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Rep. Lou Lang
Filed: 5/28/2015
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1 | | AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 33
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2 | | AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 33 by replacing |
3 | | everything after the enacting clause with the following:
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4 | | "Section 5. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot |
5 | | Program Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows: |
6 | | (410 ILCS 130/10) |
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
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8 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. The following terms, as used in this |
9 | | Act, shall have the meanings set forth in this Section:
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10 | | (a) "Adequate supply" means:
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11 | | (1) 2.5 ounces of usable cannabis during a period of 14 |
12 | | days and that is derived solely from an intrastate source.
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13 | | (2) Subject to the rules of the Department of Public |
14 | | Health, a patient may apply for a waiver where a physician |
15 | | provides a substantial medical basis in a signed, written |
16 | | statement asserting that, based on the patient's medical |
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1 | | history, in the physician's professional judgment, 2.5 |
2 | | ounces is an insufficient adequate supply for a 14-day |
3 | | period to properly alleviate the patient's debilitating |
4 | | medical condition or symptoms associated with the |
5 | | debilitating medical condition.
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6 | | (3) This subsection may not be construed to authorize |
7 | | the possession of more than 2.5 ounces at any time without |
8 | | authority from the Department of Public Health.
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9 | | (4) The pre-mixed weight of medical cannabis used in |
10 | | making a cannabis infused product shall apply toward the |
11 | | limit on the total amount of medical cannabis a registered |
12 | | qualifying patient may possess at any one time. |
13 | | (b) "Cannabis" has the meaning given that term in Section 3 |
14 | | of the Cannabis Control Act.
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15 | | (c) "Cannabis plant monitoring system" means a system that |
16 | | includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection |
17 | | established and maintained by the registered cultivation |
18 | | center and available to the Department for the purposes of |
19 | | documenting each cannabis plant and for monitoring plant |
20 | | development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant |
21 | | cultivated for the intended use by a qualifying patient from |
22 | | seed planting to final packaging.
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23 | | (d) "Cardholder" means a qualifying patient or a designated |
24 | | caregiver who has been issued and possesses a valid registry |
25 | | identification card by the Department of Public Health.
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26 | | (e) "Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an |
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1 | | organization or business that is registered by the Department |
2 | | of Agriculture to perform necessary activities to provide only |
3 | | registered medical cannabis dispensing organizations with |
4 | | usable medical cannabis.
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5 | | (f) "Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer, |
6 | | board member, employee, or agent of a registered cultivation |
7 | | center who is 21 years of age or older and has not been |
8 | | convicted of an excluded offense.
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9 | | (g) "Cultivation center agent identification card" means a |
10 | | document issued by the Department of Agriculture that |
11 | | identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.
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12 | | (h) "Debilitating medical condition" means one or more of |
13 | | the following: |
14 | | (1) cancer, glaucoma, positive status for human |
15 | | immunodeficiency virus, acquired immune deficiency |
16 | | syndrome, hepatitis C, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, |
17 | | Crohn's disease, agitation of Alzheimer's disease, |
18 | | cachexia/wasting syndrome, muscular dystrophy, severe |
19 | | fibromyalgia, spinal cord disease, including but not |
20 | | limited to arachnoiditis, Tarlov cysts, hydromyelia, |
21 | | syringomyelia, Rheumatoid arthritis, fibrous dysplasia, |
22 | | spinal cord injury, traumatic brain injury and |
23 | | post-concussion syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, |
24 | | Arnold-Chiari malformation and Syringomyelia, |
25 | | Spinocerebellar Ataxia (SCA), Parkinson's, Tourette's, |
26 | | Myoclonus, Dystonia, Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy, RSD |
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1 | | (Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type I), Causalgia, CRPS |
2 | | (Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type II), |
3 | | Neurofibromatosis, Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating |
4 | | Polyneuropathy, Sjogren's syndrome, Lupus, Interstitial |
5 | | Cystitis, Myasthenia Gravis, Hydrocephalus, nail-patella |
6 | | syndrome, residual limb pain, post-traumatic stress |
7 | | disorder, seizures (including those characteristic of |
8 | | epilepsy), or the treatment of these conditions; or
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9 | | (2) any other debilitating medical condition or its |
10 | | treatment that is added by the Department of Public Health |
11 | | by rule as provided in Section 45. |
12 | | (i) "Designated caregiver" means a person who: (1) is at |
13 | | least 21 years of age; (2) has agreed to assist with a |
14 | | patient's medical use of cannabis; (3) has not been convicted |
15 | | of an excluded offense; and (4) assists no more than one |
16 | | registered qualifying patient with his or her medical use of |
17 | | cannabis.
