims, there is established a Gold Star and Fallen Heroes Families Assistance Program, which is charged with the responsibility of assessing the needs of and providing information to Illinois Gold Star and Fallen Heroes Families with regard to claims filed pursuant to the Line of Duty Compensation Act.

(b) As used in this Section, "Gold Star and Fallen Heroes Family" means the family members of an individual who was killed in the line of duty and who was employed or serving in a capacity defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Line of Duty Compensation Act.

(c) Toll-free helpline. The Gold Star and Fallen Heroes Families Assistance Program shall include a toll-free helpline dedicated to families seeking information about the Line of Duty Compensation Act, including, but not limited to, the status of claims filed pursuant to that Act. The helpline phone number and information about the Gold Star and Fallen Heroes Families Assistance Program shall be provided to each person filing a claim under the Line of Duty Compensation Act.

(d) On or before January 1 of each year, the Court of Claims shall report to the Governor, both houses of the General Assembly, and the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs the following information:

(1) the number of claims filed with the Court of Claims pursuant to the Line of Duty Compensation Act ("LODCA");

(2) the number of Line of Duty Compensation Act LODCA claims approved for payment by the Court of Claims during the preceding calendar year;

(3) the number and status of Line of Duty Compensation Act LODCA claims pending in the Court of Claims; and

(4) other information as may be requested by the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 96-539, eff. 1-1-10; 96-541, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

Section 600. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 9-1.2, 10-5, 10-5.5, 10-9, 11-9.4, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, 12-2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-7.5, 14-3, 16-1, 16D-2, 16D-3, 17-24, 17-26, 24-1, 24-2, 25-5, 26-1, 26-5, 29B-1, 29D-25, and 36-1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/9-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1.2)

Sec. 9-1.2. Intentional Homicide of an Unborn Child.

(a) A person commits the offense of intentional homicide of an unborn child if, in performing acts which cause the death of an unborn child, he without lawful justification:

(1) either intended to cause the death of or do great bodily harm to the pregnant woman or her unborn child or knew that such acts would cause death or great bodily harm to the pregnant woman or her unborn child; or

(2) he knew that his acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the pregnant woman or her unborn child; and

(3) he knew that the woman was pregnant.

(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is killed.

(c) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975, as amended, to which the pregnant woman has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.

(d) Penalty. The sentence for intentional homicide of an unborn child shall be the same as for first degree murder, except that:

(1) the death penalty may not be imposed;

(2) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(4) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(e) The provisions of this Act shall not be construed to prohibit the prosecution of any person under any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 91-404, eff. 1-1-00; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Child abduction.

(a) For purposes of this Section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) "Child" means a person who, at the time the alleged violation occurred, was under the age of 18 or severely or profoundly mentally retarded.

(2) "Detains" means taking or retaining physical custody of a child, whether or not the child resists or objects.

(3) "Lawful custodian" means a person or persons granted legal custody of a child or entitled to physical possession of a child pursuant to a court order. It is presumed that, when the parties have never been married to each other, the mother has legal custody of the child unless a valid court order states otherwise. If an adjudication of paternity has been completed and the father has been assigned support obligations or visitation rights, such a paternity order should, for the purposes of this Section, be considered a valid court order granting custody to the mother.

(4) "Putative father" means a man who has a reasonable belief that he is the father of a child born of a woman who is not his wife.

(b) A person commits the offense of child abduction when he or she does any one of the following:

(1) Intentionally violates any terms of a valid court order granting sole or joint custody, care, or possession to another by concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(2) Intentionally violates a court order prohibiting the person from concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(3) Intentionally conceals, detains, or removes the child without the consent of the mother or lawful custodian of the child if the person is a putative father and either: (A) the paternity of the child has not been legally established or (B) the paternity of the child has been legally established but no orders relating to custody have been entered. Notwithstanding the presumption created by paragraph (3) of subsection (a), however, a mother commits child abduction when she intentionally conceals or removes a child, whom she has abandoned or relinquished custody of, from an unadjudicated father who has provided sole ongoing care and custody of the child in her absence.

(4) Intentionally conceals or removes the child from a parent after filing a petition or being served with process in an action affecting marriage or paternity but prior to the issuance of a temporary or final order determining custody.

(5) At the expiration of visitation rights outside the State, intentionally fails or refuses to return or impedes the return of the child to the lawful custodian in Illinois.

(6) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of that child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals the child for 15 days, and fails to make reasonable attempts within the 15-day period to notify the other parent as to the specific whereabouts of the child, including a means by which to contact the child, or to arrange reasonable visitation or contact with the child. It is not a violation of this Section for a person fleeing domestic violence to take the child with him or her to housing provided by a domestic violence program.

(7) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of the child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child with physical force or threat of physical force.

(8) Knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child for payment or promise of payment at the instruction of a person who has no legal right to custody.

(9) Knowingly retains in this State for 30 days a child removed from another state without the consent of the lawful custodian or in violation of a valid court order of custody.

(10) Intentionally lures or attempts to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian for other than a lawful purpose. For the purposes of this item (10), the luring or attempted luring of a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian is prima facie evidence of other than a lawful purpose.

(11) With the intent to obstruct or prevent efforts to locate the child victim of a child abduction, knowingly destroys, alters, conceals, or disguises physical evidence or furnishes false information.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section that:

(1) the person had custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights that existed at the time of the alleged violation;

(2) the person had physical custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights and failed to return the child as a result of circumstances beyond his or her control, and the person notified and disclosed to the other parent or legal custodian the specific whereabouts of the child and a means by which the child could be contacted or made a reasonable attempt to notify the other parent or lawful custodian of the child of those circumstances and made the disclosure within 24 hours after the visitation period had expired and returned the child as soon as possible;

(3) the person was fleeing an incidence or pattern of domestic violence; or

(4) the person lured or attempted to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place for a lawful purpose in prosecutions under paragraph (10) of subsection (b).

(d) A person convicted of child abduction under this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony. It is a factor in aggravation under subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section for which a court may impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if, upon sentencing, the court finds evidence of any of the following aggravating factors:

(1) that the defendant abused or neglected the child following the concealment, detention, or removal of the child;

(2) that the defendant inflicted or threatened to inflict physical harm on a parent or lawful custodian of the child or on the child with intent to cause that parent or lawful custodian to discontinue criminal prosecution of the defendant under this Section;

(3) that the defendant demanded payment in exchange for return of the child or demanded that he or she be relieved of the financial or legal obligation to support the child in exchange for return of the child;

(4) that the defendant has previously been convicted of child abduction;

(5) that the defendant committed the abduction while armed with a deadly weapon or the taking of the child resulted in serious bodily injury to another; or

(6) that the defendant committed the abduction while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; in a playground; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school or playground. For purposes of this paragraph (6), "playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation; and "school" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(e) The court may order the child to be returned to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed. In addition to any sentence imposed, the court may assess any reasonable expense incurred in searching for or returning the child against any person convicted of violating this Section.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to limit the court's contempt power.

(g) Every law enforcement officer investigating an alleged incident of child abduction shall make a written police report of any bona fide allegation and the disposition of that investigation. Every police report completed pursuant to this Section shall be compiled and recorded within the meaning of Section 5.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(h) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reasons to believe a child abduction has occurred, she or he shall provide the lawful custodian a summary of her or his rights under this Code, including the procedures and relief available to her or him.

(i) If during the course of an investigation under this Section the child is found in the physical custody of the defendant or another, the law enforcement officer shall return the child to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed, unless there is good cause for the law enforcement officer or the Department of Children and Family Services to retain temporary protective custody of the child pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-5.5)

Sec. 10-5.5. Unlawful visitation or parenting time interference.

(a) As used in this Section, the terms "child", "detain", and "lawful custodian" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10-5 of this Code.

(b) Every person who, in violation of the visitation, parenting time, or custody time provisions of a court order relating to child custody, detains or conceals a child with the intent to deprive another person of his or her rights to visitation, parenting time, or custody time commits the offense of unlawful visitation or parenting time interference.

(c) A person committing unlawful visitation or parenting time interference is guilty of a petty offense. Any person violating this Section after 2 prior convictions of unlawful visitation interference or unlawful visitation or parenting time interference, however, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) Any law enforcement officer who has probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing an act in violation of this Section shall issue to that person a notice to appear.

(e) The notice shall:

(1) be in writing;

(2) state the name of the person and his or her address, if known;

(3) set forth the nature of the offense;

(4) be signed by the officer issuing the notice; and

(5) request the person to appear before a court at a certain time and place.

(f) Upon failure of the person to appear, a summons or warrant of arrest may be issued.

(g) It is an affirmative defense that:

(1) a person or lawful custodian committed the act to protect the child from imminent physical harm, provided that the defendant's belief that there was physical harm imminent was reasonable and that the defendant's conduct in withholding visitation rights, parenting time, or custody time was a reasonable response to the harm believed imminent;

(2) the act was committed with the mutual consent of all parties having a right to custody and visitation of the child or parenting time with the child; or

(3) the act was otherwise authorized by law. or parenting time, parenting time, or custody time

(Source: P.A. 96-333, eff. 8-11-09; 96-675, eff. 8-25-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-9)

Sec. 10-9. Trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, and related offenses.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Intimidation" has the meaning prescribed in Section 12-6.

(2) "Commercial sexual activity" means any sex act on account of which anything of value is given, promised to, or received by any person.

(3) "Financial harm" includes intimidation that brings about financial loss, criminal usury, or employment contracts that violate the Frauds Act.

(4) "Forced labor or services" means labor or services that are performed or provided by another person and are obtained or maintained through:

(A) any scheme, plan, or pattern intending to cause or threatening to cause serious harm to any person;

(B) an actor's physically restraining or threatening to physically restrain another person;

(C) an actor's abusing or threatening to abuse the law or legal process;

(D) an actor's knowingly destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, or possessing any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of another person;

(E) an actor's blackmail; or

(F) an actor's causing or threatening to cause financial harm to or exerting financial control over any person.

(5) "Labor" means work of economic or financial value.

(6) "Maintain" means, in relation to labor or services, to secure continued performance thereof, regardless of any initial agreement on the part of the victim to perform that type of service.

(7) "Obtain" means, in relation to labor or services, to secure performance thereof.

(8) "Services" means activities resulting from a relationship between a person and the actor in which the person performs activities under the supervision of or for the benefit of the actor. Commercial sexual activity and sexually-explicit performances are forms of activities that are "services" under this Section. Nothing in this definition may be construed to legitimize or legalize prostitution.

(9) "Sexually-explicit performance" means a live, recorded, broadcast (including over the Internet), or public act or show intended to arouse or satisfy the sexual desires or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons.

(10) "Trafficking victim" means a person subjected to the practices set forth in subsection (b), (c), or (d).

(b) Involuntary servitude. A person commits the offense of involuntary servitude when he or she knowingly subjects, attempts to subject, or engages in a conspiracy to subject another person to forced labor or services and:

(1) causes or threatens to cause physical harm to any person;

(2) physically restrains or threatens to physically restrain another person;

(3) abuses or threatens to abuse the law or legal process;

(4) knowingly destroys, conceals, removes, confiscates, or possesses any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of another person; or

(5) uses intimidation, or uses or threatens to cause financial harm to or exerts financial control over any person.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of subsection (b)(1) is a Class X felony, (b)(2) is a Class 1 felony, (b)(3) is a Class 2 felony, (b)(4) is a Class 3 felony, and (b)(5) is a Class 4 felony.

(c) Involuntary sexual servitude of a minor. A person commits the offense of involuntary sexual servitude of a minor when he or she knowingly recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, provide, or obtain by any means, another person under 18 years of age, knowing that the minor will engage in commercial sexual activity, a sexually-explicit performance, or the production of pornography, or causes or attempts to cause a minor to engage in one or more of those activities and:

(1) there is no overt force or threat and the minor is between the ages of 17 and 18 years;

(2) there is no overt force or threat and the minor is under the age of 17 years; or

(3) there is overt force or threat.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of subsection (c)(1) is a Class 1 felony, (c)(2) is a Class X felony, and (c)(3) is a Class X felony.

(d) Trafficking in persons for forced labor or services. A person commits the offense of trafficking in persons for forced labor or services when he or she knowingly: (1) recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, transport, provide, or obtain by any means, another person, intending or knowing that the person will be subjected to forced labor or services; or (2) benefits, financially or by receiving anything of value, from participation in a venture that has engaged in an act of involuntary servitude or involuntary sexual servitude of a minor.

Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or (f), a violation of this subsection is a Class 1 felony.

(e) Aggravating factors. A violation of this Section involving kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated criminal sexual assault or an attempt to commit aggravated criminal sexual assault, or an attempt to commit first degree murder is a Class X felony.

(f) Sentencing considerations.

(1) Bodily injury. If, pursuant to a violation of this Section, a victim suffered bodily injury, the defendant may be sentenced to an extended-term sentence under Section 5-8-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The sentencing court must take into account the time in which the victim was held in servitude, with increased penalties for cases in which the victim was held for between 180 days and one year, and increased penalties for cases in which the victim was held for more than one year.

(2) Number of victims. In determining sentences within statutory maximums, the sentencing court should take into account the number of victims, and may provide for substantially increased sentences in cases involving more than 10 victims.

(g) Restitution. Restitution is mandatory under this Section. In addition to any other amount of loss identified, the court shall order restitution including the greater of (1) the gross income or value to the defendant of the victim's labor or services or (2) the value of the victim's labor as guaranteed under the Minimum Wage Law and overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) or the Minimum Wage Law, whichever is greater.

(h) Trafficking victim services. Subject to the availability of funds, the Department of Human Services may provide or fund emergency services and assistance to individuals who are victims of one or more offenses defined in this Section.

(i) Certification. The Attorney General, a State's Attorney, or any law enforcement official shall certify in writing to the United States Department of Justice or other federal agency, such as the United States Department of Homeland Security, that an investigation or prosecution under this Section has begun and the individual who is a likely victim of a crime described in this Section is willing to cooperate or is cooperating with the investigation to enable the individual, if eligible under federal law, to qualify for an appropriate special immigrant visa and to access available federal benefits. Cooperation with law enforcement shall not be required of victims of a crime described in this Section who are under 18 years of age. This certification shall be made available to the victim and his or her designated legal representative.

(j) A person who commits the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. shall forfeit to the State of Illinois any profits or proceeds and any interest or property he or she has acquired or maintained in violation of subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing, to have been acquired or maintained as a result of maintaining a person in involuntary servitude or participating in trafficking in persons for forced labor or services.

Upon petition by the Attorney General or State's Attorney at any time following sentencing, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether any property or property interest is subject to forfeiture under this Section. At the forfeiture hearing the People have the burden of establishing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that property or property interests are subject to forfeiture under this Section.

In any action brought by the People of the State of Illinois under this Section, in which a restraining order, injunction, or prohibition or any other action in connection with any property or interest subject to forfeiture under this Section is sought, the circuit court presiding over the trial of the person or persons charged with involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services shall first determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the person or persons so charged have committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services and whether the property or interest is subject to forfeiture under this Section. In order to make that determination, prior to entering any such order, the court shall conduct a hearing without a jury, in which the People shall establish that there is: (i) probable cause that the person or persons so charged have committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services and (ii) probable cause that any property or interest may be subject to forfeiture under this Section. The hearing may be conducted simultaneously with a preliminary hearing, if the prosecution is commenced by information or complaint, or by motion of the People, at any stage in the proceedings. The court may accept a finding of probable cause at a preliminary hearing following the filing of an information charging the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services or the return of an indictment by a grand jury charging the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services as sufficient evidence of probable cause as provided in item (i) of this paragraph. Upon a finding, the circuit court shall enter the restraining order, injunction, or prohibition, or shall take such other action in connection with any such property or other interest subject to forfeiture, as is necessary to ensure that the property is not removed from the jurisdiction of the court, concealed, destroyed, or otherwise disposed of by the owner of that property or interest prior to a forfeiture hearing under this Section. The Attorney General or State's Attorney shall file a certified copy of the restraining order, injunction, or other prohibition with the recorder or registrar of titles of each county where any such property of the defendant may be located. No such injunction, restraining order, or other prohibition shall affect the rights of any bona fide purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lien holder arising prior to the date of that filing. At any time, upon verified petition by the defendant or an innocent owner or innocent bona fide third party lien holder who neither had knowledge of, nor consented to, the illegal act or omission, the court may conduct a hearing to release all or portions of any such property or interest that the court previously determined to be subject to forfeiture or subject to any restraining order, injunction, or prohibition or other action. The court may release that property to the defendant or innocent owner or innocent bona fide third party lien holder who neither had knowledge of nor consented to the illegal act or omission for good cause shown and within the sound discretion of the court.

Upon conviction of a person of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services, the court shall authorize the Attorney General to seize all property or other interest declared forfeited under this Section upon terms and conditions the court deems proper.

All moneys forfeited and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Section shall be distributed as follows:

(1) one-half shall be divided equally between all State agencies and units of local government whose officers or employees conducted the investigation that resulted in the forfeiture; and

(2) one-half shall be deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund and targeted to services for victims of the offenses of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, and trafficking in persons for forced labor or services.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; incorporates 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-8-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.4)

Sec. 11-9.4. Approaching, contacting, residing, or communicating with a child within certain places by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building or on real property comprising any public park when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, day care home, group day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a playground or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child care institution, day care center, or part day child care facility if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a day care home or group day care home if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-821).

(b-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the victim of the sex offense. Nothing in this subsection (b-6) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of the victim if the property in which the child sex offender resides is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

This subsection (b-6) does not apply if the victim of the sex offense is 21 years of age or older.

(b-7) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly communicate, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law, using the Internet or any other digital media, with a person under 18 years of age or with a person whom he or she believes to be a person under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age.

(c) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, volunteer at, be associated with, or knowingly be present at any: (i) facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18; (ii) day care center; (iii) part day child care facility; (iv) child care institution; (v) school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age; (vi) day care home; or (vii) group day care home. This does not prohibit a child sex offender from owning the real property upon which the programs or services are offered or upon which the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age is located, provided the child sex offender refrains from being present on the premises for the hours during which: (1) the programs or services are being offered or (2) the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age, day care home, or group day care home is operated.

(c-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, or be associated with any county fair when persons under the age of 18 are present.

(c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to knowingly rent any residential unit within the same building in which he or she resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-820).

(c-7) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly offer or provide any programs or services to persons under 18 years of age in his or her residence or the residence of another or in any facility for the purpose of offering or providing such programs or services, whether such programs or services are offered or provided by contract, agreement, arrangement, or on a volunteer basis.

(c-8) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, whether authorized to do so or not, any of the following vehicles: (1) a vehicle which is specifically designed, constructed or modified and equipped to be used for the retail sale of food or beverages, including but not limited to an ice cream truck; (2) an authorized emergency vehicle; or (3) a rescue vehicle.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9 (public indecency when committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, on a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) of this subsection (d).

(2.5) For the purposes of subsection (b-5) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Section. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "Public park" includes a park, forest preserve, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

(5) "Facility providing programs or services directed towards persons under the age of 18" means any facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18.

(6) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(7) "Playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation.

(8) "Child care institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(9) "Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(10) "Part day child care facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.10 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(11) "Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(12) "Group day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(13) "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

(14) "Authorized emergency vehicle", "rescue vehicle", and "vehicle" have the meanings ascribed to them in Sections 1-105, 1-171.8 and 1-217, respectively, of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(d-5) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park, playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age, or a victim of the sex offense who is under 21 years of age to the edge of the child sex offender's place of residence or where he or she is loitering.

(e) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-32, eff. 1-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-819, eff. 1-1-09; 95-820, eff. 1-1-09; 95-821, eff. 8-14-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-118, eff. 8-4-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20.1)

Sec. 11-20.1. Child pornography.

(a) A person commits the offense of child pornography who:

(1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or any severely or profoundly mentally retarded person where such child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person is:

(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person; or

(2) with the knowledge of the nature or content thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate, exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or to be a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film, videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by computer which includes a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child whom he knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person to appear in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other person having care or custody of a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges for such child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person to appear in any stage play, live performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof, possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or to be a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(7) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a person to provide a child under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person to appear in any videotape, photograph, film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(b) (1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he took some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to ascertain whether the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person and his reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly reasonable.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The charge of child pornography shall not apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional education programs conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social workers.

(4) Possession by the defendant of more than one of the same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted shall raise a rebuttable presumption that the defendant possessed such materials with the intent to disseminate them.

(5) The charge of child pornography does not apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.

(6) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall be deemed a crime of violence.

(c) Violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the court whether treatment of the person is necessary.

(e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly mentally retarded person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) or paragraph 1 of subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft.

In addition, any person convicted under this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may object to the motion.

(f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute, exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of any telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer.

(2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise, publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.

(3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.

(4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create, or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.

(7) "Child" includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is, or appears to be, that of a person, either in part, or in total, under the age of 18, regardless of the method by which the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified to appear as such. "Child" also includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is advertised, promoted, presented, described, or distributed in such a manner that conveys the impression that the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is of a person under the age of 18.

(8) "Sexual penetration" and "sexual conduct" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of this Code.

(g) Re-enactment; findings; purposes.

(1) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(i) Section 50-5 of Public Act 88-680, effective January 1, 1995, contained provisions amending the child pornography statute, Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961. Section 50-5 also contained other provisions.

(ii) In addition, Public Act 88-680 was entitled "AN ACT to create a Safe Neighborhoods Law". (A) Article 5 was entitled JUVENILE JUSTICE and amended the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. (B) Article 15 was entitled GANGS and amended various provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Unified Code of Corrections. (C) Article 20 was entitled ALCOHOL ABUSE and amended various provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code. (D) Article 25 was entitled DRUG ABUSE and amended the Cannabis Control Act and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. (E) Article 30 was entitled FIREARMS and amended the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. (F) Article 35 amended the Criminal Code of 1961, the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections. (G) Article 40 amended the Criminal Code of 1961 to increase the penalty for compelling organization membership of persons. (H) Article 45 created the Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act and amended the State Finance Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Unified Code of Corrections, and the Private Correctional Facility Moratorium Act. (I) Article 50 amended the WIC Vendor Management Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Criminal Code of 1961, the Wrongs to Children Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections.

(iii) On September 22, 1998, the Third District Appellate Court in People v. Dainty, 701 N.E. 2d 118, ruled that Public Act 88-680 violates the single subject clause of the Illinois Constitution (Article IV, Section 8 (d)) and was unconstitutional in its entirety. As of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was still subject to appeal.

(iv) Child pornography is a vital concern to the people of this State and the validity of future prosecutions under the child pornography statute of the Criminal Code of 1961 is in grave doubt.

(2) It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1999 to prevent or minimize any problems relating to prosecutions for child pornography that may result from challenges to the constitutional validity of Public Act 88-680 by re-enacting the Section relating to child pornography that was included in Public Act 88-680.

(3) This amendatory Act of 1999 re-enacts Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as it has been amended. This re-enactment is intended to remove any question as to the validity or content of that Section; it is not intended to supersede any other Public Act that amends the text of the Section as set forth in this amendatory Act of 1999. The material is shown as existing text (i.e., without underscoring) because, as of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was subject to appeal to the Illinois Supreme Court.

(4) The re-enactment by this amendatory Act of 1999 of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to child pornography that was amended by Public Act 88-680 is not intended, and shall not be construed, to imply that Public Act 88-680 is invalid or to limit or impair any legal argument concerning whether those provisions were substantially re-enacted by other Public Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-20.3)

Sec. 11-20.3. Aggravated child pornography.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated child pornography who:

(1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 years where such child is:

(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person; or

(2) with the knowledge of the nature or content thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate, exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film, videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by computer which includes a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 to appear in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly mentally retarded person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other person having care or custody of a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges for such child to appear in any stage play, live performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof, possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(7) solicits, or knowingly uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a person to provide a child under the age of 13 to appear in any videotape, photograph, film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(b)(1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of aggravated child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 13 years of age or older, but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he or she took some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to ascertain whether the child was 13 years of age or older and his or her reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly reasonable.

(2) The charge of aggravated child pornography shall not apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional education programs conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social workers.

(3) If the defendant possessed more than 3 of the same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which aggravated child pornography is depicted, then the trier of fact may infer that the defendant possessed such materials with the intent to disseminate them.

(4) The charge of aggravated child pornography does not apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which aggravated child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.

(5) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall be deemed a crime of violence.

(c) Sentence: (1) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(2) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(3) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(4) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the court whether treatment of the person is necessary.

(e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft.

In addition, any person convicted under this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may object to the motion.

(f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute, exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of any telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer.

(2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise, publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.

(3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.

(4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create, or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.

(7) For the purposes of this Section, "child" means a person, either in part or in total, under the age of 13, regardless of the method by which the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified to appear as such.

(8) "Sexual penetration" and "sexual conduct" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of this Code.

(g) When a charge of aggravated child pornography is brought, the age of the child is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the age in question. The trier of fact can rely on its own everyday observations and common experiences in making this determination.

(Source: P.A. 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) A person commits an aggravated assault, when, in committing an assault, he:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in the Air Rifle Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm in the direction of another person, a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional officer, a private security officer, or a fireman or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by another person, a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional officer, a private security officer, or a fireman while the officer or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer or fireman performing his official duties;

(2) Is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm;

(3) Knows the individual assaulted to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and such teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(4) Knows the individual assaulted to be a supervisor, director, instructor or other person employed in any park district and such supervisor, director, instructor or other employee is upon the grounds of the park or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for park purposes;

(5) Knows the individual assaulted to be a caseworker, investigator, or other person employed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly State Department of Public Aid), a County Department of Public Aid, or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) and such caseworker, investigator, or other person is upon the grounds of a public aid office or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for public aid purposes, or upon the grounds of a home of a public aid applicant, recipient or any other person being interviewed or investigated in the employee's employees' discharge of his duties, or on grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building in which the applicant, recipient, or other such person resides or is located;

(6) Knows the individual assaulted to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a private security officer, or a fireman while the officer or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer, community policing volunteer, or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, community policing volunteer, or fireman performing his official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the officer or fireman or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the officer or fireman;

(7) Knows the individual assaulted to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid personnel engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his official duties;

(8) Knows the individual assaulted to be the driver, operator, employee or passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transportation of the public for hire and the individual assaulted is then performing in such capacity or then using such public transportation as a passenger or using any area of any description designated by the transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location;

(9) Or the individual assaulted is on or about a public way, public property, or public place of accommodation or amusement;

(9.5) Is, or the individual assaulted is, in or about a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park during any 24-hour period when a professional sporting event, National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)-sanctioned sporting event, United States Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event, or International Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event is taking place in this venue;

(10) Knows the individual assaulted to be an employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein or a political subdivision thereof, engaged in the performance of his authorized duties as such employee;

(11) Knowingly and without legal justification, commits an assault on a physically handicapped person;

(12) Knowingly and without legal justification, commits an assault on a person 60 years of age or older;

(13) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor vehicle;

(13.5) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle;

(14) Knows the individual assaulted to be a correctional officer, while the officer is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer performing his or her official duties;

(15) Knows the individual assaulted to be a correctional employee or an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, while the employee is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his or her official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the employee or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the employee;

(16) Knows the individual assaulted to be an employee of a police or sheriff's department, or a person who is employed by a municipality and whose duties include traffic control, engaged in the performance of his or her official duties as such employee;

(17) Knows the individual assaulted to be a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing the assault to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or an indoor or outdoor playing field or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility or an indoor or outdoor playing field at which the sports official or coach was an active participant in the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (17), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the athletic contest;

(18) Knows the individual assaulted to be an emergency management worker, while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties, and the assault is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm in the direction of the emergency management worker or in the direction of a vehicle occupied by the emergency management worker; or

(19) Knows the individual assaulted to be a utility worker, while the utility worker is engaged in the execution of his or her duties, or to prevent the utility worker from performing his or her duties, or in retaliation for the utility worker performing his or her duties. In this paragraph (19), "utility worker" means a person employed by a public utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act and also includes an employee of a municipally owned utility, an employee of a cable television company, an employee of an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act, an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a cable television company, public utility, municipally owned utility, or an electric cooperative, or an employee of a telecommunications carrier as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telecommunications carrier, or an employee of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative.

(a-5) A person commits an aggravated assault when he or she knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device that is attached or affixed to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(b) Sentence.

Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (1) through (5) and (8) through (12) and (17) and (19) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (13), (14), and (15) of subsection (a) of this Section and as defined in subsection (a-5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), (16), and (18) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor if a firearm is not used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), (16), and (18) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if a firearm is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in paragraph (13.5) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony.

(c) For the purposes of paragraphs (1) and (6) of subsection (a), "private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 95-236, eff. 1-1-08; 95-292, eff. 8-20-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-429, eff. 1-1-08; 95-591, eff. 9-10-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-201, eff. 8-10-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.3)

Sec. 12-3.3. Aggravated domestic battery.

(a) A person who, in committing a domestic battery, intentionally or knowingly causes great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement commits aggravated domestic battery.

(a-5) A person who, in committing a domestic battery, strangles another individual commits aggravated domestic battery. For the purposes of this subsection (a-5), "strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated domestic battery is a Class 2 felony. Any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction for an offense under this Section must include, in addition to any other condition of probation or conditional discharge, a condition that the offender serve a mandatory term of imprisonment of not less than 60 consecutive days. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section must be sentenced to a mandatory term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years or an extended term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years and not more than 14 years.

(c) Upon conviction of aggravated domestic battery, the court shall advise the defendant orally or in writing, substantially as follows: "An individual convicted of aggravated domestic battery may be subject to federal criminal penalties for possessing, transporting, shipping, or receiving any firearm or ammunition in violation of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) and (9))." A notation shall be made in the court file that the admonition was given.

(Source: P.A. 96-287, eff. 8-11-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-4. Aggravated Battery.

(a) A person who, in committing a battery, intentionally or knowingly causes great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement commits aggravated battery.

(b) In committing a battery, a person commits aggravated battery if he or she:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by the discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in the Air Rifle Act;

(2) Is hooded, robed or masked, in such manner as to conceal his identity;

(3) Knows the individual harmed to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and such teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent thereto, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(4) (Blank);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Knows the individual harmed to be a community policing volunteer while such volunteer is engaged in the execution of any official duties, or to prevent the volunteer from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the volunteer performing official duties, and the battery is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm;

(7) Knows the individual harmed to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance, first aid personnel, or hospital personnel engaged in the performance of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance, first aid personnel, or hospital personnel from performing official duties, or in retaliation for performing official duties;

(8) Is, or the person battered is, on or about a public way, public property or public place of accommodation or amusement;

(8.5) Is, or the person battered is, on a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park during any 24-hour period when a professional sporting event, National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)-sanctioned sporting event, United States Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event, or International Olympic Committee-sanctioned sporting event is taking place in this venue;

(9) Knows the individual harmed to be the driver, operator, employee or passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transportation of the public for hire and the individual assaulted is then performing in such capacity or then using such public transportation as a passenger or using any area of any description designated by the transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location;

(10) Knows the individual harmed to be an individual of 60 years of age or older;

(11) Knows the individual harmed is pregnant;

(12) Knows the individual harmed to be a judge whom the person intended to harm as a result of the judge's performance of his or her official duties as a judge;

(13) (Blank);

(14) Knows the individual harmed to be a person who is physically handicapped;

(15) Knowingly and without legal justification and by any means causes bodily harm to a merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16A-5 of this Code. In this item (15), "merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16A-2.4 of this Code;

(16) Is, or the person battered is, in any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or the person battered is within 500 feet of such a building or other structure while going to or from such a building or other structure. "Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. "Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act;

(17) (Blank);

(18) Knows the individual harmed to be an officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or school district engaged in the performance of his or her authorized duties as such officer or employee;

(19) Knows the individual harmed to be an emergency management worker engaged in the performance of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing official duties;

(20) Knows the individual harmed to be a private security officer engaged in the performance of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the private security officer from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the private security officer performing official duties; or

(21) Knows the individual harmed to be a taxi driver and the battery is committed while the taxi driver is on duty; or

(22) Knows the individual harmed to be a utility worker, while the utility worker is engaged in the execution of his or her duties, or to prevent the utility worker from performing his or her duties, or in retaliation for the utility worker performing his or her duties. In this paragraph (22), "utility worker" means a person employed by a public utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act and also includes an employee of a municipally owned utility, an employee of a cable television company, an employee of an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act, an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a cable television company, public utility, municipally owned utility, or an electric cooperative, or an employee of a telecommunications carrier as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telecommunications carrier, or an employee of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative.

For the purpose of paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of this Section, a physically handicapped person is a person who suffers from a permanent and disabling physical characteristic, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition.

For the purpose of paragraph (20) of subsection (b) and subsection (e) of this Section, "private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(c) A person who administers to an individual or causes him to take, without his consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance commits aggravated battery.

(d) A person who knowingly gives to another person any food that contains any substance or object that is intended to cause physical injury if eaten, commits aggravated battery.

(d-3) A person commits aggravated battery when he or she knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device that is attached or affixed to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(d-5) An inmate of a penal institution or a sexually dangerous person or a sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services who causes or attempts to cause a correctional employee of the penal institution or an employee of the Department of Human Services to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces, by throwing, tossing, or expelling that fluid or material commits aggravated battery. For purposes of this subsection (d-5), "correctional employee" means a person who is employed by a penal institution.

(d-6) A person commits aggravated battery when he or she, in committing a battery, strangles another individual. For the purposes of this subsection (d-6), "strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(e) Sentence.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), and (5) aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Aggravated battery that does not cause great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement is a Class 2 felony when the person knows the individual harmed to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a private security officer, a correctional institution employee, an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, or a fireman while such officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman is engaged in the execution of any official duties including arrest or attempted arrest, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman performing official duties, and the battery is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm.

(3) Aggravated battery that causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement in violation of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony when the person knows the individual harmed to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a private security officer, a correctional institution employee, an employee of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons, or a fireman while such officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman is engaged in the execution of any official duties including arrest or attempted arrest, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman from performing official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee, or fireman performing official duties, and the battery is committed other than by the discharge of a firearm.

(4) Aggravated battery under subsection (d-5) is a Class 2 felony.

(5) Aggravated battery under subsection (d-6) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subsection (d-6) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subsection (d-6) of any other state.

(6) (5) For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "firearm" shall have the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearms Owners Identification Card Act, and shall not include an air rifle as defined by Section 1 of the Air Rifle Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-236, eff. 1-1-08; 95-256, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-429, eff. 1-1-08; 95-748, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-201, eff. 8-10-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.5)

Sec. 12-7.5. Cyberstalking.

(a) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she engages in a course of conduct using electronic communication directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that would cause a reasonable person to:

(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.

(a-3) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions, harasses another person through the use of electronic communication and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(3) at any time knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, creates and maintains an Internet website or webpage which is accessible to one or more third parties for a period of at least 24 hours, and which contains statements harassing another person and:

(1) which communicates a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, where the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person, or

(2) which places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, or

(3) which knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(b) Sentence. Cyberstalking is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent conviction for cyberstalking is a Class 3 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. The incarceration in a penal institution of a person who commits the course of conduct is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Harass" means to engage in a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that alarms, torments, or terrorizes that person.

(5) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(6) "Reasonable person" means a person in the victim's circumstances, with the victim's knowledge of the defendant and the defendant's prior acts.

(7) "Third party" means any person other than the person violating these provisions and the person or persons towards whom the violator's actions are directed.

(d) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-849, eff. 1-1-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-20-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/14-3)

Sec. 14-3. Exemptions. The following activities shall be exempt from the provisions of this Article:

(a) Listening to radio, wireless and television communications of any sort where the same are publicly made;

(b) Hearing conversation when heard by employees of any common carrier by wire incidental to the normal course of their employment in the operation, maintenance or repair of the equipment of such common carrier by wire so long as no information obtained thereby is used or divulged by the hearer;

(c) Any broadcast by radio, television or otherwise whether it be a broadcast or recorded for the purpose of later broadcasts of any function where the public is in attendance and the conversations are overheard incidental to the main purpose for which such broadcasts are then being made;

(d) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to any emergency communication made in the normal course of operations by any federal, state or local law enforcement agency or institutions dealing in emergency services, including, but not limited to, hospitals, clinics, ambulance services, fire fighting agencies, any public utility, emergency repair facility, civilian defense establishment or military installation;

(e) Recording the proceedings of any meeting required to be open by the Open Meetings Act, as amended;

(f) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or advertised as consumer "hotlines" by manufacturers or retailers of food and drug products. Such recordings must be destroyed, erased or turned over to local law enforcement authorities within 24 hours from the time of such recording and shall not be otherwise disseminated. Failure on the part of the individual or business operating any such recording or listening device to comply with the requirements of this subsection shall eliminate any civil or criminal immunity conferred upon that individual or business by the operation of this Section;

(g) With prior notification to the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded under circumstances where the use of the device is necessary for the protection of the law enforcement officer or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, in the course of an investigation of a forcible felony, a felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, a felony violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any "streetgang related" or "gang-related" felony as those terms are defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, or any felony offense involving any weapon listed in paragraphs (1) through (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code. Any recording or evidence derived as the result of this exemption shall be inadmissible in any proceeding, criminal, civil or administrative, except (i) where a party to the conversation suffers great bodily injury or is killed during such conversation, or (ii) when used as direct impeachment of a witness concerning matters contained in the interception or recording. The Director of the Department of State Police shall issue regulations as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use;

(g-5) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of any offense defined in Article 29D of this Code. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding their use.

Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of any offense defined in Article 29D of this Code shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any violation of Article 29D, be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case.

This subsection (g-5) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005. No conversations recorded or monitored pursuant to this subsection (g-5) shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of the repeal of this subsection (g-5) on January 1, 2005;

(g-6) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented to it being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, child abduction, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or aggravated criminal sexual assault in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age. In all such cases, an application for an order approving the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their use. Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, child abduction, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or aggravated criminal sexual assault in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age shall, upon motion of the State's Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any case involving child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, child abduction, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or aggravated criminal sexual assault in which the victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal case. Absent such a ruling, any such recording or evidence shall not be admissible at the trial of the criminal case;

(h) Recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera recording of an oral conversation between a uniformed peace officer, who has identified his or her office, and a person in the presence of the peace officer whenever (i) an officer assigned a patrol vehicle is conducting an enforcement stop; or (ii) patrol vehicle emergency lights are activated or would otherwise be activated if not for the need to conceal the presence of law enforcement.

For the purposes of this subsection (h), "enforcement stop" means an action by a law enforcement officer in relation to enforcement and investigation duties, including but not limited to, traffic stops, pedestrian stops, abandoned vehicle contacts, motorist assists, commercial motor vehicle stops, roadside safety checks, requests for identification, or responses to requests for emergency assistance;

(h-5) Recordings of utterances made by a person while in the presence of a uniformed peace officer and while an occupant of a police vehicle including, but not limited to, (i) recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video camera and (ii) recordings made in the presence of the peace officer utilizing video or audio systems, or both, authorized by the law enforcement agency;

(h-10) Recordings made simultaneously with a video camera recording during the use of a taser or similar weapon or device by a peace officer if the weapon or device is equipped with such camera;

(h-15) Recordings made under subsection (h), (h-5), or (h-10) shall be retained by the law enforcement agency that employs the peace officer who made the recordings for a storage period of 90 days, unless the recordings are made as a part of an arrest or the recordings are deemed evidence in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding and then the recordings must only be destroyed upon a final disposition and an order from the court. Under no circumstances shall any recording be altered or erased prior to the expiration of the designated storage period. Upon completion of the storage period, the recording medium may be erased and reissued for operational use;

(i) Recording of a conversation made by or at the request of a person, not a law enforcement officer or agent of a law enforcement officer, who is a party to the conversation, under reasonable suspicion that another party to the conversation is committing, is about to commit, or has committed a criminal offense against the person or a member of his or her immediate household, and there is reason to believe that evidence of the criminal offense may be obtained by the recording;

(j) The use of a telephone monitoring device by either (1) a corporation or other business entity engaged in marketing or opinion research or (2) a corporation or other business entity engaged in telephone solicitation, as defined in this subsection, to record or listen to oral telephone solicitation conversations or marketing or opinion research conversations by an employee of the corporation or other business entity when:

(i) the monitoring is used for the purpose of service quality control of marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, the education or training of employees or contractors engaged in marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, or internal research related to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; and

(ii) the monitoring is used with the consent of at least one person who is an active party to the marketing or opinion research conversation or telephone solicitation conversation being monitored.

No communication or conversation or any part, portion, or aspect of the communication or conversation made, acquired, or obtained, directly or indirectly, under this exemption (j), may be, directly or indirectly, furnished to any law enforcement officer, agency, or official for any purpose or used in any inquiry or investigation, or used, directly or indirectly, in any administrative, judicial, or other proceeding, or divulged to any third party.

When recording or listening authorized by this subsection (j) on telephone lines used for marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation purposes results in recording or listening to a conversation that does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation; the person recording or listening shall, immediately upon determining that the conversation does not relate to marketing or opinion research or telephone solicitation, terminate the recording or listening and destroy any such recording as soon as is practicable.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide current and prospective employees with notice that the monitoring or recordings may occur during the course of their employment. The notice shall include prominent signage notification within the workplace.

Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall provide their employees or agents with access to personal-only telephone lines which may be pay telephones, that are not subject to telephone monitoring or telephone recording.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "telephone solicitation" means a communication through the use of a telephone by live operators:

(i) soliciting the sale of goods or services;

(ii) receiving orders for the sale of goods or services;

(iii) assisting in the use of goods or services; or

(iv) engaging in the solicitation, administration, or collection of bank or retail credit accounts.

For the purposes of this subsection (j), "marketing or opinion research" means a marketing or opinion research interview conducted by a live telephone interviewer engaged by a corporation or other business entity whose principal business is the design, conduct, and analysis of polls and surveys measuring the opinions, attitudes, and responses of respondents toward products and services, or social or political issues, or both;

(k) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of a custodial interrogation of an individual at a police station or other place of detention by a law enforcement officer under Section 5-401.5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or Section 103-2.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(l) Recording the interview or statement of any person when the person knows that the interview is being conducted by a law enforcement officer or prosecutor and the interview takes place at a police station that is currently participating in the Custodial Interview Pilot Program established under the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act;

(m) An electronic recording, including but not limited to, a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio recording, made of the interior of a school bus while the school bus is being used in the transportation of students to and from school and school-sponsored activities, when the school board has adopted a policy authorizing such recording, notice of such recording policy is included in student handbooks and other documents including the policies of the school, notice of the policy regarding recording is provided to parents of students, and notice of such recording is clearly posted on the door of and inside the school bus.

Recordings made pursuant to this subsection (m) shall be confidential records and may only be used by school officials (or their designees) and law enforcement personnel for investigations, school disciplinary actions and hearings, proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and criminal prosecutions, related to incidents occurring in or around the school bus;

(n) Recording or listening to an audio transmission from a microphone placed by a person under the authority of a law enforcement agency inside a bait car surveillance vehicle while simultaneously capturing a photographic or video image; and

(o) The use of an eavesdropping camera or audio device during an ongoing hostage or barricade situation by a law enforcement officer or individual acting on behalf of a law enforcement officer when the use of such device is necessary to protect the safety of the general public, hostages, or law enforcement officers or anyone acting on their behalf.

(Source: P.A. 95-258, eff. 1-1-08; 95-352, eff. 8-23-07; 95-463, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-425, eff. 8-13-09; 96-547, eff. 1-1-10; 96-643, eff. 1-1-10; 96-670, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-9-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1)

Sec. 16-1. Theft.

(a) A person commits theft when he knowingly:

(1) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over property of the owner; or

(2) Obtains by deception control over property of the owner; or

(3) Obtains by threat control over property of the owner; or

(4) Obtains control over stolen property knowing the property to have been stolen or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him to believe that the property was stolen; or

(5) Obtains or exerts control over property in the custody of any law enforcement agency which is explicitly represented to him by any law enforcement officer or any individual acting in behalf of a law enforcement agency as being stolen, and

(A) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property; or

(B) Knowingly uses, conceals or abandons the property in such manner as to deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit; or

(C) Uses, conceals, or abandons the property knowing such use, concealment or abandonment probably will deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $300 in value is a Class A misdemeanor.

(1.1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(2) A person who has been convicted of theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $300 in value who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, forgery, a violation of Section 4-103, 4-103.1, 4-103.2, or 4-103.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code relating to the possession of a stolen or converted motor vehicle, or a violation of Section 8 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony. When a person has any such prior conviction, the information or indictment charging that person shall state such prior conviction so as to give notice of the State's intention to treat the charge as a felony. The fact of such prior conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $300 in value, or theft of property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 3 felony.

(4.1) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $300 in value, or theft of property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 2 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(5) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(5.1) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 and not exceeding $500,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(6.1) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6.2) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(6.3) Theft of property exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(7) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender obtained money or property valued at $5,000 or more from a victim 60 years of age or older is a Class 2 felony.

(8) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 3 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained does not exceed $300.

(9) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 2 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $300 and does not exceed $10,000.

(10) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 1 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $10,000 and does not exceed $100,000.

(11) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class X felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $100,000.

(c) When a charge of theft of property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(Source: P.A. 96-496, eff. 1-1-10; 96-534, eff. 8-14-09; revised 10-9-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/16D-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 16D-2)

Sec. 16D-2. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the context otherwise indicates:

(a) "Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

(a-5) "Computer network" means a set of related, remotely connected devices and any communications facilities including more than one computer with the capability to transmit data among them through the communications facilities.

(b) "Computer program" or "program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer which causes the computer to process data and supply the results of the data processing.

(b-5) "Computer services" means computer time or services, including data processing services, Internet services, electronic mail services, electronic message services, or information or data stored in connection therewith.