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18 | | (j) "Dispensing organization agent identification card" |
19 | | means a document issued by the Department of Financial and |
20 | | Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a medical |
21 | | cannabis dispensing organization agent.
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22 | | (k) "Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, |
23 | | building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other |
24 | | security devices that permit access only by a cultivation |
25 | | center's agents or a dispensing organization's agent working |
26 | | for the registered cultivation center or the registered |
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1 | | dispensing organization to cultivate, store, and distribute |
2 | | cannabis for registered qualifying patients.
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3 | | (l) "Excluded offense" means:
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4 | | (1) a violent crime defined in Section 3 of the Rights |
5 | | of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or a substantially |
6 | | similar offense that was classified as a felony in the |
7 | | jurisdiction where the person was convicted; or
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8 | | (2) a violation of a state or federal controlled |
9 | | substance law that was classified as a felony in the |
10 | | jurisdiction where the person was convicted, except that |
11 | | the registering Department may waive this restriction if |
12 | | the person demonstrates to the registering Department's |
13 | | satisfaction that his or her conviction was for the |
14 | | possession, cultivation, transfer, or delivery of a |
15 | | reasonable amount of cannabis intended for medical use. |
16 | | This exception does not apply if the conviction was under |
17 | | state law and involved a violation of an existing medical |
18 | | cannabis law.
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19 | | (m) "Medical cannabis cultivation center registration" |
20 | | means a registration issued by the Department of Agriculture. |
21 | | (n) "Medical cannabis container" means a sealed, |
22 | | traceable, food compliant, tamper resistant, tamper evident |
23 | | container, or package used for the purpose of containment of |
24 | | medical cannabis from a cultivation center to a dispensing |
25 | | organization.
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26 | | (o) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization", or |
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1 | | "dispensing organization", or "dispensary organization" means |
2 | | a facility operated by an organization or business that is |
3 | | registered by the Department of Financial and Professional |
4 | | Regulation to acquire medical cannabis from a registered |
5 | | cultivation center for the purpose of dispensing cannabis, |
6 | | paraphernalia, or related supplies and educational materials |
7 | | to registered qualifying patients.
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8 | | (p) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization agent" or |
9 | | "dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer, |
10 | | board member, employee, or agent of a registered medical |
11 | | cannabis dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or |
12 | | older and has not been convicted of an excluded offense.
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13 | | (q) "Medical cannabis infused product" means food, oils, |
14 | | ointments, or other products containing usable cannabis that |
15 | | are not smoked.
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16 | | (r) "Medical use" means the acquisition; administration; |
17 | | delivery; possession; transfer; transportation; or use of |
18 | | cannabis to treat or alleviate a registered qualifying |
19 | | patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms |
20 | | associated with the patient's debilitating medical condition.
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21 | | (s) "Physician" means a doctor of medicine or doctor of |
22 | | osteopathy licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to |
23 | | practice medicine and who has a controlled substances license |
24 | | under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. It |
25 | | does not include a licensed practitioner under any other Act |
26 | | including but not limited to the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
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1 | | (t) "Qualifying patient" means a person who has been |
2 | | diagnosed by a physician as having a debilitating medical |
3 | | condition.
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4 | | (u) "Registered" means licensed, permitted, or otherwise |
5 | | certified by the Department of Agriculture, Department of |
6 | | Public Health, or Department of Financial and Professional |
7 | | Regulation.
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8 | | (v) "Registry identification card" means a document issued |
9 | | by the Department of Public Health that identifies a person as |
10 | | a registered qualifying patient or registered designated |
11 | | caregiver.
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12 | | (w) "Usable cannabis" means the seeds, leaves, buds, and |
13 | | flowers of the cannabis plant and any mixture or preparation |
14 | | thereof, but does not include the stalks, and roots of the |
15 | | plant. It does not include the weight of any non-cannabis |
16 | | ingredients combined with cannabis, such as ingredients added |
17 | | to prepare a topical administration, food, or drink.
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18 | | (x) "Verification system" means a Web-based system |
19 | | established and maintained by the Department of Public Health |
20 | | that is available to the Department of Agriculture, the |
21 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, law |
22 | | enforcement personnel, and registered medical cannabis |
23 | | dispensing organization agents on a 24-hour basis for the |
24 | | verification of registry
identification cards, the tracking of |
25 | | delivery of medical cannabis to medical cannabis dispensing |
26 | | organizations, and the tracking of the date of sale, amount, |
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1 | | and price of medical cannabis purchased by a registered |
2 | | qualifying patient.
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3 | | (y) "Written certification" means a document dated and |
4 | | signed by a physician, stating (1) that in the physician's |
5 | | professional opinion the patient is likely to receive |
6 | | therapeutic or palliative benefit from the medical use of |
7 | | cannabis to treat or alleviate the patient's debilitating |
8 | | medical condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating |
9 | | medical condition; (2) that the qualifying patient has a |
10 | | debilitating medical condition and specifying the debilitating |
11 | | medical condition the qualifying patient has; and (3) that the |
12 | | patient is under the physician's care for the debilitating |
13 | | medical condition. A written certification shall be made only |
14 | | in the course of a bona fide physician-patient relationship, |
15 | | after the physician has completed an assessment of the |
16 | | qualifying patient's medical history, reviewed relevant |
17 | | records related to the patient's debilitating condition, and |
18 | | conducted a physical examination. |
19 | | A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital shall |
20 | | be deemed to have a bona fide physician-patient relationship |
21 | | with a VA physician if the patient has been seen for his or her |
22 | | debilitating medical condition at the VA Hospital in accordance |
23 | | with VA Hospital protocols. |
24 | | A bona fide physician-patient relationship under this |
25 | | subsection is a privileged communication within the meaning of |
26 | | Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-775, eff. 1-1-15 .) |
2 | | Section 10. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is |
3 | | amended by changing Section 1.1 as follows:
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4 | | (430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)
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5 | | Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:
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6 | | "Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been: |
7 | | (1) convicted of an offense involving the use or |
8 | | possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or |
9 | | methamphetamine within the past year; or |
10 | | (2) determined by the Department of State Police to be |
11 | | addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal |
12 | | guidelines. |
13 | | "Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use |
14 | | of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and |
15 | | authority of a physician or other person authorized to |
16 | | prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled |
17 | | substance is used in the prescribed manner. |
18 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, federal |
19 | | law, or federal guidelines, the determination of whether a |
20 | | person is addicted to narcotics shall not be based on the |
21 | | status of the person as a registered qualifying patient or |
22 | | registered caregiver under the Compassionate Use of Medical |
23 | | Cannabis Pilot Program Act. |
24 | | "Adjudicated as a mentally disabled person" means the |
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1 | | person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, |
2 | | commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a |
3 | | result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, |
4 | | mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease: |
5 | | (1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, |
6 | | herself, or to others; |
7 | | (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own |
8 | | affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in |
9 | | Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975; |
10 | | (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of |
11 | | insanity, mental disease or defect; |
12 | | (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in |
13 | | Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections; |
14 | | (4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case; |
15 | | (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental |
16 | | responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform |
17 | | Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;
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18 | | (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) |
19 | | of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment |
20 | | Act; |
21 | | (7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually |
22 | | Dangerous Persons Act; |
23 | | (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court |
24 | | Act of 1987; |
25 | | (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the |
26 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987; |
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1 | | (10) is subject to involuntary admission as an |
2 | | inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health |
3 | | and Developmental Disabilities Code; |
4 | | (11) is subject to involuntary admission as an |
5 | | outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental |
6 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; |
7 | | (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in |
8 | | Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental |
9 | | Disabilities Code; or |
10 | | (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate |
11 | | Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act. |
12 | | "Clear and present danger" means a person who: |
13 | | (1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence |
14 | | against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear |
15 | | and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, |
16 | | herself, or another person as determined by a physician, |
17 | | clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or |
18 | | (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal |
19 | | behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive |
20 | | threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a |
21 | | physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, |
22 | | school administrator, or law enforcement official. |
23 | | "Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in |
24 | | Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental |
25 | | Disabilities Code. |
26 | | "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or |
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1 | | controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois |
2 | | Controlled Substances Act. |
3 | | "Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal |
4 | | authority, with
intent
to deceive. |
5 | | "Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is |
6 | | attributable to any other condition which results in impairment |
7 | | similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which |
8 | | requires services similar to those required by intellectually |
9 | | disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age |
10 | | of 18
years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and |
11 | | constitute a substantial handicap. |
12 | | "Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is |
13 | | licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the |
14 | | federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
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15 | | "Firearm" means any device, by
whatever name known, which |
16 | | is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles
by the action |
17 | | of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,
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18 | | however:
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19 | | (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or |
20 | | B-B gun which
expels a single globular projectile not |
21 | | exceeding .18 inch in
diameter or which has a maximum |
22 | | muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet
per second;
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23 | | (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or |
24 | | B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing |
25 | | washable marking colors;
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26 | | (2) any device used exclusively for signalling or |
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1 | | safety and required or
recommended by the United States |
2 | | Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce
Commission;
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3 | | (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud |
4 | | cartridges,
explosive rivets or similar industrial |
5 | | ammunition; and
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6 | | (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) |
7 | | which, although
designed as a weapon, the Department of |
8 | | State Police finds by reason of
the date of its |
9 | | manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is
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10 | | primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used |
11 | | as a weapon.