(c) "Data" means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts or instructions, including program documentation, which is prepared in a formalized manner and is stored or processed in or transmitted by a computer. Data shall be considered property and may be in any form including but not limited to printouts, magnetic or optical storage media, punch cards or data stored internally in the memory of the computer.

(c-5) "Electronic mail service provider" means any person who (1) is an intermediary in sending or receiving electronic mail and (2) provides to end-users of electronic mail services the ability to send or receive electronic mail.

(d) In addition to its meaning as defined in Section 15-1 of this Code, "property" means: (1) electronic impulses; (2) electronically produced data; (3) confidential, copyrighted, or proprietary information; (4) private identification codes or numbers which permit access to a computer by authorized computer users or generate billings to consumers for purchase of goods and services, including but not limited to credit card transactions and telecommunications services or permit electronic fund transfers; (5) software or programs in either machine or human readable form; or (6) any other tangible or intangible item relating to a computer or any part thereof.

(e) "Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of a computer.

(f) "Services" includes but is not limited to computer time, data manipulation, or storage functions.

(g) "Vital services or operations" means those services or operations required to provide, operate, maintain, and repair network cabling, transmission, distribution, or computer facilities necessary to ensure or protect the public health, safety, or welfare. Those services or operations Public health, safety, or welfare include, but are not limited to, services provided by medical personnel or institutions, fire departments, emergency services agencies, national defense contractors, armed forces or militia personnel, private and public utility companies, or law enforcement agencies.

(h) "Social networking website" means an Internet website containing profile web pages of the members of the website that include the names or nicknames of such members, photographs placed on the profile web pages by such members, or any other personal or personally identifying information about such members and links to other profile web pages on social networking websites of friends or associates of such members that can be accessed by other members or visitors to the website. A social networking website provides members of or visitors to such website the ability to leave messages or comments on the profile web page that are visible to all or some visitors to the profile web page and may also include a form of electronic mail for members of the social networking website.

(Source: P.A. 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/16D-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 16D-3)

Sec. 16D-3. Computer Tampering.

(a) A person commits the offense of computer tampering when he knowingly and without the authorization of a computer's owner, as defined in Section 15-2 of this Code, or in excess of the authority granted to him:

(1) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data;

(2) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data, and obtains data or services;

(3) Accesses or causes to be accessed a computer or any part thereof, a computer network, or a program or data, and damages or destroys the computer or alters, deletes or removes a computer program or data;

(4) Inserts or attempts to insert a "program" into a computer or computer program knowing or having reason to believe that such "program" contains information or commands that will or may damage or destroy that computer, or any other computer subsequently accessing or being accessed by that computer, or that will or may alter, delete or remove a computer program or data from that computer, or any other computer program or data in a computer subsequently accessing or being accessed by that computer, or that will or may cause loss to the users of that computer or the users of a computer which accesses or which is accessed by such "program"; or

(5) Falsifies or forges electronic mail transmission information or other routing information in any manner in connection with the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail through or into the computer network of an electronic mail service provider or its subscribers. ;

(a-5) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to sell, give, or otherwise distribute or possess with the intent to sell, give, or distribute software which (1) is primarily designed or produced for the purpose of facilitating or enabling the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information; (2) has only a limited commercially significant purpose or use other than to facilitate or enable the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information; or (3) is marketed by that person or another acting in concert with that person with that person's knowledge for use in facilitating or enabling the falsification of electronic mail transmission information or other routing information.

(a-10) For purposes of subsection (a), accessing a computer network is deemed to be with the authorization of a computer's owner if:

(1) the owner authorizes patrons, customers, or guests to access the computer network and the person accessing the computer network is an authorized patron, customer, or guest and complies with all terms or conditions for use of the computer network that are imposed by the owner; or

(2) the owner authorizes the public to access the computer network and the person accessing the computer network complies with all terms or conditions for use of the computer network that are imposed by the owner.

(b) Sentence.

(1) A person who commits the offense of computer tampering as set forth in subsection (a)(1), (a)(5), or (a-5) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(2) A person who commits the offense of computer tampering as set forth in subsection (a)(2) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and a Class 4 felony for the second or subsequent offense.

(3) A person who commits the offense of computer tampering as set forth in subsection (a)(3) or subsection (a)(4) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and a Class 3 felony for the second or subsequent offense.

(4) If the injury arises from the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail, the injured person, other than an electronic mail service provider, may also recover attorney's fees and costs, and may elect, in lieu of actual damages, to recover the lesser of $10 for each and every unsolicited bulk electronic mail message transmitted in violation of this Section, or $25,000 per day. The injured person shall not have a cause of action against the electronic mail service provider that merely transmits the unsolicited bulk electronic mail over its computer network.

(5) If the injury arises from the transmission of unsolicited bulk electronic mail, an injured electronic mail service provider may also recover attorney's fees and costs, and may elect, in lieu of actual damages, to recover the greater of $10 for each and every unsolicited electronic mail advertisement transmitted in violation of this Section, or $25,000 per day.

(6) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to limit any person's right to pursue any additional civil remedy otherwise allowed by law.

(c) Whoever suffers loss by reason of a violation of subsection (a)(4) of this Section may, in a civil action against the violator, obtain appropriate relief. In a civil action under this Section, the court may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and other litigation expenses.

(Source: P.A. 95-326, eff. 1-1-08; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-24)

Sec. 17-24. Fraudulent schemes and artifices.

(a) Fraud by wire, radio, or television.

(1) A person commits wire fraud when he or she:

(A) devises or intends to devise a scheme or artifice to defraud or to obtain money or property by means of false pretenses, representations, or promises; and

(B) (i) transmits or causes to be transmitted from within this State; or

(ii) transmits or causes to be transmitted so that it is received by a person within this State; or

(iii) transmits or causes to be transmitted so that it is reasonably foreseeable that it will be accessed by a person within this State:

any writings, signals, pictures, sounds, or electronic or electric impulses by means of wire, radio, or television communications for the purpose of executing the scheme or artifice.

(2) A scheme or artifice to defraud using electronic transmissions is deemed to occur in the county from which a transmission is sent, if the transmission is sent from within this State, the county in which a person within this State receives the transmission, and the county in which a person who is within this State is located when the person accesses a transmission.

(3) Wire fraud is a Class 3 felony.

(b) Mail fraud.

(1) A person commits mail fraud when he or she:

(A) devises or intends to devise any scheme or artifice to defraud or to obtain money or property by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations or promises, or to sell, dispose of, loan, exchange, alter, give away, distribute, supply, or furnish or procure for unlawful use any counterfeit obligation, security, or other article, or anything represented to be or intimated intimidated or held out to be such counterfeit or spurious article; and

(B) for the purpose of executing such scheme or artifice or attempting so to do, places in any post office or authorized depository for mail matter within this State, any matter or thing whatever to be delivered by the Postal Service, or deposits or causes to be deposited in this State by mail or by private or commercial carrier according to the direction on the matter or thing, or at the place at which it is directed to be delivered by the person to whom it is addressed, any such matter or thing.

(2) A scheme or artifice to defraud using a government or private carrier is deemed to occur in the county in which mail or other matter is deposited with the Postal Service or a private commercial carrier for delivery, if deposited with the Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier within this State and the county in which a person within this State receives the mail or other matter from the Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier.

(3) Mail fraud is a Class 3 felony.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The period of limitations for prosecution of any offense defined in this Section begins at the time when the last act in furtherance of the scheme or artifice is committed.

(e) In this Section:

(1) "Scheme or artifice to defraud" includes a scheme or artifice to deprive another of the intangible right to honest services.

(2) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-440, eff. 8-5-03; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-26)

Sec. 17-26. Misconduct by a corporate official.

(a) A person is guilty of a crime when:

(1) being a director of a corporation, he knowingly with a purpose to defraud, concurs in any vote or act of the directors of the corporation, or any of them, which has the purpose of:

(A) making a dividend except in the manner provided by law;

(B) dividing, withdrawing or in any manner paying any stockholder any part of the capital stock of the corporation except in the manner provided by law;

(C) discounting or receiving any note or other evidence of debt in payment of an installment of capital stock actually called in and required to be paid, or with purpose of providing the means of making such payment;

(D) receiving or discounting any note or other evidence of debt with the purpose of enabling any stockholder to withdraw any part of the money paid in by him on his stock; or

(E) applying any portion of the funds of such corporation, directly or indirectly, to the purchase of shares of its own stock, except in the manner provided by law; or

(2) being a director or officer of a corporation, he, with purpose to defraud:

(A) issues, participates in issuing, or concurs in a vote to issue any increase of its capital stock beyond the amount of the capital stock thereof, duly authorized by or in pursuance of law;

(B) sells, or agrees to sell, or is directly interested in the sale of any share of stock of such corporation, or in any agreement to sell such stock, unless at the time of the sale or agreement he is an actual owner of such share, provided that the foregoing shall not apply to a sale by or on behalf of an underwriter or dealer in connection with a bona fide public offering of shares of stock of such corporation;

(C) executes a scheme or attempts to execute a scheme to obtain any share of stock of such corporation by means of false representation; or

(3) being a director or officer of a corporation, he with purpose to defraud or evade a financial disclosure reporting requirement of this State or of Section 13(A) or 15(D) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, 15 U. S. C. 78M(A) or 78O(D), he:

(A) causes or attempts to cause a corporation or accounting firm representing the corporation or any other individual or entity to fail to file a financial disclosure report as required by State or federal law; or

(B) causes or attempts to cause a corporation or accounting firm representing the corporation or any other individual or entity to file a financial disclosure report, as required by State or federal law, that contains a material omission or misstatement of fact.

(b) If the benefit derived from a violation of this Section is $500,000 or more, the offender is guilty of a Class 2 felony. If the benefit derived from a violation of this Section is less than $500,000, the offender is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-496, eff. 1-1-04; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-9-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. Persons exempted under this subdivision (a)(5) shall be required to have completed a course of study in firearms handling and training approved and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation as prescribed by Section 28 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, prior to becoming eligible for this exemption. The Department of Professional Regulation shall provide suitable documentation demonstrating the successful completion of the prescribed firearms training. Such documentation shall be carried at all times when such persons are in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, those devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-613, eff. 9-11-07; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-9-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/25-5) (was 720 ILCS 5/25-1.1)

Sec. 25-5. Unlawful contact with streetgang members.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful contact with streetgang members when:

(1) he or she knowingly has direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act after having been sentenced to probation, conditional discharge, or supervision for a criminal offense with a condition of that sentence being to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members;

(2) he or she knowingly has direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act after having been released on bond for any criminal offense with a condition of that bond being to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members;

(3) he He or she knowingly has direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act after having been ordered by a judge in any non-criminal proceeding to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members; or

(4) he He or she knowingly has direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member as defined in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act after having been released from the Illinois Department of Corrections on a condition of parole or mandatory supervised release that he or she refrain from direct or indirect contact with a streetgang member or members.

(b) Unlawful contact with streetgang members is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) This Section does not apply to a person when the only streetgang member or members he or she is with is a family or household member or members as defined in paragraph (3) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and the streetgang members are not engaged in any streetgang-related activity.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; incorporates P.A. 95-45, eff. 1-1-08; revised 1-7-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 26-1. Elements of the Offense.

(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he knowingly:

(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace; or

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such fire exists; or

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in such place that its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in such place; or

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed; or

(5) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(6) While acting as a collection agency as defined in the "Collection Agency Act" or as an employee of such collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor; or

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act"; or

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act; or

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that such assistance is required; or

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report under Article II of "An Act in relation to victims of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as amended; or

(11) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting such a report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public; or

(12) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call or transmission and further knows that the call or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency; or

(13) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5), (a)(11), or (a)(12) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(4), (a)(7), (a)(9), or (a)(13) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.

A violation of subsection (a)(6) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7), (a)(11), or (a)(12) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 96-413, eff. 8-13-09; 96-772, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 26-1. Elements of the Offense.

(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he knowingly:

(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace; or

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such fire exists; or

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in such place that its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in such place; or

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that such an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed; or

(5) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(6) While acting as a collection agency as defined in the "Collection Agency Act" or as an employee of such collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor; or

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act"; or

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act; or

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that such assistance is required; or

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report under Article II of "An Act in relation to victims of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as amended; or

(11) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting such a report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public; or

(12) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call or transmission and further knows that the call or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency; or

(13) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5), (a)(11), or (a)(12) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(4), (a)(7), (a)(9), or (a)(13) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.

A violation of subsection (a)(6) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7), (a)(11), or (a)(12) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-413, eff. 8-13-09; 96-772, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-5)

Sec. 26-5. Dog fighting. (For other provisions that may apply to dog fighting, see the Humane Care for Animals Act. For provisions similar to this Section that apply to animals other than dogs, see in particular Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any dog which he or she knows is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between the dog and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any dog for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person may promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment of any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more dogs or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog.

(c) No person may sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any dog which he or she knows has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another dog or human or be intentionally killed for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(c-5) No person may solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(d) No person may manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation, or delivery any device or equipment which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any human and dog, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(e) No person may own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person may knowingly make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, that he or she knows is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog or knowingly manufacture, distribute, or deliver fittings to be used in a fight between 2 or more dogs or a dog and human.

(g) No person may knowingly attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more dogs, or any dog and human, or the intentional killing of any dog for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(h) No person may tie or attach or fasten any live animal to any machine or device propelled by any power for the purpose of causing the animal to be pursued by a dog or dogs. This subsection (h) applies only when the dog is intended to be used in a dog fight.

(i) Penalties for violations of this Section shall be as follows:

(1) Any person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation, and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000.

(1.5) A person who knowingly owns a dog for fighting purposes or for producing a fight between 2 or more dogs or a dog and human or who knowingly offers for sale or sells a dog bred for fighting is guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000, if the dog participates in a dogfight and any of the following factors is present:

(i) the dogfight is performed in the presence of a person under 18 years of age;

(ii) the dogfight is performed for the purpose of or in the presence of illegal wagering activity; or

(iii) the dogfight is performed in furtherance of streetgang related activity as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(1.7) A person convicted of violating subsection (c-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of violating subsection (d) or (e) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) or (e) of this Section is a Class 3 felony.

(2.5) Any person convicted of violating subsection (f) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (g) of this Section is a Class 3 felony. If a person under 13 years of age is present at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity prohibited in subsection (g), the parent, legal guardian, or other person who is 18 years of age or older who brings that person under 13 years of age to that show, exhibition, program, or other activity is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first violation and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(i-5) A person who commits a felony violation of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(j) Any dog or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 of the Humane Care for Animals Act when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a dog fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(k) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(l) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with a dog for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the dog was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department of Agriculture and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the dog or dogs involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(m) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating this Section, the court may order that the convicted person and persons dwelling in the same household as the convicted person who conspired, aided, or abetted in the unlawful act that was the basis of the conviction, or who knew or should have known of the unlawful act, may not own, harbor, or have custody or control of any dog or other animal for a period of time that the court deems reasonable.

(n) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section may be inferred from evidence that the accused possessed any device or equipment described in subsection (d), (e), or (h) of this Section, and also possessed any dog.

(o) When no longer required for investigations or court proceedings relating to the events described or depicted therein, evidence relating to convictions for violations of this Section shall be retained and made available for use in training peace officers in detecting and identifying violations of this Section. Such evidence shall be made available upon request to other law enforcement agencies and to schools certified under the Illinois Police Training Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/29B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29B-1)

Sec. 29B-1. (a) A person commits the offense of money laundering:

(1) when, knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity, he or she conducts or attempts to conduct such a financial transaction which in fact involves criminally derived property:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) where he or she knows or reasonably should know that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law; or

(1.5) when he or she transports, transmits, or transfers, or attempts to transport, transmit, or transfer a monetary instrument:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) knowing, or having reason to know, that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law; or

(2) when, with the intent to:

(A) promote the carrying on of a specified criminal activity as defined in this Article; or

(B) conceal or disguise the nature, location, source, ownership, or control of property believed to be the proceeds of a specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6); or

(C) avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law,

he or she conducts or attempts to conduct a financial transaction involving property he or she believes to be the proceeds of specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6) or property used to conduct or facilitate specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6).

(b) As used in this Section:

(0.5) "Knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity" means that the person knew the property involved in the transaction represented proceeds from some form, though not necessarily which form, of activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

(1) "Financial transaction" means a purchase, sale, loan, pledge, gift, transfer, delivery or other disposition utilizing criminally derived property, and with respect to financial institutions, includes a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit or other monetary instrument, use of safe deposit box, or any other payment, transfer or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution. For purposes of clause (a)(2) of this Section, the term "financial transaction" also means a transaction which without regard to whether the funds, monetary instruments, or real or personal property involved in the transaction are criminally derived, any transaction which in any way or degree: (1) involves the movement of funds by wire or any other means; (2) involves one or more monetary instruments; or (3) the transfer of title to any real or personal property. The receipt by an attorney of bona fide fees for the purpose of legal representation is not a financial transaction for purposes of this Section.

(2) "Financial institution" means any bank; saving and loan association; trust company; agency or branch of a foreign bank in the United States; currency exchange; credit union, mortgage banking institution; pawnbroker; loan or finance company; operator of a credit card system; issuer, redeemer or cashier of travelers checks, checks or money orders; dealer in precious metals, stones or jewels; broker or dealer in securities or commodities; investment banker; or investment company.

(3) "Monetary instrument" means United States coins and currency; coins and currency of a foreign country; travelers checks; personal checks, bank checks, and money orders; investment securities; bearer negotiable instruments; bearer investment securities; or bearer securities and certificates of stock in such form that title thereto passes upon delivery.

(4) "Criminally derived property" means: (A) any property, real or personal, constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law; or (B) any property represented to be property constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

(5) "Conduct" or "conducts" includes, in addition to its ordinary meaning, initiating, concluding, or participating in initiating or concluding a transaction.

(6) "Specified criminal activity" means any violation of Section 29D-15.1 (720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) and any violation of Article 29D of this Code.

(7) "Director" means the Director of State Police or his or her designated agents.

(8) "Department" means the Department of State Police of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(9) "Transaction reporting requirement under State law" means any violation as defined under the Currency Reporting Act.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(2) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(3) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(4) Money laundering in violation of subsection (a)(2) of this Section is a Class X felony;

(5) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony;

(6) In a prosecution under clause (a)(1.5)(B)(ii) of this Section, the sentences are as follows:

(A) Laundering of property of a value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(B) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(C) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(D) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(d) Evidence. In a prosecution under this Article, either party may introduce the following evidence pertaining to the issue of whether the property or proceeds were known to be some form of criminally derived property or from some form of unlawful activity:

(1) A financial transaction was conducted or structured or attempted in violation of the reporting requirements of any State or federal law; or

(2) A financial transaction was conducted or attempted with the use of a false or fictitious name or a forged instrument; or

(3) A falsely altered or completed written instrument or a written instrument that contains any materially false personal identifying information was made, used, offered or presented, whether accepted or not, in connection with a financial transaction; or

(4) A financial transaction was structured or attempted to be structured so as to falsely report the actual consideration or value of the transaction; or

(5) A money transmitter, a person engaged in a trade or business or any employee of a money transmitter or a person engaged in a trade or business, knows or reasonably should know that false personal identifying information has been presented and incorporates the false personal identifying information into any report or record; or

(6) The criminally derived property is transported or possessed in a fashion inconsistent with the ordinary or usual means of transportation or possession of such property and where the property is discovered in the absence of any documentation or other indicia of legitimate origin or right to such property; or

(7) A person pays or receives substantially less than face value for one or more monetary instruments; or

(8) A person engages in a transaction involving one or more monetary instruments, where the physical condition or form of the monetary instrument or instruments makes it apparent that they are not the product of bona fide business or financial transactions.

(e) Duty to enforce this Article.

(1) It is the duty of the Department of State Police, and its agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce all provisions of this Article, except those specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any state, relating to money laundering. Only an agent, officer, or investigator designated by the Director may be authorized in accordance with this Section to serve seizure notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the authority of this State.

(2) Any agent, officer, investigator, or peace officer designated by the Director may: (A) make seizure of property pursuant to the provisions of this Article; and (B) perform such other law enforcement duties as the Director designates. It is the duty of all State's Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Article and institute legal proceedings as authorized under this Article.

(f) Protective orders.

(1) Upon application of the State, the court may enter a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action to preserve the availability of property described in subsection (h) for forfeiture under this Article:

(A) upon the filing of an indictment, information, or complaint charging a violation of this Article for which forfeiture may be ordered under this Article and alleging that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Article; or

(B) prior to the filing of such an indictment, information, or complaint, if, after notice to persons appearing to have an interest in the property and opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that:

(i) there is probable cause to believe that the State will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and that failure to enter the order will result in the property being destroyed, removed from the jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made unavailable for forfeiture; and

(ii) the need to preserve the availability of the property through the entry of the requested order outweighs the hardship on any party against whom the order is to be entered.

Provided, however, that an order entered pursuant to subparagraph (B) shall be effective for not more than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good cause shown or unless an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has been filed.

(2) A temporary restraining order under this subsection may be entered upon application of the State without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has not yet been filed with respect to the property, if the State demonstrates that there is probable cause to believe that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Section and that provision of notice will jeopardize the availability of the property for forfeiture. Such a temporary order shall expire not more than 30 days after the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing requested concerning an order entered under this paragraph shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to the expiration of the temporary order.

(3) The court may receive and consider, at a hearing held pursuant to this subsection (f), evidence and information that would be inadmissible under the Illinois rules of evidence.

(4) Order to repatriate and deposit.

(A) In general. Pursuant to its authority to enter a pretrial restraining order under this Section, the court may order a defendant to repatriate any property that may be seized and forfeited and to deposit that property pending trial with the Illinois State Police or another law enforcement agency designated by the Illinois State Police.

(B) Failure to comply. Failure to comply with an order under this subsection (f) is punishable as a civil or criminal contempt of court.

(g) Warrant of seizure. The State may request the issuance of a warrant authorizing the seizure of property described in subsection (h) in the same manner as provided for a search warrant. If the court determines that there is probable cause to believe that the property to be seized would be subject to forfeiture, the court shall issue a warrant authorizing the seizure of such property.

(h) Forfeiture.

(1) The following are subject to forfeiture:

(A) any property, real or personal, constituting, derived from, or traceable to any proceeds the person obtained directly or indirectly, as a result of a violation of this Article;

(B) any of the person's property used, or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or to facilitate the commission of, a violation of this Article;

(C) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in subparagraphs (A) and (B), but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Article;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(D) all real property, including any right, title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation of this Article or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of this Article.

(2) Property subject to forfeiture under this Article may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(A) if the seizure is incident to a seizure warrant;

(B) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Article;

(C) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(D) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Article and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(E) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(3) In the event of seizure pursuant to paragraph (2), forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance with subsections (i) through (r).

(4) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under this Article. When property is seized under this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(A) place the property under seal;

(B) remove the property to a place designated by the Director;

(C) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(D) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(E) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(F) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(5) When property is forfeited under this Article, the Director shall sell all such property unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with paragraph (6). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws, if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in its enforcement efforts. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with paragraph (6).