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12 | | "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or |
13 | | shotgun
shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be |
14 | | used or adaptable to
use in a firearm; excluding, however:
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15 | | (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a |
16 | | device used
exclusively for signalling or safety and |
17 | | required or recommended by the
United States Coast Guard or |
18 | | the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
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19 | | (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a |
20 | | stud or rivet
driver or other similar industrial |
21 | | ammunition. |
22 | | "Gun show" means an event or function: |
23 | | (1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the |
24 | | regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more |
25 | | firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, |
26 | | transfer, or exchange; or |
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1 | | (2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, |
2 | | offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange |
3 | | firearms.
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4 | | "Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an |
5 | | event or function, including parking areas for the event or |
6 | | function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, |
7 | | transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
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8 | | "Gun show" does not include training or safety classes, |
9 | | competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun |
10 | | matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, |
11 | | banquets, raffles, or
any other event where the sale or |
12 | | transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business. |
13 | | "Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or |
14 | | operates a gun show. |
15 | | "Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, |
16 | | offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun |
17 | | show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show |
18 | | promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, |
19 | | offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm. |
20 | | "Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage |
21 | | general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently |
22 | | with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates |
23 | | before the age of 18 years. |
24 | | "Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in |
25 | | Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and |
26 | | Developmental Disabilities Code. |
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1 | | "Mental health facility" means any licensed private |
2 | | hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or |
3 | | part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by |
4 | | the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide |
5 | | treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all |
6 | | hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, |
7 | | mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care |
8 | | facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide |
9 | | treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the |
10 | | primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental |
11 | | illness. |
12 | | "Patient" means: |
13 | | (1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health |
14 | | treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or |
15 | | private mental health facility, unless the treatment was |
16 | | solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary |
17 | | substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or |
18 | | (2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health |
19 | | treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a |
20 | | public or private mental health facility, and who poses a |
21 | | clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others. |
22 | | "Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of |
23 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. |
24 | | "Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section |
25 | | 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. |
26 | | "Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting |
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1 | | contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting |
2 | | sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice |
3 | | conducted in conjunction with the event.
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4 | | "School administrator" means the person required to report |
5 | | under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear |
6 | | and Present Danger Determinations Law. |
7 | | "Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
8 | | Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. |
9 | | (Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; |
10 | | 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.) |
11 | | Section 15. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by |
12 | | changing Section 25 as follows: |
13 | | (430 ILCS 66/25)
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14 | | Sec. 25. Qualifications for a license. |
15 | | The Department shall issue a license to an applicant |
16 | | completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of this |
17 | | Act if the person: |
18 | | (1) is at least 21 years of age; |
19 | | (2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's |
20 | | Identification Card and at the time of application meets |
21 | | the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's |
22 | | Identification Card and is not prohibited under the Firearm |
23 | | Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from |
24 | | possessing or receiving a firearm; |
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1 | | (3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this |
2 | | State or in any other state of: |
3 | | (A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of |
4 | | physical force or violence to any person within the 5 |
5 | | years preceding the date of the license application; or |
6 | | (B) 2 or more violations related to driving while |
7 | | under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, |
8 | | intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination |
9 | | thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the |
10 | | license application; |
11 | | (4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant, |
12 | | prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that |
13 | | could lead to disqualification to own or possess a firearm; |
14 | | (5) has not been in residential or court-ordered |
15 | | treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug |
16 | | treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the date |
17 | | of the license application; and |
18 | | (6) has completed firearms training and any education |
19 | | component required under Section 75 of this Act ; and .
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20 | | (7) is not a registered qualifying patient under the |
21 | | Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. |
22 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
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23 | | Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon |
24 | | becoming law.".
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