(6) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Article shall be distributed as follows:

(A) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws.

(B)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(C) 10% shall be retained by the Department of State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

(i) Notice to owner or interest holder.

(1) Whenever notice of pending forfeiture or service of an in rem complaint is required under the provisions of this Article, such notice or service shall be given as follows:

(A) If the owner's or interest holder's name and current address are known, then by either personal service or mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address. For purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, then the address provided to the arresting agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner or interest holder's address changes prior to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the seizing agency of the change in address or, if the owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in address; or

(B) If the property seized is a conveyance, to the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title or interest to the conveyance is required by law to be recorded, then by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address; or

(C) If the owner's or interest holder's address is not known, and is not on record as provided in paragraph (B), then by publication for 3 successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred.

(2) Notice served under this Article is effective upon personal service, the last date of publication, or the mailing of written notice, whichever is earlier.

(j) Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall, within 90 days after seizure, notify the State's Attorney for the county, either where an act or omission giving rise to the forfeiture occurred or where the property was seized, of the seizure of the property and the facts and circumstances giving rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with the inventory of the property and its estimated value. When the property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are pending regarding such vehicle.

(k) Non-judicial forfeiture. If non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or if real property is seized under the provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings as described in subsection (l) of this Section within 45 days from receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency under subsection (j) of this Section. However, if non-real property that does not exceed $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance is seized, the following procedure shall be used:

(1) If, after review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45 days after the receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency, the State's Attorney shall cause notice of pending forfeiture to be given to the owner of the property and all known interest holders of the property in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.

(2) The notice of pending forfeiture must include a description of the property, the estimated value of the property, the date and place of seizure, the conduct giving rise to forfeiture or the violation of law alleged, and a summary of procedures and procedural rights applicable to the forfeiture action.

(3)(A) Any person claiming an interest in property which is the subject of notice under paragraph (1) of this subsection (k), must, in order to preserve any rights or claims to the property, within 45 days after the effective date of notice as described in subsection (i) of this Section, file a verified claim with the State's Attorney expressing his or her interest in the property. The claim must set forth:

(i) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the claimant;

(ii) the address at which the claimant will accept mail;

(iii) the nature and extent of the claimant's interest in the property;

(iv) the date, identity of the transferor, and circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the interest in the property;

(v) the name and address of all other persons known to have an interest in the property;

(vi) the specific provision of law relied on in asserting the property is not subject to forfeiture;

(vii) all essential facts supporting each assertion; and

(viii) the relief sought.

(B) If a claimant files the claim and deposits with the State's Attorney a cost bond, in the form of a cashier's check payable to the clerk of the court, in the sum of 10% of the reasonable value of the property as alleged by the State's Attorney or the sum of $100, whichever is greater, upon condition that, in the case of forfeiture, the claimant must pay all costs and expenses of forfeiture proceedings, then the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings and deposit the cost bond with the clerk of the court as described in subsection (l) of this Section within 45 days after receipt of the claim and cost bond. In lieu of a cost bond, a person claiming interest in the seized property may file, under penalty of perjury, an indigency affidavit which has been approved by a circuit court judge.

(C) If none of the seized property is forfeited in the judicial in rem proceeding, the clerk of the court shall return to the claimant, unless the court orders otherwise, 90% of the sum which has been deposited and shall retain as costs 10% of the money deposited. If any of the seized property is forfeited under the judicial forfeiture proceeding, the clerk of the court shall transfer 90% of the sum which has been deposited to the State's Attorney prosecuting the civil forfeiture to be applied to the costs of prosecution and the clerk shall retain as costs 10% of the sum deposited.

(4) If no claim is filed or bond given within the 45 day period as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (k), the State's Attorney shall declare the property forfeited and shall promptly notify the owner and all known interest holders of the property and the Director of State Police of the declaration of forfeiture and the Director shall dispose of the property in accordance with law.

(l) Judicial in rem procedures. If property seized under the provisions of this Article is non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or is real property, or a claimant has filed a claim and a cost bond under paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section, the following judicial in rem procedures shall apply:

(1) If, after a review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45 days of the receipt of notice of seizure by the seizing agency or the filing of the claim and cost bond, whichever is later, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial forfeiture proceedings by filing a verified complaint for forfeiture and, if the claimant has filed a claim and cost bond, by depositing the cost bond with the clerk of the court. When authorized by law, a forfeiture must be ordered by a court on an action in rem brought by a State's Attorney under a verified complaint for forfeiture.

(2) During the probable cause portion of the judicial in rem proceeding wherein the State presents its case-in-chief, the court must receive and consider, among other things, all relevant hearsay evidence and information. The laws of evidence relating to civil actions apply to all other portions of the judicial in rem proceeding.

(3) Only an owner of or interest holder in the property may file an answer asserting a claim against the property in the action in rem. For purposes of this Section, the owner or interest holder shall be referred to as claimant. Upon motion of the State, the court shall first hold a hearing, wherein any claimant must establish by a preponderance of the evidence, that he or she has a lawful, legitimate ownership interest in the property and that it was obtained through a lawful source.

(4) The answer must be signed by the owner or interest holder under penalty of perjury and must set forth:

(A) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the claimant;

(B) the address at which the claimant will accept mail;

(C) the nature and extent of the claimant's interest in the property;

(D) the date, identity of transferor, and circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the interest in the property;

(E) the name and address of all other persons known to have an interest in the property;

(F) all essential facts supporting each assertion; and

(G) the precise relief sought.

(5) The answer must be filed with the court within 45 days after service of the civil in rem complaint.

(6) The hearing must be held within 60 days after filing of the answer unless continued for good cause.

(7) The State shall show the existence of probable cause for forfeiture of the property. If the State shows probable cause, the claimant has the burden of showing by a preponderance of the evidence that the claimant's interest in the property is not subject to forfeiture.

(8) If the State does not show existence of probable cause, the court shall order the interest in the property returned or conveyed to the claimant and shall order all other property forfeited to the State. If the State does show existence of probable cause, the court shall order all property forfeited to the State.

(9) A defendant convicted in any criminal proceeding is precluded from later denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense of which the defendant was convicted in any proceeding under this Article regardless of the pendency of an appeal from that conviction. However, evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible.

(10) An acquittal or dismissal in a criminal proceeding does not preclude civil proceedings under this Article; however, for good cause shown, on a motion by the State's Attorney, the court may stay civil forfeiture proceedings during the criminal trial for a related criminal indictment or information alleging a money laundering violation. Such a stay shall not be available pending an appeal. Property subject to forfeiture under this Article shall not be subject to return or release by a court exercising jurisdiction over a criminal case involving the seizure of such property unless such return or release is consented to by the State's Attorney.

(11) All property declared forfeited under this Article vests in this State on the commission of the conduct giving rise to forfeiture together with the proceeds of the property after that time. Any such property or proceeds subsequently transferred to any person remain subject to forfeiture and thereafter shall be ordered forfeited.

(12) A civil action under this Article must be commenced within 5 years after the last conduct giving rise to forfeiture became known or should have become known or 5 years after the forfeitable property is discovered, whichever is later, excluding any time during which either the property or claimant is out of the State or in confinement or during which criminal proceedings relating to the same conduct are in progress.

(m) Stay of time periods. If property is seized for evidence and for forfeiture, the time periods for instituting judicial and non-judicial forfeiture proceedings shall not begin until the property is no longer necessary for evidence.

(n) Settlement of claims. Notwithstanding other provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney and a claimant of seized property may enter into an agreed-upon settlement concerning the seized property in such an amount and upon such terms as are set out in writing in a settlement agreement.

(o) Property constituting attorney fees. Nothing in this Article applies to property which constitutes reasonable bona fide attorney's fees paid to an attorney for services rendered or to be rendered in the forfeiture proceeding or criminal proceeding relating directly thereto where such property was paid before its seizure, before the issuance of any seizure warrant or court order prohibiting transfer of the property and where the attorney, at the time he or she received the property did not know that it was property subject to forfeiture under this Article.

(p) Construction. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the forfeiture provisions of this Article be liberally construed so as to effect their remedial purpose. The forfeiture of property and other remedies hereunder shall be considered to be in addition to, and not exclusive of, any sentence or other remedy provided by law.

(q) Judicial review. If property has been declared forfeited under subsection (k) of this Section, any person who has an interest in the property declared forfeited may, within 30 days after the effective date of the notice of the declaration of forfeiture, file a claim and cost bond as described in paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section. If a claim and cost bond is filed under this Section, then the procedures described in subsection (l) of this Section apply.

(r) Burden of proof of exemption or exception. It is not necessary for the State to negate any exemption or exception in this Article in any complaint, information, indictment or other pleading or in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding under this Article. The burden of proof of any exemption or exception is upon the person claiming it.

(s) Review of administrative decisions. All administrative findings, rulings, final determinations, findings, and conclusions of the State's Attorney's Office under this Article are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the decision pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law and the rules adopted pursuant to that Law. Pending final decision on such review, the administrative acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full force and effect unless modified or suspended by order of court pending final judicial decision. Pending final decision on such review, the acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full force and effect, unless stayed by order of court. However, no stay of any decision of the administrative agency shall issue unless the person aggrieved by the decision establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that good cause exists for the stay. In determining good cause, the court shall find that the aggrieved party has established a substantial likelihood of prevailing on the merits and that granting the stay will not have an injurious effect on the general public.

(Source: P.A. 96-275, eff. 8-11-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-9-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/29D-25)

Sec. 29D-25. Falsely making a terrorist threat.

(a) A person commits the offense of falsely making a terrorist threat when in any manner he or she knowingly makes a threat to commit or cause to be committed a terrorist act as defined in Section 29D-10(1) or otherwise knowingly creates the impression or belief that a terrorist act is about to be or has been committed, or in any manner knowingly makes a threat to commit or cause to be committed a catastrophe as defined in Section 29D-15.1 (720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) of this Code that he or she knows is false.

(b) Sentence. Falsely making a terrorist threat is a Class 1 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of falsely making a terrorist threat, involving a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school in which the offender knows that such bomb or explosive device was not placed in the school, to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 96-413, eff. 8-13-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-9-09.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1)

Sec. 36-1. Seizure. Any vessel, vehicle or aircraft used with the knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code, an offense prohibited by (a) Section 9-1, 9-3, 10-2, 11-6, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.6, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 16-1 if the theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal, 18-2, 19-1, 19-2, 19-3, 20-1, 20-2, 29D-15.2, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, or 28-1, or 29D-15.2 of this Code, paragraph (a) of Section 12-4 of this Code, paragraph (a) of Section 12-15 or paragraphs (a), (c) or (d) of Section 12-16 of this Code, or paragraph (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 of this Code; (b) Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or 26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel, vehicle or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes; (c) Section 28, 29 or 30 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel, vehicle or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes; (d) Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act; (e) 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; (f) the offenses described in the following provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code: Section 11-501 subdivisions (c-1)(1), (c-1)(2), (c-1)(3), (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), or (d)(1)(H); (g) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (h) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section 6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; may be seized and delivered forthwith to the sheriff of the county of seizure.

Within 15 days after such delivery the sheriff shall give notice of seizure to each person according to the following method: Upon each such person whose right, title or interest is of record in the office of the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Transportation, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Agency, or any other Department of this State, or any other state of the United States if such vessel, vehicle or aircraft is required to be so registered, as the case may be, by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail to the address as given upon the records of the Secretary of State, the Department of Aeronautics, Department of Public Works and Buildings or any other Department of this State or the United States if such vessel, vehicle or aircraft is required to be so registered. Within that 15 day period the sheriff shall also notify the State's Attorney of the county of seizure about the seizure.

In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft, and any such equipment shall be deemed a vessel, vehicle or aircraft for purposes of this Article.

When a person discharges a firearm at another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual, the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this Section.

If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (c-1)(1), (c-1)(2), (c-1)(3), (d)(1)(A), or (d)(1)(D) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source of transportation and it is determined that the financial hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle for employment or family transportation purposes. A written declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member, the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding. If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle, the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only one vehicle.

Property declared contraband under Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 96-313, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-9-09.)

Section 605. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 208 and 303.05 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/208) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1208)

Sec. 208. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule III.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation;

(1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances;

(2) Benzphetamine;

(3) Chlorphentermine;

(4) Clortermine;

(5) Phendimetrazine.

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;

(2) Any suppository dosage form containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Federal Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;

(3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt thereof:

(4) Chlorhexadol;

(5) Methyprylon;

(6) Sulfondiethylmethane;

(7) Sulfonethylmethane;

(8) Sulfonmethane;

(9) Lysergic acid;

(10) Lysergic acid amide;

(10.1) Tiletamine or zolazepam or both, or any salt of either of them.

Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam

combination product: Telazol.

Some trade or other names for Tiletamine:

2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone.

Some trade or other names for zolazepam:

4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-

[3,4-e], [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, and flupyrazapon.

(11) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of aspirin;

(12) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of acetaminophen;

(13) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 50 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts plus naloxone HCl USP 0.5 milligrams, per dosage unit;

(14) Ketamine.

(d) Nalorphine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:

(1) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(3) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(4) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(5) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(6) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(7) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(8) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(f) Anabolic steroids, except the following anabolic steroids that are exempt:

(1) Androgyn L.A.;

(2) Andro-Estro 90-4;

(3) depANDROGYN;

(4) DEPO-T.E.;

(5) depTESTROGEN;

(6) Duomone;

(7) DURATESTRIN;

(8) DUO-SPAN II;

(9) Estratest;

(10) Estratest H.S.;

(11) PAN ESTRA TEST;

(12) Premarin with Methyltestosterone;

(13) TEST-ESTRO Cypionates;

(14) Testosterone Cyp 50 Estradiol Cyp 2;

(15) Testosterone Cypionate-Estradiol Cypionate injection; and

(16) Testosterone Enanthate-Estradiol Valerate injection.

(g) Hallucinogenic substances.

(1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product. Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimetjyl-3-pentyl-6H-debenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannibinol.

(2) (Reserved).

(h) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants and licensed advanced practice nurses to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) no more than 5 Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage may be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the supervising physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day oral dosage, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician; and

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule; and

(2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,

(A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a podiatrist in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) no more than 5 Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage may be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day oral dosage, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician;

(iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician; and

(v) the advanced practice nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department.

(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatrist has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies shall be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 610. The Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act (as amended by P.A. 96-179)/Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act (as amended by P.A. 96-446) is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 0.01 and 1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 675/Act title)

An Act to prohibit minors from buying, selling, or possessing tobacco in any of its forms, to prohibit selling, giving or furnishing tobacco, in any of its forms, to minors, and to prohibit the distribution of tobacco samples and providing penalties therefor.

(720 ILCS 675/0.01) (from Ch. 23, par. 2356.9)

Sec. 0.01. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-446, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-8-09.)

(720 ILCS 675/1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2357)

Sec. 1. Prohibition on sale to and possession of tobacco by minors; prohibition on the distribution of tobacco samples to any person; use of identification cards; vending machines; lunch wagons; out-of-package sales.

(a) No minor under 18 years of age shall buy any tobacco product. No person shall sell, buy for, distribute samples of or furnish any tobacco product to any minor under 18 years of age.

(a-5) No minor under 16 years of age may sell any tobacco product at a retail establishment selling tobacco products. This subsection does not apply to a sales clerk in a family-owned business which can prove that the sales clerk is in fact a son or daughter of the owner.

(a-6) No minor under 18 years of age in the furtherance or facilitation of obtaining any tobacco product shall display or use a false or forged identification card or transfer, alter, or deface an identification card.

(a-7) No minor under 18 years of age shall possess any cigar, cigarette, smokeless tobacco, or tobacco in any of its forms.

(a-8) (a-7) A person shall not distribute without charge samples of any tobacco product to any other person, regardless of age:

(1) within a retail establishment selling tobacco products, unless the retailer has verified the purchaser's age with a government issued identification;

(2) from a lunch wagon; or

(3) on a public way as a promotion or advertisement of a tobacco manufacturer or tobacco product.

This subsection (a-8) (a-7) does not apply to the distribution of a tobacco product sample in any adult-only facility.

(a-9) For the purpose of this Section:

"Adult-only facility means a facility or restricted area (whether open-air or enclosed) where the operator ensures or has a reasonable basis to believe (such as by checking identification as required under State law, or by checking the identification of any person appearing to be under the age of 27) that no person under legal age is present. A facility or restricted area need not be permanently restricted to persons under legal age to constitute an adult-only facility, provided that the operator ensures or has a reasonable basis to believe that no person under legal age is present during the event or time period in question.

"Lunch wagon" means a mobile vehicle designed and constructed to transport food and from which food is sold to the general public.

"Smokeless tobacco" means any tobacco products that are suitable for dipping or chewing.

"Tobacco product" means any cigar, cigarette, smokeless tobacco, or tobacco in any of its forms.

(b) Tobacco products listed in this Section may be sold through a vending machine only if such tobacco products are not placed together with any non-tobacco product, other than matches, in the vending machine and the vending machine is in any of the following locations:

(1) (Blank).

(2) Places to which minors under 18 years of age are not permitted access.

(3) Places where alcoholic beverages are sold and consumed on the premises and vending machine operation is under the direct supervision of the owner or manager.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Places where the vending machine can only be operated by the owner or an employee over age 18 either directly or through a remote control device if the device is inaccessible to all customers.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The sale or distribution by any person of a tobacco product in this Section, including but not limited to a single or loose cigarette, that is not contained within a sealed container, pack, or package as provided by the manufacturer, which container, pack, or package bears the health warning required by federal law, is prohibited.

(e) It is not a violation of this Act for a person under 18 years of age to purchase or possess a cigar, cigarette, smokeless tobacco or tobacco in any of its forms if the person under the age of 18 purchases or is given the cigar, cigarette, smokeless tobacco or tobacco in any of its forms from a retail seller of tobacco products or an employee of the retail seller pursuant to a plan or action to investigate, patrol, or otherwise conduct a "sting operation" or enforcement action against a retail seller of tobacco products or a person employed by the retail seller of tobacco products or on any premises authorized to sell tobacco products to determine if tobacco products are being sold or given to persons under 18 years of age if the "sting operation" or enforcement action is approved by the Department of State Police, the county sheriff, a municipal police department, the Department of Public Health, or a local health department.

(Source: P.A. 95-905, eff. 1-1-09; 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-446, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

Section 615. The Display of Tobacco Products Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(720 ILCS 677/15)

Sec. 15. Vending machines. This Act does not prohibit the sale of tobacco products from vending machines if the location of the vending machines are in compliance with the provisions of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-446, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-19-09.)

Section 620. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-1-2, 3-3-2.1, 3-3-7, 5-4-3, 5-4.5-15, 5-4.5-100, 5-5-3.2, 5-6-1, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-8-1, 5-8-4, 5-8-8, and 5-9-1.1-5 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-9-1.17 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-1-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-1-2)

Sec. 3-1-2. Definitions.

(a) "Chief Administrative Officer" means the person designated by the Director to exercise the powers and duties of the Department of Corrections in regard to committed persons within a correctional institution or facility, and includes the superintendent of any juvenile institution or facility.

(a-5) "Sex offense" for the purposes of paragraph (16) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7, paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 5-6-3, and paragraph (18) of subsection (c) of Section 5-6-3.1 only means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5).

An offense violating federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5) shall constitute a sex offense for the purpose of this subsection (a-5). A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for a sex offense for the purposes of this subsection (a-5).

(b) "Commitment" means a judicially determined placement in the custody of the Department of Corrections on the basis of delinquency or conviction.

(c) "Committed Person" is a person committed to the Department, however a committed person shall not be considered to be an employee of the Department of Corrections for any purpose, including eligibility for a pension, benefits, or any other compensation or rights or privileges which may be provided to employees of the Department.

(c-5) "Computer scrub software" means any third-party added software, designed to delete information from the computer unit, the hard drive, or other software, which would eliminate and prevent discovery of browser activity, including but not limited to Internet history, address bar or bars, cache or caches, and/or cookies, and which would over-write files in a way so as to make previous computer activity, including but not limited to website access, more difficult to discover.

(d) "Correctional Institution or Facility" means any building or part of a building where committed persons are kept in a secured manner.

(e) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" means the Department of Corrections of this State. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" means the Director of the Department of Corrections. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f-5) In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, references to "Department" or "Director" refer to either the Department of Corrections or the Director of Corrections or to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice unless the context is specific to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice.

(g) "Discharge" means the final termination of a commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(h) "Discipline" means the rules and regulations for the maintenance of order and the protection of persons and property within the institutions and facilities of the Department and their enforcement.

(i) "Escape" means the intentional and unauthorized absence of a committed person from the custody of the Department.

(j) "Furlough" means an authorized leave of absence from the Department of Corrections for a designated purpose and period of time.

(k) "Parole" means the conditional and revocable release of a committed person under the supervision of a parole officer.

(l) "Prisoner Review Board" means the Board established in Section 3-3-1(a), independent of the Department, to review rules and regulations with respect to good time credits, to hear charges brought by the Department against certain prisoners alleged to have violated Department rules with respect to good time credits, to set release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1977, to hear requests and make recommendations to the Governor with respect to pardon, reprieve or commutation, to set conditions for parole and mandatory supervised release and determine whether violations of those conditions justify revocation of parole or release, and to assume all other functions previously exercised by the Illinois Parole and Pardon Board.

(m) Whenever medical treatment, service, counseling, or care is referred to in this Unified Code of Corrections, such term may be construed by the Department or Court, within its discretion, to include treatment, service or counseling by a Christian Science practitioner or nursing care appropriate therewith whenever request therefor is made by a person subject to the provisions of this Act.

(n) "Victim" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-9-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-2.1)

Sec. 3-3-2.1. Prisoner Review Board - Release Date.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), the Prisoner Review Board shall, no later than 7 days following a prisoner's next parole hearing after the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1977, provide each prisoner sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, with a fixed release date.

(b) No release date under this Section shall be set for any person sentenced to an indeterminate sentence under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977 in which the minimum term of such sentence is 20 years or more.

(c) The Prisoner Review Board shall notify each eligible offender of his or her release date in a form substantially as follows:

Date of Notice

"To (Name of offender):

Under a recent change in the law you are provided with this choice:

(1) You may remain under your present indeterminate sentence and continue to be eligible for parole; or (2) you may waive your right to parole and accept the release date which has been set for you. From this release date will be deducted any good conduct credit you may earn.

If you accept the release date established by the Board, you will no longer be eligible for parole.

Your release date from prison has been set for: (release date) ........ , subject to a term of mandatory supervised release as provided by law.

If you accumulate the maximum amount of good conduct credit as allowed by law recently enacted, you can be released on: ........ , subject to a term of mandatory supervised release as provided by law.

Should you choose not to accept the release date, your next parole hearing will be: ........ .

The Board has based its determination of your release date on the following:

(1) The material that normally would be examined in connection with your parole hearing, as set forth in paragraph (d) of Section 3-3-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(2) the intent of the court in imposing sentence on you;

(3) the present schedule of sentences for similar offenses provided by Articles 4.5 and 5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, as amended;

(4) the factors in mitigation and aggravation provided by Sections 5-5-3.1 and 5-5-3.2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as amended;

(5) The rate of accumulating good conduct credits provided by Section 3-6-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as amended;

(6) your behavior since commitment.

You now have 60 days in which to decide whether to remain under your indeterminate sentence and continue to be eligible for parole or waive your right to parole and accept the release date established for you by the Board. If you do nothing within 60 days, you will remain under the parole system.

If you accept the release date, you may accumulate good conduct credit at the maximum rate provided under the law recently enacted.

If you feel that the release date set for you is unfair or is not based on complete information required to be considered by the Board, you may request that the Board reconsider the date. In your request you must set forth specific reasons why you feel the Board's release date is unfair and you may submit relevant material in support of your request.

The Department of Corrections is obligated to assist you in that effort, if you ask it to do so.

The Board will notify you within 60 days whether or not it will reconsider its decision. The Board's decision with respect to reconsidering your release date is final and cannot be appealed to any court.

If the Board decides not to reconsider your case you will have 60 days in which to decide whether to accept the release date and waive your right to parole or to continue under the parole system. If you do nothing within 60 days after you receive notification of the Board's decision you will remain under the parole system.

If the Board decides to reconsider its decision with respect to your release date, the Board will schedule a date for reconsideration as soon as practicable, but no later than 60 days from the date it receives your request, and give you at least 30 days notice. You may submit material to the Board which you believe will be helpful in deciding a proper date for your release. The Department of Corrections is obligated to assist you in that effort, if you ask it to do so.

Neither you nor your lawyer has the right to be present on the date of reconsideration, nor the right to call witnesses. However, the Board may ask you or your lawyer to appear or may ask to hear witnesses. The Board will base its determination on the same data on which it made its earlier determination, plus any new information which may be available to it.

When the Board has made its decision you will be informed of the release date. In no event will it be longer than the release date originally determined. From this date you may continue to accumulate good conduct credits at the maximum rate. You will not be able to appeal the Board's decision to a court.

Following the Board's reconsideration and upon being notified of your release date you will have 60 days in which to decide whether to accept the release date and waive your right to parole or to continue under the parole system. If you do nothing within 60 days after notification of the Board's decision you will remain under the parole system."

(d) The Board shall provide each eligible offender with a form substantially as follows:

"I (name of offender) am fully aware of my right to choose between parole eligibility and a fixed release date. I know that if I accept the release date established, I will give up my right to seek parole. I have read and understood the Prisoner Review Board's letter, and I know how and under what circumstances the Board has set my release date. I know that I will be released on that date and will be released earlier if I accumulate good conduct credit. I know that the date set by the Board is final, and can't be appealed to a court.

Fully aware of all the implications, I expressly and knowingly waive my right to seek parole and accept the release date as established by the Prisoner Review Board."

(e) The Board shall use the following information and standards in establishing a release date for each eligible offender who requests that a date be set:

(1) Such information as would be considered in a parole hearing under Section 3-3-4 of this Code;

(2) The intent of the court in imposing the offender's sentence;

(3) The present schedule for similar offenses provided by Articles 4.5 and 5 of Chapter V of this Code;

(4) Factors in aggravation and mitigation of sentence as provided in Sections 5-5-3.1 and 5-5-3.2 of this Code;

(5) The rate of accumulating good conduct credits provided by Section 3-6-3 of this Code;

(6) The offender's behavior since commitment to the Department.

(f) After the release date is set by the Board, the offender can accumulate good conduct credits in accordance with Section 3-6-3 of this Code.

(g) The release date established by the Board shall not be sooner than the earliest date that the offender would have been eligible for release under the sentence imposed on him by the court, less time credit previously earned for good behavior, nor shall it be later than the latest date at which the offender would have been eligible for release under such sentence, less time credit previously earned for good behavior.

(h) (1) Except as provided in subsection (b), each prisoner appearing at his next parole hearing subsequent to the effective date of the amendatory Act of 1977, shall be notified within 7 days of the hearing that he will either be released on parole or that a release date has been set by the Board. The notice and waiver form provided for in subsections (c) and (d) shall be presented to eligible prisoners no later than 7 days following their parole hearing. A written statement of the basis for the decision with regard to the release date set shall be given to such prisoners no later than 14 days following the parole hearing.

(2) Each prisoner upon notification of his release date shall have 60 days to choose whether to remain under the parole system or to accept the release date established by the Board. No release date shall be effective unless the prisoner waives his right to parole in writing. If no choice is made by such prisoner within 60 days from the date of his notification of a release date, such prisoner shall remain under the parole system.

(3) Within the 60 day period as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, a prisoner may request that the Board reconsider its decision with regard to such prisoner's release date. No later than 60 days following receipt of such request for reconsideration, the Board shall notify the prisoner as to whether or not it will reconsider such prisoner's release date. No court shall have jurisdiction to review the Board's decision. No prisoner shall be entitled to more than one request for reconsideration of his release date.

(A) If the Board decides not to reconsider the release date, the prisoner shall have 60 days to choose whether to remain under the parole system or to accept the release date established by the Board. No release date shall be effective unless the prisoner waives his right to parole in writing. If no choice is made by such prisoner within 60 days from the date of the notification by the Board refusing to reconsider his release date, such prisoner shall remain under the parole system.

(B) If the Board decides to reconsider its decision with respect to such release date, the Board shall schedule a date for reconsideration as soon as practicable, but no later than 60 days from the date of the prisoner's request, and give such prisoner at least 30 days notice. Such prisoner may submit any relevant material to the Board which would aid in ascertaining a proper release date. The Department of Corrections shall assist any such prisoner if asked to do so.

Neither the prisoner nor his lawyer has the right to be present on the date of reconsideration, nor the right to call witnesses. However, the Board may ask such prisoner or his or her lawyer to appear or may ask to hear witnesses. The Board shall base its determination on the factors specified in subsection (e), plus any new information which may be available to it.

(C) When the Board has made its decision, the prisoner shall be informed of the release date as provided for in subsection (c) no later than 7 days following the reconsideration. In no event shall such release date be longer than the release date originally determined. The decision of the Board is final. No court shall have jurisdiction to review the Board's decision.

Following the Board's reconsideration and its notification to the prisoner of his or her release date, such prisoner shall have 60 days from the date of such notice in which to decide whether to accept the release date and waive his or her right to parole or to continue under the parole system. If such prisoner does nothing within 60 days after notification of the Board's decision, he or she shall remain under the parole system.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 16D-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(7.13) (7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter; and

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, enacted by the 84th General Assembly, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his release, and he shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) When the subject is in compliance with all conditions of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, the subject shall receive a reduction of the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release of 90 days upon passage of the high school level Test of General Educational Development during the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release. This reduction in the period of a subject's term of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be available only to subjects who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development.

(Source: P.A. 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-539, eff. 1-1-08; 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-236, eff. 8-11-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3)

Sec. 5-4-3. Persons convicted of, or found delinquent for, certain offenses or institutionalized as sexually dangerous; specimens; genetic marker groups.

(a) Any person convicted of, found guilty under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for, or who received a disposition of court supervision for, a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense, convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law, convicted or found guilty of any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, found guilty or given supervision for any offense classified as a felony under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, convicted or found guilty of, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or committed as a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed, be required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section, provided such person is:

(1) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after July 1, 1990 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, periodic imprisonment, fine, probation, conditional discharge or any other form of sentence, or given a disposition of court supervision for the offense;

(1.5) found guilty or given supervision under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after January 1, 1997;

(2) ordered institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person on or after July 1, 1990;

(3) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense before July 1, 1990 and is presently confined as a result of such conviction in any State correctional facility or county jail or is presently serving a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment as a result of such conviction;

(3.5) convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law or found guilty or given supervision for such an offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on or after August 22, 2002;

(4) presently institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person or presently institutionalized as a person found guilty but mentally ill of a sexual offense or attempt to commit a sexual offense;

(4.5) ordered committed as a sexually violent person on or after the effective date of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act; or

(5) seeking transfer to or residency in Illinois under Sections 3-3-11.05 through 3-3-11.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections and the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision or the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Notwithstanding other provisions of this Section, any person incarcerated in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice on or after August 22, 2002, whether for a term of years, natural life, or a sentence of death, who has not yet submitted a sample of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to submit a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is sooner. A person Persons incarcerated on or after August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be required to submit a sample within 45 days of incarceration, or prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Section, by the Illinois State Police.

Notwithstanding other provisions of this Section, any person sentenced to life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or sentenced to death after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police. Any person serving a sentence of life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any person who is under a sentence of death on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue upon request at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-5) Any person who was otherwise convicted of or received a disposition of court supervision for any other offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or who was found guilty or given supervision for such a violation under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may, regardless of the sentence imposed, be required by an order of the court to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(1.5), (a)(2), (a)(3.5), and (a-5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(c) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(4.5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to provide such samples prior to final discharge or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Act, by the Illinois State Police.

(c-5) Any person required by paragraph (a)(5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall, where feasible, be required to provide the specimens before being accepted for conditioned residency in Illinois under the interstate compact or agreement, but no later than 45 days after arrival in this State.

(c-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may determine which type of specimen or specimens, blood, saliva, or tissue, is acceptable for submission to the Division of Forensic Services for analysis.

(d) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of blood samples. The collection of samples shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a registered nurse or other qualified person trained in venipuncture may withdraw blood for the purposes of this Act. The samples shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-1) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of saliva samples. The collection of saliva samples shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting saliva may collect saliva for the purposes of this Section. The samples shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-2) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of tissue samples. The collection of tissue samples shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting tissue may collect tissue for the purposes of this Section. The samples shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-5) To the extent that funds are available, the Illinois Department of State Police shall contract with qualified personnel and certified laboratories for the collection, analysis, and categorization of known samples, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(d-6) Agencies designated by the Illinois Department of State Police and the Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties to provide for the collection or analysis of DNA, or both, of an offender's blood, saliva, and tissue samples, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(e) The genetic marker groupings shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services.

(f) The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be confidential and shall be released only to peace officers of the United States, of other states or territories, of the insular possessions of the United States, of foreign countries duly authorized to receive the same, to all peace officers of the State of Illinois and to all prosecutorial agencies, and to defense counsel as provided by Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be used only for (i) valid law enforcement identification purposes and as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for participation in the National DNA database, (ii) technology validation purposes, (iii) a population statistics database, (iv) quality assurance purposes if personally identifying information is removed, (v) assisting in the defense of the criminally accused pursuant to Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (vi) identifying and assisting in the prosecution of a person who is suspected of committing a sexual assault as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act. Notwithstanding any other statutory provision to the contrary, all information obtained under this Section shall be maintained in a single State data base, which may be uploaded into a national database, and which information may be subject to expungement only as set forth in subsection (f-1).

(f-1) Upon receipt of notification of a reversal of a conviction based on actual innocence, or of the granting of a pardon pursuant to Section 12 of Article V of the Illinois Constitution, if that pardon document specifically states that the reason for the pardon is the actual innocence of an individual whose DNA record has been stored in the State or national DNA identification index in accordance with this Section by the Illinois Department of State Police, the DNA record shall be expunged from the DNA identification index, and the Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any samples, analyses, or other documents relating to such record, whether in the possession of the Department or any law enforcement or police agency, or any forensic DNA laboratory, including any duplicates or copies thereof, are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed.

(f-5) Any person who intentionally uses genetic marker grouping analysis information, or any other information derived from a DNA sample, beyond the authorized uses as provided under this Section, or any other Illinois law, is guilty of a Class 4 felony, and shall be subject to a fine of not less than $5,000.

(f-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties for the purposes of implementing this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section. Any other party contracting to carry out the functions of this Section shall be subject to the same restrictions and requirements of this Section insofar as applicable, as the Illinois Department of State Police, and to any additional restrictions imposed by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "qualifying offense" means any of the following:

(1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-11, 11-18.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(1.1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 10-1, 10-2, 12-11, 12-11.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 19-1, or 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for which persons are convicted on or after July 1, 2001;

(2) any former statute of this State which defined a felony sexual offense;

(3) (blank);

(4) any inchoate violation of Section 9-3.1, 11-9.3, 12-7.3, or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(5) any violation or inchoate violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(g-5) (Blank).

(h) The Illinois Department of State Police shall be the State central repository for all genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act. The Illinois Department of State Police may promulgate rules for the form and manner of the collection of blood, saliva, or tissue samples and other procedures for the operation of this Act. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to all actions taken under the rules so promulgated.

(i) (1) A person required to provide a blood, saliva, or tissue specimen shall cooperate with the collection of the specimen and any deliberate act by that person intended to impede, delay or stop the collection of the blood, saliva, or tissue specimen is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) In the event that a person's DNA sample is not adequate for any reason, the person shall provide another DNA sample for analysis. Duly authorized law enforcement and corrections personnel may employ reasonable force in cases in which an individual refuses to provide a DNA sample required under this Act.

(j) Any person required by subsection (a) to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police for analysis and categorization into genetic marker grouping, in addition to any other disposition, penalty, or fine imposed, shall pay an analysis fee of $200. If the analysis fee is not paid at the time of sentencing, the court shall establish a fee schedule by which the entire amount of the analysis fee shall be paid in full, such schedule not to exceed 24 months from the time of conviction. The inability to pay this analysis fee shall not be the sole ground to incarcerate the person.

(k) All analysis and categorization fees provided for by subsection (j) shall be regulated as follows:

(1) The State Offender DNA Identification System Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(2) All fees shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund for deposit. The clerk of the circuit court may retain the amount of $10 from each collected analysis fee to offset administrative costs incurred in carrying out the clerk's responsibilities under this Section.

(3) Fees deposited into the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund shall be used by Illinois State Police crime laboratories as designated by the Director of State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing laws and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Costs incurred in providing analysis and genetic marker categorization as required by subsection (d).

(B) Costs incurred in maintaining genetic marker groupings as required by subsection (e).

(C) Costs incurred in the purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(D) Costs incurred in continuing research and development of new techniques for analysis and genetic marker categorization.

(E) Costs incurred in continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(l) The failure of a person to provide a specimen, or of any person or agency to collect a specimen, within the 45 day period shall in no way alter the obligation of the person to submit such specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police or persons designated by the Department to collect the specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police to accept, analyze and maintain the specimen or to maintain or upload results of genetic marker grouping analysis information into a State or national database.

(m) If any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is held unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, the remainder of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is not affected.

(n) Neither the Department of State Police, the Division of Forensic Services, nor any laboratory of the Division of Forensic Services may contract out forensic testing for the purpose of an active investigation or a matter pending before a court of competent jurisdiction without the written consent of the prosecuting agency. For the purposes of this subsection (n), "forensic testing" includes the analysis of physical evidence in an investigation or other proceeding for the prosecution of a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or for matters adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and includes the use of forensic databases and databanks, including DNA, firearm, and fingerprint databases, and expert testimony.

(Source: P.A. 96-426, eff. 8-13-09; 96-642, eff. 8-24-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-15)

Sec. 5-4.5-15. DISPOSITIONS.

(a) APPROPRIATE DISPOSITIONS. The following are appropriate dispositions, alone or in combination, for all felonies and misdemeanors other than as provided in Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) or as specifically provided in the statute defining the offense or elsewhere:

(1) A period of probation.

(2) A term of periodic imprisonment.

(3) A term of conditional discharge.

(4) A term of imprisonment.

(5) A fine.

(6) Restitution to the victim.

(7) Participation in an impact incarceration program.

(8) A term of imprisonment in combination with a term of probation when the offender has been admitted into a drug court program.

(9) If the defendant is convicted of arson, aggravated arson, residential arson, or place of worship arson, an order directing the offender to reimburse the local emergency response department for the costs of responding to the fire that the offender was convicted of setting in accordance with the Emergency Services Response Reimbursement for Criminal Convictions Act.

(b) FINE; RESTITUTION; NOT SOLE DISPOSITION. Neither a fine nor restitution shall be the sole disposition for a felony, and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition.

(c) PAROLE; MANDATORY SUPERVISED RELEASE. Except when a term of natural life is imposed, every sentence includes a term in addition to the term of imprisonment. For those sentenced under the law in effect before February 1, 1978, that term is a parole term. For those sentenced on or after February 1, 1978, that term is a mandatory supervised release term.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; incorporates P.A. 96-400, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-100)

Sec. 5-4.5-100. CALCULATION OF TERM OF IMPRISONMENT.

(a) COMMENCEMENT. A sentence of imprisonment shall commence on the date on which the offender is received by the Department or the institution at which the sentence is to be served.

(b) CREDIT; TIME IN CUSTODY; SAME CHARGE. Except as set forth in subsection (e), the The offender shall be given credit on the determinate sentence or maximum term and the minimum period of imprisonment for time spent in custody as a result of the offense for which the sentence was imposed, at the rate specified in Section 3-6-3 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-3). Except when prohibited by subsection (d), the trial court may give credit to the defendant for time spent in home detention, or when the defendant has been confined for psychiatric or substance abuse treatment prior to judgment, if the court finds that the detention or confinement was custodial.

(c) CREDIT; TIME IN CUSTODY; FORMER CHARGE. An offender arrested on one charge and prosecuted on another charge for conduct that occurred prior to his or her arrest shall be given credit on the determinate sentence or maximum term and the minimum term of imprisonment for time spent in custody under the former charge not credited against another sentence.

(d) NO CREDIT; SOME HOME DETENTION. An offender sentenced to a term of imprisonment for an offense listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) or in paragraph (3) of subsection (c-1) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-501) shall not receive credit for time spent in home detention prior to judgment.

(e) NO CREDIT; REVOCATION OF PAROLE, MANDATORY SUPERVISED RELEASE, OR PROBATION. An offender charged with the commission of an offense committed while on parole, mandatory supervised release, or probation shall not be given credit for time spent in custody under subsection (b) for that offense for any time spent in custody as a result of a revocation of parole, mandatory supervised release, or probation where such revocation is based on a sentence imposed for a previous conviction, regardless of the facts upon which the revocation of parole, mandatory supervised release, or probation is based, unless both the State and the defendant agree that the time served for a violation of mandatory supervised release, parole, or probation shall be credited towards the sentence for the current offense.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; incorporates 96-427, eff. 8-13-09; revised 9-15-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-6, 11-11, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person; or

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and possessed 100 or more images; or

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation; or .

(26) (25) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24.6-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-85, eff. 1-1-08; 95-362, eff. 1-1-08; 95-569, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-942, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 96-339)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-6, 11-11, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or the MR/DD Community Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person; or

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and possessed 100 or more images; or

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation; or .

(26) (25) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24.6-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-85, eff. 1-1-08; 95-362, eff. 1-1-08; 95-569, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-942, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 12-15; 26-5; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; subsections (b) and (c) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance who receives a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $29, to be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. In addition to the $29 fee, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, which, if not waived by the court, shall be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. The $29 fee shall be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If the $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(m) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $20, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (m) becomes inoperative 7 years after October 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-154).

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-154, eff. 10-13-07; 95-302, eff. 1-1-08; 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-377, eff. 1-1-08; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-428, 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-253, eff. 8-11-09; 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-1-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 16D-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(9) if convicted of a felony, physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter; and

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless: (1) the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay, under guidelines developed by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts; and (2) the circuit court has authorized, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, the creation of a Crime Victim's Services Fund, to be administered by the Chief Judge or his or her designee, for services to crime victims and their families. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-578, eff. 6-1-08; 95-696, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-695, eff. 8-25-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless: (1) the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay, under guidelines developed by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts; and (2) the circuit court has authorized, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, the creation of a Crime Victim's Services Fund, to be administered by the Chief Judge or his or her designee, for services to crime victims and their families. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) (s) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 16D-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 95-211, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-696, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; mandatory supervised release.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 are present, the court may sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment when the death penalty is not imposed if the defendant,

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is a person who, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 17 or more and is found guilty of murdering an individual under 12 years of age; or, irrespective of the defendant's age at the time of the commission of the offense, is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) is a person who, at the time of the commission of the murder, had not attained the age of 17, and is found guilty of murdering a person under 12 years of age and the murder is committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d) (i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person convicted under the circumstances described in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank.).

(c) (Blank.).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 3 years;

(2) for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 2 years;

(3) for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony, 1 year;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years.

(e) (Blank.).

(f) (Blank.).

(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-282, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-4-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-4)

Sec. 5-8-4. Concurrent and consecutive terms of imprisonment.

(a) Concurrent terms; multiple or additional sentences. When an Illinois court (i) imposes multiple sentences of imprisonment on a defendant at the same time or (ii) imposes a sentence of imprisonment on a defendant who is already subject to a sentence of imprisonment imposed by an Illinois court, a court of another state, or a federal court, then the sentences shall run concurrently unless otherwise determined by the Illinois court under this Section.

(b) Concurrent terms; misdemeanor and felony. A defendant serving a sentence for a misdemeanor who is convicted of a felony and sentenced to imprisonment shall be transferred to the Department of Corrections, and the misdemeanor sentence shall be merged in and run concurrently with the felony sentence.

(c) Consecutive terms; permissive. The court may impose consecutive sentences in any of the following circumstances:

(1) If, having regard to the nature and circumstances of the offense and the history and character of the defendant, it is the opinion of the court that consecutive sentences are required to protect the public from further criminal conduct by the defendant, the basis for which the court shall set forth in the record.

(2) If one of the offenses for which a defendant was convicted was a violation of Section 32-5.2 (aggravated false personation of a peace officer) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/32-5.2) and the offense was committed in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(d) Consecutive terms; mandatory. The court shall impose consecutive sentences in each of the following circumstances:

(1) One of the offenses for which the defendant was convicted was first degree murder or a Class X or Class 1 felony and the defendant inflicted severe bodily injury.

(2) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/12-13, 5/12-14, or 5/12-14.1).

(3) The defendant was convicted of armed violence based upon the predicate offense of any of the following: solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, heinous battery, aggravated battery of a senior citizen, criminal sexual assault, a violation of subsection (g) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act (720 ILCS 550/5), cannabis trafficking, a violation of subsection (a) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), controlled substance trafficking involving a Class X felony amount of controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/), calculated criminal drug conspiracy, or streetgang criminal drug conspiracy.

(4) The defendant was convicted of the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving death or personal injuries under Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-401) and either: (A) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-501), (B) reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/9-3), or (C) both an offense described in item (A) and an offense described in item (B).

(5) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 9-3.1 (concealment of homicidal death) or Section 12-20.5 (dismembering a human body) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/9-3.1 or 5/12-20.5). or

(5.5) The (vi) the defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 24-3.7 (use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense) of the Criminal Code of 1961. ,

(6) If the defendant was in the custody of the Department of Corrections at the time of the commission of the offense, the sentence shall be served consecutive to the sentence under which the defendant is held by the Department of Corrections. If, however, the defendant is sentenced to punishment by death, the sentence shall be executed at such time as the court may fix without regard to the sentence under which the defendant may be held by the Department.

(7) A sentence under Section 3-6-4 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-4) for escape or attempted escape shall be served consecutive to the terms under which the offender is held by the Department of Corrections.

(8) If a person charged with a felony commits a separate felony while on pretrial release or in pretrial detention in a county jail facility or county detention facility, then the sentences imposed upon conviction of these felonies shall be served consecutively regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(8.5) If a person commits a battery against a county correctional officer or sheriff's employee while serving a sentence or in pretrial detention in a county jail facility, then the sentence imposed upon conviction of the battery shall be served consecutively with the sentence imposed upon conviction of the earlier misdemeanor or felony, regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(9) If a person admitted to bail following conviction of a felony commits a separate felony while free on bond or if a person detained in a county jail facility or county detention facility following conviction of a felony commits a separate felony while in detention, then any sentence following conviction of the separate felony shall be consecutive to that of the original sentence for which the defendant was on bond or detained.

(10) If a person is found to be in possession of an item of contraband, as defined in clause (c)(2) of Section 31A-1.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, while serving a sentence in a county jail or while in pre-trial detention in a county jail, the sentence imposed upon conviction for the offense of possessing contraband in a penal institution shall be served consecutively to the sentence imposed for the offense in which the person is serving sentence in the county jail or serving pretrial detention, regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(e) Consecutive terms; subsequent non-Illinois term. If an Illinois court has imposed a sentence of imprisonment on a defendant and the defendant is subsequently sentenced to a term of imprisonment by a court of another state or a federal court, then the Illinois sentence shall run consecutively to the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court. That same Illinois court, however, may order that the Illinois sentence run concurrently with the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court, but only if the defendant applies to that same Illinois court within 30 days after the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court is finalized.

(f) Consecutive terms; aggregate maximums and minimums. The aggregate maximum and aggregate minimum of consecutive sentences shall be determined as follows:

(1) For sentences imposed under law in effect prior to February 1, 1978, the aggregate maximum of consecutive sentences shall not exceed the maximum term authorized under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved. The aggregate minimum period of consecutive sentences shall not exceed the highest minimum term authorized under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved. When sentenced only for misdemeanors, a defendant shall not be consecutively sentenced to more than the maximum for one Class A misdemeanor.

(2) For sentences imposed under the law in effect on or after February 1, 1978, the aggregate of consecutive sentences for offenses that were committed as part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective shall not exceed the sum of the maximum terms authorized under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) for the 2 most serious felonies involved, but no such limitation shall apply for offenses that were not committed as part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective. When sentenced only for misdemeanors, a defendant shall not be consecutively sentenced to more than the maximum for one Class A misdemeanor.

(g) Consecutive terms; manner served. In determining the manner in which consecutive sentences of imprisonment, one or more of which is for a felony, will be served, the Department of Corrections shall treat the defendant as though he or she had been committed for a single term subject to each of the following:

(1) The maximum period of a term of imprisonment shall consist of the aggregate of the maximums of the imposed indeterminate terms, if any, plus the aggregate of the imposed determinate sentences for felonies, plus the aggregate of the imposed determinate sentences for misdemeanors, subject to subsection (f) of this Section.

(2) The parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be as provided in paragraph (e) of Section 5-4.5-50 (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-50) for the most serious of the offenses involved.

(3) The minimum period of imprisonment shall be the aggregate of the minimum and determinate periods of imprisonment imposed by the court, subject to subsection (f) of this Section.

(4) The defendant shall be awarded credit against the aggregate maximum term and the aggregate minimum term of imprisonment for all time served in an institution since the commission of the offense or offenses and as a consequence thereof at the rate specified in Section 3-6-3 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-3).

(Source: P.A. 95-379, eff. 8-23-07; 95-766, eff. 1-1-09; 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; revised 8-20-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-8)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2012)

Sec. 5-8-8. Illinois Sentencing Policy Advisory Council.

(a) Creation. There is created under the jurisdiction of the Governor the Illinois Sentencing Policy Advisory Council, hereinafter referred to as the Council.

(b) Purposes and goals. The purpose of the Council is to review sentencing policies and practices and examine how these policies and practices impact the criminal justice system as a whole in the State of Illinois. In carrying out its duties, the Council shall be mindful of and aim to achieve the purposes of sentencing in Illinois, which are set out in Section 1-1-2 of this Code:

(1) prescribe sanctions proportionate to the seriousness of the offenses and permit the recognition of differences in rehabilitation possibilities among individual offenders;

(2) forbid and prevent the commission of offenses;

(3) prevent arbitrary or oppressive treatment of persons adjudicated offenders or delinquents; and

(4) restore offenders to useful citizenship.

(c) Council composition.

(1) The Council shall consist of the following members:

(A) the President of the Senate, or his or her designee;

(B) the Minority Leader of the Senate, or his or her designee;

(C) the Speaker of the House, or his or her designee;

(D) the Minority Leader of the House, or his or her designee;

(E) the Governor, or his or her designee;

(F) the Attorney General, or his or her designee;

(G) two retired judges, who may have been circuit, appellate or supreme court judges, selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(H) the Cook County State's Attorney, or his or her designee;

(I) the Cook County Public Defender, or his or her designee;

(J) a State's Attorney not from Cook County, appointed by the State's Attorney's Appellate Prosecutor;

(K) the State Appellate Defender, or his or her designee;

(L) the Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, or his or her designee;

(M) a victim of a violent felony or a representative of a crime victims' organization, selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(N) a representative of a community-based organization, selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(O) a criminal justice academic researcher, to be selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(P) a representative of law enforcement from a unit of local government to be selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(Q) a sheriff selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L); and

(R) ex-officio members shall include:

(i) the Director of Corrections, or his or her designee;

(ii) the Chair of the Prisoner Review Board, or his or her designee;

(iii) the Director of the Illinois State Police, or his or her designee;

(iv) the Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, or his or her designee; and

(v) the assistant Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, or his or her designee. ; and

(1.5) The (T) the Chair and Vice Chair shall be elected from among its members by a majority of the members of the Council.

(2) Members of the Council who serve because of their public office or position, or those who are designated as members by such officials, shall serve only as long as they hold such office or position.

(3) Council members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for travel and per diem expenses incurred in their work for the Council.

(4) The Council may exercise any power, perform any function, take any action, or do anything in furtherance of its purposes and goals upon the appointment of a quorum of its members. The term of office of each member of the Council ends on the date of repeal of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(d) Duties. The Council shall perform, as resources permit, duties including:

(1) Collect and analyze information including sentencing data, crime trends, and existing correctional resources to support legislative and executive action affecting the use of correctional resources on the State and local levels.

(2) Prepare criminal justice population projections annually, including correctional and community-based supervision populations.

(3) Analyze data relevant to proposed sentencing legislation and its effect on current policies or practices, and provide information to support evidence-based sentencing.

(4) Ensure that adequate resources and facilities are available for carrying out sentences imposed on offenders and that rational priorities are established for the use of those resources. To do so, the Council shall prepare criminal justice resource statements, identifying the fiscal and practical effects of proposed criminal sentencing legislation, including, but not limited to, the correctional population, court processes, and county or local government resources.

(5) Perform such other studies or tasks pertaining to sentencing policies as may be requested by the Governor or the Illinois General Assembly.

(6) Perform such other functions as may be required by law or as are necessary to carry out the purposes and goals of the Council prescribed in subsection (b).

(e) Authority.

(1) The Council shall have the power to perform the functions necessary to carry out its duties, purposes and goals under this Act. In so doing, the Council shall utilize information and analysis developed by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, and the Illinois Department of Corrections.

(2) Upon request from the Council, each executive agency and department of State and local government shall provide information and records to the Council in the execution of its duties.

(f) Report. The Council shall report in writing annually to the General Assembly and the Governor.

(g) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-711, eff. 8-25-09; revised 11-4-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.1-5)

Sec. 5-9-1.1-5. Methamphetamine related offenses.

(a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a methamphetamine related offense involving possession or delivery of methamphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or possession of a methamphetamine manufacturing material as set forth in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to manufacture a substance containing methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine, in addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine shall be levied by the court at not less than the full street value of the methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized.

"Street value" shall be determined by the court on the basis of testimony of law enforcement personnel and the defendant as to the amount seized and such testimony as may be required by the court as to the current street value of the methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized.

(b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) of this Section, a fine of $100 shall be levied by the court, the proceeds of which shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer under Section 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Methamphetamine Law Enforcement Fund and allocated as provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-9-1.2.

(c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) of this Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the court, the proceeds of which shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Police Services Fund and shall be used for grants by the Department of State Police to drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement Groups in accordance with the Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-200, eff. 8-10-09; 96-402, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.17)

Sec. 5-9-1.17. Additional fine to fund expungement of juvenile records.

(a) There shall be added to every penalty imposed in sentencing for a criminal offense an additional fine of $30 to be imposed upon a plea of guilty or finding of guilty resulting in a judgment of conviction.

(b) Ten dollars of each such additional fine shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Police Services Fund to be used to implement the expungement of juvenile records as provided in Section 5-622 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, $10 shall be paid to the State's Attorney's Office that prosecuted the criminal offense, and $10 shall be retained by the Circuit Clerk for administrative costs associated with the expungement of juvenile records and shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-707, eff. 1-1-10.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.18)

Sec. 5-9-1.18 5-9-1.17. Fee; Roadside Memorial Fund. A person who is convicted or receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall, in addition to any other disposition, penalty, or fine imposed, pay a fee of $50 which shall be collected by the clerk of the court and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund that is created in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-16-09.)

Section 625. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 15-1701 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/15-1701) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1701)

Sec. 15-1701. Right to possession.

(a) General. The provisions of this Article shall govern the right to possession of the mortgaged real estate during foreclosure. Possession under this Article includes physical possession of the mortgaged real estate to the same extent to which the mortgagor, absent the foreclosure, would have been entitled to physical possession. For the purposes of Part 17, real estate is residential real estate only if it is residential real estate at the time the foreclosure is commenced.

(b) Pre-Judgment. Prior to the entry of a judgment of foreclosure:

(1) In the case of residential real estate, the mortgagor shall be entitled to possession of the real estate except if (i) the mortgagee shall object and show good cause, (ii) the mortgagee is so authorized by the terms of the mortgage or other written instrument, and (iii) the court is satisfied that there is a reasonable probability that the mortgagee will prevail on a final hearing of the cause, the court shall upon request place the mortgagee in possession. If the residential real estate consists of more than one dwelling unit, then for the purpose of this Part residential real estate shall mean only that dwelling unit or units occupied by persons described in clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of Section 15-1219.

(2) In all other cases, if (i) the mortgagee is so authorized by the terms of the mortgage or other written instrument, and (ii) the court is satisfied that there is a reasonable probability that the mortgagee will prevail on a final hearing of the cause, the mortgagee shall upon request be placed in possession of the real estate, except that if the mortgagor shall object and show good cause, the court shall allow the mortgagor to remain in possession.

(c) Judgment Through 30 Days After Sale Confirmation. After the entry of a judgment of foreclosure and through the 30th day after a foreclosure sale is confirmed:

(1) Subsection (b) of Section 15-1701 shall be applicable, regardless of the provisions of the mortgage or other instrument, except that after a sale pursuant to the judgment the holder of the certificate of sale (or, if none, the purchaser at the sale) shall have the mortgagee's right to be placed in possession, with all rights and duties of a mortgagee in possession under this Article.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subsection (b) and paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 15-1701, upon request of the mortgagee, a mortgagor of residential real estate shall not be allowed to remain in possession between the expiration of the redemption period and through the 30th day after sale confirmation unless (i) the mortgagor pays to the mortgagee or such holder or purchaser, whichever is applicable, monthly the lesser of the interest due under the mortgage calculated at the mortgage rate of interest applicable as if no default had occurred or the fair rental value of the real estate, or (ii) the mortgagor otherwise shows good cause. Any amounts paid by the mortgagor pursuant to this subsection shall be credited against the amounts due from the mortgagor.

(d) After 30 Days After Sale Confirmation. The holder of the certificate of sale or deed issued pursuant to that certificate or, if no certificate or deed was issued, the purchaser, except to the extent the holder or purchaser may consent otherwise, shall be entitled to possession of the mortgaged real estate, as of the date 30 days after the order confirming the sale is entered, against those parties to the foreclosure whose interests the court has ordered terminated, without further notice to any party, further order of the court, or resort to proceedings under any other statute other than this Article. This right to possession shall be limited by the provisions governing entering and enforcing orders of possession under subsection (g) of Section 15-1508. If the holder or purchaser determines that there are occupants of the mortgaged real estate who have not been made parties to the foreclosure and had their interests terminated therein, the holder or purchaser may bring a proceeding under subsection (h) of this Section or under Article 9 of this Code to terminate the rights of possession of any such occupants. The holder or purchaser shall not be entitled to proceed against any such occupant under Article 9 of this Code until after 30 days after the order confirming the sale is entered.

(e) Termination of Leases. A lease of all or any part of the mortgaged real estate shall not be terminated automatically solely by virtue of the entry into possession by (i) a mortgagee or receiver prior to the entry of an order confirming the sale, (ii) the holder of the certificate of sale, (iii) the holder of the deed issued pursuant to that certificate, or (iv) if no certificate or deed was issued, the purchaser at the sale.

(f) Other Statutes; Instruments. The provisions of this Article providing for possession of mortgaged real estate shall supersede any other inconsistent statutory provisions. In particular, and without limitation, whenever a receiver is sought to be appointed in any action in which a foreclosure is also pending, a receiver shall be appointed only in accordance with this Article. Except as may be authorized by this Article, no mortgage or other instrument may modify or supersede the provisions of this Article.

(g) Certain Leases. Leases of the mortgaged real estate entered into by a mortgagee in possession or a receiver and approved by the court in a foreclosure shall be binding on all parties, including the mortgagor after redemption, the purchaser at a sale pursuant to a judgment of foreclosure and any person acquiring an interest in the mortgaged real estate after entry of a judgment of foreclosure in accordance with Sections 15-1402 and 15-1403.

(h) Proceedings Against Certain Occupants.

(1) The mortgagee-in-possession of the mortgaged real estate under Section 15-1703, a receiver appointed under Section 15-1704, a holder of the certificate of sale or deed, or the purchaser may, at any time during the pendency of the foreclosure and up to 90 days after the date of the order confirming the sale, file a supplemental petition for possession against a person not personally named as a party to the foreclosure. The supplemental petition for possession shall name each such occupant against whom possession is sought and state the facts upon which the claim for relief is premised.

(2) The petitioner shall serve upon each named occupant the petition, a notice of hearing on the petition, and, if any, a copy of the certificate of sale or deed. The proceeding for the termination of such occupant's possessory interest, including service of the notice of the hearing and the petition, shall in all respects comport with the requirements of Article 9 of this Code, except as otherwise specified in this Section. The hearing shall be no less than 21 days from the date of service of the notice.

(3) The supplemental petition shall be heard as part of the foreclosure proceeding and without the payment of additional filing fees. An order for possession obtained under this Section shall name each occupant whose interest has been terminated, shall recite that it is only effective as to the occupant so named and those holding under them, and shall be enforceable for no more than 120 days after its entry, except that the 120-day period may be extended to the extent and in the manner provided in Section 9-117 of Article 9 and except as provided in item (4) of this subsection (h).

(4) In a case of foreclosure where the occupant is current on his or her rent, or where timely written notice of to whom and where the rent is to be paid has not been provided to the occupant, or where the occupant has made good-faith efforts to make rental payments in order to keep current, any order of possession must allow the occupant to retain possession of the property covered in his or her rental agreement (i) for 120 days following the notice of the hearing on the supplemental petition that has been properly served upon the occupant, or (ii) through the duration of his or her lease, whichever is shorter, provided that if the duration of his or her lease is less than 30 days from the date of the order, the order shall allow the occupant to retain possession for 30 days from the date of the order. A mortgagee in possession, receiver, holder of a certificate of sale or deed, or purchaser at the judicial sale, who asserts that the occupant is not current in rent, shall file an affidavit to that effect in the supplemental petition proceeding. If the occupant has been given timely written notice of to whom and where the rent is to be paid, this item (4) shall only apply if the occupant continues to pay his or her rent in full during the 120-day period or has made good-faith efforts to pay the rent in full during that period. No mortgagee-in-possession, receiver or holder of a certificate of sale or deed, or purchaser who fails to file a supplemental petition under this subsection during the pendency of a mortgage foreclosure shall file a forcible entry and detainer action against an occupant of the mortgaged real estate until 90 days after a notice of intent to file such action has been properly served upon the occupant.

(5) The court records relating to a supplemental petition for possession filed under this subsection (h) against an occupant who is entitled to notice under item (4) of this subsection (h), or relating to a forcible entry and detainer action brought against an occupant who would have lawful possession of the premises but for the foreclosure of a mortgage on the property, shall be ordered sealed and shall not be disclosed to any person, other than a law enforcement officer or any other representative of a governmental entity, except upon further order of the court.

(Source: P.A. 95-262, eff. 1-1-08; 95-933, eff. 8-26-08; 96-60, eff. 7-23-09; 96-111, eff. 10-29-09; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 630. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing Section 15-5-15 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-15)

Sec. 15-5-15. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 70 through 75. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(70 ILCS 5/8.02 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for public airport facilities.

(70 ILCS 5/8.05 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 5/8.06 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport authorities; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 10/4); Interstate Airport Authorities Act; interstate airport authorities; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 15/3); Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority Act; Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority; for acquisition of land for airports.

(70 ILCS 200/2-20); Civic Center Code; civic center authorities; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/5-35); Civic Center Code; Aledo Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/10-15); Civic Center Code; Aurora Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/15-40); Civic Center Code; Benton Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/20-15); Civic Center Code; Bloomington Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/35-35); Civic Center Code; Brownstown Park District Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/40-35); Civic Center Code; Carbondale Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/55-60); Civic Center Code; Chicago South Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/60-30); Civic Center Code; Collinsville Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/70-35); Civic Center Code; Crystal Lake Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/75-20); Civic Center Code; Decatur Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/80-15); Civic Center Code; DuPage County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/85-35); Civic Center Code; Elgin Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/95-25); Civic Center Code; Herrin Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/110-35); Civic Center Code; Illinois Valley Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/115-35); Civic Center Code; Jasper County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/120-25); Civic Center Code; Jefferson County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/125-15); Civic Center Code; Jo Daviess County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/130-30); Civic Center Code; Katherine Dunham Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/145-35); Civic Center Code; Marengo Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/150-35); Civic Center Code; Mason County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/155-15); Civic Center Code; Matteson Metropolitan Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/160-35); Civic Center Code; Maywood Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/165-35); Civic Center Code; Melrose Park Metropolitan Exposition Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/170-20); Civic Center Code; certain Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authorities; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 200/180-35); Civic Center Code; Normal Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/185-15); Civic Center Code; Oak Park Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/195-35); Civic Center Code; Ottawa Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/200-15); Civic Center Code; Pekin Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/205-15); Civic Center Code; Peoria Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/210-35); Civic Center Code; Pontiac Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/215-15); Civic Center Code; Illinois Quad City Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/220-30); Civic Center Code; Quincy Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/225-35); Civic Center Code; Randolph County Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/230-35); Civic Center Code; River Forest Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/235-40); Civic Center Code; Riverside Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/245-35); Civic Center Code; Salem Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/255-20); Civic Center Code; Springfield Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for grounds, centers, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/260-35); Civic Center Code; Sterling Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/265-20); Civic Center Code; Vermilion County Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/270-35); Civic Center Code; Waukegan Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/275-35); Civic Center Code; West Frankfort Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

(70 ILCS 200/280-20); Civic Center Code; Will County Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for grounds, centers, and parking.

(70 ILCS 210/5); Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act; Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(70 ILCS 405/22.04); Soil and Water Conservation Districts Act; soil and water conservation districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 410/10 and 410/12); Conservation District Act; conservation districts; for open space, wildland, scenic roadway, pathway, outdoor recreation, or other conservation benefits.

(70 ILCS 503/25); Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission Act; Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 507/15); Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission Act; Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission; for general purposes or to carry out comprehensive or redevelopment plans.

(70 ILCS 520/8); Southwestern Illinois Development Authority Act; Southwestern Illinois Development Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(70 ILCS 605/4-17 and 605/5-7); Illinois Drainage Code; drainage districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 615/5 and 615/6); Chicago Drainage District Act; corporate authorities; for construction and maintenance of works.

(70 ILCS 705/10); Fire Protection District Act; fire protection districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 750/20); Flood Prevention District Act; flood prevention districts; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 805/6); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act; certain forest preserve districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 805/18.8); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act; certain forest preserve districts; for recreational and cultural facilities.

(70 ILCS 810/8); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act; Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 810/38); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act; Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for recreational facilities.

(70 ILCS 910/15 and 910/16); Hospital District Law; hospital districts; for hospitals or hospital facilities.

(70 ILCS 915/3); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois Medical District Commission; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 915/4.5); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois Medical District Commission; quick-take power for the Illinois State Police Forensic Science Laboratory (obsolete).

(70 ILCS 920/5); Tuberculosis Sanitarium District Act; tuberculosis sanitarium districts; for tuberculosis sanitariums.

(70 ILCS 925/20); Mid-Illinois Medical District Act; Mid-Illinois Medical District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 930/20); Mid-America Medical District Act; Mid-America Medical District Commission; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1005/7); Mosquito Abatement District Act; mosquito abatement districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1105/8); Museum District Act; museum districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1205/7-1); Park District Code; park districts; for streets and other purposes.

(70 ILCS 1205/8-1); Park District Code; park districts; for parks.

(70 ILCS 1205/9-2 and 1205/9-4); Park District Code; park districts; for airports and landing fields.

(70 ILCS 1205/11-2 and 1205/11-3); Park District Code; park districts; for State land abutting public water and certain access rights.

(70 ILCS 1205/11.1-3); Park District Code; park districts; for harbors.

(70 ILCS 1225/2); Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act; park districts; for street widening.

(70 ILCS 1230/1 and 1230/1-a); Park Commissioners Water Control Act; park districts; for parks, boulevards, driveways, parkways, viaducts, bridges, or tunnels.

(70 ILCS 1250/2); Park Commissioners Street Control (1889) Act; park districts; for boulevards or driveways.

(70 ILCS 1290/1); Park District Aquarium and Museum Act; municipalities or park districts; for aquariums or museums.

(70 ILCS 1305/2); Park District Airport Zoning Act; park districts; for restriction of the height of structures.

(70 ILCS 1310/5); Park District Elevated Highway Act; park districts; for elevated highways.

(70 ILCS 1505/15); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for parks and other purposes.

(70 ILCS 1505/25.1); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for parking lots or garages.

(70 ILCS 1505/26.3); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park District; for harbors.

(70 ILCS 1570/5); Lincoln Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act; Lincoln Park Commissioners; for land and interests in land, including riparian rights.

(70 ILCS 1805/8); Havana Regional Port District Act; Havana Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1810/7); Illinois International Port District Act; Illinois International Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1815/13); Illinois Valley Regional Port District Act; Illinois Valley Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1820/4); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1820/5); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.9); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.10); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1825/4.18); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports and terminals.

(70 ILCS 1825/5); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1830/7.1); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act; Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports and terminals.

(70 ILCS 1830/14); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act; Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1831/30); Massac-Metropolis Port District Act; Massac-Metropolis Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1835/5.10); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1835/5.11); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1835/6); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt. Carmel Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1845/4.9); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1845/4.10); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1845/5); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1850/4); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act; Shawneetown Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1850/5); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act; Shawneetown Regional Port District; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1855/4); Southwest Regional Port District Act; Southwest Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1855/5); Southwest Regional Port District Act; Southwest Regional Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1860/4); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1860/5); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City Regional Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1863/11); Upper Mississippi River International Port District Act; Upper Mississippi River International Port District; for general purposes. (70 ILCS 1865/4.9); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for removal of airport hazards.

(70 ILCS 1865/4.10); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for restricting the height of objects or structures.

(70 ILCS 1865/5); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1870/8); White County Port District Act; White County Port District; for the development of facilities.

(70 ILCS 1905/16); Railroad Terminal Authority Act; Railroad Terminal Authority (Chicago); for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 1915/25); Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority Act; Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority; for general purposes, including quick-take power (now obsolete).

(70 ILCS 2105/9b); River Conservancy Districts Act; river conservancy districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 2105/10a); River Conservancy Districts Act; river conservancy districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2205/15); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2205/18); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for improvements and works.

(70 ILCS 2205/19); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary districts; for access to property.

(70 ILCS 2305/8); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North Shore Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2305/15); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North Shore Sanitary District; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2405/7.9); Sanitary District Act of 1917; Sanitary District of Decatur; for carrying out agreements to sell, convey, or disburse treated wastewater to a private entity. (70 ILCS 2405/8); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2405/15); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2405/16.9 and 2405/16.10); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 2405/17.2); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for public sewer and water utility treatment works.

(70 ILCS 2405/18); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water flow.

(70 ILCS 2605/8); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2605/16); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; quick-take power for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2605/17); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for bridges.

(70 ILCS 2605/35); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for widening and deepening a navigable stream.

(70 ILCS 2805/10); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2805/24); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for improvements.

(70 ILCS 2805/26i and 2805/26j); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for drainage systems.

(70 ILCS 2805/27); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water flow.

(70 ILCS 2805/32k); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for water supply.

(70 ILCS 2805/32l); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 2905/2-7); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974; Metro-East Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 2905/2-8); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974; Metro-East Sanitary District; for access to property.

(70 ILCS 3010/10); Sanitary District Revenue Bond Act; sanitary districts; for sewerage systems.

(70 ILCS 3205/12); Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act; Illinois Sports Facilities Authority; quick-take power for its corporate purposes (obsolete).

(70 ILCS 3405/16); Surface Water Protection District Act; surface water protection districts; for corporate purposes.

(70 ILCS 3605/7); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for transportation systems.

(70 ILCS 3605/8); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3605/10); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago Transit Authority; for general purposes, including railroad property.

(70 ILCS 3610/3 and 3610/5); Local Mass Transit District Act; local mass transit districts; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3615/2.13); Regional Transportation Authority Act; Regional Transportation Authority; for general purposes.

(70 ILCS 3705/8 and 3705/12); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for waterworks.

(70 ILCS 3705/23a); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for sewerage properties.

(70 ILCS 3705/23e); Public Water District Act; public water districts; for combined waterworks and sewerage systems.

(70 ILCS 3715/6); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for facilities to ensure adequate water supply.

(70 ILCS 3715/27); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for access to property.

(75 ILCS 5/4-7); Illinois Local Library Act; boards of library trustees; for library buildings.

(75 ILCS 16/30-55.80); Public Library District Act of 1991; public library districts; for general purposes.

(75 ILCS 65/1 and 65/3); Libraries in Parks Act; corporate authorities of city or park district, or board of park commissioners; for free public library buildings.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1109, eff. 2-23-07; 95-693, eff. 11-5-07; incorporates 96-838, eff. 12-16-09; revised 1-4-10.)

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-45 rep.)

Section 632. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by repealing Section 15-5-45.

Section 635. The Illinois Antitrust Act is amended by changing Section 7.2 as follows:

(740 ILCS 10/7.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 60-7.2)

Sec. 7.2. (1) Whenever it appears to the Attorney General that any person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is about to engage in any act or practice prohibited by this Act, or that any person has assisted or participated in any agreement or combination of the nature described herein, he may, in his discretion, conduct an investigation as he deems necessary in connection with the matter and has the authority prior to the commencement of any civil or criminal action as provided for in the Act to subpoena witnesses, and pursuant to a subpoena (i) compel their attendance for the purpose of examining them under oath, (ii) require the production of any books, documents, records, writings or tangible things hereafter referred to as "documentary material" which the Attorney General deems relevant or material to his investigation, for inspection, reproducing or copying under such terms and conditions as hereafter set forth, (iii) require written answers under oath to written interrogatories, or (iv) require compliance with a combination of the foregoing. Any subpoena issued by the Attorney General shall contain the following information:

(a) The statute and section thereof, the alleged violation of which is under investigation and the general subject matter of the investigation.

(b) The date and place at which time the person is required to appear or produce documentary material in his possession, custody or control or submit answers to interrogatories in the office of the Attorney General located in Springfield or Chicago. Said date shall not be less than 10 days from date of service of the subpoena.

(c) Where documentary material is required to be produced, the same shall be described by class so as to clearly indicate the material demanded.

The Attorney General is hereby authorized, and may so elect, to require the production, pursuant to this section, of documentary material or interrogatory answers prior to the taking of any testimony of the person subpoenaed. Said documentary material shall be made available for inspection and copying during normal business hours at the principal place of business of the person served, or at such other time and place, as may be agreed upon by the person served and the Attorney General. When documentary material is demanded by subpoena, said subpoena shall not:

(i) contain any requirement which would be unreasonable or improper if contained in a subpoena duces tecum issued by a court of this State; or

(ii) require the disclosure of any documentary material which would be privileged, or which for any other reason would not be required by a subpoena duces tecum issued by a court of this State.

(2) (d) The production of documentary material in response to a subpoena served pursuant to this Section shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the subpoena designates, by the person, if a natural person, to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by a person or persons having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the documentary material required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the demand is directed has been produced and made available to the custodian. Answers to interrogatories shall be accompanied by a statement under oath attesting to the accuracy of the answers.

While in the possession of the Attorney General and under such reasonable terms and conditions as the Attorney General shall prescribe: (A) documentary material shall be available for examination by the person who produced such material or by any duly authorized representative of such person, (B) transcript of oral testimony shall be available for examination by the person who produced such testimony, or his or her counsel and (C) answers to interrogatories shall be available for examination by the person who swore to their accuracy.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no documentary material, transcripts of oral testimony, or answers to interrogatories, or copies thereof, in the possession of the Attorney General shall be available for examination by any individual other than an authorized employee of the Attorney General or other law enforcement officials, federal, State, or local, without the consent of the person who produced such material, transcripts, or interrogatory answers.

For purposes of this Section, all documentary materials, transcripts of oral testimony, or answers to interrogatories obtained by the Attorney General from other law enforcement officials shall be treated as if produced pursuant to a subpoena served pursuant to this Section for purposes of maintaining the confidentiality of such information.

(3) (e) No person shall, with intent to avoid, evade, prevent, or obstruct compliance in whole or in part by any person with any duly served subpoena of the Attorney General under this Act, knowingly remove from any place, conceal, withhold, destroy, mutilate, alter, or by any other means falsify any documentary material that is the subject of such subpoena. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor. The Attorney General, with such assistance as he may from time to time require of the State's Attorneys in the several counties, shall investigate suspected violations of this subsection and shall commence and try all prosecutions under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 96-751, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 640. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 13-3.1 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/13-3.1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 13-3.1)

Sec. 13-3.1. (a) Compensation of public guardian.)

(a) In counties having a population in excess of 1,000,000 the public guardian shall be paid an annual salary, to be set by the County Board at a figure not to exceed the salary of the public defender for the county. All expenses connected with the operation of the office shall be subject to the approval of the County Board and shall be paid from the county treasury. All fees collected shall be paid into the county treasury.

(b) In counties having a population of 1,000,000 or less the public guardian shall receive all the fees of his office and bear the expenses connected with the operation of the office. A public guardian shall be entitled to reasonable and appropriate compensation for services related to guardianship duties but all fees must be reviewed and approved by the court. A public guardian may petition the court for the payment of reasonable and appropriate fees. In counties having a population of 1,000,000 or less, the public guardian shall do so on not less than a yearly basis, or sooner as approved by the court. Any fees or expenses charged by a public guardian shall be documented through billings and maintained by the guardian and supplied to the court for review. In considering the reasonableness of any fee petition brought by a public guardian under this Section, the court shall consider the following:

(1) the powers and duties assigned to the public guardian by the court;

(2) the necessity of any services provided;

(3) the time required, the degree of difficulty, and the experience needed to complete the task;

(4) the needs of the ward and the costs of alternatives; and

(5) other facts and circumstances material to the best interests of the ward or his or her estate.

(c) When the public guardian is appointed as the temporary guardian of a disabled adult pursuant to an emergency petition under circumstances when the court finds that the immediate establishment of a temporary guardianship is necessary to protect the disabled adult's health, welfare, or estate, the public guardian shall be entitled to reasonable and appropriate fees, as determined by the court, for the period of the temporary guardianship, including fees directly associated with establishing the temporary guardianship.

(Source: P.A. 96-752, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 645. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(755 ILCS 40/15) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 851-15)

Sec. 15. Applicability. This Act applies to patients who lack decisional capacity or who have a qualifying condition. This Act does not apply to instances in which the patient has an operative and unrevoked living will under the Illinois Living Will Act, an operative and unrevoked declaration for mental health treatment under the Mental Health Treatment Preferences Declaration Act, or an authorized agent under a power of attorney for health care under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act and the patient's condition falls within the coverage of the living will, the declaration for mental health treatment, or the power of attorney for health care. In those instances, the living will, declaration for mental health treatment, or power of attorney for health care, as the case may be, shall be given effect according to its terms. This Act does apply in circumstances in which a patient has a qualifying condition but the patient's condition does not fall within the coverage of the living will, the declaration for mental health treatment, or the power of attorney for health care.

Each health care facility shall maintain any advance directives proffered by the patient or other authorized person, including a do not resuscitate order, a living will, a declaration for mental health treatment, a declaration of a potential surrogate or surrogates should the person become incapacitated or impaired, or a power of attorney for health care, in the patient's medical records. This Act does apply to patients without a qualifying condition. If a patient is an adult with decisional capacity, then the right to refuse medical treatment or life-sustaining treatment does not require the presence of a qualifying condition.

(Source: P.A. 96-448, eff. 1-1-10; 96-492, eff. 8-14-09; revised 9-4-09.)

Section 650. The Real Estate Timeshare Act of 1999 is amended by changing Section 10-10 as follows:

(765 ILCS 101/10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Cancellation of purchase contract. Any purchase contract entered into by a purchaser of a time share interest under this Act shall be voidable by the purchaser, without penalty, within 5 calendar days after the receipt of the public offering statement or the execution of the purchase contract, whichever is later. The purchase contract shall provide notice of the 5-day cancellation period, together with the name and mailing address to which any notice of cancellation shall be delivered. Notice of cancellation shall be deemed timely if the notice is deposited with the United States Postal Service not later than midnight of the fifth calendar day.

Upon such cancellation, the developer or resale agent shall refund to the purchaser all payments made by the purchaser, less the amount of any benefits actually received pursuant to the purchase contract. The refund shall be made within 20 calendar days after the receipt of the notice of cancellation, or receipt of funds from the purchaser's cleared check, whichever occurs later.

If a purchaser elects to cancel a purchase contract pursuant to this Section, the purchaser may do so by hand delivering a written notice of cancellation or by mailing a notice of cancellation by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the developer or resale agent ent, as applicable, at an address set forth in the purchase contract.

(Source: P.A. 91-585, eff. 1-1-00; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 655. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 18.4 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/18.4) (from Ch. 30, par. 318.4)

Sec. 18.4. Powers and Duties of Board of Managers. The board of managers shall exercise for the association all powers, duties and authority vested in the association by law or the condominium instruments except for such powers, duties and authority reserved by law to the members of the association. The powers and duties of the board of managers shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) To provide for the operation, care, upkeep, maintenance, replacement and improvement of the common elements. Nothing in this subsection (a) shall be deemed to invalidate any provision in a condominium instrument placing limits on expenditures for the common elements, provided, that such limits shall not be applicable to expenditures for repair, replacement, or restoration of existing portions of the common elements. The term "repair, replacement or restoration" means expenditures to deteriorated or damaged portions of the property related to the existing decorating, facilities, or structural or mechanical components, interior or exterior surfaces, or energy systems and equipment with the functional equivalent of the original portions of such areas. Replacement of the common elements may result in an improvement over the original quality of such elements or facilities; provided that, unless the improvement is mandated by law or is an emergency as defined in item (iv) of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of Section 18, if the improvement results in a proposed expenditure exceeding 5% of the annual budget, the board of managers, upon written petition by unit owners with 20% of the votes of the association delivered to the board within 14 days of the board action to approve the expenditure, shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the date of delivery of the petition to consider the expenditure. Unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the expenditure, it is ratified.

(b) To prepare, adopt and distribute the annual budget for the property.

(c) To levy and expend assessments.

(d) To collect assessments from unit owners.

(e) To provide for the employment and dismissal of the personnel necessary or advisable for the maintenance and operation of the common elements.

(f) To obtain adequate and appropriate kinds of insurance.

(g) To own, convey, encumber, lease, and otherwise deal with units conveyed to or purchased by it.

(h) To adopt and amend rules and regulations covering the details of the operation and use of the property, after a meeting of the unit owners called for the specific purpose of discussing the proposed rules and regulations. Notice of the meeting shall contain the full text of the proposed rules and regulations, and the meeting shall conform to the requirements of Section 18(b) of this Act, except that no quorum is required at the meeting of the unit owners unless the declaration, bylaws or other condominium instrument expressly provides to the contrary. However, no rule or regulation may impair any rights guaranteed by the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States or Section 4 of Article I of the Illinois Constitution including, but not limited to, the free exercise of religion, nor may any rules or regulations conflict with the provisions of this Act or the condominium instruments. No rule or regulation shall prohibit any reasonable accommodation for religious practices, including the attachment of religiously mandated objects to the front-door area of a condominium unit.

(i) To keep detailed, accurate records of the receipts and expenditures affecting the use and operation of the property.

(j) To have access to each unit from time to time as may be necessary for the maintenance, repair or replacement of any common elements or for making emergency repairs necessary to prevent damage to the common elements or to other units.

(k) To pay real property taxes, special assessments, and any other special taxes or charges of the State of Illinois or of any political subdivision thereof, or other lawful taxing or assessing body, which are authorized by law to be assessed and levied upon the real property of the condominium.

(l) To impose charges for late payment of a unit owner's proportionate share of the common expenses, or any other expenses lawfully agreed upon, and after notice and an opportunity to be heard, to levy reasonable fines for violation of the declaration, by-laws, and rules and regulations of the association.

(m) Unless the condominium instruments expressly provide to the contrary, by a majority vote of the entire board of managers, to assign the right of the association to future income from common expenses or other sources, and to mortgage or pledge substantially all of the remaining assets of the association.

(n) To record the dedication of a portion of the common elements to a public body for use as, or in connection with, a street or utility where authorized by the unit owners under the provisions of Section 14.2.

(o) To record the granting of an easement for the laying of cable television cable where authorized by the unit owners under the provisions of Section 14.3; to obtain, if available and determined by the board to be in the best interests of the association, cable television service for all of the units of the condominium on a bulk identical service and equal cost per unit basis; and to assess and recover the expense as a common expense and, if so determined by the board, to assess each and every unit on the same equal cost per unit basis.

(p) To seek relief on behalf of all unit owners when authorized pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 10 from or in connection with the assessment or levying of real property taxes, special assessments, and any other special taxes or charges changes of the State of Illinois or of any political subdivision thereof or of any lawful taxing or assessing body.

(q) To reasonably accommodate the needs of a handicapped unit owner as required by the federal Civil Rights Act of 1968, the Human Rights Act and any applicable local ordinances in the exercise of its powers with respect to the use of common elements or approval of modifications in an individual unit.

(r) To accept service of a notice of claim for purposes of the Mechanics Lien Act on behalf of each respective member of the Unit Owners' Association with respect to improvements performed pursuant to any contract entered into by the Board of Managers or any contract entered into prior to the recording of the condominium declaration pursuant to this Act, for a property containing more than 8 units, and to distribute the notice to the unit owners within 7 days of the acceptance of the service by the Board of Managers. The service shall be effective as if each individual unit owner had been served individually with notice.

In the performance of their duties, the officers and members of the board, whether appointed by the developer or elected by the unit owners, shall exercise the care required of a fiduciary of the unit owners.

The collection of assessments from unit owners by an association, board of managers or their duly authorized agents shall not be considered acts constituting a collection agency for purposes of the Collection Agency Act.

The provisions of this Section are applicable to all condominium instruments recorded under this Act. Any portion of a condominium instrument which contains provisions contrary to these provisions shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any such instrument that fails to contain the provisions required by this Section shall be deemed to incorporate such provisions by operation of law.

(Source: P.A. 94-384, eff. 1-1-06; 94-729, eff. 1-1-07; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 660. The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1025/18) (from Ch. 141, par. 118)

Sec. 18. Deposit of funds received under the Act.

(a) The State Treasurer shall retain all funds received under this Act, including the proceeds from the sale of abandoned property under Section 17, in a trust fund. The State Treasurer may deposit any amount in the Trust Fund into the State Pensions Fund during the fiscal year at his or her discretion; however, he or she shall, on April 15 and October 15 of each year, deposit any amount in the trust fund exceeding $2,500,000 into the State Pensions Fund. All amounts in excess of $2,500,000 that are deposited into the State Pensions Pension Fund from the unclaimed Property Trust Fund shall be apportioned to the designated retirement systems as provided in subsection (c-6) of Section 8.12 of the State state Finance Act to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. He or she shall make prompt payment of claims he or she duly allows as provided for in this Act for the trust fund. Before making the deposit the State Treasurer shall record the name and last known address of each person appearing from the holders' reports to be entitled to the abandoned property. The record shall be available for public inspection during reasonable business hours.

(b) Before making any deposit to the credit of the State Pensions Fund, the State Treasurer may deduct: (1) any costs in connection with sale of abandoned property, (2) any costs of mailing and publication in connection with any abandoned property, and (3) any costs in connection with the maintenance of records or disposition of claims made pursuant to this Act. The State Treasurer shall semiannually file an itemized report of all such expenses with the Legislative Audit Commission.

(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 665. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 104.05, 107.50, and 112.50 as follows:

(805 ILCS 105/104.05) (from Ch. 32, par. 104.05)

Sec. 104.05. Corporate name of domestic or foreign corporation.

(a) The corporate name of a domestic corporation or of a foreign corporation organized, existing or subject to the provisions of this Act:

(1) May contain, separate and apart from any other word or abbreviation in such name, the word "corporation," "company," "incorporated," or "limited," or an abbreviation of one of such words;

(2) Must end with the letters "NFP" if the corporate name contains any word or phrase which indicates or implies that the corporation is organized for any purpose other than a purpose for which corporations may be organized under this Act or a purpose other than a purpose set forth in the corporation's articles of incorporation;

(3) Shall be distinguishable upon the records in the office of the Secretary of State from the name or assumed name of any domestic corporation or limited liability company organized under the Limited Liability Company Act, whether for profit or not for profit, existing under any Act of this State or the name or assumed name of any foreign corporation or foreign limited liability company registered under the Limited Liability Company Act, whether for profit or not for profit, authorized to transact business or conduct affairs in this State, or a name the exclusive right to which is, at the time, reserved or registered in the manner provided in this Act or Section 1-15 of the Limited Liability Company Act, except that, subject to the discretion of the Secretary of State, a foreign corporation that has a name prohibited by this paragraph may be granted authority to conduct its affairs in this State, if the foreign corporation:

(i) Elects to adopt an assumed corporation name or names in accordance with Section 104.15 of this Act; and

(ii) Agrees in its application for authority to conduct affairs in this State only under such assumed corporate name or names;

(4) Shall not contain a word or phrase, or an abbreviation or derivation thereof, the use of which is prohibited or restricted by any other statute of this State unless such restriction has been complied with;

(5) Shall consist of letters of the English alphabet, Arabic or Roman numerals, or symbols capable of being readily reproduced by the office of the Secretary of State;

(6) Shall not contain the words "regular democrat," "regular democratic," "regular republican," "democrat," "democratic," or "republican," nor the name of any other established political party, unless consent to usage of such words or name is given to the corporation by the State central committee of such established political party; notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, any corporation, whose name at the time this amendatory Act takes effect contains any of the words listed in this paragraph shall certify to the Secretary of State no later than January 1, 1989, that consent has been given by the State central committee; consent given to a corporation by the State central committee to use the above listed words may be revoked upon notification to the corporation and the Secretary of State;

(7) Shall be the name under which the corporation shall conduct affairs in this State unless the corporation shall also elect to adopt an assumed corporate name or names as provided in this Act; provided, however, that the corporation may use any divisional designation or trade name without complying with the requirements of this Act, provided the corporation also clearly discloses its corporate name; and

(8) Shall not, as to any corporation organized or amending its corporate name on or after April 3, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-7) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, without the express written consent of the United States Olympic Committee, contain the words: (i) "Olympic"; (ii) "Olympiad"; (iii) "Paralympic"; (iv) "Paralympiad"; (v) "Citius Altius Fortius"; (vi) "CHICOG"; or (vii) "Chicago 2016".

(b) The Secretary of State shall determine whether a name is "distinguishable" from another name for purposes of this Act. Without excluding other names which may not constitute distinguishable names in this State, a name is not considered distinguishable, for purposes of this Act, solely because it contains one or more of the following:

(1) The word "corporation," "company," "incorporated," or "limited" or an abbreviation of one of such words;

(2) Articles, conjunctions, contractions, abbreviations, different tenses or number of the same word.

(c) Nothing in this Section or Sections 104.15 or 104.20 of this Act shall:

(1) Require any domestic corporation existing or any foreign corporation having authority to conduct affairs on the effective date of this Act, to modify or otherwise change its corporate name or assumed corporate name, if any; or

(2) Abrogate or limit the common law or statutory law of unfair competition or unfair trade practices, nor derogate from the common law or principles of equity or the statutes of this State or of the United States with respect to the right to acquire and protect copyrights, trade names, trade marks, service names, service marks, or any other right to the exclusive use of name or symbols.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-66, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-25-09.)

(805 ILCS 105/107.50) (from Ch. 32, par. 107.50)

Sec. 107.50. Proxies. A member entitled to vote may vote in person or, unless the articles of incorporation or bylaws explicitly prohibit, by proxy executed in writing by the member or by that member's duly authorized attorney-in-fact. No proxy shall be valid after 11 months from the date of its execution, unless otherwise provided in the proxy. Unless otherwise prohibited by the articles of incorporation or bylaws, the election of directors, officers, or representatives by members may be conducted by mail, e-mail email, or any other electronic means as set forth in subsection (a) of Section 107.10.

(Source: P.A. 96-648, eff. 10-1-09; 96-649, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-25-09.)

(805 ILCS 105/112.50) (from Ch. 32, par. 112.50)

Sec. 112.50. Grounds for judicial dissolution. A Circuit Court may dissolve a corporation:

(a) In an action by the Attorney General, if it is established that:

(1) the corporation filed its articles of incorporation through fraud; or

(2) the corporation has continued to exceed or abuse the authority conferred upon it by law, or has continued to violate the law, after notice of the same has been given to such corporation, either personally or by registered mail; or

(3) any interrogatory propounded by the Secretary of State to the corporation, its officers or directors, as provided in this Act, has been answered falsely or has not been answered fully within 30 days after the mailing of such interrogatories by the Secretary of State or within such extension of time as shall have been authorized by the Secretary of State;

(4) the corporation has solicited money and failed to use the money for the purpose which it was solicited, or has fraudulently solicited money or fraudulently used the money solicited; or

(5) the corporation has substantially and willfully violated the provisions of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(b) In an action by a member entitled to vote, or a director, if it is established that:

(1) the directors are deadlocked, whether because of even division in the number thereof or because of greater than majority voting requirements in the articles of incorporation or the bylaws, in the management of the corporate affairs; the members are unable to break the deadlock; and irreparable injury to the corporation is thereby caused or threatened;

(2) the directors or those in control of the corporation have acted, are acting, or will act in a manner that is illegal, oppressive or fraudulent;

(3) the corporate assets are being misapplied or wasted; or

(4) the corporation is unable to carry out its purposes.

(c) In an action by a creditor, if it is established that:

(1) the creditor's claim has been reduced to judgment, the judgment has been returned unsatisfied, and the corporation is insolvent; or

(2) the corporation has admitted in writing that the creditor's claim is due and owing, and the corporation is insolvent.

(d) In an action by the corporation to dissolve under court supervision, if it is established that the corporation is unable to carry out its purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-66, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 670. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Section 1-10 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-26 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Limited liability company name.

(a) The name of each limited liability company as set forth in its articles of organization:

(1) shall contain the terms "limited liability company", "L.L.C.", or "LLC", or, if organized as a low-profit limited liability company under Section 1-26 of this Act, shall contain the term "L3C";

(2) may not contain a word or phrase, or an abbreviation or derivation thereof, the use of which is prohibited or restricted by any other statute of this State unless the restriction has been complied with;

(3) shall consist of letters of the English alphabet, Arabic or Roman numerals, or symbols capable of being readily reproduced by the Office of the Secretary of State;

(4) shall not contain any of the following terms: "Corporation," "Corp.," "Incorporated," "Inc.," "Ltd.," "Co.," "Limited Partnership" or "L.P.";

(5) shall be the name under which the limited liability company transacts business in this State unless the limited liability company also elects to adopt an assumed name or names as provided in this Act; provided, however, that the limited liability company may use any divisional designation or trade name without complying with the requirements of this Act, provided the limited liability company also clearly discloses its name;

(6) shall not contain any word or phrase that indicates or implies that the limited liability company is authorized or empowered to be in the business of a corporate fiduciary unless otherwise permitted by the Commissioner of the Office of Banks and Real Estate under Section 1-9 of the Corporate Fiduciary Act. The word "trust", "trustee", or "fiduciary" may be used by a limited liability company only if it has first complied with Section 1-9 of the Corporate Fiduciary Act;

(7) shall contain the word "trust", if it is a limited liability company organized for the purpose of accepting and executing trusts; and

(8) shall not, as to any limited liability company organized or amending its company name on or after April 3, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-7) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, without the express written consent of the United States Olympic Committee, contain the words: (i) "Olympic"; (ii) "Olympiad"; (iii) "Paralympic"; (iv) "Paralympiad"; (v) "Citius Altius Fortius"; (vi) "CHICOG"; or (vii) "Chicago 2016".

(b) Nothing in this Section or Section 1-20 shall abrogate or limit the common law or statutory law of unfair competition or unfair trade practices, nor derogate from the common law or principles of equity or the statutes of this State or of the United States of America with respect to the right to acquire and protect copyrights, trade names, trademarks, service marks, service names, or any other right to the exclusive use of names or symbols.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The name shall be distinguishable upon the records in the Office of the Secretary of State from all of the following:

(1) Any limited liability company that has articles of organization filed with the Secretary of State under Section 5-5.

(2) Any foreign limited liability company admitted to transact business in this State.

(3) Any name for which an exclusive right has been reserved in the Office of the Secretary of State under Section 1-15.

(4) Any assumed name that is registered with the Secretary of State under Section 1-20.

(5) Any corporate name or assumed corporate name of a domestic or foreign corporation subject to the provisions of Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or Section 104.05 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986.

(e) The provisions of subsection (d) of this Section shall not apply if the organizer files with the Secretary of State a certified copy of a final decree of a court of competent jurisdiction establishing the prior right of the applicant to the use of that name in this State.

(f) The Secretary of State shall determine whether a name is "distinguishable" from another name for the purposes of this Act. Without excluding other names that may not constitute distinguishable names in this State, a name is not considered distinguishable, for purposes of this Act, solely because it contains one or more of the following:

(1) The word "limited", "liability" or "company" or an abbreviation of one of those words.

(2) Articles, conjunctions, contractions, abbreviations, or different tenses or number of the same word.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-126, eff. 1-1-10; revised 8-20-09.)

(805 ILCS 180/1-26)

Sec. 1-26. Low-profit limited liability company.

(a) A low-profit limited liability company shall at all times significantly further the accomplishment of one or more charitable or educational purposes within the meaning of Section 170(c)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 170(c)(2)(B), or its successor, and would not have been formed but for the relationship to the accomplishment of such charitable or educational purposes.

(b) A limited liability company which intends to qualify as a low-profit limited liability company pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall so indicate in its articles of organization, and further state that:

(1) no significant purpose of the company is the production of income or the appreciation of property; however, the fact that a person produces significant income or capital appreciation shall not, in the absence of other factors, be conclusive evidence of a significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property; and

(2) no purpose of the company is to accomplish one or more political or legislative purposes within the meaning of Section 170(c)(2)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 170(c)(2)(D), or its successor.

(c) A company that no longer satisfies the requirements of this Section 1-26 continues to exist as a limited liability company and shall promptly amend its articles of organization so that its name and purpose no longer identify it as a low-profit limited liability company or L3C.

(d) Any company operating or holding itself out as a low-profit limited liability company in Illinois, any company formed as a low-profit limited liability company under this Act, and any chief operating officer, director, or manager of any such company is a "trustee" as defined in Section 3 of the Charitable Trust Act.

(e) Nothing in this Section 1-26 prevents a limited liability company that is not organized under it from electing a charitable or educational purpose in whole or in part for doing business under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-126, eff. 1-1-10.)

(805 ILCS 180/1-28)

Sec. 1-28 1-26. Certificate of Registration; Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. This Section applies only to a limited liability company that intends to provide, or does provide, professional services that require the individuals engaged in the profession to be licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. A limited liability company covered by this Section shall not open, operate, or maintain an establishment for any of the purposes for which a limited liability company may be organized under this Act without obtaining a certificate of registration from the Department.

Application for such registration shall be made in writing and shall contain the name and address of the limited liability company and such other information as may be required by the Department. Upon receipt of such application, the Department shall make an investigation of the limited liability company. If the Department finds that the organizers, managers, and members are each licensed pursuant to the laws of Illinois to engage in the particular profession or related professions involved (except that an initial organizer may be a licensed attorney) and if no disciplinary action is pending before the Department against any of them and if it appears that the limited liability company will be conducted in compliance with the law and the rules and regulations of the Department, the Department shall issue, upon payment of a registration fee of $50, a certificate of registration.

Upon written application of the holder, the Department shall renew the certificate if it finds that the limited liability company has complied with its regulations and the provisions of this Act and the applicable licensing Act. This fee for the renewal of a certificate of registration shall be calculated at the rate of $40 per year. The certificate of registration shall be conspicuously posted upon the premises to which it is applicable, and the limited liability company shall have only those offices which are designated by street address in the articles of organization, or as changed by amendment of such articles. A certificate of registration shall not be assignable.

(Source: P.A. 96-679, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-16-09.)

Section 680. The Motor Vehicle Franchise Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(815 ILCS 710/9) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 759)

Sec. 9. Renewals; transfers.

(a) Anything to the contrary notwithstanding, it shall be unlawful for the manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor or franchiser without good cause, to fail to renew a franchise on terms then equally available to all its motor vehicle dealers, or to terminate a franchise or restrict the transfer of a franchise until the franchisee shall receive fair and reasonable compensation for the value of the business and business premises.

(b) For the purposes of this Section 9, the term "reasonable compensation" includes, but is not limited to all of the following items:

(1) An amount equal to the current, fair rental value of the portion of the motor vehicle dealer's established place of business that is used for motor vehicle sales and service with the manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor or franchiser for a period of one year beginning on the date of the nonrenewal, termination, or restriction on the transfer of the franchise.

(2) The franchisee's cost of each new undamaged and unsold current and prior year motor vehicles that were acquired within 12 months of termination and have 500 or fewer miles recorded on the odometer that are in the franchisee's inventory at the time of nonrenewal, termination, or restriction and that were purchased or acquired from the manufacturer or from another dealer of the same line make in the ordinary course of business.

(3) The franchisee's cost of each new, unused, undamaged, and unsold part or accessory that is in the current parts catalogue or is identical to a part or accessory in the current parts catalogue except for the number assigned to the part or accessory due to a change in the number after the purchase of the part or accessory and that is still in the original, resalable merchandising package and in an unbroken lot, except that, in the case of sheet metal, a comparable substitute for the original package may be used if the part or accessory was purchased (i) directly from the manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof or (ii) from an outgoing authorized dealer as a part of the dealer's initial inventory.

(4) The fair market value of each undamaged sign owned by the dealer that bears a trademark or trade name used or claimed by the manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof that was purchased as a requirement of the manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof.

(5) The fair market value of all special tools, data processing equipment, and automotive service equipment owned by the dealer that (i) were recommended in writing and designated as special tools and equipment, (ii) were purchased at the request of the manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof, and (iii) are in usable and good condition except for reasonable wear and tear.

(6) The cost of transporting, handling, packing, storing, and loading any property that is subject to repurchase under this Section.

This subsection (b) shall not apply to a non-renewal or termination that is implemented as a result of a sale of the assets or stock of the franchise.

(c) The payment under item (b)(1) is due in 12 equal, monthly installments, beginning 30 days after the franchise is terminated or nonrenewed. The payments under items (b)(2) through (b)(6) are due no later than 90 days after the franchise is terminated or nonrenewed. As a condition of payment under items (b)(2) through (b)(6), the motor vehicle dealer must comply with all reasonable requirements provided by the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler regarding the return of inventory.

If a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler does not reimburse the motor vehicle dealer for the amounts required under items (b)(2) through (b)(6) by the deadlines under this subsection (c), and the Board or, if agreed to under Section 12, the arbitrator, finds the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler in violation of this subsection, then the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler shall, in addition to any other amounts due, pay the motor vehicle dealer:

(1) interest on the amount due at a rate reasonable in light of commercial practices, determined by the Board or arbitrator; and

(2) reasonable attorney's fees and costs.

(3) reasonable attorney's fees and costs.

(Source: P.A. 96-11, eff. 5-22-09; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 685. The Beer Industry Fair Dealing Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 720/5) (from Ch. 43, par. 305)

Sec. 5. Prohibited conduct. No brewer shall:

(1) Induce or coerce, or attempt to induce or coerce, any wholesaler to engage in any illegal act or course of conduct either by threatening to amend, modify, cancel, terminate, or refuse to renew any agreement existing between the brewer and the wholesaler, or by any other means.

(2) Require a wholesaler to assent to any unreasonable requirement, condition, understanding or term or an agreement prohibiting a wholesaler from selling the product of any other brewer or brewers.

(3) Directly or indirectly fix or maintain the price at which a wholesaler may resell beer.

(4) Fail to provide to each wholesaler of its brands a written contract which embodies the brewer's agreement with its wholesalers and conforms to the provisions of this Act.

(5) Require any wholesaler to accept delivery of any beer, signs, advertising materials, or any other item or commodity which has not been ordered by the wholesaler, or require any wholesaler to accept a common carrier for delivery of beer into this State unless the wholesaler consents to the common carrier. In the event a brewer adopts a uniform practice of delivering beer into this State to the premises of all licensed wholesalers, the brewer may select the common carrier in this State.

(6) Require a wholesaler without the wholesaler's approval to participate in an arrangement for the payment or crediting by an electronic fund transfer transaction for any item or commodity other than beer or to access a wholesaler's account for any item or commodity other than beer.

(7) Require a wholesaler to assent to any requirement prohibiting the wholesaler from disposing, after notice to the brewer, of a product which has been deemed salvageable by a local or State health authority. Nothing herein shall prohibit the brewer from having the first right to purchase the salvageable product from the wholesaler at a price not to exceed the original cost of the product or to subsequently repurchase the product from the insurance company or salvage company.

(8) Refuse to approve or require a wholesaler to terminate a manager or successor manager without good cause. A brewer has good cause only if the person designated as manager or successor manager by the wholesaler fails to meet reasonable standards and qualifications.

(9) Present an agreement to a wholesaler that attempts to waive compliance with any provision of this Act or that requires the wholesaler to waive compliance with any provision of this Act. A wholesaler entering into an agreement containing provisions in conflict with this Act shall not be deemed to waive compliance with any provision of this Act. No brewer shall induce or coerce, or attempt to induce or coerce, any wholesaler to assent to any agreement, amendment, renewal, or replacement agreement that does not comply with this Act and the laws of this State.

(10) Terminate or attempt to terminate an agreement on the basis that the wholesaler refuses to purchase signs or advertising materials or any quantity or types thereof.

(11) Discriminate against a wholesaler who has entered into a contract relative to signs or advertising materials by not making signs or advertising materials or any quantity or types thereof available to the wholesaler when the brewer makes available such signs or advertising materials to other similarly situated wholesalers in this State.

(12) Present an agreement requiring the wholesaler to arbitrate all disputes without offering the wholesaler in writing the opportunity to reject arbitration and elect to resolve all disputes by maintaining a civil suit in accordance with this Act.

(13) Fail to assign brand extensions to a wholesaler who has been granted the territory to the brand from which the brand extension resulted and agrees to accept the brand extension; however, this requirement does not apply if the wholesaler is not in compliance with the agreement at the time the brewer offers the brand extension to the wholesaler.

(14) Terminate, cancel, or non-renew or attempt to terminate, cancel, or non-renew an agreement on the basis that the wholesaler fails to agree or consent to an amendment at the time such amendment is presented to the wholesaler. A brewer may amend an agreement including operating standards at any time without the wholesaler's consent if such amendment does not materially, substantially, and adversely affect the wholesaler and such amendment is effective as to all wholesalers of the brewer in the State.

(15) Coerce or attempt to coerce a transferring wholesaler to sign a renewal agreement, replacement agreement, or an amendment to an agreement by threatening to refuse to approve or delay issuing an approval for the sale or transfer of a wholesaler's business.

The agreement must provide in substance that the agreement shall be governed by all applicable provisions of State law, and that such State law is incorporated into the agreement, shall be deemed to be a part thereof, and shall supersede supercede any provision of the agreement in conflict with such State law. If an agreement presented to the wholesaler does not provide this provision in substance the brewer must furnish an executed Illinois addendum to the wholesaler stating that the agreement shall be governed by all applicable provisions of State law, and that such State law is incorporated into the agreement, shall be deemed to be a part hereof, shall supersede supercede any provision of the agreement in conflict with such State law, and shall govern and control.

No brewer who, pursuant to an agreement with a wholesaler which does not violate antitrust laws, has designated a sales territory for which the wholesaler is exclusively responsible or in which the wholesaler is required to concentrate its efforts, shall enter into an agreement with any other wholesaler for the purpose of establishing an additional wholesaler for the brewer's brand, brands, or brand extension in the territory.

No wholesaler who, pursuant to an agreement is granted a sales territory for which it shall be exclusively responsible or in which it is required to concentrate its efforts, shall make any sale or delivery of beer to any retail licensee whose place of business is not within the territory granted to the wholesaler.

(Source: P.A. 95-240, eff. 8-17-07; 96-662, eff. 8-25-09; revised 10-30-09.)

Section 690. The Right to Privacy in the Workplace Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(820 ILCS 55/12)

Sec. 12. Use of Employment Eligibility Verification Systems.

(a) Prior to choosing to voluntarily enroll in any Electronic Employment Verification System, including the E-Verify program and the Basic Pilot program, as authorized by 8 U.S.C. 1324a, Notes, Pilot Programs for Employment Eligibility Confirmation (enacted by P.L. 104-208, div. C, title IV, subtitle A), employers are urged to consult the Illinois Department of Labor's website for current information on the accuracy of E-Verify and to review and understand an employer's legal responsibilities relating to the use of the voluntary E-Verify program.

(a-1) The Illinois Department of Labor (IDOL) shall post on its website information or links to information from the United States Government Accountability Office, Westat, or a similar reliable source independent of the Department of Homeland Security regarding: (1) the accuracy of the E-Verify databases; (2) the approximate financial burden and expenditure of time that use of E-Verify requires from employers; and (3) an overview of an employer's responsibilities under federal and state law relating to the use of E-Verify.

(b) Upon initial enrollment in an Employment Eligibility Verification System or within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, an employer enrolled in E-Verify or any other Employment Eligibility Verification System must attest, under penalty of perjury, on a form prescribed by the IDOL available on the IDOL website:

(1) that the employer has received the Basic Pilot or E-Verify training materials from the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), and that all employees who will administer the program have completed the Basic Pilot or E-Verify Computer Based Tutorial (CBT); and

(2) that the employer has posted the notice from DHS indicating that the employer is enrolled in the Basic Pilot or E-Verify program and the anti-discrimination notice issued by the Office of Special Counsel for Immigration-Related Unfair Employment Practices (OSC), Civil Rights Division, U.S. Department of Justice in a prominent place that is clearly visible to both prospective and current employees. The employer must maintain the signed original of the attestation form prescribed by the IDOL, as well as all CBT certificates of completion and make them available for inspection or copying by the IDOL at any reasonable time.

(c) It is a violation of this Act for an employer enrolled in an Employment Eligibility Verification System, including the E-Verify program and the Basic Pilot program:

(1) to fail to display the notices supplied by DHS and OSC in a prominent place that is clearly visible to both prospective and current employees;

(2) to allow any employee to use an Employment Eligibility Verification System prior to having completed CBT;

(3) to fail to take reasonable steps to prevent an employee from circumventing the requirement to complete the CBT by assuming another employee's E-Verify or Basic Pilot user identification or password;

(4) to use the Employment Eligibility Verification System to verify the employment eligibility of job applicants prior to hiring or to otherwise use the Employment Eligibility Verification System to screen individuals prior to hiring and prior to the completion of a Form I-9;

(5) to terminate an employee or take any other adverse employment action against an individual prior to receiving a final nonconfirmation notice from the Social Security Administration or the Department of Homeland Security;

(6) to fail to notify an individual, in writing, of the employer's receipt of a tentative nonconfirmation notice, of the individual's right to contest the tentative nonconfirmation notice, and of the contact information for the relevant government agency or agencies that the individual must contact to resolve the tentative nonconfirmation notice;

(7) to fail to safeguard the information contained in the Employment Eligibility Verification System, and the means of access to the system (such as passwords and other privacy protections). An employer shall ensure that the System is not used for any purpose other than employment verification of newly hired employees and shall ensure that the information contained in the System and the means of access to the System are not disseminated to any person other than employees who need such information and access to perform the employer's employment verification responsibilities. ;

(c-1) Any claim that an employer refused to hire, segregated, or acted with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal or employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges, or conditions of employment without following the procedures of the Employment Eligibility Verification System, including the Basic Pilot and E-Verify programs, may be brought under paragraph (G)(2) of Section 2-102 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. ;

(c-2) It is a violation of this Section for an individual to falsely pose as an employer in order to enroll in an Employment Eligibility Verification System or for an employer to use an Employment Eligibility Verification System to access information regarding an individual who is not an employee of the employer.

(d) Preemption. Neither the State nor any of its political subdivisions, nor any unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may require any employer to use an Employment Eligibility Verification System, including under the following circumstances:

(1) as a condition of receiving a government contract;

(2) as a condition of receiving a business license; or

(3) as penalty for violating licensing or other similar laws.

This subsection (d) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 95-138, eff. 1-1-08; 96-623, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-4-09.)

Section 695. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-2)

Sec. 2. This Act applies to the wages of laborers, mechanics and other workers employed in any public works, as hereinafter defined, by any public body and to anyone under contracts for public works. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

As used in this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise:

"Public works" means all fixed works constructed or demolished by any public body, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" as defined herein includes all projects financed in whole or in part with bonds, grants, loans, or other funds made available by or through the State or any of its political subdivisions, including but not limited to: bonds issued under the Industrial Project Revenue Bond Act (Article 11, Division 74 of the Illinois Municipal Code), the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act, the Illinois Finance Authority Act, the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, or the Build Illinois Bond Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Build Illinois Act; or funds from the Fund for Illinois' Future under Section 6z-47 of the State Finance Act, funds for school construction under Section 5 of the General Obligation Bond Act, funds authorized under Section 3 of the School Construction Bond Act, funds for school infrastructure under Section 6z-45 of the State Finance Act, and funds for transportation purposes under Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act. "Public works" also includes all projects financed in whole or in part with funds from the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under the Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act for which there is no project labor agreement. "Public works" also includes all projects at leased facility property used for airport purposes under Section 35 of the Local Government Facility Lease Act. "Public works" also includes the construction of a new wind power facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act. "Public works" does not include work done directly by any public utility company, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" does not include projects undertaken by the owner at an owner-occupied single-family residence or at an owner-occupied unit of a multi-family residence.

"Construction" means all work on public works involving laborers, workers or mechanics. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

"Locality" means the county where the physical work upon public works is performed, except (1) that if there is not available in the county a sufficient number of competent skilled laborers, workers and mechanics to construct the public works efficiently and properly, "locality" includes any other county nearest the one in which the work or construction is to be performed and from which such persons may be obtained in sufficient numbers to perform the work and (2) that, with respect to contracts for highway work with the Department of Transportation of this State, "locality" may at the discretion of the Secretary of the Department of Transportation be construed to include two or more adjacent counties from which workers may be accessible for work on such construction.

"Public body" means the State or any officer, board or commission of the State or any political subdivision or department thereof, or any institution supported in whole or in part by public funds, and includes every county, city, town, village, township, school district, irrigation, utility, reclamation improvement or other district and every other political subdivision, district or municipality of the state whether such political subdivision, municipality or district operates under a special charter or not.

The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages", "general prevailing rate of wages" or "prevailing rate of wages" when used in this Act mean the hourly cash wages plus fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works.

(Source: P.A. 95-341, eff. 8-21-07; 96-28, eff. 7-1-09; 96-58, eff. 1-1-10; 96-186, eff. 1-1-10; revised 8-20-09.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.